id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
6ace03e9-b26c-455d-a158-71cbf9a0854b | Ans: C. Internal maxillary aery(Ref Dhingra 7/e p281-282, 5/261-263)Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma:MC benign tumor of nasopharynx (but overall angiofibroma rare).MC site:Posterior pa of nasal cavity close to the margin of sphenopalatine foramen.Seen exclusively in males of 10-20 years.Testosterone dependent tumor - Seen in pre-pubeal to adolescent males.Features:Locally invasive vasoformative tumor consisting of endothelium lined vessels with no muscle coat.Main feeding vessel in most cases = Internal maxillary aery.Internal maxillary aery - External carotid aery branch. | ENT | null | The main vessel involved in bleeding from Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma:
A. Facial aery
B. Ascending pharyngeal aery
C. Internal maxillary aery
D. Anterior ethmoidal aery
| Internal maxillary aery |
650d801f-749f-480f-bad9-399be17408a5 | Ans. a. SupranuclearSerous cells have a pyramidal shape.They possess large amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with many ribosome free regions, supranuclear Golgi complex and numerous spherical secretory granules. | Anatomy | null | Golgi apparatus in serous acinar cells is at:
A. Supranuclear
B. Apical
C. Adjacent to nucleus
D. Basal
| Supranuclear |
3b261ffc-4ab3-4e68-a7b8-8e3881edfa55 | - PCV 23 vaccine is recommended for, - Older people > 65 years age - 2-64 years age if they have, Chronic cardiovascular disease Chronic pulmonary disease Diabetes mellitus Alcoholic Chronic smokers Chronic liver disease / cirrhosis Asplenia like sickle cell disease or splenectomy Immunosuppressed like HIV Organ transplantation Renal disease / transplantation - For children < 2 years age, PCV- 23 is strictly contraindicated. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Pneumococcal vaccine PCV 23 polysaccharide has shown the best results in the following people
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Child less than 2 year age
D. Recurrent otitis media and sinusitis
| Sickle cell anemia |
15b83eb8-206b-43e2-a4c4-4ffe3a833f98 | Light transmitting wedges
As the name indicates, these types of wedges transmit 90 to 95 percent of incident light.
They are a type of plastic wedges.
Transparent in nature.
Designed for use in the cervical area of class II composite resin restoration.
Nisha Garg, Amit Garg. Textbook of Operative Dentistry. Edition 3. Page:209 | Dental | null | Light transmitting wedges transmit:
A. 70-80% of incident light
B. 80-85% of incident light
C. 85-90% of incident light
D. 90-95% of incident light
| 90-95% of incident light |
9a97b879-df24-4f11-b1b4-d3c64a3a5fc7 | Ans. B. Pre botzinger complexRhythmic respiration is initiated by a small group of synaptically coupled pacemaker cells in the pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC) on either side of the medulla between the nucleus ambiguus and the lateral reticular nucleus.The main components of the respiratory control pattern generator responsible for automatic respiration are located in the medulla.Rhythmic respiration is initiated by a small group of synaptically coupled pacemaker cells in the pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC) on either side of the medulla between the nucleus ambiguus and the lateral reticular nucleus. | Physiology | null | What is responsible for rhythm generation of inspiration?
A. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
B. Pre botzinger complex
C. ventral respiratory neurons
D. Pneumotaxic center
| Pre botzinger complex |
149f4170-803d-4034-acb3-776c0abd48b5 | Different types of anchorage
Intraoral Anchorage
Anchorage units are present within the oral cavity.
Anchorage sources can be teeth, palate, etc.
Simple Anchorage
When application of force tends to change the axial inclination of the tooth or teeth that form the anchorage unit in the plane of space in which the force is being applied.
Stationary anchorage
Anchor tooth or source does not move against the forces of teeth.
In real sense, only the extra-oral source of anchorage like can be from headgears would be anchorage.
Anchor tooth being housed in a bioactive environment would show some degree of movement and hence cannot be classified as stationary anchorage in a real sense.
Reciprocal Anchorage:
Teeth which are pulled against each other to close spaces.
Midline diastema in the upper arch with elastic arch.
Cross elastics to correct molar cross-bite.
Arch expansion using a midline screw.
The molar rotator.
Single or Primary Anchorage
The tooth to be moved against a tooth which can have greater alveolar support area.
Like a molar along with adjacent premolars used to align another molar.
Compound Anchorage
The use of more teeth with greater anchorage potential to move a tooth or group of teeth with lesser support.
Like in the fixed orthodontic appliances retracting incisors using loop mechanics.
Reinforced Anchorage
Reinforcing of anchorage units by use of more than one type of resistance units.
Like headgears along with routine fixed mechano-therapy or (extra-oral anchorage and intra arch compound anchorage)
Key Concept:
Since the figure shows the movement of both the units towards each other, this doesn’t fit the definition of stationary anchorage. | Dental | null | Anchorage not being applied here:
A. Reciprocal
B. Stationary
C. Intramaxillary
D. Intraoral
| Stationary |
9915556e-4bff-4728-a142-32cd11836bbb | Febuxostat- hypouricemic agent It can be used in patient of chronic kidney disease where probenecid cannot be used Probenecid used in under excretion in chronic gout. Chronic Gout: under excreter (Probenecid/Febuxostat) | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following drugs is not used in management of rheumatoid ahritis?
A. Etanercept
B. Leftunomide
C. Febuxostat
D. Methotrexate
| Febuxostat |
579951c3-517c-41e4-ac39-0a48f474c01b | Ans.C.225IMR = Number of deaths of children less than 1 year of age in a year X 1000/number of live bihs in the same year.IMR=56+34 X1000/400= 225 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a village of 20,000 population 456 bihs occurred in april, 56 showed no signs of life at bih, 56 died before 28 days of life, 34 died between 28 days- 1 year, 500 was total number of deaths in that year. Infant moality rate?
A. 197.4
B. 320
C. 225
D. 125
| 225 |
132fec12-271f-4778-93af-042d6ec32a22 | To calculate the distance from which weapon was fired we have to find range.To calculate blood and bullet fragments are not suitable since they are very small and blood being a liquid is not suitable.Out of hair and clothes since hair is more on head so it is most suitable to calculate range. | Forensic Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | A middle aged lady was found in a robbed room lying in a pool of blood on forensic examination there was an entry wound of size around 2 x 2 cm on the left temporal region with tattooing and blackening around the wound. There was also an exit wound with beveling at the right temporal region. On fuher examination two bullet fragments were found inside the brain parenchyma. Which of the following could be used to determine the distance from which the weapon was fired?
A. Hair
B. Clothes
C. Bullet fragments
D. Blood
| Hair |
2ef81315-d954-4729-87c9-20a5d20da4a8 | Answer- C. Metabolic alkalosisBanked blood has a pH of 6.8 and is acidotic.After massive transfusion citrate in the stored blood is conveed into bicarbonate resulting in metabolic alkalosis.Other complications are-HypokalemiaHypothermiaHypocalcemiaRef: Transfusion Medicine and Hemostasis: Clinical and Laboratory Aspects By Christopher D. Hillye, Page 291 ; Yao and Ausio's Anesthesiology: Problem-Oriented Patient Management By Fun-Sun F. Yao, 6th Edition, Page 1148 | Surgery | null | On massive blood transfusion the following complication occurs-
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
| Metabolic alkalosis |
761c3922-2330-4ccc-9fc2-64911995760b | Ans: B. Weight in kilograms by cube of height in meters(Ref Dafiary Manual of Obstetrics 3/e p199)Ponderal Index:Calculated by multiplying weight in grams by hundred and then dividing by cube of length in cm.Ponderal index = Bih weight (gm)/ Length (cm)3 x 100Interpretation:Usually less than 2 in asymmetric growth retardation.2 or more in babies with normal growth or symmetric growth retardation. | Pediatrics | null | Ponderal index is:
A. Square root of height in feet by weight in grams
B. Weight in kilograms by cube of height in meters
C. Mid-upper arm circumference to head circumference ratio
D. Head circumference to abdominal circumference ratio
| Weight in kilograms by cube of height in meters |
22f37095-b0aa-4603-a72d-8594c37b6f7e | Answer- D NecrosisDirect injury to the endothelium causes cell necrosis and appearance of physical gaps at the sites of detached endothelial cells.In necrosis phospholipase activation occurs that leads to cell damage and leakage of enzymes outside the cell is followed by inflammatory cells resulting in inflammation. | Pathology | null | Which process shows phases of acute inflammation-
A. Apoptosis
B. Pyroptosis
C. Necroptosis
D. Necrosis
| Necrosis |
158075d9-ce50-4a2c-b201-74b3fea5a513 | Ans: A. Hepatic scintigraphy(Ref. Nelson 20/e p1934, 19/e p1385; Sabiston 20/e p1880, I9/e p1852-1853; Schwaz 10/e p1628, 9/1438-1440; Bailey 27/e p1196, 26/e p1104-1105; Blumga 5/e p595-603; Shackelford 7/e p1390-1396)* Investigation of choice to rule out biliary atresia in a 2- month-old child = Hepatic scintigraphy.Hepatobiliary scintigraphy with technetium-labeled iminodiacetic acid derivatives (HIDA scan):* Used to differentiate biliary atresia from non-obstructive causes of cholestasis.Normal hepatic uptake -* In biliary atresia.* Excretion into intestine is absent.Impaired uptake -* In neonatal hepatitis.* Excretion into intestine occur.* Follow-up scan after 24 hours - Determines the biliary tree patency.* Phenobarbital administration (5 mg/kg/day) for 5 days before scan recommended.* Enhances biliary isotope excretion.Hepatobiliary scintigraphy:* Very sensitive.* Non-specific test for biliary atresia.* Fails to identify other structural abnormalities of biliary tree or vascular anomalies. | Surgery | null | Investigation of choice to rule out biliary atresia in a 2-month-old child is:
A. Hepatic scintigraphy
B. ERCP
C. USG
D. CT scan.
| Hepatic scintigraphy |
cd1492ba-bd0d-40cd-bf55-cf385b2d2782 | In diabetic patients:
Most sensitive test/best test to assess the risk of fetal malformation is maternal HbA1 c levels
The best test to detect fetal malformations is USG.
Now question says - which is the most sensitive screening test to detect congenital malformations. Undoubtedly ultrasound should be the first choice but it is not given in the options. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which is best method to assess fetal damage in a diabetes mother in 1st trimester is:
A. Blood sugar estimation
B. Urine ketone assay
C. Amniocentesis to see level of sugar in amniotic fluid
D. Glycosylated Hb
| Glycosylated Hb |
5141f42f-f120-4531-abe0-8248b8dc1c51 | The peripheral smears given shows: A - Target cell B - Howell jolly bodies C - Poikilocytosis. - All these features are characteristic to b- Thalassemia major. - Best investigation for the diagnosis of any kind of hemoglobinopathy-HPLC (High Performance Liquid Chromatography) | Pathology | AIIMS 2017 | A 6 year old patient with anemia, on electrophoresis shows HbF of 90% and HbA2 of 3%. Which of the following will be seen on peripheral smear
A. A,B
B. A,C
C. B,C
D. ABC
| ABC |
e1e575e9-3c85-4c16-86ad-29f6ea41c627 | According to the latest guidelines treatment of multibacillary and paulibacillary leprosy is same expect for duration of treatment. Multibacillary Paulibacillary Rifampin 600 mg once a month supervised 600 mg once a month supervised Clofazimine 300 mg once a month supervised + 50 mg daily self administered 300 mg once a month supervised + 50 mg daily self administered Dapsone 100 mg daily self administered 100 mg daily self administered Duration 12 months 6 months | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following is used for the treatment of paucibacillary leprosy?
A. 2 drugs for 6 months
B. 2 drugs for 12 months
C. 3 drugs for 6 months
D. 3 drugs for 12 months
| 3 drugs for 6 months |
3920361c-7b00-4cb2-ad43-d4bd71127f00 | ETDRS - Early treatment diabetic retinopathy study It is the best cha to measure the vision It is used to early treatment diabetic retinopathy | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2019 | ETDRS grading of vision is done for
A. Endothelial count
B. Corneal topography
C. Primary open angle glaucoma
D. Classification of diabetic retinopathy
| Classification of diabetic retinopathy |
2cdf4e3d-5ee5-460c-b03c-d064ce8182b7 | The reaction of the periradicular tissues to noxious products of tissue necrosis, bacterial products and antigenic agents from the root canal has been described by Fish.
The four zones
Zone of infection
Zone of contamination
Zone of irritation
Zone of stimulation
Zone of Infection:
This is present in the center of the lesion.
It is characterized by PMNL's.
The bacterial toxins are found in this zone.
Zone of Contamination:
It is characterized by round cell infiltration.
It demonstrates cellular destruction due to toxins from the central zone or zone of infection. Because of autolysis and death of bone cells, the lacunae were empty.
Lymphocytes are prevalent everywhere.
Zone of Irritation:
This zone is characterized by macrophages and osteoclasts.
The collagen framework was digested by phagocytic cells, the macrophages, while osteoclasts attacked the bone tissue. This opens a gap in the bone all around the center of lesion. That space becomes filled with PMNL's. It contains cholesterol crystals.
This zone demonstrates much activity preparatory to repair.
Zone of Stimulation: (Peripheral zone)
This zone is characterized by fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
In this zone, the effects of toxins were mild enough to be stimulant which results in laying down of collagen fibers around the zone of irritation that acts both as a wall of defense and as a scaffolding on which the osteoblasts built new bone.
This new bone was built in an irregular fashion. | Dental | null | Bacteriocidal toxin is found in:
A. Zone of contamination
B. Zone of infection
C. Zone of stimulation
D. Zone of irritation
| Zone of infection |
c30d00e9-dc5c-43fd-9514-b0dd23249546 | Aschoff nodules are pathognomonic feature of rheumatic heart disease. | Medicine | null | Which of the following is not a feature of infective endocarditis.
A. Roth spot.
B. Osler's nodes.
C. Aschoff nodules.
D. Positive blood culture.
| Aschoff nodules. |
89108206-90cd-4886-bb7f-758f8fec9152 | Bromocriptine is a D2 agonist, so it decreases the prolactin levels.Increased prolactin can lead to galactorrhea and infeility (by decreasing gonadotropins). | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | A 27-year-old female presented to OPD of infeility clinic. She was prescribed bromocriptine. What could be the possible reason?
A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Polycystic ovarian disease
C. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
| Hyperprolactinemia |
081f057e-a610-4985-89dd-309cf04cbe5c | Trigeminal Nucleus caudalis is an important site for processing orofacial nociceptive input. After activation of C and A delta fibres, they transmit nociceptive signals primarily via trigeminal nerves to Trigeminal Nucleus caudalis. It is also called as medullary dorsal horn as it has similar anatomical resemblance to spinal dorsal horn. | Anatomy | null | Nociceptive signals are transmitted primarily to which of the following?
A. Nucleus caudalis
B. Limbic system
C. Reticular system
D. Superior cervical ganglion
| Nucleus caudalis |
51118d57-ac58-4184-8c9b-107cea78ed7a | The odontogenesis of the primary dentition begins in the embryonic period, between the sixth and the seventh week of prenatal development. The first stage of tooth development is initiation, where ectoderm induces the mesenchymal tissue in order to initiate the process.
There are 4 main stages of development of the tooth: The first stage begins in the fetus at about 6 weeks of age. This is when the basic substance of the tooth forms. Next, the hard tissue that surrounds the teeth is formed, around 3 to 4 months of gestation. | Dental | null | At what stage of embryonic development does initial tooth development begins:
A. 3rd week
B. 6th week
C. 8th week
D. 4th week
| 6th week |
03486244-ec95-4253-81cf-8035e53ac651 | Most cases of meningocele are recommended for treatment as soon after birth as possible.
In the case of a sac which is leaking fluid, the treatment is most urgent.
Generally, treatment includes a surgical procedure to close and remove the soft tissue covering of back.
As there are chances of bacterial meningitis and sepsis due to CSF leak, CSF and blood sample should be send for culture and sensitivity and peri-operative antibiotics (broad spectrum) can be changed to the specific antibiotics after the blood and CCF culture and sensitivity report. | Pediatrics | null | A 7–day old infant has a leaky meningomyelocele. The most useful test for diagnosis and management of the condition is –
A. Blood–culture and sensitivity
B. Urine–culture and sensitivity
C. Rectal swab–culture and sensitivity
D. Wound swab–culture and sensitivity
| Blood–culture and sensitivity |
3588f845-135e-4167-8455-ecc975821b3a | FigureA shows the inferior border of the zygomatic process of the maxilla over the molars. This structure lies buccal to the teeth and appears to move mesially as the x-ray beam is oriented more from the distal. Similarly, as the angulation of the beam is increased vertically, the zygomatic process is projected occlusally over the teeth. | Radiology | null | The radiopacity that frequently obliterate the root apices of maxillary molars is
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Palatine bone
C. Zygoma and Zygomatic process of Maxilla
D. Orbital process of Zygomatic bone
| Zygoma and Zygomatic process of Maxilla |
794874bb-f41b-467b-aea5-7c98b68f7849 | Branches of auriculotemporal nerve
i. Slender filaments to the posterior part of the capsule of TMJ
ii. One or two thick branches to the parotid gland which mingle with the branches of the facial nerve in its substance.
iii. Cutaneous branches to the auricle and temple. | Anatomy | null | The nerve which constitutes the sensory nerve supply of capsule of TMJ is:
A. Auriculotemporal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Masseteric nerve
D. Auricular nerve
| Auriculotemporal nerve |
aca2add1-e577-45a3-b62e-7143ad56ac2d | α-hemihydrate of gypsum, and quartz or cristobalite are forms of silica. Most investments contain the α-hemihydrate of gypsum, because of its greater strength. This gypsum product serves as a binder for the other ingredients and to provide rigidity. The strength of the investment is dependent on the amount of binder used. The investment powder may contain 25% to 45% of calcium sulfate hemihydrate. Gypsum shrinks considerably, when it is heated. If the proper forms of silica are employed in the investment, this contraction during heating can be eliminated and changed to an expansion.
Ref: Phillips 12th edition page 201 | Dental | null | The strength of a gypsum investment is dependent
on:
A. Carbon content
B. Silica content
C. Gypsum
D. Copper
| Gypsum |
fd711e43-2e62-409e-89fc-4ac2a9a2d5d9 | Ans. B. ConcentrationRef: Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinology Infeility, 8' ed.Sperm concentrationand progressive motility is impoant in distinguishing feile from infeile men but strict sperm morphology is one of the most discriminating value. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is the impoant marker of male infeility in semen analysis?
A. Motility
B. Concentration
C. Volume
D. Sperm Count
| Concentration |
43a48b2d-df1f-42d0-a999-d76df02c8515 | Ans: A. General anesthesia with IV induction by ketamine(Ref Williams 24/e p516; Morgan 4/e p197-199)This patient of placenta pre is in labor and has bled into shock.She should be delivered by cesarean section under general anesthesia.General anesthesia is preferred as it is a more controllable modality and there is a significant risk of hypotension associated with spinal anesthesia.Ketamine is the preferred agent in cases of acute shock.Stimulates sympathetic system causing tachycardia and hypeension, so it is intravenous anaesthetic of choice for shock. | Anaesthesia | null | A pregnant woman with placenta pre staed to bleed as she went into labor. Her blood pressure was 80/50 mm Hg. A lower segment caesarean section was planned in view of acute shock. What type of anesthesia will you plan for this patient?
A. General anesthesia with IV induction by ketamine
B. Spinal anesthesia up to L4 level
C. General anesthesia with IV induction by propofol followed by maintenance with fluranes
D. Sedation and epidural analgesia
| General anesthesia with IV induction by ketamine |
6b4abfdd-bcd7-4f10-aa75-124aadf5fcd0 | Ans: B. 18500 mg/ 5 ml means 100 mg/l ml. Since 100 mg is present in 1 ml, therefore, 180 mg of drug is present in 1.8 ml.Now it is clear that we must administer 1.8 ml of the above solution to administer the desired amount of drug.Last thing is to calculate the divisions to administer 1.8 ml.10 division per ml means each 0. 1 ml is equal to 1 division.Therefore, 1 .8 ml will be equal to l8 divisions. | Pharmacology | null | A patient requires 180 mg ceftriaxone. The l contains 500 mg/5ml of ceftriaxone. You have a 2 ml syringe with l0 divisions per ml. How many divisions in the 2 ml syringe will you fill to give 180 mg ceftriaxone?
A. 9
B. 18
C. l0
D. 12
| 18 |
80373cf9-5322-408c-ae6b-bff7f9fb2d88 | Ans: B. 28 weeks (Ref Williams 24/e p312: COGT 11/e p353; FERNANDO ARIAS 4/e p374).Best time to give anti-D to a pregnant patient is 28 weeks.According to American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, 2010:Anti-D immune globulin is given prophylactically to all Rh D-negative, unsensitized women at approximately 28 weeks.Second dose is given after delivery if the infant is Rh D-positive . | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the best time to give anti-D to a pregnant patient?
A. 12 weeks
B. 28 weeks
C. 36 weeks
D. After delivery
| 28 weeks |
6a2018d0-b742-44ff-a1df-5d0ce3483984 | Ans: A. Sensitivity 90% Specificity 95%Sensitivity:Introduced as a statistical index of diagnostic accuracy.Defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, that is 'true positive:"Specificity:Measures the propoion of negatives that are correctly identified as such, e.g., the percentage of healthy people who are correctly identified as not having the condition, that is true negative. Sensitivity = Propoion of persons with the condition who test positive: a /(a + c)`t = 27/30 = 90% .Specificity = Propoion of persons without the condition who test negative: d /(b + d)deg = 95/100 = 95%. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A latex agglutination test for detection of meningitis was approved. Calculate the sensitivity and specificity of the test based on the data given below: Test PositiveTest NegativeDiseased273Non-diseased595
A. Sensitivity 90% Specificity 95%
B. Specificity 90% Sensitivity 95%
C. Sensitivity 80% Specificity 90%
D. Sensitivity 75% Specificity 95%
| Sensitivity 90% Specificity 95% |
92b73e84-c02c-43db-8ddc-a5b7954ae6ab | Answer- D. Cotrimoxazole with 3rd generation cephalosporinsDrug of choice for B. cepacia is TMP-SMX and alternative agents are ceftazidime, chloramphenicolB. cepacia is the cause of a rapidly fatal syndrome of respiratory distress & septicemia ('cepacia syndrome')in cystic fibrosis Patients.Predisposing factors: cystic fibrosis & chronic granulomatous diseaseaB. cepacia inhabits moist environments and is found in rhizosphere.possesses multiple virulence factors & colonizing factors capable of binding to lung mucus (predilection of B.cepacia for the lungs in cystic fibrosis).Treatment:DOC for B. cepacia: TMP-SMXAlternative agents: Meropenem & doxycycline | Medicine | null | A 40 years old patient came with complaints of spikes of fever and difficulty in breathing. Transesophageal ECHO found out the vegetations in the hea. The culture was positive for Burkholderia cepacia. Drug of choice for Burkholderia cepacia pneumonia is:
A. Aminoglycoside and colistin
B. Carbapenems with 3rd generation cephalosporins
C. Tigecycline and cefipime
D. Cotrimoxazole with 3rd generation cephalosporins
| Cotrimoxazole with 3rd generation cephalosporins |
36e20a28-fe52-4272-8027-043e6f66ab54 | Answer-C. QuadricepsDeformity at hip: Flexion, abduction & external rotationDeformity at knee: Triple deformity of flexion' posterior subluxation & external rotationFoot: Equinovarus is most deformity followed by equinovalgus, Calcaneovalgus, calcaneovarusUpper limb: Shoulder and elbow muscles | Medicine | null | Hand to knee gait in polio is due to involvement of which muscle?
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Gluteus medius
C. Quadriceps
D. Hamstring
| Quadriceps |
d0aaea50-8928-4b40-ad20-7161f679bbc0 | Depression of Mandible done by Lateral Pterygoid Mylohyoid Anterior belly of digastric muscle *In the image Marker A - Lateral Pterygoid Marker B - Lateral to mandible bone - Masseter Marker C - TowardsTemporal region - Temporalis (retraction of Mandible) Marker D - Subcutaneous Muscle - Buccinator (Cheek muscle - Accessory Muscle for mastication) *Angle of mandible has Masseter laterally Medial pterygoid medially *ELEVATORS- Mnemonic - MTMe M - Masseter T - Temporalis M - Medial Pterygoid | Anatomy | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following marked muscles is Involved in Opening of jaw?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| A |
a0de04fa-2223-40ca-9173-558fe5011dac | Ans. a. Isomorphic RBCsUrine analysis of a patient with hematuria and hypercalciuria is most likely to reveal isomorphic RBCs."Hypercalciuria is a cause of non-glomerular hematuria. RBCs from a non-glomerular source more closely resemble peripheral blood on microscopy, with isomorphic RBCs and absence of casts." | Medicine | null | Urine analysis of a patient with hematuria and hypercalciuria is most likely to reveal;
A. Isomorphic RBCs
B. RBC casts
C. Nephrotic range proteinuria
D. Eosinophiluria
| Isomorphic RBCs |
16413ad3-db66-4d30-905b-489baf124bad | Ans. A. Basal gangliaHypeensive hemorrhage:Causes: Results from spontaneous rupture of small penetrating aery deep in the brain.Most common site:Basal ganglia (especially putamen), thalamus, cerebellum & pons.Small aeries here are most prone to hypeension-induced vascular injury. | Medicine | null | Hypeensive hemorrhage is most commonly seen in:
A. Basal ganglia
B. Thalamus
C. Brain stem
D. Cerebrum
| Basal ganglia |
e29e5110-d051-49bc-a105-14ddc2fa2ae8 | Ans: A. Methylation(Ref Harper 30/e p438, 439; Harrison 19/e p102e-7)CG islands:Also referred as "CpG islands".Plays vital role in gene expression regulation.Cytosine (C) residues in CG rich islands undergo methylation by DNA methyl transferase.The DNA methyltransferase can methylate only the CG sequence paired with methylated CG. The CG sequence not paired with methylated CG will not be methylated.Methylation of deoxycytidine residues (in sequence 5'-in CpG-3') in DNA may effect gross changes in chromatin so as to preclude its active transcription. | Biochemistry | null | CG islands in our DNA are impoant for:
A. Methylation
B. Acetylation
C. t-RNA synthesis
D. DNA replication
| Methylation |
78608283-5144-4645-925e-8247713a4cad | Ans. a. EstrogenEstrogens are a steroid hormone which exists in three forms each of unique significance during a woman's life.Estradiol is the most common moiety during the non-pregnant reproductive years. It is conveed from androgens (produced from cholesterol in the follicular theca cells), which diffuse into the follicular granulosa cells containing the aromatase enzyme that completes the transformation into estradiol. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Before ovulation development of granules in a cell is dependent on:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. FSH
D. LH
| Estrogen |
68d6b9df-1044-405b-9fe4-4f0b37dfd0f0 | Ans: C. ArginineAt physiological pH, arginine has a positive charge.Negative Charged (Acidic Side Chains) - Aspaic acid & glutamic acid.Positive Charged (Basic Side Chains) - Histidine, arginine & lysine. | Biochemistry | null | At physiological pH, which of these amino acids has a positive charge?
A. Valine
B. Aspaic acid
C. Arginine
D. Isoleucine
| Arginine |
80e16084-d58b-4584-8712-feb0dda14e36 | Fibrous dysplasia is caused by a mutation in GNAS1 gene. | Pathology | null | GNAS-1 gene mutation is associated with
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Osteogenesis imerfecta
C. Amelogenesis imperfect
D. Cleidocranial dysplasia
| Fibrous dysplasia |
dff05507-4258-4cee-97a0-0327dd30b57f | OPTION C - CKD patients have catabolic metabolism so they will require higher caloric as lot of muscle wasting. Since the disease CKD has affected kidney, we prefer to give low volume due to decrease capacity of kidney to excrete. | Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which of these is the Renal feed for CKD patients?
A. Low calorie low volume
B. Low calorie high volume
C. High calorie low volume
D. High calorie high volume
| High calorie low volume |
ad06ae5e-77fc-42e4-b2cc-b33069ad0d9d | Ans: B. Dengue virus(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1322)Tourniquet test is used in daily follow up of patients with dengue virusThe tourniquet test (capillary-fragility test):Pa of the new WHO case definition for dengue.The test is a marker of capillary fragility and it can be used as a triage tool to differentiate patients with acute gastroenteritis, for example, from those with dengue.It is a clinical diagnostic method to determine a patient's hemorrhagic tendency, fragility of capillary walls and thrombocytopenia. | Medicine | null | Tourniquet test is used in daily follow-up of patients with:
A. Zika virus
B. Dengue virus
C. Chikungunya
D. Swine flu
| Dengue virus |
5a6abefa-9edd-429c-8489-f7d4a3fd2770 | Bell's palsy is manifested by drooping of corner of mouth, drooling of saliva, watering of eye, inability to blink the eye. The patient has a typical mask-like or expressionless appearance. The patient will have speech difficulty and occasionally the taste sensation to anterior portion of tongue is lost or altered.
In supranuclear lesions of facial nerve, only the lower part of the face is paralysed. The upper part (frontalis and part of orbicularis oculi) escapes due to bilateral representation in the cerebral cortex.
In infranuclear lesions of facial nerve (Bell's palsy) half of the whole of face is paralysed. The face becomes asymmetrical, and any attempt to smile draws the mouth to the NORMAL SIDE. | Pathology | null | A patient showing inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering from:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Bell's palsy
C. TMJ dysfunction syndrome
D. Multiple sclerosis
| Bell's palsy |
350d3b19-c8b4-4e99-b2a0-dc3f2bf4a206 | In text books, both elective caesarian section and normal preterm or term vaginal delivery have been mentioned as risk factors for transient tachypnea of newborn.
But the best answer is caesarian section -
"Delivery by caesarian section and gestational age are the risk factors for TTN". —Articles Obs & Gynae Transient tachvpnea of Newborn (TTN)
Transient tachypnea of the newborn is a benign self-limiting disease occuring usually in term neonates and is due to delayed clearance of lung fluid.
It is also called respiratory distress syndrome type H
TTN follows -
Uneventful normal preterm or term vaginal delivery
Cesarean delivery
TTN is believed to be secondary to slow absorption of fetal lung fluid resulting in decreased pulmonary compliance and tidal volume and increased dead space therefore also known as wet lung.
Clinical manifestations
Early onset of tachypnea
El Sometimes refraction or expiratory grunting
u Occasionally cyanosis
Patients usually recover rapidly within 3 days.
Hypoxemia, hypercapnia and acidosis are uncommon. | Pediatrics | null | Transient tachypnea of new born (TTN) is commonly seen in which of the following situations –
A. Term delivery requiring forceps
B. Term requiring ventouse
C. Elective caesarean section
D. Normal vaginal delivery
| Elective caesarean section |
a9471eed-081f-450b-86ee-d1bb788bb833 | CRY ELSBACH IN 1963
There are 4 Types
A. Obstinate Cry:
Loud, high pitched.
Siren like weil.
External response to anxiety.
B. Hurt Cry:
Loud & more frequent.
Tears rolling down on the cheeks.
Without the child making any resistance to treatment procedure.
C. Compensatory Cry:
No cry at all.
Sort of coping mechanism to an unpleasant stimuli.
Not high or low – It’s MONOTONOUS.
No tears.
D. Frightened Cry:
Sharp shrilled, extremely high pitched cry.
Torrent of tears with convulsive breath catching sobs. | Dental | null | Name the type of cry which is a sort of coping mechanism to an unpleasant stimuli:
A. Obstinate cry
B. Hurt cry
C. Compensatory cry
D. Frightened cry
| Compensatory cry |
16a341b0-9b1c-4a94-94a6-8f8aaa931295 | According to MCI Regulations- Patient's records should be maintained upto 3 years for inpatients Routine case records maintained - 6 Yrs after completion of treatment & 3 Yrs after death. Records should be provided within 72 hours after request by patient or relatives | Forensic Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | In case of professional misconduct Patients records on demand should be provided within?
A. 36 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 7 days
| 72 hours |
e9b885b9-5bdf-47a6-8e6d-1a5cba796bf6 | Ans: D. GlucocerebrosideGaucher's disease:* MC lysosomal storage disorder, autosomal recessive in inheritance.* Caused by deficiency of tissue enzyme glucocerebrocidase.Glucocerebrocidase:* Splits glucose from glucosyl ceramide. Hence, accumulates glucocerebroside.* Glucosyl ceramide - Cerebrocide accumulates in cell of reticuloendothelial system.Clinical history:* Hepatosplenomegaly with crumpled tissue paper appearance on biopsy - Highly suggestive of Gaucher's disease.* Pancytopenia & thrombocytopenia secondary to hypersplenism.* Widened marrow cavity - Due to Gaucher's cells deposition. - Expansion of bone is prominent - Especially at lower end of femur & humerus. - Causes pathologic fracture & bone pain.Treatment:* Enzyme replacement therapy done with natural or recombinant glucocerebrocidase.(Ref Harrison 19/e p432-e5; Robbins 9/e p151-154, 8/e p153; Nelson 20/e p708, 19/e p487, 488, 500) | Biochemistry | null | A 48-year old lady presented with bony pain and hepatosplenomegaly. On examination of biopsy speci!men from spleen, crumpled tissue paper appearance is seen. Which of the following product is likely to have accumulated?
A. Ganglioside
B. Sulfatide
C. Sphingomyelin
D. Glucocerebroside
| Glucocerebroside |
a8ef25e9-36e4-48e8-b3ad-48c4b138c6f8 | Answer- D. organ transplantation caseChimerism can occur in animals is by organ transplantation, giving one individual tissues that developed from a different genome. For example, transplantation of bone marrow often determines the recipient's ensuing blood type. | Pathology | null | Chimerism phenomenon is associated with which of the following-
A. Paternity test
B. Maternity test
C. Person identification test
D. organ transplantation case
| organ transplantation case |
4fec3e84-b821-4da3-b300-dc0ad6c32608 | Answer- D. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumorInflammatory myofibroblastic tumor is anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) positive neoplasm.Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor, though rare, is more common in children, with an equal male-to-female ratio.Presenting symptoms include fever, cough, chest pain, and hemopytsis. It may also be asymptomatic.Anaplastic Lymphoma Kinase (ALK)- Anaplastic lymphoma kinase also known as ALK tyrosine kinase receptor or CD246 (cluster of diff-erentiation 246) is an enzyme that in humans is encoded by ALK gene.Anaplastic Lymphoma Kinase (ALK) Positive NeoplasmsAnaplastic large-cell lymphomasAdenocarcinoma of lungFamilial neuroblastomaInflammatory myofibroblastic tumor | Pathology | null | Which of the following is anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) positive neoplasm?
A. Synol sarcoma
B. Fibromatosis
C. Ewing sarcoma
D. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor
| Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor |
abed431b-5d40-4df7-9f7b-4088185b5728 | Ans. b. Ganglion cell layer (Ref Radiation Retinopatliv. ,(1991) 5. 239-251)Ganglion cells are an example of highly specialized cells that have undergone extensive maturation, are the most radioresistant cells in the retina. | Ophthalmology | null | %lost radio-resistant cells in retina
A. Retinal pigment epithelium
B. Ganglion cell layer
C. Rods and cones
D. Bipolar cells
| Ganglion cell layer |
e33fee37-ca36-4d99-887d-2349c1beb5c1 | Ans: D. Ascorbate(Ref Yanoff and Duker 4/e p353)As compared to blood, vitreous humor has high concentration of ascorbate. | Ophthalmology | null | As compared to blood, vitreous humor has high concentration of:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Glucose
D. Ascorbate
| Ascorbate |
03b86472-e565-4e69-bd54-d84383824de1 | Microaerophilic: Require small amount of oxygen (5%) e.g. Campylobacter, Helicobacter and Mycobacterium bovis. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is microaerophilic -
A. Campylobacter
B. Vibrio
C. Bacteroides
D. Pseudomonas
| Campylobacter |
ccaa5421-7958-40bb-ac48-a08641e7e13c | Ans: A. Chemotherapy in hormone receptor positive patients(Ref Harrison I9/e p528; DX:Multigene tests.Uses:To guide chemotherapy decisions for,Node-negative cases.Hormone receptor-positive cases.HER2-negative breast cancer.Used clinically for early-stage breast cancer predicting recurrence risk & guide adjuvant chemotherapy decisions. | Surgery | null | Oncotype Dx test is done to for the following in breast cancer:
A. Chemotherapy in hormone receptor positive patients
B. Hormone therapy in hormone positive
C. Chemotherapy in hormone receptor negative patients
D. Herceptin in Her-2-neu +ve.
| Chemotherapy in hormone receptor positive patients |
156f862e-9e92-4070-b0f0-7beacc93d11b | LOADING DOSE = Vd * target plasma concentration The loading dose is primarily dependent on the volume of distribution of drugs. The loading dose is administered to achieve rapid action of drugs having high the volume of distribution. MAINTENANCE DOSE = Clearance * target plasma concentration | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Major determinant of loading dose of a drug is:-
A. Half life
B. Clearance
C. Volume of distribution
D. Bioavailability
| Volume of distribution |
a28af149-bf4b-4c9a-a4bf-5f6387f945e9 | Ans: B. Greenused for routine blood transfusions, transfusing large volumes of fluid, intravenous feeding of patients and the harvesting and separation of stem cells.Refi ATLS 18th edn; 2018, Chapter 3 ShockColorSizeExternal diameter(mm)Length(mm)Water flow rate (mL/min)Recommended usesOrange14G2.1 mm45 mm-240 mL/minTrauma, rapid blood transfusion, surgeryGray16G1.8 mm45 mm--180 mL/minRapid fluid replacement, trauma, rapid blood transfusionGreen18G1.3 mm32 mm--90 mL/minLarge volumes of fluid, Rapid fluid replacement, trauma, rapid blood transfusionPink20G1.1 mm32 mm--60 mL/minMost infusions, rapid fluid replacement, trauma, routine blood transfusionBlue22G0.9 mm25 mm--36 mL/minMost infusionsNeonate, pediatric, older adults routine blood transfusion Yellow 24G 0.7 mm 19 mm --20 mL/minMost infusions neonate, pediatric, older adults, routine blood transfusion, neonate or pediatric blood transfusion Purple 26G 0.6 mm 19 mm --13 mL/minPediatrics, Neonate | Surgery | null | A young patient has been admitted with A and had massive hemorrhage. He needs to be transfused with large amounts of fluids. Which IV cannula is preferred?
A. Grey
B. Green
C. Blue
D. Pink
| Green |
e584f190-0cb1-4ef7-9e2a-e4f0ccc8e01b | Olfaction - 1. Ohonasal (odor in inspired air) 2. Retro nasal (odor in expired air) Food in mouth - swallowing and deglutition 1. Chorda tympani (branch of facial nerve): taste from anterior 2/3rd tongue 2. Lingual nerve: pain, tactile and temperature from anterior tongue 3. Greater superficial petrosal nerve: taste from palate 4. 9th and 10th CN: taste from posterior tongue and throat CN 5,7,9 & 10 help to regulate olfaction. Add smell to taste. Hypoglossal nerve that is pure motor nerve supply muscle of tongue. | ENT | AIIMS 2018 | Cranial nerve that is not involved in olfaction:-
A. Glossopharyngeal
B. Vagus
C. Hypoglossal
D. Trigeminal
| Hypoglossal |
b3278b6a-2f6e-4a05-87c1-18772ca70c83 | Ans: C. ChylomicronType I or V hyperlipoproteinemia:Features:Severe abdominal pain, xanthomas & milky appearance of plasma.Elevated levels of chylomicrons.(Ref. Harrison 19/e p2438-2447, 18/e p3148). | Biochemistry | null | A 7-year old boy presented with severe abdominal pain. On examination, he had xanthoma. Blood sample was taken for work-up blood sample had milky appearance of plasma. Which of the following lipoprotein is increased?
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. Chylomicron
D. Chylomicron remnants
| Chylomicron |
dc3b4878-5fcb-4cd0-b31d-594a5320655a | Beta blockers in hea failure -Beta blockers are contraindicated in acute hea failure but they can be used in chronic hea failure. At first beta blockers should be staed at low dose, dose should be increased gradually so that predominant action is on kidneys not on hea. Beta blockers used are - Carvedilol, metoprolol and bisoprolol. Sacubitril - It is NEP(neutral endopeptidase) inhibitor, which is required for metabolism of BNP(brain natriuretic peptide) as a result BNP levels are increased resulting in natriuresis and vasodilation. Thus can be used in CHF. Nesiritide- It is recombinant BNP. It is given through subcutaneous route. Trimetazidine -it is a metabolic modulator. it paially inhibits beta oxidation of fatty acids which results in shifting of metabolism of hea muscles from fatty acids to glucose Which require less amount of oxygen so beneficial for the patient of angina pectoris but not used in hea failure. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following is not used in hea failure?
A. Metoprolol
B. Trimetazidine
C. Sacubitril
D. Nesiritide
| Trimetazidine |
d810c51c-b15e-40e7-9d7c-2eff29038877 | Ans. D. ElastinLigamentum flavum connects the laminae of adjacent veebrae.The ligamentum flavum has a high content of elastin. So under tension it can be stretched by 80% without damage.Functions of ligamentum flavum to provide a constant smooth lining to the veebral canal, which is never overstretched in flexion and which never goes slack in extension. | Anatomy | null | Ligamentum flavum consists of:
A. Type-II collagen
B. Type-III collagen
C. Reticulin
D. Elastin
| Elastin |
f822dfed-f142-4583-b7c2-779cf63ccad6 | Fishtail deformity of the elbowis characterized by a contour abnormality of the distal humerus, which develops when the lateral trochlear ossification centers fails to develop or resorbs. It is an uncommon complication usually following a distal humeral fracture in childhood.Whilst initially presumed to be a benign condition, long-term follow-up suggests that patients withfishtail deformityare prone to: functional impairment ongoing pain development of early osteoahrosis | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2020 | Fish tail deformity in a child is seen after injury to?
A. Distal Tibia
B. Distal Femur
C. Distal humerus
D. Distal Radius
| Distal humerus |
08f757d6-1296-48c4-8307-d4e61d2979b9 | In the question, patient is pres enting with
Headache
Blurring of vision
B/P = 180/120 mm of Hg (later 174/110 mm of Hg)
i.e. she is a case of severe pregnancy induced hypertension.
First step in the management of this case would be to prevent seizures i.e. give MgSO4.
Her B/P should be controlled with antihypertensive and since pregnancy is >34 weeks, therefore terminate pregnancy (which is the definitive management). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A female of 36 weeks gestation presents with hypertension, blurring of vision and headache. Her blood pressure reading was 180/120 mm Hg and 174/110 mm Hg after 20 minutes. How will you manage the patient?
A. Admit the patient and observe
B. Admit the patient, start antihypertensives and continue pregnancy till term.
C. Admit the patient, start antihypertensives, MgSO4 and terminate the pregnancy
D. Admit oral antihypertensives and follow up in out-patient department
| Admit the patient, start antihypertensives, MgSO4 and terminate the pregnancy |
d0de8433-05e9-4391-ad03-5b228436ccd5 | Ans: C. Acetyl-CoA(Ref. Harper 30/e p185, 29/e p187)Acetyl CoA is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis (not glucogenic) and cannot be conveed back to glucose."Acetyl CoA is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis and cannot be conveed back to glucosee. This is because acetyl CoA cannot be conveed back to pyruvateQ since its carbon backbone is lost in citric acid cycle as CO2." | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not glucogenic?
A. Pyruvate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Lactate
| Acetyl-CoA |
fab914c7-2813-4300-bddb-e6815e4e6597 | Answer- C (Hemangioblastoma)Hemangioblastoma represents the MC primary intra-axial tumor in the adult posterior fossa.Occur almost exclusively in the posterior fossa (cerebelluma)Solid or cystic with a mural nodule. | Surgery | null | Highly vascular tumor of brain and spinal cord in adults:
A. Metastasis
B. Pilocytic astrocytoma
C. Hemangioblastoma
D. Cavernous malformation
| Hemangioblastoma |
cf8e8909-c78e-4f68-b79b-ba07123468bf | PALATOGINGIVAL GROOVE:
In Maxillary central and lateral incisors
May contribute to
Periodontal (AND/OR)
Pulpal pathology
To detect the effect:
Vitality testing
Probing
Radiograph
Treatment:
Burning out the groove
Surgical management | Dental | null | Palatogingival groove is seen in
A. Mandibular lateral incisor
B. Maxillary lateral incisor
C. Mandibular 1st premolar
D. Maxillary first premolar
| Maxillary lateral incisor |
45588c4c-da93-43ca-8ee4-05feb851be68 | Ans. D. anterior ethmoidalThe nasal septum also derives its blood supply from :Branches from the external carotid aery are the sphenopalatine aery, the greater palatine aery, the superior labial aery, and the angular aery.The main branches from the interior carotid are the anterior ethmoidal aery, and the posterior ethmoidal aery that supplies the septum, and these derive from the ophthalmic aery. | Anatomy | null | Which is not a branch of the external carotid aery supplying nasal septum?
A. Sphenopalatine
B. greater palatine
C. superior labial
D. anterior ethmoidal
| anterior ethmoidal |
5814145c-8aed-4f7e-abf1-ba410ab7e2cb | Prucalopride-* It is a selective 5-HT4 receptor agonist marketed recently in Europe, UK and Canada for the treatment of chronic constipation in women, when other laxatives fail to provide adequate relief.* It activates prejunctional 5-HT4 receptors on intrinsic enteric neurones to enhance release of the excitatory transmitter ACh, thereby promoting propulsive contractions in ileum and more prominently in colon.* Prucalopride is shown to have low affinity for 5-HT1B/1D receptor, as well as for cardiac K+ channels. It is therefore, believed to be free of cardiovascular risk. No Q-T prolongation has been noted during clinical trial.* Side effects are headache, dizziness, fatigue, abdominal pain and diarrhoea; but generally subside during use. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | Prucalopride is a
A. 5HT4 agonist
B. 5HT2b agonist
C. 5HT2b antagonist
D. 5HT1a paial agonist
| 5HT4 agonist |
92908923-9b0f-403b-8457-71c1c546eee4 | Radiopaque post and core seen in anterior teeth suggestive of a cast post with core. | Dental | null | Metal coping seen in upper anteriors is suggestive of:
A. Cast post & core
B. PFM crowns
C. Metal coping with high stiffness
D. Metal coping with low stiffness
| Cast post & core |
e45edfb9-2b6f-4ffb-9d2e-82ee6504cba5 | Mandible and vomer are the two unpaired bones of facial skeleton. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is unpaired bone of facial skeleton:
A. Nasal
B. Lacrimal
C. Inferior nasal concha
D. Vomer
| Vomer |
98e20d31-45bf-46c2-80cd-a9020dcaf014 | Ans: A. JSSK(Ref Park 24/e p476, 23/e p456, 22/e p420; Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK), the national programme can help this woman. Janani-Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK)The initiative entitles all pregnant women delivering in public health institutions to absolutely free and no expense to delivery, including cesarean section.Includes free drugs and consumables, free diet up to 3 days during normal delivery and up to 7 days for cesarean section, free diagnostics, and free blood wherever required.Provides for free transpo from home to institution, between facilities in case of referral and drop back home.Similar entitlements for all sick newborns & infants accessing public health institutions for treatment till 30 days after bih.Aims to eliminate out of pocket expenses incurred by the pregnant women and sick new borns while accessing services at Government health facilities. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A recently delivered woman with a 15 days old child suffering from cough, sneezing and fever needs help. She has no money for transpoation to nearby hospital. Which of the national programme can help this woman?
A. JSSK
B. Indira Gandhi YojanaF-IMNCI
C. F-IMNCI
D. Home-based Care
| JSSK |
3c053a67-9d94-4e22-b368-e7e3df80fcb9 | “Direct pulp capping is defined as 1 mm2 or less than 1 mm2 exposure due to mechanical exposure during cavity preparation or caries or trauma left behind with a sound surrounding dentin and dressed with a biocompatible radiopaque base in contact with the exposed pulp and should heal the tissue and deposit the reparative dentin prior to placing the restoration.”
Reference: Pediatric Dentistry Principles and Practice SECOND EDITION, MS Muthu; pdf no 780 | Dental | null | Direct pulp capping is not done in which of these situations?
A. Mechanical exposure
B. No bleeding
C. Pinpoint exposure
D. Carious exposure with more than 1 mm in size
| Carious exposure with more than 1 mm in size |
2cc7bf03-5a41-4a8c-a8c9-9f969afac49f | Ans: B. Case controlstudy(Ref: Park 24/e p76, 23Ie p71; 22/c p76).Best study design to assess in quick time the strength of association between smoking and lung cancer is case control study.Permanent method of epidemiological investigation.Case control studies, often called retrospective studies are a common first approach to test causal hypothesis.Distinct features:Both exposure and outcome (disease) have occurred before the sta of study.Study proceeds backwards from effect to cause.Uses a control or comparison group to suppo or refute an inference. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is the best study design to assess in quick time the strength of association between smoking and lung cancer?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case controlstudy
C. Randomized controlled trial
D. Coho study
| Case controlstudy |
a3da6773-f951-4347-9138-db419a0c0a69 | Answer- A. PLAPPLAP (Placental alkaline phosphatase):Elevated levels present in as many as 40% patients with advanced disease.Most useful as a marker for bulk disease.Elevated in seminomaa | Surgery | null | Tumor marker for seminoma:
A. PLAP
B. LDH
C. AFP
D. HCG
| PLAP |
6f132291-8a44-47a8-9979-1d359c074a7c | The larynx is innervated bilaterally by the superior laryngeal nerve (supplies mucosa from the epiglottis to the level of the cords) and the recurrent laryngeal nerve (supplies mucosa below the cords), both branches of the vagus nerve (CN X).. | Anatomy | null | Nerve supply of the mucosa of larynx, from epiglottis to the level of the cords is :
A. Superior laryngeal
B. External laryngeal
C. External laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal
D. Internal laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal
| Superior laryngeal |
0ec4a50e-3eb2-44e9-97c5-527a8c6fdd68 | Ans: D SubscapularisSubscapularis muscle - Largest component of the posterior wall of the axilla.Origin: From subscapularis fossa & also fills it.Inseion: To lesser tubercle of humerus.Inseions of greater tubercle of humerusSupraspinatusInfraspinatusTeres minor | Anatomy | null | Which of the following muscle is not inseed to the greater tubercle of humerus?
A. Supraspinatus
B. lnfraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Subscapularis
| Subscapularis |
43665f50-c4e4-4798-a3b7-cfe41901c3e8 | Normal calcium level is 8.9-10.1 mg/dl (total calcium).
Slightly less than half of the total serum calcium exists in free or ionized form. Remainder is bound to protein (mostly albumin). ionized calcium is relevant for cell fuction.
"There are few clinical situations in which the total calcium is not an adequate surrogate for the ionized Ca++ concentration. The most common and severe problem is the presence of hypoalbuminemia".
Each 1 gin/di of albumin in the serum binds about 0.8 mg/dl of calcium.
A low total calcium concentration may be normal in a patient with significant hypoalbuminemia.
Now, it is clear from above that a low level of serum protein lowers the total plasma calcium but not the ionized calcium, So, before treating hypocalcemia, measure the serum protein level. | Pediatrics | null | A 10 days old neonate is posted for pyloric stenosis in surgery. The investigation report shows a serum calcium level of 6 mg/dL. What information would you like to know before you supplement calcium to this neonate –
A. Blood glucose
B. Serum protein
C. Serum bilirubin
D. Oxygen saturation
| Serum protein |
785fef59-4300-47c1-a53e-7e09f6201e0d | It is the answer from exclusion of other options.
Bilharziasis does not occur in neonatal period.
Sickle cell trait is usually asymptomatic.
Meatal stenosis presents between 3-8 years.
Now we are left with option `d' only. | Pediatrics | null | Most common cause of Blood stained diaper in a Neonate is :
A. Bilharziasis
B. Sickle cell trait
C. Meatal stenosis
D. Urethral hemangioma
| Urethral hemangioma |
b9e53e10-851b-41bd-b2e3-0ddc302ffd99 | Carcinoma larynx presenting with stridor means it is subglottic laryngeal carcinoma .Ideally in such cases emergency laryngectomy should be performed.
“In the case of a large subglottic tumour presenting with respiratory obstruction a case could be made for doing an emergency laryngectomy.”
But it is not given in the options:
Intubation can not be done as growth is seen in subglottic area therefore tube can not be put.
Planned tracheostomy can not be done as patient is suffering from stridor, which is an emergency. Therefore we will have to do emergency tracheostomy. With the precaution that the area of cancer should be removed within 72 hours. | ENT | null | A patient of carcinoma larynx with stridor presents in casualty, immediate management is -
A. Planned tracheostomy
B. Immediate tracheostomy
C. High dose steroid
D. Intubate, give bronchodilator and wait for 12 hours, if no response, proceed to tracheostomy
| Immediate tracheostomy |
762b1d6e-6206-45cf-baa7-55b1c14d5fb1 | Quadruple test is the second trimester measurement of maternal serum 1 Alpha fetoprotein ( MSAFP) : decreased2 unconjugated estriol: decreased3 HCG: increased4 Inhibin A : increased - It is done between 15 - 20 weeks | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following markers is not used in quadruple test for antenatal detection of Down syndrome?
A. AFP
B. ss-hCG
C. Estradiol
D. Inhibin
| Estradiol |
a2c8fb9f-f775-4508-8e72-8ac484406ba6 | SLN biopsy is usually done in: CA breast, CA penis & Malignant melanoma SLN biopsy is also applied successfully in cancers of head & neck & vulva | Surgery | AIIMS 2018 | Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful for:
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Carcinoma endometrium
C. Carcinoma vulva
D. Carcinoma vagina
| Carcinoma vulva |
5ba07589-bec7-4600-b1a2-93beb50dbc17 | Atropine is used for organophosphate and carbamate poisoning but not for organochloride poisoining. Since endrin is an organochloride so atropine is not an antidote for endrin. | Forensic Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | Atropine is not an antidote in:
A. Tik 20
B. Endrin
C. Baygon
D. Parathion
| Endrin |
f8a5b0e2-b529-4ad4-b55d-f6e5fc4708e1 | In the given question,
Sensitivity = 95%
Specificity = 80%
Prevalence = 20%
Thus, | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a population of 10000 people, the prevalence of a disease is 20%. The sensitivity of a screening test is 95% and specificity is 80%. The positive predictive value of the test will be -
A. 45.70%
B. 54.30%
C. 15.30%
D. 98.50%
| 54.30% |
64dbc15a-1052-4e21-8f02-e83da8a1e157 | Azithromycin for management of pneumococcal pneumonia Modality Regimen Previously healthy and no antibiotics in past 3 months: A macrolide or Doxycycline (100 mg PO BD) Comorbidities or antibiotics in past 3 months: select an alternative from a different class Fluoroquinolone or A b- lactam plus a macrolide In regions with a high rate of "high-level" pneumococcal macrolide resistance,consider alternatives listed above for patients with comorbidities | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following is the most commonly used drug for management of community acquired pneumonia?
A. Vancomycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Azithromycin
D. Streptomycin
| Azithromycin |
31cb149e-7c0f-489f-b2c6-10985226e2ff | According to Modified New York criteria, the diagnosis of definite AS requires the following: established sacroiliitis on radiographs (unilateral or bilateral) and at least one of the following clinical criteria: (1) low back pain and stiffness for more than 3 months improving with activity, (2) reduced chest expansion (3) limited lumbar movements. HLA B27 is present in > 90% cases of ankylosing spondylitis but it is not specific for AS. | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2019 | Most specific for diagnosing Ankylosing spondyliti?
A. HLA B27
B. B/l sactoilitis
C. Lumbar movement
D. ESR
| B/l sactoilitis |
533dcf5e-9bf9-4c25-a1bd-64f13f6e916b | Answer- A. Neurogenicthe most common mediastinal masses are neurogenic tumors (23%), thymomas (21%), lymphomas (13%) and germ cell tumors (12%). Mediastinal masses are most frequently located in the anterosuperior mediastinum (54%), with the posterior (26%) and middle mediastinum (20%) being less frequently involved | Medicine | null | What is the most common tumor of mediastinum?
A. Neurogenic
B. Thymoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Metastatic tumor
| Neurogenic |
f8c7a8c6-351b-4ffe-b108-dc3363837624 | Reliability is precision (repeatability) and Validity is accuracy (close to true/actual value)
In the given question, 10 successive readings are all different and they have a mean value of 9.4+10.4+9.6+9.1+10.8+12.1+10.1+9.8+9.2+9.5/10 = 10.0
Thus it has low reliability (non-consistent) and high validity (close to true/actual value of 10.2) | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A new method of measuring Haemoglobin levels has been developed. Ten successive readings of a single sample are as follows: 9.4, 10.4, 9.6, 9.1, 10.8, 12.1, 10.1, 9.8, 9.2, 9.5. But the Haemoglobin measured by standard calorimetry was 10.2. Therefore the given method has
A. Low validity, low reliability
B. High validity, low reliability
C. High validity, high reliability
D. Low validity, high reliability
| High validity, low reliability |
478d3388-e6a4-49a7-8c07-7b9f6f6c19b8 | Direct lines from book "warming of NaOCI to 122° F
(50' C) leads to increase in collagen dissolution
as potential to disinfecting, but it can leads to
detrimental corrosion effects on NiTi instruments
immersion for 1 hr". | Dental | null | Using stopko tip irrigation which of these is used cleaning and drying of pulp chamber:
A. 5.25% NaOCl + 17% EDTA
B. 95% alcohol+17% EDTA
C. 5.25 NaOCl+17% CHX
D. 95% ethanol + 17% EDTA
| 95% ethanol + 17% EDTA |
8cfd114e-e854-4456-baa4-46883d6d45b0 | Ans: B. Through umbilical vein(Ref: Ghai 8/e p132).Umbilical vein - Preferred route for drug delivery during resuscitation.Due to ease of approach.Veins in scalp or extremities are difficult to access during resuscitation.For umbilical vein catheterization, 3.5 Fr or 5 Fr umbilical catheter inseed into umbilical vein such that its tip is just inside the skin surface and there is free flow of blood.Direct injection into umbilical cord is not desirable.No intracardiac injection recommended. | Pediatrics | null | Ideal route of drug delivery in neonatal resuscitation is:
A. Intraosseous
B. Through umbilical vein
C. Through peripheral vein
D. Through umbilical aery
| Through umbilical vein |
3893484e-f4d8-4d90-b435-93af8a7bc469 | Preterm labour is labour staing before 37 weeks MANAGEMENT FOR PRETERM LABOUR :- 1) For lung maturity - steroids 2) Tocolytics E.g. - Nifedipine - First line & safest drug MgSo4 - Neuroprotective Very low bih wt. neonates whose mothers were treated with MgSo4 for preterm labor or preeclampsia were found to have a reduced incidence of cerebral palsy at 3 years. Rate of both neonatal death & cerebral palsy were lower in the Mg treated group. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following drugs used for management of preterm labor for also has Neuro- protective role in fetus:-
A. MgSO4
B. Nifedipine
C. Ritodrine
D. Isoxsuprine
| MgSO4 |
caec1fed-b5cf-4aa1-98bd-0c0806992f06 | Ans: A. Testosterone(Ref Ganong 25/e p 422, 24/e p424; Harper 30/e p 516. 517)Testosterone binds to SHBG with higher affinity than does estradiol.Hence SHBG level change a Greater change in free testosterone level than in free estradiol.Sex hormone binding globulin:Glycoprotein binding sex steroids with high affinity as.Order:DHT>Testosterone>>Esterone/ estradiol. Due to higher SHBG affinity for DHT & Testosterone, SHBG variation has profound effects on androgens levels. | Physiology | null | Which of the following hormones will be affected most after the change in sex hormone binding globulin?
A. Testosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. DHEA
| Testosterone |
8ecc6a1a-b653-4b05-81f1-341c356e6c62 | In insulin structure.:- A chain has total 21 Amino Acid. 6th, 7th, 11th, and 20th Amino Acid Are Cysteine and these residuals are responsible for the formation of disulphide bond. If we break disulphide bond in a protein this will lead to denaturation of the protein. B Chain has total 30 amino acid.7th and 19th are cysteine So they also cannot be changed, or if changed will lead to denaturation of the protein Thus options C and D can be ruled out. Interchange of A1 & A4, i.e. glycine and glutamate, which can also be ruled out because glycine is an amino acid which is conserved during evolution in most of the proteins. Interchange of B29 and B30: - The insulin which is used in the treatment - Insulin lispro actually has a change in the carboxy terminal of B chain. So, changes can be made here for changing little bit of propeies and not going to damage the structure much. EXTRA EDGE: Gene coding for insulinis localized on11p15 site of chromosome. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following change can be done in insulin structure so that there is least change in the function of insulin:
A. Interchange of A1 & A4
B. Interchange of B29 and B30
C. Interchange of A5 & A6
D. Breaking disulphide linkages
| Interchange of B29 and B30 |
8cce7868-0429-4f98-9e6a-4baa045dffcc | Ans: B. Internuclear ophthalmoplegiaDemyelinationRef Bilateral Internuclear ophthalmoplegio in Multiple sclerosis,iejm journal,20l6Typically, symptoms & examination findings i.e. diplopia on looking towards left in the right eye is characteristic of internuclear ophthalmoplegia. | Ophthalmology | null | A 15-year-oldboy presented with headache and blurring of vision. On examination there was diptopia on looking towards left in the right eye.What is your diagnosis?
A. Tb meningitis
B. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
C. Cranial neuritis
D. Demyelination
| Internuclear ophthalmoplegia |
4b376e03-6fe0-40fd-b3be-aea6048bf7fa | Answer- A. RedExtremely toxic insecticide, according to WHO classification, is coded as Red. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Extremely axle insecticide according to WHO classification, are coded as:
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue
| Red |
d75dc767-c74f-4b3d-a2bd-f5e6c082e497 | Flexion of interphalangeal joint of thumb is carried out by flexor pollicis longus. It is supplied by AIN, a branch of median nerve. Muscles which are supplied by AIN are flexor digitorum profundus (Lateral 1/2 ), flexor pollicis longus and pronator quadratus. PIN a branch of radial nerve causes finger drop Supra condylar fracture of Humerus - Order of nerve involvement in children:AIN > Median Nerve > Radial Nerve > Ulnar Nerve | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2018 | A patient of supracondylar humerus fracture is unable to flex interphalangeal joint of the thumb. Which nerve is most likely injured?
A. Median nerve
B. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
C. AIN
D. Pin
| AIN |
7bc4b5f5-b82c-47d0-956f-3b4110d7f371 | Answer- C. PolioEtiology of club footIdiopathic (MC) or CTEVSecondary club foot:Neurological disorders and neural tube defects (myelomeningocele, spinal dysraphism)Paralytic disorders as spina bifida, myelodysplasia and Freidreich's ataxiaAhrogryposis multiplex congenitaLarsen syndromeFreeman-Sheldon (Mobius) syndromeDiastrophic dwarfismSacral agenesis, tibial deficiency, constriction rings and amniotic bandsFetal alcohol syndromeDown's syndromeLarsen syndrome | Surgery | null | Which of the following is not a cause of clubfoot in newborns?
A. CTEV
B. Ahogryposis multiplex cngenita
C. Polio
D. Spina bifida
| Polio |
ebefed46-d39d-42b5-8406-b16c9fb32ba7 | Answer: c. Absence of oligoclonal bands (Ref Harrison I9/e p2656. 18/e p3372)Oligoclonal bands are variable; but when bands are present, a diagnosis of MS is more likely, thus absence of oligoclonal bands suggests a less likely progression to MS. | Medicine | null | Which of the following clinical features of demyelinating myelopathy least likely suggests a progression to multiple sclerosis?
A. Complete cord transection
B. Bilateral visual loss
C. Absence of oligoclonal bands
D. Poor prognosis
| Absence of oligoclonal bands |
2f41338e-aea5-444f-9745-5208a6d9fb9a | Ans: B. Flexor digitorum profundus(Ref Bailey 26/e p465)Rugger jersey finger:Caused by rupture of flexor digitorum profundus.Injury to flexor profundus tendon at its attachment point to distal phalanx.Occurs mostly in American football when a player grabs another player's jersey with the tips of one or more fingers while that player is pulling or running away." | Surgery | null | Jersey finger is caused by rupture of:
A. Flexor digitorum superficialis
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Extensor digiti minirni
D. Extensor indicis proprius
| Flexor digitorum profundus |
31d9dc23-3844-404e-b7f9-09275b2bdbf9 | Ans. a. CO, wash outInfants and children with a small PDA are generally asymptomatic; infants with a large PDA present with signs of hea failure.'Premature newborns can't tolerate PDA, so it results in hea failure, respiratory distress or necrotizing enterocolitis.Premature infants may present with respiratory distress, apnea, worsening mechanical ventilation requirement or other serious complications (e.g. necrotizing enterocolitis)Signs of hea failure occur earlier in premature o infants than in full-term infants and may be more severe.A large ductal shunt in a premature infant often is a major contributor to the severity of the lung disease of prematurity | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is least likely in PDA?
A. CO, wash out
B. Necrotizing enterocolitis
C. Bounding pulse
D. Pulmonary hemorrhage
| CO, wash out |
470f224d-77cb-41dc-81e2-52f4cdce2acd | Answer- D. Poor Preoperative preparation of the patientThis is a rare but life-threatening complication of thyrotoxicosis.The most prominent signs are fever, agitation, delirium, tachycardia or atrial fibrillation and, in the older patient, cardiac failure. Thyrotoxic crisis is a medical emergency and has a moality of 10% despite early recognition and treatment.It is most commonly precipitated by an infection in a patient with previously unrecognized or inadequately treated thyrotoxicosis.It may also develop in known thyrotoxicosis sholy after thyroidectomy in an ill-prepared patient or within a few days of 131I therapy, when acute radiation damage may lead to a transient rise in serum thyroid hormone levels.Patients should be rehydrated and given propranolol, either orally (80 mg 4 times daily) or intravenously (1-5 mg 4 times daily). Sodium iodate (500 mg per day orally) will restore serum T3 levels to normal in 48-72 hours.This is a radiographic contrast medium that not only inhibits the release of thyroid hormones but also reduces the conversion of T4 to T3 and is, therefore, more effective than potassium iodide or Lugol's solution. | Medicine | null | causes of thyroid storm
A. ineffective pre-operative hormonal control
B. manhandling of the thyroid gland during surgery
C. parathyroid tail left after surgery
D. Poor Preoperative preparation of the patient
| Poor Preoperative preparation of the patient |
36afb87d-0e47-49c4-a770-62b80978844d | The quality of the surface finish and polish can be characterized by the measurement of the surface roughness using a profilometer, an optical microscope or an SEM.
Reference: Phillips 12th ed page no 236 | Dental | null | Surface roughness of an orthodontic mini-screw implant can be measured by:
A. Gyrometer
B. Androidometer
C. Profilometer
D. Resonance analyzer
| Profilometer |
c08067b4-7695-49f9-8c51-efbca491078a | Radiation caries is a rampant form of dental decay that may occur in individuals who receive a course of radiotherapy that includes exposure of the salivary glands. Patients receiving radiation therapy to oral structures have increase in Streptococcus mutans, Lactobacillus, and Candida. Caries results from changes in the salivary glands and saliva, including reduced flow, decreased pH, reduced buffering capacity, increased viscosity, and altered flora.
White and Pharoah, pg-22 | Radiology | null | Decay of enamel following radiotherapy is initiated due to:
A. Decrease in salivary flow
B. Direct radiations contacting the enamel
C. Dessication of tooth structure
D. Hypocalcification and pitting of enamel
| Decrease in salivary flow |
Subsets and Splits