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The patient has undergone radiation therapy, which leads to xerostomia. Therefore, in this patient, hydrophilic impression material cannot be used. ZOE impression material is also contraindicated in this patient, since it can adhere to mucosa and leads to ulceration on removal. So, among the options provided, only polysulfide is the best suitable impression material for these kind of patients.
Dental
null
A 65 year old edentulous patient is treated for squamous cell carcinoma involving 2/3rd of tongue with 50 Gy radiation dose. Which of the following material is best for making impression in this patient? A. Polysulfide B. Polyether C. ZOE D. Irreversible hydrocolloids
Polysulfide
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Most of skeletal and connective tissues with exception of enamel are derived from ectomesenchymal tissue. Enamel is derived from ectoderm only. Posterior part of oral cavity is formed from endoderm.
Dental
null
Tooth develops from: (Or) Calcified structures of oral cavity develops from A. Ectoderm, mesoderm B. Ectoderm C. Mesoderm D. Ectoderm and endoderm
Ectoderm, mesoderm
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Answer- C. Viral infectionIt is well known that acute inflammation of the upper airways are caused mainly by viruses, even though after the viral infection a bacterial overlapped infection follows, paly ored by the cytopathic effect of the virus itself on the mucosa.
Medicine
null
Ciliocytophthoria caused by A. Kaagener syndrome B. Fungal infection C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection
Viral infection
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Answer- A. Anencephaly"Anencephaly is diagnosed by the absence of cranial vault (calvarium) and telencephalon. Brain tissue is angiomatous.Early diagnosis is possible at aboat 13 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which of the following abnormalities can be diagnosed in the I st trimester of pregnancy? A. Anencephaly B. Encephalocele C. Meningocele D. Microcephaly
Anencephaly
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Answer- A. Hydroxylation of proline and lysineVitamin C is required for post-translational modification of lysine and proline in collagen synthesisHydroxyproline is formed by post-translational hydroxylation catalyzed by prolyl hydroxylase, whose cofactors are ascorbic acid and Keto- alpha glutarate.
Medicine
null
A 50 years old female on junk food diet presented with point hemorrhages in scalp, bleeding in joints and erythemataous lesions in the skin. X-ray of knee joint was suggestive of hemahrosis. Problem lies with: A. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine B. Carboxylation of glutamic acid C. Carboxylation of coagulation factors D. Platelet aggregation defect
Hydroxylation of proline and lysine
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Ans: A. GlucoseGlucose is used by RBCs in fasting state.OrganFedFastingStarvationBrainGlucoseGlucoseKetone bodiesHeaFatty Fatty acidsKetone bodiesLiverGlucoseFatty acidsAmino acidsMusclesGlucoseFatty acidsFatty acids & ketoneAdipose tissueGlucoseFatty acidsFatty acids & ketone RBCsGlucoseGlucose (Ref Harper 30/e p146, 150, 28/e p141).
Biochemistry
null
Which of the following is used by RBCs in the fasting state? A. Glucose B. Alanine C. Ketone body D. Fatty acid
Glucose
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Reversed Architecture Reverse (or negative) alveolar bone architecture is the result of a loss  of  interdental  bone,  without  a  concomitant  loss  of  radicular (buccal or lingual/palatal) bone, thereby reversing the normal (or positive)  architecture .  Negative  architecture  is  more common in the maxilla of patients with periodontitis. Ledges Ledges are plateau-like bone margins that are caused by the resorption of thickened bony plates . Osseous Craters Osseous craters are a specific type of two-wall defect; they present as concavities in the crest of the interdental bone that is confined within the facial and lingual walls. Craters have been found to make up about one-third (35.2%) of all defects and about two-thirds (62%) of all mandibular defects; they occur twice as often in posterior segments as in anterior segments. Ref: Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, thirteenth edition; page no 325
Dental
null
A condition where there is loss of interdental bone on facial and lingual plate, without involvement of radicular bone is: A. Ledge B. Crater C. Intrabony defect D. Reverse architecture
Reverse architecture
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Juvenile idiopathic arthritis Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is broad term that describes a clinically heterogenous group of arthritides of unknown cause, which begin before 16 years of age. This term encompasses several disease categories : - 1. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (see previous explanations) : - i) Pauciarticular (oligoarticular) JRA ii) Poly-articular JRA RA. factor (+) ye RA factor (-) ye iii) Systemic JRA Juvenile psoriatic arthritis Juvenile enthesitis related arthritis (ERA) ​Subgroups of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIM
Pediatrics
null
Which of the following is not a feature of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis – A. Rheumatoid nodule B. Spikes of high fever C. Uveitis D. Raynaud's phenomenon
Raynaud's phenomenon
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The use of a dentin desensitizer over the prepared tooth structure before placing amalgam is generally recommended.  The dentin desensitizer is rubbed onto the prepared tooth surface for 30 seconds and excess moisture is removed without desiccating the dentin. Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry. Edition 6. Page: 417
Dental
null
For an unbounded amalgam restoration, what should be done before copal varnish is applied ? A. Dentine desensitiser is applied B. Smear layer is left intact C. Smear layer is modified D. After removal of enamel smear layer only
Dentine desensitiser is applied
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Ans: A. IPC 193(Ref: Reaco 34/e p I 3, 33/e p392; Textbooi, on the Indian Penal Code by Krishna 1) Gaur 4/e p594; the-Indian-penal-code-pdfd74214920)Section 193 - In Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for giving false evidence.
Forensic Medicine
null
A doctor who performed the autopsy on a 26-year-old married woman, committing suicide found the cause of death to be aluminium phosphide poisoning. She was summoned in a cou of law where he willingly hides this information. This is punishable under which section? A. IPC 193 B. CrPC 175 C. CrPC 69 D. IPC 189
IPC 193
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Loading dose of Mgso4: Total: 14 gms Ampule commercially available is: Each 2 ml of injection (50%) = 1 gm of MgSO4 4 gm I/V as a 20 % solution that is 4 ampules (8 mL=4 gm) + 12 mL NS making it 20 % solution + 10 gm I/M (5gm IM in each buttock as 50 % solution)
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
AIIMS 2019
Loading dose MgSO4 (IV) to be prepared as A. 4 ml 50% w/v plus 16 ml NS B. 8 ml 50% w/v plus 12 ml NS C. 12 ml 50% w/v plus 8 ml NS D. 16 ml 50% w/v plus 4 ml NS
8 ml 50% w/v plus 12 ml NS
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In the given question, Mean (μ) = 30 mm and SD (σ) = 1.0 mm Thus, 95% values are contained in the range of Mean ± 2 SD (µ ± 2σ) or 30 ± 2 (1) So, 95% values are contained in the range 30 – 2 mm and 30 + 2 mm OR between 28 and 30 mm.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
If the distribution of intra-ocular pressure (IOP) seen in 100 glaucoma patients has an average 30 mm with a SD of 1.0, what is the lower limit of the average IOP that can be expected 95% of times? A. 26 B. 28 C. 32 D. 259
28
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“An antigen frequently found in routine antenatal screening is the Lewis group (Lea and Leb). The Lewis antigens do not cause erythroblastosis fetalis and differ from all of the other red cell antigens in that they are not synthesized in the red cell membrane but are absorbed into it.” Fernando Arias 2/e, p 116
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which type of Hb is not affected by Rh isoimmunisation: A. Anti C B. Anti E C. Anti lewis D. Anti D
Anti lewis
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Answer: B. Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy studyETDRS stands for Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study
Ophthalmology
null
The ETDRS cha is used for visual evaluation in diabetic patients. What does ETDRS stand for A. Extended treatment for diabetic retinopathy study B. Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study C. Emergency treatment for diabetic retinopathy study D. Emerging treatment for diabetic retinopathy study
Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study
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The wave 'V' in BERA represents activity in lateral lemniscus.Auditory brainstem response (ABR):Is used to elicit brainstem responses to auditory stimulation by clicks or tone bursts.It is a non-invasive technique to find the integrity of central auditory pathways through the VIIIth nerve, pons and midbrain.The first, third and fifth waves are most stable and are used in measurements.Wave V Generation of wave V reflects the activity of multiple anatomic auditory structures. The sharp positive peak of wave V arises mainly from the lateral lemniscus, following slow negative wave represents the dendritic potential in the inferior colliculus.
ENT
null
The wave ' V ' in BERA represents activity in which of the following ? A. Lateral lemniscus B. Superior olivary complex C. Cochlear nerve D. Cochlear nucleus
Lateral lemniscus
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“Folic acid has been shown to effectively reduce the risk of neural tube defects (NTDs). A daily 4 mg dose is recommended for patients who have had a previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defects. It should be started atleast 1 month (ideally 3 months) prior to pregnancy and continued through the first 6–12 weeks of pregnancy.” COGDT 10/e, p 197 Remember: Therapeutic dose of folic acid (to be given in females with previous history of baby with NTD) - 4 mg. Prophylactic dose of folic acid = 0.4 mg i.e. 400 mg Duration: It should be started 1 month before conception and continued till 3 months of pregnancy.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Preconceptional intake of which of the following results in decrease in incidence of neural tube defect: A. Vitamin A B. Folate C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin C
Folate
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Ans: A. CECT (Ref Hurst 's The Hea 13/e p1050)Plain radiograph:Best method to know ICD position & integrity.ICD Lead dislodgement:Radiographically visible.Significant increase in pacing threshold /decline in electrogram amplitude.
Radiology
null
Patient with history of tachyarrhythmias is on implantable cardioveer defibrillator. He develops shock. Best method to know the position and integrity of ICD is: A. CECT B. MRI C. USG D. Plain radiograph
CECT
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Wilson disease Trientine- copper chelator Penicillamine- also chelator but less used due to nephrotic side effect. Zinc- is competitive inhibitor of copper in absorption of gut. Zinc acetate is DOC for Wilson disease.
Medicine
AIIMS 2019
Which drug is not given in Wilson disease? A. Trientine B. Calcium C. Penicillamine D. Zinc
Calcium
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Bullet fingerprinting- Primary markings- The rifled firearm leaves its signature on the caridge case and on the bullet. With all rifled firearms, the bullet is slightly larger than the barrel, and as it passes through the barrel, its sides are marked by the rifling of the barrel. Secondary markings- They are produced on the surface of the bullet by imperfection on the inner surface of the barrel. These irregularities are produced by sticking of paicles of the bullet to the bore when shots are fired and is known as metallic fouling. They also result accidentally during the manufacturing process, usually microscopic in nature and have random distribution. They are useful in identifying the specific gun which was fired.
Forensic Medicine
AIIMS 2018
Bullet fingerprinting is: A. Human fingerprints on bullet B. Primary marking C. Secondary marking D. Distoed bullet
Secondary marking
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Answer- B. Chronic nicotine poisoningSymptoms of chronic nicotine poisoning are cough, wheezing, dyspnoea, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, anemia, faintness,tremors, impaired memory, amblyopia, blindness, irregularity of the hea with extra-systoles and occasionally attacks pain suggesting angina pectoris
Forensic Medicine
null
A 70 years old male patient presents with amblyopia, exeional chest pain, episodic tachycardia and extra systoles on FCC. What is the probable cause? A. Cocaine poisoning B. Chronic nicotine poisoning C. Arsenophagia D. Cannabis ingestion
Chronic nicotine poisoning
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Treatment of metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting or nasogastric suction. Most children with metabolic alkalosis have one of the chloride responsive etiology (e.g., vomiting). In these situations, administration of suffieeint sodium chloride and potassium chloride to correct volume deficit is necessary to correct metabolic alkalosis. Adequate replacement of gastric losses of sodium and potassium in a child with vomiting can minimize or prevent the development of metabolic alkalosis. With adequate intravascular volume and a normal serum potassium concentration, the kidney is able to excrete the excess bicarbonate within a couple of days.
Pediatrics
null
A child had repeated vomiting and developed metabolic alkalosis. The treatment given is – A. Ringer lactate B. I.V. normal saline and potassium C. ORS D. I.V. Normal saline
I.V. normal saline and potassium
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Popularly, the term resilience is associated with springiness, but it means precisely the amount of energy absorbed within a unit volume of a structure when it is stressed to its proportional limit.  The resilience of two or more materials can be compared by observing the areas under the elastic region of their stress-strain plots assuming that they are plotted on the same scale. The material with the larger elastic area has higher resilience. Key Concept: Resilience—The amount of elastic energy per unit volume that is sustained on loading and released upon unloading of a test specimen.   Reference: Phillips science of dental materials, 12th ed page no 48,55
Dental
null
Which characteristic of orthodontic wire describe energy storage capacity? A. Range B. Resilience C. Formability D. Proportional limit
Resilience
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Characteristics of tongue thrusting Spaced dentition Primate spaces Deep bite Flush terminal plane Malocclusion Various malocclusions have been reported to be caused due to tongue thrust. These can further be subdivided as: a. Features pertaining to the maxilla Proclination of maxillary anteriors resulting in an increase in overjet. Generalised spacing between the teeth. Maxillary constriction. b. Features pertaining to the mandible Retroclination or proclination of mandibular teeth depending on the type of tongue thrust present. c. Intermaxillary relationships Anterior or posterior open bite based on the posture of the tongue. Posterior teeth crossbite.
Dental
null
Which of the following feature is not seen in tongue thrusting? A. Spaced dentition B. Crowding and crossbite C. Open bite D. Flush terminal plane
Crowding and crossbite
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Enamel spindles are odontoblastic process, which extend into enamel. Enamel spindles are mesenchymal in origin.
Dental
null
Which of the following structures is not of ectodermal origin: A. Hunter-schreger bands B. Enamel spindles C. Enamel tufts D. Enamel lamellae
Enamel spindles
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Ans- c- hypothermiaParadoxical undressing is a term for a phenomenon frequently seen in cases of lethal hypothermia. Sholy before death, the person will remove all their clothes, as if they were burning up, when in fact they are freezing.
Forensic Medicine
null
Paradoxical undressing seen in - A. Immersion syndrome B. Heat cramps C. Hypothermia D. Heat exhaustion
Hypothermia
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Intraoral dental X-ray film is available in two speed groups: D and E/F. Clinically, film of speed group E/F is approximately twice as fast (sensitive) as film of group D and thus requires only half the exposure. Fast films are desirable from the standpoint of exposure reduction. Multiple studies have found that E/F-speed film is preferred, because it has the same useful density range, latitude, contrast, and image quality as D-speed films and can be used in routine intraoral radiographic examinations without sacrifice of diagnostic information.  Current digital sensors offer equal or greater dose savings than E/F-speed film and comparable diagnostic utility. Reference: White and Pharoah's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation 7th edition page no 33
Radiology
null
The single most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure when taking radiograph is to use: A. A lead apron B. Speed E film C. Added filtration D. An open ended, shielded cone
Speed E film
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The answer is A Acute pyelonephritis is a bacterial infection causing inflammation of the kidneys and is one of the most common diseases of the kidney.Pyelonephritis occurs as a complication of an ascending urinary tract infection (UTI) which spreads from the bladder to the kidneys and their collecting systems.Symptoms usually include fever, flank pain, nausea, vomiting, burning on urination, increased frequency, and urgency. The 2 most common symptoms are usually fever and flank pain. E. coli is the most common bacteria causing acute pyelonephritis due to its unique ability to adhere to and colonize the urinary tract and kidneys.Histopathology will usually reveal necrosis or putrid abscess formation within the renal parenchyma. The renal tissues are infiltrated with neutrophils, macrophages and plasma cells. However, architecture is not completely disorganized.The presence of white blood cells within or upon casts strongly suggests pyelonephritis, direct infection of the kidney. They may also be seen in inflammatory states, such as acute allergic interstitial nephritis, nephrotic syndrome, or post-streptococcal acute glomerulonephritis.
Medicine
null
A boy is suffering from acute pyelonephritis. The most specific investigation is A. Histopathological examination B. Leucocyte esterase test C. Nitrite test D. Bacteria in gram stain
Histopathological examination
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Seronegative spondyloahritis has a male : female ratio of 1:1. Rheumatoid ahritis and Polymyalgia rheumatica are seen more commonly in females. Gout is more common in males.
Medicine
AIIMS 2017
Which of the following has a male:female ratio of 1:1? A. Rheumatoid ahritis B. Gout C. Seronegative spondyloahritis D. Polymyalgia rheumatica
Seronegative spondyloahritis
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Serum creatinine levels are raised indicating renal failure. In renal failure and hepatic failure --> Metformin is C/I as it |ses the risk of developing lactic acidosis. Contraindicated in patients with an eGFR below 30 mL/minute/1.73 m2. eGFR should be measured annually for patients taking metformin therapy. eGFR is preferred over serum creatinine concentration to assess renal function for a person taking metformin therapy Linagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor. Metoprolol is a b blocker.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2017
A diabetic and hypeensive patient taking several drugs presented with septicemia. Serum creatinine levels are 5.7 mg/dL. Which of the following drug should be stopped? A. Insulin B. Metoprolol C. Linagliptin D. Metformin
Metformin
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Side effect of high dose epidural opioid: Nausea and vomiting Pruritis Urinary retention Respiratory depression High dose of opioid can spread centrally and stimulate CTZ center and can precipitate nausea and vomiting. Pruritis due to morphine is not due to histamine release, high dose morphine can spread centrally, act on trigeminal nerve and cause pruritis. Urinary retention in morphine use is due to it's action on sacral spinal cord, therefore it can happen even at normal dose and not related to high dose. Respiratory depression in morphine overdose due to migration of morphine centrally.
Anaesthesia
AIIMS 2019
The case of biliary duct stricture with retching and vomiting, given 3mg morphine epiduraly daily, one day 12 mg mistakenly dose of epidural, morphine given. Not present:- A. Itching B. Urinary retention C. Increase vomiting D. Overstimulation of respiratory centre
Overstimulation of respiratory centre
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Ideally, a dentin bonding agent should have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic ends. The hydrophilic end displaces the dentinal fluid to wet the surface. The hydrophobic end bonds to the composite resin. Bonding: The forces or energies between atoms or molecules at an interface that hold two phases together. Mechanism of bonding: Dentin adhesive molecule has a bifunctional structure: M-R-X Where, M is the double bond of methacrylate which copolymerizes with composite resin. R is the spacer which makes the molecule large. X is a functional group for bonding, which bonds to an inorganic or organic portion of dentin. Ref: Textbook of Operative Dentistry, Nisha and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, Pg no:239
Dental
null
Bonding agents have hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups. The hydrophobic group binds which structure? A. Calcium in enamel B. Hydroxyapatite group in hard tissue C. Resin in restoration D. Collagen in dentin
Resin in restoration
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Ans. C. Pre-erythrocytic schizogonyPre-erythrocytic schizogony* Occurs inside the parenchymal cells of liver.* Merozoites are liberated into blood.* Drugs acting on this stage will prevent infection of RBC and clinical attack of malaria causal prophylaxis.* Drugs are* Proguanil & Tetracycline - for falciparum.
Pharmacology
null
Antimalarial drug used for causal prophylaxis act at which stage of developmental cycle A. Gametogony B. Erythrocytic schizogony C. Pre-erythrocytic schizogony D. Exo-erythrocytic schizogony
Pre-erythrocytic schizogony
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Depression of mandible is caused by lateral pterygoid (main), digastric, geniohyoid & mylohyoid. And Elevation of mandible by temporalis, medial pterygoid & masseter.
Anatomy
null
Retraction of the protruded mandible is done by A. Medial Pterygoid B. Lateral pterygoid C. Masseter D. Temporalis
Temporalis
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Ans: B. M2Methacholine is an M2 receptor agonist.ParameterM1M2M3Agonists (Relatively selective)Oxotremorine, MCN-343AMethacholineBethanecholAntagonists (Relatively selective)Pirenzepine, TelenzepineMethoctramine, TripitramineDarifenacin, Solifenacin
Pharmacology
null
Methacholine acts at which receptor? A. M1 B. M2 C. M3 D. M4
M2
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Ans. b. USG(Ref Sutton's Radiology 7/e p1456; Schwaz 9/e p467; Sabiston 19/e p2035-p846) Indications of Breast Ultrasound: ,Itton's Radiology 7/e p1456)Symptomatic breast lump in women < 35 yearsBreast lump during lactation and pregnancyAssessment of mammographic abnormality (+- fuher mammographic views)Assessment of MRI or scintimammography detected lesionsClinical breast mass with negative mammogramBreast inflammationAugmented breast (together with MRI)
Surgery
null
A Iaday 35 years old lactating mother Presented with a Painful breast lump. Most appropriate initial investigation should be: A. Mammography B. USG C. MRI D. X-ray
USG
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Ans: C. Eye(Ref Ganong 25/e p417, 420, 685, 24/e p687, 419, 422) .Countercurrent mechanism:Not seen in eye.Inflow runs parallel to, counter to & in close proximity to outflow for some distance.Seen in kidney, limbs, testis & intestine.In renal system - Both loops of Henle & vasa recta in renal medulla.Intestine - Villi where oxygen directly diffuses from aerioles to vein.
Physiology
null
Countercurrent mechanism is not seen in: A. Kidney B. Testes C. Eye D. Intestine
Eye
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Ans. C. SialorrheaEscitalopram belongs to a class of drugs known as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI).Improves your energy levels and feelings of well-being and decrease nervousness.Used to treat depression and anxiety.MOA: Works by helping to restore the serotonin balance in the brain.S/E:Headache, Nausea, Ejaculation disorder, Somnolence, Insomnia, Dry mouth, Constipation, Fatigue, Libido decreased, Inability to achieve orgasm, Gas (flatulence), Toothache, Weight gain, Menstrual disorder, Neck/shoulder pain, Runny nose & Flu-like syndrome.
Pharmacology
null
A bank employee felt depressed with no interest in activities came to AIIMS OPD. He was staed on Escitalopram. Which of these adverse effects cannot be explained with escitalopram? A. Vivid dreaming B. Anorgasmia C. Sialorrhea D. Nausea
Sialorrhea
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Ans is 'a' i.e. Hydrological DisasterA "disaster" can be defined as 'any occurrence that causes damage, ecological disruption, loss of human life or deterioration of health and health services on a scale stiffly-lent to warrant an extraordinary response from outside the affected community or area'.* A "hazard" can be defined as any phenomenon that has the potential to cause disruption or damage to people and their environment. - There are many types of disasters such as eahquakes, cyclones, floods, tidal waves, landslides, volcanic eruptions, fires, snowstorms, building collapse, toxicologic accidents, and warfare, etc.* Hydrological disasters (i.e. floods, tsunamis) are associated with causing a maximum death toll. Geological disasters: includes Eahquakes, Avalanches & Volcanic eruptionsMeteorological disasters: include Cyclones, Tornadoes, Hailstorms, Drought, Heatwaves, Blizzards (Blizzards are severe winter storms characterized by low temperature, strong winds, and heavy snow).
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Natural disaster causing maximum deaths A. Hydrological B. Meterological C. Geological D. Fires
Hydrological
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Answer- D. Ischemic bowel diseaseCT scans associated with bowel ischemia include dilation of the bowel lumen, bowel wall thickening abnormal bowel wall enhancement, aerial occlusion, venous thrombosis, and intramural or poal venous gasDilation of an ischemic bowel segment suggests interruption of normal peristaltic activity.Symmetrical bowel wall thickening greater than 3 mm in a distended segment.
Surgery
null
A young healthy male patient presented with abdominal pain and history of altered bowel habits from the last 6 months. On CT examination, there was dilated distal pa of ileum, thickened ileocecal junction with thickened cecum with presence of sacculations on the antimesenteric border. The vascularity of adjoining mesentery is also increased and there is surrounding mesentery fat. Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Crohn's disease C. Tuberculosis D. Ischemic bowel disease
Ischemic bowel disease
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Syndrome X is a term used as a placeholder for a newly discovered group of symptoms. It may refer to: Cardiac syndrome X Metabolic syndrome Metabolic syndrome (Formerly known as syndrome x) can dramatically increase your risk of serious health problems, such as diabetes, heart attacks, and strokes yet often people don't even know what it is. Metabolic syndrome is generally defined as a cluster of risk factors, including high blood sugar, extra abdominal fat, high blood pressure, and unhealthy cholesterol levels. Insulin resistance. Insulin is used to metabolize glucose. In people with insulin resistance, there is resistance against insulin action, due to which the body keeps making more and more of it to cope with the rising level of glucose. Eventually, this can lead to diabetes.
Pathology
null
What is seen in syndrome X? A. Prediabetics B. Prehypertensive C. X chromosome mutation D. More chances of syncope during dental extractions
Prediabetics
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Adrenal Androgens:- Adrenal gland exclusively secretes DHEA (DEHYDROEPIANDROSTERONE) from adrenal coex, especially during fetal life. It also secretes progesterone & oestrogens in minute quantity, which are female sex hormones, but they primarily come from ovaries. Testosterone in females comes from both ovaries and adrenal glands, but majority from ovaries.
Physiology
AIIMS 2019
In females adrenal glands are the exclusive source for secretion of? A. Estrogen B. Testosterone C. DHEAS D. Progesterone
DHEAS
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Ans. A. 0.5 ml in 1:1000Severe hypersensitivity reactions, anaphylactic shockIM Injection:* Adults: The usual dose is 500 micrograms (0.5ml of adrenaline 1/1000). If necessary, this dose may be repeated several times at 5-minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.* Half doses of adrenaline may be safer for patients who are taking amitriptyline, imipramine or a beta blocker.Paediatric population:* The following doses of adrenaline 1/1,000 are recommended:AgeDoseOver 12 years0.5 mg IM (0.5ml 1:1000 solution)6 - 12 years0.3 mg IM (0.3ml 1:1000 solution)6 months - 6 years0.15 mg IM (0.15ml 1:1000 solution)Under 6 months0.01mg/kg IM (0.01ml/kg 1:1000 solution)* If necessary, these doses may be repeated at 5-15 -minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.
Pharmacology
null
What is the dose of adrenaline in anaphylactic shock? A. 0.5 ml in 1:1000 B. 0.5 ml in 1:10000 C. 1 ml in 1:1000 D. 1.5 ml in 1:1000
0.5 ml in 1:1000
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When the powder and liquid components are mixed in the proper proportions, a doughlike mass results. Commercial products generally use a polymer-to-monomer ratio of approximately 3:1 by volume.
Dental
null
Ratio of polymer to monomer in cold cure resin A. 3:1 by volume and 2:1 by weight B. 3:1 by weight and 2:1 by volume C. 2:1 by volume and 2:1 by weight D. 3:1 by volume and 3:1 by weight
3:1 by volume and 2:1 by weight
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WHO Classification: Ko 4.4 Acute Apical Periodontitis Ko 4.5 Chronic Apical Periodontitis Ko 4.6 Periapical Abscess with sinus formation 4.60 Sinus to maxillary antrum 4.61 Sinus to nasal floor 4.62 Sinus to oral cavity 4.63 Sinus to outer skin of face Ko 4.7 Periapical Abscess without sinus Ko 4.8 Periapical cyst 4.80 Apical / lateral cyst 4.81 Residual cyst 4.82 Inflammatory paradental cyst.
Dental
null
According to WHO classification of periapical pathology, 4.81 means: A. Periapical cyst B. Lateral cyst C. Residual cyst D. Inflammatory periodontal cyst
Residual cyst
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Solutions: - The first step of haem synthesis uses succinyl CoA which is intermediate to TCA. Fumarate, Alpha keto gluterate and malate (4C) is also intermediate to TCA. Malonate (3C) or malonyl CoA is inhibitor of 3 pathways in body - Succinate DH of TCA - Complex 2 of ETC - Beta oxidation of Fatty acid Acetyl CoA is not an intermediate of TCA. Haem synthesis It occurs in Mitochondria + cytoplasm (So, doesn't occurs in RBC)
Biochemistry
AIIMS 2019
Which TCA intermediate is used in haem synthesis: A. Fumarate B. Alpha keto gluterate C. Malate D. Succinyl CoA
Succinyl CoA
4e6da460-99e2-4192-b3b6-b10f8827dce2
The picture given above shows the WBC filter. | WBC's entering the body of the recipient | are the chances of development of transfusion related reactions. Purpose of having this kind of filter is that: - lesser chances of entry of WBC inside the body of the host. - Prevent the entry of (Cell) aggregates inside the body of the recipient. The size of the WBC filters can range from 170- 200m. The size of the transfusion needle is 18-19 gauge.
Pathology
AIIMS 2019
What among the following is the use of this? A. Prevent viral infections B. Prevent transfusion related reactions C. Prevent bacterial contamination D. Prevent blood mismatch
Prevent transfusion related reactions
7cc17f9f-5ecd-4e71-b32f-74fdf3a6537b
MOLLUSCUM CONTAGIOSUM VIRUS It is an obligate human pox Virus that produces characteristic skin lesions. Clinical Manifestations Pink pearly wa-like lesions (2-5 mm size),umbilicated with a characteristic dimple at the centre. Lesions are characterized by: - Lack of associated inflammation and necrosis - Found singly or in clusters Distribution: lesions are found anywhere on the body except on palms and soles. Genital lesions are seen in adults Molluscum bodies are the Intracytoplasmic Eosinophilic inclusions seen in skin scrapings stained with histopathological stains.
Microbiology
AIIMS 2019
A 22 year old college boy with history of sex with commercial workers came to Derma OPD with lesion in genital region, tissue from this lesion was examined, which is the most likely finding? A. Intracytoplasmic vacuolations B. Multinucleated giant cells C. Belongs to Herpes family D. It's a RNA virus
Intracytoplasmic vacuolations
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Control of Working Time The working time for polycarboxylate cement is much shorter than that for zinc phosphate cement, approximately 2.5 versus 5 minutes.   The graph shows the relative viscosities and working times of zinc phosphate, polycarboxylate, and GICs as they set.  A cool slab lengthens the working time for zinc carboxylate cement, although it causes the polyacrylic acid to thicken, which hinders mixing.  Refrigerating the powder is useful, because it retards the reaction without raising the viscosity of the liquid. Polycarboxylate cements are more viscous than a comparable mix of GIC; however, the polycarboxylate mix undergoes thinning at an increased shear rate.  Clinically, this means that rapid spatulation and fast seating will reduce the viscosity of the polycarboxylate cement to ensure complete seating.
Dental
null
What is the working time of zinc polycarboxylate cement? A. 1 minute B. 2 minutes C. 3 minutes D. 4 minutes
3 minutes
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Answer- C. Platelet transfusionBeta-blockersEndoscopic sclerotherapyEndoscopic variceal ligation (banding)A medication called octreotide - will lower the pressure in the swollen veins by tightening the blood vessels and reducing blood flow.Transjugular intrahepatic poosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure is another potential treatment option for recurrent bleeding esophageal varices
Surgery
null
In esophageal varices bleeding, which of the following is not used? A. Endoscopy banding B. Octreotide C. Platelet transfusion D. TIPS
Platelet transfusion
9aea1874-b4cf-4ba0-8de4-ac60866796ba
ADH SYNTHESIS IN SUPRAOPTIC AND PARAVENTRICULAR NUCLEI OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS AND ADH RELEASE FROM THE POSTERIOR PITUITARY Figure shows the neuroanatomy of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland, where ADH is synthesized and released. The hypothalamus contains two types of magnocellular (large) neurons that synthesize ADH in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, about five sixths in the supraoptic nuclei and about one sixth in the paraventricular nuclei. Both of these nuclei have axonal extensions to the posterior pituitary. The most important renal action of ADH is to increase the water permeability  of  the  distal  tubule,  collecting  tubule, and collecting duct epithelia. This effect helps the body to conserve water in circumstances such as dehydration. In the absence of ADH, the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts to water is low, causing the kidneys to excrete large amounts of dilute urine, a condition called diabetes insipidus. Thus, the actions of ADH play a key role in controlling the degree of dilution or concentration of the urine.
Physiology
null
Posterior pituitary insufficiency leads to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Diabetes insipidus C. Dwarfism D. Cretinism
Diabetes insipidus
17cb7e3f-0ca7-4937-a407-76bf9f401143
Since 11 is mature and has complete root formation, RCT will be preferred for this tooth. Due to immature status of 12 as evident from blunder- buss canal revascularization should be attempted for this tooth.
Dental
null
10-year-old boy visits dentist with complicated crown fracture with abscess formation in 12. X-ray reveals radiolucency in relation to 11, 12. 12 is having immature blunderbuss canal while 11 has complete root formation, vitality of 11, 21 is negative. What would be the management of this patient? A. Apexification of 12 and RCT of 11 B. Revascularization in 12 and RCT of 11 C. RCT of 12 and 11 D. Extraction of 12 and RCT in 11
Revascularization in 12 and RCT of 11
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Stevens — Johnson syndrome is very severe bullous form of erythema multiformae and is characterized by oral, ocular and genital lesions.
Pathology
null
A 60-year-old has got severe bulla and target lesion which erythema around halo and genital lesions: A. Stevens Jhonson syndrome B. Herpes zoster C. Herpes simplex D. Herpangina
Stevens Jhonson syndrome
4abe89b3-2fab-4615-8ba3-be109a8927fb
Mandibular 2nd premolar is the most likely tooth to be displaced due to arch size discrepancy.
Dental
null
Tooth in the mandibular arch which is most likely to be displaced due to arch size discrepancy is A. First molar B. Second molar C. First premolar D. Second premolar
Second premolar
0b81f878-0e23-4c6b-9fcd-697e8ea660c3
Ans. A. Thyrocervical trunkRef: Grays Anatomy,4Ia ed., pg. 455458Inferior thyroid aery is branch of thyrocervical trunk of subclan aery.The thyrocervical trunk arises fiom the front of the first pa of the subclan aery near the medial border of scalenus anterior, and divides into the inferior thyroid, suprascapular and superficial cervical aeries.
Anatomy
null
Inferiohyroid aery is a branch ol? A. Thyrocervical trunk B. ICA C. Costocervical trunk D. ECA
Thyrocervical trunk
ecc4eaa4-4fcd-4c62-9c73-2a047b98cdc5
The cast-metal inlay is an alternative to amalgam or composite when the higher strength of a casting alloy is needed or when the superior control of contours and contacts that the indirect procedure provides is desired. The cast-metal onlay is often an excellent alternative to a crown for teeth that have been greatly weakened by caries or by large, failing restorations but where the facial and lingual tooth surfaces are relatively unaffected by disease or injury. For such weakened teeth, the superior physical properties of a casting alloy are desirable to withstand the occlusal loads placed on the restoration; also the onlay can be designed to distribute occlusal loads over the tooth in a manner that decreases the chance of tooth fracture in the future. Sturdevant operative dentistry 7th Edition, Page No:e94
Dental
null
A patient comes to a dentist with decayed mandibular 1st molar which involves the mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusp. The restoration of choice is: A. Intermediate restoration B. Composite C. Cast metal D. GIC
Cast metal
23022df5-e07c-40f9-9f79-b3adff072f5e
Answer: B. Shin splintShin splints (medial tibial stress syndrome) is an inflammation of the muscles, tendons, and bone tissue around your tibia.Pain typically occurs along the inner border of the tibia, where muscles attach to the bone.Shin splint pain most often occurs on the inside edge of your tibia
Surgery
null
Marathon runner had pain in anteromedial tibia on regular walking/jogging for long hours. X ray is normal. Doctor orders a bone scan. What may be the probable diagnosis A. Jones fracture B. Shin splint C. Lisfranc fracture D. Nutcracker
Shin splint
416729b9-8f0b-45d1-aa27-6674dacb9975
Ans: B. Increased renal blood flow(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p355; KDT 7/e p134. 6/e p507)Action of dopamine:At low concentrations (2 to 5 mcg/kg per minute):Primarily acts on vascular D1 receptors.Mainly renal, mesenteric & coronary beds.By activating adenylyl cyclase a raising intracellular cyclic AMP concentrations.D1 receptor stimulation a Vasodilation.Increases in glomerular filtration rate, renal blood flow & Nat+ K+ - ATPase pump.
Pharmacology
null
At low infusion rates of 3-5 mcg/kg/min, what action is produced by dopamine? A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased renal blood flow C. Increased cardiac contractility D. Decreased blood pressure
Increased renal blood flow
764c0c80-b716-45a1-9fe7-b13588090401
Quartile: Divides a distribution into 4 equal parts, so the number of intercepts required will be 3, i.e. Q1, Q2, Q3 – So, Zero – Q1 covers 25% values – Similarly, Q2 – Q1, Q3 – Q2 and 100 – Q3 all cover 25% values each – Thus, Q2 – Zero, 100 – Q2 and Q3 – Q1 all cover 50% values each – Q1 divides a distribution in a ratio of 25 : 75 OR 1 : 3 – Q2 divides a distribution in a ratio of 50 : 50 OR 1 : 1, Thus second quartile is equivalent to median – Q3 divides a distribution in a ratio of 75 : 25 OR 3 : 1. In the given question, n = 180 Thus Q2 which is equivalent to median, divides a distribution in a ratio of 50 : 50 OR 1 : 1.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Central value of a set of 180 values can be obtained by A. 2nd tertile B. 90th percentile C. 2nd quartile D. 9th decile
2nd quartile
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When the primary molars and canine are exfoliated the combined width of primary molars and canine are significantly larger than the premolars and permanent canine that replace them, and the “leeway space” provided by this difference offers an excellent opportunity of natural or orthodontic adjustment of occlusal relationships at the end of the dental transition
Dental
null
Leeway space is due to ? A. Space differential between deciduous canine and molar and their succedaneous permanent teeth B. Space differential between deciduous incisors and their succedaneous permanent teeth C. Difference between deciduous and permanent maxillary and mandibular canines only D. Difference between deciduous and permanent maxillary and mandibular molars only
Space differential between deciduous canine and molar and their succedaneous permanent teeth
98893c1c-a979-476e-8b82-ef3bd2a02da7
Ans: A. Intensity of stimulus(Ref: Guyton 13/e p615)According to Weber-Fechner's Law, strength of stimulus perceived is directly propoional to intensity of stimulus."Weber-Fechner Principle--Detection of "Ratio" of Stimulus Strength: In the mid 1800s, Weber first and Fechner later proposed the principle that gradations of stimulus strength are discriminated approximately in propoion to the logarithm of stimulus strength.
Physiology
null
According to Weber-Fechner's law, strength of stimulus perceived is directly propoional to: A. Intensity of stimulus B. Amplitude of action potential C. Number of neurons stimulated D. Number of receptors stimulated
Intensity of stimulus
73b821cd-6c0f-427f-bd1c-ccc14a5f4267
The baby presenting with tetany is hypocalcemic, so must be treated immediately with calcium gluconate I.V. Treatment of hypocalcemia. Acute or Severe Tetany The objective of the treatment is to correct hypocalcemia immediately with calcium gluconate I.V Maintenance management of hypoparathyroidism and chronic hypocakenzia. The objective is to maintain serum calcium and serum phosphase at approximately normal levels. It usually requires. 1. Diet  ---> Calcium supplements and diet rich in calcium. 2. Vitamin D supplementation  ---> Ergocakiferol or dihydrotachysterol.
Pediatrics
null
A baby presents with tetany. First thing to be done is administration of : A. Diazepam B. Vitamin D C. Calcium gluconate D. Calcitonin
Calcium gluconate
065b4850-1738-4a30-9c3f-1fb89d9c0123
Alpha fetoprotein is the most abundant protein in the fetal serum throughout fetal development. It is transferred from fetus to amniotic fluid when fetus passes urine. The concentration of AFP in amniotic fluid is approximately 100 folds less than in fetal serum, peaks at 13-14 weeks and then decreases in the second trimester (by 10% per week). AFP reaches the maternal serum by diffusion across the amniotic membranes and via the placenta. The level of AFP in maternal serum is less than fetal serum as is suggested by: “Fetal serum contains AFP in a concentration 150 times that of maternal serum”. COGDT 10/e, p 185 “Ordinarily high level of fetoprotein are found in developing fetus and low levels exist in maternal serum and amniotic fluid”. Mannual of Laboratory and Diagnostic Test Fishback 7/e, p 995
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Maximum level of alpha fetoprotein is seen in: A. Fetal serum B. Placenta C. Amniotic fluid D. Maternal serum
Fetal serum
3e2e85ff-abd6-4b35-bab8-b5fe0b78bdd9
Answer- B. Hemorrhagic mediastinitisA low-grade fever and a nonproductive cough. Substernal discomfo early in the illness. Inhalational anthrax progresses rapidly, causing hemorrhagic mediastinitisHigh feverSevere shoness of breathTachypneaCyanosisProfuse diaphoresisHematemesis
Medicine
null
Anthracis causes which pulmonary manifestations- A. Atypical pneumonia B. Hemorrhagic mediastinitis C. Lung abscess D. Bronchopulmonary pneumonia
Hemorrhagic mediastinitis
07c14e46-ad2b-4fde-8652-bd47b36e69ab
Answer- D (Medullary collecting duct)'The mechanism by which vasopressin exes its anti-diuretic effect is activated by V2 receptors and involves the inseion of aquaporin-2 into the apical (luminal) membranes at the principle cells of the collecting duct.'
Pharmacology
null
Vasopressin antagonist acts on which pa of the nephron? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Coical collecting tubule D. Medullary collecting duct
Medullary collecting duct
604ef1a2-7595-4718-9f8c-12292063e19f
Ethambutol side effect: causes Red Green color blindness (Ophthalmological toxicity) Isoniazid side effects: Neurotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity. Pyrazinamide side effects: Hyperuricemia (gouty ahritis). Rifampicin side effects: Hepatotoxicity, orange red urine and tears etc.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
Which of the following anti-tubercular drug can cause ophthalmological toxicity? A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
7a3a771f-2b56-4af8-b967-3c991b394bc6
Answer- B. It is less protein boundCompared to unfractionated heparin, Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has reliable anticoagulant action because it is less protein bound.Indications of LMW heparins:Prophylaxis of DVT and pulmonary embolism in high-risk patients undergoing surgery stroke or other immobilized patientsTreatment of established DVTUnstable anginaTo maintain patency of cannulae and shunts in dialysis patients and in extracorporeal circulation.
Pharmacology
null
Compared to unfractionated heparin, Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has reliable anticoagulant action because: A. It interferes with thrombin and antithrombin III simultaneously B. It is less protein bound C. It is given subcutaneously D. It is cleared by macrophages
It is less protein bound
ae3aa91a-4bfb-42a5-b8f6-7f8217e18fb0
Ans: B. 100Ref: K Park, 23d ed., pg. 524, 567Estimated no. of infants in a health sub centre covering 5000 population can be calculated as follows:No. of live bih = Bih rate x Population/ 1000= 20.4 x 5000/1000 = 102Infant moality for sub centre = No. of live bih x IMR/1000= 102 x 34/1000= 3.5 (for calculation purpose we assume it 4)Therefore, total number of infants = 102 -- 4= 98Hence correct answer is 100 (nearest value).
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
You went to a sub center as pa of an audit. How many infants should be registered with a health worker working there? A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200
100
464d6db1-cbf6-44c5-89b0-1599071e3a72
Ans: D. Greater auricular nerve(Ref: Gray's 41Ie p407, 413, 40Ie p435)The skin over the angle of mandible is supplied by the greater auricular nerve, which carries branches from anterior ramus of C2 and C3. Branches of Upper Cervical Spinal NervesGreat auricular nerveBranches from anterior rami of 2" & 3rd cervical spinal nervesdegInnervates skin over the angle of mandible, parotid gland & earlobedegLesser occipital nerveBranches from anterior rami of 2" & 3rd cervical spinal nervesdegInnervates scalp behind the eardeg.Greater occipital nerveBranching off the posterior ramus of the 2" cervical spinal nervesdegInnervates scalp of occipital areadeg3rd occipital nerve:Branches off the posterior ramus of 3rd cervical nervedegInnervates scalp in occipital & sub occipital areasdeg.
Anatomy
null
What is the nerve supply of the angle of the jaw? A. Mandibular nerve B. Maxillary nerve C. Lesser occipital nerve D. Greater auricular nerve
Greater auricular nerve
007d53f1-6364-4482-b62e-5b51134a222c
According to NRCP 2015,National Rabies prophylaxis Guidelines (NRPG) says even the pet is vaccinated, no chance is taken, Rabies is 100% Fatal disease. So, Pet's vaccination status is not so relevant in India guidelines Post exposure prophylaxis. 2 IM doses of Rabies vaccine on Day 0,3. Day 0 3 7 14 28 ESSEN Regimen IM 1 1 1 1 1 THAI updated ID Red close R. 2 2 2 0 2 All these vaccinations come under primary level prevention & specific protection. New Recommended Regimens/ Schedules { NEW GUIDELINES} Type of prophylaxis Regimen POST EXPOSURE INTRAMUSCULAR Essen Regimen (1-1-1-1-1) Day 0,3,7,14,28 POST EXPOSURE INTRADERMAL Updated Thai Red Cross Regimen (2-2-2-0-2) Day 0,3,7,28 POST-EXPOSURE IN VACCINATED INDIVIDUALS Day 0,3 PRE-EXPOSURE PROPHYLAXIS Day 0,7,21/28
Social & Preventive Medicine
AIIMS 2019
A child has received full Rabies vaccination in December 2018 and now presented with oozing wound on Great toe and the pet had vaccination also. Next line of management is A. No vaccine required B. RIG + 5 doses of vaccine C. 5 doses of vaccines only D. 2 doses of Rabies vaccine
2 doses of Rabies vaccine
0150cd44-7abc-4723-8a8a-c17de3f20004
Ans. d. Mollusc shell (Ref en.wilkipedia.org/wiki/Biomineralization)The mollusc shell is a biogenic composite material that has been the subject of much interest in materials science because of its unusual propeies and its model character for biomineralization.Biomineralization is the process by which, living organisms produce minerals, often to harden or stiffen existing tissues. Such tissues are called mineralized tissues.
Physiology
null
Biomineralization is a process by which inorganic `metals' are incorporated in the body and made a pa of biological structures. Example of Biomineralization is seen in: A. Pinna (anatomy) B. Hooves of cattle C. Honeycomb D. Mollusc shell
Mollusc shell
49b456da-591f-4221-b56b-9a04eaa21b77
Ans. A. Topical bacitracinMRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) infection is a life-threatening bacterial infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to the antibiotic methicillin. Severe cases usually require hospitalization for treatment.MRSA infections are usually treated with systemic antibiotics, either orally or intravenously.Topical bacitracin in combination with neomycin and polymyxin B might be added to the therapy.
Pharmacology
null
There was an outbreak of MRSA in the hospital and it was found that a nurse of NICU had MRSA colonisation of anterior nares. What is the best treatment? A. Topical bacitracin B. Oral Vancomycin C. Inhaled colistin D. IV cefazolin
Topical bacitracin
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Ans. d. Papillary dermisMeissner corpuscles are encapsulated nerve endings present in dermal papillae.Merkel cells location: Stratum basalePacinian corpuscle location: Reticular layer of dermis
Anatomy
null
What is the location of Meissner's corpuscles? A. Lucidum B. Basale C. Reticular dermis D. Papillary dermis
Papillary dermis
a97ea051-7425-4f6f-b909-c32f3801a91f
* DGPCR which act through opening of K+ channels lead to hyper polarisation, thus leading to inhibition.So, receptor which causes stimulation will not act through opening of K+ channels. o Muscarinic M2 receptor, Dopamine D2 receptor and serotonin 5HT1 receptor act through opening of K+ channels.o Whereas Angiotensin 1 receptor act by increasing Ca+2.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2019
G-protein coupled receptor that does not act through opening of potassium channels is A. Muscarinic M2 receptor B. Dopamine D2 receptor C. Serotonin 5 HT 1 receptor D. Angiotensin 1 receptor
Angiotensin 1 receptor
9ccd0247-2723-4707-b569-ca0402842cd9
Ans: B. Premenstrual tension(Ref Williams 24/e p701: Goodman Gilman 12/e p1184, 1190)Pre-menstrual tension is not a non-contraceptive use of levonorgestrel.Therapeutic Uses - Levonorgestrel:Emergency contraception:Useful within 120 hours as emergency bih control.Idiopathic menorrhagia:Excessively heavy, regular menses in the absence of intracavitary pathology or coagulopathy.Menometrorrhagia:Excessive bleeding in amount prolonged in duration (regular or irregular intervals).An alternative delivery system - Protect against endometrial hyperplasia in women taking SERM.Management of recurrent pelvic pain secondary to multi- treated endometriosis.LNG-IUS is licensed for use in menorrhagia & to provide endometrial protection to perimenopausal & postmenopausal women on estrogen replacement therapy.LNG-IUS beneficial in endometriosis, adenomyosis, fibroids, endometrial hyperplasia & early stage endometrial cancere (where the patient is deemed unfit for primary surgical therapy).
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which of these is not a non-contraceptive use of levonorgestrel? A. Endometriosis B. Premenstrual tension C. Complex endometrial hJperplasia D. Emergencycontraception
Premenstrual tension
01cc2fa2-924b-4470-8ef2-a85b934cedb1
Ans: D. Pelvis(Ref Maheshwari 5/e p38, 369)Judet's view of X-ray - For acetabular (pelvic) fracture.Judet's views:Standard radiographic projections employed in acetabulum fractures patients.Basically 45" oblique of affected hip.45" angle best achieved by rolling patient.Uses:Generally only performed as supplementary view.Useful in demonstrating or confirming acetabular fractures in acute injury cases.
Surgery
null
Judet view of X-ray is for: A. Calcaneum B. Scaphoid C. Shoulder D. Pelvis
Pelvis
7c6fe266-845b-4f4b-8ddb-ca5d016e0396
Ans.d) At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 100000 population of under 15 years The number of AFP cases repoed each year is used as an indicator of a country's ability to detect polio, even in countries where the disease no longer occurs. Polio surveillance It is the most impoant pa of whole polio eradication intiative. It has two components:?Acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) surveillanceAcute flaccid paralysis is defined as acute onset (< 4 weeks) of flaccid paralysis (reduced tone) without other obvious cause in children WHO recommends the immediate repoing and investigation of every case of AFP in children less than 15 years.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Key indicator for AFP surveillance ?. A. At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 1000 population of under 5 years B. At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 100000 population of under 5 year C. At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 1000 population of under 15 years D. At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 100000 population of under 15 years
At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 100000 population of under 15 years
380d5a44-a18e-4bdf-90be-c812b1ff3885
Streptomycin (antitubercular) causes vestibular damage on prolonged use. Adverse effects This class of drugs is notorious for their adverse effects like ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. About 1/5th patients given streptomycin 1 gm BD i.m. experience vestibular disturbances although auditory disturbances are less common.  Streptomycin has the lowest nephrotoxicity among aminoglycosides; probably because it is not concentrated in the renal cortex. Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 94,798
Pharmacology
null
Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the: A. Optic nerve B. Facial nerve C. Auditory nerve D. Trigeminal nerve
Auditory nerve
9a3ac2a9-6d0f-4448-865c-e5bac449c1ec
Ans: A. 25 HzStimulation frequency at which summation of contractions occurs -Determined by twitch duration of the paicular muscle under study.Example:If twitch duration = 10 ms.Frequencies less than 1/10 ms (100/s) - Cause discrete responses interrupted by complete relaxation.Frequencies greater than 100/s cause summation.Tetany:Continuous contraction of muscle fibers, without latent period & relaxation time.Hence tetanizing frequency depends only on contraction time, i.e. twitch duration.Twitch duration = 40 milliseconds = 0.04 secTetanizing frequency = 1/0.04 = 25 Hz
Physiology
null
Considering the latent period of muscle twitch to be 10 ms, contraction time 40 ms and relaxation time 50 ms, what will be the tetanizing frequency for this muscle? A. 25 Hz B. 50 Hz C. 100 Hz D. 75 Hz
25 Hz
7a51e736-c9fd-452f-8d09-127583a42886
Ans. d. Superficial posteriorRef: Grays Anatomy, 4lst ed, pg- 1406-1412 and Last anatomy 12th ed, pg. 142Contents of flexor (posterior) compament:Superficial pa:Gastrocnemius, plantaris and soleus musclesDeep pa:Popliteus, Flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus and Tibialis posterior musclePosterior tibial and peroneal vesselsTibial nerve
Anatomy
null
Compament of leg without neurovascular bundle? A. Anterior B. Lateral C. Deep posterior D. Superficial posterior
Superficial posterior
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Ans.: A. Epigenetics"Epigenetics is defined as changes that alter the pattern of gene expression that persist across at least one cell division but are not caused by changes in the DNA code. Epigenetic changes include alterations of chromatin structure mediated bymethylation of cytoosine residues in CpG dinucleotides, modification of histones by acetylation or methylation, or changesin higher-order chromosome structure- " Harrison"
Pathology
null
V) hich of the following can change the gene expression by methylation and acetylation without affecting the content of the gene? A. Epigenetics B. Translocation C. Inversion D. Transduction
Epigenetics
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Ans: B. Linagliptin(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p1264; Katzung 13/e p740, 12/e p761; FDA website: http://wwwfda.gov/ Safety/ MedWatch/Safetylnformation/ircm3 I 9215.htm)Linagliptin:Given safely in renal failure.Chronic kidney disease:Major complication in type 2 diabetes.Metformin usage is challenging.More severe renal disease - Less likely for metformin use.Due to safety concerns.
Pharmacology
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Which of the following drugs can be given in renal failure safely? A. Saxagliptin B. Linagliptin C. Vildagliptin D. Sitagliptin
Linagliptin
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Tuberous sclerosis : It is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous syndrome. Pathology Characteristics brain, lesion, consists of tubers in the brain. They are typically present in subependyneal region where they undergo calcification producing candle dripping appearance.
Pediatrics
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A triad of seizure, mental retardation and sebaceous adenoma is seen in – A. Congenital syphilis B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Hypothyroidism
Tuberous sclerosis
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Trans-theoretical Model Developed by Prochaska and DiClemente. Based on assumption that behavior change is evolutional in nature and occurs in different stages of change through which individuals can progress. It holds habitual behaviors mainly like smoking, nutritional diet, screening for cancer, alcohol consumption, etc., in a series of steps through a cyclical process.
Dental
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In a village, despite of health education for oral cancer, people don't follow instructions even after referral with persuasive reminders, people are still reluctant. It best fits under which model: A. Trans-theoretical model B. Health belief model C. Social compliance D. Public health model
Trans-theoretical model
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Dorsal interossei: Dorsal interossei are major abductors of index, middle & ring fingers. Most dorsally situated of all intrinsic muscles. Palpated through skin on dorsal aspect of hand. Tendons of dorsal interossei pass dorsal to deep transverse metacarpal ligament. - 1st dorsal interosseous muscle - largest & inses into lateral side of index finger. - 2nd& 3rd interosseous muscle - inse into lateral & medial sides respectively of middle finger. - 4th dorsal interosseous muscle - inses into medial side of ring finger. Thumb & little finger do not have dorsal interossei as they have their own abductors in thenar & hypothenar muscle groups respectively. Dorsal interossei + palmar interossei + lumbricals flex-metacarpophalangeal joint & extend inter - phalangeal joint.
Anatomy
AIIMS 2019
Which of the following finger has two dorsal interossei (AIIMS May 2019) A. Little B. Ring C. Middle D. Index
Middle
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Answer- A (Breast)Breast cancer is the most common tumor to metastasize to the eye followed by lung cancer.Intraocular metastases are the most common malignancy of eye, and the primary cause is breast cancer.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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In a female, intraocular metastasis most commonly occurs from which of the following gynaecological primary? A. Breast B. Ovary C. Cervix D. Endometrium
Breast
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Ans: C. 7 monthsGestational age can be determined fiom maturation of chorionic villi; foot length and ossification centres.Seventh month:Length 35 cm; crown-rump length 23 cm; foot length 8 cm; weight 900 to 1200 g.Nails are thick.Eyelids open and pupillary membrane disappears.Skin is dusky-red, thick and fibrous.Meconium is found in the entire large intestine.Testes are found at external inguinal ring.Gallbladder contains bile and caecum is seen in the right iliac fossa.Ossification centre is present in the talus.
Forensic Medicine
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Calculate the Age of fetus having CRL 23 cm, foot length 7 cm. Talus is present and testes are present at superficial inguinal ring? A. 5 months B. 6 months C. 7 months D. 8 months
7 months
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Ans: A. To adjust maintenance dose of digoxin required to keep the blood levels within therapeutic range(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p33. 37: KDT 7/e p31, 515)Half- life of drug:Determines the maintenance dose of digoxin.Helps maintain therapeutic plasma levels.Maintenance dose also determined by creatinine clearance.Half-life of dioxin:36 to 48 hrs in patients with normal renal function.3.5 to 5 days in anuric patients.In patients with normal renal function, an oral daily maintenance dose without loading dose - steady-state blood concentration in approximately 7 days.Hence daily maintenance dose decided based on half-life ofthe drug.Usual digoxin therapeutic serum concentrations range - 0.8 to 2 ng/mL.(Note: Loading dose governed by volume of distribution).
Pharmacology
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Digoxin is obtained from a plant product and has a half-life of 36 hours. How does this information help us in formulating treatment? A. To adjust maintenance dose of digoxin required to keep the blood levels within therapeutic range B. Intravenous administration in emergency and urgent dosing C. Long half-life permits altemate day dosing D. It requires a high loading dose to be administered
To adjust maintenance dose of digoxin required to keep the blood levels within therapeutic range
48f3a95b-0f17-4c55-a104-7ae269bfcc0d
Epidural Hematoma- Biconvex/lentiform hyperdensity seen Subdural Hematoma - Concavo- convex or crescentic shaped. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage- Shows Hyperdensity in:* Syln fissure* Basal cisterns* Sulcal Spaces
Radiology
AIIMS 2018
What is the most poable diagnosis based on the findings in the CT scan given below? A. Extradural hemorrhage B. Subdural hamorrhage C. Intracerebral hamorrhage D. Subarachnoid hamorrhage
Extradural hemorrhage
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Ans. C. 10-30 daysThe incubation period for LGV (the time interval between sexual contact and the appearance of symptoms) varies on average from 10 to 14 days. At times the incubation period may be as long as up to 6 weeks after sexual contact with an infected paner. Feature SyphilisHerpes ChancroidLGV Donovanosis Incubation period 9-90 days 2-7 days 1-14 days3 days-6weeks 1-4 weeks(up to 6 months)
Microbiology
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The incubation period of LGV is? A. 3-7 days B. 7-10 days C. 10-30 days D. 30-90 days
10-30 days
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Ans: A. 22-26degC(Ref Ghai 8/e p133).Nursery temperature:Ideal temperature in delivery room for neonates in warmer state - 22-26degC (72-78"F).Should be free from drill of air.Ventilation system for each delivery & resuscitation room designed to control ambient temperature between 72-78 degrees Fahrenheit (22-26 degrees Centigrade) during delivery, resuscitation & stabilization of newborn.
Pediatrics
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What should be the ideal temperature in delivery room for the neonates to be kept in warmer? A. 22-26degC B. 28-30degC C. 30-35degC D. 37degC
22-26degC
599273bd-ad8a-4c31-8038-d8d26701bc41
Candidiasis Rx - Topical clotrimazole - Nystatin lozenges Median rhomboid glossitis Appearance - seen in Candidiasis infection
Medicine
AIIMS 2018
What is the best management of the case shown? A. Dapsone plus steroids B. Stop smoking and screen for cancer C. Vitamin supplements D. Antifungals for oral candidiasis
Antifungals for oral candidiasis
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Ans. b. L1 Ref: Grays Anatomy, 4l'' ed., pg. 762-763In the adult, the spinal cord terminates on average at the level of the middle third of the body of the first lumbar veebra which corresponds approximately to the transpyloric plane.Spinal cord extends from C I to L I (lower border) in adults.Filum terminale extends from lower end of spinal cord to the tip of coccyx.Dural sheath extends up to 52 veebrae.Subdural space extends up to 52.Subarachnoid space extends up to 52.Piamater extends up to tip of coccyx.
Anatomy
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Spinal cord ends at what level in adults? A. T12 B. L1 C. L2 D. L3
L1
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Amniotic fluid Acetylcholineesterase level is elevated in open neural tube defect: It has a better diagnostic value than AFP. In case of suspected neural tube defect, on Amniocentesis, if amniotic fluid AFP levels are raised but Acetylcholinesterase levels are normal, patient should be reassured that elevated AFP levels are probably caused by fetal blood contamination but, if acetyl cholinesterase is also elevated along with AFP it is indicative of NTD. It also helps to distinguish between neural tube defect and abdominal wall defects (both of which cause elevated MSAFP): – Acetyl cholinesterase is raised in open NTD, but is low in abdominal wall defects. – In patients with NTD, the ratio of acetylcholinesterase to butyrlcholinesterase levels is 0.14 or more. In case of abdominal wall defects this ratio is less than 0.14.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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Amniotic fluid contains acetyl cholinesterase enzyme. What is the diagnosis ? A. Open spina bifida B. Gastroschisis C. Omphalocele D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Open spina bifida
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Ans. D. Blocking K channels* Potassium channel blocker will cause an increase in ACh release from the presynaptic neuron.* Blockade of presynaptic potassium channels promotes activation of voltage-gated calcium channels leading to the increased release of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction. Aminopyridines used in the treatment of Lambe-Eaton myasthenic syndrome acts by this mechanism and improves the muscle strength in the patients
Pharmacology
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Which of the following cause an increase in ACh release from the presynaptic neuron? A. Blocking calcium channels on presynaptic B. Blocking chloride channel on presynaptic C. Blocking Na channel D. Blocking K channels
Blocking K channels
cfb81145-9c8a-41bf-975a-bd76f75be629
Ans: C. >1500/ mm3(Ref Harrison 19/e p1686, 135e-8, 18/e p481 e-21.5)Eosinophil count for hypereosinophilia syndrome diagnosis = >1.5 x 109/L (>1500/mm).Blood Eosinophilia:Neither secondary or clonal.Cause: Idiopathic.Hypereosinophilic Syndrome (HES):Subcategory of idiopathic eosinophilia with persistent increase of AEC to >1.5 x 109/L (>1500/ mm3).Features:Presence of eosinophil-mediated organ damage -Cardiomyopathy, gastroenteritis, cutaneous lesions, sinusitis, pneumonitis, neuritis & vasculitis.Also thromboembolic complications, hepatosplenomegaly & either cytopenia or cytosis.
Medicine
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Hypereosinophilic syndrome is a disease characterized by elevated eosinophil count in the blood for at least 6 months, without any recognizable cause, with involve-ment of either hea, nervous system or bone marrow. What should be the eosinophil count for diagnosis? A. >500/mm3 B. >1000/ mm3 C. >1500/ mm3 D. >2000/ mm3
>1500/ mm3
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Ans: C. Receiver-operating characteristic curve(Ref http:ilvvwwlexjansen.com/nesteg/ne.sug10/hl/h107.pdf)Receiver-operating characteristic (ROC) curve:Defined as a plot of test sensitivity as they coordinate versus its I-specificity or false positive rate (FPR) as the x coordinate.Graphic presentation of relationship between both sensitivity & specificity.Uses:Effective method for evaluating diagnostic test's performances.Excellent way to compare diagnostic tests.Best for determining threshold for diagnosis of positive test.Helps decide optimal model through determining best threshold for diagnostic test.
Social & Preventive Medicine
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Which of the following is the best for determining the threshold for diagnosis of a positive test? A. Analysis of variance B. Pearson coefficient C. Receiver-operating characteristic curve D. Pre-test probability
Receiver-operating characteristic curve
9a29cd2c-e0d3-4d1e-82a7-32af10b47c9b
Desmosomes help in attaching keratinocytes and are present in Epidermis which rules out Option C & D A is St. basale and B is St. Spinosum. Highest concentration of desmosomes are prominently seen in St. spinosum, So answer is B
Dental
AIIMS 2017
Highest concentration of desmosomes are seen in which location? A. A B. B C. C D. D
B
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Answer- B. Digastric muscle* The radical neck dissection consists of removal of all five lymph node groups of one side of the neck (levels I-V).* This includes removal of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the internal jugular vein, and the spinal accessory nerve.
Surgery
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Which of the following is not removed in radical neck dissection A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Digastric muscle C. Spinal accessory nerve D. Internal jugular vein
Digastric muscle
137a6893-800d-4ef6-a9b9-8e55a19b5476
Answer- A. RedTriphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC) stain impas a brick-red color to intact, non-infarcted myocardium where the dehydrogenase enzymes are preserved.If the infarct preceded death by 2 to 3 hours, it is possible to highlight the area of necrosis by immersion of tissue slices in a solution of triphenyltetrazolium chloride. This gross histochemical stain impas a brick-red color to intact, non-infarcted myocardium where lactate dehydrogenase activily is preserved.
Pathology
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A 68 years old man had severe chest pain. The patient died on the way to the hospital. In the hospital, at autopsy tetrazolium chloride staining of the hea was done. What will be the color of ble myocardium? A. Red B. Blue C. Dark brown D. Pink
Red
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Ans: C. EdaravoneRef href="https://www/">https://www.br ai ntrop ic. c om/noo t rop ics/p i rac etam/Edaravone is a novel neuroprotective agent for the treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
Pharmacology
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Latest drug reccntly approved for Amyotrophic Lateral sclerosis is? A. Piracetam B. Ceftriaxone C. Edaravone D. Doxycycline
Edaravone