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2d88e018-637e-47c4-bb63-dd7216c204ae | Answer: A. Alpo syndrome* Alpo syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities.* People with Alpo syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function.* Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (hematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. | Ophthalmology | null | 14 year old child with blindness, sensorineural hearing loss, progressive hematuria, hypeension with similar family history in father
A. Alpo syndrome
B. Goldenhar syndrome
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Nager syndrome
| Alpo syndrome |
44849fd1-7c11-4756-805f-48d34ee2cd05 | It is Stephen's curve, which is used for illustration of rapid decrease in pH after sucrose consumption. Exposure of dental plaque to a fermentable carbohydrate leads to decrease in pH rapidly, reaching minimum in approx. 5-10 minutes. It recovers to its initial value in 20-60 minutes gradually. | Dental | null | Most probable chance of developing caries in the following curve is at:
A. Point A
B. Point B
C. Point C
D. Point D
| Point B |
d8a98adf-739e-4e14-9236-e3bb4f0cd91e | Dyes used in caries detection are:
Enamel caries
Calcein
Zygo ZL-22
Fuschin
Dentinal caries
Acid red system
α - Aminoacridine | Dental | null | Which of the following is a dye used for dentinal caries detection:
A. Calcein
B. Zygo ZL-22.
C. Fuschin.
D. Acid red system.
| Acid red system. |
c48cca4e-55ef-4a73-b07d-6ac3a3c5c1eb | Good prognosis: Control of etiologic factors and adequate periodontal support ensure the tooth will be easy to maintain by the patient and clinician.
Fair prognosis: Approximately 25% attachment loss or grade I furcation invasion (location and depth allow proper maintenance with good patient compliance).
Poor prognosis: 50% attachment loss, grade II furcation invasion (location and depth make maintenance possible but difficult).
Questionable prognosis: >50% attachment loss, poor crown-to-root ratio, poor root form, grade II furcation invasion (location and depth make access difficult) or grade III furcation invasion; mobility no. 2 or no. 3; root proximity.
Hopeless prognosis: Inadequate attachment to maintain health, comfort, and function.
Ref: Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, thirteenth edition; page no 413 | Dental | null | A patient shows one or more of the following: advanced bone loss, grade II and III furcation involvements, tooth mobility, inaccessible areas, systemic/environmental factors represents:
A. Questionable prognosis
B. Poor prognosis
C. Fair prognosis
D. Hopeless prognosis
| Questionable prognosis |
bec8dd0c-aafe-44be-af2a-d55055476931 | Ans: A. 40%(Ref Sabiston 201e p507, 19/e p523; Schwaz 91e p199-200; Bailey 261e p389)The best way to measure the area burned accurately is the Lund and Browder cha.Total body surface area affected in burns of a 2 years old child involving face (8.5%), bilateral upper limb (20%), front of chest & abdomen (13%) is 41.5% (approximately 40%). | Surgery | null | A 2 years old child suffers flame burns involving face, bilateral upper limbs and front of chest and abdomen. What is the body surface area involved?
A. 40%
B. 45%
C. 54%
D. 60%
| 40% |
2d98e8a0-829a-47ef-87e1-c6bbd54473a1 | Adverse effects of SSRI's MC: GI side effects- Nausea, Vomiting Dyspepsia, Diarrhea Sexual side effects- Decreased libido, Anorgasmia, Delayed ejaculation Increased sweating Decreased platelet aggregation Vivid dreams Sialorrhea is a very common side effect of Clozapine. | Psychiatry | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following is not an adverse effect of Escitalopram?
A. Nausea
B. Vivid dreams
C. Anorgasmia
D. Sialorrhoea
| Sialorrhoea |
03e82f18-dc4c-4005-b865-18e67f1114ff | Answer- B. Sclerodactyly, esophageal dysmotility and Raynaud's phenomenonNucleolsr ANA positivity is most likely suggestive of systemic sclerosis or scleroderma, which comprises of diffuse or limited disease-CREST syndrome (Calcinosis, Raynaud syndrome, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia)Antinuclear antibodies are directed against nuclear antigens, grouped into: ( I ) antibodies to DNA (2) antibodies to histones (3) antibodies to non-histone proteins bound to RNA (4) antibodies to nucleolar antigens.Most widely used method for detecting ANAs: Indirect immunoffuorescence (identify antibodies that bind to a variety of nuclear antigens, including DNA, RNA & proteins).Pattern of nuclear fluorescence suggests the type of antibody present in the patient's serum. | Pathology | null | In a 30 years old female patient with polyahritis, testing reveals nucleolar pattern of ANA staining. What is the likely course of this patient?
A. Malar rash, alopecia and renal failure
B. Sclerodactyly, esophageal dysmotility and Raynaud's phenomenon
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Painful genital and oral blisters and ulcers
| Sclerodactyly, esophageal dysmotility and Raynaud's phenomenon |
5823e5f0-8ea7-4583-bbeb-409c9206dbd8 | In BPH, urinary obstruction is present because of increased size of prostate(static component). This is increased by spasm of urethra(dynamic component).To dilate urethra; alpha 1A receptor blockers like tamsulosin and silodosin are used. These provide the immediate symptomatic relief by treating the dynamic component.To decrease the size of prostate, 5 alpha reductase inhibitors are used which inhibit the conversion of testosterone to DHT(dihydrotestosterone). Drugs are dutasteride and finasteride. These drugs are given for long duration. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following drug can decrease the size of prostate?
A. Tamsulosin
B. Sildenafil
C. Finasteride
D. Prazosin
| Finasteride |
46a92416-5681-4333-8b2e-70f85fc10632 | Ans: A. Ulcerative colitis(Ref Harrison 19/e p377, 18/e p2723)Autoimmune Diseases Organ SpecificOrgan Nonspecific (Systemic)Grave's diseaseVitiligoSystemic lupus erythematosusHashimoto's thyroiditisAutoimmune hemolytic anemiaRheumatoid ahritisAutoimmune polyglandular syndromeAutoimmune thrombocytopenic purpuraSystemic necrotizing vasculitisType 1 diabetes mellitusPernicious anemiaGranulomatosis with polyangitisInsulin-resistant diabetes mellitusMyasthenia gravis(Wegener's)Immune-mediated infeilityMultiple sclerosisAntiphospholipid syndromeAutoimmune Addison's diseaseGuillain-Barre syndromeSjogren's syndromPemphigus vulgarisStiff-man syndrome Pemphigus foliaceusAcute rheumatic fever Dermatitis herpetiformisSympathetic ophthalmia Autoimmune alopeciaGoodpasture's syndrome | Medicine | null | Which of the following is not an autoimmune disorder?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Grave's disease
C. Rheumatoid ahritis
D. SLE
| Ulcerative colitis |
54054782-8948-4be1-861f-dd67a24a5b9c | Ans: B. 5'-3' exonucleaseDNA polymerase I is not the primary enzyme of replication; instead, it performs a host of clean-up functions during replication, recombination, and repair.When the 5'-3' exonuclease domain is removed, the remaining fragment (Mr 68,000), the large fragment or Klenow fragment, retains the polymerization and proofreading activities.Klenow fragment is a large protein fragment produced when DNA polymerase I from E. coli is enzymatically cleaved by the protease subtilisin. | Biochemistry | null | Klenow fragment lacks the activity of?
A. 3'-5' exonuclease
B. 5'-3' exonuclease
C. 5'-3' DNA polymerase
D. 3'-5' DNA polymerase
| 5'-3' exonuclease |
fab688a9-c8b9-49de-9fd1-596e226477e6 | Ans: C. Village health sanitation and nutrition committee (VHSNC)Ref: K Park, 23'd ed,, pg. 450-451 and Health Policies and Programmes in India, DK Taneja, I2'h ed., pg. 82VHSNC:Sub-committee or a standing committee of the Gram Panchayat.The VHSNC acts as a platform for convergence between different depaments & committees at village level.The VHSNCs shall be suppoed to develop village health plans to ensure convergent action on social determinants of health, ensure access to health services, especially of the more marginalised sections in the village, and suppo the organization of the Village Health and Nutrition Day. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Under National Health Mission which committee makes plan for village health?
A. Panchayat health committee (PHC)
B. Village health planning and management committee (VHPMC)
C. Village health sanitation and nutrition committee (VHSNC)
D. RogiKalyan Samiti
| Village health sanitation and nutrition committee (VHSNC) |
57660d4b-51d1-41b9-bdb7-05daa16b71b1 | Impression plaster is a β-calcium sulfate hemihydrate used at a water/powder ratio of approximately 0.5 to 0.6. Its fluidity makes it suitable for making impressions of soft tissues in the uncompressed state, a characteristic of mucostatic impression material.
Rest all options are mucocompressive impression materials.
Ref: Phillips 12edition page no 177 | Dental | null | The most mucostatic impression material is
A. Thin mix of plaster of paris
B. Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
C. Free flowing wax
D. Reversible hydrocolloids
| Thin mix of plaster of paris |
6ec7c97f-5287-46e6-82ec-75ded2b07a1c | Ans: D. Vapor pressureVapor pressure is directly propoional to temperature.Increasing temperature will increase the ratio of gas:liquid molecules, thereby increasing vapor pressure.Vapor pressure is independent of atmospheric pressure and is contingent only on the temperature and physical characteristics of the liquid. | Anaesthesia | null | A sevoflurane vaporizer can accurately deliver the dose of an anesthetic agent. It resembles it in which of the following propeies?
A. Molecular weight
B. Oil gas paition coefficient
C. Blood gas paition coefficient
D. Vapor pressure
| Vapor pressure |
efb7462f-4c82-471a-9050-04c342078b35 | Hippocampus The marked structure is the fornix which is the major output tract for the hippocampus, which is a functional pa of the papez circuit Papez circuit: pa of limbic system associated with memory & emotions. | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following projects efferent fibers through the marked structure:-
A. Hippocampus
B. Mammillary body
C. Caudate nucleus
D. Amygdala
| Hippocampus |
b8a31186-4e61-46f8-bf04-c3e22f907418 | Sequential arrangement - JVP waves: - A wave - atrial systole C wave - Iso volumetric contraction V wave - Iso volumetric relaxation Arrangement of ventricular events - Atrial systole - 'A' wave in JVP, | Ventricular systole - 'QRS' complex (ventricular depolarization) | AV valves closes - 1st hea sound | SL valve open - rapid ejection | Ventricular repolarization - T - wave | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Sequential arrangement question on JVP. Staing with "a" wave. A-First hea sound B-T wave C-R wave D-Rapid ejection phase
A. A,B,C,D
B. A,C,D,B
C. C,A,D,B
D. D,C,B,A
| C,A,D,B |
d89b269b-52d2-4f8a-b9b3-9e5727a05aea | Answer- C. Dystrophin deficiencyMost likely diagnosis is duchenne Muscular Dystrophy due to Dystrophin deficiency. | Pediatrics | null | An 8 year old boy complaints of increasing muscle weakness. On examination, his calves are bulky and show muscle tightening. His serum creatine kinase levels are increasing with age. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hereditary sensorimotor neuropathy
B. Myelin deficiency
C. Dystrophin deficiency
D. Congenital myopathy
| Dystrophin deficiency |
6f1fdbc9-920f-4bff-b2eb-ba300fd9cc59 | Ans: D. Fracture(Ref: Reddy 34/e 1)225-227, 33/e p239-240; Parikh 6/e p4.183; Sabiston 19/e p6I2-613; Bailey 26/e p430 25/e p422-423)Fracture is not specific of blast injury.Marshall's triad:Diagnostic of explosive injury.Includes bruises, abrasions & puncture lacerations. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which of these findings is not specific of blast injury?
A. Abrasion
B. Bruise
C. Puncture laceration
D. Fracture
| Fracture |
4f698c06-2027-440c-b790-bd59cb4e0c56 | Beta-d- glucan is an attractive antigen in that it is found in a broad range of fungal agents, including the commonly encountered agents Candida spp., Aspergillus spp., Pneumocystis jirovecii. Cryptococcus- capsular antigen detection from CSF or serum by latex agglutination test is a rapid and sensitive test. Pneumocystis carinii- no serological test available Mucormycosis- Can be diagnosed by KOH mount showing , non-septated hyphae branching at obtuse angle | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | 1-3 beta - d - glucan assay is done for which infection?
A. Invasive candidiasis
B. Cryptococcus
C. Penicillium
D. Rhinicerebral mucormycosis
| Invasive candidiasis |
3e5e641e-80c1-42e1-9d7d-e659bde99dbe | Ans: A. Glycolysis(Ref Guyton 13/e p1087. Ganong 25/e p108, 24/e p106)Phosphocreatine:Rapid source of energy by resynthesizing ATP for exercising muscles.During periods of high activity, cycling of phosphorylcreatine allows for quick release of ATP to sustain muscle activity. | Physiology | null | Which of the following is rapid source of energy by resynthesizing ATP for exercising muscles is?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. TCA cycle
D. Phosphocreatine
| Glycolysis |
2d1e9927-b2bc-469b-a26f-49ff06d91fda | Ans: B. D, antagonist(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12Ie p1325; Katzung 13/e p1062, 12Ie 0092; KDT 7Ie p665).Metoclopramide:Dopamine D, receptor antagonist.Mixed 5-HT 3 eceptor antagonist & 5-HT, receptor agonist.Antiemetic action due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the central nervous system-this action prevents nausea & vomiting triggered by most stimuli.At higher doses, 5-HT, antagonists activity may also contribute to the antiemetic effect. | Pharmacology | null | Antiemetic action is due to which propey of metoclopramide?
A. 5-HT3 antagonist
B. D, antagonist
C. 5-HT4 agonist
D. M3 antagonist
| D, antagonist |
02f27add-bf4d-4155-81aa-8f537546ceda | Sodium hypochlorite (1%) is used as laboratory disinfectant for disinfectingblood and other specimens and is also used for disinfecting the blood spillage area. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | Blood on OT floor is cleaned by?
A. Phenol
B. Alcohol based compounds
C. Chlorine based compounds
D. Quaternary ammonium compounds
| Chlorine based compounds |
9efd66e5-5dcc-4213-ba60-a590e2f02625 | Moderate to severe skeletal class-II malocclusion division 1 cases due to a short or retrognathic mandible are ideally suited for functional appliance treatment.
Class II division 2 type of malocclusions may be treated with functional appliances after correcting the axial inclinations of maxillary anteriors. | Dental | null | Functional appliances in skeletal class II are indicated when:
A. Maxilla is normal, mandible is retrognathic
B. Maxilla is prognathic
C. Mandible is retrognathic in a mature individual
D. When severe crowding is present
| Maxilla is normal, mandible is retrognathic |
1245ee8a-b80f-488c-b1a2-2ad91e1484b0 | Sequence of treatment in patient with caries in relation to 51, 52, 61 & 62 is history taking-oral care assessment-caries risk assessment-diet counseling-fluoride application-restoration. | Dental | null | Sequence of treatment in patient with caries in relation to 51, 52, 61 & 62:
A. History taking-oral care assessment-caries risk assessment-diet counseling-restoration-fluoride application
B. History taking-oral care assessment-caries risk assessment-diet counseling-fluoride application-restoration
C. History taking-caries risk assessment- oral care assessment–diet counseling -restoration-fluoride application
D. History taking-oral care assessment caries risk assessment-restoration-fluoride application diet counseling
| History taking-oral care assessment-caries risk assessment-diet counseling-fluoride application-restoration |
f4431627-6919-4c67-b3fa-eebf37335434 | The most important disease associated with vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anemia. lt is characterized by low hemoglobin levels, decreased number of erythrocytes and neurological manifestations. One or more of the following causes are attributed to the occurrence of pernicious anemia.
Autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells that secrete intrinsic factor. In the absence of lF, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed.
Hereditary malabsorption of vitamin B12
Partial or total gastrectomy-these individuals become intrinsic factor deficient.
Insufficient production of lF and/or gastric HCl, occasionally seen in older people.
Dietary deficiency of B12, is seen among the strict vegetarians of low socioeconomic group in the developing countries (lndia, Srilanka etc.).
Key Concept:
The most important disease associated with vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anemia.
Reference: Satyanarayana Biochemistry 3rd ed page no 155 | Biochemistry | null | Pernicious anaemia occurs in:
A. Vit B1 deficiency
B. Vit B12 deficiency
C. Vit C deficiency
D. Vit D deficiency
| Vit B12 deficiency |
17529d1c-10a7-46d0-8f1c-070aa64234e5 | Ans. B. Positive ANASerum electrophoresis: Abnormal spike in the region of gamma globulin (myeloma spike) is present in 90% of cases.* Bone marrow plasmacytosis in multiple myeloma is characteristically more than 30%.* The immunoglobulin least commonly involved in Multiple Myeloma is IgD.* The immunoglobulin most commonly involved in Multiple Myeloma is IgG. - Low haemoglobin, - high ESR (usually very high), - increased total protein, - A/G ratio reversed, - increased serum calcium, - normal alkaline phosphatase. - Urine: Bence Jones proteins are found in 30% of cases. | Medicine | null | Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of multiple myeloma?
A. Increased Ig levels in serum
B. Positive ANA
C. Plasmacytosis
D. M spike on electrophoresis
| Positive ANA |
65639a35-9603-40ce-9584-aaf1f53c71d4 | Ans: D. Dexmedetomidine(Ref KDT 7/e p384; Katzung 13/e p I 45, 12/e p445)This case patient has bradycardia & hypotension.Hence, Dexmedetomidine is contraindicated in hypovolemia, hypotension, hea block and congestive hea failure.Dexmedetomidine - Side effects:Similar to those with clonidine (hypotension, bradycardia & dry mouth ).Contraindications:Hypovolemia.HypotensionHea block.CHF prior to administration. | Anaesthesia | null | A patient with history of coronary aery disease presents with pulse rate of 48/min and low BP. Patient has decreased myocardial contractility on Echo. Which of these anesthetic agents is contraindicated?
A. Fentanyl
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
D. Dexmedetomidine
| Dexmedetomidine |
c0bb09db-0721-44e8-85a9-9adefcf98f25 | Ans:. A. Greater auricular nerve (Ref Gray's 41/e p627, 40/e p620)Greater auricular nerve supplies ear lobule.Sensory nerves of ear:Great auricular nerve - Supplies most of cranial surface & posterior pa of lateral surface (helix, antihelix, lobule).Lesser occipital nerve - Supplies upper pa of cranial surface.Auricular branch of vagus - Supplies concavity of concha & posterior pa of eminentia.Auriculotemporal nerve - Supplies tragus, crus of helix & adjacent pa of helix.Facial nerve + auricular branch of vagus - Supplies small areas on both aspects of auricle, concha depression & its eminence. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following nerves supplies the ear lobule?
A. Greater auricular nerve
B. Lesser occipital nerve
C. Facial nerve d
D. Auriculotemporal nerve
| Greater auricular nerve |
9859d4a2-274f-47eb-b20f-ca5309440793 | Answer- B. Septicemic shockSepticemia is mainly due to endotoxin like activity as seen in Gram-negative bacilli and not due to exotoxin. Clinically, Staphylococcus aureus sepsis presents like that documented for sepsis due to other bacteria. Septicemic shock is not directly caused due to toxins and other virulence factors play a role like protein A, fibrinolysin and coagulase, which are anti-phagocytic, suppress host immunity and helps in the spread of infection. Septicemia is mainly due to endotoxin tike activity as seen in Gram-negative bacilli and not due to exotoxin. S.aureus produces free types of toxin: cytotoxins, pyrogenic toxin superantigens, and exfoliative toxins. Both epidemiologic data and studies in animals suggest that antitoxin antibodies are protective against illness in TSS' staphylococcal food poisoning, and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS). Illness develops after toxin synthesis and absorption and the subsequent toxin-initiated host response | Microbiology | null | Disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus which is not mediated through a toxin is
A. Food poisoning
B. Septicemic shock
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
| Septicemic shock |
5603de35-adb1-4612-a9ea-1e719e1aa879 | Answer- B. Fat embolism"Fat embolism is a common phenomenon following limb fractures. Circulating fat globules larger than 10 pm in diameter occur in most edults after closed fractures of long bones and histological traces of fat can be found in the lungs and other internal organs. | Medicine | null | A patient had a femur fracture for which internal fixation was done. Two days later, the patient developed sudden onset shoness of breath with low-grade fever. What is the likely cause?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Fat embolism
C. Pleural effusion
D. Congestive hea failure
| Fat embolism |
a9210029-3bfe-4b2f-8e44-894e87e368d0 | Ans: C. ThyroxineRef Ganong 25/e p300, 24Ie p300; Harper 30Ie p501).Thyroxine is a lipophilic hormone that acts on nuclear receptor.Steroids and thyroid hormones are distinguished by their predominantly intracellular sites of action, since they can diffuse freely through the cell membrane.They bind to a family of largely cytoplasmic proteins known as nuclear receptors.Upon ligand binding, the receptor-ligand complex translocates to the nucleus where it either homodimerizes, or associates with a distinct liganded nuclear receptor to form a heterodimer.In either case, the dieter binds to DNA to either increase or decrease gene transcription in the target tissue. | Physiology | null | Localization of the receptor of a hormone Xis found to be in the nucleus. What is likely to be X?
A. Adrenaline
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. FSH
| Thyroxine |
26b5fd02-126f-4f69-869a-7af4865074b9 | Ans: D.+85 mV(Ref Ganong 25/e p204, 24/e p203; Guyton I 3/e p677)Endocochlear potential:Cells in stria vascularis have a high concentration of Na, K ATPase.Exists all time between endolymph & perilymph.Positivity inside scala media & negativity outside.This is called endocochlear potential.Generated by continual secretion of positive potassium ions into scala media by stria vascularis.Normal: +85 mV | Physiology | null | Endo-cochlear potential is:
A. +45 mV
B. --45mV
C. -60mV
D. +85 mV
| +85 mV |
91b8c11b-1fd3-40dc-9660-5756b52296ed | Answer- B. To determine outliarsDixon's Q test, or simply the Q test, is used for identification and rejection of outliers.In statistics, an outlier is an observation point that is distant from other observations.An outlier may be due to variability in the measurement or it may indicate experimental errorOutliers can occur by chance in any distribution, but they are often indicative either of measurement error or that the population has a heavy-tailed distribution.This test should be applied sparingly and never more than once to a single data set. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Statistical `Q' test is used for:
A. Comparing the propoion of means of 2 groups
B. To determine outliars
C. To determine normality distribution
D. Comparing the propoion of means of more than 2 groups
| To determine outliars |
d84a0b3e-1f4c-4c23-a0a1-811a66c6bdbd | Answer- B. PCNLPCNL is the best answer as the patient has hydronephrosis and in an obstructed system ESWL is not useful as stone fragments don't get cleared. | Surgery | null | Treatment of choice in a patient with a staghorn calculus with mild hydronephrosis?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL
C. RIRS
D. Open surgery
| PCNL |
8654832a-f650-4836-82ba-cc59f14e1bb9 | Answer: a. Sodium and potassium increases, calcium increases (1(e j..Ciuodnian unman iLe pod,* Urinary sodium, potassium and calcium increase in the first 24 hours of thiazide administration.* The acute effects of thiazide on Ca" excretion is variable:* It has been seen in various trials that urinary excretion increases in the initial stages of thiazide diuretic therapy. When administered chronically, thiazide diuretics decrease Ca" excretion. | Pharmacology | null | A 35-year-old male is put on thiazides for the treatment of primary hypeension. What would be the status of his urinary sodium, potassium and calcium in the first 24-hours of drug administration?
A. Sodium and potassium increases, calcium increases
B. Sodium and potassium decreases, calcium decreases
C. Sodium and calcium increases, potassium decreases
D. Potassium and calcium increases sodium decreases
| Sodium and potassium increases, calcium increases |
dc918205-fb3a-42a9-805e-ec2c3e1c7352 | Answer- C (Renal cell carcinoma)MC type of RCC, mainly sporadica.Spread:Characteristic feature of RCC is tendency to invade renal vein. Fuher extension produces a continuous cord of tumor in IVC and even in right side of hea.MC route is hematogenousMC sites of distant metastasis are lungs (cannon ball deposits and pulsating secondaries) Q> bone> liver> brain.Lymphatic spread occurs when tumor extends beyond renal capsule.Response to biological response modifiers (IL-2 and lFN-alpha)MC and consistent presentation is hematuriaClassical triad of gross hematuria, abdominal mass and pain is seen in 10% cases | Surgery | null | A 49 years old male with 35 pack years presented with painless mass in left scrotal sac and microscopic hematuria. On laboratory investigation, Alphafetoprotein and lactate dehydrogenase was negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Epididymitis
B. Seminoma
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Carcinoma lung
| Renal cell carcinoma |
8d780a43-0b60-45e8-b1d9-acc9f236f99b | Ans: A. ScapulaBrown fat:More abundant in infants but also in adults.Location:Between scapulas, at nape of neck, along great vessels in thorax and abdomen & in other scattered locations in body. | Physiology | null | Which of the following site doesn't contain brown adipose tissues?
A. Scapula
B. Subcutaneous tissue
C. Around blood vessel
D. Around adrenal coex
| Scapula |
c35aba8a-eb2e-44e5-8383-5b92cce06d2c | Complex partial seizures (CPS, temporal lobe epilepsy, psychomotor): attacks of bizarre and confused behaviour dream-like state and purposeless movements, or even walking, unaware emotional changes lasting 1-2 min along with impairment of consciousness. The patient has no recollection of the attack. An aura often precedes. The seizure focus is located in the temporal lobe.
Phenobarbitone was the first efficacious anti-epileptic introduced in 1912.
Primidone A deoxybarbiturate, which is converted by liver to phenobarbitone and phenylethyl malonamide (PEMA). Its antiepileptic activity is mainly due to these active metabolites because t1/2 of primidone (6-14 hr) is less than that of its active metabolites. About 1/3 primidone is excreted unchanged by kidney. Dose to dose primidone is less potent, but antiepileptic efficacy is similar to phenobarbitone. It is seldom used now in GTGC and partial epilepsy, mainly as an adjuvant to phenytoin or carbamazepine.
Adverse effects are similar to phenobarbitone. In addition, anemia, leukopenia, psychotic reaction and lymph node enlargement occur rarely.
Dose: Start with 250 mg OD, then 250-500 mg BD, children 10-20 mg/kg/day.
MYSOLINE 250 mg tab.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 438,443 | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs is least efficacious in the treatment of temporal lobe epilepsy?
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Phenytoin sodium
C. Primidone
D. Carbamazepine
| Primidone |
6c9b338a-0cc7-4a30-88a3-e79c0248e488 | Ans: B. Chronic hepatitis recovery stateFrom the given serology profile and table given below it is clear that the patient has had hepatitis B infection in the remote past or is a low-level Hepatitis B carrier.Commonly Encountered Serologic Patterns of Hepatitis B InfectionHBsAgAnti-HBsAnti-HBcHBeAgAnti-HBeInterpretation+-IgM+-Acute hepatitis B, high infectivity+-IgG+-Chronic hepatitis B, high infectivitydeg+-IgG-+Late acute or chronic hepatitis B, low infectivitydegHBeAg-negative ('precoremutant') hepatitis B (chronic or rarely acute)++++1-+1-HBsAg of one subtype and heterotypic anti-HBs (common)Process of seroconversion from HBsAg to anti-HBs (rare)--IgM+/-+/-Acute hepatitis BdegAnti-HBc `window'0--IgG-+/-Low-level hepatitis B carrierdegHepatitis B in remote pastdeg-+IgG-+/-Recovery from hepatitis Bdeg-+---Immunization with HBsAg (after vaccination)Hepatitis B in the remote past (?)False-positive | Medicine | null | Serology profile done for a patient is mentioned below. What is the likely cause of the abnormal findings:HbsAg-Non-reactiveHBV DNA-UndetectableHbeAg-Non-reactiveIgG Anti-HbC-Reactive
A. Chronic hepatitis inactive state
B. Chronic hepatitis recovery state
C. Pre-core mutant infection
D. Window period
| Chronic hepatitis recovery state |
ed8f7e06-e5bb-4a64-aafa-97c1e56fc1fd | Answer- B. ProteinMaximum thermic effect off is seen with proteins (20-30%) >carbohydrates (5-6%) > fat (2.5-4%). | Biochemistry | null | Maximum thermic effect of food is seen with
A. Carbohydrates
B. Protein
C. Fat
D. Not dependent on macronutrients
| Protein |
4bab5fce-dd4d-4196-906d-11354ffa1c8d | Risk factors for head and neck cancer Tobacco Alcohol Prolonged sun exposure Viruses (HPV) & (EBV) Gender M>F, age > 40yrs Poor oral / dental hygiene; betel nut consumption Environmental or occupational factors Poor nutrition - vitamin A & B deficiency, iron deficiency In question they have mentioned vitamin A NOT vitamin A deficiency | ENT | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following is not a cause of Squamous cell Carcinoma for Head & Neck:
A. EBV
B. HPV
C. Betel Nut
D. Vitamin A
| Vitamin A |
080ecd84-88cb-49eb-a9f5-03569b7fa1f0 | As leucocytes are present in stools so it is inflammatory type of diarrhea. So the likely organism is Entamoeba As Staph and C. perfringens are responsible for water diarrhea (non-inflammatory diarrhea) Giardia cause malabsorption syndrome. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2018 | Episodes of repeated thin stools with mucus, subjective feeling of fever and lower abdominal pain, with leukocytes in stool. Which of the following is likely?
A. Giardia
B. Entamoeba
C. Staph
D. Clostridium perfringens
| Entamoeba |
e17d01d1-5fff-4b7c-b54f-c607da6a8a64 | Growth of the nasal bone is complete at about age 10. Growth thereafter is only of the nasal cartilage and soft tissues, both of which undergo a considerable adolescent spurt. The result is that the nose becomes much more prominent at adolescence, specially in boys.
Ref: Proffit 6th ed page no 37 | Dental | null | Growth of nasal bone is completed by:
A. 10 years
B. 11 years
C. 13 years
D. 7 years
| 10 years |
d3a7afa0-b887-4c0b-a244-6c41e2f62ee4 | The cervical vertebrae are identified by the presence of foramen transversarium in the transverse process.
This is an unique identification feature of cervical vertebrae, and is not present in thoracic and lumbar vertebra. | Anatomy | null | The typical cervical differs from thoracic vertebra in that it
A. Has a triangular body
B. Has a foramen transversarium
C. Superior articular facet directed backwards and upwards
D. Has a large vertebral body
| Has a foramen transversarium |
06bece2b-7071-448b-8681-a396bcf4c0f5 | Carbon is often added to the powder to produce clean castings and facilitate the divesting of the casting from the investment mold. This addition is appropriate when the casting alloy is gold, but there is disagreement regarding the effects of carbon in phosphate investments used for casting silver-palladium alloys, palladium-silver alloys, or base metal alloys. It is believed that carbon can embrittle the alloys, even though the investment is heated to temperatures that burn out the carbon. Some evidence indicates that palladium reacts with carbon at temperatures above 1504 °C. Thus, if the casting temperature of an alloy with high palladium content exceeds this critical point, a phosphate investment without carbon should be used.
Ref: Phillip’s 12th edition page 208 | Dental | null | Phosphate bonded investment should be completely carbon free, otherwise:
A. Investment chips off when molten metal enters the mold space
B. Black castings
C. Carbon makes the casting brittle
D. Smooth casting
| Carbon makes the casting brittle |
c03c5c4d-5433-4515-a343-12c7f0ea1e07 | By convention, the distance from the X-ray source to the subject's midsagittal plane is 5 feet.
Contemporary Orthodontics, William Proffit, 6th ed, pg-174 | Radiology | null | In cephalometric radiography, the distance between the subject and the source of X-ray is
A. 2 feet
B. 48 inches
C. 4.8 metres
D. 5 feet
| 5 feet |
ca0d1703-5a38-474d-bb6b-d6f69f7a7db6 | Ans. B i.e. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathyDiabetic retinopathyFundus examination in DM:- NIDDM: As early as possible- IDDM: 5 years after diagnosis of DMIncidence of diabetic retinopathy increases with disease duration | Ophthalmology | null | Capillary microaneurysms is an earliest sign of:March 2013
A. Vitreous hemorrhage
B. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Trauma
D. Hypeensive retinopathy
| Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy |
0009b2fd-7e72-4ed0-b486-92ccb24e43f3 | Interpretation of common serological patterns in HBV infection Virus / Antibody markers Interpretation HBsAg HBeAg Anti - HBc Anti - HBs Anti - HBe + + IgM - - Acute HBV infection, highly infectious + + IgG - - Late/chronic HBV infection or carrier state: highly infectious + - IgG - +/- Late /chronic HBV infection or carrier state; low infectivity - +/- IgM - +/- Seen rarely in early acute HBV infection; infectious - - IgG +/- +/- Remote HBV infection; infectivity nil or very low - - - + - Immunity following HBV vaccine | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following marker persists in chronic hepatitis and recurrent hepatitis?
A. IgG Anti HbcAg
B. HBsAg
C. IgG Anti HBsAG
D. Anti Hbs
| IgG Anti HbcAg |
afa56a9e-0043-49c0-b1e3-36bbdf3c9571 | M/C cause of loss of vision in a diabetic = CYSTOID MACULAR EDEMA. PETALLOID APPERENCE | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2019 | A patient with hypeension and diabetes presents with blurred vision. Fluorescein angiography shows
A. Macular edema
B. Sub macular edema
C. Papilledema
D. Pre macular hemorrhage
| Macular edema |
f7aaa747-4b20-4034-b4dd-3aa8b964327a | Ans. A. Basal Cell CarcinomaRef: Robbins & Cotran, 9'' ed., pg. I155-l I 57Basal cell carcinoma is a locally aggressive cutaneous tumor.The rest of three tumors in the options have more tendency for lymphatic spread compared to BCC. | Pathology | null | Which of the following malignancy is least commonly associated with lymphatic spread ?
A. Basal Cell Carcinoma
B. Squamous cell Carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Merkel cell Carcinoma
| Basal Cell Carcinoma |
ec80b06d-855f-41f7-82cf-8aa8d8ec9571 | Numerical classification of sensory nerve fibers: | Physiology | null | Group 2 sensory fibres are attached to:
A. Annulospiral ending
B. Golgi tendon
C. Flower spray ending
D. Pacinian corpuscle
| Flower spray ending |
2bd3f36b-ca4b-4aaf-80ed-433c884e740c | The sclera (skleros=hard) is opaque and forms the posterior five-sixths of the eyeball. It is composed of dense fibrous tissue which is firm and maintains the shape of the eyeball. It is thickest behind, near the entrance of the optic nerve, and thinnest about 6 mm behind the sclerocorneal junction where the recti muscles are inserted. However, it is weakest at the entrance of the optic nerve. Here the sclera shows numerous perforations for passage of fibres of the optic nerve. Because of its sieve-like appearance this region is called the lamina cribrosa (crib=sieve). | Anatomy | null | Lamina cribrosa is a modification of :
A. Sclera
B. Choroid
C. Optic nerve sheath
D. Retina
| Sclera |
4bed11d9-70fd-4592-941c-6ba056318752 | MgO added in alginate powder leads to improve its surface character mainly as well as it increased tensile strength, hardness of model, elastic modulus & Improved thermal stability. | Dental | null | Mgo added to alginate power to modify which property:
A. Increases surface character.
B. Increases shelf life.
C. Increases shear and tear strength.
D. Improve strength.
| Increases surface character. |
a1fa0704-7aab-4226-990d-5790d34c5d27 | Ans. D-First line defense against bacterial peptides(gd) T cell: Gamma delta (gd) T cells have a TCR that is made up of one g (gamma) chain and one d (delta) chain.This group of T cells is usually much less common than ab T cells, but are at their highest abundance in the gut mucosa, within a population of lymphocytes known as intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs).Constitute 5% of total cells, express y/6 chains of TCR chains; instead of ?/b chains.They lack both CD4 and CD8 molecules.They do not require antigen processing and MHC presentation of peptides.They lack both CD4 and CD8 molecules.They do not require antigen processing and MHC presentation of peptides.They are pa of innate immunity as the(gd) receptors exhibit limited diversity for the antigen.They are usually found in the gut mucosa, as intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs).The function of (gd) T-cells is not known, they may encounter the lipid antigens that enter through the intestinal mucosa. | Microbiology | null | (gd) T cell is associated with?
A. CD4
B. CD5
C. Cd8
D. First line defense against bacterial peptides
| First line defense against bacterial peptides |
f6a4c53d-ea90-441f-891d-3f23344c6775 | Ans: A. Palmar interosseiNerveTestTestMuscleUlnar nerveBook testAdductor pollicis Card testPalmar interossei Froment's signFlexor pollicis substitutes for adduc?tor pollicis | Anatomy | null | Card test is done for which of the following muscle?
A. Palmar interossei
B. Dorsal interossei
C. Lumbricals
D. Adductor pollicis
| Palmar interossei |
f5cd69ed-816c-4f6b-99cf-4cb41bce9f55 | Tennis ball appearance of ascending aoa is feature of Aoic dissection. - Type A Rx- Surgical Repair Extra - mile Type B Aoic dissection Type B aoic dissections involve transverse and/or descending aoa. For uncomplicated/ stable distal lesions and intramural type B hematomas medical therapy is preferred. For complicated type B surgical correction is indicated. | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | A 50 year male presented with high BP of 160/100 mm Hg and hea rate of 120/min. CECT is shown below. Which is best management of this condition?
A. Surgical repair
B. LMW heparin
C. Beta blocker
D. Vitamin K inhibitors
| Surgical repair |
3c0e960b-7757-45aa-a7e9-98c238eed3e7 | The zygomatic bone usually fractures in the region of the zygomaticofrontal suture, the zygomaticotemporal suture and the zygomaticomaxillary suture. It is unusual for the zygomatic bone itself to be fractured, but in extreme violence, the bone may be comminuted or split across. Most common site of zygomatic arch fracture is posterior to Zygomaticotemporal suture.
The isolated zygomatic arch fracture may occur without displacement of the zygomatic bone.
Ref: Oral and maxillofacial surgery , Neelima Anil Malik 4th ed page no 534 | Surgery | null | Most common site of zygomatic arch fracture is:
A. Anterior to Zygomaticotemporal suture
B. Posterior to Zygomaticotemporal suture
C. Zygomaticotemporal suture
D. No specific location
| Posterior to Zygomaticotemporal suture |
734e0bc2-f9d4-4ae2-a7f5-eae1c1500352 | Ans: B. Helsinki declaration(Ref: Reddy 34/e p600, 33/e p26, 400, 647; Parikh 6/e p1.26)Helsinki declaration governs biomedical research in human subjects.The declaration of Helsinki is a set of ethical principles regarding human experimentation developed for the medical community by the World Medical Association.It is widely regarded as the cornerstone document on human research ethics. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which of the following principles governs biomedical research in human subjects?
A. Geneva declaration
B. Helsinki declaration
C. Hippocratic oath
D. International code of medical ethics
| Helsinki declaration |
58e40694-1799-476f-8618-af488bda8892 | Answer- A. Chlamydia trachomatisChlamydia trachomatis: Of newborns infected by the mother, 10-20% may develop respiratory tract involvement 2-12 weeks after bih, culminating in pneumonia.Affected newborns have nasal obstruction or discharge, striking tachypnea, a characteristic paroxysmal staccato cough, an absence of fever, and eosinophilia. Interstitial infiltrates and hyperinflation can be seen on radiographs. The diagnosis should be suspected if pneumonitis develops in a newborn who has inclusion conjunctivitis and can be established by isolation of C. trachomatis from respiratory secretions. | Microbiology | null | A 2 weeks old infant has conjunctivitis, which later developed into respiratory distress and pneumonia. Chest X-ray showed bilateral lung infiltrates. WBC count was 14,300/dL. Which of the following is the most likely organism?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Gonococcus
D. Haemophilus influenzae
| Chlamydia trachomatis |
22ab08db-3408-4b27-8a6c-3da3985f71b9 | Ans: B. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyteDuring spermatogenesis - Independent assoment of paternal & maternal chromosomes occurs during meiosis I.Also, primary spermatocyte (2n) is conveed into two secondary spermatocytes. | Anatomy | null | Independent assoment of maternal and paternal chromosome occurs at which stage of spermatocyte maturation:
A. Spermatogonia to primary spermatocyte
B. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
C. Secondary spermatocyte to spermatids
D. Spermatid to spermatozoa
| Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte |
da70d380-7647-4452-8dbb-ade1663b6d5b | Aldosterone is majorly regulated by K+ & plasma volume The following factors play essential roles in aldosterone regulation: 1. | K+ concentration in ECF - | Aldosterone 2. | Angiotensin concentration in ECF - | Aldosterone3. | Na++ in ECF - decreases aldosterone very slightly4. ACTH from anterior pituitary - necessary for aldosterone sec but has little effect on controlling the rate of secretion in most physiological conditions. ACTH appears to play a permissive role in regulation of aldosterone of these, K+ ion conc. & RAAS are the most potent in regulating aldosterone secretion. Regulated by Hormone TSH Thyroid FSH Estrogen ACTH Glucocoicoids | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | A 36 year old female is found to have a large pituitary mass on MRI imaging. She underwent transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Postop replacement of which of the following hormone is not needed?
A. L-Thyroxine
B. Estradiol
C. Glucocoicoids
D. Mineralocoicoids
| Mineralocoicoids |
4a5c465a-979c-468e-a5c8-286d987f9d4d | Ans. A. ThyroxineIntracellular receptors are transcription factors that have binding sites for the hormone (ligand) and for DNA and function as ligand (hormone)-regulated transcription factors.Steroid hormones and the steroid derivative vitamin D3 fulfill this requirement.Thyroid hormones must be actively transpoed into the cell. | Physiology | null | Which hormone act by crossing cell membrane -
A. Thyroxine
B. Insulin
C. Glucagon
D. Calcitonin
| Thyroxine |
e995894b-0611-4ae2-ae1f-0d35025845ae | Ans. A. Chlohalidone Thiazide diuretics are inexpensive, are generally well tolerated, and are recommended as a first-line therapy in the treatment of hypeension in the elderly population.Thiazide diuretics are as effective as any drug for first-line treatment of hypeension in the elderly population is the Antihypeensive and Lipid-Lowering Treatment to Prevent Hea Attack Trial (ALLHAT) study.Patients who received the diuretic had a lower incidence of CV events (secondary outcomes) compared with the other groups. The diuretic treatment group had lower HF rates compared with the CCB group | Pharmacology | null | Preferred drug for the treatment of uncomplicated grade 2 hypeension in a 48 year old man is
A. Chlohalidone
B. Triamterene
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide
| Chlohalidone |
40e0568c-ca1b-4f22-8610-fb17eab30ede | Ans: A. Circumferential(Ref Sahiston and Spencer's Surge, of Chest 8/chapter 7)Circumferential incision: generally taken for diaphragmatic surgery.Circumferential incisions:In periphery regions - Result in little loss of function.Must be at least 5 cm lateral to edge of central tendon.To avoid posterolateral & anterolateral branches of phrenic nerve.Difficult to correctly realign after long operation.Placement of surgical clips on each side of muscular incision greatly facilitates correct spatial orientation on closing. | Surgery | null | Which is the best incision preferred for diaphragmatic surgery?(AIIMS May 2015, May 2014)
A. Circumferential
B. Radial
C. Veical
D. Transverse
| Circumferential |
dec39d56-fcb3-4cf1-8e83-e09a09a8ce6e | Cysteine electrolyte deficient agar (CLED) is a non-selective media and it stimulates the growth of Staphylococcus and Candida whereas Mac Conkey agar is a selective media. Both CLED and MAC Conkey Agar inhibits the swarming of proteus and differentiate between lactose fermenter and non-lactose fermenter. Both use sodium Taurocholate as a selective agent and so first option is a better option. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | CLED media better than Macconkey media
A. It stimulates growth of Staph and Candida as it is non selective
B. Inhibits swarming of proteus
C. Differentiates between Lactose fermenter and non-lactose fermenters
D. Sodium taurocholate is used as selective agent.
| It stimulates growth of Staph and Candida as it is non selective |
b98c9b26-1cf3-4d2f-80e5-ba589c91b94f | Answer- A (Transcranial ultrasound)`Cranial ultrasonouraphy is the main imagine modality of premature neonates and well suited for the study of neonates in general. | Pediatrics | null | A 2-day-old neonate in the neonatal ICU develops seizures. Which of the following would be the next best investigation for the child?
A. Transcranial ultrasound
B. CT Head
C. MRI brain
D. X-ray
| Transcranial ultrasound |
a022212e-e91a-4bb5-b6ff-b1fb57ff48e0 | Abnormal posturing - Metoclopramide (repeated or large dose) | Decrease dopamine level in brain | Extrapyramidal manifestation- acute dystonia | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | A medical student presented to the ED with protracted vomiting. For this he was given and anti-emetic drug following which he developed abnormal posturing. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be given to the patient?
A. Metoclopramdie
B. Ondansetron
C. Domperidone
D. Dexamethasone
| Metoclopramdie |
dc1b8f32-3a71-4533-9e99-896ba280e5cf | Answer-b. Hepatocyte nuclear factor-1 Maturity onset Diabetes in Young (MODY) TypesMODY-1HNF-4 alphaMODY-2GlucokinaseMODY-3HNF-1 alpha (most common)MODY-4IPF-1MODY-5HNF-1 betaMODY-6NeuroD1/beta2 | Medicine | null | The genetic mutation seen in the most common type of maturity onset diabetes of young (MOM') is:
A. Hepatocyte nuclear factor-4
B. Hepatocyte nuclear factor-1
C. Glucokinase
D. Insulin promoter factor-1
| Hepatocyte nuclear factor-1 |
f4adbaa0-775b-4ef4-89e6-5f8b8290d6d9 | "Retinoblastoma is the most strking example of inhirited cancer syndrome. Approximately 40% of retinoblastomas are familial. Carrier of this gene have a 10000 fold increased risk of developing retinoblastoma usualy bilateral".
Each child of parent with familial bilateral retinoblastoam has a 50% risk of inheriting the retinoblastoma gene, of these 90% will develop retinoblastoma. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is the most common inherited malignancy :
A. Infant leukemia
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Wilm's tumour
D. Neuroblastoma
| Retinoblastoma |
2c37d934-7b5e-4e0d-9b34-55ae75466301 | Answer- CStructures removed during radical neck dissection-The classic operation involves resection of the cervical lymphatics and lymph nodes and those structures closely associated:the internal jugular vein,the accessory nerve,the submandibular gland, andthe sternocleidomastoid muscle. | Surgery | null | Which of the following structure is not removed in radical neck dissection-
A. Spinal accessory nerve
B. Submandibular
C. Tail of parotid
D. Level 2 b lymph nodes
| Tail of parotid |
0dd771c5-9284-4e46-abf0-da8618b12985 | Ans: B. LeptinRef: Ganong 25/e p397, 24/e p399; Knobil and Neill's Physiology of Reproduction 2014/p1607; Novaks 13/e p410).Leptin has a permissive action at the onset of pubey. | Physiology | null | Which of the following hormones has a permissive action at the onset of pubey?
A. Insulin
B. Leptin
C. GnRH
D. Growth hormone
| Leptin |
3aff7082-0082-4114-a47b-d68bf127c263 | Answer-C. Ganglion cellsGlaucoma, the second leading cause of blindness, is characterized by changes in the optic disc and visual field defects'.The elevated intraocular pressure was considered the prime factor responsible for the glaucomatous optic neuropathy involving death of retinal ganglion cells and their axons.Glaucoma, a leading cause of irreversible visual loss, is characterized by loss of retinal ganglion cells (RGC) and their axons over a period of many years.Mainly the ganglions cells are affected in glaucoma patients, which may lead to glaucomatus optic atrophy' | Ophthalmology | null | Cells most commonly affected in glaucomatous optic atrophy?
A. Amacrine cells
B. Bipolar cells
C. Ganglion cells
D. Rods and cones
| Ganglion cells |
9c2050d1-8db5-4ef7-835c-d7cb5bb52198 | In case of herpes infection transplacental infection is not common, instead the fetus becomes affected by virus shed from the cervix or lower genital tract during vaginal delivery.
Baby may sometimes be affected in utero from contaminated liquor following rupture of membranes. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Transmission of herpes is maximum in-
A. IInd trimester
B. IIIrd trimester
C. During parturition
D. 1st trimester
| During parturition |
b1cb5022-7ebd-41b5-808c-c969958bfb62 | Schedule H: Drugs which can be sold only with prescription. On the strip of drug a long red line is present. Rx is written on the top right corner. NRx- is written on Narcotic (habit forming) drugs. XRx- not available for general market, only given under special conditions where health care provider can give the drug. OTC- Over The Counter drugs can be given without prescription. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following drug must be sold by retail only on production of a prescription by a registered medical practitioner?
A. Schedule H
B. Schedule G
C. Schedule X
D. Schedule M
| Schedule H |
04f192d7-760b-468b-a895-658b0efeb566 | Auditory neural pathway. From below upwards are ( Mnemonic - E. COLI-MA) E - Eighth nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve) C - Cochlear nucleus (spiral ganglion) O - Superior Olivary complex (opposite) L - Lateral lemniscus (largest) I - Inferior colliculus M - Medial geniculate body A - Auditory coex E - 8th nerve COLI - Brainstem MA - Cerebrum Crossing over phenomenon takes places at Superior Olivary complex | ENT | AIIMS 2019 | Arrange the sequence of auditory pathway from peripheral to central: Inferior colliculus Cochlear nucleus Auditory coex Medial geniculate body
A. B>A>D>C
B. B>D>C>A
C. A>D>B>C
D. C>A>B>D
| B>A>D>C |
79e1618e-0e20-40ba-b104-8397f32985cc | Ans: B. Vitamin 82Ref: Harper's illustrated biochemistry, 3Oh ed., pg. 556Deficiency of riboflavin (vitamin B2) is characterized by cheilosis, desquamation and inflammation of the tongue, and a seborrheic dermatitis. | Biochemistry | null | A Middle aged woman presents with fissures in mouth, tingling sensation and peripheral neuropathy. Investigations showed reduced glutathione reductase activity. which vitamin deficiency is the likely cause of this?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin 82
C. Vitamin 86
D. Vitamin B l2
| Vitamin 82 |
22e9f959-2d98-46de-b35c-601974f8d014 | Answer- B. Rectal* Normal body core temperature ranges from about 98 F to 100 F (36.6 C to 37.7 C); core temperature is best measured by a rectal thermometer. | Surgery | null | A Jawan posted in Siachen was brought to the emergency depament with hypothermia. Which is the ideal site to measure his temperature?
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Armpit
| Rectal |
d95f1158-fa4b-4229-98c5-40f4dc2bacec | Ans: A. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis(Ref. Nelson 20/e p852, 2119)Suggestive of neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis.Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis:Disorder characterized by intra-alveolar accumulation of pulmonary surfactant.Two clinically distinct forms of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis are seen:Fatal form: Presenting sholy after bih (congenital PAP)Gradually progressive form: Presenting in older infants & children.Clinical manifestation:Immediately apparent in the newborn period & rapidly leads to respiratory failure.Clinically and radiographically indistinguishable from more common disorders of the newborn that lead to respiratory failure including pneumonia, generalized bacterial infection, respiratory distress syndrome and total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction. | Pediatrics | null | A 3.5 kg male infant born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery develops respiratory distress sholy after bih and requires mechanical ventilation. The chest radiograph reveals a normal cardiothymic silhouette but a diffuse ground glass appearance to the lung fields. Surfactant replacement fails to improve gas exchange. Over the first week life, the hypoxemia worsens. Results of routing culture and echocardiographic findings are negative. A term female sibling died at 1 month of age with respiratory distress. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
B. Meconium aspiration
C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
D. Disseminated herpes simplex infection
| Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis |
f87f2d68-4192-4a90-9df8-16057f7edbf3 | As per ACOG and RCOG guidelines, there is no particular drug of choice for epilepsy in pregnancy
Valproate increases chances of birth defects much more than phenytoin, carbamazepine or phenobarbitone and hence if valproate is being used, it should be substituted by a lesser teratogenic drug.
Now in this question:
A 26-year-old primigravida with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy who has been using valproic acid comes to you at fourth month of pregnancy for advice.
Logically speaking if patient has myoclonic epilepsy in non pregnant states-DOC is valproic acid —Harrsion 18/e, p 3266 or lamotrigine, so her physician must have prescribed valproic acid to her. Ideally valproic acid should not be used during pregnancy as it is associated with a high risk of congenital malformations in the fetus. So if this patient would have come in the first trimester, I would have substituted it with some other antiepileptic drug like lamotrigine. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 26-year-old primigravida with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy comes to you at 4 months with concern regarding continuing sodium-valproate treatment. Your advice is:
A. Add lamotrigine to sodium valproate
B. Taper sodium valproate and add lamotrigine
C. Switch on to carbamazepine
D. Continue sodium valproate with regular monitoring of serum levels
| Continue sodium valproate with regular monitoring of serum levels |
747359d5-2ce7-439e-b229-d04381853421 | Ans: B. Metabolic acidosis(Ref: Harrison 19/e p317, 18Ie p365)In the question, pH is decreased (acidosis) & pCO, is decreased (Normal= 40-45 mm Hg).A decreased pCO2 will try to increase pH, hence it must be secondary compensating mechanism.So, the primary mechanism causing the acid base imbalance must be a decrease in serum bicarbonate concentration i.e. metabolic acidosis. | Medicine | null | On laboratory investigations in a patient. pH = 7.3, pCO2 = 35 mm Hg. What is the likely acid base imbalance?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
| Metabolic acidosis |
33f854bc-b6ff-43b7-98f2-77128c47ed87 | *Trapezius is triangular muscle present in upper back region. *Attachments & Origin: Origin: Superior nuchal line, external occipital protuberance, ligamentum nuchae, spinous processes of C7-T12 Inseion: Lateral 1/3rd of clavicle, acromion, spine of scapula. Innervation: Motor - Accessory nerve (CN-11) Proprioception - C3, C4. FUNCTION: Assists in laterally rotating scapula during abduction of humerus above horizontal *Upper fibers - Elevation of scapula *Middle fibers - Adduct scapula *Lower fibers - Depress scapula All fibers together rotates scapula laterally so glenoid cavity projects upwards taking humerus upwards. (Overhead Abduction) | Anatomy | AIIMS 2017 | Shape of trapezium muscle is
A. Triangular
B. Quadrilateral
C. Trapezium
D. Quadrangular
| Triangular |
87e68531-25dc-4647-a84c-28b40279d8fe | Mitochondrial inheritance- an affected female passes disease to all her offspring but the affected male can not. Because mitochondrial dna is present in cytoplasm, the child receives cytoplasm and mitochondria of the mother's ovum. Diseases of mitochondrial inheritance- Kearn sayre syndrome Leber hereditary optic neuropathy MELAS (Mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, stroke like syndrome) MERRF (myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres) NARP ( neuropathy ataxia retinitis pigmentosa) CPEO (Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia) Pearson syndrome. | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2019 | An affected male does not have affected children but an affected female always has affected children. Type of inheritance?
A. X linked recessive
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X linked dominant
D. Mitochondrial
| Mitochondrial |
97648c60-2ed9-4c8e-9142-48806639731a | Amnesia is the most common side effect of ECT. Both retrograde and anterograde amnesia are seen, however retrograde amnesia is much more common. | Psychiatry | null | Most common complication of ECT is -
A. Antegrade amnesia
B. Retrograde amnesia
C. Psychosis
D. Depression
| Retrograde amnesia |
1609ebf3-8709-4e7f-abac-53de9b01a173 | Signs of severe aortic stenosis
Narrow pulse pressure —> Narrower the pulse pressure, more severe the AS.
Systolic thrill in the second left intercostal space.
Later the peak of ejection systolic murmur, severe the AS.
Parodoxically split S.
Presence of S3 or S4.
ST and T changes on ECG.
Cardiomegaly on x-ray. | Pediatrics | null | What is seen in severe AS –
A. Pulsus bisferiens
B. Late ejection systolic click
C. Heaving shifted apex
D. Loud S2
| Late ejection systolic click |
d9a72083-4c81-425f-b551-6ecc6a63d5b5 | Raynaud's phenomenon is due to intense vasospasm of peripheral arteries that results in change in colour of fingertips as a response to cold or emotion. It is seen in scleroderma and L.E.
One variant of systemic sclerosis is the CREST syndrome, an acronym of the five major findings: calcinosis cutis, Raynaud's phenomenon, oesophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. This form of the disease is sometimes not as severe as the usual systemic type.
Raynaud syndrome. A vascular spasm in response to cooling, seen in the digits in connective tissue disorders. | Pathology | null | If a patient with Raynaud's disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue
| White |
aafbe728-ff78-47ec-8edc-e47e320fc1ba | Ans: A. Nemst equation(Ref Ganong 25/e9, p24/e Guyton 13ze p61).Nernst equation:Calculates potential generated due to movement of freely diffusible ions across a semi-permeable membrane.Describes "relation of diffusion potential to ion concentration difference across a membrane". | Physiology | null | Potential generated due to movement of freely diffusible ions across a semi-permeable membrane is calculated using:
A. Nemst equation
B. Gibbs equation
C. Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation
D. Fick principle
| Nemst equation |
66f9e092-4410-42f2-841c-588c65c9384c | Most satisfying scale for measurement of quantities: Metric scale
– Mean and SD can only be worked out on: Interval/Ratio scale
Measurements are east to handle in: Ratio scale. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Mean and standard deviation can be worked out only if data is on
A. Nominal scale
B. Dichotomous scale
C. Interval/Ratio scale
D. Ordinal scale
| Interval/Ratio scale |
91f22318-7737-491a-8096-d504ac9c8aae | Most satisfying scale for measurement of quantities: Metric scale
– Mean and SD can only be worked out on: Interval/Ratio scale
Measurements are east to handle in: Ratio scale. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Mean and standard deviation can be worked out only if data is on -
A. Interval/Ratio scale
B. Dichotomous scale
C. Nominal scale
D. Ordinal scale
| Interval/Ratio scale |
7aa1a7ca-15d6-42da-88b7-cbd1eefb503c | Most common cause of death in congenital diaphragmatic hernia is Pulmonary complications
2"d most common cause of death in congenital diephragmatic hernia in ---> Intestinal obstruction
Congenital diaphrogmatic hernia
Also known as ochalek hernia.
There is herniation of abdominal contents, i.e. stomach (most of the time), intestine, liver; into thorax through a defect in the diaphragm.
Females are affected more than males
More common on left side and is posterolateral.
Components of CDH are
Herniation of abdominal contents into thorax
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Malrotation of intestine
Associated anomalies may be seen 30% of cases -> CNS lesions, esophageal atresia, omphalocele and CVS lesions.
Most cases are sporadic.
CDH is a reconized part of several chromosomal syndromes ---> Trisomy 21, 18, 13, turner syndrome, Pallister-Killian, Fryn.
Clinical features
CDH may present as
Soon (within 6 hrs) after birth (most of the cases)
or
After neonatal period (small group)
1) Soon after birth
Respiratory distress is a cardinal sign --> presents as tachypnea, grunting, chest retraction, cyanosis.
Scaphoid abdomen
Increased chest wall diameter
Bowel sounds may be heard in the chest with decreased breath sound.
Cardiac impulse is displaced away from the side of hernia.
2) After neonatal period
Vomiting as a result of intestinal obstruction
Mild respiratory symptoms
Occasionally, incarceration of the intestine will proceed to ischemia with sepsis and shock.
Diagnosis
Prenatal ultrasound can diagnose CDH between 16 and 14 wk.
After delivery chest X-ray and nasal gastric tube is all that is usually required to confirm the diagnosis. | Pediatrics | null | The cause of death in congenital diaphragmatic hernia is –
A. Septicaemia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Pulmonary hypoplasia
D. Intestinal obstruction
| Pulmonary hypoplasia |
10baae45-ecc0-4efa-bbb9-cd5b33b79770 | McRoberts’ manoeuvre consists of forcible abduction of patients legs by sharply flexing them on the abdomen.
It is the single most effective manoeuvre and should be the first manoeuvre to be performed in case of shoulder dystocia.
McRobert’s manoeuvre results in straightening of the sacrum relative to the lumbar vertebra along with rotation of symphysis pubis towards the maternal head and it decreases the angle of pelvic inclination.
Sometimes, over zealous use of McRobert’s manoeuvre may result in separation of the maternal pubic symphysis and injury to lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Sudden hyperflexion of thigh over abdomen (Mc Roberts manoeuvre) with of the following nerve is commonly involved?
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Obturator nerve
C. Lumbosacral trunk
D. Lateral cutaneous Nerve of thigh
| Lateral cutaneous Nerve of thigh |
788eb150-1cd1-4895-b929-56ffa68eae61 | Friends, many questions are asked on serum alpha fetoprotein, therefore basic knowledge of this protein is quite vital.
Alpha Fetoprotein:
It is a glycoprotein synthesized by the fetal yolk sac in the early weeks of gestation and by the gastrointestinal tract and liver later.
It is the most abundant protein in the fetal serum.
It circulates in fetal serum and passes into fetal urine and amniotic fluid.
Concentration of AFP increases steadily in fetal serum till 13 weeks, (3 mg/ml) after which the level rapidly decreases throughout the rest of pregnancy.
AFP level in fetal serum declines following birth and by one year of age, its concentration is 1 ng/ml which persists throughout life.
AFP passes from the fetus to amniotic fluid when fetus passes urine.
It passes into the maternal serum by diffusion across the placental membranes and via placental circulation and is found in steadily increasing quantities in maternal serum after 12 weeks.
These are the usual ways of entry of serum alfa fetoprotein in maternal serum but serum alfa fetoprotein can find its way in maternal serum in other ways too.
Open fetal body wall defects uncoverd by integument permit allows additional AFP to leak into the amniotic fluid and thus maternal serum AFP are increased. This is the reason for increase in serum alpha fetoprotein in neural tube defects and ventral wall defects.
Maternal screening is done between 15-20 weeks (according to Williams 23/e, p 289, Fernando Arias 3/e, p 58).
It is measured in nanograms per ml and reported as a multiple of the median (MOM).
MSAFP of 2.5 MOM is considered as the upper limit of normal (for twin pregnancy it is 3.5 MOM).
Now after having this basic knowledge lets have a look at the question.
In the question alpha fetoprotein will be increased in the following conditions.
Gastroschisis – Ventral wall defect
Omphalocele – Ventral wall defect
Spina bifida occulta – Neural tube defect
In Down’s syndrome - AFP levels are decreased.
Spina bifida occulta:
Spina bifida occulta is usually a small, clinically asymptomatic defect, covered by skin, so there are less chances of mixing of fetal serum and maternal serum. Therefore the maternal serum alphafetoprotein level usually does not increase in spina bifida occulta.
“In the fetus with a defect such as anencephaly or spina bifida, AFP enters the amniotic fluid in increased amounts, leading to higher levels in the maternal serum as well. Levels of AFP are elevated in amniotic fluid and maternal serum only when such lesions are “open,” i.e., when the neural tissue is exposed or covered by only a thin membrane. When NTDs are skin-covered, AFP does not escape from the fetal circulation, and such defects are generally not detected by maternal serum AFP (MSAFP) screening”.
USG in Obs. and Gyane by Callen 4/e, p 25
Omphalocele:
Fernando Arias 3/e, p 84
It is a midline defect of the anterior abdominal wall characterized by herniation of the abdominal viscera into the base of the umbilical cord.
The protruding organs are typically covered by a thin aminoperitoneal membrane. Omphalocele has a strong association with high levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein because the ventral wall defect allows mixing of fetal and maternal circulation.
Gastroschisis:
Fernando Arias 2/e, p 83
Gastroschisis is a paraumbilical defect of the anterior abdominal wall, through which abdominal viscera herniates. The defect is usually located on the right side of the cord insertion and compromises the full thickness of the abdominal wall. There is no sac or membrane covering the herniated organs. This defect is associated with high alpha feto protein titre.
Both gastroschisis and omphalocele are ventral wall defects containing abdominal organs and both are associated with high alphafetoprotein level in maternal serum.
But it is likely that alphafetoprotein level will be higher in patients with gastroschisis as there is no sac or membrane which covers the herniated organs in this defect. So there is more possibility of fetoprotein leak into the maternal serum or amniotic fluid in Gastroschisis. The answer is further supported by the following graph from
USG in Obs. and Gynae by Callen 4/e, p 28 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In which of the following conditions would maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein values be the highest:
A. Down's syndrome
B. Omphalocele
C. Gastroschisis
D. Spina bifida occulta
| Gastroschisis |
2e13cc41-3244-4a86-a776-cb24e05b8a91 | Ans. A. By binding with trivalent Fe3+Deferoxamine works in treating iron toxicity by binding trivalent (ferric) iron (for which it has a strong affinity), forming ferrioxamine, a stable complex which is eliminated the kidneys.100 mg of deferoxamine is capable of binding approximately 8.5 mg of trivalent (ferric) iron.Deferoxamine works in treating aluminum toxicity by binding to tissue-bound aluminum to form aluminoxamine, a stable, water-soluble complex.The formation of aluminoxamine increases blood concentrations of aluminum, resulting in an increased concentration gradient between the blood and dialysate, boosting the removal of aluminum during dialysis.100 mg of deferoxamine is capable of binding approximately 4.1 mg of aluminum. | Pharmacology | null | In iron poisoning drug Desferoxamine is given.what is its mechanism of action -
A. By binding with trivalent Fe3+
B. -by inhibiting Hepcidin
C. -by inhibiting DMT1
D. -by inhibiting ferropoin
| By binding with trivalent Fe3+ |
0778d314-486a-4af0-b2bd-cab83e7e2166 | Typical signs of meningitis (Fever, convulsion and neck rigidity) with increased CSF protein and decreased sugar level and decreased chloride level associated with lymphadenopathy suggest the diagnosis of tubercular meningitis. | Pediatrics | null | A 10 year old girl presented with fever convulsions, neck rigidity. CSF findings are protein 150 mg, sugar 40 mg, chloride 2500 mg with lymphadenopathy –
A. Viral meningitis
B. Pyogenic meningitis
C. Cryptococcal meningitis
D. Tuberculous meningitis
| Tuberculous meningitis |
4f3977a7-1243-421b-a401-63aa119c0e66 | Ans: A. Flumazenil(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p468; Kaaung 13/e p3 7 7, 394, 12/e p381, 399; KDT 6/e p385; Harrison 19/e p2727, 8/c 1)2727)Flumazenil:GABAa receptor antagonist.Used intravenously to treat benzodiazepine overdoses.Help reverse anesthesia.Not used in alcohol detoxification.Rest given drugs have a role in alcohol detoxification. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs is not used in detoxifica-tion of chronic alcoholics?
A. Flumazenil
B. Disulfiram
C. Acamprosate
D. Naltrexone
| Flumazenil |
794c0e78-516c-44ae-8eba-768371a3ca6c | Ans: C. 50 minutes(Ref: Yanoff & Duker 4/e p42; Parson 22/e p98, 21/e p98-100)The angular spacing between the bars of the C or E in Snellen's cha is 1 minute for the 6/6 letter (smallest letter).The largest letter on the Snellen's cha is the 6/60 letter.When viewed from a distance of 6 meter, this letter subtends an angle of 50 minutes in the eye and the bars of the letter subtend an angle of 10 minutes. | Ophthalmology | null | What is the angle subtended by the largest letter in the Snellen cha on a person's eye who is reading it from a distance of 6 meters?
A. 1 minute
B. 10 minutes
C. 50 minutes
D. 60 minutes
| 50 minutes |
f6bef1ad-b160-46c2-a5c0-a943ec232347 | Answer- A. Crohn's diseaseThe microscopic features of active Crohn disease include abundant neutrophils that infiltrate and damage crypt epithelium. Clusters of neutraphils within a crypt are referred to as crypt abscesses and are often associated with crypt destruction Ulceration is common in Crohn disease. | Surgery | null | A middle-aged female presented with recurrent bloody diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals multiple geographic ulcers and histopathological examination is shown below. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Crohn's disease
B. Adenocarcinoma colon
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
| Crohn's disease |
01de6945-cd63-4096-9fda-e70148ee977d | Fundic glands (chief cells, parietal & mucous neck cells) are located in body and fundus of stomach. | Physiology | null | Within which parts of a gastric gland are chief cells located
A. Fundus
B. Isthmus
C. Neck
D. Gastric pit
| Fundus |
4eb2c660-2893-450f-957c-536b6a6f9b3d | Feed forward mechanism Feedback mechanism Controller anticipates changes & takes a desired action. No time lag present Examples: - Cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion Increase ventilatory drive in exercise. Change occur in controlled variable & that change is feedback to controller & then the controller takes action Time lag is present. Type: Negative feed back - Kidney body fluid mechanism - Temperature regulation - Baroreceptor mechanism Positive feed back - Circulatory shock - Oxytocin in paurition - Platelet plug / clot formation - LH surge leading to ovulation - Bladder filling to micturition | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Feed forward mechanism..
A. Feeling thirsty while walking in hot temperature
B. Shivering on exposure to cold temperature
C. Salivation on smelling food
D. Increase blood pressure during supine posture
| Salivation on smelling food |
ad5ec8c2-dd73-4a3e-8904-8675c689bca2 | Ans: C. Ion exchange chromatographyRef: Tietz T*tbook of clinical chemistry and molecular biologt, lh ed^, pg. 1443-1444Techniques based on charge differences (ion-exchange chromatography, HPLC, electrophoresis, and isoelectric focusing), structural differences (affinity chromatography and immunoassay), or chemical analysis (photometry and spechophotometry). | Biochemistry | null | Best method to neasure HbA1c?
A. lsoelectric focusing
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Electrophoresis
| Ion exchange chromatography |
87da7c54-7d62-4641-a820-0cdd9a4fcbc6 | Ans. c. Nuclear palisadingThe most characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is nuclear palisading.The characteristic finding is of ovoid cells in nests with a single 'palisading' layer. lt is only the outer layer of cells that actively divide, explaining why tumor growth rates are slower than their cell cycle speed would suggest, and why incompletely excised lesions are more aggressive.Morphoeic BCCs synthesis. size type 4 collagenase and so spread rapidly. | Surgery | null | The most characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is:
A. Keratin pearls
B. Foam cells
C. Nuclear palisading
D. Psammoma bodies
| Nuclear palisading |
c839b148-d464-4420-9f5d-d66be78d0fd5 | Stage 1 Disease confined to uterus Stage 2 GTN extending outside uterus but limited to genital structure (adnexa, vagina, broad ligament) Stage 3 GTN extending to lungs with or without known genital tract involvement Stage 4 All other metastatic sites 0 1 2 4 Age (years) <= 39 > 39 Antecedent pregnancy Hydatidiform mole Aboion Term Interval between end of antecedent pregnancy sta of chemotherapy (month) <4 4-6 7-12 >12 Human chronic gonadotropin (IU/L) at the time of GTN diagnosis <103 103 - 104 104 - 105 >105 ABO groups 0 or A B or AB Largest tumor, including uterine (cm) <3 3 - 5 > 5 Site of metaslases Spleen, kidney GI tract Brain, liver Number of metastases 1 drug >= 2 drug | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 | Staging of GTN with lung metastasis.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
| Stage 3 |
Subsets and Splits