id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
131f5cb9-45ff-4698-992a-dfb143a3c237 | Pneumatic compression stocking is used to prevent DVT in patients with immobilization for longer duration of time. These are helpful in patients at moderate risk for DVT as a prophylactic measure but these are not effective against established thrombosis. It is used especially in bariatric population and can be used in their room, operation room or post-operative area. - DVT should be initially managed by heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin. - Long-term management is done by anti-coagulation with warfarin. - Inferior vena cava filter is indicated for patients not benefiting from medical treatment. | Surgery | AIIMS 2018 | The given below device is/used for:
A. Pneumatic compression stocking
B. Varicose vein
C. Hypothermia
D. Cellulitis
| Pneumatic compression stocking |
21f2316e-83b3-4c4b-bc86-fec4f0a0e64b | Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with an extra X chromosome (47, XXY).
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 198 | Pathology | null | Syndrome which is characterized by 2X chromosomes and 1Y chromosome is:
A. Kleinfelter syndrome
B. Down syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome
| Kleinfelter syndrome |
dfd6bf3b-b4c4-48c9-87aa-4532fa309157 | Answer- D. Acute intermittent porphyriaPeriodic abdominal pain (GI symptoms), peripheral neuropathy, headache (neurological symptoms) and psychiatric disorders (aggressive behavior) is highly suggestive of acute intermittent porphyria.Asymptomatic in majority of patients prior to pubeyMC symptom: Abdominal painIleus, abdominal distention & decreased bowel sounds are common.Nausea; vomiting; constipation; tachycardia; hypeension; mental symptoms; pain in limbs, head, neck, or chest; muscle weakness; sensory loss; dysuria; and urinary retention are characteristic.Tachycardia, hypeension, restlessness, tremors & excess sweating are due to sympathetic overactivity.Peripheral neuropathy is due to axonal degeneration and primarily affects motor neurons.Motor neuropathy affects the proximal muscles initially, more often in the shoulders & arms.Mental symptoms: Anxiety, insomnia, depression, disorientation, hallucinations, paranoia & seizures | Medicine | null | A 20 years old female came with complaints of headache, vomiting and decrease in movement of right leg. In the past, she had episodes of violent and aggressive behaviour and abdominal pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Conversion disorder
B. Mitochondria disorder
C. Acute inflammatory demyelinating, paralysis
D. Acute intermittent porphyria
| Acute intermittent porphyria |
faf4af2f-9fe4-4062-9bdb-e21778b5cccd | In vertex presentation when the occiput is placed posteriorly over the sacroiliac joint or directly over the sacrum. It is called as occiptoposterior position.
Causes of Occipitoposterior Position:
Most common cause of occipitoposterior position is anthropoid and android pelvis: | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The commonest cause of occipitoposterior position of fetal head during labor is:
A. Maternal obesity
B. Multiparity
C. Deflexion of fetal head
D. Android pelvis
| Android pelvis |
b71747a9-b89b-45b2-a54f-04765341177b | Answer- D. Hyoscine hydrobromideGlycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary anticholinergic, which doesn't cross the blood brain barrier and completely lacks central effects. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following anticholinergic agent does not cross the blood brain barrier?
A. Glycopyrrolate
B. Atropine
C. Hyoscine butylbromide
D. Hyoscine hydrobromide
| Hyoscine hydrobromide |
3082bf7d-871f-4f5a-9235-63668503c2e5 | Ans: A. Superior olivary complex(Ref Gray's 40/e p628, Ganong 25/e 207, 24/e p207)Superior olivary complex - Control center for stapedial reflex. | Physiology | null | Which of the following nerve root is the control center for the stapedial reflex?
A. Superior olivary complex
B. Lateral lemniscus
C. Inferior colliculus
D. Medial geniculate body
| Superior olivary complex |
7d9967cf-83ed-4796-be25-4c0637193d4c | Absolute refractory period: The period during which 2nd action potential cannot be elicited, even with strong stimulus is called "ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD". Reason for this restriction is that sholy after action potential is initiated, the sodium channels (or calcium channels / both) become inactivated & no amount of excitatory signal applied to these channels at this point will open inactivated gates. Only condition that will allow them to reopen is when membrane potential returns to or gets close to original resting membrane potential level. Then, within another small fraction of second, inactivated gates of channels open & new action potential can be initiated This period for large myelinated nerve fibers is about 1/2500 second thus, such fibers can transmit maximum of about 2500 impulses per second - Na have 2 gates, activated gate & an inactivated gate. At resting state - active gate - closed - inactive gate - open At stimulus - both gates are open At absolute refractory period - active gate - open; inactive gate - closed Next action potential is generated only after inactivated gate is open & both gates go back to resting state. | Physiology | AIIMS 2017 | Absolute refractoriness of a neuron is due to?
A. Closure of activated Na channels
B. Closure of inactivated Na channels
C. Hyperpolarization of CI channels
D. Opening of rectifier K + channels
| Closure of inactivated Na channels |
5cfbf418-71b5-46c6-bc7a-d15cfee99283 | Benzocaine can be given in liver failure patients since it is ester type, and can be metabolized by cholinesterase in plasma. | Dental | null | Which of the local anesthetic agent can be given in liver failure cases?
A. Articaine
B. Lignocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Benzocaine
| Benzocaine |
09657fa4-eeb3-4860-8b8c-f2e25c7eabab | Primary open angle glaucoma - baring of the blind spot Diabetic macular edema - doesn't lead to any visual field defect Optic nerve hypoplasia - it is not developed enough to develop a proper visual field defect Papilledema (it is raised intracranial pressure causing disc edema ) - leads to enlargement of blind spot | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2019 | Enlargement of the blind spot occurs in which of the following
A. Primary open angle glaucoma
B. Diabetic macular edema
C. Optic nerve hypoplasia
D. Papilledema
| Papilledema |
285a31c4-9b01-416d-956d-82fa46d60bbb | Wounds classification: Clean - 5% Clean contaminated - 10% Contaminated - 20-30% Diy - 30-40% Wounds Class Definition I: Clean Uninfected operative wound without inflammation Respiratory, alimentary, genital or infected urinary tract is not entered Wounds are closed primarily, if necessary drained with closed drain Examples of Clean Wound Inguinal hernia Joint replacement Thyroidectomy Mastectomy Abdominal aoic aneurysm (AAA) repair II: Clean contaminated Operative wound in which respiratory tract GIT or genitourinary tract is entered under controlled condition without unusual contamination Examples of Clean Contaminated Wound Cholecystectomy CBD exploration Elective GI surgeries (elective colonic resection, gastrectomy) III: Contaminated Open, fresh accidental wounds Operations with major break in sterile techniques Gross spillage from GIT Incision in which acute non-purulent inflammation is encountered Examples of Contaminated Wound Spill during elective GI surgery Perforated gastric ulcer Appendicular perforation Penetrating abdominal trauma Enterotomy during bowel obstruction Human bite Open fracture TYPE OF SURGERY INFECTION RATE WITH PROPHYLAXIS IN % INFECTION RATE WITHOUT PROPHYLAXIS IN % CLEAN(no viscus opened) 1-2 1-2 CLEAN CONTAMINATED (viscus opened, minimal spillage) 3 6-9 CONTAMINATED (open viscus with spillage or inflammatory disease) 6 13-20 DIY (pus/perforation/incision through abscess) 7 40 Table no. 5.4 from Bailey and love's Sho practice of surgery, 27 Ed , Pg no-53 | Surgery | AIIMS 2019 | Percentage of surgical site infection in patients with clean contaminated wound after prophylactic antibiotic?
A. 1-2%
B. <10%
C. 10-20%
D. 20-30%
| <10% |
4f50899d-3016-461b-bd81-c1c29fbe6d29 | Ans: A. PHC(Ref Park 24/e p944, 23/e p9Ob, 221e p847).A psychiatrist is not posted at PHC.For sub-centre area of PHCApa from the essential staff, the desirable staff for both type A and type B PHC are:One of the two medical officers (MBBS) should be lady doctor, if the delivery case load is 30 or more per month.One AYUSH medical officer to provide choice to the people, where as AYUSH facility is not available in the vicinity.One staff nurse/nurse midwife.One health educator at the PHC.That makes total staff at type A PHC 18 and at type B PHC 21. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A psychiatrist is not posted at:
A. PHC
B. Military hospitals
C. District hospitals
D. Hospitals with medical colleges
| PHC |
76ad139f-2d71-44b7-aca8-bd96da79500b | Ans: D: Adenomyosis(Ref: Shaw's 16Ie p413-413, 13/c p4T 3; Novak's 13Ie p184; Robbins 9Ie p1012)Clinical features like abdominal pain and menorrhagia with normal endometrial biopsy and on ultrasound diffuse, symmetrical enlargement of uterus, in a perimenopausal women without any focal lesion is highly suggestive of Adenomyosis.Clinical symptoms include menometrorrhagia (irregular and heavy menses), colicky dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and pelvic pain, paicularly during the premenstrual period.Coexist with endometriosis.Often asymptomatic.Uterus is diffusely enlarged, although usually less than 14 cm in size, and is often soft and tender, paicularly at the time of menses. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 45 years old patient presented with complaints of pain in abdomen and menorrhagia. Endometrial biopsy was normal and sonogram of uterus showed diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal mass. What is the diagnosis?
A. Fibroid uterus
B. Endometritis
C. Endometriosis
D. Adenomyosis
| Adenomyosis |
1a54dc09-051e-419b-879e-6d435f34f711 | Ans. A. Working mother Identification of 'At Risk' Infants * Bih weight < 2.5 Kg* Bih order 5 or more* Aificial feeding* Weight below 70% of expected weight (i.e. grade II & III malnutrition)* Failure to gain weight during 3 successive months* Children with PEM, Diarrhea.* Working mother, one parent.* Spacing of less than 1 year. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is considered as high risk infant?
A. Working mother
B. Antenatal preeclampsia
C. Third child
D. Twins
| Working mother |
2aacf8d1-b36e-49be-8333-af91aa2a49c9 | Answer- C. Ganglion cellsGlaucoma, the second leading cause ofblindness, is characterized by changes in the optic disc and visual field defects.The elevated intraocular pressure was considered the prime factor responsible for the glaucomatous optic neuropathy involving death of retinal ganglion cellsaand their axons.Glaucoma, a leading cause of irreversible visual loss, is characterized by loss of retinal ganglion cells (RGC) and their axons over a period of many years.Mainly the ganglions cellsa are affected in glaucoma patients, which may lead to glaucomatus optic atrophy.Glaucomatous optic neuropathy is characterized by changes in the optic disc and visual field defects.The morphologic changes in the optic disc are in the form of thinning of neuro retinal rim, pallor and progressive cupping of the optic disc.The hemorrhage-associated retinal nerve fiber layer defects precede measurable changes ofthe optic disc configuration.The visual field defects in glaucoma are often detected only after 40% of the axons are loss. | Ophthalmology | null | Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:
A. Amacrine cells
B. Bipolar cells
C. Ganglion cells
D. Rods and cones
| Ganglion cells |
178bda2c-c1fc-47dd-8d73-ef6e7ddf0d22 | Ans. d. Candida parapsilosis"C. parapsilosis infections are esptecially associated with hyperalimentation solutions, prosthetic devices, and indwellingcatheters, as well as the nosoeomial sprcad of disease throagh the hands of health care workers | Pediatrics | null | . The most common fungal infection in the neonates transmitted by caregiver's hand is:
A. Candida albicans
B. Candida glabrata
C. Candida tropicalis
D. Candida parapsilosis
| Candida parapsilosis |
38eb248f-7849-45e2-ac3c-6cb74c930f3e | Pilonidal sinus surgery - excision of pilonidal sinus and cyst and repair of defect by flap. Flaps used: 1. Limber's flap 2.Karydakis flap 3. Rhomboid flap 4. Bascom procedure | Surgery | AIIMS 2018 | A Young Male complained of intermittent pain , swelling and discharge at the base of spine. He also had episodes of fever and repeated abscesses that had burst spontaneously , in recent past. By occupation , he is a jeep driver. On physical examination, diagnosis of pilonidal sinus was made. Which flap-based procedure is used for pilonidal sinus surgery?
A. Rhomboid flap
B. Circular flap
C. Free flap
D. Rotational flap
| Rhomboid flap |
12342b20-b7a0-4f14-91ed-c764fc51ed7b | Ans: D. Nasolacrimal nerve (probably printing mistake - probably Nasociliary nerve).Cornea:Richly supplied by nerves (without myelin sheaths & Schwann cell sheath).Extremely sensitive structure - Due to its dense nerve supply.Ooriginate from small ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve, mainly by long ciliary nerve.Long ciliary nerve - Branch of Nasociliary nerve. | Anatomy | null | Sensory supply of cornea is by?
A. Infraorbital nerve
B. Supraorbital nerve
C. Infratrochlear nerve
D. Nasolacrimal nerve (probably printing mistake - probably Nasociliary nerve).
| Nasolacrimal nerve (probably printing mistake - probably Nasociliary nerve). |
0c970c10-c97d-4025-b24d-e70245231e41 | Ans : C ChikungunyaRef: Hypapigmqtdion and &ilangurwfetEn &hasnw A" An has Demaor 20 I 6;9 I :g60-I r.Chikungunya fever (cF) is an acute febrile illness presenting with symptoms like intense asthenia, ahralgia, myalgia and headache and is caused by chikungunya virus (CV).Among the skin lesions, maculopapular rash is common, but seen in several viral illnesses, therefore, not useful in suspecting CF.Hyperpigmentation is a unique feature noted in CF.Hyperpigmentation associated with CF is macular and most commonly affects nose and cheeks. | Skin | null | A patient came with history of joint pain and fever for one week. For which the patient took NSAIDS foilowing which he developed rash and hyperpigmentation on nose. What is the most likelv diagnosis?
A. Dengue
B. fixed Drug eruption
C. Chikungunya
D. melasma
| Chikungunya |
ec1866a1-00c2-425a-8886-ff7321defbd9 | Focal length of objective lens:
For ear surgery - 200 mm/ 250 mm
For Nose / Paranasal sinus surgery - 300 mn
For Laryngeal surgery-400 mn | ENT | null | Which focal length in the objective piece of microscope is commonly used for ear surgery?
A. 100mm
B. 250 mm
C. 450mm
D. 950 mm
| 250 mm |
15cebe53-6289-419d-af57-d6f5c6177147 | Ans: C. 300 mg(Ref: Hypeension in pregnancy (ACOG laskforce on hypeension in pregnancy)-Obstetrics and gynaecology, Vol-122, No.5, November 2013; William's 24/e p181; Danfoh 10/e p264)Diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia:Proteinuria - 2300 mg per 24 hour urine collection.Removed from essential criterion for pre-eclampsia diagnosis by American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists in 2013.In absence of diagnostic requirement of 5 gm as massive proteinaria for severe eclampsia - General definition of proteinuria (>300 mg) sufficient. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the level of proteinuria to diagnose severe preeclampsia?
A. 20 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 300 mg
D. 3000 mg
| 300 mg |
6d9630ba-dad1-4241-aac6-e09dd761a9c1 | Microcephaly is defined as a head circumference that measures more than three standard deviation below the mean for age.
Causes of microcephaly | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following disorder of mother leads to microcephaly in baby –a) SLEb) Hepatitis A c) Phenylketonuriad) Rubella
A. ab
B. cd
C. bd
D. ac
| cd |
f1f62761-750a-4d61-ae39-13f4c4e131d5 | 2,3,4-posterior intercostal vein on left side drains into left superior intercostal which fuher drains into left brachiochephalic vein . Right and left brachiocephalic veins joins to form superior vena cava that opens into right atrium Posterior Intercostal Veins and their drainage: Right side drains into 1stposterior intercostal vein Right brachiocephalic vein 2,3,4 posterior intercostal vein Arch of azygos vein 5 to 11 posterior intercostal vein Azygos vein Left side drains into 1stposterior intercostal vein Left brachiocephalic vein 2,3,4-posterior intercostal vein Left brachiocephalic vein 5,6,7 posterior intercostal vein Superior hemiazygous vein 8,9,10 posterior intercostal vein Inferior hemiazygous vein | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 | Left superior intercostal vein drains into ?
A. Azygous vein
B. Hemiazygous vein
C. Brachiocephalic vein
D. Internal thoracic vein
| Brachiocephalic vein |
c16a9d6e-5e30-4209-94b1-1f9e8444c9c9 | Baker Anchorage
In most of the malocclusion cases, the upper teeth protruded excessively and the lower teeth and jaw seemed to be underdeveloped. Obviously, the mere expansion of the upper and lower arches would not achieve the desired correction. Some means had to be found to correct the protrusion of the upper teeth and the underdevelopment of the lower teeth and jaws. This was achieved by so-called Baker anchorage, a method of using intermaxillary rubber bands. | Dental | null | Bakers anchorage is a type of:
A. Intramaxillary anchorage
B. Intermaxillary anchorage
C. Extraoral anchorage
D. Muscular anchorage
| Intermaxillary anchorage |
11271a83-0b83-4fb4-b809-05e352546743 | Ans: C. Stratified random samplingRef. Park 24/e p886, 23/e p850, 22/e p792; BK Malunan 6th/100-101).Stratified random sampling is used for selecting patients with respect to potential factors that will affect the results.Stratified random sample:The sample is deliberately drawn in a systematic way so that each poion of the sample represents corresponding strata of universe.This method is paicularly useful where one is interested in analyzing the data by a ceain characteristic of population, viz. Hindus, Christians, Muslims, age-groups etc. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is used for selecting patients with respect to potential factors that will affect the results?
A. Systematic random sampling
B. Simple random sampling
C. Stratified random sampling
D. Cluster sampling
| Stratified random sampling |
6252f5b1-80de-49b0-8e07-0d34604f28b3 | Answer- A. IGF1An IGF-I level provides a useful laboratory screening measure when clinical features raise the possibility of acromegaly.Acromegaly-Diagnosis:Screening investigation of choice in acromegaly: IGF-lConfirmatory & Gold standard: Oral Glucose Tolerance tests | Medicine | null | A 50 years old male presented with frontal bossing, enlarged nasal bone, enlarged jaw and spade like fingers. Which of the following test will you do for diagnosis?
A. IGF1
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. Serum coisol
| IGF1 |
0489f20c-a0ce-4251-9eec-e8d5e691a49e | Metoprolol - |HR Verapamil - A-V nodal delay, |HR So, Bradycardia with AV Block - Torsade's De points: Class IA / IC / III: anti antiarrhythmic | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | A patient of hypeension on Metoprolol, Verapamil was given. This is will result in?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Bradycardia with AV Block
C. Torsades De pointes
D. Tachycardia
| Bradycardia with AV Block |
23e4f458-0d08-4562-8a80-4b5a1a1df64f | Ans: A. Myxedema ComaRef: Harrison, I8't' ed., pg. 2922.Myxedema coma is a state of decompensated hypothyroidism.A person may have lab values identical to a "normal" hypothyroid state, but a stressful event (such as an infection, myocardial infarction or stroke) precipitates the myxedema coma state, usually in the elderly.Primary symptolns of myxedema coma are altered rnental status and low body ternperature.Low blood sugar, low blood pressure, hyponatrereria, hypercapnia, hypoxia, slowed hea rate, and hypoventilation may also occur. | Medicine | null | A Female patient was brought to the ER with altered sensorium. On examination BP was 88/67mm with a pulse of 60/min. Rectal temperature was 34 Celsius. There was associated history of constipation, dry skin and menorrhagia. What is the diagnosis?
A. Myxedema Coma
B. Septic Shock
C. Hypothermia
D. Cardiogenic Shock
| Myxedema Coma |
522522f6-47cd-4dbc-843d-8dbd3768bff7 | Proparacaine (It is an ester containing LA) has fast onset (within 30 sec) and sho duration of action (10-20 minutes) Used in ophthalmic surgeries. Metabolized by pseudocholinesterase | Anaesthesia | AIIMS 2019 | Duration of action of proparacaine:
A. 2min
B. 5min
C. 10min
D. 20min
| 20min |
b2fbf8f3-4379-40fe-83ac-c1deb1b5c045 | Answer- D. AnklePrbminence of posterosuperior poion of calcaneus leading to heel pain is called Haglund deformity.A Haglund deformity, or pump bump, is caused by chronic inflammation of the adventitious superficial pretendinousAchilles bursa that separutes the Achilles tendon from the overlying skin."-Campbell's operative | Surgery | null | Haglund's deformity is seen in which joint?
A. Elbow
B. Wrist
C. Knee
D. Ankle
| Ankle |
6fdf54ef-e9b7-4086-97b1-c159316a8d4f | Naive T cell get activated by antigen presenting cells such as Dendritic cell Macrophage B-lymphocyte Most impoant APC in activating naive T cell is dendritic cell Dendritic cell on skin is called as Langerhans's cell. They have granules called as Bier beck's granules These granules have rod like appearance with a dilated end hence known to have tennis racquet appearance Markers of Langerhans's cell CD 1 A S-100 HLA-DR Dendritic cell in lymph node is known as follicular dendritic cell. Follicular dendritic cell acts as a reservoir for HIV | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | Naive T cell get activated by:
A. NK cell
B. Dendritic cell
C. Macrophage
D. B-lymphocyte
| Dendritic cell |
702667ab-e933-48db-91f6-f8c8a663a266 | Balance is accomplished by designing the angles of the shank so that the cutting edge of the blade lies within the projected diameter of the handle and nearly coincides with the projected long axis of the handle. For optimal antirotational design, the blade edge must not be positioned away from the axis by more than 1 to 2 mm.
Sturdevants operative dentistry 7th edition page e1 | Dental | null | In order to have balance in hand instrument:
A. Blade edge should be within 2 mm of the axis of handle
B. Blade edge should be within 2 mm of the axis of shank
C. Blade edge should be within 2.5 mm of the axis of handle
D. Blade edge should be within 2.5 mm of the axis of shank
| Blade edge should be within 2 mm of the axis of handle |
f447a6cc-d72e-4d0b-8330-ffc5c840394f | Ans. c. Increase in mean aerial pressureNoradrenaline is a powerful peripheral vasoconstrictor and inotrope and used in patients of septic shock and cardiogenic shock. Noradrenaline causes peripheral vasoconstriction thereby increasing diastolic blood pressure as well as venous return. The increase in diastolic blood pressure and systolic blood pressure can increase mean aerial pressure (MAP) which is the therapeutic outcome expected in any septic shock patient as a response to vasopressor. | Pharmacology | null | A patient of septic shock was given intravenous norepinephrine. The response to this drug is best checked by:
A. Increase in hea rate
B. Decrease in hea rate
C. Increase in mean aerial pressure
D. Decreased renal perfusion and reduced urine output
| Increase in mean aerial pressure |
94b13f6b-7f81-41a0-bbef-d22271e45a47 | In the above question, lab investigation of the patient reveals normal hemoglobin, Elevated TLC, normal platelet count, decreased Neutrophils, Elevated metamyelocytes and myelocytes. This lab picture clearly indicates that immature WBC's are much more in number than the mature WBC'S. Such a condition is given the name "shift to the left". This is seen in association with two types of conditions: 1.) Leukemoid reaction 2.) CML To distinguish between the two condition, we can do: LAP score (not commonly performed now). - CML- decreased, Leukemoid reaction- increased. Philadelphia chromosome presence (confirmatory test)- CML- Philadelphia chromosome (+ve), Leukemoid reaction - Philadelphia chromosome(-ve) . | Pathology | AIIMS 2017 | A patient presented with headache and fever. His investigations revealed hemoglobin of 16g/dl, TLC of 21,000/ uL, platelet count of 3,75,000. His DLC showed Neutrophils (25%), Lymphocytes (20%), Metamyelocytes and myelocytes 40%and eosinophils5%. Which of the following is the next best investigation in this patient?
A. JAK 2 mutation
B. EPO level
C. Philadelphia chromosome
D. Bone marrow biopsy
| Philadelphia chromosome |
6e814124-0dfa-4060-a9a5-c6510f5301d4 | In patients with previous history of Down syndrome
“The risk of recurrence is greater than the risk of genetic diagnosis and these patients should be advised to seek genetic counselling and to have a genetic diagnosis.”
Fernando Arias 3/e, p 27
Therefore amniocentesis /Chorionic villous biopsy should be done. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant female, 38 years old, had a child with Down's syndrome. How do you assess the risk of Down's syndrome in the present pregnancy:
A. Material alpha-feto protein
B. Material HCG
C. USG
D. Chorionic villous biopsy
| Chorionic villous biopsy |
498c56bd-94f3-48de-b981-5c6400ee5700 | Greater palatine foramen located medial to the third molar at the junction of the maxilla and the horizontal palate of the palatine bone. Greater palatine foramen transmits descending palatine vessels and palatine nerve. | Anatomy | null | Located medial to the third molar at the junction of the maxilla and the horizontal plate of the palatine bone:
A. Posterior nasal spine
B. Mylohyoid line
C. Pterygoid hamulus
D. Greater palatine foramen
| Greater palatine foramen |
ba54a2e5-0beb-4a2b-a1ec-f34e58a5e679 | Tab. Rifampicin to the meningitis patients is chemoprophylaxis which is given when a risk factor is present. Hence this is primary level prevention specific protection. Pentavalent vaccines; vaccines are always given when risk factors are present. Primary level prevention with Specific protection. Foification done when there is need or deficiency in a population (risk factors): primary level prevention. Protection from occupational hazards, Road traffic accidents, carcinogens will come under primary level Specific protection. Health education is primordial prevention. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following does not include Specific protection under primary prevention?
A. Tab Rifampicin to those in contact with meningitis
B. Health education
C. Pentavalent vaccination
D. Wheat flour foified with added iron
| Health education |
08261677-c2d9-467e-9b36-2860dd82c98c | Answer: b. 2 years (Ref Reddy 33/e p35, 29/e p260,Under section 304A of IPC, for a proved case of medical negligence, the maximum punishment of imprisonment is up to 2 years. | Forensic Medicine | null | Under section 304A of IPC, for a proved case of medical negligence, The maximum punishment of imprisonment is up to:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
| 2 years |
5444cae2-aeab-4a04-8501-e91fe8ce794a | Ans. A. 2 minutesProparacaine and tetracaine are indicated to produce local anesthesia of sho duration for ophthalmic procedures including measurement of intraocular pressure (tonometry), removal of foreign bodies and sutures, and conjunctival and corneal scraping in diagnosis and gonioscopy.Onset of action:* Proparacaine--Within 20 seconds.* Tetracaine--Approximately 15 seconds.Duration of action:* Proparacaine--15 minutes or longer.* Tetracaine--10 to 20 minutes; average 15 minutes. | Anaesthesia | null | The action of proparacaine stas within?
A. 2 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
| 2 minutes |
6004baf5-e4da-4d48-915d-e1bd251c936e | Helps to retract the bladder so, you can enter in uterus Used in LSCS | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 | In which of surgeries this retractor is commonly used.
A. LSCS
B. Vaginal hysterectomy
C. Fothergill repair
D. Manchester operation
| LSCS |
398ff5ba-cea5-4aff-be5e-b5f0839d0d69 | Answer- C. Atropine'According to AHA 2020 Guidelines, Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in the management of pulseless electrical activity (PEA)asystole.'ACLS- medications for pulses arrestAtropine: deleted from pulseless arrest algorithmEpinephrine: dose, interval unchangedVasopressin: dose, use unchangedAmiodarone: dose, indications unchangedLidocaine: dose, indications unchangedSodium Bicarbonate: routine use not recommendedCalcium: for treatment of cardiac arrest not recommended | Anaesthesia | null | According to `AHA 2010 Guidelines' which of the following drug is not used in CPCR?
A. Adrenalin
B. Vasopressin
C. Atropine
D. Amiodarone
| Atropine |
eae98f93-8d7a-4920-9c80-298de99d64a8 | Answer- D .EBVThe most impoant risk factors for developing HNSCC are tobacco smoking and alcohol consumption.Consumed in betel quids containing areca nut increases the risk of developing HNSCC.HNSCCs of the oral cavity and oropharynx, are becoming more prevalent, which may be related to an increase in oral and oropharyngeal HPV infection. | Surgery | null | Which of the following does not cause head and neck squamous cell carcinoma
A. Alcohol
B. Betel nut
C. HPV
D. EBV
| EBV |
639123bc-8fe4-40b6-966d-a564fb9c9dd7 | Ans: D. Delta amino levulinic acid(Ref: Harper 30/e n329)Lead poisoning:Affect heme metabolism by combining with SH groups in ferrochelatase & ALA (delta-amino levulinic acid) dehydratase enzymes.Elevated protoporphyrin levels - Found in RBC's.Elevated ALA & coproporphyrin levels - Found in urine. | Biochemistry | null | In lead poisoning, there is an inhibition of some of the enzymes of the heme biosynthetic pathway. This is reflected by the accumulation of what substance in blood?
A. Uroporphyrinogen III
B. Ferrochelatase
C. Porphob I inogen
D. Delta amino levulinic acid
| Delta amino levulinic acid |
bc6e7601-e544-4e20-ab7c-ad493a4aa325 | Normally, T4 and T3 exert negative feedback on TSH secretion by pituitary in two ways:
Block the secretion of TSH by pituitary directly --> major action
Block the secretion of TRH by hypothalamus (TRH stimulates the secretion of TSH by pituitary)
In primary hypothyrodism, T4 and T3 are not produced or produced in low concentration by thyroid. This results in abolition of negative feedback on TSH secretion. Thus, there is elevated TSH and pituitary can become hyperplastic to produce more TSH.
In pituitary cause of hypothyroidism (secondary hypothyroidism) both TSH and Thyroid hormone (T4, T3) are low as pituitary does not secrete TSH and TSH is the major stimulation for production of T4 and T3.
About option d
TSH resistance can also produce same picture i.e. raised TSH and low T4 with pituitary swelling.
There is thyroid insensitivity to TSH which results in hypothyroidism (1T4 and T3). Because of reduced thyroid hormone feedback, TSH is markedly elevated.
However, Amongst the given options best option is primary hypothyrodism because TSH resistance is a very rare condition and further T4 levels are normal in Mild and moderate (Partial) TSH resistance. | Pediatrics | null | Short child with low T4 and raised TSH and swelling of pituitary, what is the diangosis ?
A. Primary hypothyrodism
B. Pituitary tumor
C. TSH Secreting pituitary adenoma
D. TSH resistance
| Primary hypothyrodism |
876554c4-4b7a-4093-b3a4-13ed7262578e | Ans: A. FibrosarcomaPhosphatonin (FGF-23) oncogenic osteomalacia (paraneoplastic syndrome) seen in fibrosarcoma. | Surgery | null | Which metabolic condition has phosphaturia and osteomalacia?
A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Undifferentiated sarcoma
D. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
| Fibrosarcoma |
6343810a-6571-4662-b3a6-aa7e13a7c65b | Chest drainage system: Follow-up: Patency of chest tube is assessed by observing the oscillations in water seal chamber with respiratory movements. Position of chest tube & resolution of intrapleural air or liquid is checked by x-ray (AP & cross table lateral). Tube should be pulled back if it crosses the mediastinum Removal: Chest tubes are generally removed when there has been air or fluid drainage of <200 ml in 24 hours for >24 hours . | Surgery | AIIMS 2017 | How will you check the functioning of an ICD tube?
A. By observing for continuous air bubbles coming out of the underwater drain
B. By observing the movement of air water column in the tube during respiration
C. By taking X ray chest repeatedly
D. By auscultation
| By observing the movement of air water column in the tube during respiration |
1198f3e5-a21e-4487-ac57-6ab1dee93d67 | Multi - focal Atrial tachycardia: - Irregular R-R internal - Right axis detion - Variable amplitude P-wave - Normal PR interval - Non progression of R-wave (suggestive of Right ventricular etiology Atrial fibrillation Irregular R-R intervals and absence of P waves. AF Ruled out because these is P wave present in ECG. Acute myocardial infarction No STEMI No T wave inversion PSVT ruled out - Rhythm normal | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | A smoker presents with recent onset breathlessness and ECG was done. The diagnosis is?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Multi-focal atrial tachycardia
| Multi-focal atrial tachycardia |
4f8a7da4-2f7c-4827-ab01-c5570cfbac40 | Option A- means that every few second breath will be delivered to the patient by the computer so this will be computer aided breathing by patient. Also, if patient is breathing himself computer will help the patient. Option B- it is an uncomfoable procedure for patient as its a tight-fitting mask so d/t discomfo patient tries to remove it. | Causing compromised ventilation | CO2 || in body | Respiration acidosis Option C-here number of breath/min remain same but the pressure exeed by the ventilation is extra.which might cause barotrauma But will not cause any derangement so option c is ruled out. It may contribute hypoventilation but never Hyperventilation. Hypoventilation if pressure Delivered is not proper then expansion of chest will not occur contributing to accum. of CO2 in body. Option D- Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation this ventilator modality mode is used when we try to vain of the patient on ventilator. Ventilatory Mode Variables set by user (independent) Variable Monitored by User (Dependent) Trigger cycle Limit Advantages Disadvantages ACMV (assist control veilation) Tidal volume ventilator rate FO2 PEEP level pressure limit Peak, mean, and plateau airway pressure VE ABG I/E ratio Patient effo Timer Pressure limit Patient control Guaranteed ventilation Potential hyperventilation Barotraumia and volume trauma Every effective breath generates & ventilator volume IMV (intermittent mandatory ventilation) Tidal volume Mandatory ventilator rate Fio2 PEEP Level Pressure limit Spontaneous breaths between assisted breaths Peak, mean, and plateau airway pressure VE ABG I/E ratio Patient effo Timer Pressure limit Patient control Comfo from spontaneous breaths Guaranteed ventilation Potential dysynchrony Potential hypo ventilation PSV (presssure-suppo ventilaton) Inspiratory pressure level Fio2 PEEP Pressure limit Tidal volume Respiratory rate VE ABG Pressure limit Inspiratory flow Patient control Comfo Assures synchromy No timer backup Potential hypo-ventilation NV (non invasive ventilation) Inspiratory and expiratory level Tidal volume Respiratory rate Pressure limit Inspiratory flow Patient control Mask interface may cause discomfo and facial bruising | Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following is most associated with respiratory alkalosis:-
A. Assisted control mode ventilation
B. Non invasive ventilation
C. Pressure controlled
D. SIMV
| Assisted control mode ventilation |
e59d484d-0bf8-4440-9a83-29c6521a2d6d | Intracellular hormone receptors: - - Several hormones, including adrenal & gonadal steroid hormones, thyroid hormones, retinoid hormones and vitamin D, bind with protein receptors inside the cell. - Because these hormones are lipid soluble. Cell surface receptors: - - All the peptide hormones uses it - They are water soluble. - They act secondary messengers (CGMP, CAMP etc.) Examples: Catecholamines (epinephrine, dopamine) Insulin Glucagon Prolactin Growth hormone etc. | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following hormone crosses the plasma membrane for its action?
A. Epinephrine
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine
| Thyroxine |
42c3b6ae-45e3-405f-b8bd-fa6a17924c6b | Ans: B. LoxP siteCre-Lox recombination - Known as "Site-specific recombinase technology".* Widely used to carry out deletions, inseions, translocations & inversions at specific sites in cellular DNA.* Consists of Cre-recombinase enzyme. - Recombines a pair of sho target sequences called "Lox sequences".* Cre enzyme & original Lox site - Referred as "LoxP sequence" - Derived from bacteriophage P1.* Lox P (locus of X-over P1) - Site on bacteriophage P1 consisting of 34 bp.Ref https://en.wikipedia.oig/wiki/Cre-Lox_recombination) | Anatomy | null | In gene studies, the specific site to which the enzyme CRE recombinase binds is:
A. RE site
B. LoxP site
C. NT site
D. F site
| LoxP site |
eb49deaf-5611-4a19-8ad5-0cca73608043 | Well friends, we have discussed the causes and investigations of DIC. Now here let’s take a look at its management.\
Management of DIC
The most important step is to terminate the pregnancy- vaginal delivery without episiotomy is preferred to cesarean section
Volume replacement by crystalloids or colloids will reduce the amount of whole blood needed to restore the blood volume.
500 ml of fresh blood raises the fibrinogen level approximately by 12.5 mg/100 ml and platelets by 10,000–15,000 cu mm. Fresh blood- helps in flushing out fibrin degradation product and improving the micro circulation.
To replace fibrinogen- Fresh frozen plasma should be given: Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is extracted from whole blood. It contains fibrinogen, anti-thrombin III, clotting factors V, XI, XII. FFP transfusion provides both volume replacement and coagulation factors. One unit of FFP (250 mL) raises the fibrinogen by 5-10 mg/dL. FFP does not need to be ABO or Rh compatible.
Cryoprecipitate is obtained from thawed FFP. It is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, Von Willebrand’s factor, and XIII. Cryoprecipitate provides less volume (40 mL) compared to FFP (250 mL). So it should not be used for volume replacement. One unit of cryoprecipitate increases the fibrinogen level by 5-10 mg/dL.
In case of active bleeding with platelet counts < 50,000/ml or prophylactically with platelet count 20–30,000/ml – platelet replacement should be done. Platelet should ABO and Rh specific. 1 units (50 ml) raises the platelet count by 7500/ ml
Recombinant activated factors VIIA: (60-100 μg/kg IV) can reverse DIC within 10 minute as it is a precusor for extrinsic clotting cascade which is replaced.
Role of Heparin
According to Williams Obs. “Heparin is not used in DIC.”
According to COGDT 10/e, p 999
“Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by activating antithrombin III but has little effect on activated coagulation factors. Anticoagulation is contraindicated in patients with fulminant DIC and central nervous system insults, fulminant liver failure, or obstetric accidents. The one instance, however, in which heparin has been demonstrated to benefit pregnancy-related DIC is in the case of the retained dead fetus with intact vascular system, where heparin may be administered to interrupt the coagulation process and thrombocytopenia for several days until delivery may be implemented.”
As far as EACA is concerned- Williams Obs. 22/e, p 844 says –
“EACA is not recommended in case of DIC.”
According to Williams Obs 23/e, p 787
“It use in most types of obstetric coagulopathy has not been efficacious & not recommended” | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is not used in DIC?
A. Heparin
B. Epsilon amino caproic acid
C. Blood transfusion
D. Intravenous fluids.
| Epsilon amino caproic acid |
8ec544be-913f-4b14-9858-8026a462af96 | “Right sided endocarditis which usually involves the tricuspid valve causes septic pulmonary emboli occasionally with infarction and lung abscesses.” | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Kalindi 25 years female admitted as a case of septic abortion with tricuspid valve endocarditis. Vegetation from the valve likely to affect is:
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Brain
D. Lung
| Lung |
0447b9a2-22ec-449c-8a23-a52c28ac6b34 | The diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia ultimately rests on laboratory studies. The serum iron and ferritin are low, and the total plasma iron-binding capacity (reflecting elevated transferrin levels) is high. Low serum iron with increased ironbinding capacity results in a reduction of transferrin saturation to below 15%. Reduced iron stores inhibit hepcidin synthesis, and its serum levels fall. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following finding are there in iron deficiency anemia?
A. | TIBC, | Ferritin, | Transferrin saturation
B. | TIBC, | Ferritin, | Transferrin saturation
C. | TIBC, | Ferritin, | Transferrin saturation
D. | TIBC, | Ferritin, | Transferrin saturation
| | TIBC, | Ferritin, | Transferrin saturation |
08f3bf0c-adda-4d6b-9a65-04885defc090 | Shine Dalgarno sequence Only in prokaryotes present at -10 position on mRNA, Rich in purines. SD sequence is complementary to 16 s rRNA, Their binding helps in binding of mRNA with ribosome during initiation of translation * In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes recognize most eukaryotic mRNAs by binding to the 7-methylguanosine cap at their 5' terminus. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following binds mRNA with ribosome in prokaryotes?
A. tRNA
B. Shine Dalgarno sequence
C. 7 methyl guanosine capping
D. Poly A tail
| Shine Dalgarno sequence |
edbdb125-7a27-4740-9e03-b379ae34773d | Answer- D. 4.5 hours"Intravenous thrombolysis is usually practiced within the window period of 4.5 hours. | Medicine | null | Window period for thrombolysis in a stroke patient is:
A. 1.5 hours
B. 2.5 hours
C. 3.5 hours
D. 4.5 hours
| 4.5 hours |
30b2fee8-1ce3-4f84-ad72-f20e7b53a24b | Since alginate is a viscoelastic material, its tear strength is increased when the impression is removed along a vertical path with a snap. The speed of removal must be a compromise between a rapid movement and a slower rate that is more comfortable for the patient. Usually an alginate impression does not adhere to the oral tissues as well as some of the elastomers do, so it is easier to remove the alginate impression rapidly. However, it is always best to avoid torquing or twisting the impression in an effort to remove it quickly. Specifically, the handle should be used minimally during breaking of the air seal (“suction”) or removal of the tray from the teeth.
Phillips dental materials 12th edition page no 174 | Dental | null | The best way to remove a hydrocolloid impression from the patient's mouth is:
A. Slight rocking of the impression to disengage it from the undercut
B. Wetting the periphery of the impression with moist cotton to break the peripheral seal
C. Sudden jerking of the impression to prevent tearing
D. Supporting the impression along with the tray to prevent disengaging of the tray alone
| Sudden jerking of the impression to prevent tearing |
03952f72-4223-48bc-a0df-51af60400a7a | Ans. In this case the First Line has failed . So for second line therapy I/V Phenobarbital is prefferedReference - <a href=" | Pediatrics | null | CASE -2 SR visit again but the condition is not improved but this time IV cannula was set. What drug should be given now?
A. Midazolam
B. I/V Phenobarbital
C. Oral valproate
D. IV carbamazepine
| I/V Phenobarbital |
0aa56b89-1692-494c-b14f-f794ca9821ec | Ans: C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency(Ref Harrison 19/e 367-e2; Nelson 20/e p2052; Robbins. 9/e p815)Most probable diagnosis = Alpha-I Antitrypsin deficiency.Alpha-I Antitrypsin deficiency:Diagnosis:Confirmed by blood tests.Reduced levels of serum AAT & accompanied by Pi determinations.Liver biopsy:Determines stage of hepatic fibrosis.Shows characteristic PAS-positive & diastase-resistant round- to-oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions inside hepatocytes of lobule periphery. | Pediatrics | null | A 1-month-old child presented with conjugated bilirubinemia and intrahepatic cholestasis. On Liver biopsy staining with PAS, red colored granules were seen inside the hepatocytes. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
B. Wilson's disease
C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
D. Hemochromatosis
| Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency |
621316dd-5ef8-4ba1-953c-6f214b414b56 | Answer- C. Inevitable aboionInevitatrle Aboion:Clinical picture: Bleeding, pain and shockSize of uterus: Equal or lessInternal os: Open with products feltUltrasound: Dead fetus | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A woman with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination, the os is open but no products have comes t. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Incomplete aboion
B. Complete aboion
C. Inevitable aboion
D. Missed aboion
| Inevitable aboion |
51203235-22e6-43fb-a51f-a2fcceb5f042 | Ans: B. Candida(Ref.: Ryan's Retina 5/e p733)Candidemia:Most common fungal infection seen in patients with HIVCandida albicans - Impoant nosocomial pathogen - Most common Candida species.Most commonly cause of keratitis, conjunctivitis and endogenous fungal endophthalmitis. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following is the most common funga. infection of the eye seen in an HIV positive patient?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida
C. Toxoplasma
D. Rhinosporidium
| Candida |
477dea37-f0b6-4a6d-b77a-766ded28f2b6 | Answer-A. PneumoperitoneumMC cause of pneumoperitoneum: Perforation of hollow viscus (leading to release of air from bowel and collection just below the diaphragm)Best projection to derhonstrate pneumoperitoneum: Chest X-rayIf the patient cannot get into an erect position then left lateral decubitus projection is required.Patient should be in that position for l0 mina at least for air to rise up.By careful technique even 1 ml of air can be detected | Radiology | null | A patient with pain abdomen for 2 hours presents to the casualty and the following X-ray was obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pneumoperitoneum
B. Subphrenic abscess
C. Pneumomediastinum
D. Amebic liver abscess
| Pneumoperitoneum |
f20f293f-58fc-4b88-ba1d-d37764178ff4 | Supra valvular AS - pulse disparity (Coanda effect) - Systolic pressure in the right arm> left arm Streaming of the jet toward the innominate, RCCA, and right SCA Option B - Continuous murmur /systolic murmur Option C - MC blood vessel involved in Takayasu aeritis is Subclan aery. - DIASTOLIC murmur is seen. Option D -unequal BP may be present | Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | A 30 year old patient has right upper limb BP of 180/95 mm Hg and left upper limb BP of 130/90 mm Hg. He also has early diastolic murmur in right 2 intercostal space. Which of the following would be LEAST likely associated with these findings?
A. Supravalvular aoic Stenosis
B. Coarctation of aoa
C. Takayasu aeritis
D. Aoic dissection
| Coarctation of aoa |
be68160f-1668-4576-abcc-882aa211beb3 | Conductive deafness means the disease process leading to deafness is limited to external ear tympanic membrane, middle ear including the footplate of stapes.
Bilateral conductive deafness rules out meniere’s disease (as it presents with SNHL).
Amongst the remaining three options, positive family history is seen mainly in case of otosclerosis (Otospongiosis), so it is our answer.
Ref. Dhingra 6/e, p 30, 87 | ENT | null | A patient has bilateral conductive deafness, tinnitus with positive family history. The diagnosis is -
A. Otospongiosis
B. Tympanosclerosis
C. Meniere's disease
D. B/L otitis media
| Otospongiosis |
6cb20456-8f6a-44d9-8aad-9d45b621d210 | AST/SGOT (found in the mitochondria of Hepatocyte, and Alcohol get metabolize in mitochondria) - GGT - Fatty liver - Alcoholic | NAFLD/NASH: Syndrome X, Reye syndrome ALT - Obstructive jaundice | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following is used for laboratory diagnosis of alcoholic hepatitis?
A. ALP
B. AST
C. LDH
D. GGT
| AST |
d7bd1cec-6327-4552-8135-3544fa7c8d0f | A variation in root morphology is the presence of an extra distolingual root. Usually, this root has a type 1 canal configuration. Two-thirds of the first mandibular molars found in a Chinese population had this variation. Similarly, this distolingual root occurred in 4% of mandibular first molars of a Kuwaiti population. These results confirm the observation that East Asian populations have more three-rooted mandibular first molars than do other racial groups. Mandibular molars, mainly first molars, may also have an additional root located lingually or buccally. Although this is a rare occurrence in Caucasian populations, it is more common in Asian populations. The radix entomolaris (RE) is a supernumerary root located distolingually in mandibular molars, whereas the radix paramolaris (RP) is an extra root located mesiobuccally. Each root usually contains a single root canal. The orifice of the RE is located distolingually to mesiolingually from the main canal or canals of the distal root; the orifice of the RP is located mesiobuccally to distobuccally from the main mesial root canals.
Key Concept:
The figure in the question show radix entomolaris. | Dental | null | A radiograph is shown below. This type of root morphology has highest incidence in which population?
A. African
B. Caucasians
C. Mongoloids
D. Asians
| Asians |
da7efe1f-026d-45b7-8c81-dcd812fd5b70 | Vitamin K - Vitamin K hydroquinone is oxidized to the epoxide Epoxide activates a glutamate residue in the protein substrate to a carbanion, which reacts nonenzymically with carbon dioxide to form g-carboxyglutamate. Vitamin K epoxide is reduced to the quinone by an epoxide reductase, and the quinone is reduced to the active hydroquinone by Vitamin K reductase. Dicumarol & warfarin inhibits the enzyme (reductase) that conves epoxide to active Vitamin K (hydroquinone). | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Vitamin K in its coenzyme form is regenerated by which enzyme?
A. Glutathione reductase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Dihydrofolate reductase
D. Epoxide reductase
| Epoxide reductase |
ac195c22-e47e-49f9-87d5-87b26416ea05 | A lapse in the immunization schedule does not require reinitiation of entire vaccine series. Immunization should be given at the next visit in the usual doses assuming that the minimum interval has already elapsed and the imunization should be completed at the next available opportunity".
D.P.T. and oral polio vaccine which the child already had should be considered as the first dose.
The child would need further 2 doses of this vaccine to complete the primary vaccination.
Booster doses are administered, once the primary immunization is complete. Thus you cannot administer booster doses of D.P.T. and O.P.V. as their primary immunization is not complete. | Pediatrics | null | 18 months old child, who has received one dose of DPT and OPV at 2 months of age. What will be your next immunization plan :
A. Restart immunization schedule, as per age
B. Measles, BCG, booster dose of DPT and OPV
C. Measles, booster dose of DPT and OPV
D. BCG, 2ND dose of DPT and OPV
| BCG, 2ND dose of DPT and OPV |
ac97880a-0862-45cf-bed5-a2000a93343c | Friends remember 2 very important concepts regarding laryngeal Ca:
If the site of larynx caner viz supra glottis, glottis or subglottis is not mentioned, the cancer should be considered glottic (since it is the M/C variety)
Generally stage I, II, III, IV means stage T1 , T2 , T3 , T4 respectively.
According to Dhingra
Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for all stage I cancers of larynx, which neither impair mobility nor invade cartilage or cervical nodes.
The greatest advantage of radiotherapy over surgery in Ca larynx glottic cancer is - preservation of voice. | ENT | null | The treatment of choice for stage I cancer larynx is-
A. Radical surgery
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Surgery followed by radiotherapy
| Radiotherapy |
c4256578-82f3-4cb8-891a-be9864c80547 | UFH is injected s.c. every 8- 12 hours, staed before surgery and continued for 7-10 day, or till the patient stas moving about. This regimen has been found to prevent postoperative deep vein thrombosis (post operative thromboprophylaxis) without increasing surgical bleeding. It also does not prolong aPTT or clotting time. However, it should not he used in case of neurosurgery or when spinal anaesthesia is to be given. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | Most commonly used route of administration of heparin for post-operative thromboprophylaxis is?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intravenous
C. Inhalational
D. Intramuscular
| Subcutaneous |
363aca43-6b66-4640-9cfe-93057f5c50f1 | Aim for the treatment of classical angina is decrease in work of hea. It can be accomplished by decrease in preload, decrease in afterload or decrease in hea rate. Nitrates act by production of nitric oxide (NO). NO stimulates guanylate cyclase in smooth muscles which leads to formation of cGMP. Later acts on smooth muscles to cause vasodilation. Nitrates mainly produce NO in veins leading to its predominant action as venodilation. Dilation of veins results in decrease in pre-load. Therefore major mechanism of action of nitrates in angina is decrease in preload. However, in variant angina these drugs benefit by causing coronary vasodilation as variant angina occurs due to vasospasm of coronary aery. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Major mechanism of action of nitrates in acute attack of angina is:
A. Coronary vasodilation
B. Decrease in preload
C. Decrease in afterload
D. Decrease in hea rate
| Decrease in preload |
aa240af7-9a6c-44dd-ab9a-ecb2c4cb5c28 | A patent opening called the primitive umbilical ring exists on the ventral surface of the developing embryo through which three structures pass: the yolk sac (vitelline duct), connecting stalk, and allantois. The allantois is not functional in humans and degenerates to form the median umbilical ligament in the adult.
As the amnion expands, it pushes the vitelline duct, connecting stalk, and allantois together to form the primitive umbilical cord.
The definitive umbilical cord at term is pearl-white, 1–2 cm in diameter, 50–60 cm long, eccentrically positioned, and contains the right and left umbilical arteries, left umbilical vein, and mucus connective tissue (Wharton’s jelly).
The right and left umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. The left umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus.
Key Concept:
Umblical cord contains the right and left umbilical arteries, left umbilical vein, and mucus connective tissue (Wharton’s jelly). | Anatomy | null | Umblical cord contains:
A. 3 arteries & 1 vein
B. 1 artery& 3 veins
C. 1 artery & 1 vein
D. 2 arteries & 1 vein
| 2 arteries & 1 vein |
1a29fc79-3d2d-40a4-82ca-0f2860d9958a | Answer- D. Anti HbcAg IgGBest marker for diagnosing acute hepatitis B is IgM anti-HBc as it is found only in the acute phase of hepatitis B (In chronic hepatitis IgG anti-HBc is found). | Pathology | null | In a patient with Hepatitis B infection. Which one of the markers will be increased?
A. HbsAg
B. HbcAg
C. Anti HbsAg IgG
D. Anti HbcAg IgG
| Anti HbcAg IgG |
216bbc8e-3544-417f-8104-c9508f5b5db5 | Answer- B. NeckMost common site of stress fracture or March fracture is second metatar'sal neck.likely site for stress fracturces are common in distance runners and ballet dancers. The second metatarsal neck is the most likety sitefor stressfractures, but all metatarsals are susceptible | Surgery | null | Which pa of 2nd metatarsal is involved in the March fracture?
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Shaft
D. Base
| Neck |
73ba7368-c001-4d15-b4a3-f0d46feb4b5b | Flexion at IP joint of thumbs - by flexor pollicis longus Nerves that may be involved in supracondylar humerus : 1. Median nerve - most common Paial injury occurs usually. i.e. fibers involved in forming AIN branch. 2. Radial nerve - less often 3. Ulnar nerve - least commonly involved. AIN supply: Flexor pollicis longus * Lateral 1/2 of flexor digitorum profundus * Pronator quadratus | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 | Loss of flexion in the interphalangeal joint of thumb in supracondylar fracture is due to involvement of which nerve
A. Anterior interosseous
B. Posterior interosseous
C. Median
D. Ulnar
| Anterior interosseous |
abd507d7-232c-46cb-8605-cb573b86ee2b | The cast should be such that the base of the lower model is equal in thickness to that of the maxillary model. The total height of both casts in occlusion should be about 70–75 mm. | Dental | null | Study model with mounted base and trimmed height is:
A. 55 mm
B. 70 mm
C. 60 mm
D. 90 mm
| 70 mm |
e0c3fa32-b170-46e4-a748-9965e38ca3a9 | FIRST-GENERATION APEX LOCATORS (RESISTANCE APEX LOCATORS)
They are also known as resistance apex locators that measure opposition to the flow of direct current, that is, resistance. It is based on the principle that resistance offered by periodontal ligament and oral mucous membrane is the same, that is, 6.5 K ohms. Initially, Sono-Explorer was imported from Japan by Amadent, (Port Jefferson, New York) but nowadays first generation apex locators are off the practice. Blood, pus, chelating agents, irrigants, and other materials used within the canal can give false readings. | Dental | null | Electric resistance between oral mucosa and PDL is always constant that is:
A. 4.5 K ohm
B. 5.5 K ohm
C. 6.5 K ohm
D. 7.5 K ohm
| 6.5 K ohm |
8173e986-5e4f-4c72-b175-8fa07b6c5ad9 | Auriculo temporal syndrome or Frey syndrome or gustatory sweating is due to damage of auricutotemporal nerve following surgery in parotid and mandibular ramus areas, and subsequent innervation of sweat glands by parasympathetic salivary fibres. The patient typically exhibits flushing and sweating of the involved side of the face, chiefly in the temporal area, during eating. | Pathology | null | Frey's syndrome results from surgery of the
A. a)Submandibular salivary gland
B. Parotid gland
C. Sublingual salivary gland
D. TMJ
| Parotid gland |
c5040490-158b-4b0c-9d6d-5c9db9e5935d | Whenever we want to assess the Extrinsic or Intrinsic pathway, the sample that is taken is Platelet poor plasma sample. Assessment of EXTRINSIC PATHWAY - tissue thromboplastin is added along with calcium Intrinsic pathway - addition of Ca2+ along with negatively charged substance like Kaolin or Cephalin. | Pathology | AIIMS 2017 | In a platelet poor plasma sample calcium and tissue thromboplastin is added. This is used to assess which of the following pathway?
A. Extrinsic
B. Intrinsic
C. Fibrinolytic
D. Common
| Extrinsic |
908f179d-9296-4cc3-8cd5-d3e59e24d232 | Excessive forces can cause unwanted tooth movement. Unwanted excessive tipping of maxillary central incisor root is caused by over activation of finger spring. | Dental | null | The undesirable side effect most commonly associated with the use of finger spring to tip the crown of a tooth is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the root apex to move in the direction opposite from the crown
D. Tendency for the tooth to intrude
| Tendency for the root apex to move in the direction opposite from the crown |
17d0239b-33ee-44d0-9891-81a283b13b55 | - Metronidazole is drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis ( with or without pregnancy )- Alternative to metronidazole is clindamycin.- Rovamycin i.e. spiramycin (which is a macrolide) is drug of choice for toxoplasmosis in pregnancy. Metronidazole -* It is the prototype nitroimidazole having broad-spectrum cidal activity against anaerobic protozoa, including Giardia lamblia , trichomonas and amoeba. * Many anaerobic and microaerophilic bacteria, such as Bact. fragilis, Fusobacterium, Clostridium perfringens, Cl. difficile, Helicobacter pylori, Campylobacter, peptococci, spirochetes and anaerobic Streptococci are sensitive. * Metronidazole does not affect aerobic bacteria. Mechanism of action- After entering the cell by diffusion, its nitro group is reduced by ceain redox proteins operative only in anaerobic microbes to a highly reactive nitro radical which exes cytotoxicity. The nitro radical of metronidazole acts as an electron sink which competes with the biological electron acceptors of the anaerobic organism for the electrons generated by the pyruvate : ferredoxin oxidoreductase (PFOR) enzyme pathway of pyruvate oxidation. The energy metabolism of anaerobes that have no mitochondria is thus, disrupted. Aerobic environment attenuates cytotoxicity of metronidazole by inhibiting its reductive activation. Moreover, O2 competes with the nitro radical of metronidazole for the free electrons generated during energy metabolism of anaerobes. Metronidazole, in addition, has been found to inhibit cell mediated immunity, to induce mutagenesis and to cause radiosensitization. Uses of metronidazole- o Amoebiasiso Giardiasiso Trichomonas vaginitiso Bacterial vaginosiso Anaerobic bacterial infection o Pseudomembranous enterocolitiso Acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitiso Helicobacter pylori gastritis o Guinea worm infestation | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | Doc of bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy is
A. Clindamycin
B. Metronidazole
C. Erythromycin
D. Rovamycin
| Metronidazole |
5d03f6ea-52a4-4358-94b1-ab24840e0f77 | Answer- C. 72 hoursAccording to 'DELHI ANATOMY ACT 1957', a person died in road traffic accident the dead body is said to be unclaimed after 72 hours.According to Delhi Anatomy Act 1953, the hospital authority can utilize an unclaimed body (a person who dies in hospital, prison or public places, which has not been claimed by any of his near relatives or personal friends within the prescribed timeline of 48 hours) for the purpose of conducting anatomical examination and dissection or other similar purpose. | Forensic Medicine | null | According to 'DELHI ANATOMY ACT 1957', a person died in road traffic accident, the dead body is said to be unclaimed after.
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
| 72 hours |
e5b8bc30-3a2c-4d33-8b63-f01d20590f5e | Ans. d. 9.7/1,00,000 populationAnnual new case detection rate of leprosy as on 31" March, 2016 is 9.7/1,00,000 population.NLEP - Annual Repo for the year 2015-16:Based on the repos received from all the States and UTs for the year of 2015 -16 (Annexure -I), current leprosy situation in the country is as below:A total of 127334 new cases were detected during the year 2015-16, which gives Annual New Case Detection Rate (ANCDR) of 9.71 per 100,000 population, as against 125785 cases in 2014-15.A total of 86028 leprosy cases are on record as on 1st April 2016, giving a Prevalence Rate (PR) of 0.66 per 10,000 population, as against 88833 cases in 1 't April 2015.Detailed information on new leprosy cases detected during 2015-16 indicates the propoion of MB (51.27%), Female (38.33%), Child (8.94%), Grade II Deformity (4.60%), ST cases (18.79%) and SC cases (18.57%).A total of 5851 Gr. II disability detected amongst the New Leprosy Cases during 2015-16, indicating the Gr. II Disability Rate of 4.46 / million population (Annexure-II)A total of 11389 child cases were recorded, indicating the Child Case rate of 8.94% (Annexure-III). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Annual new case detection rate of leprosy as on 31st March, 2016 is:
A. 0.66 /10,000 population
B. 0.66/1,00,000 population
C. 9.7/10,000 population
D. 9.7/1,00,000 population
| 9.7/1,00,000 population |
7690c75b-9e17-4af8-844a-6c638db1240a | Ans: D. Tympanic membrane(Ref Miller's 7/e p1550)Though pulmonary aery is the gold standard site for core temperature measurement, esophagus has similar reliability and is the most commonly used site in the anesthetic practice fior temperature monitoring.Core-Temperature Monitoring:Sites for Core Temperature MeasurementGold standard site for core temperature measurementPulmonary aeryMost accurate for brain temperatureTympanic membraneBest for brain temperatureNasopharynxBest site & most commonly used for core body temperatureLower end of esophagus | Anaesthesia | null | What is the most reliable site to measure core temperature during general anesthesia?
A. Pulmonary aery
B. Distal esophagus
C. Rectum
D. Tympanic membrane
| Tympanic membrane |
bd0ed5fa-d212-4dfc-bba3-9706fe6a228d | Cysticercosis is a parasitic infection that results from ingestion of eggs from the adult tapeworm. When cysticercosis involves the central nervous system, it is called neurocysticercosis.
The cyst degenerates, leaks fluid from the larval cyst into the brain parenchyma, generating a strong immune response, characterized by enhancement on CT and MRI
Downs Syndrome
It is first seen either with seizures (70-90%) or headache. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is most common location of intracranial neurocysticercoses:
A. Brain parenchyma
B. Spinal cord.
C. Basal cisternae.
D. Medulla oblongata.
| Brain parenchyma |
7bb29056-c6b1-4d7b-b513-e6eab45eeb86 | Ans. A.Gardasil 9Gardasil 9 is an HPV vaccine approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and can be used for both girls and boys.This vaccine can prevent most cases of cervical cancer if given before a girl or woman is exposed to the virus.HPV Vaccines* Cervarix - Protects against HPV-16, 18.* Gardasil 4 Protects against HPV - 6, 11, 16, 18.* Gardasil -9 - Protects against HPV - 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 16 years old girl walks into your clinics and asks for Ca cervix vaccination.Which of the following should be administered?
A. Gardasil 9
B. Biovac
C. Polymer 7
D. Cohen 5
| Gardasil 9 |
72b14998-6b80-45d4-ad70-9766f94e8026 | *.Cytochrome b reductase 1 or Duodenal cytochrome b (Dcytb) is a ferric reductase enzyme conves Fe3+ to Fe2+, and aid the entry of Fe2+ into the mucosal cell *The ferrous iron is then transpoed in the cell by a divalent metal transpoer (DMT-1). *Ferropoin and Hephaestin proteins are at the basolateral membrane and helps in transpo of iron from intestine cell to plasma. Divalent Metal/Cation Transpoer 1(DMT1 or DCT1) /Natural resistance-associated macrophage protein 2(NRAMP 2) *Located on the apical membrane of enterocytes * Transpo of ferrous iron * DMT1 expression is regulated by body iron stores to maintain iron homeostasis. Hephaestin, also known as HEPH * Transmembrane protein, *Homology with ceruloplasmin * Involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of iron * Mainly involved in iron efflux at the basolateral membrane, in association with ferropoin. * The highest expression of hephaestin is found in small intestine. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 | Iron enters enterocyte by :
A. Divalent cation transpoer
B. Ferropoin
C. Hephaestin
D. Ceruloplasmin
| Divalent cation transpoer |
6cf0218d-ff22-4f7c-9d54-3f5193fe8b8c | Pain relief is important for heart disease patients as pain can cause tachycardia, which in turn can cause cardiac failure. Epidural and spinal techniques are the most effective means of providing pain relief for labor. These are also known as regional techniques because pain relief is limited to a specific anatomical region. These modalities are also known as neuraxial techniques, since both the approaches involve administration of drugs that exert their effects in the axial portion of the CNS | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Lady wth MS + MR with full term gestation, obstetrician planning to conduct normal delivery, what would be anesthesia of choice?
A. Parenteral opioids
B. Spinal anesthesia
C. Inhalational analgesia
D. Neuraxial analgesia
| Neuraxial analgesia |
41a7eb65-1e8e-46ee-8d9a-8544101fe4db | Metoprolol (Cardioselective beta blocker) decrease hea rate and AV conduction. Verapamil and Diltiazem: CCB (calcium channel blocker): These also inhibits SA Node and AV Node, hence depress the hea. So, when verapamil (or Diltiazem) is combined with metoprolol, they both depress hea and lead to bradycardia with AV block. Other CCBs include dihydropyridines (like amlodipine etc). These dipines can be used with Metoprolol as they cause reflex tachycardia. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | A hypeensive patient was on metoprolol treatment. Verapamil was added to the therapy of this patient. This can result in:-
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Bradycardia with AV block
C. Torsades de pointes
D. Tachycardia
| Bradycardia with AV block |
5c55ed82-c9c5-4f5d-8d0e-9cd76cfbeb74 | Answer- B. USG for fetal cardiac activityUSG for fetal cardiac activity:At 6 weeks it is routine to detect fetal cardiac activity by ultrasound5 1/2 Yz to 6 weeks is usually a very good time to detect either a fetal pole or even a fetal hea beat by vaginalultrasound. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Most accurate and safe method to diagnose ble pregnancy at 6weeks-
A. Doppler assessment of fetal cardiac activity
B. USG for fetal cardiac activity
C. Urinary Beta-hCG determination
D. Per vaginal examination of uterine size corresponding to 6 weeks gestation
| USG for fetal cardiac activity |
295f859b-9b57-4044-a59f-1dcde3f3fc0c | iron absorption - Increase iron absorption Decrease iron absorption Vitamin C Cysteine In iron deficiency anemia iron absorption increase by 2-10 times Small peptides and amino acid Phytate (found in cereals) oxalate (found in leafy vegetable) diet with high phosphate content malabsorption syndromes such as steatorrhea In patients with paial or total surgical removal of stomach and/or intestine Vitamin C and Cysteine conve ferric iron to ferrous iron. Ferrous iron is soluble and easily absorbed. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following vitamin increases the absorption of iron?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Thiamin
D. Riboflavin
| Vitamin C |
59110b4f-4074-4293-aa6d-96b1a6b49b82 | Ans. b. Terbutaline (Ref KDT 7/e p133, 223, 6/e p127, 323; Katzung 11/e p344, 227)Terbutaline can be given by subcutaneous route.Terbutaline is adrenergic agonist. Its sabcutaneous injection is used in patients with severe exacerbations of asthma. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following injection is available for subcutaneous administration?
A. Albuterol
B. Terbutaline
C. Metaproteronol
D. Pirbuterol
| Terbutaline |
97ed634a-a034-41a1-b92d-3781331b6f5a | Development of paranasal sinuses Sinus Present at bih 1st X-Ray appearance, Adult size Maxillary Yes 4-5 months after bih 15-18 yrs. Ethmoid Yes 1yr 12yr Sphenoid Yes 6-7yr 15yr Frontal No 4-5yr 18yr | ENT | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following sinus grows till early adulthood:-
A. Maxillary
B. Ethmoidal
C. Frontal
D. Sphenoid
| Frontal |
5276909f-5e4a-44a9-b5d4-9c7c29422818 | Endoflagella is a feature of spirochetes which arises from periplasmic space. They have rotatory type of motility. Treponema Barrelia Leptospira Size 6-14 um x 0.2 um 10-30 um x 0.2-0.5um 6-20 um x 0.1 um Spirals (In number) 6-12 3-10 Numerous and tightly coiled with hooked ends Wavelength 1 um 3 um 0.5 um Amplitude of spiral 1-1.5 um Up to 2 um 0.1 um Endoflagella at each pole 3-4 7-11 1 Staining Do not take up ordinary stains, can be stained only bu silver impregnation stains, except Bornelia which is poorly Gram-stained. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a bacterium showing its flagella. Which of the following most closely resembles the organism depicted in the diagram?
A. Leptospria
B. H. Pylori
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Salmonella typhi
| Leptospria |
7374ee60-8858-43ae-9caa-506553cac5f6 | Preoxygenation before intubation : Process of replacing nitrogen in the lungs with oxygen. Preoxygenation with tidal volume breathing of 3 mins is required before tracheal intubation. This delays the onset of critical hypoxia during the period of apnea by 5-8 minutes. | Anaesthesia | AIIMS 2017 | Time required for pre-oxygenation before tracheal intubation
A. 3 min
B. 5 min
C. 2 min
D. 1 min
| 3 min |
0c9337fa-55ba-4441-8da7-99d451749ccf | Ans. C. BlueCOLOR CODING & TYPES OF CONTAINER: Colour codingType of ContainerWaste CategoryTreatment optionsYellowPlastic BagsHuman and animal wastes, Microbial and Biological wastes and soiled wastes(Cat 1,2,3 and 6)Incineration/ Deep BurialRedDisinfected container/ Plastic bagsMicrobiological and Biological wastes, Soiled wastes, Solid wastes(Cat 3,6,7)Autoclave/ Microwave/ Chemical Treatment)Blue/ White/ TransparentPlastic bag, Puncture proof containerWaste sharps and solid waste( Cat 4 &7)Autoclave/ Microwave/ Chemical Treatment Destruction and ShreddingBlackPlastic bagDiscarded medicines, Cytotoxic drugs, Incineration ash and chemical waste(Cat 5,9 & 10)Disposal in secured land fillsGreenPlastic ContainerGeneral waste such as office waste, food waste & garden wasteDisposed in secured landfills | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Broken ampula is thrown into which coloured bin?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Black
| Blue |
35624499-7ec5-46f1-8cc2-befa686829c4 | Ans: A. Any time as soon as she presents to the clinic irrespective of pregnancyIf a pregnancy is planned in high-risk women (previously affected child with neural tube defects), supplementation should be staed with 4 mg (= 4000 microgram) of folic acid daily, beginning 1 month before the time of the planned conception.Recommendations:By U.S. Public Health Service.Folic acid 0.4 mg daily - For all women of childbearing age & ones capable of becoming pregnant.Folic acid 4 mg (= 4000 microgram) daily - For planned pregnancy in high-risk women (previously affected child) - Beginning 1 month before time of planned conception. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 23-year-old lady taking antiepileptics for a seizure disorder gets married. When should folic acid supplementation advised to the patient?
A. Any time as soon as she presents to the clinic irrespective of pregnancy
B. Three months before becoming pregnant
C. 1st trimester
D. As soon as pregnancy is confirmed
| Any time as soon as she presents to the clinic irrespective of pregnancy |
97bd8c32-3ea6-41e1-856e-b9a91d20e643 | Infective endocarditis typically occurs at sites of pre-existing endocardial damage, but infection with particularly virulent or aggressive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus can cause endocarditis in a previously normal heart. Staphylococcal endocarditis of the tricuspid valve is a common complication of intravenous drug use. Many acquired and congenital cardiac lesions are vulnerable, particularly areas of endocardial damage caused by a high-pressure jet of blood, such as ventricular septal defect, mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation, many of which are haemodynamically insignificant. In contrast, the risk of endocarditis at the site of haemodynamically important low-pressure lesions, such as a large atrial septal defect, is minimal.
Ref: Davidson 23rd ed page no 527 | Medicine | null | Infective endocarditis is most commonly seen in:
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. PDA
D. Pulmonary stenosis
| VSD |
3ffd5c17-afde-4101-a4a4-8ed3dfc98918 | Serious Complications
Leg vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism: The older preparations increased the incidence of venous thromboembolism, but this is found to be less marked (only 2-3 patients per 1000 women years) with the newer reduced steroid content pills. However, even low-dose pills pose significant risk in women > 35 years of age, diabetics, hypertensives and in those who smoke. The excess risk is due to the estrogen component of the OC, and normalizes shortly after stopping the OC.
Rise in BP: Occurred in 5-10% women taking the earlier pills. The again is less frequent and smaller in magnitude with the low-dose pills of today. If the BP rises, best is to stop OCs: the BP normalizes in the next 3-6 months. Both the estrogen and progestin components are responsible for this effect, probably by increasing plasma angiotensinogen level and renin activity which have been found to be raised during OC use. Aldosterone secretion is enhanced resulting in salt and water retention.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 351 | Pharmacology | null | The highest risk associated with the use of oral contraceptives is in:
A. Hepatic necrosis
B. Permanent sterility
C. Thromboembolic disorders
D. Cancer of breast
| Thromboembolic disorders |
8340cc71-4a15-4134-b582-fed084765cf0 | Contraindications for the use of Ergometrine are: | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Ergometrine is contraindicated in:
A. Eclampsia
B. Abortion
C. Induction of labour
D. Post partum hemorrhage
| Eclampsia |
bee22c8c-3527-403f-903a-bd535bc3dd68 | High pressure oxygen through cannula: Oxygen supply system capable of delivering up to 100% humidified and heated oxygen at a flowrate of up to 60 liters per minute. This device increases the FiO2 (21-100%) and reduces the need for intubation. It also creates some amount of PEEP: 3-5mmhg | Anaesthesia | AIIMS 2019 | Which is not an obvious advantage of high pressure oxygen through cannula:
A. Bypassing nasopharyngeal dead space
B. Decreases need for intubation
C. PEEP
D. Hot and Humidification of air
| Bypassing nasopharyngeal dead space |
5dd3fc6a-7e12-4899-a250-102f79d9a7fd | Answer- B. GastrinomaInsulinoma is the most common functional tumour but if that wasnt there in the optios then gastrinoma is the next answer. | Surgery | null | Most common functional tumors of endocrine pancreas?
A. Vipoma
B. Gastrinoma
C. Glucagonoma
D. Somatostatinoma
| Gastrinoma |
Subsets and Splits