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2206080a-db6e-484e-a1da-7776cfbfb907 | Superior orbital fissure-
Present between lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid within the orbital cavity. | Anatomy | null | A patient got trauma and a metal rod inserted in superior orbital fissure causes damage of?
A. Occulomotor nerve
B. Occulomotor and ophthalmic nerve
C. Only ophthalmic nerve
D. Trochlear and vagus nerve
| Occulomotor and ophthalmic nerve |
82b0de7a-8e54-4c49-a872-9170f2d7b599 | Answer- C. Mean circulatory filling pressureMean Circulatory Filling pressure (MCFP) is equilibrium pressure that is reached throughout the cardiovascular system when cardiac output is stopped completely. MCFP can be measured by stopping blood flow (e.g., by stopping hea pumping by giving shock to hea with electricity) and allowing the pressure throughout the circulatory system to reach equilibrium. MCFP is equilibrium pressure everywhere in circulation. | Physiology | null | Which of the following defines the pressure in the vascular system in the absence of blood flow?
A. Pulse pressure
B. Critical closing pressure
C. Mean circulatory filling pressure
D. Perfusion pressure
| Mean circulatory filling pressure |
52d643b9-6455-43f0-a04e-a838bf1ba1c8 | ASD usually does not cause HF.
AS & PDA increase the strain on left ventricle -> LVF.
PS increases the strain on right ventricular failure ---> RVF. | Pediatrics | null | Pure left sided failure may be seen with –a) ASDb) Aortic stenosisc) Patent ductus arteriosusd) Pulmonary valvular obstruction
A. a
B. c
C. bc
D. ad
| bc |
f80230e3-6a41-4a2d-81a0-86cacead9dcf | Ans: A. AspergillosisRef: Yanoff & Duker 4/e p225; Parson 22/e p203, 21/e p199)Finding suggestive of fungal corneal ulcer. In the question, Aspergillus is the only fungus.Mycotic or fungal keratitis:Commonly due to Aspergillus, Fusarium or Candida albicans.Fungal ulcers are typically seen after injury with vegetable matter such as a thorn or wooden stick and are characterized by a relatively indolent course.Symptoms are much milder than the clinical signs would suggest.Dry slough with feathery borders, surrounded by a yellow line of demarcation, which gradually deepens into a gutter.An immune ring (Wessely) may be visible due to deposition of immune complexes and inflammatory cells around the ulcer.Marked ciliary and conjunctival congestion.Hypopyon is thick and immobile - Due to direct invasion into the anterior chamber of fungal hyphae enmeshed in thick exudates. | Ophthalmology | null | A 33 years old male came with pain and watering in the right eye for 36 hours. On examination, a 3 x 2 cm corneal ulcer is seen with elevated margins, feathery hyphae, finger like projections and minimal hypopyon in cornea. What is the likely causative organism?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Pseudomonas
C. Acanthamoeba
D. HSV-1
| Aspergillosis |
4d936cfe-6c83-463a-944c-0069a8f5f11c | Ans: B. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid(Ref: Robbin's 9/e p1094, 8/e p1123).FNAC:Not enough to diagnose follicular carcinoma.Since follicular carcinoma is differentiated from follicular adenoma based on capsular invasion & vascular invasion (not diagnosed by FNAC).Limitations of FNAC in Thyroid Diseases:Not able to distinguish follicular adenoma from follicular carcinoma.Not able to distinguish Huhle cell adenoma from Huhle cell carcinomaUseless in Reidel's thyroiditis (Biopsy is preferred).FNAC is less reliable in patients who have a history of head & neck irradiation or family history of thyroid cancer due to the higher likelihood of multifocal lesions & occult cancer. | Surgery | null | Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is not enough to diagnose:
A. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
B. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
C. Carcinoma breast
D. Adenocarcinoma lung
| Follicular carcinoma of thyroid |
0c879562-cc36-4620-a809-fd26c1275a47 | Answer- B. Weheim's hysterectomyRadical or Weheim's hysterectomy is associated with the highest risk of ureteric injury. The risk of ureteral injury at vaginal hysterectomy is higher (0.6%) than with an open abdominal approach (0.07%). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Maximum risk of ureter injury is seen after:
A. Vaginal hysterectomy
B. Weheim's hysterectomy
C. Laparoscopic abdominal hysterectomy
D. Anterior colporrhaphy
| Weheim's hysterectomy |
c6f3ec1d-e3d8-4677-a31d-8a6450e9e5de | Option A: In interalveolar septa There is presence of Irregular lobulated fusiform beaded bodies Ferruginous bodies- Diagnostic of asbestosis Pleural thickening Option B: Cotton Fiber-Byssinosis Option C: Coal worker pneumoconiosis Pleural thickening manifestation not seen. Option D: Silicosis is associated with Bilateral HilarLymphederopathy & development of infiltrative lung disease. | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | A 45 year patient working in a factory for past 20 years presents with breathlessness. HRCT chest shows pleural thickening and fibrosis. Histopathology of the lesion shows?
A. Asbestosis
B. Cotton fiber
C. Coal worker pneumoconiosis
D. Silicosis
| Asbestosis |
641fe4d1-8fc4-4393-ada9-0f1fc1c25462 | Ans: A. ThelarcheThe first physical sign of pubey in girls is usually a firm, tender lump under the center of the areola of one or both breasts; occurring on average at about 10.5 years of age. This is referred to as thelarche.Order of Signs of PubeyMales (TPAM)Females (TPM)Testicular enlargement (First sign)degPubarchedegAdrenarchedegMoustache & BearddegThelarche (First sign)degPubarchedegMenarchedeg Onset of PubeyMalesFemalesGrowth of testes ( 24 mL in volume or 2.5 cm in longest diameter) & thinning of scrotum are first signs of pubey (11- 12 year)deg.These are followed by pigmentation of scrotum & growth of penis & by pubarchedeg.Appearance of axillary hair usually occurs in mid-pubeydeg.In males, unlike in females, acceleration of growth is maximal at genital stages IV-V (typically between 13 & 14 years of age)deg.In males, growth spu occurs approximately 2 year later than in females & growth may continue beyond 18 years of agedeg.Breast development (thelarche) is usually first sign of pubey (10-11 years of age)Followed by the appearance of pubic hair (pubarche) 6-12 months laterdeg.Interval to the onset of menstrual activity (menarche) is usually 2-2.5 years, but may be as long as 6 yearsdeg.Peak height velocity occurs early (at breast stages 11-81 typically between 11-12 years of age) in girls and always precedes menarchedeg.Mean age of menarche is approximately 12.75 yearsdeg. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the first sign of pubey in a girl?
A. Thelarche
B. Menarche
C. Adrenarche
D. Pubarche
| Thelarche |
bb0813aa-65ec-4eb5-8101-76df41f138e5 | EDTA- it is an anticoagulant that is preferred when we want to look at the morphology or we want to do any of the blood counts. Sodium fluoride - it inhibits enolase enzyme thus inhibits glycolysis process , so it is used for glucose estimation . Citrate - 3.2%Trisodium citrate - it is used for the determining the value of ESR and is also used for doing any kind of coagulation study. All the three (sodium EDTA, sodium fluoride, trisodium citrate) above use sodium. therefore, if we use any of these chemicals for the purpose of Serum Electrolyte measurement, the value of sodium and other electrolytes are going to be altered. So WHO recommends that for the purpose of Serum Electrolyte measurement we use an anticoagulant Lithium Heparin. It doesn't cause any alterations in the serum electrolytes. | Pathology | AIIMS 2017 | Which is the best anticoagulant to send sample for serum electrolyte measurement?
A. EDTA
B. Lithium heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Citrate
| Lithium heparin |
e068fa99-4331-4dbd-b6f8-ae387f5bae10 | Remember :
Best way of prevention = Active immunization = TT
Best passive immunization = Antitoxin = Human tetanus immunoglobulin. | Microbiology | null | The most effective way of preventing tetanus is :
A. Surgical debridement and toilet
B. Hyperbaric oxygen
C. Antibiotics
D. Tetanus toxoid
| Tetanus toxoid |
f170a504-a8b2-4de8-9fe9-6a700e40d8c3 | Desquamative gingivitis represents oral manifestations of various diseases like
Lichen pLanus (Erosive or atrophic form),
Cicatrialpemphigold or Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
pemphigus. | Pathology | null | Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following
A. Monilial gingivitis
B. Desquamative gingivitis
C. Herpetic gingivitis
D. Acute ulcerative gingivitis
| Desquamative gingivitis |
3754573b-da5e-4350-9604-2bff0e3a30b3 | Ans: A: Reassure the parents and follow up after 6 monthsExplanation:(Ref: Nelson 20Ie p2585; Ghai 8/e p504)Bed-wetting is normal till 5 years of age.In a child with only night-time bed wetting, when urinalysis (to rule out infections) and urine osmolality (to rule out diabetes) are normal, only regular follow up is required.Treatment:To reassure the child and parents that the condition is self-limited and to avoid punitive measures that can affect the child's psychologic development adversely.Fluid intake should be restricted to 2 oz after 6 or 7 pm.Parents should be ceain that the child voids at bedtime.Avoiding extraneous sugar and caffeine after 4 pm also is beneficial.If the child snores and the adenoids are enlarged, referral to an otolarvngologist should be considered, because adenoidectomv can cure the enuresis. | Pediatrics | null | A 6 years male child comes with complaints of bedwetting. The child is continent during the day and problem is only at night. Growth and development of the child were normal. Urine microscopy is normal and urine specific gravity was 1.020. How will you manage?
A. Reassure the parents and follow up after 6 months
B. Refer to psychiatrist
C. Complete blood counts
D. Ultrasound-KUB
| Reassure the parents and follow up after 6 months |
b7a77489-2de7-4bc8-910c-0792906b8375 | Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infections (or HHV-4) is causative for following infections:
Infectious mononucleosis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Burkiu's lymphoma
Oral hairy leukoplakia
Post-transplant lymphoproliferative diseases | Pathology | null | Infectious mononucleosis is caused by?
A. EBV
B. CMV
C. HIV
D. HSV
| EBV |
8f57f95a-a12e-49e9-87b8-eb58ffa6cb9c | The image shows bifocal glasses of executive type which is especially used in case of paediatric pseudophakia and not in adult aphakia or presbyopia. Other types of bifocals are K or D bifocals which are used for adults with presbyopia Progressive glasses avoid the sudden jump in power in the lenses and provide a smooth transition from the power for distance vision to the power for the near vision thereby providing good distance, intermediate and near vision | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2018 | The spectacles are used in:
A. Progressive glasses for presbyopia
B. Bifocal glasses for presbyopia
C. Bifocals for pediatric pseudophakia
D. Bifocals for adult aphakia
| Bifocals for pediatric pseudophakia |
d6a8de08-5a4c-404b-8622-217e17e5751b | Answer- B. SpasticitySpasticity is seen in 20% of hemiplegic paitents. Spasticity per se does not produce weakness and other aspects of motor control Overzealous treatment affects the normal ambulation of patients. Hence, treating spasticity, as a rule is not always preferred, treating it is a double-edged sword. Spasticity as a consequence of a stroke may have a ceain beneficiary compensatory aspect. | Medicine | null | Which of the following complications of stroke need not to be treated?
A. Fever
B. Spasticity
C. Dysphagia
D. Numbness
| Spasticity |
4414e290-9d6a-410d-9506-72555add17d7 | Ans: A. Ergot alkaloids(Ref Reddy 34/e p517. 33/e p556: Parikh 6/e p9.32)St. Anthony's Fire:Causes:Due to overdose of ,Ergot medications.After eating flour milled from ergot-infected rye.Humans & livestock a Develop ergotism.Ergotism:Long term effect of ergot poisoning.Due to alkaloids ingestion produced by Claviceps purpurea fungus infected rye & other cereals.Also due to a action of number of ergoline-based drugs.Also known as "ergotoxicosis, ergot poisoning & Saint Anthony's Fire".In middle age -Gangrenous poisoning was known as "holy fire" or "Saint Anthony's fire".Named after monks of Order of Saint Anthony who succeeded in treatment. | Forensic Medicine | null | St. Anthony's fire refers to poisoning by:
A. Ergot alkaloids
B. Spanish fly
C. Crotalaria juncea
D. Aflatoxin
| Ergot alkaloids |
040be818-df88-4fad-959a-96d3cc4ee9f1 | Dental plaque is the prerequisite for the development of smooth surface caries. The presence of extracellular polysaccharides (like glucans and levans) have been clearly demonstrated in dental plaque. Glucans, especially their water-insoluble fraction, can serve as a structural component of plaque matrix and help in adhering certain bacteria to the teeth. Even though the ability to produce acid may be a prerequisite for caries induction, but not all acid producing organism are cariogenic. | Pathology | null | Streptococci have the ability to adhere to the tooth surfaces and contribute to caries development as they?
A. Are penicillinase resistant
B. Produce acid during metabolism
C. Produce extracellular polysachharides
D. Ferment carbohydrates
| Produce extracellular polysachharides |
d68d6158-666d-424d-9f9b-26cf0fe6acf5 | Zellweger syndrome It is also called as Cerebro-Hepato-Renal Syndrome. It is a rare, autosomal recessive disorder. Absence of Peroxisomes in almost all tissues, peroxisomes are responsible for oxidation of very long chain fatty acids which contain more than 22 carbons. Clinical features: Severe neurological symptoms such as Impaired neuronal migration, hypomyelination, hepatomegaly, renal cysts. Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids in brain, with carbon number > 22 Most patients die within 1st year of their life. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2017 | Child presents with hypotonia and seizures. It was confirmed to be zellweger syndrome. Which of the following accumulates in brain?
A. Glucose
B. Lactic acid
C. Long chain fatty acid
D. Triglycerides
| Long chain fatty acid |
1a4896e3-25f3-4954-93fd-0fea78d72b0c | Lichen planus, pemphigoid, and pemphigus are autoimmune diseases whereas white sponge nevus is inherited as autosomal dominant trait. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait?
A. Lichen planus
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus yulgaris
D. White sponge nevus
| White sponge nevus |
a28512ef-dd2c-48f1-9033-95c1d84daf47 | Case described is of SENSORY ATAXIA - d/o damage to dorsal column of spinal cord. Dorsal column tract: - N. gracilis & N. cuneatus - Carry pressure, vibration, stereognosis & conscious proprioception tactile discrimination Damage leads to: - - Sensory ataxia - Stomping gait - d/o loss of conscious proprioception - Romberg test positive (Pt loses balance with closed eyes). Spinocerebellar tract: - - Carry unconscious proprioception - Damage leads to cerebellar ataxia - wide based gait. Spinothalamic tract: - - Carries pain, temperature (lateral spinothalamic) - Pressure & touch (ventral spinothalamic) Note: Other causes of sensory ataxia 1. Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis) 2. DM - II (affects dorsal column) 3. Vit B12 deficiency | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 | Patient presented with imbalance on walking with eyes closed and has to lift up foot and stomp on ground to walk. The tract involved is:-
A. Spinocerebellar tract
B. Dorsal column tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Vestibulospinal tract
| Dorsal column tract |
8abcdea2-c351-4df7-ab42-8898201f9949 | Primary teeth with furcation pathology, pulpectomy is not indicated, rather it requires extraction. | Dental | null | For which of the following, you will not perform pulpectomy?
A. Primary teeth with sinus tract
B. Primary teeth without successor
C. Primary teeth with furcation pathology
D. Pulpless primary teeth next to the line of a palatal cleft
| Primary teeth with furcation pathology |
f9ff6912-3b5d-4f69-bd71-598dc46cd041 | Ans. a. Amphotericin B (Rcf : Harrison l9/e p1350,18/ep l661-l664)This diabetic patient is most likely suffering from mucormycosis, in which there is involvement of peri-orbital region and visual impairment. I.V. Amphotericin BQ is the treatment most commonly used in all forms of Mucormycosis. | Medicine | null | An elderly female presented with blockade, nasal discharge, diplopia and facial swelling. On examination, there is blackish discharge from the nasal cavity with necrosis of nasal mucosa, facial skin and palate. There is fixation of the right globe. There is elevated blood sugar and urinary ketones are positive.Which of the following would be the medication to be used in this patient?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Itraconazole
C. Ketoconazole
D. Broad spectrum antibiotics
| Amphotericin B |
479e5139-f840-4d95-b13b-d1a95e2ff3e4 | Ans: A. Ovary(Ref Perez and Brady's Principles of Radiation Oncology 6/e p65)Among the given options, most radiosensitive organ is ovary >rectum >bladder >vagina.(Radiation tolerance dose: Ovary = 2-3 Gy; Rectum = 60 Gy; Bladder = 65 Gy; Vagina = 90 Gy). | Radiology | null | Patient with carcinoma endometrium treated with pelvic external beam irradiation to whole pelvis. Which of the following organs is most radiosensitive in the pelvic region?
A. Ovary
B. Vagina
C. Bladder
D. Rectum
| Ovary |
ba0534c9-3275-481d-8130-62a393d57b2a | Ans: D. Wings of sphenoid(Ref Gray's 40/e p733)Cranioveebral Joint:Consists of occipital condyles, atlas & axis.Aiculation between cranium & veebral column specialized - To provide a wider range of movement.Functions as a universal joint.Permits horizontal & veical scanning movements of head.Adapted for eye-head co-ordination. | Anatomy | null | Cranioveebral joint does not include:
A. Occipital condyle
B. Axis
C. Atlas
D. Wings of sphenoid
| Wings of sphenoid |
dcda3f1a-0ff7-411e-9a61-fa2b6cb8f3c3 | Student’s t-test:
– Paired Student’s t-test: Comparing means (± SD) in paired data (in same group of individuals before and after an intervention)
Comparison of mean levels can be done by Paired Student’s t - test
– Unpaired Student’s t-test: Comparing means (± SD) in two different group of individuals
ANOVA test (F-test/F-ratio): Comparing means (+ SD) in more than two different group of individuals
Chi-square test (c2-test): Comparing percentage, proportions & fractions in two or more different group of individuals
In the given question, we have to test the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children; thus mean heights of schools children in different classes/standards/schools will be done Thus, ANOVA test (F - test/ F -ratio) is most suitable. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | For testing the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children -
A. Student's t test
B. chi-square test
C. Paired 't' test
D. ANOVA
| ANOVA |
be5f1787-76b2-4782-be44-2c31745ea4c5 | The arrangement of layers from outside to inside is:
a. Pretracheal fascia b. Investing fascia c. Prevertebral fascia
The prevertebral fascia extends medially behind the carotid vessels, where it assists in forming their sheath and passes in front of prevertebral muscles. | Anatomy | null | The deepest layer of cervical fascia is:
A. Vertebral
B. Carotid sheath
C. Deep fascia
D. Prevertebral fascia
| Prevertebral fascia |
1d7c2dff-73e6-46d8-8d10-ab6ee7464701 | This child has :
Seizure disorder
Vascular plaque along the ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of trigeminal nerve
Lesion presenting since birth and not chonging in morphology
The diagnosis is sturge weber syndrome.
Sturge weber syndrome is a rare congenital vascular disorder characterized by facial capillary malformation (port wine stain) and associated capillary venous malformation affecting the brain and eye.
It consists of angiomas involving the leptomeninges and skin of face typically in the ophthalmic and maxillary distributions of trigeminal nerve. | Pediatrics | null | A 10–year old male child was presented to the pediatrician for evaluation of a seizure disorder. On examination a vascular plaque was found along the ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The mother informed the pediatrician that the lesion was present since birth and there was no change in morphology. The most likely possibility is –
A. Sturge Weber syndrome
B. Infantile hemangioma
C. Congenital hemangioma
D. Proteus syndrome
| Sturge Weber syndrome |
b3fbb3fa-16e3-4275-920b-aa7f7d8ef831 | Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone separates the anterior cranial fossa from nasal cavity.
Anteriorly articulates with frontal bone, at frontoethmoidal suture, marked in the median plane as foramen caecum, which is usually blind.
Anteriorly, cribriform plate has midline projection, called crista galli.
On each side of crista galli, there are foramina through which anterior ethmoidal nerve and vessels pass to nasal cavity.
The plate is also perforated by numerous foramina, for the passage of olfactory nerve rootlets. | Anatomy | null | The cribriform plate connects
A. Nasal cavity and anterior cranial fossa
B. Nasal cavity and orbit
C. Nasal cavity and oral cavity
D. Anterior cranial fossa and orbit
| Nasal cavity and anterior cranial fossa |
c2d32d1d-8609-4fef-91f6-580329f7a7e5 | Pubey means the onset of adult sexual life. Pubey is caused by a gradual increase in GnRH secretion by the pituitary, beginning around 8th year of life. In male and females, the infantile pituitary gland & ovaries are capable of full function if they are appropriately stimulated. However, for reasons not understood, the hypothalamus does not secrete significant quantities of GnRH during childhood. At pubey, the hypothalamus stas secreting pulsatile GnRH, which initiates the other cascading events leading to maturity of the sexual organs and pubey. | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | Which hormone has permissive role in pubey?
A. Leptin
B. GnRH
C. Insulin
D. GH
| GnRH |
8aaa9545-8120-495d-ba08-9d950c880521 | In 4-years-old patient S-ECC is present with recurrent gingival swelling and pain in 61 and 62, line of treatment is endodontic treatment. | Dental | null | In 4-years-old patient S-ECC is present with recurrent gingival swelling and pain in 61 and 62; what will be your line of treatment:
A. Endodontic treatment
B. Restoration
C. Extraction
D. Fluoride application
| Endodontic treatment |
c18807a9-ccf8-40f5-8b11-9e2c8b789c3e | Answer- B. G4P1 0+1+2The nomenclature for this question is bused on a system called GTPAL systemGravida and parity: Gravida denotes o pregnant state both present and past, irrespective of the period of gestation.Parity denotes a state of previous pregnancy beyond the period of bility | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A middle-aged woman came to OPD with a twin pregnancy. She already had 2 first trimester aboion and she has a 3 years old female child who was born at the end of ninth month of gestation. Which of the following is her accurate representation? C = gravid, P = para?
A. G4P1 1+2+1
B. G4P1 0+1+2
C. G5P1 2+0+1
D. G5P0 1+0+2
| G4P1 0+1+2 |
75ea3569-eb32-44a0-81dd-705aa50c2769 | With increasing diameter of nerve fiber leads to increase in its conduction velocity. | Physiology | null | Property affected due to diameter of nerve fiber/axon?
A. Conduction velocity
B. Refractory period
C. Latency period
D. Amplitude
| Conduction velocity |
e7173db8-8f12-46b3-a2e8-86eaa2574855 | Ans.b. Tredmill stress testThis is a case of WPW syndrome. There is no use all treadmill test in these cases as results are often misleading.Holter monitoring would be indicated to detect the development of any arrythmias. Beta-blockers have also been used in asymptomatic cases only as a preventive therapy against the development of PSVT. | Medicine | null | Routine examination of a 17 years old asymptomatic boy reveals sho PR interval, and delta wave on ECG. The least effective measure for the boy would be:
A. Hotter monitoring
B. Treadmill stress test
C. Beta blocker
D. Reassurance
| Treadmill stress test |
9a17b183-56ee-4cb1-865c-ee83d2b40d52 | Raw eggs contain protein Avidin - tightly binds to Biotin (vit B7) and is excreted along with biotin. Biotin is required for all carboxylases. All carboxylases require ATP also. So, enzyme affected is carboxylase which requires Biotin as coenzyme Pyruvate Carboxylase is the first enzyme of gluconeogenesis. Regarding other options: Glycogen Phosphorylase ROLE of Glycogenolysis Requires vitamin B6 (Pyridoxal phosphate0 No relation with glycogen phosphorylase and egg avidin Glucose 6 phosphatase A common enzyme in gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis Deficiency leads to hypoglycemia and that is called Von Gierke's disease (Type 1 glycogen storage disease). - Von Gierke's disease is the most common glycogen storage disease, especially in children. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 | A person after consuming raw eggs presents with weakness, fatigue & hypoglycemia. Doctor gave him vitamin tablets. Which enzyme deficiency is causing hypoglycemia in this patient:
A. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Glucose 6 phosphatase
| Pyruvate carboxylase |
2b6830cf-090a-415c-adee-e61a42038930 | Mandibular fossa is a part of temporal bone. It along with articular tubercle forms the upper articular surface of TMJ.
Note:Lower articular surface is formed by head of mandible | Anatomy | null | Mandibular fossa is a part of:
A. Mandible bone
B. Maxilla bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Temporal bone
| Temporal bone |
8e0eacd3-9755-426d-b1c5-2bff71295f88 | Southampton Wound Grading System Grade/Appearance Subtype/Appearance 0: Normal healing I: Normal healing with mild bruising or erythema la: some bruising lb: Considerable bruising Ic: Mild erythema II: Erythema plus other signs of inflammation IIa: At one point IIb: Around sutures IIc: Along wound IId: Around wound III: Clear or hemoserous discharge IIIa: At one point only (<2 cm) IIIb: Along wound (>2 cm IIIc: Large volume IIId: Prolonged (>3 days) IV: Pus IVa: At one point only (<2 cm) IVb: Along wound (>2 cm) | Surgery | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following scoring system is used for wound infection?
A. ASA score
B. SIRS score
C. Southampton score
D. Glasgow score
| Southampton score |
063acadd-aa14-4684-87cb-ee4ee644da8c | Testicular torsion - It is a surgical emergency - Confirm the diagnosis by decreased vascularity in Doppler (IOC) - Emergency orchidopexy- Within 4 hours - In patients of ischemia - Orchidectomy - During orchidopexy- Contralateral hemiscrotum should be explored and fixed because bell clappers deformity is usually bilateral. - Bilateral orchidopexy is preferred for Testicular torsion | Surgery | AIIMS 2019 | A 10 years old boy came to emergency with complains of severe pain in right scrotum that is not relieved for the past 1 hour. On examination, testicular torsion of the right side is suspected. The surgical intervention should be:
A. Immediate scrotal exploration of the affected side and operate opposite side if symptomatic
B. Delay exploration and operate opposite side if symptomatic
C. Immediate exploration of the affected side and operate opposite side even if asymptomatic
D. Delayed exploration on the affected side along with the opposite side even if asymptomatic
| Immediate exploration of the affected side and operate opposite side even if asymptomatic |
e0120b3c-b9c7-4167-a9e7-b07b767d14d3 | Intervals between NST testing
“The interval between tests is arbitrarily set at 7 days. According to ACOG, more frequent testing is advocated for women with posterm pregnancy, type I diabetes mellitus, IUGR or gestational hypertension. In these circumstances some investigators recommend twice weekly (i.e. after 72 hours) with additional testing performed for maternal or fetal deterioration regardless of the time elapsed since the last test. Others recommend NST daily. Generally daily NST is recommended with severe preeclampsia remote from term.” | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In a non-diabetic high risk pregnancy the ideal time for non stress test monitoring is:
A. 48 hrs
B. 72 hrs
C. 96 hrs
D. 24 hrs
| 72 hrs |
13775adf-3c9f-46c4-9149-d0a382e24277 | Ans: A. BleomycinRef: Goodman and Gilman, I3,h ed., pg. 1193Few case repos of bleomycin induced flagellate dermatitis and pigmentations are available in literature. | Pharmacology | null | Which drug causes flagellate pigmentation of skin?
A. Bleomycin
B. Minocycline
C. Vincristine
D. Daunorubicin
| Bleomycin |
163e1bfc-0b55-4bbe-9eb4-e18802ccfd24 | Mesial Aspect
From the mesial and distal aspect both the buccal and lingual cusps are visible
A well developed mesial marginal ridge and a mesial marginal developmental groove is present
In the middle of the mesial surface is the mesial developmental depression which continues beyond the cervical line | Dental | null | Mesial marginal developmental groove is seen in
A. Maxillary 1st premolar
B. Mandibular lateral incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisor
D. Mandibular 1st premolar
| Maxillary 1st premolar |
c31b85f2-e3c3-4122-a330-2d5452dfb836 | Direct lines: “A counter bevel is not placed on the facial cusps of maxillary premolars and first molars due to esthetic considerations”. | Dental | null | Counter bevel in tooth should not be given in
A. Facial surface of premolar
B. Occlusal surface of premolar
C. Lingual surface of premolar
D. Any surface of premolar
| Facial surface of premolar |
3745bf96-43aa-40b2-ae62-3be01c0f92a4 | * Since the lady is having secondary amenorrhea following an aboion, uterine synechiae is the most likely. Although uterine synechiae mostly develops with an overzealous curretage, it is also seen in spontaneous aboions. Also, here FSH levels are normal so it ours an end organ pathology. (Normal serum FSH value in adult woman is 5 - 20 lU/ml).* In case of ovarian failure - FSH will be high* In case of pituitary failure - Level of FSH is low. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2018 | A young female presents to OPD with a spontaneous aboion and secondary amenorrhea since then. FSH was found to be 6 IU/mL. What is the most probable cause of amenorrhea?
A. Ovarian failure
B. Pituitary failure
C. Ongoing pregnancy
D. Uterine synechiae
| Uterine synechiae |
0b1e3ca7-b56b-4c9c-a660-2ff1a12393b1 | Ans: b. Frederick Sanger /Ref Lehninger 5/e p903-904, 292)Frederick Sanger discovered the structure and amino acid sequence of insulin as well as the interspecies differences in molecular structure and got the Nobel Prize for that.Fredrick Sanger again with Walter Gil,be got Nobel prize in 1980Jim sequencing of large nucleic acid (DNA) molecule." | Physiology | null | Who discovered the structure and amino acid sequence of insulin as well as the interspecies differences in molecular structure and won the Nobel prize for?
A. Prof. JJ Abel
B. Frederick Sanger
C. Rutter, Goodman and Uhlich
D. Frederick Banting and Charles Best
| Frederick Sanger |
aa676348-78a3-4571-a4a9-2c38c97d6fb2 | Mechanical events are both temperature and time dependant. As the temperature increases, the mechanical property values decrease. The stress strain curve appears to move to the right and downward. The opposite occurs during cooling. As the rate of loading decreases, the mechanical properties decrease. This is called 'Strain rate sensitivity' and has important clinical implications. To momentarily make a material's behaviour stiffer or elastic, strain it quickly.
Eg.: Remove elastic impressions rapidly so that it will be more elastic and more accurately records the absolute dimensions. | Dental | null | If rate of loading is decreased, the mechanical properties of material:
A. Remains unchanged
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Becomes unpredictable
| Decreases |
b3f12eb4-3ba5-4b60-b3fe-38c163ee5d18 | Cvtogenetic aspects of own's syndrome -
The most common finding is trisomy 21.
Molecular studies have revealed that the additional number 21 chromosome is derived from the mother in 95% of Cases. (The recurrence risk in these families is approximately 1%.)
If a female with Down syndrome due to trisomy 21 conceives then there is a risk of 50% that the baby will also have trisomy 21.
Males with Down syndrome have rarely if ever reproduced.
Chromosome findings in Down syndrome
Trisomy 21, e.g. 47, XY, + 21 - 95%
Mosaicism, e.g. 46, XX, / 47, XX, + 21 - 2%
Robertsonian translocation,
e.g. 46 XX, - 15,+ t (15q21q) - 3%
Inheritence in Mosaic if own's syndrome
Children with mosaic Down syndrome are usually less severely affected than in the full-blown syndrome, and if only a small proportion of cells are trisomic then these individuals may lead normal lives.
In the event of reproduction, of these individuals there is a relatively high risk that the baby will have full trisomy 21 with the precise risk equalling the proportion of gametes which carry an additional number 21 chromosome.
Inheritance in Down's syndrome with tranclocation
When a child has Down syndrome as a result of an unbalanced Robertsonian translocation, there is a probability of around 25% that one of the parents will carry this in a balanced form. The remaining 75% of cases arise as de novo events and convey a low recurrence risk of approximately 1%
If, however, a parent is shown to be a carrier then there will be a significant risk that a future child will be affected, usually of the order of 2-5% for a carrier male and 10-15% for a carrier female.
In the very rare event that a parent carries a balanced 21q21e Robertsonian translocation, the risk of Down's drome in liveborn offs rin• will be 100%.
Risk of abnormal offspring for a carrier of a balanced translocation | Pediatrics | null | A 35 years old lady has chromosomal translocation 21/21. The risk of down syndrome in the child is –
A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 10%
D. 50%
| 100% |
ea52cf79-3622-4578-bbea-b66cb2833ca2 | TMJ develops at 8-12 weeks of gestation. It is the last joint to develop in the body.
The work in the above quoted article establishes three phases in TMJ development:
(1) the blastematic stage (weeks 7-8 of development);
(2) the cavitation stage (weeks 9-11 of development); and
(3) the maturation stage (after week 12 of development).
This study identifies the critical period of TMJ morphogenesis as occurring between weeks 7 and 11 of development. | Dental | null | TMJ develops at the age of
A. 18 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 29 weeks
| 10 weeks |
a1111432-f1c4-4e04-b61b-449b435e99ad | Auriculotemporal Syndrome (Frey's Syndrome, Gustatory Sweating)
The auriculotemporal syndrome is an unusual phenomenon, which arises as a result of damage to the auriculotemporal nerve and subsequent reinnervation of sweat glands by parasympathetic salivary fibres.
Clinical Features
The patient typically exhibits flushing and sweating of the involved side of the face, chiefly in the temporal area, during eating. The severity of this sweating may often be increased by tart foods. Of further interest is the fact that profuse sweating may be evoked by the parenteral administration of pilocarpine or eliminated by the administration of atropine or by a procaine block of the auriculotemporal nerve.
There is a form of gustatory sweating which occurs in otherwise normal individuals when they are eating certain foods, particularly spicy or sour ones. This consists of diffuse facial sweating, not simply a perioral sweating and may even be on a hereditary basis.
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of ORAL PATHOLOGY Eighth Edition page no 575 | Pathology | null | Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food?
A. Fanconi's syndrome
B. Auriculotemporal syndrome
C. Horner's syndrome
D. Cushing's syndrome
| Auriculotemporal syndrome |
8870f48b-468f-484c-8070-3b135b2c7ada | Ans: C. Clear colorless to Pale YellowRef: DC Dutto's textbook of Obstetrics, 9't' ed.Green yellow with flakes (meconium stained)- Fetal distressGolden color- Rh incompatibilityGreenish Ye11ow (saffron)- postmaturityDark colored - concealed accidental hemorrhageDark brown (tobacco juice)- Intruterine demise | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Foltowing are the features of the color of normal amniotic fluid during delivery?
A. Milky to yellowish green with mucus flakes
B. Amber colored
C. Clear colorless to Pale Yellow
D. Golden color
| Clear colorless to Pale Yellow |
f4d51744-50f2-42e9-8ec7-5b0e7e55d31e | Ans: C. Breath sound(Ref Harrison 19/e p1573, 1719, 18/e p1972)Raised JVP, pulse pressure and muffled hea sounds along with pulsus paradoxus are seen in both cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax.These are differentiated by auscultation for breath sounds, which are normal in cardiac tamponade but absent in tension pneumothorax patients.Pericardial Tamponade:The three principal features of tamponade (Beck's triad) are hypotension, soft or absent hea sounds, and jugular venous distention with a prominent x-descent but an absent y-descent. | Medicine | null | A patient presented with a steering wheel injury to the right side of chest with breathlessness and shock. How will you differentiate tension pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade?
A. Pulse pressure
B. JVP
C. Breath sound
D. Hea sounds
| Breath sound |
17180bef-99d8-42c7-9add-372aae82e08e | Major vasoactive amine responsible for vasodilation is Histamine. It causes dilation of aerioles and increases the permeability of venules. Prostaglandins can also cause vasodilation but major chemical responsible is histamine. Serotonin (5hydroxytryptamine) is a preformed vasoactive mediator present in platelets and ceain neuroendocrine cells, such as in the gastrointestinal tract, and in mast cells in rodents but not humans. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following causes vasodilation?
A. Thromboxane A2
B. Prostaglandin E2
C. Histamine
D. Serotonin
| Histamine |
04c3b35b-a3b2-41a1-b540-12a59137a97c | Ans.a Acuteintermittentporphyria (Re/: Harrison 19/ep2521, 18/ep3168-3169)Acute intermittent porphyria is precipitated by barbiturates, alcohol, exposure to heavy metals, sulfa drugs.Acute Intermittent Porphyria:Precipitated by barbiturates, alcohol, exposure to heary metals, sulfa drugsPresent with nonspecific neurovisceral pain: Abdominal pain, psychiatric disorders, seizures, coma and bulbar Paralysis | Medicine | null | A I 6-y ear-old girl presented with abdominal pain after administration of a sulfa drug. She was incoherent and suffered a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely possibility?
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Congenital erythropoetic porphyria
C. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
D. HGPase deficiency
| Acute intermittent porphyria |
084820b0-75b4-43ae-adf9-83fb0e20f4eb | Serum ferritin is the most sensitive test as it correlates best with iron stores and is the first test to become abnormal in case of iron deficiency.
Remember:
Storage form of iron : – Ferritin
Transport form of iron – Transferrin
As per CDC serum ferritin less than 15 mg/l confirms iron deficiency anemia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy ?
A. Serum iron
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum transferrin
D. Serum iron binding capacity
| Serum ferritin |
b20d6d5a-8860-4dd0-9065-e613a34ac615 | Thyrocervical trunk is a short, wide vessel which arises from the front of the first part of the subclavian artery, close to the medial border of the scalenus anterior, and between the phrenic and vagus nerves. It almost immediately divides into the inferior thyroid, suprascapular and transverse cervical arteries. | Anatomy | null | Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of :
A. Internal thoracic artery
B. Thyrocervical trunk
C. Dorsal scapular artery
D. Costocervical trunk
| Thyrocervical trunk |
8616b528-3a38-4bc5-b002-2e5133f56496 | Positional veigo/ BPPV: It is characterized by veigo when the head is placed in a ceain critical position. There is no hearing loss or other neurologic symptoms. Positional testing establishes the diagnosis and helps to differentiate it from positional veigo of central origin. Disease caused by a disorder of posterior semicircular canal though many patients have history of head trauma and ear infection. It has been demonstrated that otoconial debris, consisting of crystals and calcium carbonate, is released from the degeneration macula of the utricle and floats freely in the endolymph. When it settles on the cupula of posterior semicircular canal in a critical head position, it causes displacement of the cupula and veigo. The veigo is fatigable on assuming the same position repeatedly due to dispersal of the otoconia but can be induced again after a period of rest. Thus, typical history and Hallpike maneuver establishes the diagnosis. The condition can be treated by performing Epley's maneuver. The principle of this maneuver is to reposition the otoconial debris from the posterior semicircular canal back into the utricle. The doctor stands behind the patient and the assistant on the side. The patient is made to sit on the table so that when he is made to lie down, his head is beyond the edge of the table as is done in Dix-Hallpike maneuver. His face is turned 450 to the affected side. The maneuver consists of five positions * Position 1. With the head turned 450, the patient is made to lie down in head-hanging position (Dix-Hallpike). It will cause veigo and nystagmus. Wait till veigo and nystagmus subside. * Position 2. Head is now turned so that affected ear is facing up at a 900 rotation. * Position 3. The whole body and head are now rotated away from the affected ear to a lateral recumbent position in a 900 -rotation face-down position. * Position 4. Patient is now brought to a sitting position with head still turned to the unaffected side by 450. * Position 5. The head is now turned forward and chin brought down 200. There should be a pause at each position till there is no nystagmus or there is slowing of nystagmus, before changing to the next position. After maneuver is complete, patient should maintain an upright posture for 48 h. Eighty percent of the patients will be cured by a single maneuver. If the patients remain symptomatic, the maneuver can be repeated. A bone vibrator placed on the mastoid bone helps to loosen the debris. - Meniere's disease: Has an episodic veigo and it lasts for >20 minutes. - Vestibular neuronitis: Veigo lasts for many days. - Labyrinthitis: There is a history of fever and trauma, and the veigo lasts for days. | ENT | AIIMS 2018 | A person presented to OPD with complaints of rotatory veigo and nausea in the morning on change in position of the head. WHat is your diagnosis?
A. Labyrinthitis
B. BPPV
C. Vestibular neuronitis
D. Meniere's disease
| BPPV |
9b9120e8-6675-4e3d-8dc1-4c7b261957f1 | Ans: C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis (Ref: Ananthanarayan 10/e p416, 8/e p409; Jawetz 27/e p346, 347; Harrison 19/e p1159, 1162)Though both Coxiella and Ehrlichia are obligate intracellular pathogens, in 2009 scientists repoed a technique allowing the Q-fever pathogen Coxiella burnetii to grow in an axenic culture and suggested the technique may be useful for study of other pathogens.Hence, Ehrlichia is a better answer in this case. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite?
A. Tropheryma whippelii
B. Baonella henselae
C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
D. Coxiella burnetii
| Ehrlichia chaffeensis |
cd0df6a2-1e8f-41e9-8304-1b8742ea993d | Phenobarbitone is considered as safest antiepileptic drug in pregnancy. | Medicine | null | Anti-epileptic which is not associated with congenital malformation when used in pregnant woman is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproate
| Phenobarbitone |
f6c4ff25-9770-4650-88f6-82b6b83d7e31 | Calculus is removed by a series of controlled, overlapping, short, powerful strokes primarily using wrist-arm motion . As calculus is removed, resistance to the passage of the cutting edge diminishes until only a slight roughness remains. Longer, lighter root-planing strokes are then activated with less lateral pressure until the root surface is completely smooth and hard. The instrument handle must be rolled carefully between the thumb and fingers to keep the blade adapted closely to the tooth surface as line angles, developmental depressions, and other changes in tooth contour are followed. Scaling and root-planing strokes should be confined to the portion of the tooth where calculus or altered cementum is found; this area is known as the instrumentation zone. Sweeping the instrument over the crown where it is not needed wastes operating time, dulls the instrument, and causes loss of control.
Key Concept:
Scaling and root-planing strokes should be confined to the portion of the tooth where calculus or altered cementum is found; this area is known as the instrumentation zone. Sweeping the instrument over the crown where it is not needed wastes operating time, dulls the instrument, and causes loss of control.
Ref: Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, thirteenth edition; page no 545.e15 | Dental | null | Portion of tooth covered by calculus or altered cementum is:
A. Toxic zone
B. Deposit zone
C. Instrumentation zone
D. Take away zone
| Instrumentation zone |
97a54f46-0d5e-4979-820c-ab311c30f08a | During exercise, there is increased sympathetic discharge and venous return to hea. This causes increased stroke volume mainly due to increased myocardial contractility. Due to increased stroke volume, the ESV decreases. In the image given the stoke volume is indicated by the width of the loop and LV pressure by the height of the loop. Three major effects occurring during exercise are : Sympathetic nervous system activation in many tissues with stimulatory effects on circulation. Increase in aerial pressure Increase in cardiac output. | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | During exercise in physiological limits what is the effect on end systolic volume?
A. ESV decreases
B. ESV increase
C. ESV remain unchanged
D. ESV first decrease and then increases
| ESV decreases |
860f5673-7e87-4a35-ba17-628c738929fa | Ans: A. Low molecular weight heparinCurrent guideline-endorsed therapy options for cancer-associated thrombosis include low molecularweight heparin (LMWH), unfractionated heparin (UFH), warfarin & fondaparinux.All current guidelines recommend LMWH for at least 3-6 months in cancer-associated VTE. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug is commonly used in treatment for cancer associated thromboembotismt
A. Low molecular weight heparin
B. anti-thrombin III inhibitors
C. Direct Xainhibitors
D. Warfarin
| Low molecular weight heparin |
3728d7be-8279-4b79-a826-e568441ff21a | Ans: B. Tyrosine(Ref: Harper 30Ie p165)Tyrosine enters Krebs cycle fumarate, while all others form pyruvate to enter the Krebs cycle. | Biochemistry | null | Which of these amino acids does not enter the Krebs cycle by forming Acetyl-CoA pyruvate?
A. Glycine
B. Tyrosine
C. Hydroxyprolinc
D. Alanine
| Tyrosine |
91430721-6b45-4be5-acfb-29e96d31d077 | The viscosity of many dental materials decreases with increasing strain rate until it reaches a nearly constant value. That is, the faster they are stirred, forced through a syringe, or squeezed, the less viscous and more fluid they become. This is pseudoplastic viscosity and is illustrated by the change in slope of the plot in the figure.
The viscosity of a pseudoplastic fluid decreases with increasing shear rate.
The tomato-based food condiment ketchup is also pseudoplastic, which makes it difficult to remove from a bottle. Shaking the bottle or rapping the side of the bottle increases its shear rate, decreases its viscosity, and improves its pourability.
A Bingham plastic is a viscoplastic material that behaves as a rigid body at low stresses but flows as a viscous fluid at high stress. It is named after Eugene C. Bingham who proposed its mathematical form. | Dental | null | Which of the following type of flow occurs, when on applying critical shear stress, a material turns to liquid?
A. Bingham body behaviour
B. Newtonian body
C. Dilatant
D. Pseudoplastic
| Bingham body behaviour |
be9a2669-d3a5-41a7-9b1b-608757751254 | Ans: B. 2-6 degC(Ref UK-NHS Guidelines; Harrison 19/e p138e-2).RBCs should be stored at a temperature of 2-6 "Celsius.ComponentStorage & durationWhole Blood2-6degC for 42 daysdegPacked RBCs2-6degC for 42 daysdegPlatelets22-24degC for 5 daysdegFFP-18degC for 1 yeardeg -18degC for 1 yeardeg -18degC for 1 year | Pathology | null | RBCs are stored at what temperature?
A. -2 to -4 degC
B. 2-6 degC
C. 20-25 degC
D. 37 degC
| 2-6 degC |
8f43a8ec-ba0a-42bb-ba96-0d5fdc6a87ae | Generally, a 20 second time is recommended.
Enamel rich with Flourohydroxy apatite may be resistant to etching and may need to be exposed for longer periods.
Etching time for enamel varies depending on the type and quality of enamel.
Generally, a 15 sec etching with 30 to 40% phosphoric acid is sufficient to reach the characteristic clinical endpoint of a frosty enamel appearance.
Deciduous enamel generally contains same prismless enamel that has not yet worn away and requires longer etching time (20-30sec) to create a etched pattern.
5-40% phosphoric acid recommends longer etching times for primary teeth, approximately 30sec. | Dental | null | Etching time in teeth with fluorosis
A. 10-15 sec
B. 15-30 sec
C. 60-90 sec
D. Can’t be etched
| 60-90 sec |
b4d9ead1-e3c7-446d-b49b-7e4dcbdada18 | STRUCTURE OF GOLGI TENDON ORGAN
Golgi tendon organ is situated in the tendon of skeletal muscle near the attachment of extrafusal fibers. It is placed in series between the muscle fibers and the tendon. Golgi tendon organ is formed by a group of nerve endings covered by a connective tissue capsule.
NERVE SUPPLY TO GOLGI TENDON ORGAN
Sensory nerve fiber supplying the Golgi tendon organ belongs to Ib type. The nerve fiber supplying Golgi tendon organ ramifies into many branches. Each branch ends in the form of a knob.
FUNCTIONS OF GOLGI TENDON ORGAN
Golgi tendon organ gives response to the change in the force or tension developed in the skeletal muscle during contraction. It is also the receptor for inverse stretch reflex and lengthening reaction and thereby prevents damage of muscle due to overstretching. | Physiology | null | Golgi tendon organs detect:
A. Static muscle length
B. Dynamic muscle length
C. Muscle tension
D. Muscle action
| Muscle tension |
93308f4a-1927-4596-981a-58f373a9707e | Zinc phosphate cement has compressive strength of 104 MPa and modulus of elasticity of 13 GPa.
In very deep cavities with microscopic exposure, it is recommended that calcium hydroxide should be applied followed by zinc oxide eugenol or zinc phosphate under the restoration.
For amalgam restorations, zinc phosphate is recommended as cavity base. | Dental | null | For supporting complex amalgam restoration, which of the following cement has best modulus of elasticity?
A. ZOE
B. GIC
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate
| Zinc phosphate |
5266b717-91e2-4c9f-94aa-2be119379a81 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 20000 The proposed structure for vision 2020, NPCB : Vision centres 20,000 (Primary level)Service centres 2,000 (Secondary level)Tranning centres 200 (Teiary level)Centres of Excellence 20 (COE) | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Number of vision centers under vision 2020, a national program for control of blindness are -
A. 20
B. 200
C. 2000
D. 20000
| 20000 |
25027d40-3f29-40e0-a29b-23bd913f2152 | Branches of ECA:-
Anterior - superior thyroid, lingual a., Facial a.
Posterior - Occipital a., Posterior auricular a.
Medial - Ascending pharyngeal a.
Terminal - Maxillary a., Superficial temporal a. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is not a branch of external carotid artery
A. Posterior auricular artery
B. Occipital artery
C. Maxillary artery
D. Ophthalmic artery
| Ophthalmic artery |
4d1e7661-fffc-42d0-8bed-1e4ecc040fe8 | POINTS OURING STAPEDIAL OTOSCLEROSIS: - Conductive hearing loss. - MC seen in females 20-30 yrs. - hears better in noisy surrounding (Paraacusis willisii) - Audiometry repo a dip at 2000Hz (Carha's notch) Meniere's disease causes SNHL. Perilymph fistula will cause SNHL. Vestibular schwannoma also will cause SNHL. | ENT | AIIMS 2019 | A 35 years old female patient present with hearing loss with improvement in hearing in noisy environment. On examination Rinne's is negative and weber's is centralized. Following is the audiometry repo. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Meniere's disease
B. Perilymph fistula
C. Stapedial Otosclerosis
D. Vestibular Schwannoma
| Stapedial Otosclerosis |
ac1196e0-224c-4c6c-a6b8-2853a776ade6 | Socio-economic indicators:
Housing
Family size
Literacy rate
Availability per capitacalorie
Per capita GNP
Growth rate
Level of unEmployment
Dependency ratio | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic indicator?
A. Literacy rate
B. Life expectancy at birth
C. Housing
D. Family size
| Life expectancy at birth |
42db9931-1f80-46a1-8c80-4e7f3d76051c | Inferior thyroid artery:
It is a branch of thyrocervical trunk from the first part of the subclavian artery. It first runs upwards along the medial border of scalenus anterior, and then passes medially behind the carotid sheath to reach the back of the thyroid lobe, where it is intimately related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. The recurrent laryngeal nerve presents a variable relationship with the artery. It may pass behind or in front of the loop of the artery or between the branches of the artery. The artery gives 4 or 5 branches.
KEY CONCEPT:
During thyroidectomy, the superior thyroid artery is ligated near the gland to save the external laryngeal nerve; and the inferior thyroid artery is ligated away from the gland to save the recurrent laryngeal nerve. | Anatomy | null | Inferior thyroid artery ligation during thyroidectomy is done
A. For recurrent Laryngeal nerve
B. Superior laryngeal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
| For recurrent Laryngeal nerve |
e3d7bd81-ad55-4017-8c33-b8fecae9dab2 | Wool soer's disease or pulmonary anthrax manifests by hemorrhagic mediastinitis causing bloody fluid to accumulate in the chest cavity. It causes initially flu like symptoms fever, shoness of Breath, cough, fatigue and second stage in form of pneumonia occurs. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Pulmonary manifestation for inhalational anthrax
A. Hemorrhagic mediastinitis
B. Lobar consolidation
C. Bronchopneumonia with type two respiratory failure
D. Can cause pneumonia
| Hemorrhagic mediastinitis |
d4c4bf0d-08ef-47e6-b8e2-e530082fa63a | Answer- D. HomatropineHomatropine is a mydriatic, which can precipitate angle closure glaucoma and contraindicated in angle closure glaucoma.Phenylephrine, Timolol and Acetazolamide are used for the treatment of angle closure glaucoma.'Mydriatic drugs such as atropine, Homatropine, cyclopentolate, tropicamide and phenylephrine are precipitating factorsfor angle closure glaucoma, so contraindicated in angle closure glaucoma. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following drug should not be given in a patient of narrow angle glaucoma?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Timolol
C. Acetazolamide
D. Homatropine
| Homatropine |
ddd74ca8-115f-444b-a754-28567fb618b1 | Ans: B. Head onlyRef: Coran Pediatric Surgery 7u ed., pg. 1728Craniopagus:Extent of union:Cranial neuroporeSkull venous sinus &meninges l00%Cerebral coex 37% | Pediatrics | null | Craniopagus is defined as fusion of:
A. Head and spine
B. Head only
C. Thorax and spine
D. Thorax only
| Head only |
0fd8b1cf-309f-4bcd-b1d6-d6a1f07d440f | THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCES (POCSO) ACT, 2012 * Repoing the offence to the police is mandatory. Failure to repo, attracts punishment with imprisonment of up to 6 months or fine or both. Section 19 of the POCSO Act, 2012 provides mandatory repo of child sexual offences to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police | Forensic Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | 11 yr female in the school brought to principle by teacher that she is always crying unattentive not taking interest in any activity. On fuher investigation the girl told that she was inappropriately touched by her uncle at private pas at her home. Principle inform to whom ?
A. Child welfare
B. Parents
C. Police
D. Magistrate
| Police |
2c4a6f65-70ac-45ad-9bd5-54de396908fd | Dimorphic fungi :- They exist as molds in the environment at ambient temperature(250C) and as yeasts in human tissues at body temperature(370C). several medically impoant fungi are thermally dimorphic such as:- Histoplasma capsulatum Blastomyces dermatitidis Coccidiodes immitis Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis Penicillium marneffei Sporothrix schenckii All of the above mentioned dimorphic fungi causes systemic mycoses except sporothrix which is responsible for sub cutaneous infection. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | Which is not a dimorphic fungi?
A. P. marneffi
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Blastomyces dermatitidis
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii
| Pneumocystis jirovecii |
24662938-a2a7-4328-846d-1887c22ff54c | Penicillins are prone to cause allergic reactions features like rash on skin, hypotension ,difficulty in breathing are suggestive of anaphylactic shock. Drugs Frequently causing allergic reactions Penicillins Aspirin Cephalosporins Indomethacin Sulfonamides Carbamazepine Tetracyclines Allopurinol Quinolones ACE inhibitors Metronidazole Methyldopa Abacavir Hydralazine Antitubercular drugs Local anaesthetics Phenothiazines In case of anaphylactic shock the resuscitation council of UK has recommended the following measure : * Put the patient in reclining position, administer oxygen at high flow rate and perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation if required.* Inject adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 ml of I in I 000 solution for adult, 0.3 ml for child 6-12 years and 0.15 ml for child upto 6 years) i.m.; repeat every 5-10 min in case patient does not improve or improvement is transient. This is the only life saving measure. Adrenaline should not be injected i.v. (can itself be fatal) unless shock is immediately life threatening. If adrenaline is to be injected i. v., it should be diluted to 1:10,000 or 1:100,000 and infused slowly with constant monitoring. * Administer a H1 antihistaminic (pheniramine 20-40 mg or chlorpheniramine I 0-20 mg) i.m./slow i.v. It may have adjuvant value.* Intravenous glucocoicoid (hydrocoisone sod. succinate 200 mg) should be added in severe/recurrent cases. It acts slowly, but is specially valuable for prolonged reactions and in asthmatics. It may be followed by oral prednisolone for 3 days. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | A patient was given ampicillin 2 g intravenously. After that, the person developed rash on skin, hypotension and difficulty in breathing. The patient should be managed by
A. 0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intramuscular route
B. 0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intravenous route
C. 0.5 ml of 1:10000 adrenaline by intramuscular route
D. 0.5 ml of 1:10000 adrenaline by intravenous route
| 0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intramuscular route |
074d6dbc-2825-4387-ada2-01725dd954e2 | Ans: D. Radioactive sodium and radioactive labelled albumin(Ref Ganong 25/e p3, 24/e p2; Guvton I p309, 310)Fluid volumeIndicator usedTotal body water volumeDeuterium oxide: D20 (MC used)degTritium oxidedeg, Aminopyrinedeg, AntipyrinedegExtracellular fluid volumeInulin (most accurate)degs22Na, 1251-iothalamate, thiosulfatedegPlasma volumeEvans bluedegSerum albumin labeled with radioactive iodinedeg (1-125)Intracellular fluid(Calculated as total body water - extracellular fluid volume)Blood volume"Cr-labeled RBCsdeg, or calculated as blood volume = plasma volume/ (1 - hematocrit)Interstitial fluid(Calculated as extracellular fluid volume - plasma volume) | Physiology | null | Interstitial fluid volume can be determined by:
A. Radioactive iodine and radiolabelled water
B. Radioactive water and radiolabelled albumin
C. Radioactive sodium and radioactive water
D. Radioactive sodium and radioactive labelled albumin
| Radioactive sodium and radioactive labelled albumin |
6bb818fb-dbe5-4580-8f45-d6e875bf0516 | Preeclampsia when complicated with convulsion and / or coma is called eclampsia.
Fits occurring in eclampsia are Generalised tonic clonic seizure.
In most cases seizures are self limited, lasting for 1 to 2 minutes.
Management:
“The first priorities are to ensure that the airway is clear and to prevent injury and aspiration of gastric content
COGDT 10/e, p 326
Initial management during eclamptic fit:
Patients should be kept in an isolated room to protect from noxious stimulus which might provoke further fits.
Mouth gag is placed between teeth to prevent tongue bite.
Air passage is cleared off the mucus.
Oxygen is given.
Catheterization is done to monitor urine output.
Specific management:
A. Medical management
i. Seizure treatment
The drug of choice for the control and prevention of convulsions is magnesium sulphate (Pritchard’s regimen) Previously used anticonvulsant regimen for eclampsia was ‘Lytic cocktail regimen’ given by Menon using pethidine, chlorpromazine and phenargen. but now it is not used.
ii. Treatment of hypertension
DOC in eclampsia is labetalol.
2nd DOC in eclampsia is hydralazine.
B. Obstetric management in antepartum cases:
Immediate termination of pregnancy should be done.
Vaginal delivery is preferred but “In current obstetrical practice the large majority of eclamptic women are delivered by cesarean section. The most common exception to cesarean delivery are women with a fetal demise and the rare ones with a very ripe cervix.”
Fernando Arias 3/e, p 427 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 28 year old eclamptic woman develop convulsions.The first measure to be done is:
A. Give MgSO4
B. Sedation of patient
C. Immediate delivery
D. Care of airway
| Care of airway |
d58a8e4e-0f5e-42bb-8b24-75a882eacfa2 | Answer A. IOL should be removed in case of Posterior Capsule ossification 1. The indications for removing an intraocular lens (IOL) are:Chronic uveitisEndothelial corneal dystrophyUncontrollalbe glaucomaMetal loop cutting pupillary sphincterGross decentration of IOL (fibrous bands)Extraocular dislocation of IOL G. Recurrent severe hyphemaDevelopment of rubeosis iridisRemoval of iris (1) Iris tumor (2) Epithelial downgrowthEndophthalmitisUnilateral IOL in pending bilateral aphakia 2. The following may be indications for removing and/or replacing and/or replacing an IOL:Wrong dioptric powerForeign body attached to IOLIOL covered with pigmentRepair retinal detachment after extracapsular cataract extractionChoyce lens too shoDannheim IOL with absorbed supramid loop tipsDislocated Ridley IOLSclero-conjunctival erosion of Strampelli's "external-fixation" IOL loop Reference - <a href=" | Ophthalmology | null | IOL placed in the young male., After 10 year what should be done..?
A. IOL should be removed in case of Posterior Capsule ossification
B. Never be removed
C. Remove when presbyopia sets in
D. Should be changed after 10 year
| IOL should be removed in case of Posterior Capsule ossification |
257b6434-4c38-4b6a-8207-23c436906b0c | Ans: A. There is no association present between the factor and the diseaseEstimation of relative risk (RR):Direct measure (or index) of strength of association between suspected cause and effect.RR=1 - Indicates no association.RR > 1 - Indicates positive association between exposure & disease under study.RR = 2 - Indicates incidence rate of disease is 2 times higher in exposed group (compared with unexposed).Impoant in etiological enquiries. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a coho study, to study association between factor and disease, the risk ratio was calculated to be equal to 1. What does this signifies?
A. There is no association present between the factor and the disease
B. There is positive association between the factor and the disease
C. There is negative association between the factor and the disease
D. Data insufficient to comment
| There is no association present between the factor and the disease |
5ccc26af-b2fb-4d7e-b117-e622359b75a2 | Osteoporosis - screened using DEXA scan staing from the age group of 65 years It measures - bone mineral density and uses a T score to identify osteoporosis. T score: 0 to -1 - normal 1 to -2.5 - osteopenia < -2.5 - osteoporosis | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2019 | Minimum age of screening of osteoporosis:
A. 55 years
B. 60 years
C. 65 years
D. 50 years
| 65 years |
e5e8e766-7a60-497c-80f9-842c60f4e1a4 | Answer- A. BreastMost common site of primary for intraocular metastasis is from breast.'Breast cancer is the most common tumor to metastasize to the eye followed by lung cancer. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Most common site of primary for intraocular metastasis is from-
A. Breast
B. Ovary
C. Cervix
D. Endometrium
| Breast |
b92c7401-27d9-4cc0-80f1-5e6369047365 | Ans: A. 8-15 degC(Ref: Park 22/e p100)Some medicines come with label of 'store at a cool place only'.These medicines should be kept at 8-15 degC.Definitions of Storage Conditions of Drugs as per Ip 6 (Indian Pharmacopoeia 1996)ColdAny temperature not exceeding 8degC and usually between 2-8degC. A refrigerator is a cold place in which the temperature is maintained thermostatically between 28degC.CoolAny temperature between 8-25degC.An aicle, for which storage in a cool place is directed may alternately,be stored in a refrigerator unless otherwise specified in the individual monograph.Room TemperatureThe temperature prevailing in a working area.WarmAny temperature between 30-40degC.Excessive heatAny temperature above 40degC.Light resistant containersA light-resistant container protect the content from the effect of actinic light by viue of the specific propeies of the material of which it is made.Well closed containerA well-closed container protects the contents from contamination by extraneous liquid & from loss of the aicle under normal condition of handling, shipment, storage & distribution.Well closed containerA tightly closed container protects the contents from contamination by extraneous liquid & solids or vapor, from loss or deterioration of the aicle from effervescence, deliquescent or evaporation under normal condition of handling, shipment, storage & distribution. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Some medicine comes with a label of 'store at a cool place only'. At what temperature should these medicines be kept?
A. 8-15 degC
B. 2-8 degC
C. 0 degC
D. 25-28 degC
| 8-15 degC |
a0f45cea-4081-4953-943a-04c0b89c02b7 | Answer- A. Polymoa virus BK Polyoma BK Virus:BK virus is Polyoma virus associated with nephropathy, typically after l-4 moths after transplant.High levels of BK virus replication detected by PCR in urine and blood are predictive of pathology. especially in setting of renal transplantation.Urinary excretion of BK virus and BK virusemia are associated with the development of ureteric strictures, Polyoma virus associated nephropathy. | Surgery | null | An elderly male presents 2 months after renal trans-planatation with nephropathy. Which of the following can be a viral etiological agent?
A. Polymoa virus BK
B. Human herpes virus type 6
C. Hepatitis C
D. Human papillorna virus, high risk types
| Polymoa virus BK |
5bb71e79-6495-4b29-a2b4-8af6d9fb4d86 | Normal duration of erythropoiesis = 7- 9 days Under influence of erythropoietin = 5- 6 days EPO acts on earlier precursors i.e. Formation of burst forming units formation of proerythroblast It has been determined that the impoant effect of erythropoietin is to stimulate the production of proerythroblast from hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. In addition, once the proerythroblasts are formed, the erythropoietin causes these cells to pass more rapidly through the different erythroblastic stages than they normally do, fuher speeding up the process Page 488, CH 33. : | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | Erythropoietin acts on:
A. CFU
B. Late erythtoblast
C. Normoblast
D. Burst forming unit (BFU)
| Burst forming unit (BFU) |
73bd4537-a8bc-420a-a85e-93d08adc318b | Ans: A. Intramedullary tumor(Ref Sutton 6/e p254: Neurology in Clinical Practice 4/e Vol I p579)Myelography:Expansion of contrast filled space (i.e. subarachnoid space) - Any intramedullaty extradural lesion (meningioma).Sometimes filling defect causing "meniscus sign" demonstrable.Levels of Block in MyelographySiteTypical AppearanceExtradural blockFeathered appearanceIntradural Extramedullary blockMeniscus signWidening of ipsilateral subarachnoid spaceIntramedullary blockWidening of the cordTrouser leg appearance | Radiology | null | Expansion of the contrast filled space in myelography is seen in:
A. Intramedullary tumor
B. Intradural extramedullary tumor
C. Spinal dysraphism
D. Extradural tumor
| Intramedullary tumor |
6788f1c9-7377-4903-a8df-21c81f252f7c | Answer- A. Coical vein thrombosisCoical Vein Thrombosis (CVT)Incidence of CVT is increased during pregnancy & in puerperiumIncidence appears higher in developing countries.Predisposing Factors:Prothrombotic conditions, OCPs, pregnancy, puerperiumMalignancy, infection & head injuryClinical Features:MC presenting symptom: Headaches (of gradual, acute, or thunderclap onset)Associated features may include focal neurological sings, seizures and coma.Diagnosis:Diagnosis is done with MR venography.Treatment:Anticonvulsants for seizures; heparinization is recommended by most, its efflcacy is controversial.Antimicrobials for septic thrombophlebitisFibrinolytic therapy is reserved for those women failing systemic anticoagulation | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A lady delivered a normal vaginal delivery and was discharged. On third day she came back with fever, tachycardia and seizures. Fundus showed papilledema with no focal deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Coical vein thrombosis
B. Meningitis
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Acute migraine
| Coical vein thrombosis |
ee5e4f25-9cee-48ea-b4aa-b631162d4543 | Kaagener's syndrome is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic ciliary disorder in which defective dynein arm results in defective ciliary motility. Presents with a triad of : Situs inversus Bronchiectasis Sinusitis Reduced ciliary motility leads to asthenozoospermia( slow moving sperms) | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | Infeility in kaagener syndrome is due to which of the following?
A. Oligospermia
B. Blockage of epididymis
C. Asthenozoospermia
D. Undescended testis
| Asthenozoospermia |
c1ac14de-a0f0-47fa-8451-273abce0150a | Ans: A. Optic nerve invasion(Ref Kanski 7/e p510-517; Yanoff and Duker 4/e p793)Most common mode of retinoblastoma spread-By optic nerve invasion.Direct extension by continuity to optic nerve & brain seen.Retinoblastoma:Primary malignant intraocular neoplasm.Arising from immature retinoblasts within developing retina.Most common primary intraocular malignancy of childhood in all-racial groups.Strong tendencies invading brain optic nerve & metastasize widely. | Ophthalmology | null | The most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma:
A. Optic nerve invasion
B. Lymphatics
C. Vascular
D. Direct invasion
| Optic nerve invasion |
fd8307b4-06b2-4493-bd48-46121a660315 | Second Generation Apex Locator (Impedance-based Apex Locator) / Low Frequency Apex Locator
Inoue introduced the concept of impedance-based apex locator which measures opposition to flow of alternating current or impedance.
This apex locator indicates the apex when two impedance values approach each other. | Dental | null | Impedence based apex locator is:
A. Generation 1
B. Generation 2
C. Generation 3
D. Generation 4
| Generation 2 |
1146bb08-e590-4323-a743-83bc2d531045 | From the given history: No fever Mass in right lumbar region Spine changes - Pyonephrosis, Appendicular lump in retrocecal position, Torsion of Right undescended testis can be ruled out as these conditions wont present with these clinical features Psoas abscess: Psoas Abscesses: The psoas muscle is another location in which abscesses are encountered. Psoas abscesses may arise from a hematogenous source, by contiguous spread from an intra- abdominal or pelvic process, or by contiguous spread from nearby bony structures (e.g., veebral bodies). Associated osteomyelitis due to spread from bone to muscle or from muscle to bone is common in psoas abscesses. When pott's disease was common, Mycobacterium tuberculosis was a frequent cause of psoas abscess. Currently, either S. aureus or a mixture of enteric organisms including aerobic and anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is usually isolated from psoas abscesses in the United States. S. aureus is most likely to be isolated when a psoas abscess arises from hematogenous spread or a contiguous focus of osteomyelitis; a mixed enteric flora is the most likely etiology when the abscess has an intra- abdominal or pelvic source. Patients with psoas abscesses frequently present with fever, lower abdominal or back pain, or pain referred to the hip or knee. CT is the most useful diagnostic technique."- Harrison 19/e p852 "Spinal TB (Pott's disease or tuberculous spondylitis) often involves two or more adjacent veebral bodies. Whereas the upper thoracic spine is the most common site of spinal TB in children, the lower thoracic and upper lumbar veebrae are usually affected in adults. From the anterior superior or inferior angle of the veebral body, the lesion slowly reaches the adjacent body, later affecting the interveebral disk. With advanced disease, collapse of veebral bodies results in kyphosis (gibbus). A paraveebral "cold" abscess may also form. In the upper spine, this abscess may track to and penetrate the chest wall, presenting as a soft tissue mass; in the lower spine, it may reach the inguinal ligaments or present as a psoas abscess. "Harrison 19/e p1110 | Surgery | AIIMS 2017 | A 10 year old child came to the OPD with pain and mass in right lumbar region with no fever, with right hip flexed. The pain increased on extension and X ray showed spine changes. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Psoas abscess
B. Pyonephrosis
C. Appendicular lump in retrocecal position
D. Torsion of Right undescended testis
| Psoas abscess |
ea82ad9c-fb9b-43d8-b172-7c6e1593f19b | An important improvement of ZOE cements was the development of materials in which the liquid is a mixture of 2-ethoxybenzoic acid (EBA) and eugenol, roughly in a 2:1 proportion. Rather than forming a stronger matrix, the addition of EBA allows for the use of very high powder-to-liquid ratios (6:1) which, per se, increases the strength of the set cement. In these materials, alumina (30%) was added to the powder as a reinforcing agent.
Ref: Craig's restorative dentistry ed 13 pg 284 | Dental | null | Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc oxide eugenol cement by:
A. Acetic acid
B. Alginic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Ortho-ethoxy acid
| Ortho-ethoxy acid |
ea74c4e3-b77c-4f4b-93f5-446329dca730 | Answer-B. -Decrease in activation energyThe enzymes speed up chemical reactions by lowering the magnitude of the activation energy banier, i.e.,free energy of Activation | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following leads to an increase in enzyme activity -
A. Increase in temperature
B. Decrease in activation energy
C. Extremes of pH value
D. Low substrate concentration
| Decrease in activation energy |
01b445b9-8c7f-4cb1-b14c-d766cd4483dd | In clinical practice MC is Zigmondy and palmar system(Grid system). | Dental | null | Most commonly used tooth numbering system in books is
A. Universal system
B. Zigmondy and Palmar
C. FDI
D. Grid System
| Universal system |
1d52cc45-c223-46cb-8774-c2dc1051f116 | Answer- D. Myositis ossificansMyositis Ossificans (MO) is an unusual pathological entity still largely unknown, characterized by dystrophic calcification leading to heterotopic ossification of intramuscular connective tissue.DYSTROPHIC CALCIFICATION may occur due to 2 types of causes:Calcification in dead tissueCalcification of degenerated tissue.Calcification in dead tissue:Caseous necrosis in tuberculosisLiquefaction necrosis in chronic abscessesFat necrosis following acute pancreatitis or traumatic fatnecrosis in the breast results in the deposition of calcium soaps.Gamma-Gandy bodies in chronic venous congestion (CVC) of the spleen is characterized by calcific deposits admixed with haemosiderin on fibrous tissue.Infarcts may sometimes undergo dystrophic calcification.Thrombi, especially in the veins, may produce phleboliths.Haematomas in the vicinity of bones may undergo dystrophic calcification.Dead parasites like in hydatid cyst, Schistosoma eggs, and cysticercosis are some of the examples showing dystrophic calcification.Calcification in breast cancer detected by mammography.Congenital toxoplasmosis involving the central nervous system visualized by calcification in the infant's brain.Calcification in degenerated tissues1. Dense old scars may undergo hyaline degeneration and subsequent calcification.2. Atheromas in the aoa and coronaries frequently undergo calcification.3. Mo?nckeberg's sclerosis shows calcification in the tunica media of muscular aeries in elderly people.4. The stroma of tumors such as uterine fibroids, breast cancer, thyroid adenoma, goiter, etc shows calcification.5. Some tumors show characteristic spherules of calcification called psammoma bodies or calcospherites such as in meningioma, papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary and papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.6. Cysts that have been present for a long time may show calcification of their walls e.g. epidermal and pilar cysts.7. Calcinosis cutis is a condition of unknown cause in which there are irregular nodular deposits of calcium salts in the skin and subcutaneous tissue.8. Senile degenerative changes may be accompanied by dystrophic calcification such as in coastal cailages, tracheal or bronchial cailages, and pineal glands in the brain, etc. | Pathology | null | Example of Dystrophic calcification-
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Hypervitaminosis D
D. Myositis ossificans
| Myositis ossificans |
fd03f7de-6c4a-4244-97c6-12829919c1ed | Answer-B- stapedial otosclerosisIn otosclerosis the normal dense endochondral layer of the bony otic capsule gets replaced by irregularly laid spongy bone. Most common site is fissula ante fenestram (anterior tothe oval window)Age group affected is 20-45 years (maximum between 20-30 years). Male:female ratio is 1:2.meniere's disease i.e Endolymphatic hydrops leads to SNHL and not conductive hearing loss.Tuning ForkTests in Otosclerosis: Rinnes test-negative ,Weber's test-lateralized to ear with greater conductive loss. | ENT | null | female patient came with right side hearing loss, better heard in a noisy environment,Audiogram shown with about 30-40 dB gap between AC-BC of right & left ear. Rinne's test negative, Weber's test centralised. Which of the following condition shown?
A. Meniere's disease
B. stapedial otosclerosis
C. Presbycusis
D. Vestibular schwannoma
| stapedial otosclerosis |
4d992bbe-1bd9-417f-b08b-4a1c22095439 | Ans-d-Mitocondrial inheritance , it is the only non-chromosomal DNA in human cells.Mitochondria! DNA, is always maternally inherited.Mitochondrial and nuclear DNA are located in different places in the cell. During feilization, the sperm and egg cell nuclei fuse to form an embryo.The egg cell is very large compared to the sperm, so although the cells nuclei fuse, the rest of the cell mass in the embryo comes from the egg only.Nuclear DNA is therefore co-inherited but the mitochondrial DNA, which is located outside of the nucleus, is always maternally inherited because all mitochondria in a foetus and later adult are derived from the mitochondria in the mother 's egg.So, in diseases showing mitochondria! inheritance all children from affected mother will inherit the disease but it will not be transmitted from an affected father to his children. | Biochemistry | null | Mother to children's transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?
A. Codominance
B. Autosomal dominant inheritance
C. Recessive inheritance
D. Mitochondrial inheritance
| Mitochondrial inheritance |
8692345e-a600-4355-a964-bb514b16d977 | BTK gene is involved in Buon's disease or X linked agammaglobulinemia. Most cases of X linked Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) are due to mutations in IL2RG gene. Other mutations are defective enzyme production in Adenosine deaminase and mutations in ZAP -70 which causes defective T cell signalling which causes combined immunodeficiency and mutation occurs in JAK-3. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Gene not involved in SCID
A. BTK
B. ZAP70
C. IL2RG
D. JAK3
| BTK |
bf8d5b76-bda5-4221-95ef-d536c00c24ee | Ghai states - "In India Rotavirus and enterotoxogenic E.coli account for nearly half of the total diarrhoea) episodes among children". | Pediatrics | null | A 6–month–old infant presents to the 'diarrhoea clinic' unit with some dehydration. The most likely organism causing diarrhea is –
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Rotavirus
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Shigella
| Rotavirus |
24def2ac-27df-4d80-9792-fc5708a94153 | Ans: A. Drug inventoryABC and VED analysis at PHC are done for drug inventory.Inventory control is a scientific system which indicates as to what to order, when to order, and how much to order, and how much to stock so that purchasing costs and storing costs are kept as low as possible.It helps to protect against the fluctuation in supply and demand, unceainty and minimise waiting time.There are various methods involved for inventory control but two are commonly used: Always, better and control (ABC) and vital, essential and desirable (VED). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | ABC and VED analysis at PHC are done for:
A. Drug inventory
B. Staff management
C. Vaccination coverage
D. National Programs implementation.
| Drug inventory |
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