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7dddfcb4-e0a3-4d71-b95e-49241da2abd5 | Clostridium difficile is difficult to culture. The best method for its diagnosis is PCR for tox gene. Nagler's reaction is done for Cl. Perfringens. It is a neutralizaton reaction. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | Diagnosis of CI. Difficile infection is made by which of the following methods?
A. Toxin gene detection by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B. Culture
C. Enzyme - linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
D. Nagler's reaction
| Toxin gene detection by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) |
e3b365b5-231a-4439-900a-c2cd741266a1 | Ans: A. Deep branch of ulnar nerve(Ref: Gray's 41/C p784, 866, 40/e p888)Deformity = Claw hand.Due to injury of deep branch of ulnar nerve. | Anatomy | null | A 37-year-old patient presented to you with hyper-extension of 4th and 5th metacarpophalangeal joint with flexion at proximal interphalangeal joint. This deformity is due to injury to:
A. Deep branch of ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Superficial branch of median nerve
| Deep branch of ulnar nerve |
8fa85cca-19b5-42e5-90b2-b2d79087954b | The term myofunctional therapy was proposed by lischer. Best period for myofunctional therapy is the late mixed dentition period. | Dental | null | Myofunctional appliance is given at which stage:
A. Primary dentition
B. Mixed dentition
C. Permanent dentition
D. Adulthood
| Mixed dentition |
65d9eeb1-814f-41c7-b7df-efb272a9fdc0 | When plaster is mixed with water, it takes up one and a half molecules of water, i.e, it regains its water of crystallization and becomes calcium sulphate dihydrate.
(CaSO4)2.H2O + 3H2O → 2CaSO4.2H2O+ unreacted (CaSO4)2.½H2O + Heat
Hemihydrate + Water → Dihydrate + Unreacted hemihydrate + Heat
The reaction is exothermic and is the same for all gypsum products. The amount of water required to produce a workable mix varies between the products. As evident from the above reaction, not all of the hemihydrate converts to dihydrate. The amount of conversion is dependent on the type of stone. The highest conversion rate is seen in plaster (90%). In Type 4 and 5 stone, the dihydrate content is about 50%.
Key Concept
This corresponds to the first step in the reaction. The principal constituent of gypsum-based products is calcium sulfate hemihydrate .
Phillips Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg183 | Dental | null | Model plaster (white) used to cast study models before mixing with water, is largely composed of:
A. CaO
B. CaCO3
C. CaSO4 • ½H2O
D. CaSO4 • 2H2O
| CaSO4 • ½H2O |
e2784a8a-04af-4ced-8bf8-e6c496245df2 | Naloxone is an opioid anatagonist given intravenously. It blocks mu, kappa and delta receptors. It is the DOC for opioid toxicity. Lignocaine is a local anaesthetic. Diphenhydramine is a first generation antihistaminic. Fentanyl is a synthetic opioid. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | A female in labor ward was administered opioid analgesic. Which of the following drugs should be kept ready for emergency?
A. Lignocaine
B. Naloxone
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Fentanyl
| Naloxone |
af75fc76-911b-48da-9ca0-75a8c912c18b | It's a protocol for breaking the bad news to patients about their illness Involved six steps S-setting up to the interview P- perception (what patient knows about his condition) I- invitation (finding out how much patient want to know) K- knowledge and information (diagnosis and treatment) E -addressing patients' emotion (how patient feel and respond) S- strategy and summary | Psychiatry | AIIMS 2018 | SPIKES protocol is used for:
A. Triage
B. Communication with patients/attendants regarding bad news
C. Writing death ceificate
D. RCT
| Communication with patients/attendants regarding bad news |
90d95409-e99f-4cb5-b74f-da3f1675e26b | Answer- D. RifampicinRifampicin induces the isoenqymes CYP3A4, 2C8, 2C9, 2CI9, 286, and the transpoer P-glycoprotein. When coadministeredwith drugs that are substrates of the same enzymes, their metabolism may be accelerated resulting in lowerconcentration and less efficacy.Inducer-AmprenavirClotrimazoleDexamethasoneIndinavirMorphineNelfinavirPhenothiazineRetinoic acidRifampinRitonavirSaquinavirSt John's wo | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs is a P-glycoprotein inducer?
A. Azithromycin
B. Ketoconazole
C. Itraconazole
D. Rifampicin
| Rifampicin |
bc041127-1659-41db-909f-71bc5514bc5c | Coarse facial features is a typical feature of Mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS). Hunter's disease is Type II Mucopolysaccharidosis, in which enzyme deficient is Iduronate Sulfatase. This is X-linked recessive, so occurs exclusively in Males. There is no corneal clouding in Hunter's disease. Option 3- Fragile X-Syndrome is a trinucleotide repeat expansion disorder in which patient has large face, large mandible, large testis, large eveed ears and tall stature. It is the second most common cause of mental retardation. Option 4- Tay Sach's disease is because of increased GM2 Gangliosides due to deficiency of enzyme Hexosaminidase A. Clinical features are mental retardation, cherry red spots on macula and progressive neurodegeneration but no hepatosplenomegaly. ADDITIONAL EDGE: Mucopolysaccharidosis: Type Disease name Enzyme defect Special features GAG accumulated MPS I - H (AR) Hurler disease Alpha - L - Iduronidase Inguinal hernias often present DS + HS MPS I - S (AR) Scheie disease Alpha - L - Iduronidase No mental retardation DS MPS II (XR) Hunter disease (Mild Hurler + Aggressive behaviour) Iduronate Sulfatase No corneal clouding, Exclusively males affected DS + HS MPS VI (AR) Maroteaux Lamy Syndrome Aryl Sulfatase B No mental retardation DS AR- Autosomal Recessive; XR- X-linked Recessive Additional Edge: C/F of Hunter disease Copious nasal discharge. Mental retardation. Coarse facies. Protuberant abdomen because of hepatomegaly and also inguinal hernia in these patients. frontal head enlargement. Thickening of cardiac valve. Hearing impairment. These patients have skeletal abnormalities because these mucopolysaccharides will be accumulated in bones also. And, all mucopolysaccharidosis have corneal clouding except hunter's disease. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | A male child presented with coarse facies, protuberant abdomen , frontal head enlargement, thickening of cardiac valve, hepatosplenomegaly, hearing impairement. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Hurler's disease
B. Hunter's disease
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Tay Sach's disease
| Hunter's disease |
e737ad44-e48a-4f53-8077-79b181818e5f | Weber Fechner law: S = K x Log (I) S = sensory perception at coex K = constant (I) = intensity of stimulus at the periphery Perception felt about the intensity of stimulus changes with logarithmic scale of the actual intensity applied at the periphery. Related: Steven's power law S = K x (I)N Sensation felt is propoional to the nth power of intensity of stimulus applied i.e. perception changes as a power function of intensity. | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | Weber-Fechner law related to:
A. Number of nerve Fibers
B. Number of muscle Fibers
C. Number of stimulus
D. Intensity of stimulus
| Intensity of stimulus |
38d19909-c427-44de-9fff-8b43342040ea | Force oring filtration = Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure(PGC = 42mm Hg) Forces opposing filtration = Plasma colloid oncotic pressure (pGC = 12 mm Hg) Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure (PSC = 16mm Hg) : Net = PsC + pGC = 12 + 16= 28mm Hg : NET FILTRATION PRESSURE = 42 - 28 mm Hg = 14mm Hg. | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | Calculate net filtration pressure with the following data: PGC = 42 mm Hg pGC = 12 mm Hg PBC= 16 mm Hg Assume that no proteins were filtered.
A. 34 mm Hg
B. Data not sufficient
C. 14 mm Hg
D. 28 mm Hg
| 14 mm Hg |
bf96e90e-8e47-4660-93c7-bd01ec8735fb | Ans: A. Clinical trialAmong the given options, clinical trial is the best study to evaluate effect and outcome.Randomized control trial (Experimental study or Intervention study):Considered as the ideal design to evaluate the effectiveness and the side-effects of new forms of intervention.Coho Study:A study design where one or more samples (called cohos) are followed prospectively and subsequent status evaluations with respect to a disease or outcome are conducted to determine which initial paicipants exposure characteristics (risk factors) are associated with it. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of these is the best study to evaluate effect and outcome?
A. Clinical trial
B. Coho
C. Case control study
D. Cross sectional study
| Clinical trial |
da743fb8-1db4-4fee-9e20-351d78dc60c9 | Ans: A.Minimal change disease(Ref Harrison 19/e p184, 18/2345)Most likely diagnosis - Minimal change disease.Minimal Change Disease:Peak age of onset = Between 6-8 years of age (usually <10 years)Type of onset = InsidiousTypical presentation = Nephrotic syndromeHallmark of Nephrotic syndrome =Peripheral edema.Occurs when serum albumin levels < 3 gm/dlLaboratory findings = Proteinuria & hypoalbuminemia. | Pediatrics | null | Presented edema, oliguria and frothy urine. He has no past history of similar complaints. On examination, his urine was positive for 3+ proteinuria, no RBCs/WBCs and no casts. His serum albumin was 2.5 gm/L and serum creatinine was 0.5 mg/dL. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Minimal change disease
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Interstitial nephritis
D. Membranous nephropathy
| Minimal change disease |
e356b193-bb0c-4a38-9d5b-e14317c5ec09 | Mental foramen is present on the outer surface of body of mandible between the roots of two premolars | Anatomy | null | Which of the following structures is not present on the internal surface of mandible?
A. Genial tubercle
B. Mylohyoid ridge
C. Lingula
D. Mental foramen
| Mental foramen |
8e093537-c2ea-4af0-b5c0-d81dc23e190a | The dose rate-Cpss relationship is linear only in case of drugs eliminated by first order kinetics. For drugs (e.g. phenytoin) which follow Michaelis Menten kinetics, elimination changes from first order to zero order kinetics over the therapeutic range. Increase in their dose beyond saturation levels causes an increase in Cpss which is out of proportion to the change in dose rate.
In their case: | Pharmacology | null | Km value indicates:
A. Purity of Enzyme
B. Physiological role
C. The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity
D. Affinity
| The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity |
36535f13-db82-4771-afd8-3f210207b234 | Ans: A. Gamma carboxylation of glutamate(Ref: Harrison 19/e p96e-5; Harper 30/e p550, 561)Gamma carboxylation of glutamate:Carried out by Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase.Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase:Vitamin-K dependent enzyme.Catalyzes post-translational modification of vitamin K-dependent proteins.Biotin:Transfers carbon dioxide in reactions like acetyl-CoA carboxylase, pyruvate carboxylase, propionyl-CoA carboxylase & methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase.Biotin functions to transfer carbon dioxide in reactionsPyruvate carboxylasePyruvate (3C) to oxaloacetate (4C) in gluconeogenesisdegAcetyl-CoA carboxylaseAcetyl-CoA (2C) to malonyl-CoA (3C) in lipid synthesis.Propionyl-CoA carboxylasePropionyl-Co A (3C) to methylmalonyl-CoA (4C) inMethylmalonyl CoA carboxyl Propionic acid synthesis in bacteriaMethylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylaseLeucine catabolism | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following conversions does not require Biotin as a cofactor?
A. Gamma carboxylation of glutamate
B. Acetyl Co-A to Malonyl Co-A
C. Propionyl Co-A to methyl malonyl Co-A
D. Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
| Gamma carboxylation of glutamate |
ec14d880-a203-4453-8e5f-33e65efe9547 | Thiamine (vitamin B1) Deficiency It is assessed by Erythrocyte transketolase activity. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is the marker for transketolase enzyme -which is involved in HMP pathway (in RBCs) Activity of Transketolase is measured (not the quantity). No impoance of checking serum thiamine Riboflavin (Vitamin B2) Deficiency RBC glutathione reductase is the marker for vitamin B2 deficiency. =Enzyme Transaminase activity is checked for Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) deficiency =If Relation between thiamine and energy is asked then mark enzyme of Link reaction and TCA Because pyruvate dehydrogenase of Link reaction and a keto glutarate dehydrogenase of TCA cycle | give energy and they are requiring vitamins Both link reaction and TCA requires 4 B complex vitamins B1, B2, B3 and B5 | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 | Thiamine deficiency is assessed by:
A. Erythrocyte transketolase activity
B. RBS Glutathione reductase
C. RBC thiamine levels
D. Serum thiamine level
| Erythrocyte transketolase activity |
ca435de5-729e-4d62-8d92-116f5afb5a48 | Ans: C. --61 mVRef: Ganong 25Ie p9, p24Ie p9-10; Guyton 13Ie p61Ek = 61.5 log Ci/CeIntracellular concentration Ci = 100Extracellular concentration Ce = 10EK = 61 C log100/10 = -61 mV. | Physiology | null | The concentration of a negative ion is 100 mMoUL extracellular and 10 mMo1/1 intracellular. What will be the Nernst potential for this ion?
A. --10 mV
B. +10 mV
C. --61 mV
D. +61 mV
| --61 mV |
94f81251-43c1-4ba0-a67c-4f6412742774 | The primary functions of the power supply of an X-ray machine are to:
Provide a low-voltage current to heat the X-ray tube filament.
Generate a high potential difference to accelerate electrons from the cathode to the focal spot on the anode. The X-ray tube and two transformers lie within an electrically grounded metal housing called the head of the X-ray machine.
White and Pharoah, pg-6 | Radiology | null | The speed with which the electrons travel from the
filament of cathode to the anode depends upon
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit
C. Angle between the filament and target
D. Voltage of the filament
| Potential difference between the two electrodes |
25c67dc6-f8bd-4ef4-ac07-6ae8a02e0412 | Chronic and recurrent abdominal pain in children
Chronic abdominal pain is defined as recurrent or persistent bouts of abdominal pain that occur over a minimum of 3 months.
The commonest cause of chronic abdominal pain in older children is functional (non organic) that may be due to emotional or behavioral problems.
Causes of chronic and recurrent Abdominal pain | Pediatrics | null | Recurrent abdominal pain in children in most often due to –
A. Roundworms
B. Emotional/behavioural problems
C. Amoebiasis
D. Giardiasis
| Emotional/behavioural problems |
1a31abe7-fbc1-41bc-b42d-fab66edfef39 | Transport of Cholesterol between tissues:
Dietary cholesterol is incorporated into Chylomicrons.
95% of Chylomicron cholesterol is delivered to liver in Chylomicron remnant.
The cholesterol is secreted from liver in VLDL.
Most of the cholesterol secreted in VLDL is retained in IDL and ultimately LDL.
LDL cholesterol is taken up by liver and extrahepatic tissues (peripheral tissues). | Biochemistry | null | The most important career of cholesterol in plasma is:
A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Chylomicrons
| LDL |
21a40530-4007-4c8b-8427-dfadec028afd | Ans: C. USGUltrasonography has a sensitivity of approximately 85% and a specificity of more than 90% for the diagnosis of acute appendicitis.Ultrasonography has the advantages of being a noninvasive modality requiring no patient preparation that also avoids exposure to ionizing radiation.Thus, it is commonly used in children and in pregnant patients with equivocal clinical findings suggestive of acute appendicitis. | Surgery | null | Best diagnostic investigation for acute appendicitis in children is:
A. MRI
B. CECT
C. USG
D. X-ray.
| USG |
240aaafe-ec41-447b-85eb-d8da168c1430 | According to Piaget Cognitive theory, the sequence of development has been categorized into 4 major stages:
Sensorimotor stage (0 to 2 yrs)
Pre-operational stage (2 to 6 yrs)
Concrete operation stage (7 to 12 yrs)
Formal operation stage (11 to 15 yrs) | Dental | null | According to piagets, the period of pre operational stage is:
A. Birth to 18 months
B. 12 years onwards.
C. 2-6 years.
D. 7-12 years.
| 2-6 years. |
daddcf25-312b-4f87-a88a-e2c2985d8502 | Hydrocephalus is a condition in which there is an abnormal increase in cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricular and subarachnoid spaces of brain.
“The prenatal diagnosis of hydrocephalus is usually made by demonstration of a dilated ventricular system in an ultrasound examination.”
Fernando Arias 2/e, p 331
Earliest and most accurate sonographic sign of hydrocephalus – Enlarged lateral ventricles.
The lateral ventricle is measured at the level of atrium.
Normal transverse diameter of atrium is 7 mm + 1 mm (It remains constant during the second and third trimester).
When diameter of atrium is >10 mm, it is called as Ventriculomegaly/Hydrocephalus.
Other signs of hydrocephalus on USG:
Dangling choroid plexuses.
Thinning out of cerebral cortex. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Hydrocephalus is best detected antenately by:
A. X-ray abdomen
B. Amniocentesis
C. Clinical examination
D. Ultrasonography
| Ultrasonography |
0129977e-f5cf-4025-b727-dbf1a4d99c14 | INTERSTITIAL CELLS OF CAJAL: - These cells synapse with both smooth muscle and neurons of enteric nervous system - They are Pacemaker cell of G.I tract. - Smooth muscle of G.I.T have 2 basic types of electric waves. 1. Slow waves 2. Spikes Slow waves: - Most gastro intestinal contractions occur rhythmically & this rhythm is determined mainly by frequency of 'slow waves' - These are not action potentials, instead they are slow undulating changes in resting membrane potential - These waves are caused by complex interactions among smooth muscle cells & interstitial cells of cajal. - Slow waves usually do not themselves cause muscle contraction (except in stomach) instead they mainly excite appearance of intermittent spike potential & spike potentials in turn actually excite muscle contraction. Parasympathetic neurons - depolarize smooth muscle cell & makes muscle fibers more excitable. Smooth muscle contraction occurs in response to entry of calcium ions into muscle fiber. Enteric nervous system composed of 2 plexuses 1. Myenteric plexus / Auerbach's plexus - outer 2. Submucosal Meissner's plexus - inner Myenteric plexus control G.I movements Submucosal plexus control G.I secretions & local blood flow. | Physiology | AIIMS 2017 | Slow wave potential originates in which pa of intestine:
A. Interstitial cells of Cajal
B. Parasympathetic neurons
C. Smooth muscle cells
D. Myentric plexus
| Interstitial cells of Cajal |
b01ee962-68d0-4291-aee2-b978c108f65f | Answer- B. Cornea'Long-spacing collagen is a common component of normal human corneal stroma and its occurrence seems to correlatewith the age-related changes of the tissue.Corneal transparency is mainly dependent on the arrangement of these collagen fibers in stroma. | Ophthalmology | null | In which of the following, long spaced collagen present?
A. Diaphragm
B. Cornea
C. Basement membrane
D. Tympanic membrane
| Cornea |
aa23e05a-7e73-494b-bc8d-6331b060a964 | Ans. d. Fetal macrosomia (Ref- Dutta6/e , pg227)Fetal macrosomia is the least likely complication of pregnancy-induced hypeension among the options provided. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is the least likely complication of pregnancy-induced hypeension?
A. Renal failure
B. Pre-eclampsia
C. HELLP syndrome
D. Fetal macrosomia
| Fetal macrosomia |
157101aa-f928-4f25-8b8a-51e712b3e7ff | Sensitivity of a screening test detects: true positives among all diseased.
Specificity of a screening test detects: true negatives among all healthy.
PPV detects: true positives among all those who are positive on a screening test
NPV detects: true negatives among all those who are negative on a screening test. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The probability of a test detecting a truly positive person from the population of diseased is the
A. Specificity of the test
B. Positive predictive value of the test
C. Sensitivity of the test
D. Likelihood ratio
| Sensitivity of the test |
9baf46e0-b16f-48a5-b761-334765784402 | Largest embrasure
Incisal embrasure : between upper LI and Canine
Occlusal embrasure: between upper canine and 1st premolar | Dental | null | Largest incisal embrasure seen in
A. Between upper Lateral incisor and Canine
B. Between lower Central incisor and Lateral incisor
C. Between upper canine and premolar
D. Between lower canine and premolar
| Between upper Lateral incisor and Canine |
6b63e6bd-ebb1-439d-a8f6-c35a37b7436c | Anion gap - All Cations can be measured but some of the anions can't be measured, this creates a viual GAP, called as - Anion gap Measured by: - (Na+) + (unmeasured cations) = (CL-) + (HCO-3) + Unmeasured anions - Since cations do not remain unmeasured, all cations gets measured, therefore :- Anion gap = Na minus - - - 137 - 125 - 12 | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Patient's lab value of Na+ 137, K+4, Urea 54, Bicarbonate 15, Phosphate 3, Chloride 110, Calcium 10. Calculate the Anion gap?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 10
D. 8
| 12 |
37e6c503-59f9-4ba2-80b3-a7acb789c118 | Ans. a. KetamineKetamine should be avoided in patients with history of seizures as it fuher increases ICP and also causes delirium and hallucinations. Contraindications of Ketamine:Head injury, intracranial space occupying lesion, eye injuryQ (increases ICT, IOT)Ischemic hea disease, vascular aneurysm and hypeensionQ (increases myocardial oxygen demand and hypeension)Psychiatric diseases and drug addictsdeg (more incidence of hallucination and emergence reaction) | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents is contraindicated in epileptic patients posted for general anaesthesia
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Propofol
D. Midazolam
| Ketamine |
af27a86f-cda7-4eb1-a1f3-fef11b9a25cf | Answer- A. Anisocytosis Red cell distribution width (RDW) is a parameter that measures variation in red blood cell size or red blood cell volume.RDW is elevated in accordance with variation in red cell size (anisocytosis).The "width" in RDW refers to the width of the volume curve (distribution width, here presented as the Coefficient of Variation, or CV), not the width of the cells.Anisocytosis is a medical term meaning that a patient's red blood cells are of unequal size.Poikilocytosis is variation in cell shape: poikilocytes may be oval, teardrop-shaped, sickle-shaped or irregularly contracted.Anisochromia is a marked variability in the color density of erythrocytes (red blood cells), which indicates unequal hemoglobin content among the red blood cells.Hypochromia means that the red blood cells have less color than normal when examined under a microscope. | Pathology | null | What does the red cell distribution width represents?
A. Anisocytosis
B. Poikilocytosis
C. Level of hypochromia
D. Anisochromia
| Anisocytosis |
ae005492-038e-49ae-a154-609fc852b6f0 | Sublingual salivary gland:
This is smallest of the three pairs of large salivary glands.
It lies in the floor of the mouth between the mucus membrane and superior to mylohyoid muscle.
It is almond shaped and rests in the sublingual fossa of the mandible.
It is separated from the base of the tongue by the submandibular duct.
It is mostly mucus in nature and weighs about 3–4 g.
The gland pours its secretion by a series of ducts, about 15 in number, into the oral cavity on the sublingual fold, but a few of them open into the submandibular duct.
Key Concept:
Sublingual salivary gland is present superior to mylohyoid muscle. | Anatomy | null | Sublingual salivary gland lies:
A. Superior to mylohyoid
B. Inferior to mylohyoid
C. Deep to genioglossus
D. Deep to geniohyoid
| Superior to mylohyoid |
f6445d02-67c1-458d-8983-debf90b50ebc | Ans. A. Nucleus AmbiguusThe nucleus ambiguus in its "external formation" contains cholinergic preganglionic parasympathetic neurons for the hea.These neurons are cardioinhibitory.This cardioinhibitory effect is one of the means by which quick changes in blood pressure are achieved by the central nervous system (the primary means being changes in sympathetic nervous system activity, which constricts aerioles and makes the hea pump faster and harder). | Physiology | null | Which of the following nucleus has cardio inhibitory function?
A. Nucleus Ambiguus
B. Nucleus Tractus Solitarius
C. Rostral Ventrolateral Medulla
D. Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus
| Nucleus Ambiguus |
e6cba7bc-8cd8-43cb-a3e5-37725a07a3b4 | Apart from its other functions, gastrointestinal tract is a lymphoid organ. The lymphoid tissue within it is collectively known as Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue, known as GALT.
Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT) is primarily located in lamina propria.
It may be present diffusely or as solitary or aggregated nodules, known as Peyer's patches in the small intestine. | Physiology | null | Gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) is primarily located in
A. Lamina propria
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularis
D. Serosa
| Lamina propria |
ab70624e-01f3-42b9-b918-1fa3d2c7f3ce | In an adult, the terminal end of the spinal cord, called the conus medullaris, ends at about the L1-L2 level of the spinal column and the lumbar and sacral nerve roots descend as the cauda equina below this level to the lower lumbar and sacral exit neuroforamina.
Spinal cord in adult ends at lower border of lumbar one vertebra.
Spinal dura mater and arachnoid mater extend till sacral two vertebra.
Spinal pia mater comprises an outer epi-pia and an inner pia-intima.
Reference: B D Chaurasia’s Head and Neck anatomy 6th ed page no 187 | Anatomy | null | In an adult, the spinal cord ends at the level of:
A. Lower border of L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
| Lower border of L1 |
406dfa1b-f27b-4db0-8c21-7c300498f63d | Timing of surgical repair has gradually shifted from an emergency repair, to a policy of stabilization using a variety of ventilatory strategies prior to operation. •
Current recommendation is to adopt a conservative approach and delay surgical repair of the CDH until the infant stablizes from a hemodynamic and respiratory point of view.
Prognostic factors in CDI-1
Prognostic factors can be divided into:
(A) Primary prognostic factors (Pathophysiological)
These are the most important prognostic factor which affect morbidity and mortility.
These factors are:
Pulmonary hypoplasia (most important)
Pulmonary hypertension (2nd most important)
(B) Secondary or relative predictors (diagnostic/clinical)
These poor prognostic factors are:
(a) tinatal
Detection at an early gestational age (<24 wks)
Associated extradiaphragmatic congenital anomalies
Liver herniation into thorax (Liver above diaphragm)
Stomach herniationinto thorax (Stomach above diaphragm)
Presence of polyhydraminios
Small lung to head circumference ratio (LI-IR ratio)
Small fetal abdominal circumference (< than 5th percentile)
(b) Postnatal
Early age (< 6 hours) of presentation
PG, and PCO, unresponsive to ventilation
Need for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECM0)
(c) Side of defect
(i) Right sided defect | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is the least important prognostic factor in congenital diaphragmatic hernia ?
A. Pulmonary Hypertension
B. Delay in emergent surgery
C. Size of defect
D. Gestational age at diagnosis
| Delay in emergent surgery |
678018c2-3154-4411-937e-0e5d4116739f | Ans: A. Methylationref: Harper's illustrated biochemistry, 30th editon., pg. 560.Methylation of cpG sites in the promoter of a gene may inhibit gene expression.There is also evidence that low folate status results in impaired methylation of cpG islands in DNA, which is a factor in the development of colorectal and other cancers. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following does not or permissive euchromatin due to changes occurring at cytosine residues at CpG islands in DNA?
A. Methylation
B. Alkylation
C. Phosphorylation
D. Sumoylation
| Methylation |
0d3453ee-77ef-400b-9e64-4ff5b6cbfcc8 | Ricketts’ E line:
R. M. Ricketts suggested using an esthetic (E) plane to evaluate the relationship between the nose, lips and chin. Ricketts’ E line is drawn from the tip of the nose to the soft tissue chin. A quick method to look at one profile is to imagine a line tangent from the lower chin to the nose tip. Cephalometrically, Ricketts’ E line is drawn from the tip of the nose to the soft tissue chin. Normal values suggest that the upper lip is 4 mm behind the E line, while the lower lip lies 2 mm behind this reference line. It is important to mention that, this reference line is influenced a great deal by the growth of the nose and also varies with age and sex. Ricketts recommended that lip position should be analyzed using the nose–chin line as a reference point. These values are for Caucasians and clearly cannot be applied to all races.
Ref: Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities, 3e, Om P. Kharbanda pdf no 1097 | Dental | null | In Ricketts esthetic plane, lower lip rests:
A. 1 mm anterior to plane
B. On the plane
C. 2 mm posterior to plane
D. 1 mm posterior to plane
| 2 mm posterior to plane |
c8061a66-f213-4e01-8496-819313264e2d | Curing shrinkage arises as the monomer is converted to polymer and the free space it occupies reduces (approximately 20% less than that among unreacted monomers).
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 293 | Dental | null | Which of the following may result if an excessive amount of monomer is incorporated into an acrylic resin mixture?
A. Excessive expansion
B. Low impact strength
C. Excessive shrinkage
D. Excessive brittleness
| Excessive shrinkage |
65981270-0578-4774-8c79-e11a22df3497 | To prevent porosity in dental porcelain, it should be baked in vacuum. | Dental | null | To prevent porosity in dental porcelain it should be
baked:
A. In presence of air
B. In vacuum
C. For long period
D. Under pressure
| In vacuum |
23c2e953-ff3a-48f2-9056-939ee23af812 | Risk of malignancies Management Simple Hyperplasia without Atypia- 1% Complex Hyperplasia without Atypia- 3% Progestin Therapy Simple Hyperplasia with Atypia- 8% Complex Hyperplasia without Atypia - 29% Hysterectomy Hysterectomy is the best treatment at any age with atypical endometrial hyperplasia because of the risk of invasive cancer. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2018 | Treatment of simple endometrial hyperplasia with atypia in 45 yr female:
A. Hysterectomy
B. Progestin
C. Mirena
D. Postmenopausal women
| Hysterectomy |
fe3802ce-0adf-40e0-a69b-1c70aec9fe94 | Treatment of LCH :
1. Single system disease :
The clinical course of single system disease is usually benign with a high chance of spontaneous remission.
Therefore, treatment should be minimal and should be directed at arresting the progression of a bone lesion that could result in permanent damage before it resolve spontaneously.
Curettage or less often low dose local radiotherapy may accomplish this.
2. Multisystem disease :
It should be treated with systemic multiagent chemotherapy.
Any one, of following two should be included in regimen :
i) Etoposide
ii) Vinblastin
For unresponsive disease following therapies are available :
i) Cyclosporine / antithymocyte globulin.
ii) Imatinib.
iii) 2-chlorodeoxyadenosine (Cladribine).
iv) Stem cell transplantation. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of refractory histiocytosis :
A. High dose methotrexate
B. High dose cytarabine
C. Cladribine
D. Fludrabine
| Cladribine |
57336e68-8096-4fa9-89f5-36c05dcd5482 | Moyer’s analysis
This mixed dentition analysis utilises Moyer’s prediction tables. Prediction is based on the premise that there is a reasonably good correlation between the size of erupted permanent incisors and the unerupted canines and premolars.
It is a non-radiographic method. The main advantage of non-radiographic prediction methods is that they can be performed by measuring the erupted mandibular incisor(s) without the need of additional measurements from radiographs.
Reference: Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities 3rd O P Kharbanda, pdf no 841 | Dental | null | In which one of the following mixed dentition analysis of deciduous dentition, there is no use of radiographs?
A. Carey's analysis
B. Moyer's analysis
C. Nance Carey's analysis
D. Pont's index
| Moyer's analysis |
0adb3713-fdcf-4c09-96c3-a0d2423f9684 | Revised Glasgow Coma Scale 2014 Revised GCS (2014) Eye Opening Verbal Response Best Motor Response(M) Spontaneous 4 Oriented 5 Obeying commands 6 To speech 3 Confused 4 Localizing 5 To pressure 2 Words 3 Normal flexion(withdraw) 4 None 1 Sounds 2 Abnormal flexion 3 None 1 Extension 2 None 1 GCS specifically recommends avoiding sternal rubs as it causes bruising & responses can be difficult to interpret. They also do not recommend routine use of retromandibular pressure. Revised GCS (2014) changes are highlighted in the above table Best predictor of outcome: Motor response Repoing of non-testable score Aspects: In case of a non-testable aspect, the new GCS should be marked as NT, for "Not teste stable" For intubated patients or patients with tracheostomy, VNT is used it is no longer recommend to assign 1 point to non-testable elements, therefore a combined score should not be used. | Surgery | AIIMS 2018 | An intubated patient with eye opening to pain with abnormal flexion. What is the GCS score?
A. E2VNTM3
B. E2VTM3
C. E2V1M3
D. E2VTM4
| E2VNTM3 |
381822c7-9bac-41d4-9e81-af0d3b9a3eea | Ans: D. Amino levulinic acid levels in urine(Ref: Harrison 19/e p2689, 427e-2; Harper 30/e p329)High levels of lead can affect bone metabolism by combining with SH groups in enzymes such as ferrochelatase and ALA (delta-amino levulinic acid) dehrdratase.Elevated levels of protoporphyrin are found in red blood cells, and elevated levels of ALA and of coproporphyrin are found in urine.Lead Poisoning:Abdominal pain, irritability, lethargy, anorexia, anemia, Fanconi's syndrome, pyuria, azotemia in children with blood lead level (BPb) >80 i.g/ dL; may also see epiphyseal plate "lead lines" on long bone x-rays. | Medicine | null | A glass factory worker presented with complaints of numbness in hands and feet, generalized weakness and constipation. Radiograph showed linear lines on metaphyses of knee and wrist joints. How will you diagnose this patient?
A. Serum mercury levels
B. Vitamin D levels
C. RBCcholinesterase levels
D. Amino levulinic acid levels in urine
| Amino levulinic acid levels in urine |
3b566437-e44a-4c6a-a0e1-973042e5819c | Functional unit of cerebellum = Purkinje cell neuronal circuit of the Purkinje cell: - Afferent inputs of cerebellum Climbing fiber type Mossy fiber type Originate from inferior olives of the medulla. Enter cerebellum from multiple sources - cerebrum, brainstem &spinal cord. Send collaterals to excite deep nuclear cells & then proceed to synapse with granule cells. Output from - deep nuclear cell Excitatory influence from direct connection with cerebellum from the brain or periphery Inhibitory influence from Purkinje cell | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | Fibers reaching directly to Purkinje cell of cerebellum arise from which of the following:
A. Vestibular nucleus
B. Inferior olivary nucleus
C. Raphe nucleus
D. Locus ceruleus
| Inferior olivary nucleus |
31a240fd-6563-4450-a2c1-9dd108c57a84 | PCR is an in vitro DNA amplification procedure in which millions of copies of a paicular sequence of DNA can be produced within a few hours.The reaction cycle has the following steps:Step 1: Separation (Denaturation): DNA strands are separated (melted) by heating at 95degC for 15 seconds to 2 minutes.Step 2: Priming (Annealing): The primers are annealed by cooling to 50degC for 0.5 to 2 minutes. The primers hybridize with their complementary single-stranded DNA produced in the first step.Step 3: Polymerization: New DNA strands are synthesized by Taq polymerase. This enzyme is derived from bacteria Thermus aquaticus that are found in hot springs.The steps of 1,2 and 3 are repeated. In each cycle, the DNA strands are doubled. Thus, 20 cycles provide for 1 million times amplifications. These cycles are generally repeated by automated instrument, called Tempcycler.5. After the amplification procedure, DNA hybridization technique or Southern blot analysis with a suitable probe shows the presence of the DNA in the sample tissue.Dideoxyribonucleotides are not used in the polymerase chain reaction. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not used in polymerase chain reaction?
A. DNA Polymerase
B. Taq polymerase
C. Dideoxyribonucleotides
D. DNA template
| Dideoxyribonucleotides |
6db0be4d-9458-4e57-98f2-1755ea19876b | Ans: C. 600 mcg(Ref Williams 24/e p785)Approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage = 600 pg.Misoprostol:Derman (2006) compared a 600 pg oral dose given at delivery against placebo.Drug decreased hemorrhage incidence from 12 to 6 percent & severe hemorrhage from 1.2 to 0.2 percent. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage?
A. 200 mcg
B. 400 mcg
C. 600 mcg
D. 1000 mcg
| 600 mcg |
d32f0f04-48eb-4a63-bae0-705aed8793a3 | Answer- A. Capping* In E. coli mRNA, a leader sequence upstream of the first AUG codon, called the Shine-Dalgarno sequence (also known as the ribosomal binding site AGGAGG), interacts through complementary base pairing with the rRNA molecules that compose the ribosome.* In eukaryotic initiation complex recognizes the 5' cap of the eukaryotic mRNA, then tracks along the mRNA in the 5' to 3' direction until the AUG sta codon is recognized. At this point, the 60S subunit binds to the complex of Met-tRNAi, mRNA, and the 40S subunit. | Biochemistry | null | Binding of Eukaryotic mRNA to Ribosomes is facilitated by
A. Capping
B. Poly-A tail
C. tRNA
D. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
| Capping |
185c4942-7886-4e49-b242-6634e83b0efb | Ans. A. SelenocysteinePeptidyl selenocysteine is not the product of a posttranslational modification, but is inseed directly into a growing polypeptide during translation. Selenocysteine is commonly termed as the "21st amino acid." However, incorporation of selenocysteine is specified by a large and complex genetic element for the unusual tRNA called tRNASec which utilizes the UGA anticodon that normally signals STOP. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following amino acids does not include post-translational modification?
A. Selenocysteine
B. Triiodothyronine
C. Hydroxyproline
D. Hydroxylysine
| Selenocysteine |
4af61718-923a-4242-8090-532d83bed044 | Reserve Cells/Undifferentiated Mesenchymal Cells
Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells are descendants of undifferentiated cells of dental papilla, which can dedifferentiate and then redifferentiate into many cell types.
Depending on the stimulus, these cells may give rise to odontoblasts and fibroblasts.
These cells are found throughout the cell-rich area and the pulp core and often are related to blood vessels.
Key concept
Multipotent cells are cells that have the capacity to self-renew by dividing and to develop into multiple specialized cell types present in a specific tissue or organ. | Dental | null | Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells found in pulp are:
A. Multipotent
B. Totipotent
C. Polypotent
D. Monopotent
| Multipotent |
a8741f5b-b523-461f-b335-3dbe021ad8de | The coarctaion may be :
Preductal - where is narrowing is proximal to the ductus arteriosus or ligamentum arteriosum. or
Postductal - where the narrowing is distal to the ductus arteriosus or ligamentum arterosuin.
Collateral circulation connects the proximal and the distal aspects of the vessels over time. This collateral circulation will develop mainly from the : -
Subclavian, u Internal thoracic u Intercostal arteries
u Axillary, u Superior and inferior epigastric and
Following collateral connections may be seen :
In the anterior thoracic wall, the internal mammary arteries (arising from subclavian arteries) and the epigastric arteries join to form collaterals which supply the abdominal wall and the lower extremities.
Internal mammary artery gives rise to anterior intercostal arteries which forms anastomoses with the posterior intercostal (post intercostals arise from descending aorta).
Superior epigastric artery is terminal branch of internal mammary artery and forms anastomoses with inferior epigastric artery which arises from external iliac artery.
Musculophrenic artery is terminal branch of internal mammary artery and forms anastomoses with inferior plirenic and post intercostals.
The Para scapular arteries (arising from subclavian artery and axillary arteries) connect with the posterior intercostal arteries to form collaterals which supply the distal aortic compartment.
The suprascapular artery from the subclavian; and the thoracoacromial, lateral thoracic and subscapular arteries from the axillary; and the first and second posterior intercostal arteries from the costocervical trunk anastomose with other posterior intercostal arteries.
One route of collateral formation can be subclavian artery - vertebral artery-spinal arteries - post intercostals and lumbar artery - aorta. | Pediatrics | null | In postductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limb is maintained through which of the following arteries –
A. Umblical artery and subcostal arteries
B. Thoracic and pericardiophrenic arteries
C. Intercostal arteries and superior epigastric artery
D. Ant and post circumflex arteries
| Intercostal arteries and superior epigastric artery |
a5b0d222-214a-4d53-9dda-e37cf9f4d3f4 | Ans: D. Venn diagram(Ref https://en.itikipedia.org/wiki/Venn_diagram)A Venn diagram is an easy tool to make people understand overlapping risk factors, complications and comorbidities to a patient in a simple language. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A patient of diabetes and hypeension comes to your clinic. As a doctor, you explain to him the risks of various complications. Which of these is the best tool to demonstrate the complications?
A. Pie cha
B. Histogram
C. Scatter plot
D. Venn diagram
| Venn diagram |
c685b3d6-fb2e-4ca5-9fb2-a5b217cff79b | Iron absorption is regulated by hepcidin, a small circulating peptide that is synthesized and released from the liver in response to increases in intrahepatic iron levels. Hepcidin inhibits iron transfer from the enterocyte to plasma by binding to ferropoin and causing it to be endocytosed and degraded. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Hepcidin inhibits which of the following?
A. Hepheastin
B. DMT-1
C. Cerruloplasmin
D. Ferropoin
| Ferropoin |
8596a34a-71fb-4c8a-847d-c1d5c274e6ce | In the posterior wall of the pharynx, the lower part of the thyropharyngeus is a single sheet of muscle, not overlapped internally by the upper and middle constrictors. This weak part lies below the level of the vocal folds or upper border of the cricoid lamina and is limited inferiorly by the thick cricopharyngeal sphincter. This area is knows as Killian’s dehiscence.
Pharyngeal diverticula are formed by outpouching of the dehiscence. Such diverticula are normal in the pig. Pharyngeal diverticula are often attributed to neuromuscular incoordination in this region which may be due to the fact that different nerves supply the two parts of the inferior constrictor.
The propulsive thyropharyngeus is supplied by the pharyngeal plexus, and sphincteric cricopharyngeus, by the recurrent laryngeal nerve. If the cricopharyngeus fails to relax when the thyropharyngeus contracts, the bolus of food is pushed backwards, and tends to produce a diverticulum. | Anatomy | null | The weakest part of the pharynx is
A. Sinus of morgagni
B. Between thyropharyngeal and cricopharyngeal sphincter
C. Piriform fossa
D. Pharyngeal recess
| Between thyropharyngeal and cricopharyngeal sphincter |
9b357d4d-8a53-4939-9ff7-bb6f72c53bb6 | Ans. a. Respiratory alkalosis (Ref Oxford Handbook of Medicine 5/e p684)In aerial blood gas analysis of a patient with pCO2-30, p02-115 and pH-7.45, patient has compensated respiratory alkalosis. | Medicine | null | In aerial blood gas analysis of a patient with pCO2- 30, p02-115 and pH-7.45, patient has compensated:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
| Respiratory alkalosis |
809b34a3-21fc-447c-a780-7568741d67e2 | The term flow, rather than creep, has generally been used in dentistry to describe the rheology of amorphous materials.
Creep is defined as the time-dependent plastic strain of a material under a static load or constant stress.
The creep or flow is measured as the percentage decrease in length that occurs under these testing conditions.
Key Concept: Flow of a material refers to continued change of the material under a given load.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 33, 34 | Dental | null | Flow of a material refers to:
A. Continued change of the material under a given load
B. The consistency of a material when mixing
C. The homogeneity of gypsum products
D. Dimensional change of the material during settings
| Continued change of the material under a given load |
6a044e4b-cf5d-42c8-bd7c-e105cd9c4f98 | Morphodifferentiation establishes the morphologic pattern, or basic form and relative size of future tooth. | Dental | null | During which stage of tooth formation the size of the tooth is determined?
A. Apposition
B. Histodifferentiation
C. Morpho differentiation
D. Calcification
| Morpho differentiation |
d8a284c5-175a-4439-8ef2-5ff24b41f3cc | Staph. epidermidis is MC cause of infection on implanted foreign bodies. | Microbiology | null | A 30 year old female is on antibiotics with prolonged IV cannulation, has spike of fever, the likely cause is :
A. Pseudomonas aerugenosa
B. Coagulase negative staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. E. coli
| Coagulase negative staphylococcus |
02d36d4b-a89c-4756-b20a-51cb7c392eec | Answer- B (aPTT)The aPTT measures the time necessary to generate fibrin from initiation of the intrinsic pathway.PTT measures the integrity of the intrinsic system (Factors XII, XI, VIII, IX) and common clotting pathways. | Pathology | null | Best test that shows the integrity of intrinsic pathway of clotting mechanism
A. bleeding time
B. aPTT
C. prothrombin time
D. clotting time
| aPTT |
d1ef23c9-e756-4ae2-a91c-992fa658c4c3 | Early cases of post traumatic CSF rhinorrhea are managed conservatively (by placing the patient in propped up position, avoiding blowing of nose, sneezing and straining) and
Prophylactic antibiotics (to prevent meningitis).
Persistent cases are treated surgically by nasal endoscopy or by intracranial route.
According to Scott-Brown’s
Endoscopic closure of CSF leak is now the treatment of choice in majority of patients but it should not be done immediately.
First patient should be subjected to diagnostic evaluation and after site of leakage is confirmed, it should be closed endoscopically. | ENT | null | Immediate treatment of CSF Rhinorrhoea requires-
A. Antibiotics and observation
B. Plugging with paraffin guage
C. Blowing of nose
D. Craniotomy
| Antibiotics and observation |
46ad7b87-21e1-41da-bc30-50e96b3acd45 | Answer-A. Atropine* Atropine is a medication used to treat ceain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings as well as some types of slow hea rate and to decrease saliva production. | Forensic Medicine | null | A patient with Suspected Poisoning with meiosis, Increased Bronchial Secretions & salivation from Angle of mouth. What type of Antidote is to be Given.
A. Atropine
B. EDTA
C. Neostigmine
D. Belladonna
| Atropine |
816f3299-77e1-4cb4-895f-92adcccb3b36 | Answer-D. IL2RG* X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is an inherited disorder of the immune system that occurs almost exclusively in males.* Mutations in the IL2RG gene cause X-linked SCID. The IL2RG gene provides instructions for making a protein that is critical for normal immune system function.* Mutations in the IL2RG gene prevent these cells from developing and functioning normally. Without functional lymphocytes, the body is unable to fight off infections. | Biochemistry | null | Genes involved in X-Linked SCID-
A. EGFR
B. CD23
C. IL6
D. IL2RG
| IL2RG |
d5070ff9-a3de-4f6c-a9ba-12918fa6ef04 | Ans. CSide effects of iodinated contrast material are:Idiosyncratic - Anaphylactoid reaction. They are complement-mediated reactions and not IgE. The patient develops bronchospasm and hypotension.Dose-dependent side effect - Contrast-induced nephropathy and seen especially with high osmolar agents.Contrast-induced nephropathy:The patient has non-oliguric transient nephropathy and occurs due to tubular damage. It is defined as the impairment of renal function and is measured as either a 25% increase in serum creatinine from baseline or 0.5 mg/dl increase in absolute value, within 48-72hrs of intravenous contrast administration.Risk Factors for Contrast Medium-Induced Nephropathy:Patient-related:eGFR < 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 before intra-aerial administrationeGFR < 45 mL/min/1.73 m2 before intravenous administrationIn paicular in combination with:Diabetic nephropathyDehydrationCongestive hea failure (NYHA grade 3-4) and low LVEFRecent myocardial infarction (Intra-aoic balloon pumpPeri-procedural hypotensionLow hematocrit levelAge over 70Concurrent administration of nephrotoxic drugsKnown or suspected acute renal failureProcedure-related:Intra-aerial administration of contrast mediumHigh-osmolality agentsLarge doses of contrast mediumMultiple contrast medium administrations within a few daysIf the patient is on Metformin and is having de-arranged RFT, then before giving contrast agent metformin should be stopped since it can precipitate lactic acidosis | Radiology | null | Which among the following is not a risk factor for contrast-induced nephropathy?
A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. High osmolar agent
C. Obesity
D. Dehydration
| Obesity |
57b1ba32-ffad-47ac-b906-d1b6dbca3bc6 | Metoprolol (Cardioselective beta blocker) decrease hea rate and AV conduction. Verapamil and Diltiazem: CCB (calcium channel blocker): These also inhibits SA Node and AV Node, hence depress the hea. So, when verapamil (or Diltiazem) is combined with metoprolol, they both depress hea and lead to bradycardia with AV block. Other CCBs include dihydropyridines (like amlodipine etc). These dipines can be used with Metoprolol as they cause reflex tachycardia. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | A hypeensive patient was on metoprolol treatment. Verapamil was added to the therapy of this patient. This can result in
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Bradycardia with AV block
C. Torsades de pointes
D. Tachycardia
| Bradycardia with AV block |
e8b18049-9725-4ab5-89ad-2799af470822 | Answer- A. Grey Grey cannula- 16 G -236 ml/minUses:Trauma Patients, Major Surgery, Intra Paum/Post Paum, GI bleeds, Multiple blood transfers, High volume of Fluids. | Surgery | null | The cannula infuse maximum fluids in dehydration and diarrhea is
A. Grey
B. Green
C. Pink
D. Blue
| Grey |
89e0b62e-fa1d-4964-8870-d57cb8b871f4 | “According to the standards laid by WHO – Anemia in pregnancy is defined as when hemoglobin is 11 gm/100 ml or less or hematocrit is less than 33%”. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | According to WHO, anemia in pregnancy is diagnosed, when hemoglobin is less than:
A. 10.0 gm%
B. 11.0 gm%
C. 12.0 gm%
D. 9.0 gm%
| 11.0 gm% |
215befbd-3775-40ea-b2e5-6537ba16ff86 | Ans: B. Apoproteins(Ref Harper 30/e p2541).HDL:Highest apoproteins propoion.Has highest density & migrates the least during electrophoresis.Also contains maximum phospholipids.Apolipoprotein or apoprotein:Protein moiety of lipoprotein.Constituting nearly 70% of HDL & 1% chylomicrons. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is maximum in HDL as compared to other lipoproteins?
A. Cholesterol
B. Apoproteins
C. Triglycerides
D. Fatty acids
| Apoproteins |
f7c04393-b875-4566-9342-0dba89656d27 | The above picture shows the presence of Aschoff bodies, which are pathognomic for Rheumatic Hea Disease. Rheumatic fever (RF) is an acute, immunologically mediated, multisystem inflammatory disease classically occurring a few weeks after an episode of group A streptococcal pharyngitis; occasionally, RF can follow streptococcal infections at other sites, such as the skin. Acute rheumatic carditis is a common manifestation of active RF and may progress over time to chronic rheumatic hea disease (RHD), mainly manifesting as valvular abnormalities. RHD is characterized principally by deforming fibrotic valvular disease, paicularly involving the mitral valve; indeed, RHD is viually the only cause of mitral stenosis Type of necrosis seen in RHD - Fibrinoid necrosis. Morphology: Distinctive lesions occur in the hea, called Aschoff bodies, consisting of foci of T lymphocytes, occasional plasma cells, and plump activated macrophages called Anitschkow cell (pathognomonic fo RF).These macrophages have abundant cytoplasm and central round-to-ovoid nuclei (occasionally binucleate) in which the chromatin condenses into a central, slender, wavy ribbon (hence the designation "caterpillar cells"). | Pathology | AIIMS 2017 | A 30 year old male presented with severe dyspnea. His investigations showed mitral stenosis with left atrial enlargement. The histopathology repo from his mitral valve is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis of these patients?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Fungal granuloma
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rheumatic hea disease
| Rheumatic hea disease |
cb562414-2015-43ec-88f7-78a52605b511 | Ans: D. Action on presynaptic alpha-receptors(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p209, 302, 308)Activation of presynaptic ?2 receptors inhibits the release of NE and other co-transmitters front peripheral sympathetic nerve endings.Activation of ?2 receptors in the pontomedullary region of the CNS inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity and leads to a full in blood pressure.Action on presynaptic alpha-receptors (a2 receptors) is not helpful in management of anaphylactic shock. | Pharmacology | null | In the management of anaphylaxis, which action of adrenaline is not observed?
A. Bronchodilation by beta-receptors
B. Cardiovascular effects of beta-receptors
C. Action on blood vessels by alpha-receptors
D. Action on presynaptic alpha-receptors
| Action on presynaptic alpha-receptors |
b6b91d49-7a30-4a9a-91e6-b2f20341470c | * Normal curvature of spine:Lordosis(concavity) ? cervical spine, lumbar spineKyphosis (convexity) ? thoracic & sacral spine * Causes of | lumbar lordosis: (excessive posterior concavity)- Spondylolisthesis- Obesity / Osteoporosis- Achondroplasia- Postural* Scoliosis -abnormal lateral curvature of veebral column * Kyphosis - abnormal curvature of the veebral column in the thoracic region causing "hunchback" deformity. | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2018 | Normal Curvature seen in Lumbar
A. Lordosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Recurvatum
| Lordosis |
3e92f1af-86fd-4c31-9a0d-4e75e4e5b90f | Direct lines from Cohen: The recommended rotational speed for Profile instruments is 150 to 300 rpm, and to ensure a constant rpm level, the preferred means is electrical motors with gear reduction rather than air-driven motors.
Also know
The profile system was first sold as the "Series 29" hand instruments in .02 taper, but available in .04 and .06 taper
Tips of the Profile Series 29 rotary instruments - constant proportion of diameter increments (29%)
Profile instrument specifications
Cross sections: U-shape design with radial lands and a parallel central core
Lateral view: 20° helix angle, a constant pitch, and bullet shaped noncutting tips
Blades have Neutral or slightly negative rake angle
Acts like Reaming action on dentin rather than cutting | Dental | null | Rotation speed of profile instruments
A. 50-100 RPM
B. 100-3000 RPM
C. 300-500 RPM
D. 150-300 RPM
| 150-300 RPM |
feecbe83-6510-4c8d-bbac-3a4c02b96915 | Answer- A. Jaundice due to choledocholithiasisThe maximum bilirubin level is seldom >256.5 micromol/L (15.0 mg/dl) in patients wilh choledocholithiasis unless concomitant hepatic disease or anotherfactor leading to marked hyperbilirubinemia exists.'-Harrison I8/e p2625.'Serum bilirubin levels >342.0 micromol/L (20 mg/dL) should suggest the possibility of neoplastic obstruction.'-Harrisonl8/e p2625CholedocholithiasisCBD stones should be suspected in any patient with cholecystitis whose serum bilirubin level is >85.5 micromol/L (5 mg/dL).The maximum bilirubin level is seldom >256.5 micromol/L (15.0 mg/dl) in patients with choledocholithiasis. | Medicine | null | A 50 years old patient presented with progressive jaundice. Liver function test was done in which conju!gated serum bilirubin-4.8% and total bilirubin-6.7%, alkaline phosphatase- 550 IU, SGOT-50, SGPT-65. Most probable diagnosis is;
A. Jaundice due to choledocholithiasis
B. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Malignant obstructive jaundice
| Jaundice due to choledocholithiasis |
86e26dc5-2f48-45b1-82df-b14ffbc11fcb | Ans: A .Anterior superior quadrant of tympanic membrane followed by posterior superior quadrant.Congenital cholesteatoma was defined as a white, pearly lesion behind an intact tympanic membrane, which after removal was identified on pathological examination as a cholesteatoma.It is the more common causes for onset of childhood conductive hearing loss unrelated to middle ear effusion. | ENT | null | Which is the most common site for congenital cholesteatoma
A. Anterior superior quadrant of tympanic membrane
B. Posterior superior quadrant of tympanic membrane
C. Anterior inferior quadrant of tympanic membrane.
D. posterior inferior quadrant of tympanic membrane
| Anterior superior quadrant of tympanic membrane |
95711cf9-001b-4ebc-8ca6-e5b8d2c138b8 | Meningeal branch of int carotid aery in post cranial fossa. Explain: AERIAL SUPPLY OF DURA MATER Aerial supply travels in the outer periosteal layers of dura. ANTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA: Ophthalmic division of internal carotid Ethmoidal aery (meningeal branches) Anterior division of middle meningeal aery. MIDDLE CRANIAL FOSSA: Anterior & posterior divisions of MMA Accessory meningeal aery (br. Of maxillary aery of ICA) Meningeal branches from internal carotid aery POSTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA: Posterior branch of middle meningeal aery Meningeal branches. 2. Ascending pharyngeal aery 3. Occipital aery 4. Veebral aery | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following DOESN'T supply dura mater
A. Middle meningeal aery
B. Meningeal branch of internal carotid aery in posterior cranial fossa
C. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal aeries
D. Accessory meningeal aery
| Meningeal branch of internal carotid aery in posterior cranial fossa |
da79693f-973b-4bcf-8b42-3f5f8ccf46f1 | As during 12-15 months child starts walking without support. | Dental | null | Maximum chances of injury in a child patient occurs during:
A. 8 months
B. 10-12 months
C. 12-15 months
D. 16 months
| 12-15 months |
79e76d7d-4187-4f59-8e23-65d9e8f51aba | The PG spring is made in 0.016″x.022″ stainless steel rectangular wire. It has gingivally directed overlapping double helices, ovoid in shape, 10 mm in height and 5.5 mm at its widest part. It also has a small occlusal helix 2 mm in diameter.
The spring induces bodily movement of teeth and anchorage, reinforcement by a Nance button or headgear is needed in moderate to high anchorage cases. A prerequisite before placing this spring is good rotational correction as well as leveling and alignment of the three teeth involved.
PG canine retraction spring was introduced to the orthodontic profession way back in 1985 by Poul Gjessing, hence also known as Gjessing Canine. | Dental | null | Gjessing canine is made up of
A. 0.18 x 0.25 stainless steel rectangular wire
B. 0.16 x 0.22 stainless steel rectangular wire
C. 0.17 x 0.25 TMA wire
D. 0.15 x 0.22 TMA wire
| 0.16 x 0.22 stainless steel rectangular wire |
f91736e8-259c-4655-a68c-453dd490a7b7 | Ans: A.Kevorkian signKevorkian sign:Fragmentation or segmentation (trucking or shunting) of blood columns after death.Appears in retinal vessels within minutes after death & persists for about an hour. | Forensic Medicine | null | Segmentation of blood in blood vessel after death is known as:
A. Kevorkian sign
B. Rokitansky sign
C. Kennedy phenomenon
D. Tache noir
| Kevorkian sign |
9a21d76c-9104-4bd2-be55-a37c3b71c0f5 | Based on the object that shows the effects:
Somatic Effects:
These are biological effects that occur on the exposed individuals. Somatic effects can be of 2 types.
Prompt somatic effect occur after an acute dose.
Eg: Temporary hair loss occurs about three weeks after a dose of 400 rad to scalp.
Delayed somatic effects are those that occur years after radiation doses are received.
Eg: Increased potential for development of cancer and cataracts.
Genetic or heritable effects:
Appear in the future generations of the exposed person as a result of radiation damage to reproductive cells. | Radiology | null | Which type of radiation effect results in radiation induced thyroid cancer?
A. Somatic
B. Genetic
C. Teratogenic
D. Autosomal
| Somatic |
561aefb5-77c7-433e-8029-096d77ad3099 | Answer- D. Give Zinc supplementation and oral rehydration solution only and ask mother to come back if some danger signs developThe child in this given scenario is having some dehydration, as the child is restless and irritable, drink water readilyand skin pinch goes back slowly (< 2 seconds) with sunken eyes. Treatment includes oral rehydration therapy, zincsupplementation and continued breastfeeding according to the WHO IMNCI protocol plan B. | Pediatrics | null | A 5 years old child brought to the hospital with history of loose stools but no history of fever or blood in stools. Mother says he is irritable and drinks water hastily when given. On examination eyes are sunken and in skin pinch test, the skin retracted within two seconds but not immediately. What is the treatment for this child?
A. Administer the first dose of IV antibiotic and immediately refer to hither center
B. Give oral fluids and ask the mother to continue the same and visit again next day
C. Consider severe dehydration, sta IV fluids, IV antibiotics and refer to higher center
D. Give Zinc supplementation and oral rehydration solution only and ask mother to come back if some danger signs develop
| Give Zinc supplementation and oral rehydration solution only and ask mother to come back if some danger signs develop |
97f2545e-5688-4cc1-9837-9a9ec14d6f3d | Cell fixed IgE are the activators of basophils . MAST CELL BASOPHIL Foreign antigen binds to the IgE bound to cell and leads to the activation of mast cell or basophil which leads to Type 1 hypersensitivity. IL-5 leads to activation of eosinophils. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Basophils are activated by
A. IL - 5
B. Neutrophils
C. Killer inhibitory peptide
D. Cell fixed Ig E
| Cell fixed Ig E |
fffb00bf-d5e6-4975-9299-12beacacb8ad | Answer- B. Tracheo-bronchoscopyIsolated tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) (H-type fistula):Congenital isolated TEF (H-type) is a rare disorder posing diagnostic and management problems.H-type TEF is more frequent than H-type, owing to the oblique angle of the fistula from the trachea (carina or main bronchi) to the oesophagus, anatomically at the level of the neck root (c7-T1).Pressure changes between both structures can cause entry of air into the oesophagus, or entry of oesophageal content into the trachea. | Pediatrics | null | To establish the diagnosis of H-type trachea-esophageal fistula, which if the following is required?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Tracheo-bronchoscopy
C. CT scan
D. Esophagoscopy
| Tracheo-bronchoscopy |
6beed60d-08f5-4efa-bd22-4a6901e451a2 | Little area (also called as Kiesselbach’s plexus) is a highly vascular area in the anteroinferior part of nasal septum just above the vestibule
It is the most common site for nasal bleeding as this area is exposed to the drying effect of inspiratory current and to finger nail trauma. | ENT | null | Most common cause for nose bleeding is-
A. Trauma to little's area
B. A.V. aneurysm
C. Postero superior part of nasal septum
D. Hiatus - semilunaris
| Trauma to little's area |
605c9835-95d4-4a5e-b400-09bf38e75e4c | - History given suggests the diagnosis of Juvunile myoclonic epilepsy Juvunile myoclonic epilepsy ( Janz Syndrome ) - Most common generalized epilepsy in young adults. - Stas in early adolescence with 1 or more of: Myoclonic jerks in morning, causing patient to drop things Generalized tonic-clonic seizures upon awakening Juvenile absences. - Sleep deprivation and photic stimulation can act as precipitants. - EEG shows generalized 4-5 Hz polyspike and slow wave discharge. OTHER OPTIONS: Atypical absence seizures - Less abrupt onset and offset of loss of awareness - Associated myoclonic components and tone changes of head and body - Precipitated by drowsiness - Accompanied by 1 to 2 hz spike and slow wave discharge. Benign childhood epilepsy syndrome with centrotemporal spikes - Rolandic epilepsy - Stas during childhood and is outgrown in adolescence. - Child wakes up at night owing to focal seizures causing buccal and throat tingling and tonic clonic contractions of 1 side of face, with drooling and inability to speak but with preserved consciousness and comprehension. - EEG shows typical broad based centrotemporal spikes that are markedly increased in frequency during drowsiness and sleep. - MRI is normal. - Patient respond well to carbamazepine. | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2018 | An adolescent school girl complaints of dropping objects from hands, it gets precipitated during morning and during exams. There is no history of loss of consciousness and her cousin sister has been diagnosed with epilepsy. EEG was done and was suggestive of epileptic spikes. What is the diagnosis?
A. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
B. Atypical absence
C. Choreo - athetoid epilepsy
D. Centrotemporal spikes
| Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy |
6bfb7ced-ef9e-4df7-ae35-ce5699bbc7a5 | Filamentous protein - Are of 3 types based on their diameter. Diameter Microfilaments Intermediate filaments Microtubules <8 nm 8 - 25 nm >25 nm Function Involved in contractility Provide structural suppo Involved in motility (beating of cilia, flagella) Examples Actin Vimentin, keratin, Desmin. Tubulin (a & b tubulin constitutes microtubules) | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Not a monomeric intermediate filament:
A. Vimentin
B. Keratin
C. Tubulin
D. Desmin
| Tubulin |
cb022556-5a47-402a-b52c-725b6c314e83 | Nitoprusside and nitrates act by production of NO (nitric oxide). NO stimulates guanylate cyclase in smooth muscles which leads to formation of cGMP. cGMP act on smooth muscles to cause vasodilation. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to form an active metabolite. This active metabolized to form an active metabolite. This active metabolite of sodium nitroprusside act activation of:
A. Phospholipase A
B. Phospholipase C
C. Guanylate cyclase
D. Protein Kinase C
| Guanylate cyclase |
bc46c956-a37d-4804-91ac-fa804db85897 | Answer- D. Spermatocyte morphologyEvaluation and assessment of semen is very impoant for both diagnosis of male infeility and selection of patienti for treatment with IVF or ICSI. It has been shown that sperm morphologt assessed strictly is most strongly related to feilization rafe than other parometers. In the WHO guidelines for Normal semen analysis, Sperm morphology, ie. > 4% normal forms is the only strict criteria for sperm adequacy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is the most useful parameter according to WHO in assessing adequacy of sperms for feilization?
A. Spermatocyte count
B. Spermatocyte motility
C. Semen volume
D. Spermatocyte morphology
| Spermatocyte morphology |
c2b92bd3-f89c-429e-be8d-25d2d6c5806e | Ans: B. Cell sizeFlow cytometry:Technique for counting, examining & soing microscopic paicles suspended in a stream of fluid.Allows simultaneous multi-parametric analysis of physical and/or chemical characteristics of single cells flowing through an optical and/or electronic detection apparatus.Measures optical & fluorescence characteristics of single cells.Direction of light & interpretation:Direction of light scattered in forward Scatter (FS):For cell size.Liver cells will have more forward scatter (FS) than dead and apoptotic cellsDirection of light scattered in side scatter (SS):For density of cells (granularity, vacuoles & membrane size).Granulocytes/monocytes have more granularity or vacuoles a more side scattering (SS).(Ref Hematology: Clinical Principles and Applications/p456). | Biochemistry | null | What does forward scatter in flow cytometry used to assess?
A. Cell death
B. Cell size
C. Cell granules
D. Cell fluorescence
| Cell size |
26dd7eda-3dde-43f0-a734-392796fdc8e2 | The killing of microbes and the destruction of ingested materials are accomplished by reactive oxygen species (ROS, also called reactive oxygen intermediates), reactive nitrogen species, mainly derived from nitric oxide (NO), and lysosomal enzymes.
Neutrophils and monocytes contain granules packed with enzymes and anti-microbial proteins that degrade microbes and dead tissues and may contribute to tissue damage. These granules are actively secretory and thus distinct from classical lysosomes.
Neutrophils have two main types of granules:
The smaller specific (or secondary) granules contain lysozyme, collagenase, gelatinase, lactoferrin, plasminogen activator, histaminase, and alkaline phosphatase.
The larger azurophil (or primary) granules contain MPO, bactericidal factors (such as defensins), acid hydrolases, and a variety of neutral proteases (elastase, cathepsin G, nonspecific collagenases, proteinase 3).
Kumar V, Abbas AK, Aster JC. Robbins basic pathology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2017. Page 68 | Pathology | null | Which inflammatory mediator involve in intracellular killing of microbes?
A. Catalase
B. Oxidase
C. Lysozyme
D. IL6
| Lysozyme |
7aa4c76d-e28b-480d-86b5-5a3c2ab2e6f3 | Ans. a. Posterolateral pa of anterior cruciate ligament | Surgery | null | A 24 years old college student while playing hockey injured his right knee. This patient presents after 3 months with instability of knee joint in it full extension without instability at 90 degree of flexion. The structure most commonly damaged is:
A. Posterolatilal pa of anterior cruciate ligament
B. Anteromedial pa of anterior cruciate ligament
C. Posterior cruciate ligament
D. Anterior hom of medial meniscus
| Posterolatilal pa of anterior cruciate ligament |
fe55c8c7-c6ba-4882-a3c0-15171d62e603 | Scrub typhus is caused by rickettsia. DOC for rickettsia is Doxycycline(tetracycline). It is the DOC for all kind of typhus like endemic typhus, epidemic typhus, and other rickettsial infections like Q fever, rocky mountain spotted fever. Azithromycin is a macrolide and a protein synthesis inhibitor. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone. Chloramphenicol is also a protein synthesis inhibitor. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | Drug of choice for scrub typhus is:
A. Azithromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Doxycycline
D. Chloramphenicol
| Doxycycline |
db481d43-eaa9-45e9-8e23-4416d4894eb4 | Answer- B. MineralocoicoidsThis patient does not need supplementation with mineralocoicoids.It is due to the fact that post-hypophysectomy, the basal levels of mineralocoicoids (principally aldosterone) remain normal as the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone feedback loop remains intact. | Medicine | null | A 56yr old underwent transsphenoidal hypophysectomy for pituitary tumour. Now he has low ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH. Which of the hormone will not be given to the patient?
A. Glucocoicoids
B. Mineralocoicoids
C. Levothyroxine
D. Estradiol
| Mineralocoicoids |
db661878-b25b-42f5-9cc6-2dffda4cb3b2 | CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT
(CPA/COPRA)
The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 that came into force on 15th April, 1987 is a milestone in the history of socio-economic legislation in the country. It is one of the most progressive and comprehensive pieces of legislation enacted.
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
Soben Peter
5th edition | Dental | null | COPRA came into action on:
A. 15th April 1987
B. 15th April 1989
C. 25th April 1988
D. 15th April 1986
| 15th April 1987 |
24ba87cd-83d3-4768-b6fa-c246bde2b821 | The given cyst have axostyle and 4 nuclei are present - features of Giardia lamblia. Trophohozoites of Giardia lamblia have 4 pairs of flagella and have falling leaf like motility. Balantidium coli- cyst are binucleated Entamoeba dyspar- quadrinucleated cyst no axostyle Taenia solium-no cyst eggs are seen in faeces | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | Cyst of parasite seen in stool microscopy. What is the organism?
A. Entamoeba dyspar
B. Balantidium coli
C. Giardia lambia
D. Taenia solium
| Giardia lambia |
e6d619bc-90fe-44e0-b5c6-59c4b3a15720 | "The classical triad of headache, nausea and vomiting, and papilledenaa is associated with midline or infratentorial tumors".
Sign and symptoms of Brain tumors in children
Children with brain tumors frequently have symptoms and signs that strongly suggest the appropriate diagnosis.
The clinical triad of symptoms associated with increased ICT -4 headache, vomiting, blurred vision / diplopia, is the hallmark of brain tumors in childhood.
These symptoms occur more frequently with mid-line posterior fossa (infratentorial) tumors owing to the propensity of lesions close to the ventricular CSF flow system.
Symptoms of the brain tumors vary depending upon which part of the brain the tumor is found :
Brain tumor in cerebrum (supratentorial)
Seizures o Hemiperes is or Hemiplegia o Drowsiness / confusion
Visual changes o T ICT (less common) o Personality changes
Brain tumor in brain stem
Seizures o Diplopia o Respiratory changes o T ICT (Rare)
Endocrine problem (DM) o Headache o Cranial N. palsy
Brain tumor in cerebellum
T ECT (most common) o Headache o Uncoordinated movement
Vomiting o Ataxia
Symptoms due to raised ICT --> These are mainly caused by midline posterior fossa tumor --> Medulloblastoma.
Headache o Nausea o Drowsiness
Vomiting (usually in the morning) o Personality changes o Papilledema
Diplopia / blurred vision o Irritability
Note - Brain-stem tumors are also posterior fossa tumors, but they do not present with increased ICT. | Pediatrics | null | A 10 year old child presented with headache, vomiting, gait instability and diplopia. On examination he had papilledema and gait ataxia. The most probable diagnosis is –
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Brain stem tumour
C. Suprasellar tumour
D. Midline posterior fossa tumour
| Midline posterior fossa tumour |
d17b270d-86c3-4b7d-ad1b-d1175e0b406a | Ans. a. 40 weeksIn diabetic mothers, the fetal lung maturation delays due to delay in the completion of surfactant formation in fetal lung. Hence 40 weeks is the choice, the expected delivery can be delayed up to 40 weeks. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What should be the time of termination of pregnancy of a female with insulin dependent diabetes?
A. 40 weeks
B. 38 weeks
C. 37 weeks
D. 34 weeks
| 40 weeks |
4cd9cf13-3bf7-438a-ae19-02288af1e943 | Ans: A. Sta PRBC 1st and store platelet in room temperatureRefi ATLS 18th edn; 2018, Chapter 3 ShockFirst preference is PRBC followed by plateletsIn mean time, store platelets at room temperature. | Surgery | null | Following a A, a young man was brought to ER. Due to massive blood loss, 2 units of PRBC and 4 platelets obtained from blood bank. Only one IV line was accessible. What will you do?
A. Sta PRBC 1st mid store platelet in room temperature
B. Sta platelet and store PRBC in room temperature
C. Only transfuse PRBC
D. Transfuse PRBC and store platelet at 2-6 degrees
| Sta PRBC 1st mid store platelet in room temperature |
97d223c0-93ff-48c6-8cd4-3492c596b22b | Answer- A. 0.1 L/cmThe pulmonary compliance in this patient is 0.1 L/cm H2O.Measure of the lung's ability to stretch & expand (distensibility of elastic tissue).Pulmonary surfactant increases compliance by decreasing the surface tension of water.Pulmonary compliance = DV/ DB | Physiology | null | A patient inhales a tidal volume of 500 mL. The intrapleural pressure was measured as - 4 cm of water before inspiration and - 9 cm of water after inspiration. Calculate the pulmonary compliance in this patient:
A. 0.1 L/cm
B. 0.3 L/cm
C. 0.2 L/cm
D. 0.4 L cm
| 0.1 L/cm |
157f841a-269b-4207-825d-2a62dd8cd197 | - steroid hormones are synthesized in adrenal coex. - coisol is major steroid predominantly synthesized by fetal adrenal gland. | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2018 | Maximum steroid produced by fetal adrenal:-
A. DHEA-S
B. Coisol
C. Coicosterone
D. Progesterone
| Coisol |
e8109ada-ec65-4e42-ad7f-588f47d7c8d8 | Neuritic leprosy - only nerve involved no skin involvement. - Slit Skin smear(SSS) - negative - Nerve thickening - confirms diagnosis. A purely sensory thickened peripheral nerve should be sampled as there are chances of nerve damage during biopsy If its a motor nerve--> deformity . Therefore, option median & ulnar are ruled out. So Radial cutaneous branch is used for sampling during nerve biopsy. | Dental | AIIMS 2018 | Which nerve biopsy is taken to diagnose neuritic leprosy?
A. Median nerve
B. Radial cutaneous nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve
| Radial cutaneous nerve |
Subsets and Splits