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3b952daf-c786-4ed6-87f3-02f21e1a2997 | Answer: b. Oxcarbazepine (Ref: Harrison 194, p2552. 18/e pc 1)3262)Among the options provided, oxcarbazepine is the best drug to manage this old patient with normal renal functions presents with new onset focal seizures | Medicine | null | 72-y ear-olo gentleman with normal renal functions presents with new onset focal seizures. Which of the following is the best drug to manage the patient?
A. Sodium valproate
B. Oxcarbazepine
C. Leviteracetam
D. Pregabalin
| Oxcarbazepine |
7d728f72-4c79-421d-abbf-da809c42c558 | Ans. a. Pubococcygeus When the pubococcygeus muscle contracts, it pulls the rectum, vagina, and urethra anteriorly toward the pubic bone and constricts the lumens of these pelvic organs. It is this contractile propey that is so impoant in maintaining urinary and fecal continence and in providing suppo for the genital organs (vagina, cervix, uterus) that lie upon and are suppoed by the levator plate. Injury to pubococcygeus can lead to rectocele, cystocele and urinary incontinence. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Injury to which of the following deep pa of perinea! body causes cystocele, enterocele and urethral descent?
A. Pubococcygeus
B. Ischiocavernosus
C. Bulbospongiosus
D. Sphincter of urethra and anus
| Pubococcygeus |
1e5b509f-35b6-4133-95ab-dbd33122ed8f | Answer- A. Osteosarcoma of lower limbsChildren with germline retinoblastoma are more likely to develop other primary malignancies in their later lifetime course.Osteosarcoma of lower limbs can occur in such patients.Retinoblastoma Syndrome (Primary site malignancy)- Familial Retinoblastoma | Pediatrics | null | Children with germline retinoblastoma are more likely to develop other primary malignancies in their later lifetime course. Which of the following malignancy can occur in such patients?
A. Osteosarcoma of lower limbs
B. Thyroid carcinoma
C. Seminoma
D. Renal cell carcinoma
| Osteosarcoma of lower limbs |
44f185f0-7a8e-406c-a33a-b2d7d54e7a25 | Ans: C. AzithromycinRef: n e u m o n ia- i n- a d u I t s -in -t h e - o u tp atie n t - s e tt in g H 4Only one drug which is active orally i.e. Azithromycin.We require OPD based treatment; hence Azithromycin is the best answer here. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug is commonly used for community acquired pneumonia in OPD?
A. Vancomycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Azithromycin
D. Streptomycin
| Azithromycin |
5a2f9e25-3acb-4830-9f18-009480595be1 | Side effects of Escitalopram GI side effects: MC Vivid Dreams Sexual dysfunction on long term intake Sialorrhea is a side effect of clozapine | Psychiatry | AIIMS 2019 | Not a side effect of Escitalopram?
A. Nausea
B. Vivid dreams
C. Anorgasmia
D. Sialorrhoea
| Sialorrhoea |
02e841ba-5ecf-4f3b-974e-e1a077bcae5a | Answer B. 2 doses of vaccine on day 0 and 3Two doses of vaccine on Day 0 & 3 should be administered to this boy.This case is classified under WHO category III since the bleeding was present at the site of dog-bite(toe). This kid should receive PEP without any delay as his immunization was done more than 3 months ago. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Child has received full rabies vaccination in December 2018 and now presented with oozing wound on great toe and the pet had vaccination also, what would you do now?
A. No vaccine
B. 2 doses of vaccine on day 0 and 3
C. Full 5 doses of vaccines
D. Rabies Ig and full vaccination
| 2 doses of vaccine on day 0 and 3 |
77d35e3d-ce5c-426c-91da-17f5259efafa | Answer- A. Transcranial ultrasound Diagnostic Procedures:Polygraphic video-EEG recording ofsuspected events is probably mandatory for an incontroveible seizure diagnosis.It is performed at the bedside and provides effective assessment of ventricular size and other fluid-containing lesions as well as effective viewing of haemorrhagic and ischaemic lesions and their evolution.CT brain scan is often of secondary or adjunctive impoance to ultrasound. Last-generation CT brain scan imagesare of high resolution, can be generated within seconds and can accurately detect haemorrhage, infarction, grossmalformations and ventricular and other pathological conditions.MRI is much superior for abnormalities of coical development used for the detection of structural abnormalitiessuch as malformations of coical development, intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus and cerebral infarction. | Pediatrics | null | A 2 year old premature neonate develops GTCS. What is the best investigation done to diagnose the pathology?
A. Transcranial ultrasound
B. CT Head
C. MRI brain
D. X-ray
| Transcranial ultrasound |
e5738b76-f11a-4599-9a5d-479116b993c1 | Ans. B. Histamine* Histamine causes marked dilatation of smaller blood vessels that include aerioles, capillaries, and venules. | Pharmacology | null | Vasodilatation is caused by:
A. Serotonin
B. Histamine
C. LT C4
D. Thromboxane A2
| Histamine |
9f529003-8d44-442b-8dfc-f839e7f96a72 | Answer- D. Lobectomy of the affected segmentAll of the given options are used for control of hemoptysis in the following order: Bronchoscopic laser cauterization +Bronchial aery embolization + Pulmonary aery embolization + Lobectomy of the affected segment."Large-volume hemoptysis, referred to as massive hemoptysis, is variobly defined as hemoptysis of >200-600 mL in 24h. Massive hemoptysis should be considered a medical emergency. | Surgery | null | A 56 years old patient came to casualty with history of massive hemoptysis. His routine investigations and chest X-ray was normal. Which of the following is not done to prevent hemoptysis?
A. Bronchial aery embolization
B. Pulmonary aery embolization
C. Bronchoscopic laser cauterization
D. Lobectomy of the affected segment
| Lobectomy of the affected segment |
00a9d0ce-1638-4a3d-98a6-59e99938c5db | Ans: B. Epinephrine(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p326,. Katzung, 13/e p162, 12/e p160,. KDT 7th/e p153. 6th/e p123).Epinephrine acts on dilator pupillae, causing the dilatation of pupil analogous to that of pilocarpine on sphincter papillae.Sympathetic stimulation of adrenergic receptors causes the contraction of the radial muscle and subsequent dilation of the pupil.Parasympathetic stimulation causes contraction of the circular muscle and constriction of the pupil. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs acting on dilator pupillae has an action analogous to that of pilocarpine on sphincter papillae?
A. Timolol
B. Epinephrine
C. Neostigmine
D. Tropicamide
| Epinephrine |
cd4a4452-2cfc-41d0-be4f-ab2c29778feb | Ans: D. Phototherapy(Ref: Nelson 20/e p873)Jaundice on day 1 of life - Due to some hemolytic disease or congenital infections.Treated using phototherapy.Possibility of Rh incompatibility ruled out as mother blood group is 0+.Ideally basic investigations for hemolytic anemia should be sent simultaneously (not given in the option).Best option would be phototherapy. | Pediatrics | null | A neonate presented with jaundice on first day of life. His mother's blood group is `0' positive. How will you manage this patient?
A. Observe only as it is mostly physiological jaundice
B. Exchange transfusion
C. Liver function tests and liver biopsy as it is mostly due to cholestasis
D. Phototherapy
| Phototherapy |
b482ac20-7d0a-46a2-a5b6-8833ca5adbae | The incidence of secondary caries is markedly less around silicate restorations. This is surprising when considering that severe leakage takes place at its margins.
Also, the incidence of contact caries is less when compared to amalgam restorations (contact caries is the term applied to caries occurring on the proximal surface of the tooth adjacent to the restoration).
The anti-cariogenic property is due to presence of 15% fluoride. Fluoride release is slow and occurs throughout the life of the restoration. Silicate cement was classed as a severe irritant to the pulp because of its low pH (acidic).
For many years, silicate served as a standard for comparing the pulpal response to other materials. In deep cavities, the pulp had to be protected with varnish or calcium hydroxide.
Manapallil 3rd Ed P: 88 | Dental | null | The logical explanation for the unique anticariogenic property of most silicate cements is:
A. The reduction in enamel solubility due to fluoride uptake by enamel
B. That beryllium flux is used in silicates
C. That silicates show very little leakage at the margins of the restoration
D. Due to the high silica content
| The reduction in enamel solubility due to fluoride uptake by enamel |
90a1a7e3-3ff3-4653-8d13-3de6811b4eca | Ans. A. Beta-1 and beta-2 agonistBeta-1 stimulation increases hea rate and systolic blood pressure. Beta-2 stimulation cause vasodilation and thus decreases diastolic blood pressure and tremors. Hence, the drug appears to be beta-1 and beta-2 agonist. | Pharmacology | null | An unknown drug is being tested in experimental setup. The results obtained are given in the table. From these actions, new drug is likely to be:ParameterPlacebo treatedNew drug treatedHea rate7286Systolic BP110150Diastolic BP8068TremorsAbsentPresent
A. Beta-I and beta-2 agonist
B. Alpha-1 antagonist and beta-2 agonist
C. M2 and M3 agonist
D. Alpha-1 and beta-1 agonist
| Beta-I and beta-2 agonist |
ed92d804-ac83-440a-b908-df404df935ad | Answer- C. Hyperkeratosis of squamous epitheliumChange seen in coniunctiva after vitamin A deficiency is hyperkeratosis of squamous epithelium.'Vitamin A is necessary for normal differentiation of nonsquamous epithelium; keratinization is a direct consequenceof its deficieny.Reduced aqueous tear production, and irregularities of the keratinized surface may all contribute to stromal melting, which can occur in the absence of inflammatory infiltration or bacterial invasion.Squamous metaplasia and keratinization. | Ophthalmology | null | Changes seen in conjunctiva after vitamti. A deficiency:
A. Actinic degeneration
B. Hyperplasia of goblet cells
C. Hyperkeratosis of squamous epithelium
D. Stromal infiltration
| Hyperkeratosis of squamous epithelium |
62b4984a-2bd0-47b0-ab7c-8cc7027c8303 | Answer is D (Persistent thrombocytosis > 1000 x 109/L positive to therapy)Accelerated phase is associated with thrombocytopenia (9/L) and not thrombocytosis.Although multivariate analysis derived criteria also place blood or marrow basophils > 20% in disease criteria, other criteria do consider marrow and peripheral basophils > 10% as a criteria and hence option (D) is the single best answer here.Accelerated phase of CML: It is defined by the development of increasing degrees of anemia unaccounted for by bleeding or chemotherapy and is defined by several criteria. Multivariate analysis derived criteria Other commonly used criteriaCytogenetic clonal evolution Blood or marrow blasts between 10 and 20% Increasing drug dosage requirementBlood or marrow basophils > 20% Marrow reticulum or collagen fibrosis Platelet count < 100 x 10deg/L unrelated to therapy Marrow or peripheral blasts > 10%Marrow or peripheral basophils eosinophils - 10% Triad of WBC > 50 x 109/L, haematocrit < 25% and Mai,100 liP/L not controlled ii1111 therapy Unexplained fever or bone pain | Pathology | null | Which one of the following is not a criterion for making a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia in accelerated phase:
A. Blasts 10-19% of WBC's in peripheral blood
B. Basophils 10-19% of WBC'S in peripheral blood
C. Increasing spleen size unresponsive to therapy
D. Persistent thrombocytosis (>1000 x 109/L) unresponsive to therapy
| Persistent thrombocytosis (>1000 x 109/L) unresponsive to therapy |
d98f10a4-8b10-44bd-8160-ec5719d2f4c1 | Ans. b. S3Ref Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 2511' edn; Page no. 542Hea SoundsCauseCharactersSite of auscultationPhonocar- diogramECG correlation51-Vibrations set up by suddenclosure of AV valvesat the sta of ventricular systole, during phaseof isovolumetric contraction. Long & soft LUBB Duration -0.15 sFrequency- 25 - 45 HzBest heard over mitral and tricuspid areaSingle group of 9-13 waves - rescendoand diminuendo series of wavesCoincides with peak of R wave52 - Vibrations with closure ofsemilunar valves ust at the onset of ventricular diastole.Heard as a single sound during expiration but during inspiration the increased output of the right hea causes a physiological splitting. Sho,loud High Pitched DUBB Duration0.12 s Frequency 50 HzBest heard over aoic and pulmonary area Single group of 4-6 waves having same amplitudeCoincides with end of T wave CauseCharactersSite of auscultationPhonocar- diogramECG correlation53 -- Vibrations set up in cardiac wallby inrush of blood during rapid fillingphase of ventricular diastole. It may be heard duringlate pregnancy. In children and young adults, is a normalfinding.Sho, soft Low pitched Duration --0.1 sNormally cannot be heard byauscultation with stethoscope 1-- 4 waves grouped togetherAppears between T and P waves54 -- Vibrations set up during atrialsystole Coincides with last rapid filling phaseof ventricular diastole. Examples include concentrichyperophy, aoic stenosis, and myocardial infarction. Sho, low pitched Duration -- 0.03 sFrequency --3 HzNormally cannot be heard by auscultationwith stethoscope1-2 waves with very low amplitudeCoincides with interval betweenend of P wave and onset of Q wave | Physiology | null | Which of the following hea sound may be a normal finding during pregnancy?
A. Fixed splitting of S2
B. S3
C. S4
D. Pericardial knock
| S3 |
49742408-b907-4963-a7b7-3e23f073e1bb | Ans: C. 50,000(Ref Bailey 27/e p22-23, 26/e p23, Nelson 20/e p2374).Target platelet count after transfusion for performing invasive procedure in thrombocytopenic patient = 50, 000.Blood ProductStandard GuidelinesFFPIf prothrombin time (PT) or paial thromboplastin time (PTT) > 1.5 times normal.CryoprecipitateIf fibrinogen < 0.8 g/LPlateletsIf platelet count <50 x 109/mL | Surgery | null | In a patient with thrombocytopenia, what is the target platelet count after transfusion to perform an invasive procedure?
A. 30,000
B. 40,000
C. 50,000
D. 60,000
| 50,000 |
1fc80d00-8929-4d18-9f07-25d005ceec59 | Gold standard treatment for intractable veigo in patient of Menier's disease - Surgical Labyinthectomy Rx of Menier's disease Acute episode: Labyrinthine sedatives Maintenance phase Medical K+sparing diuretics B blockers Antihistamines Surgical Conservative :Decompression of endolymphatic sac ,Vestibular neurectomy. Radical :Surgical Labyinthectomy Intratympanic Gentamycin therapy Silverstein microwick microcatheter Meniett's device | ENT | AIIMS 2018 | Best surgery to relieve intractable veigo in a menieres disease patient is?
A. Surgical Labyinthectomy
B. Vestibular neurectomy
C. Endolymphatic sac decompression
D. Cochleosacculotomy
| Surgical Labyinthectomy |
8ad384bd-4443-4440-aab0-3766aa07e450 | Ans: B. VDRL for husband and wife(Ref Williams 24/e p358-359; Dutta 8/e p343, 7/e p167)VDRL:Simple test.Performed in initial work-up for all multiple aboion cases.All aboions are by 16th week while in syphilis, usually there is a improvement in the duration of pregnancy (Kassowitz Law).Kassowitz law:For untreated syphilis woman with series of pregnancies - Have lesser likelihood of infection of fetus from later pregnancies. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A G6+0+0 lady with h/o recurrent missed aboions at 14-16 weeks comes to you with a missed aboion at 12 weeks. Which of the following tests is not warranted?
A. Lupus anticoagulant
B. VDRL for husband and wife
C. Anticardiolipin antibody
D. Fetal karyotype
| VDRL for husband and wife |
476fc39f-b59d-4878-839c-006da1da3f70 | A pregnancy continuing beyond two weeks of the expected date of delivery (> 42 weeks or >294 days) is called postmaturity or post-term pregnancy. Pregnancy between 41-42 weeks is called prolonged pregnancy.
Most common cause of post term pregnancy is wrong dates so, a careful review of menstrual history is important in all
such cases –
“If the patient is sure about her date with previous history of regular cycles, it is a fairly reliable diagnostic aid in the calculation of the period of gestation. But in cases of mistaken maturity or pregnancy occurring during lactational amenorrhoea or soon following withdrawal of the pill’, confusion arises. In such cases, the previous well documented antenatal records of first visit in first trimester if available, are useful guides.”
Dutta Obs. 6/e, p 319
Once the menstrual history is confirmed, investigations like USG and amniocentesis are done:
To confirm fetal maturity
To detect any evidence of placental insufficiency | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A woman comes with postdated pregnancy at 42 weeks. The initial evaluation would be:
A. Induction of labour
B. Review of previous menstrual history
C. Cesarean section
D. USG
| Review of previous menstrual history |
c0a989ca-6fdf-4c72-9407-44ef61bfceee | Remember 3 ‘FUNDAS: Highest maternal mortality is associated with Class III of clarkes cl;assification, so any of those diseases are given they will have the worst prognosis. Amongst them also Eisenmengers syndrome has the worst prognosis.
↓
2. Stenotic heart disease have a worse prognosis than regurgitant lesions.
Among stenotic disease-(in alphabetical order)-Aortic stenosiswill have the worst> Mitral stenosis>Pulmonary stenosis.
↓
3. Congenital heart disease and Mitral valve prolapse have the best prognosis
So now this question becomes very easy-Mitarl vave prolapse has the best prognosis, so it is ruled out; Regurgitant lesions have a better prognosis than stenotic lesions so mitral regurgitation is also ruled out. Now we are left with 2 options, aortic stenosis and pulmonary stenosis-as I said go alphabetically, aortic stenosis will have a worse prognosis than pulmonary.
Let’s consider each of the options one by one and see what Williams has to say about each of them.
Option “a” Mitral regurgitation
“M R is well-tolerated during pregnancy probably due to decreased systemic vascular resistance which actually results in less regurgitation. Heart failure only rarely develops during pregnany.”
Williams Obs. 22/e, p 1026, 23/e, p 966
Option “b” Mitral valve prolapse
“Pregnant women with mitral valve prolapse rarely have cardiac complications. In fact pregnancy induced hypervolemia may improve alignment of mitral valve.”
Williams Obs. 22/e, p 1030, 23/e, p 971
Option “c” Aortic stenosis
“Although mild to moderate degree of aortic stenosis is well tolerated but severe degree is life threatening.”
Williams Obs. 22/e, p 1026, 23/e, p 967
Option “d” Pulmonary stenosis
“It is well tolerated during pregnancy and rarely causes any complication.”
Williams Obs. 22/e, p 1027, 23/e, p 968 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In heart patient the worst prognosis during pregnancy is seen in:
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Mitral valve prolapse
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Pulmonary stenosis
| Aortic stenosis |
7b08c0f1-55fc-45d7-b4e1-b6e4666a1f88 | Ans C. Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cellsGardnerella vaginalis, facultatively anaerobic gram-variable rod, is one of the organisms responsible for bacterial vaginosis (BV).The vaginal discharge of BV is characteristically described as a thin, gray, homogeneous fluid that is adherent to the vaginal mucosa. A fishy vaginal odour, which is paicularly noticeable following coitusis present.Demonstration of clue cells on a saline smear is the most specific criterion for diagnosing BV.The whiff test may be positive in up to 70% of BV patients.The vaginal discharge of patients with BV is notable for its lack of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs), typically 1 or less than 1 PMN per vaginal epithelial cell. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 26 years old patient c/o foul smelling greyish white discharge diagnosed to be Gardnerella vaginalis infection. Microscopic finding is suggestive of?
A. Group of bacilli arranged in chain forms
B. Bacteria found to be engulfed by macrophages
C. Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cells
D. Bacteria arranged in cluster forms
| Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cells |
1e8c037d-b7d9-48c9-8aba-39b01a178619 | Answer- D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathyRetinitis pigmentosa, Methanol poisoning and Central retinal aerial occlusion (CRAO) can lead to optic atrophy.Occurs secondary to retinal disease (disease of inner retina or its blood supply)Its ascending type of optic atrophy.Causes:Retinitis pigmentosaCRAOExtensive retino choroiditis | Ophthalmology | null | Optic atrophy is not seen in:
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Methanol poisoning
C. Central retinal aerial occlusion (CRAO)
D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
| Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy |
85377a0a-3388-46b2-b2ba-43b90a2b7955 | Measles vaccine is effective post-disaster. Incubation period - 10-14 days IP of Vaccine Induced Measles(VIM) - 7 days, hence immunity is provided before the natural infection. The highest risk of transmission post-disaster is of diarrhoeal and respiratory diseases, which have an incubation period of a few days. ABSOLUTELY contraindicated in post-disaster phase for mass vaccination Typhoid Cholera Tetanus . | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which vaccine is effective for Mass vaccination post-disaster?
A. Cholera
B. Typhoid
C. Measles
D. Scrub typhus
| Measles |
dc918d5f-2451-47cb-9b33-25b5eb96cab0 | Cardiac pain may be transmitted to the jaw due to the overlapping of 5th cranial nerve, third cervical nerve, and first thoracic nerve | Anatomy | null | Cardiac pain may be transmitted to the jaw due to the overlapping of:
A. 5th cranial nerve, third cervical nerve and first thoracic nerve
B. 7th cranial nerve, third cervical nerve and first thoracic nerve
C. 5th cranial nerve, second cervical nerve and first thoracic nerve
D. 7th cranial nerve, second cervical nerve and first thoracic nerve
| 5th cranial nerve, third cervical nerve and first thoracic nerve |
5f4b2d07-01cf-4c5f-9140-1d0649ec58ca | Answer- D. Scavenges nitrogenPhenylbutyrate is used to treat urea cycle disorders, because its metabolites offer an alternative pathway to the urea cycle to allow excretion of excess nitrogen. Urea cycle disorders result in the accumulation of precursors of urea, principally ammonia and glutamine. Phenylbutyrate provides an alternate means of detoxfication of glutamine acetylation, which bypasses the urea cycle. | Biochemistry | null | Phenylbutyrate is used in management of urea cycle disorders. What is its role?
A. Activates enzymes of urea cycle
B. Excretion of products of urea cycle
C. Maintains energy production
D. Scavenges nitrogen
| Scavenges nitrogen |
650ee1f1-18e4-4e45-beaa-94f44eca7de5 | Answer- D. Gastric inhibitory polypeptideCCK- As chyme floods into the small intestine, cholecystokinin is released into blood and binds to receptors on pancreatic acinar cells, ordering them to secrete large quantities of digestive enzymes.Secretin-The predominant effect of secretin on the pancreas is to stimulate duct cells to secrete water and bicarbonate.Gastrin- Stimulate acid secretion by the parietal cell, gastrin stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes. | Medicine | null | Which of the following doesn't have any effect on pancreatic secretion?
A. Cck
B. Gastrin
C. Secretin
D. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide
| Gastric inhibitory polypeptide |
a95f4998-4d5f-43c4-ba66-78e1a1cb8b57 | 'LaQshya' programme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Launched in 2017) under the umbrella of NHM aims at improving quality of care in labour room and maternity Operation Theatre (OT). GOAL : Reduce preventable maternal and newborn moality. Morbidity and stillbihs associated with the care around delivery in the labour room and maternity OT. Ensure respectful maternity care. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Improving Quality of Labour room is covered under which program?
A. LaQshya
B. Improving care of newborn
C. Ayushman Bharat Scheme
D. JSSK
| LaQshya |
defe1c85-63fe-4a16-ba10-b3749975818a | The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone separates the anterior cranial fossa from the nasal cavity. It is a horizontal perforated bony lamina, occupying ethmoidal notch of frontal bone. The cribriform plate contains foramina for olfactory nerve rootlets | Anatomy | null | The cribriform plate connects:
A. Nasal cavity and anterior cranial fossa
B. Nasal cavity and orbit
C. Nasal cavity and oral cavity
D. Anterior cranial fossa and orbit
| Nasal cavity and anterior cranial fossa |
105be08b-3a40-4e47-831d-f8cae8b90240 | Ans. B: ScabiesScabies is essentially a disease of the children. The itching appears a few days after infestation. It may occur within a few hours if the mite is caught a second time.The itch is characteristically more severe at night and affects the trunk and limbs.It does not usually affect the scalp.Burrow is the pathognomic lesion of scabies.Scabies burrows appear as tiny grey irregular tracks between the fingers and on the wrists.They may also be found in armpits, buttocks, on the penis, insteps and backs of the heels. Microscopic examination of the contents of a burrow may reveal mites, eggs or mite faeces (scybala). | Skin | null | A child presented with complaint of severe itching over the web of fingers, more at night. Examination revealed burrows. Most probable diagnosis is:September 2009
A. Tinea cruris
B. Scabies
C. Infantile eczema
D. Papular uicaria
| Scabies |
e49551cd-0938-4688-a453-9913cac000db | REGRESSION:
Is change in measurements of a variable
Provides structure of relationship between 2 quantitative variables
Regression Coefficient (b): Measure of change of one dependent variable (y) with change in independent variable (x) or variables (x1, x2, x3……)
Equations of regression,
y = a + b (x)
y = a + b (x1) + c (x2) + d (x3),
where y is a dependent variable and x, x1, x2, x3 are independent variables; a is a constant and b, c, d are regression coefficients
Types of regressions:
– Simple linear regression: Only one dependent variable and one independent variable
– Multiple linear regression: Only one dependent variable and more than one independent variable
– Simple curvilinear regression: Only one dependent variable and one independent variable, with some power of independent variable
– Multiple curvilinear regression: Only one dependent variable and more than one independent variables, with some power of independent variables).
Types of regression equations: | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | If we know the value of one variable in an individual and wish to know the value of another variable, we calculate -
A. Coefficient of correlation
B. Coefficient of regression
C. SE of mean
D. Geometric mean
| Coefficient of regression |
8b0d7f3b-3c6c-4973-83d1-9e3220b73538 | Ans - b). FerropoinIron leaves the mucosal cell a transpo protein ferropoin, but only if there is free transferrin in plasma to bind to. Once transferrin is saturated with iron, any that has accumulated in the mucosal cells is lost when the cells are shed. Expression of the ferropoin gene is downregulated by hepcidin, a peptide secreted by the liver when body iron reserves are adequate. In response to hypoxia, anemia, or hemorrhage, the synthesis of hepcidin is reduced, leading to increased synthesis of ferropoin and increased iron absorption. As a result of this mucosal barrier, only ~10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and only 1 to 5% from many plant foods. | Biochemistry | null | Hepcidin decreases iron absorption by inhibition of -
A. Hephaestin
B. Ferropoin
C. Divalent metal ion transpoer
D. Transferrin
| Ferropoin |
dcded707-a751-431c-bba8-9b04446cc735 | Ans.C. Binding of ATPBinding of ATP on the free site of myosin leads to the detachment of myosin head from thin filament. | Physiology | null | Detachment of myosin head from actin is caused by?
A. Entry of calcium into sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Change in troponin C configuration
C. Binding of ATP
D. Release of ADP and Pi
| Binding of ATP |
5515fbdd-b28a-4493-914c-b8cefe901334 | - Perinatal perioda 28 weeks period of gestation till 7 days post delivery - Perinatal Deaths Still bihs Early Neonatal death - Cut- off / Indicators for perinatal moality: - Bihweighta > 1000 grams Period of Gestationa > 28 weeks Bih lengtha >35cms - Perinatal Moality Rate (PNMR) = x1000 ( LB = Live bih ; PND = Perinatal death) - PNMR in India= 23 per 1000 live bihs. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Numerator in Perinatal moality is
A. Post neonate death with weight 2.5 kg
B. Early neonatal with weight 1000 grams
C. Aboion of < 500 gram foetus
D. Still bih of fetus > 500 grams
| Early neonatal with weight 1000 grams |
5a6d126f-f4cd-4cf2-b58d-6390a88f80f1 | Developmental agenesis of primary teeth is relatively rare. When several primary teeth fail to develop, other ectodermal deficiencies are usually evident. Most commonly missing primary teeth are maxillary canines.
Reference: McDONALD AND AVERY’S DENTISTRY for the CHILD and ADOLESCENT, 10th ed page no 64 | Dental | null | Most commonly missing primary teeth are:
A. Maxillary central incisors
B. Mandibular central incisors
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
D. Maxillary canines
| Maxillary canines |
90d38496-3baf-4df8-a4ce-5210d0dbfa0f | Ans:. A. Grey GaugeColor codeExternal DiameterLengthFlow Rate14GOrange2.1 mm45 mm240 ml/min16GGrey1.8 mm45 mm180 ml/min18GGreen1.3 mm32/45 mm90 ml/min20GPink1.1 mm32 mm60 ml/min22GBlue0.9 mm25 mm36 ml/min24GYellow0.7 mm19 mm20 ml/min26GViolet0.6 mm19 mm13 ml/min | Surgery | null | In a patient with dehydration, which of the following color intravenous cannula will you place for rapid fluid resuscitation?
A. Grey
B. Blue
C. Pink
D. Green
| Grey |
ee6fc122-f7cc-425b-b372-9c55c4f5f5ab | Ans: C. 5(Ref: Williams 24Ie p525-526; Dutta 8Ie p600, 7/e p722)Cervical Station: -1 = 2; Cervical Dilatation: 1 cm = 1; Effacement: 30% = 0 ; Cervix Position: Posterior = 0; Consistency: Soft = 2.Hence, Bishop Score = 5.Bishop Scoring System Used for Assessment of InducibilityCervical FactorDilatation (cm)Effacement (%)Station (-3 to +2)ConsistencyPositionClosed0-30-3FirmPosterior1-240-50-2MediumMidposition3-460-70-1SoftAnterior>_5?80+1, +2-- | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A primigravida came to the labor room at 40 weeks + 5 days gestation for induction of labor. On per vaginal examination, the cervix is 1 cm dilated and 30% effaced. The veex is at --1 station and the cervix is soft and posterior. What will be the modified bishop score for this lady?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
| 5 |
713b94cf-fc1e-4c32-b28e-f187cf86562d | Index of Orthognathic Functional Treatment Need
This index applies to those malocclusions that are not amenable to orthodontic treatment alone, due to skeletal deformity, and will ordinarily apply to those patients who will have completed facial growth prior to surgery (commonly 18 years of age and older) It relates only to the functional need for treatment and should be used in combination with appropriate psychological and other clinical indicators. | Dental | null | IOTN is not used for which malocclusion?
A. Open bite
B. CLP
C. Bimaxillary protrusion
D. Crowding
| Bimaxillary protrusion |
4f2d9080-e4cc-48f7-a4d1-b06e0a207a76 | Ans: B. Antistreptolysin OAntistreptolysin O(ASLO):Marker for recent streptococcal infection.Best investigation to prove rheumatic etiology. Suppoing evidence:Preceding streptococcal infection within last 45 days.Elevated or rising anti-streptolysin O/other streptococcal antibodies.A positive throat culture.Rapid antigens test for group A streptococcus.Recent scarlet fever."Revised Jones" criteria do not include recent scarlet fever as suppoing evidence of recent streptococcal. | Medicine | null | A girl comes with symptoms of involuntary movements. Sydenham's chorea and acute rheumatic fever is suspected. Other major criteria of rheumatic fever (ahritis, skin rashes, subcutaneous nodules and carditis) were absent. No evidence of sore throat. Best investigation to prove rheumatic etiology is:
A. Antistreptolysin S
B. Antistreptolysin O
C. Throat culture
D. PCR for M protein
| Antistreptolysin O |
23ce8f17-8358-419a-b2d9-92079d21241b | Eisenmenger’s syndrome is the presence of secondary pulmonary hypertension that develops from any cardiac lesion.
The syndrome develops when increased pulmonary blood flow due to left to right shunt produces a right side pressure more than left side and hence reversal of shunt occurs and subsequently cyanosis develops.
It is the heart disease with the worst prognosis during pregnancy with a maternal mortality of 50%.Q Hence, pregnancy is contraindicated is patients of eisenmengers.
If diagnosis of Eisenmenger is made in the first trimester, termination of pregnancy is advised.
Most common cause of death in Eisenmenger’s syndrome is right ventricular failure with cardiogenic shock. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In which of the following heart diseases maternal mortality is found to be highest ?
A. Eisenmenger's complex
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
| Eisenmenger's complex |
292be6a1-f5da-4d67-8ae1-ae4d05a5f4a4 | Greater auricular nerve - supplies sensory innervation for skin over parotid & mastoid process(both surfaces of outer ear) | when damaged after parotidectomy, | causes hyperesthesia / hypoesthesia | Anatomy | AIIMS 2019 | Post parotidectomy, patient feels numb while shaving. Which nerve was involved ?
A. Facial
B. Mandibular
C. Auriculotemporal
D. Greater auricular
| Greater auricular |
9010a09d-b097-4371-afbc-c2532fe02740 | Phase-contrast microscopy takes advantage of minute refractive index differences within cellular components and between unstained cells and their surrounding aqueous medium to produce contrast in these and similar transparent specimens. | Microbiology | null | Phase-contrast microscopy is based on the principle of:
A. Different refractive indices of object
B. Different reflective indices of object
C. Light scattering
D. Light attenuation
| Different refractive indices of object |
66092ccf-9a06-466a-a08f-8964f3091a9c | Three most common organisms causing ASOM -4 S. pneumoniae (40%), H. influenzae (25-30%), Moraxella, catarrhalis (10-15%)
Note - H.influenzae causing ASOM is nontypable. The incidence of H.influenzae type 'b' has decreased because of widespread use of Hib vaccine. | Pediatrics | null | In a 4 year old child with ASOM the infecting of organism is likely to be –
A. Pneumococcus
B. H.influenza
C. Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus
| Pneumococcus |
59ca3227-50c1-4151-a65f-3bfeb8768028 | Ans. A i.e. 300The increased calorie requirement is to the extent of 300 over the non pregnancy state during second half of pregnancy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Increased calories required during pregnancy:September 2012
A. 300
B. 400
C. 550
D. 800
| 300 |
a3cbc052-9644-4a98-85de-c4f18d88b9c7 | Klenow fragment Large fragment produced by Subtilisin mediated proteolytic cleavage of E.Coli DNA polymerase I. Proteolysis removes the 5' -->3' exonuclease activity from N-terminal. Klenow fragment - Functions : Remove 3' overhang Fills 5' overhangs Synthesis of double-stranded DNA from single-stranded templates Preparation of radioactive DNA probes Was used in PCR | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Klenow fragment is formed by loss of fragment having which activity:
A. 5'- 3' polymerase
B. 3'- 5' exonuclease
C. 5'- 3' exonuclease
D. 3'- 5' polymerase
| 5'- 3' exonuclease |
dd8ed71b-5a18-4683-a64f-6187c82c94ed | POISSON DISTRIBUTION:
Is a ‘discrete probability distribution’ that expresses the ‘probability of a number of events occurring in a fixed period of time’ (if these events occur with a known average rate and independently of the time since the last event)
It can also be used for the number of events in other specified intervals such as distance, area or volume
Is generally used to model the number of events occurring within a given time interval
Is a discrete distribution which takes on the values X = 0, 1, 2, 3,….
In the given question, one has to study the daily admission of head injury patients in a trauma care centre, Since, it describes the no. of events in time (no. of head injury patients admitted per day, Therefore, it is a Poisson distribution. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which is the best distribution to study the daily admission of head injury patients in a trauma care centre
A. Normal distribution
B. Binomial distribution
C. Uniform distribution
D. Poisson distribution
| Poisson distribution |
8cd9acfa-7c86-406b-83f0-49e7e207aef7 | Just before the next dose, the plasma concentration of drug is minimum; so it is relatively safer to feed at that time. Some drugs are secreted significantly in milk. There is no relation between half-life of a drug and its milk secretion ; So, long half life drugs may also come in milk. Not all the drugs are harmful or significantly secreted in milk so feed should not be stopped. Drugs C/I during lactation: Lithium Aspirin Levetiracetam Atenolol Sulfonamide Metronidazole Methotrexate Metals(Cu). | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following instructions should be given to a lactating mother regarding drug usage?
A. No advice is required as most of the drugs are secreted negligibly in the milk
B. Take drugs with longer half-life
C. Tell her to feed the baby just before next dose
D. Do not feed the baby if you are consuming any drug
| Tell her to feed the baby just before next dose |
39aa0685-41e4-4701-acb9-88abe226e574 | Ans: A. Tmax and CmaxRef: Sharma & Sharma's Principles of Pharmacolog, j'd ed., pg. 30-31 and hup:// whrw. e a r op e a n r ev i ew. o r g/wp /wp - c o n t e nt/ up I o a d s/6. p df .From the plasma concentration graph, we obtain three impoant parametersCmax is the peak plasma concentrationTmax i.e. time to attain the peak plasma concentration or CmaxAUC (Area under the curve) of plasma concentration time graphThe 1st two parameters i.e. Cmax and the Tmax are the indicators of the rate of absorption. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following gives the rate of drug absorption in plasma concentration graph?
A. Tmax and Cmax
B. Area under the curve
C. Tmax alone
D. Cmax alone
| Tmax and Cmax |
bf77a9c9-3c08-43fc-8159-8f8509238024 | Ans: B. Methylation(Ref Robbins 9/e p180, 8/e pl)Genomic imprinting:DNA modified by methylation.An epigenetic process resulting in differential inactivation of either maternal or paternal alleles of ceain genes.Mechanism:DNA methylation at CG nucleotide.Histone H4 deacetylation.Methylation. | Pathology | null | In genomic imprinting. DNA is modified by:
A. Acetylation
B. Methylation
C. Phosphorylation
D. Deamination
| Methylation |
26f30f24-dcd8-453d-8553-9ee82ad496e1 | Answer- A (Gerstmann's syndrome)The combination of acalculia (impairment of simple arithmetic), dysgraphia (impaired writing)' finger anomia (an inability to name individual fingers such as the index and thumb), and right-teft confusion (an inability to tell whether a hand, foot, or arm of the patient or examiner is on the right or left side ofthe body) is known as Gerstmann's syndrome. When Gerstmann's syndrome is seen in isolation, it is commonly associated with damage to the inferior parietal lobule (especially the angular gyrus) in the left hemisphere. | Medicine | null | A 62 years old woman presented with acute onset confusion and bumping into th ings. On examination, she was ale, oriented with fluent speech and normal comprehension. Fuher examination revealed impaired writing (acalculia), right-left confusion, impaired arithmetic abilities, difficulty in finger identification. MRI demonstrated foci of coical and sub coical increase T2 signals and areas of leptomeningeal enhancement. Most likely diagnosis:
A. Gerstmann's syndrome
B. Millard-Gubler syndrome
C. Anton syndrome
D. Korsakoff's psychosis
| Gerstmann's syndrome |
88448a03-9101-434a-97d8-a9be98bae8f1 | Ans. a. Hoover testIn Hoover test, the subject relaxes in a supine position on the table while the examiner places both of the subject's heels into the palm of the examiners hands.Test positioning: The subject relaxes in a supine position on the table while the examiner places both of the subject's heels into the palm of the examiners hands.Action: The subject is asked to perform a unilateral straight leg raisePositive finding: Inability to lift the leg may reflect a neuromuscular weakness. A positive finding is also noted when the examiner does not feel increased pressure in the palm that underlies the resting leg | Surgery | null | A patient came with complaints of lower limb weakness. Examiner places one hand under the patient's heel and patient is asked to raise his other leg against downward resistance. What is the name of this test?
A. Hoover test
B. Waddell's test
C. O'Donoghue test
D. McBride test
| Hoover test |
16759fbf-ac94-4ec3-9fde-0702eee3eac5 | * In sham surgery, surgery is done without any purpose; we just open the abdomen in one person and close it, in other person appendix is removed; this is done to see whether appendectomy has any advantage.* Placebos (fake drug/dummy medicine) are used in clinical trials to compare the two treatments; it can't produce any effect. * Herbal medication can produce some effects.* Physiotherapy can also produce effects. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following is an example of placebo?
A. Herbal medication with no known effect
B. Physiotherapy
C. Sham surgery
D. Cognitive behavioral therapy
| Sham surgery |
b55cdaad-1107-4491-b7dc-64a2a939838b | Ans: A. Kaposi sarcoma(Ref Harrison 19/e p1270, 716; Goodman Gilman I2/e p1755; Katzung 13/e p954-955, 12/e p706: KDT 7/e p284-285, 6/e p285)Steroids - Therapeutic uses in cancer:Used as cytotoxic agents in treatment of acute leukemia in children & malignant lymphoma in children & adults.Component of curative regimens for Hodgkin's & non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, multiple myeloma & CLL.Glucocoicoids - Extremely helpful in controlling autoimmune hemolytic anemia & thrombocytopenia associated with CLL.Dexamethasone - Used in conjunction with radiotherapy - Reduces edema related to tumors in critical areas such as superior mediastinum, brain & spinal cords. | Pharmacology | null | Steroids do not have a role in management of which of these tumors?
A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Chronic lymphoid leukemia
C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Multiple myeloma Gram-stain, oropharynx
| Kaposi sarcoma |
bf338178-cb15-4239-bf94-f6cfcb38d61f | Electrolyte disturbances, including hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia, are commonly seen in association with infants of diabetic mother and may result in early-onset seizures.
Sorry friends, I could not find any reference which has directly mentioned that hypoglycemia is a more common cause of seizure than hypocalcemia in infants of diabetic mother.
I was just able to find following two statements : -
"Infants of diabetic mother are most at risk for hypoglycemia which can result in seizure".
"Infant of diabetic mothers with seizures, that does not respond to glucose should have their serum calcium measured"
From these two statements, it seems to me that hypoglycemia is a more common cause of seizures in infants of diabetic mother. | Pediatrics | null | Infant of diabetic mother with weight 3.8 Kg presented with seizures after 16 hours of birth.What is the cause –
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Birth asphyxia
D. Intraventricular hemorrhage
| Hypoglycemia |
6f3ff710-ea60-42a8-9345-2838c57b4511 | Enamel spindle-
Diameter (2p)
Extended odontoblast processes in enamel
Perpendicular (right angle) to dentin
DDT (Dark - Dehydrated - Transmitted light) | Dental | null | Extension of odontoblast processes into enamel
A. Enamel spindle
B. Cracks
C. Primary dentin
D. Secondary Dentine
| Enamel spindle |
174760f1-1b8a-4643-b017-813b7d123ff2 | Ans: A. Urine outputGoal of treatment:Restore cellular and organ perfusion.Hence, monitoring of organ perfusion should guide the management of shock.The best measures of organ perfusion and the best monitor of the adequacy of shock therapy remain the urine output. | Surgery | null | Which of these is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid resuscitation?
A. Urine output
B. CVP
C. Pulse rate
D. Blood pressure
| Urine output |
081dedb5-37f1-482c-a416-599ac0ab619a | Lipoarabinomannan (LAM) is a virulence factor for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It prevents phagolysosomal fusion. It is secreted in urine so can be used for screening purposes. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | Lipoarabinomannan (LAM) assay in urine is used for screening of?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Pneumocystis jirovecii
C. Histoplasm capsulatum
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
139d03ab-9bd0-4bb7-a076-8b3b2ff2528e | Chemical fixation This utilizes organic or non-organic solutions to maintain adequate morphological preservation. Chemical fixatives can be considered as members of three major categories: coagulant, cross-linking, and compound. Coagulant fixatives: Both organic and non-organic solutions may coagulate proteins making them insoluble. Cellular architecture in vivo is maintained primarily by lipoproteins and fibrous proteins such as collagen. Coagulating these proteins maintains tissue histomorphology at the light microscope level. Unfounately, because coagulant fixatives result in cytoplasmic flocculation and poor preservation of mitochondria and secretory granules, these fixatives are not useful in ultrastructural analysis. Examples: Ethanol, methanol, acetone, picric acid and trichloroacetic acid Cross-linking fixatives: Several chemicals were selected as fixatives secondary to their potential actions of forming cross-links both within and between proteins and nucleic acids. Examples include formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde and other aldehydes, e.g. chloral hydrate and glyoxal, as well as metal salts, e.g. mercuric and zinc chloride, and other metallic compounds, e.g. osmium tetroxide. useful for electron microscopic examination - Glutraldehyde (best one)/formaldehyde/osmium tetraoxide Compound fixatives: Alcoholic formalin | Pathology | AIIMS 2020 | Which of the following is not a cross-linking fixative?
A. Osmium tetroxide
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Methanol
D. Formaldehyde
| Methanol |
928c6efd-d481-4323-83f0-721dae436451 | Ans. a. BradycardiaCholinomimetic is used for open-angle glaucoma, cobra bite, and myasthenia gravis but not in bradycardia. Uses of CholinomimeticDiseases of eye Glaucoma and accommodative esotropiaAtropine overdosesGastrointestinal and urinary tract Alzheimer's diseasePostoperative atony, neurogenic bladderCobra bite: Neostigmine and edrophoniumHea: Ceain atrial arrhythmiasNeuromuscular junction: Myasthenia gravis, Curare induced neuromuscular paralysis | Pharmacology | null | Cholinomimetic is not used in which of the following?
A. Bradycardia
B. Glaucoma
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Post-surgical atony or ileus
| Bradycardia |
b18e044b-bb0e-4046-ad9e-3b0d3a5beaa5 | Answer-A. p53Cell cycle inhibitorsCIP/KIP family - p21, p27, p57INK4a/ARF family - p161 NK4a, pl4ARFA G1 arrest can result simply by the p53 induced expression of p21 WAF1/CIP1/Sdi1 P53 also down regulates the expression of cyclin A, providing a secondary break on cell cycle progression into the through the S phase. | Pathology | null | Gene which inhibits cell cycle is -
A. p53
B. RB
C. p16
D. Notch receptor
| p53 |
6fd1e538-3654-423e-9803-83f850493c22 | Ans. A. DepolarisationRef: Guyton & Hall 13' ed., ch-5, pg. 61-63.In this question if Z has a reversal potential or original RMP was more negative (e.g., -70 or -90 mV) then closure of C ion channels would shift the RMP closer to reversal potential of A, B thus depolarising the cell | Physiology | null | Cell membrane of a cell is freely permeable to three ions X, Y and Z. At resting membrane potential, the respective equilibrium potentials of Xand Y are -30mV and -40 mV.What will happen to the membrane potential if a drug is infused which can block the permeability of Z?
A. Depolarisation
B. Hyperpolarization
C. No change
D. Hyperpolarization following repolarization
| Depolarisation |
5ef662e7-6d00-4ca1-a592-b862a54a5efa | The ideal restorative space for an implant supported hybrid denture is 12-15 mm (measured from the crest of alveolar ridge to occlusal plane) as accounted below:
Abutment: 3.0 mm
Hybrid Bar: 3.0 mm
Space: 1.0 mm
Acrylic: 4.0 mm
Teeth: 4.0 mm. | Dental | null | A case presented with lower natural teeth and 7 maxillary implants placed, having space of 15 mm for the restoration. What would be the ideal treatment plan for the patient?
A. Single crown and bridge screw retained
B. Single crown and bridge cement retained
C. Overdenture
D. Hybrid denture
| Hybrid denture |
f128aaa7-d0df-4339-8682-8172862d2da5 | “Hydrops is characterized by excess fluid in two or more body areas such as thorax, abdomen or skin. It is often associated with hydraminos and a hydropic thickened placenta”.
It is characterised by:
Increased skin thickness (> 5 mm) / skin oedema (first sign seen on USG).
Placental enlargement
Pleural effusion
Ascites
The fetus is in Buddha position with a halo around the head. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In non immune hydrops which of the following is NOT seen:
A. Skin oedema
B. Ascites
C. Large placenta
D. Cardiomegaly
| Cardiomegaly |
a456bf4d-1f3e-42a4-8976-b1b81ff466ee | If the tube is shifted mesially and the object in question appears to move distally, it lies on the buccal aspect of the reference object. These relationships can be easily remembered by the acronym SLOB: same lingual, opposite buccal.
Thus,
If the object in question appears to move in the same direction with respect to the reference structures as does the X-ray tube, it is on the lingual aspect of the reference object.
If it appears to move in the opposite direction as the X-ray tube, it is on the buccal aspect.
If it does not move with respect to the reference object, it lies at the same depth (in the same vertical plane) as the reference object.
Ref: ORAL RADIOLOGY Principles and Interpretation, Stuart C. White, Michael J. Pharoah Edition 7 page no 88 | Radiology | null | For a maxillary premolar in a radiograph, the facial root appears distal to the palatal root, the film was exposed with:
A. Increased vertical angulation
B. Decreased vertical angulation
C. From mesial side of the tooth
D. From distal side of the tooth
| From mesial side of the tooth |
ca59647e-62f5-4b2e-a0fd-e85f05af60c4 | The patient in the question has BP = 150/100 mm of Hg i.e. mild hypertension (severe hypertension is when systolic BP is > 160 mm or diastolic BP > 110 mm of Hg) and has no other complications. Her BP is controlled on treatment i.e. she is being managed expectantly.
In such patients pregnancy should be terminated at 37 weeks.
“If Pregnancy is beyond 37 completed weeks termination is to be considered without delay.”
... Dutta Obs. 7/e, p229
Management of Mild Preeclampsia:
Fernando Arias 3/e, p 419
Detailed examination for symptoms indicative of severe preeclampsia should be done daily. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 27 year primigravida presents with pregnancy induced hypertension with blood pressure of 150/100 mm of Hg at 32 weeks of gestation with no other complications. Subsequently, her blood pressure is controlled on treatment. If there are no complications, the pregnancy should be terminated at:
A. 40 completed weeks
B. 37 completed weeks
C. 35 completed weeks
D. 34 completed weeks
| 37 completed weeks |
83e62b82-7186-4bd8-81ad-c035cebd98c9 | Answer-D-fluoroquinolones,Clostridium difficile colitis results from a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon, colonization by C difficile, and the release of toxins that cause mucosal inflammation and damage.It is a spore-forming bacillus that is responsible for the development of antibiotic-associated diarrhea and colitis.The antibiotics that most often lead to C. difficile infections include fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins,penicillins and clindamycin. Once established, C. difficile can produce toxins that attack the lining of the intestine | Microbiology | null | clostridium difficile diarrhoea associated with:
A. Aminopenicillins
B. Carbapenems
C. Macrolide
D. Fluoroquinolones
| Fluoroquinolones |
47d11c3e-1090-4157-be00-405e9a23961e | Ans: A. Asymptomatic(Ref Paniker's 7/e p162, 6/e pg180, 210)Larvae of Ascaris, Hookworm and Strongyloides migrate through lung & various other tissues during their lifecycle.Larva migrans:Sometimes larvae appear to lose way & wander around aimlessly.Generally seen when human infection occurs with nonhuman species of nematodes.Ascaris:Pathogenic effects of larval migration due to allergic reaction & not larvae presence.Hence larvae's initial exposure usually asymptomatic.Except on very heavy larval load.Symptomatic conditions:Visceral larvae migrans is produced by infection with non-human nematodes.Le. Nematodes frequently infecting dogs & cats.Cause local alveolar hemorrhages.Symptoms during migration due to allergic reaction & significant only in massive infections.Clinical pneumonitis seen only in massive infections.Hence mostly asymptomatic. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is the most common systemic symptom during migration of larval phase of Helminths like Ancylostoma, Strongyloides and Ascaris?
A. Asymptomatic
B. Pneumonitis
C. Liver failure
D. Larva migrans
| Asymptomatic |
37383322-4c63-4a27-bc22-f63dcd5763db | Ans. DThe epidermis is composed of 4 or 5 layers, depending on the region of skin being considered.Those layers in descending order are:Cornified layer (stratum corneum)Composed of 10 to 30 layers of polyhedral, anucleated corneocytes (final step of keratinocyte differentiation), with the palms and soles having the most layers.Clear/translucent layer (stratum lucidum, only in palms and soles)This narrow layer is found only on the palms and soles. The epidermis of these two areas is known as "thick skin" because with this extra layer, the skin has 5 epidermal layers instead of 4Granular layer (stratum granulosum)Keratinocytes lose their nuclei and their cytoplasm appears granular. Lipids, contained into those keratinocytes within lamellar bodies, are released into the extracellular space through exocytosis to form a lipid barrier. Those polar lipids are then conveed into non-polar lipids and arranged parallel to the cell surface.Spinous layer (stratum spinosum)Keratinocytes become connected through desmosomes and sta produce lamellar bodies, from within the Golgi, enriched in polar lipids, glycosphingolipids, free sterols, phospholipids and catabolic enzymes.Langerhans cells, immunologically active cells, are located in the middle of this layer.Basal/germinal layer (stratum basale/germinativum).Composed mainly of proliferating and non-proliferating keratinocytes, attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes.Melanocytes are present, connected to numerous keratinocytes in this and other strata through dendrites.Merkel cells are also found in the stratum basale with large numbers in touch-sensitive sites such as the fingeips and lips. | Anatomy | null | Arrange the following layers of epidermis from surface to deep layer - CorneocytesMerkel cellsMelanocytesLangerhans cells
A. Corneocytes>merkel cell>melanocytes>langerhans cells
B. Merkel cells>corneocytes>melanocytes>langerhans cells
C. Melanocytes >merkel cells>corneocytes>langerhans cells
D. corneocytes>>langerhans cells>melanocytes > merkel cells
| corneocytes>>langerhans cells>melanocytes > merkel cells |
5945db96-21f3-4c7e-b4f5-d287d25aef89 | Ans: A. Crescent formationRapidly Progressive (Crescentic) Glomerulonephritis:Most common histologic - Presence of crescents in most glomeruli (crescentic glomerulonephritis).Crescents:Produced by proliferation of parietal cells & infiltration of monocytes & macrophages. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is the most consistent feature of rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?
A. Crescent formation
B. Mesangial cell proliferation
C. IgAdeposition
D. Loss offoot processes
| Crescent formation |
b9cbbe45-fa4a-4a54-b4f3-143039171071 | Ans: D. ABCG2(Ref Indian J Med Res. 2008 Aug:128(2):149-56. PM1D:19001678; http://wwwstembook.org/node/588).ABCG2:Universal marker of limbal epithelial stem cells.Limbal Stem Cell Marker.Keratin (K3-K13) = Corneal Stem Cell Marker | Ophthalmology | null | Universal marker of limbal epithelial stem cells:
A. Elastin
B. Keratin
C. Collagen
D. ABCG2
| ABCG2 |
dc2afba7-fa3d-4e64-b1cf-8dbf31e96100 | Ans: A. Give cell culture derived vaccine(Ref Park's 24/e p297, 23/e p279, 22/e p253)Most appropriate action - Give post-exposure prophylaxis with cell-culture derived vaccine.Post-Exposure Prophylaxis:Aim: To neutralize inoculated virus before entry to nervous system. Prevention:Effective & safe in preventing rabies:Concentrated & purified cell-culture vaccine (CCV).Embryonated egg-based vaccine (EEV).Uses:Intended for pre-exposure & post-exposure prophylaxis.Discontinuation point:Discontinued if suspected animal is proved by appropriate examination is rabies-free.Domestic dogs, cats or ferrets remain healthy throughout 10-days observation period staing from date of bite. Categories of contact with suspected Rabid animalPost-exposure prophylaxis measuresI. Touching or feeding animalsLicks on intact skinNoneII. Nibbling of uncovered skinMinor scratches or abrasions without bleedingImmediate vaccination & local treatment of wound.III. Single or multiple transdermal bites or scratchesLicks on broken skinContamination of mucous membrane with saliva from licksContact with batsImmediate vaccination and administration of rabies immunoglobulin and local treatment of the wound. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A 10-year boy with dog bite unprovoked comes to you. Appropriate action is:
A. Give cell culture derived vaccine
B. Withhold vaccine and observe dog for 10 days
C. Kill dog and send brain for biopsy
D. No fuher action is necessary
| Give cell culture derived vaccine |
b64edf88-505f-4eed-a95c-0bb506eaddf1 | Periodic (i.e. semi-annual) sampling is done of dental personnel, especially chair-side personnel exposed to nitrous oxide (e.g. with a diffusive sampler, such as a dosimeter or infrared spectrophotometer)
Office personnel who are at higher risk of NO toxicity, to prevent this most sensitive test for nitrous oxide detection is Infrared spectrophotometer.
Reference: Pediatric Dentistry by Nikhil Marwah 3rd ed, page no 250 | Dental | null | Office personnel who are at higher risk of NO toxicity, to prevent this, the most sensitive test for nitrous oxide detection is
A. Laminar flow
B. Dosimeter
C. Infrared spectrophotometer
D. High suction speed
| Infrared spectrophotometer |
6952d48e-42cc-46e5-81ff-6903102eaed3 | Langerhan’s histiocytosis was previously known as Histiocytosis X , it includes
Eosinophilic granuloma
Letterer siwe disease
Hand Schuller Christian disease | Pathology | null | Langerhan’s histiocytosis was previously known as
A. Eosinophilic granuloma
B. Pyogenic granuloma
C. Letterer siwe disease
D. Histiocytosis x
| Histiocytosis x |
19f583db-3c59-4886-843c-c626faaf6c70 | Student’s t-test:
– Paired Student’s t-test: Comparing means (± SD) in paired data (in same group of individuals before and after an intervention)
– Unpaired Student’s t-test: Comparing means (± SD) in two different group of individuals
– Z-test: Is a variant of student’s t-test which is used when sample size is > 30.
In the given question, mean ± SD of 20 boys (140 ± 13 cm) and 20 girls (135 cm ± 7cm) of the same age are compared, Thus most appropriate statistical test of significance would be Unpaired Student’s t-test. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Height of group of 20 boys aged 10 years was 140 ± 13 cm and 20 girls of same age was 135 cm ± 7 cm. To test the statistical significance of difference in height, test applicable is -
A. X2
B. Z
C. t
D. F
| t |
2cf21e00-e098-4ed3-83d5-118302a0d9ea | Nucleus tractus solitarius - Baroreceptors are spray type nerve endings that lie in the walls of the aeries & are stimulated when stretched. Most abundantly they are found in: 1. Wall of each Internal carotid aery (slightly above the carotid bifurcation) 2. Wall of aoic arch. Signal from the carotid baroreceptor are transmitted through hering's nerve to the glossopharyngeal nerve, in the high neck & then to the NTS in the medulla. Signal from the aoic baroreceptor in the arch of aoa are transmitted through vagus nerve to the same NTS to medulla. RVLM: - Rostral ventral lateral medulla. - Its vasoconstrictor area. - In hypotension, NTS receives the impulse when blood pressure falls & it needs to be increased. | RVLM will be stimulated. The axons of nerve cell bodies of RVLM, ends on each segment b/w T1 & L2. T1 - L2 contain intermediolateral horn, & there are sympathetic nerve cell bodies in them. Nucleus ambiguous: - Has cardio inhibitory area. Raphe nucleus: - Lies in midline of the PONS & medulla. Secrete serotonin. Not related to neural control of CVS | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Which centre first gets the input from neural control of CVS?
A. RVLM
B. NTS
C. Nucleus ambiguous
D. Raphe Nucleus
| NTS |
f608b3a8-f9f0-4096-af64-3fe43798a70f | Ans. C: EnalaprilAntihypeensive used in pregnancyAlpha methyldopaLabetololFelodipineNot usually initiated in pregnancy due to volume depletion but may be continued:NifedipineHydralazineACE inhibitors, Thiazide diuretics, Angiotensin antagonists (losaan), Furosemide, propranolol and nitroprusside areunsafe/safety unceain in pregnancy.Foetal growth retardation, hypoplasia of organs and foetal death may occur if ACE inhibitors are given during later half of pregnancy. | Pharmacology | null | Anti-hypeensive drug contraindicated in pregnancy is:September 2005, 2010 March 2007, March 2013
A. Hydralazine
B. Methyldopa
C. Enalapril
D. Amlodopine
| Enalapril |
3f1c84b8-4b70-4567-9d61-a49714ffb200 | Answer-B. Recurrent shoulder dislocationMost common sequelae of traumatic shoulder dislocation in young adults are recurrent shoulder dislocation. Anteriortlislocation Type I is the most common type of traumutic shoulder dislocation and its mosl common sequelae in youngadults is recurent dislocation in around 1/3rd patients. In fact, more than 9094 patients < 20 years have some shoulderinstability as sequelae. | Surgery | null | What is the most common sequelae of traumatic shoulder dislocation in young adults?
A. Rotator cuff tear
B. Recurrent shoulder dislocation
C. Adhesive capsulitis
D. Subscapular tendinitis
| Recurrent shoulder dislocation |
c757d1c6-e17b-4b88-baa3-38720c1dd5eb | Paradoxical suicide Occurs after the patient's improvement from a depression episode. Despite having suicidal thoughts there is no action taken on those thoughts but after taking medication the patient acts on it. Also seen in patients with schizophrenia. | Psychiatry | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following best describes paradoxical suicide?
A. Suicide after taking low dose of drug
B. Suicide occurring at the time when the pt. stas to recover
C. Suicidal tendency increase as the patient improves
D. Accidental completion of suicide
| Suicide occurring at the time when the pt. stas to recover |
6ca26608-cafb-46c8-80a1-39bc0e70d5ff | X-ray shows multiple lytic lesion. Histopathology shows cells with brown-color deposits, hemosiderin. * Ochronosis: Usually presents with blackening of urine.* Pigmented villo-nodular synovitis (PVNS): is an aggressive disorder arising from synol joints predominantly in the knee. It shows area of synol proliferation with histology showing hemosiderin stained giant cells.* Eumycosis: Commonly found in foot. Presents with sinuses. It shows Dot in circle sign. X-rays shows multiple bone cavities and progressive bone destruction.* Hemophilic pseudotumor: Usually found in ankle joint. Histopathology shows hemosiderin deposit due to haemorrhage. | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2018 | 10 year old present with ankle pain. X-ray has Lytic Lesion with sclerotic rim at calcaneum. Following HPE findings were seen. What is your diagnosis:
A. Eumycosis
B. PVNS
C. Ochronosis
D. Hemophilic pseudotumar
| Hemophilic pseudotumar |
8f57df40-4509-4083-a86d-d53e7bcaf328 | Ans. c. Congenital syphilisClinical Presentation of SyphilisEarly Congenital Syphilis:Snuffles (rhinitis)Q is earliest feature.Lesions are vesicobullousQ, and snail track ulcers on mucosaClinical Presentation of SyphilisLate Congenital Syphilis:Characterized by Hutchinson's triad (interstitial keratitis + 8th nerve deafness + Hutchinson's teeth i.e. peggedcentral upper incisors)QSaddle nose, sabre tibia, mulberry molarsQBull dog's jaw (protrusion of jaw)Rhagadesdeg (linear fissure at mouth, nares)Frontal bossing, hot cross bun deformity of skullClutton's jointdeg (painless swelling of joints, most commonly both knee)Palatal perforationdegHigaumenakis sign (periostitis leads to unilateral enlargement of sterna end of clavicle)Primary Syphilis:Painless, indurated, nonbleeding, usually single punched out ulcer (hard chancre)QPainless, rubbery shotty lymphadenopathySecondary Syphilis:Bilateral symmetrical asymptomatic localized or diffuse mucocutaneous lesiondeg (macule, papule, paulosquamousand rarely pustule)Non-tender generalized lymphadenopathyQHighly infectious condylomata late, in warm moist interiginous areasMoth eaten alopecia, ahritis, proteinuriaQTeiary Syphilis:Gumma, neurosyphilis/tabes dorsalisQOstitis, periostitisAoitis, aoic insufficiency, coronary stenosis and nocturnal anginaQ | ENT | null | Olympian brown and rhagdes are seen in-
A. CMV inclusion disease
B. Ectodermal dysplasia
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Hyper IgE syndrome
| Congenital syphilis |
16cf928c-960f-4c05-9320-2992e01f9211 | Ans: C. VigabatrinVigabatrin:Causes irreversible diffuse atrophy of the retinal nerve fiber layer.Most effect on the outer area (as opposed to the macular, or central area) of the retina, leading to the contraction of the visual field.Retinal toxicity attributed to taurine depletion. | Pharmacology | null | Which of these anticonvulsants causes contraction of visual field?
A. Levetiracetam
B. Phenytoin
C. Vigabatrin
D. Ethosuximide
| Vigabatrin |
29cec3ae-1d3f-4966-b791-d9eed37c3d1f | Answer- A. Section 228A 'Section 228A of the IPC a little known section introduced by an amendment to the law by the Parliament in 1983, deals with the disclosure of the identity of a victim of ceain offences and prevents it in rape cases. The section states that anyone who prints or publishes the name or only matter that may reveal the identity of a victim of rape shall be punished With fine and up to two years in jail. The law specifically lays down that under section 376 or 376A, 376 B, 376 C or 376 D, any victim of rape has to have her identity protected from public. | Forensic Medicine | null | Doctor or nursing disclosing the identity of rape, victim is punishable under the following section of IPC?
A. Section 228A
B. Section 222A
C. Section 224A
D. Section 226A
| Section 228A |
1aef2a5f-3e39-454e-b3af-4bcd777af890 | Ref. Textbook of forensic medicine. Krishnan Vij. Page. 586
Barbiturate poisoning
They are rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract including the rectum.
They are concentrated in the liver for a short time and then distributed into the body tissues and fluids
Long-acting, 4–7gm; intermediate-acting, 2–3gm; short- and ultrashort-acting, 1.5–2 gm.
Plasma levels of 3.5 mg/dl for short- acting and 10 mg/dl for long-acting barbiturates are indicative of serious toxicity.
Cyanosis is usually present. Postmortem staining may be promi- nent. In a few cases, there may be skin blisters, the so-called barbiturate blisters.
They are commonly found at the sites where pressure has been exerted between the skin surfaces, such as buttocks, backs of thighs, calves and forearms.
Inner surface of stomach has bluish and whitish barbiturate particles | Unknown | null | Consumption of which of the following poison produce bluish discoloration of stomach during postmortem examination.
A. Sodium amytal
B. Soneryl
C. Oxalic acid
D. Arsenic
| Sodium amytal |
960e3779-3e04-4c22-9cac-7e76c26c1e7e | Acute mountain Sickness: Acetazolamide causes diuresis Acclimatization 1000 m/day High altitude pulmonary edema High altitude cerebral edema | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | Which drug is given to prevent acute mountain sickness?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Dexamethasone
C. Digoxin
D. Diltiazem
| Acetazolamide |
28fb749e-f104-48ad-8387-c2dac5b62ec3 | Ans: A. Less chance of extension (Ref: Williams 24/e p551).A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred because it has a much lesser chance of extension through the perineum till anal sphincter, though there is increased risk of blood loss and it is difficult to repair. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | An episiotomy is to be performed in a primigravida in labor. Which of these is an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy over midline episiotomy?
A. Less chance of extension
B. Can be repaired at ease
C. Fewer breakdown
D. Lesser blood loss
| Less chance of extension |
4ec7c6a9-4bb5-4c6e-adae-691e30948d47 | Delay in eruption by around 6 months for deciduous dentition is considered normal. The age of the child in question is 10 months. So, wait and watch for further few months is the best method. | Dental | null | Mother of a 10 month old child came with a complaint of non-eruption of teeth, what will be the treatment protocol?
A. Wait and watch
B. You will do OPG which shows developing tooth buds
C. PA skull view which shows developing tooth buds
D. Paediatric consultation
| Wait and watch |
638938c5-4c5d-4ce0-8742-150395cce724 | Ans. b. Glucocerebroside (Ref. Robbins 9/ p153, 8/e p153)A child who presents with hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia, on bone marrow biopsy, large cells with crumpled tissue paper appearance is seen. The clinical picture is suggestive of Gaucher's disease, caused by deposition of Glucocerebroside. | Biochemistry | null | A 3- year old child has hepatosplenomegaly. On examination of the bone marrow, large cells are seen with crumpled paper appearance. Which of the following must have accumulated in these cells?
A. Spingomyelins
B. Gulcocerebrosides
C. Ceramides
D. Sulphatides
| Gulcocerebrosides |
f06f787a-ac63-41ec-b508-2b6d9848264d | Answer- C. AlbuminAlbumin is a negative acute phase reactant whereas ferritin, CRP and haptoglobin are positive phase reactants."The serum levels of most proteins either increase or decrease during the acute phase response. Serum proteins that decrease levels during inflammation are called negative acute phase reactants.C-reactive protein, fibrinogen, protein S, and fibronectin are examples of positive acute phase reactants.Positive Acute Phase ReactantsC-reactive protein (CRP)Serum amyloid AHaptoglobinCeruloplasminalpha 2-Macroglobulinalpha l-Acid glycoproteinFibrinogenComplement (C3, C4) | Pathology | null | Which of the following is a negative acute phase reactant?
A. Ferritin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Albumin
D. C-reactive protein
| Albumin |
65bef933-00cc-4f7b-8ca0-a77f2fe92c57 | Schedule H: Drugs which can be sold only with prescription. On the strip of drug a long red line is present. Rx is written on the top right corner. NRx- is written on Narcotic (habit forming) drugs. XRx- not available for general market, only given under special conditions where health care provider can give the drug. OTC- Over The Counter drugs can be given without prescription. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following drug must be sold only on production of a prescription by a registered medical practitioner?
A. Schedule H
B. Schedule G
C. Schedule X
D. Schedule M
| Schedule H |
b7899c5a-8bd2-4a87-8082-0ad7980f3886 | Setting standards of emergency obstetrics and newborn care:
Basic emergency obstetric and newborn care provided in health centres, large or small include the facilities for:
Administration of antibiotics, oxytocics and anticonvulsants.
Manual removal of the placenta.
Removal of retained products following miscarriage or abortion.
Assisted vaginal delivery preferably with vacuum extractor.
Comprehensive emergency obstetric and newborn care, typically delivered in district hospital, includes all basic functions above, plus cesarean section, safe blood transfusion and care to sick and low birth weight newborns including resuscitation.
It is recommended that for every 5,00,000 people there should be 4 facilities offering comprehensive essential obstetric care. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Comprehensive emergency obstetric care does not include:
A. Manual removal of placenta
B. Hysterectomy
C. Blood transfusion
D. Cesarean section
| Hysterectomy |
cfff846f-f37f-4866-9a45-7f903b5e80fe | Nelson writes :
"Laboratoiy .findings (for Cushing Syndrome)"
Cortisol levels in blood are normally elevated at 8 AM and decrease to less than 50% by midnight except in infants and young children in whom a diurnal rhythm is not always established. In patients with cushing syndrome this circadium rhythm is lost, and cortisol levels at midnight and 8 AM are usually comparable. Obtaining diurnal blood samples present logistical difficulties as part of an outpatient evaluation, but cortisol can be measured in saliva samples, which can be obtained at home at the appropriate times of day. Night time salivary cortisol levels are elevated and may be a screening test in obese children. | Pediatrics | null | Which one of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing's syndrome :
A. Loss of diurnal variation
B. Increased ACTH
C. Increased plasma cortisol
D. Increased urinary metabolites of cortisol
| Loss of diurnal variation |
90896a33-2ebb-4fee-b954-d37984ba6847 | Answer- B. 8 millionIn 2012, 6.6 million, 2011, 6.9 million children underfive died, down from 7.6 million in, 8.1 million in 2009 and 12.4 million in 1990. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | What is under-5 moality' rate in world by 2010?
A. 6 million
B. 8 million
C. 10 million
D. 12 million
| 8 million |
0383dfdc-42eb-43db-9fc1-34779d337f2e | - High risk infant includes, Bih weight < 2.5 kg Bih order > 5 Twin delivery Aificial feeding Weight < 70% of expected Failure to thrive Diarrhea/Protein energy malnutrition Working Mother /single parent | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following should be considered a 'High risk infant'?
A. Mal-presentation
B. Folic acid tablet not consumed
C. Working mother
D. Antenatal preeclampsia
| Working mother |
3bd6c1d7-7d78-4279-8347-7fd70f37a262 | At rest, myosin heads are bound=adenosine diphosphate(are said to be in a "cocked" position)in relation to the thin filament = does not have Ca 2+ bound to = the troponin--tropomyosin complex. Ca 2+ bound to = troponin--tropomyosin complex induces = conformational change in the thin filament = that allows for myosin heads to cross-bridge with thin filament actin. Myosin heads rotate = move the attached actin and shoen the muscle fiber = forming power stroke. At the end of power stroke = ATP binds = exposed site = causes = detachment = from actin filament. ATP is hydrolyzed = into ADP and inorganic phosphate (P i ). This chemical energy is used to "re-cock" the myosin head. | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Myosin head detachment from actin is triggered by:-
A. Change in troponin c configuration
B. Entry of Ca into sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Binding of ATP to head
D. Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and Pi
| Binding of ATP to head |
c061f6c7-13f9-4de3-8121-282c9adfcf2b | Posterior ethmoidal nerve enters the posterior ethmoidal foramen and supplies the ethmoidal and sphenoidal air sinuses. | Anatomy | null | Sphenoidal air sinus is supplied by which nerve:
A. Posterior ethmoidal
B. Posterior superior
C. Sphenoidal
D. Infratemporal
| Posterior ethmoidal |
a497ae07-aaf0-4410-a034-665f087f1d83 | Ans: D. 14 yearsLower two pas of sternal body is fused by 14 years. | Anatomy | null | Lower two pas of sternal body is fused by:
A. 8 years
B. 10 years
C. 12 years
D. 14 years
| 14 years |
9ba605e2-bf6d-427b-a4ed-c8948569ac22 | Ans. C. Negative immune regulationNobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine jointly, has been awarded to James P. Allison/Tasuku Honjo for their discovery of cancer therapy by inhibition of negative immune regulation.James P. Allison studied a known protein that functions as a brake on the immune system. He realized the potential of releasing the brake and thereby unleashing our immune cells to attack tumors.Cytotoxic T-Lymphocyte-associated Antigen 4 (CTLA-4) and Programmed Death 1 (PD-1) immune checkpoints are negative regulators of T-cell immune function. Inhibition of these targets, resulting in increased activation of the immune system, has led to new immunotherapies for melanoma, non-small cell lung cancer, and other cancers.For several types of cancer, including lung cancer, renal cancer, lymphoma and melanoma checkpoint therapy against PD-1 has proven more effective and positive results found.But recent clinical studies indicate that for melanoma the combination therapy of both CTLA-4 and PD-1 is more effective.Thus, Allison and Honjo combine different strategies to release the brakes on the immune system with the aim of eliminating tumor cells even more efficiently.Their paper formed the basis of current cancer immunotherapy.But the original concept of cancer immunotherapy was discovered by William Bradley Coley (1872). | Medicine | null | Nobel prize for medicine/physiology in 2018 for the discovery of:
A. Apoptotic pathway
B. Crispr-Cas9
C. Negative immune regulation
D. Molecular mechanisms controlling circadian rhythm
| Negative immune regulation |
ae05f0f4-de2f-43c0-9233-6ba28a77c8d3 | Cervical lymphadenopathy with signs of infection such as fever and sore throat points towards any infectious etiology.
In this case the most likely investigation to be done should be complete hemogram.
Complete hemogram can provide useful datas for diagnosis of :
Pyogeizic infections.
Viruses such as EBV CMV & HIV.
Leukemias (acute or chronic).
Biopsy should be done if the patients history and physical findings suggest malignancy. These features are :
Solitary, hard non-tender cervical nodes in an older patient.
Neck X-ray does not provide much information except for giving some idea about swollen soft tissues of neck.
Radical neck dissection is absurd option. | Pediatrics | null | A child with fever and sore throat developed acute cervical lymphadenopathy most likely investigation to be done is :
A. Open biopsy of node
B. Radical neck dissection
C. Neck X–ray
D. Complete hemogram
| Complete hemogram |
b5aac757-6fb7-48f0-8179-21ffde466c0d | Ans: D. 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses(Ref Dutta 8/e p367, 7/e p316: Nelson 20/e p 852)Dose of dexamethasone given to anticipated preterm delivery mother - 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses.Antenatal coicosteroids:Single course recommended for 24-34 weeks gestation with preterm delivery risk.Drugs & dosage:Dexamethasone (6 mg, 12 hourly, 4 doses).Betamethasone (12 mg, 2 doses, 24 hours apa). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Dose of dexamethasone given to mother in anticipated preterm delivery:
A. 12 mg 12 hourly 2 doses
B. 12 mg 24 hourly 4 doses
C. 6 mg 24 hourly 2 doses
D. 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses
| 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses |
587ef917-abf4-4b32-985c-e2020bd397cb | Answer- D. GlycogenAnaerobic glycolysis of glycogen produces 3 ATPs per unit glucose consumed.Consumption of ATP at the level of hexokinase is not required when we sta from glycogen as a substrate. As there is no glucose-6- phosphatase in muscle, glucose-6-phosphate directly enters into glycolysis. Hence, net ATPs are 4-1 = 3 ATPs. | Biochemistry | null | Anaerobic glycolysis of which of these produces 3 ATPs per unit glucose consumed?
A. Amino acid
B. Fructose
C. Galactose
D. Glycogen
| Glycogen |
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