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31b780dc-dc96-470b-a6be-55d4b668ba51 | option a - Glucosamine is used in ahritis GAGs - it's a tandem repeat of amino sugar + Uronic acid GAGs + Protein - Proteoglycan GAGs + Protein - proteoglycan Major Proteoglycan present in cailage is called Aggrecan That's why Glucosamine is used along with chondroitin sulphate for ahritis. GAGs SIGNIFICANT FEATURES Hyaluronic acid Longest GAG No sulfate present EXCEPTION: GAG which is non-covalently attached to other proteoglycans in ECM. (Whereas mostly GAGs are attached to proteins) Chondroitin sulfate Most abundant (a very large molecule) Major component of cailage Also present in cornea (mainly keratan sulfate) Keratan sulfate Most heterogenous GAGs - Keratin Sulfate I and II (because they contain additional monosaccharides such as L-Fucose, Mannose and NANA) No Uronic Acid present Responsible for corneal transparency Mainly present in cornea Dermatan sulphate Most widely distributed GAG relatively smaller GAG Binds LDL and has role in Atherosclerosis GAG synthesized mainly by aerial Smooth Muscle Cells Heparin Highest Negative Charge Intracellular GAG (mostly GAGs are extracellular) Heparan sulphate Role in retinal cell cell attachment Cell cell adhesion Mucin Clot Test/ Rope Test --> If few drops of Synol fluid is added to Acetic Acid, clot is formed due to polymerization of Hyaluronic Acid. Poor clot formation occurs in Rheumatoid Ahritis, Septic Ahritis, Gouty Ahritis (inflammatory conditions). | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2017 | Glucosamines used in following condition:
A. Ahritis
B. Niemann pick disease
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Cancer
| Ahritis |
636066c7-e7a4-4078-8a41-44d3c46d9356 | Diets deficient in fresh fruit, vegetables and polyunsaturated fatty acids are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The introduction of a Mediterranean-style diet reduces cardiovascular events. However, dietary supplements, such as vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, folate and fish oils, do not reduce cardiovascular events and, in some cases, have been associated with harm.
Reference: : Davidson P R I N C I P L E S and Practice O F M E D I C I N E 23rd edition page no 486 | Medicine | null | Intake of unsaturated fatty acid is associated with:
A. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease
B. Decreased risk of cardiovascular disease
C. Increased risk of GI disturbances
D. Decreased risk of GI disturbances
| Decreased risk of cardiovascular disease |
73e6bf44-0d77-408b-8610-ad1f6e4b3734 | Ans.D. Acute viral myositisThe clinical picture suggests the most probable diagnosis is Viral myositis. The specific history of URI suggests influenza myositis. Infectious myositis has a male predominance and are typically seen in young adults. The typical presentation of the childhood form includes fever, malaise, and rhinorrhea which is usually followed in 1-7 days by severe pain, especially in the calves. The muscle pain is usually worse with movement and the symptoms last for about a week. Muscle weakness, tenderness, and swelling are usually seen with more severity in adults and the Proximal muscles are affected predominantly.In children, toe walking and wide-based gait may be seen because of the involvement of the gastrocnemius-soleus muscles. Lab features of influenza myositis includeElevated CK may be as high as 500 times normalUrine myoglobin is usually positive | Pediatrics | null | 6 yr old child H/O fever 5 days back which is now afebrile with normal muscle mass, tone and reflex, no neurological deficit but pain on palpating muscles and CPK levels 2000, diagnosis is
A. GBS
B. Dermatomyositis
C. DMD
D. Acute viral myositis
| Acute viral myositis |
0df1e153-5d4b-44b2-bd64-8e14c181a974 | Ans: B. Erythrocyte(Ref: Ananthanarayan 10/e p141-143, 8/e p 132-135)MHC antigens:Absent on erythrocytes.HLA antigens:Class 1 antigens (A, B and C) - Found on surface of viually all nucleated cells.Principal antigens.Involved in graft rejection & cell-mediated cytolysis.Function as components of hormone receptors.HLA class II antigens:More restricted in distribution.Found only on cells of immune system-macrophages, dendritic cell activated T cells & mainly on B cells. | Pathology | null | MHC antigens are absent on?
A. Platelet
B. Erythrocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Monocyte
| Erythrocyte |
f0ae92d9-8a7e-478e-bcdf-3546a9cd3b7b | Answer- B (Greater petrosal nerve)The greater petrosal nerve is a branch of the facial nerve. It gives secretomotor fibers to the pterygopalatine ganglion along with lesser petrosal nerve. The postganglionic fibers innervate the lacrimal gland and are responsible for the formation of tears.Greater petrosal nerve damage will deprive the lacrimal gland of its secretomotor fibers and this would lead to the absence of tears.Greater petrosal nerve damage can happen in case of intrapetrosal mass lesions, a trauma in case of temporal bone injuries, etc. | Anatomy | null | Lacrimation is affected due to damage to which of the following nerves?
A. Nasociliary nerve
B. Greater petrosal nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Anterior ethmoid nerve
| Greater petrosal nerve |
26e6e0c4-509a-4ebc-93bb-f8f431425954 | Ans. b. Hepatic steatosis (Ref Robbins 9/e p842, 845, 8/e p 1136, http://wwwnews-medical.net/health/What-is-InsulinResistance.aspx )'Insulin resistance may also be caused by the damage of liver cells having undergone a defect of insulin receptors in hepatocytes.''Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) refers to the presence of hepatic steetosis when no other causes for secondary hepatic fat accumulation (eg. heavy alcohol consumption) are present. | Pathology | null | Insulin resistance is seen in liver disease because of-
A. Decreased secretion of insulin
B. Hepatic steatosis
C. Hepatocytedysfunction
D. Low 'C'peptide level
| Hepatic steatosis |
6aa90491-889d-4f74-802a-a1346c68b5aa | In the given question, Mean (μ) = 30 mm and SD (σ) = 1.0 mm
Thus, 95% values are contained in the range of Mean ± 2 SD (µ ± 2s) or 30 ± 2 (1)
So, 95% values are contained in the range 30 – 2 mm and 30 + 2 mm OR between 28 and 30 mm. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | If the distribution of intraocular pressure (IOP) seen in 100 glaucoma patients has an average 30 mm with an SD of 1, what is the lower limit of the average that can be expected 95% of times -
A. 28
B. 26
C. 32
D. 25
| 28 |
212c1720-9f09-49d2-9a44-47bd914b35c9 | Ans. D. Single breath nitrogen test(Ref: Ganong 25/e p633, 634, 24/e p633, 634)Anatomical dead space - Calculation:By Bohr's equation - Uses single breath nitrogen inhalation technique.Xenon/Helium dilution technique:Used to measure functional residual capacity of lung.Spirometry:Cannot measure residual or dead space volumes. | Physiology | null | Anatomical dead space measured by -
A. Bohler's method
B. Xenon dilution technique
C. Spirometry
D. Single breath nitrogen test
| Single breath nitrogen test |
6918034a-534e-462d-a6d2-68d66fe748cc | Craniopharyngjoma
Craniophyngioma is the most common supratentorial tumor in children.
It is a suprasellar tumor which presents as cystic mass.
It arises from squamous epithelial cells crests of embryonic rathke's pouch.
Clinical presentation of craniopharyngioma
In children they present as --> visual loss, growth failure, Bitemporal hemianopsia
In adults they present as —> visual loss & endocrine dysfunction (D'1, delayed puberty).. | Pediatrics | null | Suprasellar cystic mass in children is –
A. Medulloblastoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Meningioma
D. Secondaries
| Craniopharyngioma |
825a499b-6eac-41df-b015-85662bfe6aa9 | Ans: A. T2N0M0Ref: AJCC Cancer staging munual I'h ed., ch-7, pg. 79,90Cancer of the lip and oral cavity TNM staging AJCC UICC 2017 | ENT | null | A 55 year old male presents with a lesion of 2.5*3.5 cm on lateral border of tongue with induration. There is no associated lymphadenopathy. What is the staging according to the 8th AJCC guidelines?
A. T2N0M0
B. T3N2M0
C. T4N3M0
D. T3N2M0
| T2N0M0 |
48b657a1-b046-40e2-b0bf-a2ece3cbcb8e | Friends – In Patients with previous H/O Down’s syndrome the only confirmatory test, which tells us with 100% reliability of the chances of Down’s syndrome in present pregnancy is “Karyotyping”.
The sample for karyotyping can be obtained in first-trimester by – chorionic villi sampling and in 2nd trimester by amniocentesis.
So obviously we will think of marking option ‘c’ i.e. chorionic villi sampling as the correct answer but, The Question specifically mentions that patient is 9 weeks pregnant and we all know that if CVS is done before 10 weeks– it can lead to limb reduction defects and oromandibular defects in the fetus \Some people argue CVS is not the correct thing to do at this stage.
Read for yourself what Williams has to say on this issue.
“Early reports of an association between CVS and limb. Reduction defects and oromandibular limb hypogenesis caused a great deal of concern (Burton, 1992; Firth, 1991, 1994; Hsieh, 1995, and all their colleagues). Subsequently, it was shown that limb-reduction defects were associated with CVS performed earlier in gestation—typically around 7 weeks”
Williams Obs 23/e, p 300 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 32-year-old woman is 9 weeks pregnant and has a 10 year old Down's syndrome child. What test would you recommend for the mother so that she can know about her chances of getting a Down's syndrome baby is this present pregnancy. How will you assure the mother about the chances of Down's syndrome in the present pregnancy?
A. Blood test
B. USG
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Assure her there is no chance since she is less than 35 years of age
| Chorionic villus sampling |
753a7a8e-6da4-419b-9efb-0b74581d3992 | Answer- C. CSF examinationAltered sensorium might be due to raised intracranial tension and lumbar punctare can precipitate the ominous herniation of the brain. So, lumbar puncture (for CSF examination) is not required on emergency evaluation in the above mentioned patient.Altered sensorium in a patient of Turbercular meningitis, who was taking ATT from the last one month maybe due toHepatic encephalopathy secondary to hepatotoxicity of ATT. Hence, LFT should be performed.Diagnosis:Lumbar puncture is cornerstone of diagnosis (should not be done in cases or raised ICT).CSF examination reveals high leukocyte counto (usually predominance of lymphocytes but often with a predominance of neutrophils in the early stage), a protein content of I to 8 g/L (100 to 800 mg/dl) and a low glucose concentration.Culture of CSF is diagnostic in 80% cases.CT or MRI may show hydrocephalus and abnormal enhancement of basal cisterns or ependyma. | Medicine | null | A patient with Tubercular meningitis was taking ATT regularly. At end of 1 month of regular intake of drugs deterioration in sensorium is noted in condition of the patient despite good compliance for drugs. Which of the following investigations is not required as emergency condition?
A. MRI
B. NCCT
C. CSF examination
D. Liver function tests
| CSF examination |
af344b7b-30b7-4663-a02c-0605fb54c801 | Shelf life of the blood after adding above chemicals:- Acid citrate dextrose -> 21 days Citrate phosphate Dextrose -> 21 days Citrate phosphate Dextrose Adenine -> 35 days Saline Adenine Glucose Mannitol -> 42 days. | Pathology | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following anticoagulant preservative can be used to store blood, so that it can be kept for 35 days?
A. Acid citrate dextrose (ACD)
B. CPD Citrate phosphate dextrose
C. Citrate phosphate dextrose-adenine (CPD-A)
D. CP2D - citrate phosphate double dextrose
| Citrate phosphate dextrose-adenine (CPD-A) |
3473138a-87dc-494f-a9e9-11848d599095 | The physical change of agar from sol to gel is induced by lowering the temperature. The gel liquefies to a sol when it is heated to a temperature known as the liquefaction temperature (70°C to 100°C). When the sol is cooled, it becomes a gel at a point known as the gelation temperature (between 37°C and 50°C). Thus, it is called a reversible hydrocolloid. The gelation temperature is critical for impression making.
Phillips dental materials 12th edition page no 168,170 | Dental | null | In reversible hydrocolloid the property by which the transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol occurs, is a function of the:
A. Concentration of fillers and plasticizer
B. Percentage composition by weight of water
C. Concentration of potassium sulphate
D. Temperature
| Temperature |
6456df80-5db3-44f0-bc53-e3209b525d2f | Answer- A. Serum potassiumHypokalemia can cause flaccid ascending paralysis, which is a differential diagnosis for GBS. It can also cause periodic paralysis. Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia usually cause tetany and hypercalcemia won't cause ascending paralysis.A low serum potassium level during an attack, excluding secondary causes, establishes the diagnosis of Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis. | Medicine | null | A patient presents with ascending muscle weakness for 2 days. On examination, the limb is flaccid. What investigation should be done first?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum creatinine
C. Serum magnesium
D. Serum calcium
| Serum potassium |
8f39d375-f28e-41de-a0f4-6bf5757c9cd4 | Cervical vertebrae maturation index (CVMI)
The size and shape changes in the bodies of five cervical vertebrae (second through sixth) are an accurate indicator of skeletal maturity. These can be assessed on a lateral cephalogram.
Ref: Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities, 3e, Om P. Kharbanda pdf no 873 | Dental | null | Which of the following bone(s) are used for the determination of growth in an individual?
A. Clavicle
B. Sternum
C. Cervical vertebrae
D. Mandible
| Cervical vertebrae |
09e1b073-410a-4395-a142-1c53cec20279 | “The precise origin of the amniotic fluid remains is still not well understood. It is probably of mixed maternal and fetal origin.”
Dutta Obs. 8/e, p 43
But this cannot help us to solve this question.
Let’s see what Williams Obs. has to say on Origin of Amniotic fluid.
“In early pregnancy, amniotic fluid is an ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma. By the beginning of second trimester, it consists largely of extracellular fluid which diffuses through the fetal skin, and thus reflects the composition of fetal plasma”.
After 20 weeks, however, the cornification of fetal skin prevents this diffusion and amniotic fluid is composed largely of fetal urine.”
Williams Obs. 23/e, p 88, 89
Reading the above text, it can be concluded that in early pregnancy - Mother is the main contributor whereas during rest of the pregnancy - Fetus is the main contributor. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Amniotic fluid is mainly produced by:
A. Placenta
B. Fetus
C. Chorion
D. Amnion
| Fetus |
2c7e29e5-6824-4217-af1e-7c5b40d57ea5 | Answer- C. Spironolactone In this case patient is having heafailure with hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction with psychiatric illness. Spironolactone and enalapril, both causes hyperkalemia hut spironolactone csuses CNS depression also. Digoxin causes hypokalemia In this patient, spironolactone should be avoided.Mechanism of ActionPharmacologic antagonist of aldosterone in collecting tubulesWeak antagonism of androgen receptorsWeak inhibitor of testosterone synthesis | Medicine | null | A 40 years old female currently on a drug for psychiatric illness and hypeension presents with NYHA class III hea failure with dyspnea, pedal edema and K+ levels of 5.5 mEq/L and creatinine 2.5 mg%. Which of the following drug is best avoided?
A. Carvedilol
B. Enalapril
C. Spironolactone
D. Digoxin
| Spironolactone |
de06c967-1c49-42ad-a5bb-ddaf1f0a9e59 | Answer- B. Block of alpha-1 followed by stimulation of beta-2In an animal model, the phenomenon of vasomotor reversal of dale can be demonstrated hy block of alpha-l followed by stimulation of beta-2. | Pharmacology | null | In an animal model, the phenomenon of vasomotor reversal of dale can be demonstrated by:
A. Stimulation of alpha-1 followed by stimulation of beta-2
B. Block of alpha-1 followed by stimulation of beta-2
C. Stimulation of alpha-1 followed by block of beta-2
D. Stimulation of beta-1 receptor followed by block of beta-2 receptor
| Block of alpha-1 followed by stimulation of beta-2 |
b02a2fb8-3cd5-4043-88fa-ab4ad3092efe | Apical periodontitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder of periradicular tissues caused by aetiological agents of endodontic origin.
Persistent apical periodontitis occurs when root canal treatment of apical periodontitis has not adequately eliminated the intraradicular infection (microbes). | Dental | null | Inflammation of the periapical tissue is sustained by:
A. Stagnant tissue fluid
B. Necrotic tissue
C. Microorganisms
D. Pus cells
| Microorganisms |
f5b89559-4ce3-4dd5-b950-5624eb6f4ca8 | Patient is presenting in the first trimester with ovarian cyst.
The principle of treatment in case of ovarian tumour is to remove the tumour as soon as the diagnosis is made. But this principle should not be followed in the first trimester.
Surgery in the first trimester is best avoided, as during surgery a corpus luteal cyst or ovary might be removed which will be detrimental to the pregnancy, which may end up in a miscarriage.
Therefore, all such cases should be operated (ovariotomy/cystectomy) in the second trimester.
Therefore, the best time of elective operation for an ovarian tumor in pregnancy is between 14 to 18 weeks, as the chances of abortion are less and access to the pedicle is easy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 20 year young female presented for antenatal checkup. She was in 1st trimester and was diagnosed to have ovarian cyst. Treatment of choice:
A. Surgical removal in IInd trimester
B. Removal after delivery
C. Termination of pregnancy and cyst removal
D. Observation
| Surgical removal in IInd trimester |
84ecb174-49df-4354-9212-518584a1828b | Congenital CMV infection C/F - Microcephaly Intracranial periventricular calcifications Chorioretinitis SNHL The diagnosis of congenital CMV infection is best confirmed by isolation of the virus from urine. | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2017 | A child presented with Microcephaly, Hepatomegaly and periventricular calcification. Best site from where specimen should be obtained for diagnosis of CMV by PCR?
A. Urine
B. Blood
C. Liver biopsy
D. CSF
| Urine |
888d0ff6-14ae-4f05-af6b-8e7060ba016f | Ans. A. ADHOsmolarity and volume status are the two greatest factors that affect ADH secretion.However, a variety of other factors promote ADH secretion as well.These include angiotensin II, pain, nausea, hypoglycemia, nicotine, opiates, and ceain medications.ADH secretion is also negatively affected by ethanol, alpha-adrenergic agonists, and atrial natriuretic peptide.Ethanol's inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys. | Physiology | null | Which of the following hormones is controlled by feedforward control?
A. ADH
B. Insulin
C. Coicosteroids
D. Prolactin
| ADH |
004aab8b-a6e3-408f-a255-6824b132d97c | Answer- B. 312'Indian Penal Code (IPC) Sections 312 (causing miscarriage), 315 (act done with intent to prevent child being born alive or to cause to die after bih), 316 (causing death of quick unborn child by oct amount to culpable homicide) and Sections 3 and 4 of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act I971 for performing MTP without license and without taking medical advice.' | Forensic Medicine | null | IPC section dealing with illegal aboion with woman consent?
A. 310
B. 312
C. 313
D. 314
| 312 |
a6abadc2-5c2e-4dce-9cfa-1464b3be8c8d | Giemsa stained smear can detect Baonella, tachyzoites of Toxoplasma Gondii, E.chaffnessis but not for CoxiellaBurnetti which causes Q fever but can be detected by serology. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Giemsa stained smear cannot detect
A. Coxiella burnetti
B. Baonella
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. E. Chaffnessis
| Coxiella burnetti |
7f2895f8-0a13-45fc-bfd1-a3d5b7fbb121 | Answer A. Rectal diazepamBenzodiazepines are Drug of Choice and in pediatric patients rectal route should be preffered.Reference - <a href=" | Pediatrics | null | Pediatric patient presented with 45 mins h/o continuous convulsions.CASE 1: SR told to give iv lorazepam but J.R cant secured iv line. Then what he has given?
A. Rectal diazepam
B. Inhalation Phenobarbital
C. IV carbamazepine
D. Subcutaneous midazolam
| Rectal diazepam |
1d1b01ba-06a9-42aa-8e96-a9537f014ac1 | GYPSUM-BONDED INVESTMENTS
The α-hemihydrate form of gypsum is generally the binder for investments used in casting gold-containing alloys with melting ranges below 1000 °C. When this material is heated at temperatures sufficiently high to completely dehydrate the investment and to ensure complete castings, it shrinks considerably and occasionally fractures.
A mixture of silica and calcinated gypsum powder (calcium sulfate hemihydrate, CaSO4• 1/2 H2O) results in setting expansion greater than that of the gypsum product used alone. The silica particles probably interfere with the intermeshing and interlocking of the crystals as they form. Thus, the thrust of the crystals is outward during growth, and they increase expansion.
Thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded investment will decrease setting expansion. | Dental | null | A thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded investment will:
A. Produce a smoother casting
B. Decrease setting expansion
C. Increase setting expansion
D. Increase thermal expansion
| Decrease setting expansion |
6f78cdec-b48a-497c-bf8d-6b5b9b083ecf | Ans: A. Patch test(Ref: Rooks 8/e p26.93, Fitzpatrick 6/e p1451, 1309)The clinical picture mentioned above is suggestive of air-borne contact dermatitis, which is a type of allergic contact dermatitis.Most common source is Pahenium exposure and it leads to dermatitis involving the exposed pas, i.e. Face, upper neck, cubital and popliteal fossa.The only useful and reliable methodfir the diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis remains the patch test. | Skin | null | A 45 years old male presents with itchy papules over face, neck and V area of chest for the last three years, which are exacerbated in summers and improved in winters. What test will you do to confirm diagnosis?
A. Patch test
B. Prick test
C. IgE levels
D. Skin biopsy
| Patch test |
e22b0ef5-df61-4475-b22b-30f2932f90fe | Panoramic and cephalometric equipment should receive the same maintenance for decontamination and disinfection as other equipment. Panoramic bite-blocks, chin rest, and patient handgrips should be cleaned with detergent-iodine disinfectant and covered with a plastic bag. Disposable bite-blocks may be used. The head-positioning guides, control panel, and exposure switch should be carefully wiped with a paper towel that is well moistened with disinfectant.
Note: disposable bite-blocks are the preferred method, although they may not be cost effective.
Oral radiology ; White and Pharaoh 7th edition page no: 256 | Radiology | null | Patient's cross infection with bite block of orthopantamograph machine is prevented by
A. Cover with autoclaved cloth with each use
B. Using disposable bite blocks
C. Clean with 5.25% sodium hypochlorite in each patient
D. Cover with impervious barrier
| Using disposable bite blocks |
f6f50542-f6b4-4fa8-b073-d12597eb52f9 | Ans. B. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcomaRef: Robbins & Cotran, lh ed., pg. 1220-1222ln the four options provided , all four show morphology of a round cell tumour.However Desmin positivity is seen only in cases of rhabdomyosarcoma.In Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, the tumor cells mimic skeletal muscle at various stages of embryogenesis and consist of sheets of both prirnitive round and spindled cells in a myxoid stroma.Immunohistochemistry for desmin and Myogenin confirm the rhabdomyoblastic differentiation. | Pathology | null | A 5-years old child was presented with proptosis. Microscopic examination of the mass revealed a round cell tumor positive for Desmin immunohistochemical marker. Most likely diagnosis is ?
A. Leukemia
B. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor (PNET)
| Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma |
99f08890-7505-4062-9293-1f135de62e5c | Session's/ Radowski staging for Juvenile Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma Stage I Stage I a Limited to nasal cavity / nasopharynx Stage I b Extension into one or more sinuses. Stage II Stage II a Minimal extension into pterygopalatine fossa pterygomaxillary fissure. Stage II b Fills pterygomaxillary fossa, bowing the posterior wall of maxillary antrum anteriorly extending into the orbit the inferior orbital fissure without orbital erosion. Stage II c Infratemporal fossa extension without check or pterygoid plate involvement. Stage III Stage III a Erosion of skull base (middle cranial fossa or pterygoids) with minimal intracranial spread. Stage III b Erosion of skull base with intracranial extension with or without cavernous sinus involvement. | ENT | AIIMS 2018 | A 16-year-old male complains of nasal obstruction and recurrent epistaxis for several months. On CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinuses, an enhancing mass is seen in the nasopharynx with minimal extension into sphenoid sinus and no lateral extension. What is the stage of this lesion?
A. IA
B. IB
C. IIA
D. IIB
| IB |
4f2920dd-315c-4f5a-9208-80a4c443ceab | Ans: A. Ventilation with continuous positive airway pressure(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1731, 18/e p2200)The patient here has decreased and increased paO2 as well as paCO2.Hence the patient is type 2 respiratory failure, which can be seen in bronchial asthma patients.Best management strategy - Assisted ventilation with CPAP (Non-invasive ventilation) rather than controlled mandator), ventilation.Type II respiratory failure - Mains stay of therapy:Directed at reversing underlying cause(s) of ventilatory failure.Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation with a tight-lining facial or nasal mask, with avoidance of endotracheal intuhation, often stabilizes these patients.Mainly in exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.Check for hemodynamic instability, inability to protect the airway, respiratory arrest. | Medicine | null | A 50 years old lady, who has a known diagnosis of bronchial asthma, presented to the AIIMS emergency with complaints of severe breathlessness, diaphoresis and wheezing. On examination, you find that the patient is conscious with a respiratory rate of 30 per minute, blood pressure of 96/64 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 144 per minute. An aerial blood gas analysis showed a pH of 7.2, p02 of 50 mm Hg and pCO, of 70 mm Hg. How will you manage the patient?
A. Ventilation with continuous positive airway pressure
B. Oxygen supplementation by nasal mask
C. Mechanical ventilation with controlled ventilation
D. Intubation
| Ventilation with continuous positive airway pressure |
59020852-ed4d-4f44-932b-98da5cd0f47b | Phase 1 clinical trial : It is first phase in humans. It is conducted mainly on healthy volunteers. In drugs with serious adverse effects and where alternative treatment is not available, phase 1 can be conducted on patients also. Major aim is to know the maximum tolerable dose (MTD). The aim of phase 1 trials should be marked as MTD > Dose > Pharmacokinetics > Safety | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Major aim of phase 1 clinical trials is:-
A. Safety
B. Efficacy
C. Dose
D. Pharmacokinetics
| Dose |
d9801e88-03ce-46a5-87fe-fa3d8b61fadf | Ans. C. Canagliflozin Canagliflozin is a Sodium-Glucose Co-Transpoer 2 Inhibitor, given orally and reduces body weight. For the given clinical scenario, Canagliflozin is the preferred drug, as Sitagliptin increases the risk of acute pancreatitis, use of pioglitazone is associated with a small increased risk of bladder cancer and Liraglutide is given subcutaneously. | Pharmacology | null | A morbidly obese diabetic woman was on failed metformin therapy. She has the history of pancreatitis and family history of bladder cancer. Patient does not want to take injections. Which of the following would be suitable to reduce her glucose levels?
A. Liraglutide
B. Sitagliptin
C. Canagliflozin
D. Pioglitazone
| Canagliflozin |
a115b765-ec7a-4e63-abac-50516a65b46a | Clinically, pyogenic granuloma is a raised lesion on either a sessile or a pedunculated base. Its surface may have a smooth, lobulated, or, occasionally, warty appearance that is erythematous and often ulcerated. Depending on the age of the lesion, the texture varies from soft to firm and is suggestive of an ulcerated fibroma.
Because of the pronounced vascularity of these lesions, they often bleed easily when probed.
Histologically, the pyogenic granuloma presents as a remarkable proliferation of plump fibroblasts and endothelial cells with the formation of prominent numbers of thin-walled, endothelium-lined vascular channels. A polymorphous inflammatory cell infiltrate is present, and the overlying surface epithelium is often ulcerated. Treatment consists of surgical excision, with care being taken to completely remove any local irritant that may still be present that would predispose to recurrence of the lesion.
Reference: McDONALD AND AVERY’S DENTISTRY for the CHILD and ADOLESCENT, 10th ed page no 604,605 | Dental | null | A patient shows gingival swelling in lower premolar region. Biopsy was taken and histopathological examination showed endothelium-lined vascular spaces and the extreme proliferation of fibroblasts and budding endothelial cells. What could this lesion be:
A. Pyogenic granuloma
B. Fibroma
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Traumatic bone cyst
| Pyogenic granuloma |
5a032693-e7d9-4789-97a8-bd884b75c1b1 | Ans. D. Angiotensin 1 receptor* Four G protein gated inwardly-rectifying potassium (GIRK) channel subunits have been identified in mammals: GIRK1, GIRK2, GIRK3, and GIRK4. The GIRK subunits come together to form GIRK ion channels.* Activation of the IKACh channels begins with release of acetylcholine (ACh) from the vagus nerve onto pacemaker cells in the hea.* ACh binds to the M2 muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, which interact with G proteins. | Pharmacology | null | GPCR that does not act through opening of potassium channels is?
A. Muscarinic M2 receptor
B. Dopamine D2 receptor
C. Serotonin 5 HT1 receptor
D. Angiotensin 1 receptor
| Angiotensin 1 receptor |
8db7e145-052a-4774-9a5f-db3c4e9ac1d6 | Ans: C. 130 cm(Ref Parikh 6/e p2.75, 12.2).In general, humerus represents 20%, Tibia 22%, Femur 27% and Spine 34% of the stature.Multiplication factor for humerus is 5.31 for calculation of stature.In the question, length of femur is 24.5 cm.Hence, predicted height = 5.31x24.5 = 130 cm. | Forensic Medicine | null | After a building collapse, among remnants, a person's length of humerus is 24.5 cm. What is the predicted height of this person?
A. 90 cm
B. 110 cm
C. 130 cm
D. 146 cm
| 130 cm |
25145d77-f953-43f3-b658-8471be181cc1 | AG(Anion Gap)= Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-) = 145-124 = 21 meq Normal 8-10meq Rules out option a. - CKD is condition where patient experiences impaired ability to excrete H+ - Vomiting contributes to metabolic alkalosis - Two processes simultaneously occurring So answer is High anion gap metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis. | Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | A patient of CKD has presented with protracted vomiting. ABG shows pH = 7.40, pCO2 = 40 mm Hg, HCO3 = 25 mEq, Na=145 mEq/L, Chloride = 100 mEq/L, HCO3 = 24 mEq/L. What is the observation?
A. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
B. High anion gap metabolic acidosis
C. No acid base abnormality
D. High anion gap metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
| High anion gap metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis |
92f4374d-b087-41de-a4d7-288565d77c38 | Glycopyrolate in preanesthetic medication: Glycopyrolate unlike atropine and scopolamine, it is a quaternary ammonium compound, it doesn't crosses the blood brain barrier. It's role: To decrease salivary, tracheobronchial secretions. It can be use IV/IM It's anti-sialogue activity is best when given at 0.004mg/kg BW IM 30-60 minutes prior peak effects. Tachycardiac effects of glycopyrrolate are minimize when given IM. Decrease the gastric secretion and increases PH of gastric content. To counteract parasympathetic overdrive, dose: 0.1 IV, repeat every 3-5 minute. To counteract parasympathetic effect, atropine is preferred due to much faster onset. | Anaesthesia | AIIMS 2019 | Purpose of giving Glycopyrrolate before GA
A. Decrease laryngeal secretions
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Prevents aspiration
D. Provides analgesia
| Decrease laryngeal secretions |
3af11fb3-6d3b-4542-9de0-5f4decd77160 | Ans -C- RNA editingIn rna editing editosome can edit only in 3- 5 direction, along with primary rna transcript.DNA replication goes in the 5' to 3' direction because DNA polymerase acts on the 3'-OH of the existing strand for adding free nucleotides.In transcription the complementary RNA is created in the opposite direction, in the 5' - 3' direction, matching the sequence of the sense strand with the exception of switching uracil for thymine.When the strand containing the mis-match is identified, an endonuclease nicks the strand and the mis-matched nucleotide(s) is/are removed by an exonuclease. | Biochemistry | null | what does not occur in 5'- 3'direction?
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. RNA editing
D. Transcription
| RNA editing |
c195d683-b268-4ae5-b96d-b50d870a2128 | Severe shock - 16G /Grey Pediatrics/ Geriatrin - 22g/blue Routine maintenance IVF/ Adult male Antibiotic / blood transfusion - 18g/ green Adult female antibiotic - 20g/pink | Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following cannula is used in patient with severe dehydration and diarrhea?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Grey
D. Pink
| Grey |
8be0f11a-fb38-4996-95b7-b3fcf36de7c4 | The image is of SANDFLY, identifiable by the long, slender legs, lanceolate wings, branching of the second longitudinal vein, densely hairy antennae, legs, body and wings. Diseases transmitted: Kala Azar Sandfly fever Oriental sore Oroya fever Carrion's disease Chandipura virus Babesiosis is transmitted by the Hard Tick. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted by it?
A. Kala Azar
B. Chandipura encephalitis
C. Babesiosis
D. Carrion's Disease
| Babesiosis |
138f2721-a8f6-4456-a302-e63411415f00 | The identification of the parasite is based on the size of oocyst since the size of oocyst is 20 to 30 Micron the most likely parasite is Isospora. If the size was 4-8 micron the parasite would have been Cryptosporidium parvum. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2018 | A known HIV patient on anti - retroviral therapy presented with diarrhea of six months duration. Stoll microscopy was done in which 10-30 micrometer cysts were seen, Kinyoun stain was positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cystoisospora
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Balantidium coli
D. Strongyloides
| Cystoisospora |
f70b9c50-597e-40e1-94ea-ecf1ddc146aa | - CSF becomes sterile within 24 of initiation of appropriate antibiotic therapy. - Hence, child should be isolated for 24 hrs after staing antibiotics to prevent fuher transmission. | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2018 | How long should a child be isolated after being diagnosed with bacterial meningitis to prevent fuher transmission?
A. Till 24 hours after staing antibiotics
B. Till cultures become negative
C. Till antibiotics course is complete
D. Till 12 hrs after admission
| Till 24 hours after staing antibiotics |
33b23fe7-afeb-4475-af4c-a9e250c82578 | Ans: A. Inferior rectal veinMesorectum is enclosed by mesorectal fascia, which is derived from the visceral peritoneum.Known as visceral fascia of mesorectum, fascia propria of rectum or presacral wing of hypogastric sheath.Upper rectum is derived from the embryological hind gut, it is surrounded by mesorectumdeg. Contents of Mesorectal fasciaSuperior rectal aery and its branchesSuperior rectal vein and tributariesLymphatic vessels and nodes along superior rectal aeries.Branches from inferior mesenteric plexus to innervate rectum.Loose adipose connective tissue down to the level of levator ani (pelvic floor). | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is not a content of mesorectal fascia?
A. Inferior rectal vein
B. Superior rectal vein
C. Pararectal lymph node
D. Inferior mesenteric plexus
| Inferior rectal vein |
bbb707fd-232e-4ce3-bd6a-bb261bd05701 | Death is usually due to complications arising from respiratory dysfunction.
Paralytic polio
In less than 1% of infections.
Paralysis is characterized as :
Descending
Asymmetrical
Proximal muscles > distal muscles
Non progressive
No sensory involvement
No autonomic disturbance
Lower motor neuron type
Most common muscle affected -4 Quadriceps
Most common muscle undergoes complete paralysis -4 Tibialis anterior
Most common muscle affected in hand —> Opponens pollicis.
M.C. cause of death ---> Respiratory paralysis
Following signs can be elicited :
Tripod sign —> Child is asked to sit up unassisted. He assumes tripod posture.
Kiss the knee Test —> The child cannot kiss his knees due to spine stiffness.
Head drop sign —> Hand is placed under the patients shoulder and the trunk is raised. The head lags behind simply. | Pediatrics | null | Most common cause of death in case of acute poliomyelitis is –
A. Intercostal muscles paralysis
B. Convulsion
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Respiratory failure
| Respiratory failure |
c638cfdd-4eb0-49ad-8580-fe9ba51118ef | Answer- C. Stage 3FIGO Classification* Stage I Disease confined to uterus.* Stage II Extends outside of the uterus but is limited to the genital structure ( adnexa, vagina, broad ligament.)* Stage III Extends of the lungs , with or without known genital tract involvement.* Stage IV meatastases to other organs ( Brain, liver, Kidney, Ovaries, Bowel). | Surgery | null | In choriocarcinoma, lung metastasis occurs in which stage?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
| Stage 3 |
8ecd6b53-cf1a-4e9c-8f2c-48e457979779 | Lets see each option one by one :
artter's syndrome :
is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and normal to low blood pressure.
It can be easily ruled out as the patient is having normal potassium level.
Renal tubular acidosis :
is characterized by hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis with a normal serum anion gap.
It is ruled out as this patient is having normal bicarbonate level (Bicarbonate level is decreased in RTA). Recurrent UTI
Symptoms seen are : Fever, dysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain.
It is ruled out as the above given symptoms are not mentioned in this patient.
Hypernatremia (Na is 154) is not seen in UTI.
iabetes insipidus :
Clinical presentation of hypernatremia, polyuria, polydypsia, thin urine of low specific gravity (1.005) is suggestive of diabetes insipidus. | Pediatrics | null | A 10 year old boy is having polyuria, polydipsia,laboratory data showed (in mEq/lit) – Na– 154 K– 4.5 HCO3–
22 Serum osmolality – 295 Blood urea – 50 Urine specific gravity – 1.005 The likely diagnosis is –
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Barter's syndrome
D. Recurrent UTI
| Diabetes insipidus |
ccec60b1-80b6-4130-b1ab-8631cac2fa14 | FNAC helps in diagnosis of-
Papillary carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
Colloid nodules
Thyroiditis
FNAC cannot diagnose follicular carcinoma and Hurthle carcinoma | Surgery | null | FNAC can not diagnose
A. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
B. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
C. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
| Follicular carcinoma of thyroid |
85d9893b-ffe0-4b0d-9aac-a2e34d1fa0c3 | Lesions >30% BSA , erosion over lips and mucosa : Dx TEN TEN SJS: Haemorrhagic Crusting Sloughing of mucosa Targetoid lesion (2 rings) Nikolsky sign (Pseudo) due to epidermal necrosis. Epidermal necrosis (SJS/TEN) Etiology: Drugs: -Antiepileptic( MC) - CBZ, Lamotrigine * NSAIDS * Penicillin * Nevirapine CBZ induced SJS/TEN is a/w HLA B1502 | Dental | AIIMS 2018 | A patient with acute history of blistering and denudation involving >30% BSA along with erosions of the lips with hemorrhagic crusting and other mucosa for few days. What is the most common triggering factor?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Drug induced
D. Idiopathic
| Drug induced |
80eccba1-1f33-4548-90bc-885cf7d98961 | Ans. C. Urinary NGALRIFLE originally used urinary sodium, urine osmolarity, FeNa to define tubular dysfunction/injury.Currently urinary NGAL/Kim-1/Cystatin C/L-FABP all are being evaluated as more sensitive and specific markers of tubular injury (KDIGO 2017/18). | Medicine | null | What is the difference between RIFLE & KDIGO criteria in differentiating a tubular injury?
A. Uosm
B. Urinary Na
C. Urinary NGAL
D. FeNa (UN, x Scr / SNa x Ucr)
| Urinary NGAL |
4f393b71-3955-4db3-a376-99af5015b825 | Ans: A. Serum FSH(Ref. Ganong 25Ie p419, 425, 24Ie p427)Prior to initiating treatment for a couple, in whom the man has azoospermia, it is impoant to distinguish whether the lack of sperm in the ejaculate is from an obstructive or non-obstructive process.The presence of normal volume testes with bilaterally indurated epididymis and/or absent vas deferens will point to an obstructive etiology for azoospermia.A history of cryptorchidism in the presence of small or soft testes suggests non-obstructive azoospermia, especially if associated with an elevated serum (FSH) level.A decreased spermatogenesis leads to decrease in production of inhibin, which causes an elevation in FSH. | Physiology | null | A couple comes for evaluation of infeility. The HSG was normal but semen analysis revealed azoospermia. What is the diagnostic test to differentiate between testicular failure and vas deferens obstruction?
A. Serum FSH
B. Karyotyping
C. Testosterone levels
D. Testicular FNAC
| Serum FSH |
e8de9b5f-8d91-4770-b700-0a4ac5dd29e2 | Botulinum toxin contains 2 chains- heavy and light. The heavy Chain binds presynaptically to nerve terminals and is responsible for mediating translocation of light chain into the cell. The light chain is active pa which cleaves host protein snap 25 The cleaved snap 25 prevent the release of neurotransmitter Acetylcholine and is responsible flaccid paralysis. The tetanus toxin causes cleavage of synaptobrevin and prevents the release of neurotransmitters GABA and Glycine which causes spastic paralysis. Diphtheria toxin causes ADP ribosylation of elongation factor 2 which inhibits protein synthesis. Cholera toxin causes ADP ribosylation of G stimulatory protein which causes increase in cyclin AMP and causes watery diarrhoea So according to the question the answer is botulinum toxin. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following toxin is causing this:
A. Botulism
B. Tetanus
C. Diphtheria
D. Cholera
| Botulism |
b8e2e066-a036-4d14-8364-4e91a93812d5 | Answer- B. Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased activity of lipoprotein lipaseIn uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, elevated triglyceride and VLDL levels sre seen due to increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase (which insulin inhibits) and decreased activity of lipoprotein lipase (which insulin stimalates). | Biochemistry | null | In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, elevated triglyceride and VLDL levels are seen due to:
A. Increased activity of lipoprotein lipase and decreased activity of hormone sensitive lipase
B. Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased activity of lipoprotein lipase
C. Increase in peripheral LDL receptors
D. Increased activity of hepatic lipase
| Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased activity of lipoprotein lipase |
44ff9d66-1271-48ec-80e0-51f38a47c976 | Ans:. a. Limiting pCO, of the patient(Ref Harrison 19/e p1780, 18/e p2257)Hyperventilation and decreasing pCO2 is the initial and one of the most impoant treatment strategies to lower the ICP in a patient of head injury.For ICP >20-25 mmHg for >5 minPressor therapy - Phenylephrine, dopamine, or norepinephrine to maintain adequate MAP to ensure CPP 60 mmHg (maintain euvolemia to minimize deleterious systemic effects of pressors)Consider second-tier therapies for refractory elevated 1CP:High-dose barbiturate therapy ("pentobarb coma")Aggressive hyperventilation to PaCO2 <30 mmHgHypothermiaHemicraniectomy | Surgery | null | In a 40 years old patient with head injury, which of the following is the best strategy to decrease the intracerebral pressure?
A. Limiting pCO, of the patient
B. Administer sedatives
C. Oxygen supplementation by mechanical ventilation
D. Administer nimodipine
| Limiting pCO, of the patient |
dc729d5e-47ad-4b7e-8b0c-8d5ea7c8f3f4 | Ans: C. Increased mean. no change in median(Ref. Park 24/e p885, 23/e p847, 22/e p786)Value of median is not affected by abnormal very high or very low value.Mean is unduly influenced by abnormal values (either very high or very low) in distribution. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a survey of sleep apnea scores among 10 people, the highest sample of 58 was entered by mistake as 85. This will affect the result as:
A. Increased mean, decreased median
B. Increased mean, increased median
C. Increased mean. no change in median
D. No change in mean, increased median.
| Increased mean. no change in median |
b0d25fa2-56a0-4b68-aaaf-0bc455e055be | In the given question, n = 100 women, mean Hemoglobin (m) = 10 gm%, standard deviation (s) = 1,
Thus standard error (SE) = | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Among a 100 women with average Hb of 10 gm%, the standard deviation was 1, what is the standard error?
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1
D. 10
| 0.1 |
930d4945-04ef-4c32-9c9d-279e8226f852 | Ans: A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex (Ref 8/e p1970, Miller 7/e p409)The Bezold-Jarisch reflex involves a variety of cardiovascular and neurological processes which cause hypopnea (excessively shallow breathing or an abnormally low respiratory rate) & bradycardia (abnormally low resting hea rate).Possible cause of profound bradycardia and circulatory collapse after spinal anesthesia.Cardioprotective reflex.Implicated in physiologic response to a range of cardiovascular conditions such as myocardial ischemia or infarction, thrombolysis, or revascularization and syncope.Natriuretic peptide receptors stimulated by endogenous ANP or BNP may modulate the Bezold-Jarisch reflex.Less pronounced in patients with cardiac hyperophy or atrial fibrillation | Anaesthesia | null | A 46 years old male patient was given subarachnoid block with bupivacaine (heavy) by the anesthetist. After 10 minutes he was found to have a BP of 72/44 mm Hg and hea rate of 52/min. On checking the level of block it was found to be T6. What is the likely explanation for the bradvcardia?
A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex
B. Bainbridge reflex
C. Block of Cardio-accelerator fibers of synthetic origin
D. Reverse Bainbridge reflex
| Bezold-Jarisch reflex |
a221ada6-01e5-47bb-9aaf-5277ea353f1c | Rain drop Pigmentation- Brownish pigmentation present on palm and trunk. It occurs in chronic Arsenic Poisoning. Chronic arsenic Poisoning- Skin- Rain drop pigmentation, Hyperkeratosis of palms and soles. Nails- Aldrich mees lines. Sensory neuropathy Black foot disease (Gangrene of peripheries) Tests done for diagnosis of Arsenic Poisoning- Marsh test Reinsch test NAA AAS | Forensic Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | This specific sign is seen in:
A. Lead poisoning
B. Organophosphorus poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. Zinc poisoning
| Arsenic poisoning |
7ef1e046-a4a8-45dd-9a3b-6ede4a1b85ce | Ans. d. Stop BT and do clerical checkThe patient has ominous signs of a major Acute Hemolytic transfusion reaction ( Backache/anxiety). STOP THE TRANSFUSION WITHOUT ANY DELAY.Also fuher work up is mandatory(especially the basic clerical work like checking the blood product details and cross matching repos) and do not resta transfusion until it is complete | Medicine | null | Patient who is a known case of thalassemia major already on repeated blood transfusions with history of iron overload previously treated with chelating agents. She also has a history of cardiac arrhythmia. She came for BT now. During BT patient complained of backache and looks extremely anxious. What is next management?
A. Observe for a change in colour of the urine
B. Continue BT, do ECG
C. Stop BT and wait for patient to get normal and sta
D. Stop BT and Do clerical check
| Stop BT and Do clerical check |
dac67e00-7708-4533-a6da-38c259fe8403 | * Bones forming the wrist joint are: radius, scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum and other carpal bones.* The wrist joint is a synol joint between the distal end of radius and the aicular disc overlying the distal end of ulna and the scaphoid, lunate and triquetrum.* Ulna is not pa of wrist joint, only the overlying aicular disc is pa of the wrist joint. | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2018 | Which Bone does not form the wrist joint
A. Radius
B. Triquetrum
C. Scaphoid
D. Ulna
| Ulna |
6ab3241e-4c52-470e-8977-aeaf0f54e17a | Ans: C. Renal failure(Ref Zakim and Boyer s Hepatologv (2016)/p109; Bailey 25/e p1128, Textbook of hepatologv 6/e p20t).High bilirubin content:Causes of cholestatic jaundice (malignant obstruction, complete CBD obstruction).Presence of concomitant renal failure a Very high bilirubin beyond 30 mg/dL.Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia:Results from impaired intrahepatic bilirubin excretion or extrahepatic obstruction.Due to continued urinary excretion, maximum serum bilirubin levels plateau at approximately 500 mmol/L (30 Ing/dL) even with complete bile duct obstruction.Extreme hyperbilirubinemia:Levels higher than 500 mmol/L (30 mg/dL).Commonly indicates severe parenchymal liver disease in association with hemolysis (as in sickle cell anemia) or renal failure. | Surgery | null | In a patient with obstructive jaundice, what is the possible explanation for a bilirubin level of 40 mg/dL?
A. Malignant obstruction
B. Complete obstruction of common bile duct
C. Renal failure
D. Liver failure
| Renal failure |
14c74c4d-d6c1-4ced-98b5-4fe778d28836 | Ans: B. Phenyl butyrate Urea cycle disorders are inherited disorders where ammonia is not turned into uric acid properly and so it builds up in the blood. Regular intake of sodium phenylbutyrate helps reduce the levels of ammonia. | Pharmacology | null | Drugs used in urea cycle disorders to reduce ammonia?
A. Phenyl butarone
B. Phenyl butyrate
C. L - Carnitine
D. Isoleucin
| Phenyl butyrate |
5d7ae586-3ecd-41a4-a172-d32ab3dc4f6a | - Lymphatic Filariasis is treated with Diethyl carbamazine (DEC) (Or) a combination of DEC + Albendazole/ Ivermectin - Vitamin A deficiency - Prophylaxis- 2 lakhs IU to 1-6 years of age - Worm infestation - Ascariasis once every 2-3 months; it does not interrupt transmission but useful in reduction of worm load in community - Scabies - No mass drug administration done along with patient his/her family members should be treated not the whole community. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Mass Drug Administration is not helpful for
A. Lymphatic Filariasis
B. Vitamin A Deficiency
C. Worm infestation
D. Scabies
| Scabies |
5502e908-10f1-4588-afd2-6bfd63d1b1f3 | Since the patient gives a history of continuous hypersensitivity, it is indicative of pulpitis and hence, pulpectomy is recommended as the best option. | Dental | null | If continuous hypersensitivity develops in recently restored tooth:
A. No treatment necessary
B. Remove the restoration and place ZOE
C. Perform pulpectomy
D. Perform direct pulp capping
| Perform pulpectomy |
4c8ba505-85f6-426b-9f60-bea158011d06 | Answer- A. MMRITP develop in one in every 24,000 doses of the MMR vaccine givenBruise-like spotsIn rare cases, a child may get a small rash of bruise like spots a but two weeks after having the MMR vaccine.This side effect is linked to the rubella vaccine and is known as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a complication observed with which of the following vaccines? (Asked twice)
A. MMR
B. HIV conjugate polysaccharide vaccine
C. Typhoid Vi polysaccharide vaccine
D. Influenza vaccine
| MMR |
7912bdab-3d26-40a1-91c3-9d52e760b930 | Ans. b. Sackett"David Lawrence Sackett is a Canadian medical doctor and a pioneer in evidence-based medicine. He founded the first depament of clinical epidemiology in Canada at McMaster University, and the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine. He is well known for his textbooks Clinical Epidemiology and Evidence-Based Medicine." Father of modern medicineHippocratesQFather of Indian medicineCharakaQFather of modern surgeryAmbroise PareQFather of Indian surgeryShushrutaQFather of epidemiologyJohn SnowQFather of bacteriologyLouis PasteuQFather of modern anatomyVesaliusaQFather of physiologyClaude BernardQFather of antisepsisJoseph ListerQ | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | . The prospectively evaluated, double-blinded, randomized clinical trail represents the 'gold-standard' for providing evidence for therapeutic decision making. This was first proposed by the father of evidence-based medicine:
A. Tolstoy
B. Sackett
C. Hippocrates
D. da Vinci
| Sackett |
475b9dc7-c23d-4e3f-a3c7-5dc5893a34b1 | Ans: C. Berlin's edema(Ref Kanski 7/e p882: Parson's 22/e p392, 21/e p382, 20/e p367; Yanoff and Duker 4/e p671)Cherry red spot after trauma in children due to Berlin's edema.Commotio retinae (Berlin's Edema):Common occurrence following a eye blow.Manifests as milky white cloudiness involving posterior pole with a 'cherry-red spot' in foveal region.Appear after some days or may be followed by pigmentary changes.Most frequently affect temporal fundus. | Ophthalmology | null | Cherry red spot after trauma is seen in children due to:
A. CRAO
B. CRVO
C. Berlin's edema
D. Niemann-Pick's disease
| Berlin's edema |
20cbdec0-d488-4dcf-9630-2707c948390a | Ans: B. Does not accumulates in tissues(Ref: KDT 7/e p17, 18, 6/e p18)Low volume of distribution:Implies that the drug remains confined to the plasma compament without getting distributed in the body tissues. | Pharmacology | null | What does low volume of distribution of a drug mean?
A. Low bioavailability
B. Does not accumulates in tissues
C. Low absorption
D. Not metabolized in the body
| Does not accumulates in tissues |
b22457e3-c620-4a3d-bde1-0aa6e6c185a7 | Ans: C. C(Ref Niraj Ahuja 7/e p113)ClusterDisordersCluster A (Odd and eccentric)Paranoid PDSchizoid PDSchizotypal PDCluster B (Dramatic, emotional and Antisocial PDHistrionic PDNarcissistic PDBorderline PDCluster C (Anxious and fearful)Anxious (avoidant) PDDependent PDAnankastic (Obsessive and compulsive) PD | Psychiatry | null | A person with histrionic, shy, anxious avoidant per!sonality comes under which cluster?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| C |
9c7e163e-d22f-43d9-8c77-fb036bc0b064 | Answer- D. Atorvastatin 80 mgWhen lipid-lowering agents are indicated, the treatment is staed with IIMG Co-A reductase inhibitors (statins). High intensity statin therapy should be staed in the patients with presence of clinical atherosclerotic cardiovascular events (MI in this patient). In high intensity statin therapy, either atorvastatin (40-80 mg/day) or rosuvastatin (20-40 mg/day) should be given.High lntensity Statin TherapyLowers LDL cholesterol by approximately 50% .Drugs used:Atorvastatin (40-80 mg)Rosuvastatin (20-40 mg) | Medicine | null | A 60 years old patient who had myocardial infarction 2 weeks back, the lipid profile is done for a patient and reveals HDL 32 mgldL, LDL 126 mg/dl, TG 276 mgl/dL. Which of the following is preferred for this patient ?
A. Rosuvastatin + Fenofibrate
B. Fenofibrate alone
C. Rosuvastatin 10 mg
D. Atorvastatin 80 mg
| Atorvastatin 80 mg |
bdf95c69-99f7-4884-b014-53ec47ef3130 | Ans. C. Knock down (Ref Robbins 9/e p5) RNAi causes Knock down in a gene."Small interfering RNAs (siRNAs): Another species of gene-silencing RNA, called small interfering RNAs (siRNAs), works in a manner quite similar to that of miRNA. siRNAs are becoming powerful tools for studying gene function and may in the future be used therapeutically to silence specific genes, such as oncogenes, whose products are involved in neoplastic. transformation."-Robbins 9/c, p5.Knock outTargeted gene is completely removedfrom the DNA sequence by replacing itwith an aificial piece of DNAdegKnock downGene is not completely removed but itsexpression is suppressed by using RNAinterference technologydegKnock inSegment of a gene is inseed into aDNA sequencedeg | Biochemistry | null | RNAi causes the following in a gene:
A. Knock in
B. Knock out
C. Knock down
D. Knock up
| Knock down |
3cc3ba13-5e28-4194-ab6d-834496d88261 | It is flattening of angle subtended by the posterior articular surface and the upper surface of body posterior to the joint (Bohler angle) occurs in fracture of calcaneum. It is 25—40° normally. It is also known as tuber joint angle. | Unknown | null | The following angle is associated with fracture of
A. Calcaneum
B. Talus
C. Navicular
D. Cuboid
| Calcaneum |
2f703c9f-2d54-4833-b319-25f8dc8b500c | It is an erbium laser (Er,Cr:YSGG) that has the ability to remove both hard and soft tissue safely and effectively. The WaterLase iPlus™ laser from BIOLASE, he says, is exceptionally versatile. “This is an all-tissue laser. Not only can it manipulate soft tissue by removing it for procedures such as biopsies and gingivectomies, it can also safely and effectively ablate tooth and bone structure. | Radiology | null | Which type of laser is used in waterlase system?
A. Argon laser
B. Diode Laser
C. Nd:YAG laser
D. YSGG Laser
| YSGG Laser |
16a4ed7f-088f-4bff-b638-418bad1f9eef | Dried blood spots are used in Tandem Mass Spectrometry as screening test for inborn errors of metabolism. Another screening test used- GCMS gas chromatography mass spectroscopy. | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2017 | Dried blood spotes test in neonates is used in testing for:-
A. Inborn error of metabolism
B. Blood group
C. Total cell count
D. Creatinine and bilirubin
| Inborn error of metabolism |
9dbe9f17-d9ee-46fe-b3d3-8c6c19758be6 | Answer- C. Chi-square test Chi-square test- Comparison of two independent qualitative variablesA 'non-parametric test' of significanceUsed to 'test significance of association between 2 or more qualitative characteristicsUsed to compare propoions in 2 or more groupsUsed for non-Normal (non-Gaussian) distributions | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A research was undeaken by a group of psychiatrists and obstetricians to assess postpaum depression in mothers giving bih to male versus female children according to the Edinburgh depression scale (EPDS). What test should be used to compare the outcomes?
A. Student's t-test
B. Paired t-test
C. Chi-square test
D. Pearson's correlation coefficient
| Chi-square test |
ff70acbd-354f-4d68-bf18-74a4c6489695 | Ans: C. 500 mEq(Ref Harrison 19/e p317, 12/e p368).Base deficit in question = 400 mEq.Base excess & base deficit:Refer to an excess or deficit respectively in amount of base present in blood.Total bicarbonate deficit = 0.3 x weight (kg) x base deficitBase deficit in mEq = 0.4 x weight (kg) x Total Base Deficit = (24-6) x 0.4 x 75 = 540 mEq = 500 mEq (approx.)To obtain deficit in grams, divide mEq by 12. | Medicine | null | Calculate the base deficit in a patient of weight 75 kg with a pH = 6.96, pCO2 = 30 mm Hg and HCO3- = 6 mEq/L:
A. 300 mEq
B. 400 mEq
C. 500 mEq
D. 800 mEq
| 500 mEq |
97194c13-bb56-4e06-ac35-79f69cb41bb3 | Platelets are stored at 20-24?C with continuous agitation. Since they are present at room temperature transfusion related infections are high with platelet transfusion Packed RBC's are stored at a temperature of 2-6?C FFP and cryoprecipitate are stored at -18 to -30? C | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | Storage temperature of RBC, Platelet, and Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) are:
A. RBC 2-6oC, Platelet 20-22oC, FFP-30oC
B. RBC - 30oC, FFP 2-6oC, Platelet 20-22oC
C. RBC 20-22oC, Platelet 2-6oC, FFP-30oC
D. RBC 20-22oC, FFP-30o C, Platelet 2-6oC
| RBC 2-6oC, Platelet 20-22oC, FFP-30oC |
cc20caec-1219-4388-900c-9ff80cf897e9 | Answer DThyrotoxic crisis (storm)- This is an acute exacerbation of hypehyroidism.It occurs if a thyrotoxic patient has been inadequately prepared for thyroidectomy and is now extremely rare.Features: They present in 12-24 hours after surgery; with severe dehydration, circulatory collapse, hypotension, hyperpyrexia, tachypnoea, hyperventilation, palpitation, restlessness, tremor, delirium, diarrhea, vomiting, and cardiac failure; later coma.Treatment: Injection hydrocoisone, oral antithyroid drugs, tepid sponging of the whole body, beta-blocker injection, oral iodides, a large amount of IV fluids for rehydration, digitoxin, cardiac monitor, often ventilator suppo, with close observation. | Surgery | null | A patient underwent thyroidectomy for hypehyroidism. Two days later he was presented with features of thyroid storm. What is the most likely cause?
A. Poor antibiotic coverage
B. Rough handling during surgery
C. Removal of parathyroid
D. Inadequate preoperative preparation
| Inadequate preoperative preparation |
20e32c25-c198-4018-9a87-77990296f2ab | Answer- BRadioactive iodine ablation is contraindicated in pregnancy because of severe teratogenic effects.Contraindications-ChildhoodPregnancyLactationThe standard primary treatment for patients with thyroid cancer remains total or near total thyroidectomy. In a pregnant woman, both maternal and fetal outcomes shall be considered before taking the decision of surgery. | Surgery | null | A 27 years old lady with 20 weeks pregnancy presented with a thyroid nodule on right side. FNAC from the nodule was suggestive of papillary carcinoma. Which of the following is contraindicated in her management?
A. Total thyroidectomy plus neck node dissection
B. Right lobectomy
C. Radioactive iodine ablation
D. Total thyroidectomy
| Radioactive iodine ablation |
26124571-60c3-4509-9c33-981bc3b40054 | Ans. D. ZosterMaculopapular rashes are seen in:* Rubella* Dengue(febrile phase)* Measles* Chikungunya (acute infectious phase)* Erythema infectiosum* Zika virus* West nile virus* Infectious mononucleosis | Skin | null | Maculopapular rash is not seen in ?
A. Dengue
B. Rubella
C. measles
D. Zoster
| Zoster |
872eb991-48a8-486f-8dd8-c19b8f3cd096 | Ans: B. Propofol(Ref: Miller 6/e p318-320: Morgan 4/e p200-202: Lee 13/e p158-160).Propofol:Oil-based preparation containing soyabean oil, egg lecithin & glycerol.As it contains oil - Hence painful injection IV administration.Should be preceded or mixed with lignocaine. | Anaesthesia | null | Which anesthetic agent can cause pain on IV adminis-tration?
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopentone
D. Midazolam
| Propofol |
a36f6ff1-cb98-42fc-953f-79b16753d993 | Mesial Aspect
Lingual cusp is around two third the size of the buccal cusp
Extreme lingual slope is seen at the mesial marginal ridge
Between the mesial marginal ridge and the mesiolingual cusp ridge is the mesiolingual developmental groove
Mesial contact area is in the middle third | Dental | null | Mesiolingual developmental groove is seen in
A. Maxillary 1st premolar
B. Mandibular lateral incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisor
D. Mandibular 1st premolar
| Mandibular 1st premolar |
4c193618-d7aa-41b5-a04c-0ff57cabbb3a | Deaths occurring from 28 days of life to under one year are called postneonatal death. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Most common cause of post neonatal mortality is:
A. Genetic cause
B. Maternal health during pregnancy
C. Environmental causes
D. Conditions effecting in early neonatal period
| Environmental causes |
a1546ddd-5e66-42f2-897f-90fce5601b72 | Metabolic disorders associated with mental retardation.
Aminoaciduria —› Phenylketonuria, homocystinemia, histidinemia
Galactosemia
Mucopolysaccharidosis | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following inborn errors of metabolism is associated with mental retardation –a) Alkaptonuriab) Homocystinuriac) Pentosuriad) Galactosemia
A. c
B. d
C. bd
D. ac
| bd |
5907e711-096f-4251-aea5-042f65debd5b | Ans. A. Subcutaneous* Both heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously every 8 hours and enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously once daily provide highly effective and safe prophylaxis for patients undergoing colorectal surgery. | Pharmacology | null | Post operative thromboprophylaxis by low molecular weight heparin is best done by which route of administration?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intravenous
C. Inhalational
D. Intramuscular
| Subcutaneous |
ed5e1979-1d14-4bcb-a2b1-8fa0f334b982 | Answer- C. Routine clinical examination 3 monthly in 1st year with annual mammogramBreast cancer follow-up should be done with history & physical examination Every 3 to 6 months for the first 3 years, every 6 to 12 months,4 and 5 years, annually thereafter; Mammography annually, beginning no earlier than 6 months after radiation therapy. There is currently no routine role for repeated measurements of tumour markers or imaging other than mammography. | Surgery | null | A 36 years old patient underwent breast conservation therapy and chemotherapy for a 1.5 x 1.2 cm ER positive breast cancer with one positive axillary lymph node. She is now on tamoxifen. How will you follow-up the patient?
A. Annual bone scan
B. Assessment of tumor markers 6 monthly
C. Routine clinical examination 3 monthly in 1st year with annual mammogram
D. Routine clinical examination 3 monthly and 6 monthly liver function tests
| Routine clinical examination 3 monthly in 1st year with annual mammogram |
cf3f103b-e4d8-4f34-86aa-b69f3b31fe55 | Ans: C. Apo B-100 mutationIn Type Ila Familial hypercholesterolemia:Highly elevated levels of LDL with normal level of LDL receptors.Characterized mutation in ligand region of apoB-100.Differential diagnosis:"Familial Defective apoB-100 (FDB)"/"Autosomal dominant hypercholesterolemia (ADH) type 2":Dominantly inherited disorder.Clinically resembles heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) with elevated LDL-C levels and normal TGs.FDB - Caused by mutations in gene encoding apoB-100, specifically in LDL receptor-binding domain of apoB-100.Ref (Harrison 19/e p2438-2447, 18/e p3148) | Biochemistry | null | On laboratory investigations in a patient, LDL was highly elevated but the level of LDL receptors was normal. Which of the following is most probable cause?
A. Phosphorylation of LDL receptors
B. Lipoprotein lipase deficiency
C. Apo B-100 mutation
D. Cholesterol Acyl Co-A transferase deficiency
| Apo B-100 mutation |
09ce3345-10ca-4ade-91b7-8b1361c55c99 | Morphine (an opioid) is a strong analgesic. It is used in treatment of all types of pain like Crush injury, Fracture, MI, cancer pain, post-operative pain etc. However in Biliary colic (e.g. due to any stone blocking bile duct), morphine constricts sphincter of Oddi and increase the intrabiliary pressure. This increases the chances of rupture of bile duct. Therefore opioids like morphine are contra-indicated in biliary colic. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Morphine should not be used in the treatment of:
A. Ischemic pain
B. Biliary colic
C. Cancer pain
D. Post operative pain
| Biliary colic |
1e6928e0-01e6-4346-8ea7-25cecbb99932 | Answer- A. Middle 1/3rd of esophagus* Esophageal Carcinoma Most common site of ca esophagus is middle 1/3 of esophagus. | Surgery | null | Most common site of esophageal carcinoma?
A. Middle 1/3rd of esophagus
B. Upper 2/3rd of esophagus
C. Lower 2/3rd of esophagus
D. Middle 2/3rd of esophagus
| Middle 1/3rd of esophagus |
8fe12f62-9e59-408b-899d-72def6e9e16e | Ans: C. Zona occludens(Ref Sleisenger and Fordtran's textbook of Gastrointestinal and Liver Disease 10/e p1903).vibrio cholerae also produces additional toxins that may contribute to disease, including the zonula occludens toxin (ZOT) that alters intestinal permeability by acting on intestinal epithelial cells tight junctions, and the accessory choleraendotoxin (ACE)." Cholera toxin:Vibrio cholerae secretes enterotoxin protein.Encoded by bacteriophage (CT Xfi resident in V. cholera).Enterotoxin:Made up of 1A subunit (composed of 1A1 & 1 A2 peptide joined by disulfide link) & 5B subunits.Other toxins:Zonula occludens toxin (ZOT):Alters intestinal permeability by acting on intestinal epithelial cells tight junctions.Accessory cholera endotoxin (ACE). | Microbiology | null | Which of the following structure is disrupted by Vibrio cholerae?
A. Hemi desmosome
B. Gap junctions
C. Zona occludens
D. Zona adherens
| Zona occludens |
abe0ec0b-3b93-4151-b93a-3ce5e4f29328 | Answer- B. Severe typhoidIn critically ill patients with enteric fever, the administration of dexamethasone with chloramphenicol was asssociated with a sabstantially lower moality rate than was treatment with chloramphenicol alone. | Medicine | null | In which of the following glucocoicoid is used?
A. E.coli septicemia
B. Severe typhoid
C. Cerebral Malaria
D. Leishmaniasis
| Severe typhoid |
0ef0297d-91cb-4320-9d3e-6d04ae3e9c07 | Ans. a. RNA polymerase (Ref Harper 28/e p362) RNA polymerase enzyme is involved in transcription process, not in translation.The a-amino group of the new aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site carries out a nucleophilic attach on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl-tRNA occupying the P site (peptidyl or polypeptide site).Peptidyl transferase: Catalyses two reactions, peptide bond formation between amino acids and together with release factor, peptide release. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not required for protein synthesis of eukaryotes:
A. RNA polymerase
B. Ribosomes
C. Peptidyl transferase
D. Amino acyl tRNA synthetase
| RNA polymerase |
efd270a2-fc23-4227-9900-8410e5e21254 | Ans: C. Urinary concentration in mg/ml In the Given Formula:C = Clearance of the substanceU = Urinary concentration of the substance in mg/mlP = Plasma concentration of the substance in mg/mlV = Volume of urine | Physiology | null | In the formula for urea clearance, C = U x V/P, U denotes:
A. Urinary concentration in gm/24 hours
B. Urine osmolarity
C. Urinary concentration in mg/ml
D. Urine volume per minute
| Urinary concentration in mg/ml |
fcf2426c-5371-4141-b4ba-5a941e305824 | Ans. C. MalariaRelative bradycardia at the peak of high fever is the early findings in <50% cases of typhoid.The presentation of Brucellosis often fits three patterns, among one febrile illness that resembles to thyroid, but it is less severe. Relative bradycardia seen in this case.In malaria relative bradycardia is uncommon. | Medicine | null | Relative bradycardia is uncommon in:
A. Brucellosis
B. Typhoid
C. Malaria
D. Factitious fever
| Malaria |
876a5607-e467-4745-b315-13812c405904 | Answer- B. TamoxifenMedical Treatment of PCOSEstrogen best given with progesterone (combined OCPs) with no androgenic propeiesHirsutism is treated with cyproterone acetate or spironolactone.Infeility is treated with Clomiphene, 80% ovulate and 40% conceive.In Clomiphene failed group, ovulation can be induced with FSH or GnRH analogues.Metformin treats the root cause of PCOS, rectifies endocrine and metabolic functions and improves feility and isdrug of choice. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 16 years old girl came for evaluation of primary amenorrhea. She was having hirsutism, irregular bleeding and infeility, diagnosed as PCOS. Which of the following drugs should not be given?
A. Spironolactone
B. Tamoxifen
C. OCPs
D. Clomiphene citrate
| Tamoxifen |
b0b23ecd-6076-476c-935b-a6384c8474ff | Vd means "the plasma volume that would accommodate all the drug in the body, if the concentration throughout was same as in plasma". Drugs with high volume of distribution are more distributed in body and vice-versa. Low volume of distribution tells that most of the drug is retained in plasma. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Low apparent volume of distribution of a drug indicates That
A. Drug has low half life
B. Drug has low bioavailability
C. Drug has low efficacy
D. Drug is not extensively distribution to tissue
| Drug is not extensively distribution to tissue |
2719953f-15c7-4003-83ed-0baf2654d35a | Hydrocephalus and intracerebral calcification can occur in all the four options either commonly (Toxoplasma, CIVIV) or uncommonly (HSV, rubella). See previous explanation.
However, spiramycin in pregnancy is given for toxoplasmosis.
Acute maternal toxoplasmosis is usually asymptomatic, some patients may present with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, fatigue, lassitude and maculopapular rash.
Spiramycin reduces the risk of congenital infection in acute toxoplasmosis during pregnancy.
As the patient was not compliant with spiramycin, baby developed congenital toxoplasmosis. | Pediatrics | null | A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was noncompliant. Baby was born with hydrocephalus and intracerebral calcification. Which of these is likely cause ?
A. Rubella
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. CMV
D. Herpes
| Toxoplasmosis |
3844fc33-c5f5-48b4-ad6b-45dc4a3ec3c4 | Unpaired structure in the brain is basilar artery. | Anatomy | null | Unpaired structures in the brain:
A. Basilar artery
B. Vertebral artery
C. Middle cerebral artery
D. Anterior cerebral artery
| Basilar artery |
fe12f221-b75a-4418-b14d-642a0d3b8289 | Collum angle
The angulation of the root to the crown, particularly of the single rooted anterior teeth is known as Collum angle. It is the angle formed by the intersection of the long axis of the crown and root and it is measured using the lateral cephalogram.
Dental features of class II div 2 include a class II molar and canine relationship, deep traumatic bite, retroclined upper four incisors or retroclined central incisors with a labial inclination of the laterals and supra-erupted, upright lower incisors. The tooth size may be small, and upper incisors may have increased collum angle between the crown and the root.
The maxillary incisors in class II division 2 malocclusions are about 12° more vertical than those in normal occlusion. The mandibular incisors are upright in a class II division 2 malocclusion, but to a lesser extent than the upper incisors. | Dental | null | Increased collum angle is seen in
A. Class I bimaxillary protrusion
B. Class II div 1
C. Class II div 2
D. Class III
| Class II div 2 |
Subsets and Splits