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Kappa agonist and mu antagonist are:Pentazocine, nalbuphine, butarphanol.They are responsible for causing dysphoria as a side effect.Buprenorphine is paial mu agonist and kappa antagonist.Tramadol and fentanyl are synthetic opioids.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2017
A patient presented with pain in the right lower quadrant of abdomen. He has history of renal stones in right kidney. He was prescribed an opioid which is agonist at kappa receptors and antagonist at mu receptors. The likely drug given was: A. Pentazocine B. Buprenorphine C. Tramadol D. Fentanyl
Pentazocine
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Ans. C. PVPemphigus vulgaris (PV) is a rare and serious (potentially life-threatening) condition that causes painful blisters to develop on the skin and lining of the mouth, nose, throat and genitals.The blisters are fragile and can easily burst open, leaving areas of raw unhealed skin that are very painful and can put you at risk of infection.H&E: Subepidermal bullaeDIF: linear IgG and C3 deposition at the basement membrane zone
Skin
null
After sequential arrangement of blistering disorder staing from superficial to deep blisters, which is the deepest among these? A. IgA pemphigus B. EBD C. PV D. Bullous pemphigoid+
PV
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Ans: C. -PCR for rabies virusRef: Ananthanarayan 10/e p536, 8/e p529: Harrison 19/e p1302).Detection of rabies virus:-PCR with genetic sequencing:Highly sensitive & specific.Accurately identify rabies genome (viral RNA) in CSF, fresh saliva samples, corneal scrapings or urine.Distinguish among rabies virus variants.Permits identification of probable infection source.Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction testing:Used to amplify rabies virus genome pas from fixed or unfixed brain tissue or saliva.Sequencing of amplified products allows identification of infecting virus strain.
Microbiology
null
A patient presented to the hospital with severe hydrophobia. You suspect rabies, obtained corneal scrapings from the patient. What test should be done on this specimen for a diagnosis of rabies? A. Negri bodies B. Antibodies to rabies virus C. -PCR for rabies virus D. Indirect immunofluorescence
-PCR for rabies virus
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It is not exactly 7.2% but it is the closest choice.
Pediatrics
null
Percentage of lactose in human milk is – A. 7.2gm B. 4.5gm C. 8.0gm D. 6.7gm
7.2gm
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Multipennate: Having the fibers arranged at multiple angles in relation to the axis of force generation. E.g., Masseter.
Dental
null
Masseter is a strong muscle due to: A. Multipennate arrangement of fibers B. Bipennate arrangement of fibers C. Random arrangement of fibers D. Circumpennate arrangement of fibers
Multipennate arrangement of fibers
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Down's analysis provides information by which we can determine whether the individual’s pattern shows comparatively harmonious relations or not and whether dysplasia present in a person is in the facial skeleton, the dentition or in both. Steiner concluded that it might not be possible to correct dentition according to ideal norms in non-growing patients whose skeletal relations cannot be altered. The imperative here is to come up with an acceptable compromise for the dentition, one that will mask the underlying skeletal deformity as much as possible. This can be achieved using Steiner’s sticks, which allow calculations to be carried out for a particular ANB value. In addition to commonly used sagittal discrepancy indicators, that is angle ANB, sagittal maxilla mandibular relationship should be reconfirmed with other variables which include WITS appraisal, A–B plane angle and beta angle.  Key Concept: Tweed’s analysis (originally undertaken in 1954) is primarily based on inclination of the mandibular incisors to the basal bone and the latter’s association with the vertical relation of the mandible to the cranium. Tweed’s analysis is clinically oriented. It does not directly assess the jaws.   Reference: Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities 3rd O P Kharbanda, pdf no 1016,997,981,2463
Dental
null
Which of the following cephalometric analysis does not reveal the severity of anteroposterior jaw dysplasia? A. Down's analysis B. Steiner analysis C. Tweed's analysis D. Wit's analysis
Tweed's analysis
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Echinococcus multilocularis causes malignant hydatid disease in which Tumour are slow-growing And are alveoli like which is ill-defined ,slow-growing and invasive .It causes alveolar hydatidosis. Echinococcus granulosus causes hydatid disease in liver or cystic echinococcosis. Amoebic liver abscess is an extra intenstinal manifestation of Entamoeba histolytica. Cysticercus cellulosae is the larval stage of Taenia solium.
Microbiology
AIIMS 2019
Slow growing alveolar like tumor in liver A. E. granulosus B. E. multilocularis C. Cysticercus cellulosae D. Amoebic liver abscess
E. multilocularis
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Biomechanical Considerations The maxilla can be advanced 2-4 mm forward over a period of 8-12 months. The amount of maxillary movement is influenced by a number of factors like: Amount of force: Successful maxillary protraction can be brought about by 300-500 gm of force per side in the primary or mixed dentition. Direction of force: According to most authors, a 15- 20° downward pull to the occlusal plane is required to produce forward maxillary movement. In most cases of maxillary deficiency, maxilla is deficient in the vertical plane as well, therefore, a slight downward, direction of force is usually desirable. The line of force passes below the center of resistance of the maxilla producing a counter-clockwise moment on the maxilla and dentition. This results in a possible extrusion of maxillary posterior teeth leading to a downward and backward rotation of the mandible. However, in patients with increased anterior facial height, downward pull is contradicted. Duration of force: A review of literature shows duration to vary between 3 and 16 months. On an average at least 8-12 months of wear is required to produce the desired effect. Frequency of use: 12-14 hrs/day. Key Concept: According to most authors, a 15- 20° downward pull to the occlusal plane is required to produce forward maxillary movement. Reference: Textbook of orthodontics 2nd ed Gurkeerat Singh page no 502
Dental
null
Direction of force by class III elastic in face mask? A. 15-20 degree downward from occlusion B. 15-20 degree upward from occlusion C. 35-40 deg downward from occlusion D. 5-10 deg downword from occlusion
15-20 degree downward from occlusion
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HbS mobility on gel electrophoresis:Decreased mobility - Compared to normal hemoglobin.Electrophoresis of hemoglobin:Obtained from lysed red blood cells.Used in sickle cell trait & disease diagnosis.Sequence of Movement: HbA2 < HbC < HhS < HbF < HbA
Biochemistry
null
After a point mutation, glutamic acid is replaced by valine, which leads to formation of sickle cell hemoglobin. The mobility of HbS as compared with normal hemoglobin on gel electrophoresis will be: A. Decreased B. Increased C. Dependent on HbS concentration D. Unchanged.
Decreased
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Answer- C. 2bThe severity, radiology and management of Necrotizing enterocolitis is best exemplified by the 'Modified Bell's stagingcrileria'- According to 'Modified Bell's staging criteria'pneumatosis poalis (Presinie of gas in pofiai vein) is suggestiveof stage 2b.
Pediatrics
null
A 3 days old baby is admitted with intraventricular hemorrhage. Baby develops abdominal distention. The X-ray abdomen showed pneumatosis poalis. Stage the necrotizing enterocolitis: A. lb B. 2a C. 2b D. 3a
2b
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Answer- A. Linagliptinlinagliptin has the ability to be safely dosed in chronic kidney disease patients. Chronic kidney disease is a major complication in type 2 diabetesLinagliptin .No dose required linagliptin for patients with renal impairment
Pharmacology
null
A 70 years old hypeensive patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease was diagnosed recently with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. He doesn't want to take injectable insulin. Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents will be preferred in this patient, which won't require any renal dose modification? A. Linagliptin B. Repaglinide C. Vildagliptin D. Glimepiride
Linagliptin
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Ans: D. Opioid poisoning(Ref: Harrison 19/e p 1774, 2583, 18/e p3295)Findings in question represents hallmark sign of opiate overdose.Opioid overdose triad:Decreased level of consciousness + Pinpoint pupils + Respiratory depression. .Other Signs & symptoms:Hypotension, Seizures & muscle spasms.All secretions are suspended except sweat.Treatment:Specific opioid antagonist - Naloxone.Effective at reversing the cause, rather than just the symptoms, of an opioid overdose)
Medicine
null
A 25 years old unidentified male from roadside was brought by police to emergency room with disorientation, altered sensorium and vomiting. He had a BP of 90/70 mm Hg, hea rate of 110/min, temperature -36.4degC and respiratory rate of 11/min. On examination, he had bilateral pin-point pupils. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Pontine hemorrhage B. Hypothermia C. Dhatura poisonine D. Opioid poisoning
Opioid poisoning
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Answer- C. Internal carotid aerySurgical ligation of vessels or embolization is the last reso to control epistaxis when all other methods fail. Internal carotid aery is not ligated in case of epistaxis control, as it is the msinvessel supplying the central nervous system."Endoscopy identifies the source of posterior epistaxis in over 80 percent of the cases. Ligation should be performed as close as possible to the likely bleeding point. Thus the hierarchy of ligation is: Sphenopalatine aery; internal maxillary aery; external carotid aery; anterior/posterior ethmoidal aery.
ENT
null
Which of the following vessel is not ligated in case of epistaxis control? A. Maxillary aery B. Anterior ethmoidal aery C. Internal carotid aery D. External carotid aery
Internal carotid aery
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Ans. d. Carotico-cavernous fistula (Ref KANSKI7/E PG94; PARSON 20/E P455,462)The most likely diagnosis in a young adult with history of trauma to the eye with proptosis and pain in the right eye and bruise on the right eye and forehead is Carotico-cavernous fistula
Ophthalmology
null
A young adult presents 2 days after trauma to the eye with proptosis and pain in the right eye. On examination, hi is found to have a bruise on the right eye and forehead. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Fracture sphenoid bone B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Internal carotid aery aneurysm D. Carotico-cavernous fistula
Carotico-cavernous fistula
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Ans: A. GnRH analogues(Ref- .Shaw 16/e p59).Precocious pubey - Treatment:Depends on cause.Primary treatment goal:Enable child to grow to a normal adult height.GnRH & Medroxy progesterone acetate.GnRH agonists:Doc regardless of cause.DOC for halting premature sexual development.Effective in children with organic brain lesions causing central precocious pubey.Effective in identification of hypothalamic hamaoma (precocious pubey - only manifestation)
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
What is the drug of choice for precocious pubey in girls? A. GnRH analogues B. Cyproterone acetate C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
GnRH analogues
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Morphine (an opioid) is a strong analgesic. It is used in treatment of all types of pain like Crush injury, Fracture, MI, cancer pain, post-operative pain etc. However in Biliary colic (e.g. due to any stone blocking bile duct), morphine constricts sphincter of Oddi and increase the intrabiliary pressure. This increases the chances of rupture of bile duct. Therefore opioids like morphine are contra-indicated in biliary colic.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
Morphine should not be used in the treatment of:- A. Ischemic pain B. Biliary colic C. Cancer pain D. Post operative pain
Biliary colic
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Ans. A. Since there is a comparison between fat content of EBM in preterm vs term infant the best study design will be, Case control. Prospective Coho study will be appropriate if we want to see the change in the fat content of EBM in preterm infants.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
A study is to be conducted with regards to the fat content in the expressed breast milk of pre-term infants as compared to term infants. Which study design is best suited? A. Case control B. Prospective coho C. Longitudinal study D. Ambispective
Case control
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0 (Points) 1 2 Appearance Blue or pale all over Blue extremities, but torso pink Pink all over Pulse None <100 >100 Grimace No response Weak grimace when stimulated Cries or pulls away when stimulated Activity None Some flexion of arms Arms flexed, legs resist extension Respirations None Weak, irregular or gasping Strong cry 0-3 Critically low, 4-6 Fairly Low, 7-10 Generally Normal
Pediatrics
AIIMS 2017
APGAR acronym stands for? A. Activity, pulse pressure, grimace, appearance, rate of respiration B. Appearance, pressure, grimace, MAP, hea rate C. Appearance, pressure, grimace, appearance, rate of hea beat D. Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration
Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration
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Ans. A. Paracetamol Acute liver failure after administration of paracetamol at the maximum recommended daily dose in adults.Paracetamol is the most commonly used analgesic and antipyretic in the world; it can be bought without prescription in most countries despite being the commonest cause of acute liver failure in western Europe.Prescribing information suggests that it is safe to use in adults in divided doses that total 4 g daily.Malnutrition, starvation, chronic alcohol misuse, and concomitant use of drugs that induce cytochrome P450 enzymes increase the risk of hepatotoxicity induced by paracetamol.
Pharmacology
null
Most commonly implicated drug for acute liver failure is - A. Paracetamol B. Valproate C. Warfarin D. Tetracyclines
Paracetamol
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Answer- A (B- cell)MC type of cancer of the orbit in adultsUsually a form of B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphomaIt may show up as a nodule in the eyelid or around the eye, or it may cause the eye to be pushed out.This type of eye cancer usually does not cause pain.
Pathology
null
Most common type of Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma in the orbit: A. B-cell B. T-cell C. NK-cell D. Plasma cell
B-cell