id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
593d3d8b-8fd8-41dd-9807-bc35454b258e | Ans. c. Dabigatran (Ref Katzung 11 /e p594)The most recent oral direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) for acute stroke prevention is Dabigatran."In August 2011, Dabigatran was also licensed for prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with atrial fibrillation by the European authorities, after approval for this indication was received in October 2010 in USA.- | Pharmacology | null | The most recent oral direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) for acute stroke prevention is:
A. Ximelagatran
B. Idraparinux
C. Dabigatran
D. Wasfarean
| Dabigatran |
5cd996c6-190d-41cf-b6e4-bc1a2846b8e5 | Characteristic features such as absent thumb and thrombocytopenia suggests Fanconis anemia.
FEATURES OFFANCONISANEMIA
Skin pigment change --> Darkened areas of the skin, cafe-au-lait spots, vitiligo
Upper limb --> Absent or hypoplastic thumb, absent or hypoplastic radii, dysplastic ulnae, clinodactyly
Gonads —> Abnormal or atrophic testis
Head and face -p Microcephaly, sprengels deformity, spina bifida
Kidneys —+ Ectopic or pelvic, horseshoe, hypoplastic or dysplastic
Abnormal eyes/eyelid
Hematological abnormalities
Pancytopenia+ thrombocytopenia and neutropenia these are the most common and most serious symptoms of
Fanconis anemia.
one marrow failure ---> Its a major complication of Fanconis anemia
Acute myeloid leukemia ---> Fanconis anemia have elevated risks of developing acute myeloid leukemia.
Myelodysplastic syndromes —> Increased risk of myelodysplastic syndrome in Fanconis anemia.
Common tests for Fanconis anemia include :
Complete blood count (CBC) o Bone marrow biopsy o Chromosomal breakage analysis
HLA tissue typing o Hearing test o Hand X-ray and other imaging studies
Developmental test o Ultrasound of the kidneys
Amniocentesis or chorionic vinous crimpling | Pediatrics | null | Absent thumb, radial deviation of wrist, bowing of forearm with thrombocytopenia which investigation need not to be done ?
A. Echocardiography
B. Bone marrow examination
C. Platelet count
D. Karyotyping
| Echocardiography |
57320c34-592b-45bb-91ff-bc7fc682b88c | * Absent end diastolic flow : fetal compromise ( hence terminate pregnancy by caesarean section if > 34 weeks)* Reverse end diastolic flow : impending doom of death ( terminate pregnancy irrespective of gestational age)* Steroids are given if pregnancy < 34 weeks | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2018 | Placenta grade 3, 35+3 weeks pregnancy, and absent end diastolic flow Doppler; next ,management is:-
A. Dexamethasone and terminate after 48 hours
B. Terminate after 37 weeks
C. Talk with pediatrician and termination
D. Monitor
| Talk with pediatrician and termination |
09b9375c-41ee-4295-ad27-2a11074d4434 | Staging of angiofibromaRadkowski Classifications:I ALimited to nose and/or nasopharyngeal vaultBExtension into 1 paranasal sinusIIAMinimal extension through sphenopalatine foramen intosphenopalatine/pterygomaxillary fossaBFills sphenopalatine fossa bowing the posterior wall of themaxillary antrum anteriorly or extending into the orbit theinferior orbital fissure.CExtends beyond sphenopalatine fossa into infratemporal fossaIllAErosion of skull base-minimal intracranial extensionBErosion of skull base-Extensive intracranial extension with orwithout cavernous sinus invasion. | ENT | null | Angio fibroma is classified as what stage if it extends to one or more paranasal sinuses
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
| Stage I |
381d9484-1737-4831-8a98-34664b1c5ab2 | Ans: B. Ureterovaginal fistula(Ref Shaws 16/e p223-224, 15/e p184; William Gynue lst/e p573)Pad showing yellow staining at top poion, but not middle or bottom poions - Likely to have Ureterovaginal fistula.Interpretations of Methylene Blue 3 Swab Test:ObservationInterpretationUpper most swabs soaked with urine but unstained with dye.Clear ureter (unstained).Via fistula a reachs vagina.Uppermost cotton swab will be wet with urine.No discoloration seen - As dye is in bladder & not in ureter.Ureterovaginal fistulaUpper and lower swab remain dry but the middle swab soaked with dyeVesicovaginal fistulaThe upper two swab remain dry but lower one soaked with dyeUrethrovaginal fistula | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A lady underwent vaginal hysterectomy for Carci!noma cervix. Following the surgery after her urethral catheter was removed, she complained of urinary in!continence. On examination she had normal voiding as well as continuous incontinence. Methylene blue dye was instilled in her bladder through her urethra and she was given oral Phenazopyridine dye. After some time her pads were checked and it showed yellow staining at the top most pad, while the middle or bottom pads were unstained. She is likely to have:
A. Vesicovaginal fistula
B. Ureterovaginal fistula
C. Urethrovaginal fistula
D. Vesicouterine fistula
| Ureterovaginal fistula |
60f690e1-518f-42c4-9ddb-acbf65c1731e | Calcification of enamel proceeds from cusps or incisal edges towards cervical line and from DEJ it proceeds towards surface. | Dental | null | Calcification in enamel starts at :
A. Enamel matrix
B. Root
C. CEJ
D. DEJ
| DEJ |
28d48ebe-ccb5-40f2-9e0c-60aed8ea2d2f | Answer C. Anemia of chronic diseaseE aicular manifestations of Rheumatoid Ahritis:* Subcutaneous nodules * Sjogren's syndrome* Pericarditis, Mitral regurgitation * Pleuritis, Interstitial Lung disease * Vasculitis * Felty's syndrome in the late stages of RA ; most common hematologic abnormality in RA- normochromic normocytic anemia.* Lymphoma | Medicine | null | A 25 year old lady on treatment for rheumatoid ahritis has following lab findings: Hb-9gm/dl, MCV- 55fl, serum iron-30microgm/d1, ferritin 200 ng/ml, TIBC- 298 micrograms/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Thalassemia minor
B. Thalassemia major
C. Anemia of chronic disease
D. Iron deficiency anemia
| Anemia of chronic disease |
3f95d1b3-f038-4875-993a-4e9afde8bd62 | Ans: B. UGA(Ref Harper 30/e p18, 286)Selenocysteine:Commonly termed "21st amino acid".Present in biological proteins.Not coded directly in genetic code.Instead encoded by a UGA codon.UGA codon - Normally a stop codon.This mechanism called as|"translational recoding". | Biochemistry | null | What is the codon for selenocysteine?
A. UAG
B. UGA
C. UAA
D. GUA
| UGA |
a2af6946-d041-4695-aab9-c1944c575b44 | * CRISPR-Cas-9 endonuclease system introduces double stranded breaks in DNA at the specific target site. Now cell tries to repair this double stranded breaks by two mechanism: 1. Non-homologous end repair 2. Homologous repair * Non-homologous repair mechanism is always a possibility as it does not require homologous DNA. * The homologous repair will only work if the DNA homologous to the cut DNA is present but homologous DNA is not always present or available. So, if both options are given, best option is Non-homologous repair. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 | In CRISPR-Cas 9 system, which repair mechanism is used for genome editing?
A. Non homologous end repair
B. Homologous repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Nucleotide excision repair
| Non homologous end repair |
7ee6d817-eee3-42ad-8d49-7237f375f6f3 | Markers for alcoholism: y-Glutamyl transpeptidase / transferase (GGT) : It has EC number 2. This enzyme is present in liver. When damage occurs to liver cells this enzyme comes to blood. lt is a sensitive diagnostic marker for the detection of alcoholism. GGT is also increased in infective hepatitis and obstructive jaundice. CDT -carbohydrate deficient transferrin (transferrin is a protein which is responsible for the transpo of Iron.) This is a glycoprotein CDT is also the marker for alcoholism. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Biomarker of alcoholic hepatitis:
A. ALP
B. AST
C. LDH
D. GGT
| GGT |
48979fea-5d39-4c8f-ae13-8dc9421c2288 | Ans: C(Ref: WHO Clinical Transfusion Guidelines/p22).RBCs should he transfused with 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank.Sta infusion within 30 min of removing pack from refrigerator and complete the infusion within 4 hours.An 18-gauge needle is standard, but a needle or catheter as small as 23-gauge can be used for transfusion if necessary within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank. | Pathology | null | RBC should be transfused:
A. With a 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's side
B. With a 18-20 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's side
C. With a 20-22 G needle within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank
D. With a 20-22 G needle within 4 hours of receiving at the patient's side
| With a 20-22 G needle within 4 hours of issue from the blood bank |
fb8c4e20-6d34-461e-8e14-45fcd8c662e4 | Ceftriaxone is DOC for gonococci but is not effective against non gonococcal cause of urethritis like mycoplasma and chlamydia. Azithromycin single dose of 2 g is used for both gonococcal and non gonococcal urethritis. In non gonococcal urethritis, doxycycline can also be used. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | Treatment of choice for a patient with gonococcal as well as non-gonococcal urethritis is:
A. Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
B. Cefixime 400 mg oral single dose
C. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg oral single dose
D. Azithromycin 2 g oral single dose
| Azithromycin 2 g oral single dose |
ef1fe490-ef5b-40a4-8aae-062d5976bd90 | Ans: A. 81-89(Ref: Park 24/e p888, 22/e p793; Essentials of Biostatistics 2/e pI70)Range for 90% confidence interval in the given question is 81-89.Confidence intervals:Lower limit & upper limit estimates for statistic given by:Lower Limit: statistic - C x SE (statistic)Upper Limit: statistic + C x SE.Confidence coefficient:C = Confidence coefficient = 1.65 for 90% confidence intervalC= 1.96 for 95% confidence intervalC= 2.58 for 99% confidence intervalC = 3.29 for 99.9% confidence intervalNow for 90% confidence interval:Upper limit = 85 + (1.65 x 2.5) = 85 + 4 = 89.Lower limit = 85 + (1.65 x 2.5) = 85 - 4 = 81.Hence, for 90% confidence interval will 81-89. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a group of 100 people, the average GFR is 85 ml/ min with a standard detion of 25. What is the range for 90% confidence interval?
A. 81-89
B. 80-90
C. 75-95
D. 70-100
| 81-89 |
ebc97f5c-aba4-4d9b-9051-b6177ee1a94d | Ans: D. Total peripheral resistance(Ref: Ganong 25Ie p544, 24/e p546)Cardiac output depends on both preload & afterload.The preload is defined by the venous return & left ventricular end-diastolic volume while the afterload is defined by the mean aerial pressure, which then fither depends on total peripheral resistance. | Physiology | null | Best index to measure cardiac afterload is:
A. Mean aerial pressure
B. LV end diastolic pressure
C. LV mean systolic pressure
D. Total peripheral resistance
| Total peripheral resistance |
71f6de26-288f-4f52-8d52-acebacb7e001 | FSGS- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is associated with focal involvement of kidneys and deposition of IgM,C3 ,C1q PSGN- It is an immunocomplex disease and granular pattern is observed on immunofluorescence. There is deposition of C3,C1q and IgG in granular pattern Goodpasture syndrome- Auto antibodies against basement membrane ,linear pattern on immunofluorescence Lupus Nephritis- seen in SLE. | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | Immunofluorescence staining pattern from a kidney biopsy from a 35-year-old patient presenting with proteinuria has been shown below. What is the most probable cause?
A. FSGS
B. PSGN
C. Lupus Nephritis
D. Goodpasture syndrome
| Lupus Nephritis |
0a905295-9f26-4b46-827f-1bbe23678338 | Ans: B. Gluteal claudication(Ref Bailey 27/e p943-944, 261e 037, 879, 25/e p901; Sabiston 20/e p1739; Schwaz 10/e p874; Harrison 19/c p1643)Most common symptom of aooiliac disease = Gluteal claudication.Site of claudication:Distal to location of occlusive lesion.Eg: Buttock, hip, thigh & calf discomfo occurs in patients with aooiliac disease.Calf claudication develops in patients with femoral!popliteal disease. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is the most common symptom of aooiliac occlusive disease?
A. Calf claudication
B. Gluteal claudication
C. Impotence
D. Symptomless
| Gluteal claudication |
5bca2ed8-85d7-4ec5-8c3a-96ce2c3ca045 | Fetal urine is the main contributor of Amniotic fluid beyond 20 weeks therefore. In case of Renal agenesis → decrease/no urine → oligohydramnios. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Renal agenesis is associated with:
A. Hydramnios
B. Anencephaly
C. Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
D. Oligohydramnios
| Oligohydramnios |
8729556c-a513-42d6-abc1-ed7f6c9ca397 | Ans: A. Risperidone(Ref Kaplan and Sadock 11/e p1091; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p168).* This case suggests motor & vocal tics associated with Tourette's disorder.Treatment:* Pharmacotherapy - treatment of choice - Antipsychotics (haloperidol & resperidone). - DOC - Haloperidol.Other useful drugs:* Resperidone, Olanzapine, Aripiprazole.* SSRIs - Fluoxetine for co-morbid obsessive-compulsive symptoms.* Methylphenidate & Imipramine - Used in ADHD child.* Adjunct - Behavior therapy. | Psychiatry | null | A man comes with history of abnormal excessive blinking and grunting. He says he has no control over his symptoms, which have risen in frequency of late. This has staed affecting his social life making him depressed. Which of the following medications should be used in him?
A. Risperidone
B. Imipramine
C. Carbamazepine
D. Methylphenidate
| Risperidone |
eea47061-62d2-40bd-a772-8b8d8dfb431d | Ans. b. Increased specificity and decreased sensitivitySensitivity: Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (Cases).Specificity: Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who don't have the disease (healthy).Positive predictive value (PPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, out of all those who test positive on a screening test.Negative predictive value (NPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who don't have the disease, out of all those who test negative on a screening test.Screening tests used in the series: where the result of the first test determines whether to run the second test or not.Screening tests used in parallel: where the second test is independently performed regardless of what the first test result is. And, both are done at the same time.If multiple tests are applied in series, the specificity & PPV will increase, the sensitivity & NPV will decrease.If multiple tests are applied in Parallel, the sensitivity & NPV will increase, the specificity & PPV will decrease. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Pick the right answer when 2 screening tests are done in series:
A. Increased sensitivity and decreased specificity
B. Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity
C. Increased sensitivity and increased specificity
D. Decreased sensitivity and decreased specificity
| Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity |
415631ce-90ea-4872-a5cf-3fe2c83e3b4d | Ans: D. NorovirusRef Harrison 19/e p1285, 1286; Jawetz 27/e p537History of multiple episodes of loose watery stool for 3 days & history of ingestion shellfish with similar symptoms in other patients who consumed the shellfish is suggestive of acute viral gastroenteritis.Most likely organism responsible - Norovirus.Noroviruses:Most common infectious agents of mild gastroenteritis in the community and affect all age groups, whereas sapoviruses primarily cause gastroenteritis in children. | Microbiology | null | A patient comes to your clinic with a complaint of multiple episodes of loose watery stool for 3 days. On probing, you discover that these episodes sta after he had ingested shellfish at a local restaurant 3 days back and other people who had food from that restaurant had similar symptoms. What is the most common cause of viral diarrhoea in adults?
A. Calicivirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Norovirus
| Norovirus |
059b7c1c-bc8d-499d-ba18-42f173fc6501 | Ans: D. Hematocrit(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1319, 1322)In a patient with dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF), hematocrit is most impoant parameter to monitor. Diagnosis of DHF needs the presence of rise in hematocrit 420% or more i.e. Hemoconcentration.Despite the name, the critical feature that distinguishes DHF from dengue fever is not hemorrhaging, but rather plasma leakage resulting from increased vascular permeability | Medicine | null | In a patient with dengue hemorrhagic fever, which of the following is most impoant to monitor?
A. Hemoglobin
B. TLC
C. Platelet count
D. Hematocrit
| Hematocrit |
391dbda5-df38-4a5f-8e4c-f6db24bc164a | Ans: A. Anterior surface of cornea Maximum contribution to refractive power of eye - By anterior surface of cornea.Cornea's anterior surface is approximately spherical with a radius of curvature that is typically 8 mm.This surface is responsible for about two-thirds of the eye's refractive power. | Ophthalmology | null | Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by which pa of the eye?
A. Anterior surface of cornea
B. Posterior surface of cornea
C. Anterior surface of lens
D. Posterior surface of lens
| Anterior surface of cornea |
97ea4638-c71a-428b-b839-7638bdd467ab | Ans: A. Counterfeit drugRef: and hxp://www.globalforumljdorg/sites/default/files/docs/tibrary/lllflO-Evolution%20of/o20Definitions%20Definition.pdfand to the US FDA Counterfeit medicine is fake medicine.It may be contaminated or contain the wrong or no active ingredient.They could have the right active ingredient but at the wrong dose.Counterfeit drugs are illegal and may be harmful to your health. | Pharmacology | null | Manufaeturer of a drug company labels that the drug contains 500 mg of paracetamol. On analysis' if was found to contain only 200 mg of drug. Which type of drug it is known as?
A. Counterfeit drug
B. Adulterant drug
C. Spurious drug
D. Unethical drug
| Counterfeit drug |
39c3bcbb-31e3-492b-86c0-0a217e856f43 | Jaundice with clay coloured stools suggests cholestasis.
Both neonatal hepatitis and extrahepatic biliary atresia cause cholestasis jaundice.
"Giant cells" are characteristics of both neonatal hepatitis and Extrahepatic Biliary Atresia.
Therefore the answer is Neonatal hepatitis with extrahepatic Biliary Atresia.
Idiopathic neonatal hepatitis
It is also referred to as giant cell hepatitis.
This type of cholestatic jaundice of unknown cause presents with features of cholestasis and a typical liver biopsy appearance.
It is characterized by -
i) Obstructive jaundice (cholestasis) ii) Giant cell transformation in liver Ili) Patent bile ducts
Presenting features are suggestive of intrahepatic cholestasis -
Acholic stools o Emesis o IUGR
Poor feeding o Prematurity o Poor growth | Pediatrics | null | A neonate presents with jaundice and clay coloured stools. Liver biopsy shows giant cells diagnosis is –
A. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
B. Neonatal hepatitis with extrahepatic biliary atresia
C. Physiological jaundice
D. Physiological jaundice with extrahepatic biliary atresia
| Neonatal hepatitis with extrahepatic biliary atresia |
f85341d3-576d-4ce4-b207-37e3c08e7e6a | Conclusion of this study was Deregulation of the p16/ pRb/cyclin DI pathway is an early event in acquisition of dysplasia, but deregulation of both pRb and p53 pathway is associated with malignant transformation and adverse prognosis in oral tumorigenesis. | Pathology | null | Event of early acquisition of malignant phenotype of epithelium is an expression of:
A. Cyclin a
B. Cyclin b
C. Cyclin c
D. Cyclin d
| Cyclin d |
d05667f6-6469-49d1-b8c5-0cacd49cc623 | Lesions and conditions of the oral mucosa associated with an increased risk of malignancy. | ENT | null | Which of the following is premalignant -
A. Chronic glossitis
B. Submucous fibrosis
C. Hypertrophic glossitis
D. Aphthous stomatitis
| Submucous fibrosis |
f6629c78-7a28-4abb-a0ff-98789fbe04da | Ans: A. 5 times. Poiseuille's law:* Also referred as "Hagen-Poiseuille law".* Poiseuille's equation states, - Q = P1 - P2 * { (P r4) / (8 e L)} - Q - Flow rate - (P1 - P2) - Pressure difference across vessel (provided P1 > P2). - e - Blood viscosity. - r - Radius. - L - Tube length.* If parameter values remain constant, - Blood flow is directly propoional to 4th power of radius.* Resistance of vessel to blood flow can be calculated by combining Ohm's law with Poiseuille's equation. - By substituting values of Q from Poiseuille's law in Ohm's law. - Implying, resistance is mainly affected by, 1. Blood vessel radius, 2. Vasodilatation/vasoconstriction.* Thus ultimately, if parameter values remain constant, - Resistance to blood flow is inversely propoional to the 4th power of radius. | Physiology | null | What is the rise of blood flow if the radius of blood vessels is increased by 50%?
A. 5 times
B. 10 times
C. 20 times
D. 100 times
| 5 times |
94377365-084a-4a08-9081-c1f2aa7b1b84 | Answer-D. AAGCTT* AAGCTT is the only palindrome among the choices. Because the sequence of only one DNA strand is given, one must determine the base sequence of the complementary strand. To be a palindrome, both strands must have the* The vast majority of restriction endonucleases recognize palindromes, andsame sequence when read in the 5'-3' direction. Thus, the complement of 5'-AAGCTT-3' is also 5'-AAGCTT-3'. | Biochemistry | null | Restriction endonuclease cuts at
A. AAGGAA
B. AAGAAG
C. AAGTTC
D. AAGCTT
| AAGCTT |
d50419e1-2a30-4eee-bc64-d8ed11d958cb | Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis
1. Sweat chloride testing
The sweat test is the standard approach to diagnosis.
The diagnosis is made by elevated sodium and chloride level in the sweat > 60 meq/1.
Two test on different days are required for accurate diagnosis.
A normal sweat chloride dose not exclude the diagnosis. Genotyping and other tests such as measurement of nasal membrane potential difference, pancreatic function should be done if there is high clinical suspicion of cystic fibrosis.
2. Nasal potential difference
Measurement of nasal transepithelial potential difference in vivo can be useful adjunct in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.
Individuals with cystic fibrosis demonstrate a significantly more negative baseline nasal potential difference, with the topical application of amiloride there is loss of this potential difference.
3. Genetic analysis
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder.
It is caused due to defect in CFTR (Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) protein.
Cystic fibrosis is associated with large number of mutations.
More than 1500 CFTR polymorphisms are associated with cystic fibrosis syndrome.
The most prevalent mutation of CFTR is the deletion of single phenylalanine residue at amino acid A508.
This mutation is responsible for high incidence of cystic fibrosis in northern European populations.
Approximately 50% of individuals with CF who are of northern European ancestry are homozygous for A508 and >70% carry at least one A508 gene. The remainder of patients has an extensive array of mutation, none of which has prevalance of more than several percent.
Testing for cystic fibrosis mutation was not possible because of the large no. of mutations associated with the disease.
Now days commercial laboratories test for 30-80 of the most common CFTR mutations.
This testing identifies >90% individuals who carry 2CF mutations.
No where it is mentioned in the texts that testing only for A508 is enough for diagnosis. Detection of atleast 2 CF mutations are necessary for making the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. | Pediatrics | null | 4 year old boy presented with recurrent chest infections. Sweat chloride test was done, showed values of 36 and 42. What is the next best investigation to confirm the diagnosis ?
A. 72 hour fecal fat estimation
B. CT chest
C. Transepithelial nasal potential difference
D. DNA analysis of delta F 508 mutation
| Transepithelial nasal potential difference |
28709e53-cbb8-48d9-aa3e-44aaa7037257 | Answer- c. 40%With careful preopetative csrdiac evaluation and postoperative care, the operative moality rate approximates 1-2%.After acute rupture, the moality rate of emergent operation is 45-50%. Endovascular repair with stent placement is an emerging approach but at the current time is associated with a moality rate of approximately 40%. | Surgery | null | Moality associated with emergency abdominal aoic surgery is:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. >50%
| 40% |
f1b944e7-35c7-4ae3-aea7-3cd1d32e5249 | COLLAGEN TYPE TYPE DISTRIBUTION I Skin Most abundant II Connective tissue cailage and vitreous humor III Aeries and CVS Healing and Granulation tissue IV Basement membrane Defect lead to Alpo syndrome Gene defect - COL4A3-COL4A6 AUTOSOMAL and X linked Hematuria + OCULER Problem + hearing loss VII Junction of dermal and epidermal Defect lead to Epidermolysis bullosa Gene defect - COL7A1 | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following type of collagen is present in healing and granulation tissue?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
| Type III |
636a3c09-3bda-40dd-bf94-c497bd39d8f6 | Ans. C.Trimetazidine* Trimetazidine is not used in hea failure.* Trimetazidine is a newer antianginal drug that is a pFOX inhibitor which paially inhibits the fatty acid oxidation pathway in the myocardium. This decreases the oxygen requirement of the hea. | Pharmacology | null | Which one of the following drugs are not used in hea failure?
A. Metoprolol
B. Nesiritide
C. Trimetazidine
D. Sacubitril
| Trimetazidine |
570239d9-50eb-43d4-9003-f8c2574aed5c | Ans. D. Increased FDPsRef: Essentials of Haematology by Shirish Kawathalkar, 2"d ed., pg. 442-147Two types of DIC are acute (decompensated and chronic cornpensated).Acute DIC:Findings in acute DIC are low platelet, prolonged PT & APTT, low fibrinogen, and increased FDP and D-dimer.Chronic DlC:Findings are normal platelet count, normal PT & APTT.However, FDP and D-dimer are increased.So in acute DIC, all the four options are correct, while if we consider the question as chronic DIC, then best possible answer is increased FDP. | Pathology | null | Which among the following laboratory investigation is best to reveal bleeding in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DtC.?
A. Increased PT
B. Increased aPTT
C. Decreased fibrinogen
D. Increased FDPs
| Increased FDPs |
cbf6cefb-7428-4d61-9940-03967a1a56b8 | Ans. C. aVF90deg cardiac axis corresponds straight to lead aVF and hence as such maximum 'It' wave amplitude would be seen in that lead only. | Medicine | null | ECG with "mean" axis of 90deg. In which lead there would be the maximum voltage of R wave?
A. III
B. I
C. aVF
D. aVL
| aVF |
d0c2e565-6176-49a0-b3c8-8f0ac586d82f | Neurofthromatosis type (Von-Reeltdinghewsen disease)
NF-1 is diagnosed when any two of the following seven signs are present.
1. Six or more cafe-au-gait macules
> 5 mm in prepupertal individuals
> 15 mm in postpubertal individuals
Cafe-au-lait spots are the hallmark of neurofibromatosis and are present in almost 100% of the patient.
2. Axillary or inguinal frecking
3. Two or more Lisch nodules.
Lisch nodules are hamartomas located within the iris.
4. Two or more neurofibroma or one plexiform neurofibroma.
Typically involve the skin, but may be situated along peripheral nerves and blood vessels.
They are small, rubbery lesions with a slight purplish discoloration of the overlying skin.
5. A distinctive osseous lesion.
Sphenoid dysplasia or cortical thinning of long bones.
6. Optic glioma
7. A first degree relative with NF-1
Other findings are : -
Pseudoarthrosis of tibia.
Scoliosis is the most common orthopaedic problem in NF-1, but is not specific enough to be included as a diagnostic criterian.
Short stature
Mental retardation, epilepsy
Hypertension
Aqueductal stenosis with hydrocephalus
Meningiomas, ependynomas, Astrocytomas, pheochromocytomas.
NF-1 is caused by mutation in NF-1 gene on chromosome 17 which encodes protein neurofibromin-1.
Neurofibromatosis type -2
NF-2 may be diagnosed when one of the following two features are present.
Bilateral ocoustic neuroma --> Most distinctive feature
A parent, sibling or child with NF-2 and either unilateral eighth nerve masses or any two of the following Neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, Schwannoma or juvenile post subcapsular cataract.
NF-2 is cause by mutation in NF-2 gene on chromosome 22 that encodes for protein neurofibromin 2, Schwannomin or merlin. | Pediatrics | null | Which one of the following is the most common tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis –
A. Optic nerve glioma
B. Meningioma
C. Acoustic schwannoma
D. Low grade astrocytoma
| Optic nerve glioma |
16533187-64d0-47f9-be71-dba4d56615fe | Specific treatment for HMD is intratracheal surfactant therapy. This therapy requires endotracheal intubation, which also may be necessary to achieve adequate ventilation and oxygenation.
Less premature infants (those > 1 kg or > 28-30 weeks gestation) and those with lower 02 requirements (Fi02 < 40 - 50%) may respond well to supplemental 02 alone or to treatment with nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). | Pediatrics | null | A 1.5 kg child born at 32 weeks by LSCS presents with moderate respiratory difficulty (RR 70/ minutes). Which of the following is the appropriate management –
A. CPAP
B. Mechanical ventilation
C. Warm oxygen
D. Surfactant and ventilation
| CPAP |
7f6a2842-7816-4a42-821c-d6e066a36fb4 | Answer- C. 15-30%'In the absence of any intervention, an estimated 15-30% of mothers with HIY infection will transmit the infection duringprcgnsncy and delivery. and 10-20% will transmit the infection, through breast feeding. Veical transmission of IIIV-Loccurs mostly during the intrapaum period (50-70%).'- COGDT l0/e p692 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | If untreated, percentage of mother to child transmission of HIV during delivery without intervention in a non-breast fed child is:
A. 40-50%
B. 10-15%
C. 15-30%
D. 5%
| 15-30% |
90e1de32-990e-4ebe-8e95-4934cd98e601 | Answer- D. Toxic megacolonToxic megacolon is a serious life-threatening condition that can occur in patients with ulcerative colitis, Crohn'scolitis, and infectious colitides such as pseudomembranous colitisThis decompensation results in a necrotic thin-walled bowel in which pneumatosisa can often be seen radiographically.Diagnosis:Plain abdominal radiographs are critical for diagnosing toxic megacolon and for following its course.Transverse colon is usually the most dilated >6 cm on supine films.Mutiple air-fluid levels in the colon are common; normal colonic haustlal pattern is either absent or severely disturbed. | Surgery | null | A middle aged male patient presents with fever and diarrhea for 1 week and acute onset pain abdomen for 6 hours. An erect abdominal X-ray was taken as shown. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Pseudomembranous colitis
B. Adenocarcinoma colon
C. Pneumatosis intestinalis
D. Toxic megacolon
| Toxic megacolon |
e2ae0a47-f237-4f8f-9dff-5395798420e1 | Answer- A. ProximalMost common site of scaphoid fracture is Waist.Fractures can occur essentially anywhere along the scaphoid, but distribution is not even:waist of scaphoid: 70-80%proximal pole: 20%distal pole (or so-called scaphoid tubercle): 10% | Surgery | null | Scaphoid fracture at waist with retrograde blood supply. Which segment is most susceptible to avascular necrosis?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Middle
D. Scaphoid tubercle
| Proximal |
ce4876e4-6a17-465e-a1c4-6353dad02e85 | Answer- C. Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate daysThe clinical history fits the patient into multibacillary leprosy and requires extensive multidrug therapy for 12 months.Since the patient is aged 12 years, doses are Rifompicin (450 mg) * Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days. | Skin | null | A 12 years old boy came with complaints of 4 hypopigmented patches on back and on left arm. The patches had loss of sensation. Which of the following is the treatment for this case?
A. Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily
B. Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) only
C. Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days
D. Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) + Clofazimine (300 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily
| Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days |
a1a782cf-d0f2-4645-a96d-79ef0cef3516 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., MioticCLINICAL USES OFATROPINE Remember - ATROPAA As mydriatic - cycloplegicT --> 'Traveller's diarrhoeaR --> Rapid (early) onset mushroom poisoning0 --> Organophosphate poisoningP --> Preanaesthetic medicationA Arrhythmias (brady-arrhythmias)Atropine is also used with neostigmine in mysthenia gravis to decrease anti,nuscarinic side effects of neostigmine --> As atropine blocks muscarinic receptors, use of atropine prevents muscarinic side effects of neostigmine, while neostigmine retains its benficial effects in mysthenics which are due to nicotinic receptors. | Pharmacology | null | Uses of atropine are A/E -
A. Organophoshorus poisoning
B. Mushroom poisoning
C. Arrhythmia
D. Miotic
| Miotic |
46b87f53-f447-40b1-a0c0-85334ad9d9e7 | Ans: B. 92, 180, 153(Ref Williams 24/e p1137)Cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour & 2 hours after meals respectively.Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes by Oral Glucose Tolerance TestingTime 75-gm GlucoseFasting92 mg/dL5.1 mmol/L1-hour180 mg/dL10.0 mmol/L2-hours153 mg/dL8.5 mmol/L | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What are the cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour and 2 hours after meals respectively?
A. 92, 182, 155
B. 92, 180, 153
C. 95, 180, 155
D. 92, 180, 155
| 92, 180, 153 |
95deaff5-dc0b-42a7-b257-573f3de4c88d | Ans.d.After 65 yearsNOF recommends:Bone density test :In woman age 65 or older.In man age 70 or older. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Best Age to sta bone mineral density test in female.
A. After 50 years
B. After 55 years
C. After 60 years
D. After 65 years
| After 65 years |
1450ca65-dcd0-49a1-bb7d-b633740c3436 | Ans: B. Communicable diseasesHaddon matrix:Related to injury prevention.Most commonly used paradigm in injury prevention field. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Haddon matrix is related to:
A. Injury prevention
B. Communicable diseases
C. Maternal and child moality
D. Hypeensive disorders
| Communicable diseases |
afd502ff-b700-4ecf-acec-f849331dd1ed | A - Incus, B - Facial nerve, C - lateral semicircular canal, D - Chorda tympani. | ENT | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following marked arrow represent lateral semicircular canal during coical mastoidectomy:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| C |
c7dddaf3-1c36-425d-8208-07125d469486 | Deep cervical fascia, also known as fascia colli is condensed to form 6 layers.
Investing layer.
Pretracheal layer.
Prevertebral layer.
Carotid sheath.
Buccopharyngeal fascia.
Pharyngobasilar fascia.
Prevertebral fascia:
It is the deepest layer of deep cervical fascia.
It lies in front of prevertebral muscles and forms the floor of posterior triangle of neck.
It is separated from pharynx and buccopharyngeal fascia by retropharyngeal space. | Anatomy | null | Deepest layer of deep cervical fascia is
A. Prevertebral
B. Carotid sheath
C. Pretracheal
D. Temporal
| Prevertebral |
3513f98e-19a9-4dfd-8f49-1e8514c3907c | Ans: B. Urinary concentration in mg/ml(Ref: Ganong 25/p p676. 21/c p678)In given formula for measuring GFR:C = Clearance of the substanceU = Urinary concentration of the substance in mg/mlP = Plasma concentration of the substance in mg/mlV = Volume of urine | Physiology | null | In the formula for urea clearance, C = U x V/P, what does U stands for:
A. Urinary concentration in g/24 hour
B. Urinary concentration in mg/ml
C. Urine osmolarity
D. Urine volume per minute
| Urinary concentration in mg/ml |
8e7413da-351b-468d-8168-961cd50bda0a | Onion skin appearance of lymph node is characteristic for Castleman disease It is alympho proliferative disorder. It has 2 variants: Unicentric Has 2 variants: 1)Highly vasculara More common , patients are asymptomatic Histology: -Twinning- Presence of two germinal centers -Onion skin pattern-Lymphocytes causes thickening of mantle zone -Lollipop lesions- Sclerosed blood vessel that infiltrate lymph node germinal center Multicentric ?Associated with immune suppression ?Presents as : Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Night sweats Fever 2)Plasma cell varianta Less common, patients are symptomatic: - Weight loss -Night sweats -Fever Histology: Plasma cells in interfollicular areas causing hyperplasia of germinal center Lymph node architecture is distoed but LN is preserved in unicentric variant | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | A patient presented with intermittent fever, no weight loss, no anorexia, but with a retroperitoneal mass. Peripheral smear findings were normal. Gross & microscopy of the mass is given. What's the diagnosis?
A. NHL
B. Castleman disease
C. Angiolymphoid hyperplasia
D. Ig G4 disease
| Castleman disease |
cc1da36a-147f-4b74-9015-b7640ebb7ead | Though hypeension is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage, the usual site for it is putamen, thalamus, pons and cerebellum. But lobar hemorrhage in elderly is most commonly due to cerebral amyloid angiopathy, where there is amyloid deposition in the walls of cerebral aeries following aeriolar degeneration. | Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | Most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in elderly age group ?
A. Hypeension
B. Vascular malformation
C. Coagulopathy
D. Amyloid angiopathy
| Amyloid angiopathy |
b69ced59-82cc-43b7-b3b8-829f8ee8930b | Platelet activation:
The adherent platelets get activated, undergo a shape change and degranulate. The granules in the platelets can be
Alpha granules having P-selectin, fibrinogen, fibronectin, factors V and VIII, platelet factor 4, platelet-derived growth factor, and transforming growth factor-β.
Delta granules or delta bodies having ADP, ATP, ionized calcium, histamine, serotonin, and epinephrine. | Pathology | null | Platelet derived growth factor is released in vessels from:
A. Endothelial cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Macrophages
D. Alpha granules
| Alpha granules |
53925f03-9145-4ca4-97ea-2e9f154fd36c | PERSISTENT APICAL PERIODONTITIS
It is post-treatment apical periodontitis in an endodontically treated tooth (re-treatment case).
Enterococcus faecalis is found the most consistently reported organism in persistent apical periodontitis. | Dental | null | Which of the following is the most common organism found in retreatment cases of periapical abscess?
A. E. faecalis
B. Trepenoma denticola
C. S. mutans
D. Actinomyces
| E. faecalis |
a86db080-2d2a-4eb2-abb0-11de110167f8 | Ans. b. Concurrent chemoradiotherapyAn elderly male presents with T3N0 laryngeal carcinoma. Treatment is concunent chemoradiotherapy.'Advanced laryngeal cancers are ofien treated by combining radiation with concurrent chemotherapy for larynxpresemation and total laryngectomy for bulky T4 disease or salvage.''Concurrent radiation therapy plus Cisplatin resulted in a statistically higher percentage ofpatients with an intact larynxat I0 years.' | ENT | null | An elderly male presents with T3NO laryngeal carcinoma. What would be the management?
A. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy
B. Concurrent chemoradiotherapy
C. Radical radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
D. Radical radiotherapy without chemotherapy
| Concurrent chemoradiotherapy |
2fad53ed-ad7b-4194-8316-7fd39b1089a4 | Manifestation of congenital CMV infection:
Still birth
Microcephaly
Choroidoretinitis
Deafness
Hemolytic anemia (Blood dyscrasias simply stands for any hematological disorder)
Pneumonitis
Thrombocytopenia with petechiae and purpura
IUGR
Hepatosplenomegaly
Icterus
Mental retardation
Have intracranial calcifications | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following abnormalities is commonly seen in a fetus with congenital CMV infection:
A. Colitis
B. Myocarditis
C. Blood dyscrasias
D. Pulmonary cyst
| Blood dyscrasias |
1c25695e-3dfc-4f00-815a-7c6dfa0478fc | Ans.D. EndometriosisIn endometriosis, cause of infeility isImmobility of tubesAnovulationTubal blockMale factor: 30%Tubal, uterine & peritoneal factor: 25%Ovarian factor: 25%Cervical factor: 10%Unexplained factor: 10% | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | 28 yr with infeility lapro tube uterus healthy ovary diagnosis -
A. PCOS
B. Ovarian cyst
C. Fibroid
D. Endometriosis
| Endometriosis |
a43a0fc3-9d61-45a2-8ebd-f90bb31af019 | NASAL SEPTUM Internal Carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal aery 2. Posterior ethmoidal aery External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Sphenopalatine aery (branch of maxillary aery) gives Nasopalatine and posterior medial nasal branches. 2. Septal branch of greater palatine aery (branch of maxillary aery). 3. Septal branch of superior labial aery (branch of facial aery). LATERAL WALL Internal carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal 2. Posterior ethmoidal External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Posterior lateral nasal branches 2. Greater palatine aery 3. Nasal branch of anterior superior dental 4. Branches of facial aery To nasal vestibule From sphenopalatine aery From maxillary aery From infraorbital branch of maxillary aery | ENT | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following is not the branch of external carotid aery in Kiesselbach's plexus?
A. Anterior Ethmoidal aery
B. Sphenopalatine aery
C. Greater palatine aery
D. Septal branch of superior labial aery
| Anterior Ethmoidal aery |
841fa263-7535-4d40-ae25-cddb831b5254 | Ans: D. Placenta succenturiataSuccenturiate lobeSmall accessory lobes develop at a small distance from the main placentadeg.These lobes have vessels that course through the membranesdeg.If these vessels overlie the cervix to create a vasa pre, they can cause dangerous fetal hemorrhage if torndeg.An accessory lobe may be retained in uterus after delivery & cause postpaum uterine | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 22 years old gravida 3 para 2 lady delivers a normal child followed by delivery of an intact placenta. Following delivery, the lady develops severe per vaginal bleeding after 30 minutes. On table sonogram revealed retained placental tissue. What is the suspected type of placenta?
A. Membranous placenta
B. Placenta fenestrae
C. Placenta accreta
D. Placenta succenturiata
| Placenta succenturiata |
c138ad82-08de-476f-b7cc-037bb25ef376 | Relative position of DL groove is most constant and valuable trait. As DL cusp becomes smaller as we move distally from 1st molar to 3rd molar. | Dental | null | Most constant and valuable trait to differentiate among maxillary 1st , 2nd and 3rd molars is
A. Relative position of DL groove
B. Relative position of ML groove
C. ML cusp size
D. Oblique ridge size
| Relative position of DL groove |
21be2f06-388b-47cb-8264-b03a82a65839 | Vertical type 1 is suggestive of ‘long face syndrome’ or ‘steep mandibular plane angle’ type of class II. The functional occlusal plane is also steep associated with a palatal plane that is tipped downward.
In long face individuals, who have excessive lower anterior face height, the palatal plane rotates down posteriorly, often creating a negative rather than the normal positive inclination to the true horizontal. The mandible shows an opposite, backward rotation, with an increase in the mandibular plane angle.
Ref: Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities, 3e, Om P. Kharbanda pdf no 2526 | Dental | null | Long face syndrome patient with increased lower facial height, the palatal plane will be:
A. Posteriorly downward
B. Upward posteriorly
C. Downward anteriorly
D. No change
| Posteriorly downward |
52e0bdf3-57a4-4dd6-ba5c-e9facb82e61f | Ans: D. Glycopyrrolate(Ref: Miller 7/e p293; KDT 366, 117)Glycopyrrolate is most commonly used as pre-anesthetic medication.An anlicholinergic drug used for reducing secretions in the mouth, throat, airway, and stomach before surgery.Used before and during surgery to block ceain reflexes and to protect against ceain side effects of some medicines. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of these is most commonly used as pre-anesthetic medication?
A. Atropine
B. Promethazine
C. Scopolamine
D. Glycopyrrolate
| Glycopyrrolate |
db465e84-d92a-49f2-a5f9-3c0c771aa507 | Trombiculid mite is a vector of chiggerosis or Scrub typhus which is caused by Orientia Tsutsugamushi. Scrub typhus causes fever, myalgia and black Eschar. Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected hard ticks. Japanese encephalitisvirus is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Culex species mosquitoes, paicularlyCulex tritaeniorhynchus. Leptospirosis transmitted through rodents | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Transmits which disease
A. Kyasanur forest disease
B. Scrub typhus
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Leptospirosis
| Scrub typhus |
50d62af7-c4dc-4ea7-93fa-c235c4bb6b2f | Ans: A. TVSRef: Williams Obstetrics 24h ed"Most common cause of second trimester aboion is cervicouterine abnormalities.Next step would be to do an ultrasound and look for any structural uterine anomaly.Chromosomal abnormalities are common cause of aboftions in first trimester. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A female come to gynaeoPD for preconceptual counseling, with history of two second trimester aboions. What is the next investigation you will advice
A. TVS
B. hysteroscopy
C. Endometrial biopsy
D. chromosomal abnormalities
| TVS |
77997eca-fce9-4840-916d-b373c61c411d | Ans. C.8ml MgSo4+12ml of NSDose: 4-5 g (diluted in 250 mL NS/D5W) IV in combination with either :Up to 10 g (10 mL of undiluted 50% solution) divided and administered IM into each buttock orAfter initial IV dose, 1-3 g/hr IV.MgSO4 is continued 24 hours after delivery to prevent postpaum eclampsia | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | IV loading dose of MgSo4 prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia?
A. 8ml MgSo4+10ml of NS
B. 10ml MgSo4+10ml of NS
C. 8ml MgSo4+12ml of NS
D. 12ml MgSo4+8 ml of NS
| 8ml MgSo4+12ml of NS |
7f8086d8-e91b-40fc-8d8c-55cc74f84d6c | Muscle cramps on exercise is a diagnostic feature of McArdle's disease. In this disease, due to deficiency of muscle glycogen phosphorylase, glycogen stored in muscle cannot be utilized for glucose production causing Muscle cramps and pain on doing strenuous work or exercise. Refer to the table for other symptoms. Type Name Enzyme deficiency Organ Clinical features I Von Gierke's disease Glucose 6-phosphatase Liver , Kidney Glycogen accumulation in liver and kidney Hypoglycemia lactic acidemia ketosis Hyperlipidemia II Pompe's disease Lysosomal alpha-1,4 glucosidase (acid maltase) All organs glycogen accumulation in lysosome in all organ hea is mostly affected* death occur at early age due to hea failure III Cori's disease Amylo alpha-1,6-glucosidase (debranching enzyme) Liver muscles and Hea fasting hypoglycemia hepatomegaly in infancy accumulation of characteristics branched polysaccharides (limit dextrin) muscles weakness IV Anderson's disease Glucosyl 4-6 transferase(branching enzyme) Most tissue A rare disease, glycogen with only few branches accumulate; cirrhosis of liver Death before 5 years of age dur to hea failure or liver failure V McArdle's disease Muscle glycogen phosphorylase Skeletal tissue Muscles glycogen is very high but cannot be used during exercise Cannot perform strenuous exercise Muscles cramps Blood lactate and pyruvate do not increase after exercise VI Her's disease Liver glycogen phosphorylase Liver Liver is increased in size because liver glycogen cannot conve to glucose Mild hypoglycemia and ketosis Good prognosis VII Tarui's disease Phosphofructokinase Skeletal muscles and RBC Muscles cramps due to exercise Blood lactate is elevated Hemolysis occur | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | An adolescent male patient came with pain in calf muscles on exercise. On biopsy excessive amount of glycogen present was found to be present in the muscle. What is the most likely enzyme deficiency?
A. Muscle debranching enzyme
B. Phosphofructokinase I
C. Glucose 6 phosphatase
D. Phosphorylase enzyme
| Phosphorylase enzyme |
21d61ebe-1fce-4629-b499-37b681908cc0 | Ans. d. Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy (Ref The Infeility Manual/p266-267; Practical approach to infeility management by aiilr Rcensal/p33:Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy would be the ideal management of a woman with infeility who is detected to have bilateral cornual block on hysterosalpingography. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What would be the ideal management of a woman with infeilty who is detected to have bilateral cornual block on hysterosalpingography?
A. Tuboplasty
B. In-vitro feilization
C. Hydrotubation
D. Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy
| Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy |
de803c1d-d6b5-49b1-ba45-ed4abe3ec0ef | Prognostic indicators in renal disease and pregnancy:
Most reliable prognostic indicator of the outcome of pregnancy is the presence of hypertension. The fetal prognosis for women with chronic renal disease is favorable as long as they do not develop superimposed preeclampsia.
Second to hypertension, the most valuable prognostic index for patients with chronic renal disease during pregnancy is the degree of renal function impairment:
– In patients with normal or only midly impaired renal function, pregnancy does not accelerate renal damage
– In patients with moderate renal insufficiency (serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL or greater before pregnancy or creatinine clearance <30 ml/min. there is a decline in renal function during pregnancy).
Another important prognostic sign is the presence or absence of proteinuria. As a general rule, if the patient has 2+ or more protein in qualitative tests or 3 g or more in 24 hours urine collections at the beginning of pregnancy, the tendency will be toward increased protein losses and development of nephritic syndrome during pregnancy.
The histologic characteristics of the renal lesion also have prognostic value. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancy outcome:
A. Systemic lupus erythromatosus
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
D. Scleroderma
| Scleroderma |
01dc74dc-0e66-44a9-a4c2-7594d49b8c88 | Acute Phase of Eczematous dermatitis - Spongiosis (oozing out lesion) - Coicosteroids ( Topical+systemic) Chronic phase of Eczematous dermatitis - Lichenification Rx - Coicosteroids & topical calcineurin inhibitor Systemic : Azathioprine | Dental | AIIMS 2019 | Topical steroids is most effective in:
A. Dermal atrophy
B. Eczematous dermatitis
C. Bullous lesions due to HSV
D. Herpes Zoster
| Eczematous dermatitis |
e342fc89-9875-4188-9009-b9065fdf5b9c | Alpha titanium wires are manufactured from grade V titanium alloy containing 6% aluminum and 4% vanadium. These wires have good formability and stiffness equal to that of stainless steel. These wires possess poor spring back, and hence their use in orthodontics is limited for applying torque at the finishing stage. Aluminum is used to stabilize the alloy in alpha phase.
GRADE V TITANIUM ALLOY (Ti6Al4V, OR Ti6-4)
6% Aluminum
4% Vanadium
0.25% Iron
0.2% Oxygen
Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar Premkumar | Dental | null | Stable element in Ti6Al4V in alpha phase is?
A. V
B. Al
C. Ti
D. Al, V
| Al |
25883737-550d-4264-ad32-bc1a320ca9a7 | The image shows Orthodontic brass ligature wire which brings about slow separation of teeth not more than 0.5mm. | Dental | null | The instrument shown in fig is used for
A. Rapid separation
B. Slow separation
C. Not used for separation
D. Depends on force for separation
| Slow separation |
772be35c-73b9-43c4-8fc6-9ee4efb8dd27 | Midline swelling arising from cerebellum in a child favour the diagnosis of medulloblastoma.
Robbin's states
"In children medulloblastomas are located in midline but in adults they are found in lateral locations".
Note -
Astrocytoma is also a posterior fossa tumor, but it does not commonly present as midline mass. | Pediatrics | null | A 10 year old boy presents with midline swelling arising from cerebellum the diagnosis is –
A. Astrocytoma
B. Glioblastoma multiforme
C. Ependymoma
D. Medulloblastoma
| Medulloblastoma |
da529e73-61fe-4b52-81b1-8686b6a62ffd | Patient of rheumatoid ahritis are given hydroxychloroquine which cause painless loss of vision due to bull's eye maculopathy characterized by a foveolar island of pigment surrounded by a depigmented zone of RPE atrophy, which is itself encircled by a hyperpigmented ring (A). There is moderate to severe reduction in VA (6/36-6/60). A more substantial macular lesion follows, with widespread RPE atrophy surrounding the fovea (B). Later retinal aerioles may become attenuated, and pigment clumps can form in the peripheral retina.(C) | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2018 | A patient is taking drugs for rheumatoid ahritis and has a history of cataract surgery 1 year back, the patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision, probable diagnosis is?
A. CME
B. Macularhole
C. Chloroquine toxicity
D. Chronic choroiditis
| Chloroquine toxicity |
cef58dc3-f340-4f76-909d-8f9fb4866e29 | COLLATERAL LIGAMENT INJURY
The most common mechanism of ligament disruption of knee is abduction (valgus), flexion and internal rotation of femur on tibia which usually occur in sports in which the foot is planted solidly on the ground and leg is twisted by rotating body.
The medial structures medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) and medial capsular ligament are first to fail, followed by ACL tear, if the force is of sufficient magnitude. The medial meniscus may be trapped between condyles and have a peripheral tear, thus producing unhappy triad of 0’ Donoghue.
Main test for MCL (medial collateral ligament) is valgus (abduction) stress in 30° of knee flexion. (Because in full extension it is indicative of combined MCL, posterior oblique ligament injury and posterior cruciate ligament injury).
Varus (Adduction) stress test in 30° flexion (removes the lateral stabilizing effect of iliotibial band so that the lateral collateral ligament can exclusively be examined).
Apleys distraction test is used for collateral ligaments. | Orthopaedics | null | Positive pivot shift test in knee is because of injury to -
A. Posterior cruciate ligament
B. Anterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial meniscus
D. Lateral meniscus
| Anterior cruciate ligament |
1d405e6b-5cd9-4ff7-ba6d-f7f748ad6050 | Vd means "the plasma volume that would accommodate all the drug in the body, if the concentration throughout was same as in plasma". Drugs with high volume of distribution are more distributed in body and vice-versa. Low volume of distribution tells that most of the drug is retained in plasma. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Low apparent volume of distribution of drug indicates that:
A. Drug has low half life
B. Drug has low bioavailability
C. Drug has low efficacy
D. Drug is not extensively distributed to tissue
| Drug is not extensively distributed to tissue |
4e9c6e74-1604-4599-91c2-02d22adcb765 | H indicated in menopausal women to overcome the sho term and long term consequences of estrogen deficiency. Indications of hormone replacement therapy in a menopausal woman Relief of vasomotor symptoms: hot flushes Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis Urogenital atrophy Premature Menopause Hormone Replacement Therapy is NOT indicated for prevention or treatment of cardiovascular disease. Natural estrogens produced in the body till menopause are cardioprotective, however Hormone Replacement Therapy (containing exogenous estrogens and progesterones)is not cardioprotective, n fact it is detrimental to hea when used for long term. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 | Hormone Replacement therapy is not indicated in:
A. Hot flashes
B. Prevention of CAD
C. Osteoporosis
D. Vaginal atrophy
| Prevention of CAD |
822d5c68-39fe-40e8-97ef-f50d7af91ebb | Herpes simplex viruses
Herpes simplex is an important cause of encephalitis in the neonate, the infection acquired during delivery from the vaginal tract.
But it cause vesicular, ulcerative skin lesions
Even though it causes skin lesions, its our best option, as Nelson writes -
" The hallmark of neonatal HSV infection- the vescicular ulcerative skin lesions are presnt in only 30 to 43% of children at presentation; one third will never manifest skin lesions."
Out of the.two types of Herpes; Neonatal herpes is mainly caused by type II IISV (75 to 80%).
About other options
Meningpcocci
Its a rare cause of infection in neonates as neonates have antibodies (from mother) against meningiococcus which protects them for the initial 3 to 6 months of life.
Streptococci
Though streptococcus B is a common infection of neonates, it does not cause encephalitis.
RAIN TUMORS
You will frequently read the terms --> Infratentorial, supratentorial, Posterior cronial fossa in relation of Brain tumours, so I am giving very brief introduction
Supratentorial region of the brain is located above the tentorium cerebelli; and contains the cerebrum.
The infratentorial region of the brain is located below the tentorium cerebelli and contains the cerebellum and brainstem.
Brain stem and cerebellum are contained in the posterior cranial fossil.
As brain stem and cerebellum are infratentorial in location and contained in posterior cranial fossa -› Their tumors are infratentorial posterior fossa tumors, e.g., cerebellar astrocytoma, brainstem glioma, medulloblastoma (cerebeller). | Pediatrics | null | A neonate develops encephalitis without any skin lesions. Most probable causative organisms is –
A. HSV I
B. HSV II
C. Meningococci
D. Streptococci
| HSV II |
75037cd8-82e0-4544-b8b4-39b0c3c894e8 | Ans: D. Single breath nitrogen test(Ref: Ganong 25/e p633, 634, 24/e p633, 634)Anatomical dead space - Calculation:By Bohr's equation - Uses single breath nitrogen inhalation technique.Xenon/Helium dilution technique:Used to measure functional residual capacity of lung.Spirometry:Cannot measure residual or dead space volumes. | Physiology | null | Which of the following methods is used for calculation of anatomical dead space?
A. Xenon dilution technique
B. Bohler's method
C. Spirometry
D. Single breath nitrogen test
| Single breath nitrogen test |
3d3d18de-8e78-4d58-90f4-2c9257c76a5e | The image shows cubitus varus. Supracondylar fracture of humerus causes cubitus varus and Gunstock deformity. Lateral condylar fracture causes cubitus valgus | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2018 | Which fracture results in the given deformity?
A. Supracondylar fracture of humerus
B. Lateral condylar fracture
C. Olecranon fracture
D. Radial head fracture
| Supracondylar fracture of humerus |
ba4a3d15-f1cf-4072-b836-ecf2785657e3 | Heparin does not cross placenta and is safe during pregnancy.
It is the drug of choice for the management and prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which does not cross placenta:
A. Heparin
B. Morphine
C. Naloxone
D. Warfarin
| Heparin |
ec6114a9-5426-4d90-bdde-2511889a20ec | Ans. c. Meningioma (Ref. Harrison 19/e p602, I 8/e p3388; Chapman 4/e p431; Sahicton /9/e p 1888- 1889; Schwa/17 9/e p1540- I 541: Bailey 26/e p614, 25/e p633)Diagnosis in a middle aged female with slowly progressive weakness of lower limbs, spasticity and recent onset hesitancy of micturition with evidence of dorsal myelopathy and middorsal intradural contrast enhancing mass lesion on MRI is meningioma. | Radiology | null | A middle aged female presents with slowly progressive weakness of lower limbs, spasticity and recent onset hesitancy of Micturition. On neurological examination there is evidence of dorsal myelopathy. MRI scan of spine reveals middorsal intradural contrast enhancing mass lesion. Diagnosis is:
A. Intradural lipoma
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Meningioma
D. Epidermoid cyst
| Meningioma |
2cde59aa-666b-4fa6-802b-74ecdd525bfb | The patient is having glomerulo nephritis (gross hematuria and dysmorphic RBC's) 2 days after upper respiratory tract infection.
Three conditions can manifest like this —> IgA nephropathy, Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis, H.S. Purpura. | Pediatrics | null | 12 years old Shyam presented with gross hematuria with 80% dysmorphic RBC's 2 days after a attack of upper respiratory tract infection diagnosis is –
A. Microangiopathic thrombotic anaemia
B. IgA Nephropathy
C. PSGN
D. H.S. purpura
| IgA Nephropathy |
9698b531-5c6a-41f5-ad09-9eaa05779681 | Onion skin appearance of lymph node is characteristic for Castleman disease It is alympho proliferative disorder. It has 2 variants: Unicentric Has 2 variants: 1)Highly vasculara More common , patients are asymptomatic Histology: -Twinning- Presence of two germinal centers -Onion skin pattern-Lymphocytes causes thickening of mantle zone -Lollipop lesions- Sclerosed blood vessel that infiltrate lymph node germinal center Multicentric ?Associated with immune suppression ?Presents as : Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Night sweats Fever 2)Plasma cell varianta Less common, patients are symptomatic: - Weight loss -Night sweats -Fever Histology: Plasma cells in interfollicular areas causing hyperplasia of germinal center Lymph node architecture is distoed but LN is preserved in unicentric variant | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | A patient presented with intermittent fever, no weight loss, no anorexia, but with a retroperitoneal mass. Peripheral smear findings were normal. Microscopy of the mass is given. What's the diagnosis?
A. NHL
B. Castleman disease
C. Angiolymphoid hyperplasia
D. Ig G4 disease
| Castleman disease |
9013e6c6-35da-4df1-a83a-a907ae206135 | Ans: A. Antithrombin IIIRef: Goodman & Gilman, 13th ed, pg. 588Heparin binds to antithrombin III (AT-lll) and accelerate the rate at which it inhibits various coagulation proteases. | Pharmacology | null | Heparin acts which of the following adjuvants?
A. Antithrombin III
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. Thrombomodulin
| Antithrombin III |
80d3c4e2-26a3-46c1-9e01-9f898b93708b | The mandibular branches of the facial nerve run parallel to the lower border of the mandible, mostly below it. Of them, the marginal mandibular nerve follows almost exactly the lower border. Hence, to avoid sectioning of this nerve and causing loss of motor supply to lower lip and mentalis, we give the submandibular incision at lest 2 cm of 2-finger width below the lower border of mandible. | Surgery | null | In submandibular surgery incision is given 2 cm below the border of mandible to preserve which nerve?
A. Marginal mandibular nerve
B. Mental Nerve
C. Long buccal nerve branch of facial
D. Inferior alveolar nerve
| Marginal mandibular nerve |
2880abd7-1ec6-4456-823e-e5d00159dfec | Answer- A. CotrimoxazoleDrug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of pneumocystis infection in both immunocompetent as well as immunocompromised is cotrimoxazole.Cyclospora, Isospora & Pneumocystis jiroveci - Cotrimoxazole | Pharmacology | null | What drug is used for prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii in patients on chemotherapy?
A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Amoxicillin
C. Dexamethasone
D. Cephalosporin
| Cotrimoxazole |
d5d4cd74-e0f0-4e39-bc84-cc7551c627bd | Ans. D (Ref Harrison 19/e pi 111, ThIe p3414)When bacterial meningitis is suspected, blood cultures should be immediately obtained and empirical antimicrobial and adjunctive dexamethasone therapy initiated without delay.The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made by examination of the CSF. The need to obtain neuroimaging studies (CT or MRI) prior to LP requires clinical judgment. | Medicine | null | A patient with tubercular meningitis was taking ATT regularly. At end of 1 month of regular intake of drugs deterioration in sensorium is noted in condition of the patient. Which of the following investions is not required on emergency evaluation ?.
A. MRI
B. NCCT
C. CSF examination
D. Liver function tests
| Liver function tests |
f13fe47a-739d-40b0-8616-09dc24d83ff7 | Ans: D. Translocation involving Myc geneStarry eye pattern on biopsy - Highly suggestive of Burkitt lymphoma.All forms of Burkitt lymphoma associated with translocations of c-MYC gene on chromosome 8.Burkitt lymphoma:Tumor exhibiting high mitotic index & contains numerous apoptotic cells.Nuclear remnants of apoptopic cells are phagocytosed by interspersed benign macrophages.These phagocytes with abundant clear cytoplasm, creating a characteristic "starry sky" pattern."Etiology:All forms of Burkitt lymphoma are associated with translocations of c-MYC gene on chromosome S.Genetic mutation & associated conditions:TranslocationGene (Chromosome)Malignancy(9;22) (q34;q11)ABL-BCRChronic myeloid leukemia(11;14)(q13;q32)BCL1-IgHMantle cell lymphoma(8;21)RUNX1-RUNX1T1 (15;17)PML-RARAAcute myeloid leukemia(16;16)CBFB-MYH11 (11;22)(q24;q12)FLII-EWSEwing's sarcoma(8;14)(q24;q32)MYC-IgHBurkitt's lymphoma B cell acute lymphocytic leukemiaInv (2p13;p11.2-14)REL-NRGNon-Hodgkin's lymphoma(1;3)(p34;p21)TAL1-TCTAQAcute T cell leukemia(Ref: Robbins 9/e p597) | Pathology | null | A 10-year old boy was presented with a mass in abdomen. On imaging, the para-aoic lymph nodes were enlarged. On biopsy, starry sky appearance was seen. What is the underlying abnormality?
A. p53 gene mutation
B. Rb gene mutation
C. Translocation involving BCR-ABL gene
D. Translocation involving Myc gene
| Translocation involving Myc gene |
9468ca2d-bf9d-4819-8e72-15c5d9c6df2f | The clinical scenario of the patient shows the following signs and symptoms:
Fever
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Normal total leukocyte count
Fragmented RBCs (Schistocytes) on peripheral smear.
Now let us review each option one by one
Option (a): DIC
Harrison 20/e, p 979
DIC may present with sudden onset of fever (as the M/c cause of D/c is sepsis)
Excessive bleeding may lead to anemia
Platelet consumption may lead to thrombocytopenia
Leukocyte count is not affected
Intravascular microangiopathic hemolysis can lead to schistocytes on peripheral smear.
Williams Obs 23/e, p 786
Option (b): TTP i.e Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.
TTP presents with a pentad of:
Fever
Microangiopathic haemolytic anemia, leading to anemia and fragmentation of RBCs
Thrombocytopenia
Neurologic symptoms
Renal failure.
Option (c): HELLP syndrome
HELLP syndrome presents with the combination of:
Hemolysis because of which fragmented RBC’s may be seen
Elevated liver enzymes and
Low platelet count
Fever may or may not be present.
Oprion (d): Evans syndrome
Hoffman: Hematology: Basic Principle and Practice, 5/e
Evans syndrome is an autoimmune disease in which an individual’s antibodies attack their own red blood cells and platelets.
Its overall pathology resembles a combination of autoimmune haemolytic anemia and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Autoimmune hemolysis leads to the formation of spherocytes and not schistocytes.
Schistocytes are fragmented RBCs that are the result of microangiopathic hemolysis.
Autoiminune destruction of RBCs leads to the formation of spherocytes.
Hence, Evans syndrome is the least likely possibility in this clinical scenario. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant female presents with fever. On lab investigation her Hb was decreased (7 mg%), TLC was normal and platelet count was also decreased. Peripheral smear shows fragmented RBCs. Which is least probable diagnosis?
A. DIC
B. TTP
C. HELLP syndrome
D. Evans syndrome
| Evans syndrome |
ae3d3724-3fd3-433f-9f38-53dfc516e32f | Ans. c. +80 Resting membrane potential (RMP) is the static state of a membrane, where the net transmembrane electric flux is zero. Non-electrogenic transfer at RMP means X+Y+Z = 0 . Since X = -50 and Y= -30, then Z must be +80 since (-80 +80 = 0) | Physiology | null | X,Y,Z are the ee ions pet meaule..\\ and V=-30. If at resting membrane potential (RMP), when there is no net electro genic transfer, what is the value of Z?
A. 20
B. -20
C. 80
D. -80
| 80 |
218972be-3960-421c-bdc4-8a7627c5e548 | Age Vaccine At bih BCG, bOPV-0, Hep B-0 6 weeks bOPV-1, Pentavalent-1, Rotavirus-1*, fIPV-1, PCV-1* 10 weeks bOPV-2, Pentavalent-2, Rotavirus-2* 14 weeks bOPV-3, Pentavalent-3, Rotavirus-3*, fIPV-2, PCV-2* 9 months MR-1*, JE-1*, PCV-3* 16-24 months DPT-B1, bOPV-B, JE-2*, MR-2* 5-6 years DPT-B2 11-13 yrs HPV-1*, HPV-2* BCG and Pentavalent can be given only up to 1st yr. of age, as per national immunization schedule | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2017 | A child presented at 18 months of age who has never been vaccinated before. Which vaccines will you administer?
A. DPT, OPV and MMR
B. Pentavalent vaccine alone
C. BCG and OPV
D. MMR, OPV, Rotavirus
| DPT, OPV and MMR |
2be4ec28-ff65-4ba0-9a8f-346a819c99f1 | Thiamine deficiency results in decreased energy production because TPP interferes with its coenzyme for pyruvate and alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase.Chronic peripheral Neuritis, Beriberi & Wemicke Encephalopathy with Korsakoff's Psychosis.Thiamin requirements increase in excess intake of carbohydrates and its deficiency leads to decreased energy production | Biochemistry | null | Thiamine deficiency decreases cellular metabolism because:
A. Thiamine is a coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alfa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenases
B. Activity of transketolase is inhibited
C. It is required for the process of transamination
D. It is a cofactor in oxidative reduction
| Thiamine is a coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alfa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenases |
f3fac8a7-d3e8-4d02-b4eb-4ac18da8e7c0 | For creating a gap in wound Bone Cutter Bone Nibbler Double Action Bone Holding Forceps Bone Plate Holding Forceps Fergusson Bone Holding Forceps Lane Bone Holding Forceps Dynamic Compression Plate (DCP) Locking Compression Plate (LCP) Limited Contact Dynamic CompressionPlate (LCDCP) Screws Osteotome Bone Curette | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2019 | What is the use of the given instrument:
A. To hold bone and plate
B. To hold bone fragments with traction
C. To cut the bone
D. For creating a gap in wound
| To hold bone and plate |
ff42704e-3996-4abe-a5b6-574344e7aaf0 | Ans. c. Islet cell hyperplasiaGallstones including microlithiasis (MC). Alcohol (2"d MC). Hyperiglyceridemia. ERCPO. Blunt abdominal trauma | Surgery | null | Which of the following is not an etiological factor for pancreatitis?
A. Abdominal trauma
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Islet cell hyperplasia
D. Germline mutations in the cationic trypsinogen gene
| Islet cell hyperplasia |
4fe74ce2-d331-467a-b577-889121306734 | Answer- B. <10%Clean wound- 1- 2%Clean contaminated- 7- 10%Contaminated- 10- 20%Diy- >20%class I (clean):2%class II (clean contaminated):5-15%class III (contaminated):>15%class IV (diy):>30% | Surgery | null | Percentage of SSI rate in patients with a clean contaminated wound?
A. 1-2%
B. <10%
C. 10- 20 %
D. 20- 30 %
| <10% |
fb23720d-b21a-4c23-803c-99dc0bba7f37 | Best investigation for VVF : Cystoscopy Cystoscopy tells about Site of fistula Size of fistula No. of fistula Ureteric opening Tests done for diagnosis of VVF: Clinical examination for site of fistula and type of lak Three swab test: methylene blue dye test Cystoscopy Cystography VCUG: voiding cystourethrography CT, urine c/s, IVP, USG Retrograde pyelography; may be done to rule out other causes of urine incontinence | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2018 | Most useful test in vesicovaginal fistula?
A. Cystoscopy
B. Three swab test
C. Urine culture
D. Intravenous pyelogram
| Cystoscopy |
c3330937-9414-435c-91f3-38e7197f7ba1 | Ans: C. Common witness"Except common witness all other options are expe witnesses".Only the common witness can be considered as having first-hand knowledge in the cou of law.In the cou procedures, this phrase refers to the personal understanding of circumstances and events, which is re-told and explained by a witness in a couroom, during a cou hearing on the concrete lawsuit.In other words, the witness has been an eye-witness of these circumstances or events and so has accepted directly. Therefore they have clear and detailed personal knowledge of it. An example is a statement in affidavits. | Forensic Medicine | null | "First hand knowledge" refers to
A. Opinion of a doctor in cou
B. Handwriting expe
C. Common witness
D. Fingerprint expe
| Common witness |
266fb227-cdc2-42a9-817a-e42fa767e5cd | Cause of death in anaphylactic shock is laryngeal edema. Undiluted adrenaline / epinephrine IM 0.5 ml of 1:1000 IM in thigh Option A- For PSVT Option B- For bradycardia Option D- For cardiac arrest | Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | First line therapy in anaphylactic shock is:
A. Adenosine 12 mg intravenously
B. Atropine 3 mg intravenously
C. Epinephrine .5 ml of 1:1000 IM
D. Epinephrine 1 ml of 1:10000 intravenously
| Epinephrine .5 ml of 1:1000 IM |
4e9a8341-05b8-4b00-859b-7a13d13b81a0 | Cervical headgears cause extrusion of maxillary molars and thus increase the lower facial height. So these are generally indicated in low mandibular angle cases (horizontal growers) as an increase in lower facial height would be beneficial in these patients. | Dental | null | Which of the following headgear is preferred while treating a class II div. 1 malocclusion with a horizontal growth trend?
A. High pull head gear
B. Medium pull head gear
C. Cervical head gear
D. Reverse pull head gear
| Cervical head gear |
9ac2ec17-8b1e-4ebb-98f9-e5c839f702f1 | Based on periodontal research, it would appear that if a root surface conditioning agent were to be used during periradicular surgery, EDTA might be the most appropriate solution. However, the manufacturer (personnel communication, Dr. Torabinejad) has advised against the use of EDTA when mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) is used as a root-end filling material, because it may interfere with the hard tissue–producing effect of MTA.
Reference: Cohen Pathways of pulp 11th ed page no 416 | Dental | null | Which of the following material is not applied for root conditioning after placement of MTA?
A. Tetracycline
B. Citric acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
D. EDTA
| EDTA |
bdc34663-b39a-47bb-b034-7f804e437c09 | Antipsychotic drugs Extrapyramidal symptoms- dur to D2 blockade in limbic system Extrapyramidal symptoms Clinical features Special DOC Acute dystonia Oculogyric crisis ocular muscles spasm and opisthotonos Toicollis Protrusion of tongue leading to laryngospasm grimacing Earliest to develop (days) Anticholinergic drugs Acute akathisia Constant purposeless involuntary movement from one place to another Most common EPS Days to week Propranolol Tardive dyskinesia chewing and sucking movements grimacing choreoathetoid movements-akathisia Seen after long(years) use of anti-psychotic Tetrabenazine Malignant neuroleptic syndrome Fluctuating level of consciousness hypehermia -muscles rigidity increase level of CPK Increase level of liver enzyme confusion - Diaphoresis Most common cause of death in this syndrome is acute renal failure Most serious side effect dantrolene DRUG induced parkinsonism Few weeks anticholinergics | Psychiatry | AIIMS 2017 | A young male patient is on 5 mg haloperidol for many days, recently for last 4 days of duration he has inner restlessness and urges to move. Diagnosis is?
A. Akathisia
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Rabbit syndrome
D. Acute Dystonia
| Akathisia |
1f536213-3abd-44b5-9011-773e21fe138f | Ans. d. Creatine phosphate.The high group transfer potential of ATP enables it to act as a donor of high-energy phosphate compounds. There are three major sources of high phosphate compounds taking pa in energy conservation i.e. oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis, and citric acid cycle.Phosphagens act as storage forms of group transfer potential and include creatine phosphate, which occurs in veebrate skeletal muscle, hea, spermatozoa, and brain, and arginine phosphate, which occurs in the inveebrate muscle. | Biochemistry | null | During exercise, the most rapid way to synthesize ATP is:
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycolysis
C. TCA cycle
D. Creatine phosphate
| Creatine phosphate |
22bc4a41-38a8-42cd-b629-a88bb7745260 | Answer- A. High estrogenDiagnosis:Laparoscopy is gold standard fbr diagnosis of endometriosis.Powder burn or matchstick spots are seell on laparoscopy.CL-125 >35 U/mL may be used as evidence of recurrence. Laparoscopic FindingsUnless disease is visible in the vagina or elsewhere, laparoscopy is the standard technique for visual inspection of pelvis and establishment of a definitive diagnosisCharacteristic findings include typical "Powder burn or gun shot" lesions on the serosal surface of peritoneum.In the presence of ovarian endometrioma >3cm in diameter and deeply infiltrative disease, histology should beobtained to identify endometriosis and to exclude rare instance of malignancy | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In endometriotic lesions, histology represents its:
A. High estrogen
B. Low insulin
C. High levels of prolactin
D. High cholesterol
| High estrogen |
Subsets and Splits