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f5f3cd4b-3180-4f0e-b585-d681407b89d0 | Ans: C. 24-26 mm HgStandard error, SE = {standard detion / n)}n = sample sizeC= Confidence coefficient = 1.96 for 95% confidence interval = 2.58 for 99% confidence interval= 3.29 for 99.9% confidence intervalHence in this question, n = 400SD = 10SE = 10/400 = 10/20 = 0.5Mean statistic = 25 mm Hg.Now for 95% confidence interval,C = 2 approximately 95%CI = 25 - 2x0.5 to 25 + 2x0.5 = 24-26 mm HgHence, 95% CI of IOP = 24 to 26 mm Hg. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A study was conducted to find average intra-ocular pressure. IOP was measured in 400 people and the mean was found to be 25 mm Hg with a standard detion of 10 mm Hg. What is the range in which 10P of 95% of the population would be lying?
A. 22-28 mm Hg
B. 20-30 mm Hg
C. 24-26 mm Hg
D. 23-27 mm Hg
| 24-26 mm Hg |
d5f7c86d-3441-4fdd-8618-8510dbead871 | Ans: D. OdorantsIn the mammalian genome, maximum number of genes code for the receptors of odorants."The olfactory receptor (OR) genes constitute the largest gene family in mammalian genomes.Humans have >1,000 OR genes, of which only -40% have an intact coding region and are therefore putatively functional.Odorant receptor genes form the largest gene family in the genome of many animals: for example, the mouse genome contains approximately 1200 of these genes. | Biochemistry | null | In the mammalian genome, maximum number of genes code for the receptors of:
A. Immunoglobulin receptors
B. Interleukins
C. Growth factors
D. Odorants
| Odorants |
b57b3bed-fda6-48e7-9af4-f72d5a4687d9 | Pegloticase - It is recombinant uricase, an enzyme which oxidises uric acid to highly soluble allantoin, that is easily excreted by kidney. Humans lack this enzyme. In this preparation, the enzyme has been coupled with methoxy polyethylene glycol (mPEG) which serves to prolong its sojourn in the body, permitting i.v. infusion of the drug to be given every 2 weeks. It is indicated only in rare cases of refractory symptomatic gout because it is immunogenic and carries high risk of infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | Pegloticase is used in
A. Chronic gout
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Psoriatic ahritis
D. Rheumatoid ahritis
| Chronic gout |
74d6497b-16bd-44f8-bba0-a9a139482e77 | Answer- C. WakefulnessBeta (B) Wave- Parietal and frontal region. Patients awake, at rest with eyes open. | Physiology | null | Wave patterns of EEF, ECG and EMG are depicted below. The B pattern belongs to (Figure was not provided in the exam):
A. NREM sleep
B. REM sleep
C. Wakefulness
D. Quiet wakefulness
| Wakefulness |
16ce8442-864b-43f1-b815-f9096e55fa54 | Development of SinusesSinusGestational Month WhenDevelopment StasPresent in ClinicallySignificant SizeFully DevelopedMaxillary2degBihdeg12 yearsdegEthmoid30Bihdeg12 yearsdegFrontal4deg3 yearsdeg18-20 yearsdegSphenoid3deg8 yearsdeg12-15 yearsdeg | ENT | null | First paranasal sinus to develop at bih is:
A. Maxillary
B. Ethmoidal
C. Frontal
D. Sphenoidal
| Maxillary |
5c1652a1-905f-4be0-8677-4259eb94b2d0 | Ans: A(Ref: Harrison 19/c p193(S)Fecal fat estimation - Gold standard test for diagnosis of malabsorption.Intestinal malabsorption diagnosis:D-xylose test.Tests for xylose absorption in intestinal villi.Distinguishs intestinal from pancreatic malabsorption.Pancreatic malabsorption diagnosis:NBT-PABA & serum amylase. | Medicine | null | Which of the following is the best test for assessment of intestinal malabsorption?
A. Fecal fat estimation
B. Serum lactose levels
C. Serum amylase levels
D. NBT-PABA test
| Fecal fat estimation |
4c74361f-7de5-4a70-9221-c8f5c9554081 | Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is transmitted post solid organ transplantation whereas herpes simplex virus (HSV) is transmitted post solid organ transplantation only within a month. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a glandular disease so transmitted by close contact where as human papilloma virus (HPV) is transmitted through sexual contact since it is a sexually transmitted disease. So first option is a better option. Infection in Children: Primary infections in older children and adults are usually asymptomatic. However, a heterophile, antibody-negative, infectious mononucleosis may been. This is more common following transfusion of CMV-infected blood (post - transfusion mononucleosis). | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Most common infection post solid organ transplantation
A. CMV
B. HSV
C. EBV
D. HPV
| CMV |
b0d97337-7157-40c6-984d-87e24959fa80 | Child Pugh Score' divides the scores into 3 CATEGORIES, hence it is a CATEGORICAL scale. The variables are qualitative and arranged in an order of increasing severity, hence it is an example of ORDINAL scale. Other options: Nominal scale is also a type of categorical scale in which the variables are not arranged in any order. Metric scale is used for quantitative variables. Continuous is a type of variable and not a type of scale. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | Child Pugh score put patients into three categories of Score A (<7), Score B (7-9) and Score C (10-15). The following is a type of which scale?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Quantitative
D. Continuous
| Ordinal |
1f93c541-baaf-40f2-bf91-31be29732da2 | DOC is adrenaline.Route is intramuscular > subcutaneous.Dose: 0.5 ml of 1:1000(1mg/ml solution).This dose is repeated once gain within 10 minutes.If it's still not improving; then intravenous 1:10,000 dose is given. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | Treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock is:
A. Adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000 solution by intramuscular route
B. Adrenaline 1 mL of 1:10000 by intravenous route
C. Atropine 3 mg intravenously
D. Adenosine 12 mg intravenously
| Adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000 solution by intramuscular route |
b3163789-82b3-4054-aabe-3a2b90aa7a98 | Marker (A) shows the Holocrine gland i.e, Sebaceous gland related with hair follicle sending sebum to skin surface. Marker (C) - Hair follicle Marker (D) - Sub cutaneous fat (Adipocytes) - empty looking cells with fat & peripheral nucleus - Usually skin & sebaceous glands have - stratified squamous epithelium | Anatomy | AIIMS 2017 | Which marker shows holocrine gland?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| A |
1cecd58f-d0c8-446a-adf8-d07dd796ec0e | Krasner and Rankow determined that the CEJ is the most important anatomic landmark for determining the location of pulp chambers and root canal orifices. They demonstrated that specific and consistent pulp chamber floor and wall anatomy exist and proposed laws for assisting clinicians to identify canal morphology.
Ref: Grossman endodotic practice 13th ed page no 248 | Dental | null | Landmark for pup chamber opening is :
A. CEJ
B. Cervical third of crown
C. Level of alveolar bone
D. Enamel
| CEJ |
4034587c-3452-4465-9e2e-9b2ad5f643cd | Answer- A. SerotoninThe Bezold-Jarisch reflex involves a variety of cardiovascular and neurological processes which cause hypopnea (excessively shallow breathing or an abnormally low respiratory rate) and bradycardia (abnormally low resting hea rate). Serotonin can elicit Bezold-Jarisch reflex.Bezold-Jarisch reflex responds to noxious ventricular stimuli sensed by chemoreceptors & mechanoreceptors within the LV wall by inducing the triad of hypotension bradycardia & coronary aery dilatation.Stimulation of aerial baroreceptors or ventricular baroreceptors by any of a host of chemicals-veratrum alkaloids, nicotine capsaicin, anti-histamine serotonin snake and insect venoms--can also trigger the Bezold- Jarisch reflex. | Physiology | null | Bezold-Jarisch reflex is mediated by:
A. Serotonin
B. Angiotensin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Histamine
| Serotonin |
ef3c0dca-5a44-4569-ba14-14ed9fd9a5a5 | The method of transpo of glucose in the intestine is Secondary active transpo. Both glucose and Na+enter inside the cell (in same direction) i.e. Sympo. No energy used when glucose and Na+ enters the cell. Energy is used indirectly for glucose transpo Na+/ K+ ATPase pump. Sodium-glucose sympoer carries 2Na+for each glucose SGLT-1- Small intestine and kidneys -for Glucose and Galactose SGLT-2- in kidneys -only for glucose In intestine on luminal surface there is SGLT-1 (secondary active transpo) while on basal surface is GLUT-2 (facultative transpo) | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Method of transpo of glucose in the intestine is:
A. Primary active transpo
B. Secondary active transpo
C. Simple diffusion
D. Counter transpo
| Secondary active transpo |
dabfee93-2e1b-4e6c-bff6-03c025bd986f | Presentation of male patient with lenticonus and end stage renal disease with a family history of renal disease is highly suggestive of Alport syndrome.
AR polycystic kidney is ruled out because the age of presentation in ARPKD is childhood and most of the affected children do not survive beyond their childhood.
AD polycystic kidney is ruled out because there is no association of ADPKD with lenticonus as is mentioned in our question.
–– Alport syndrome is manifest by hematuria with progression to chronic renal failure, accompanied by nerve deafness and various eye disorders, including lens dislocation, posterior cataracts, and corneal dystrophy.
–– In about 85% cases, it is inherited as an X-linked trait. So, males express the full syndrome, and females are carriers in whom manifestations of disease are typically limited to hematuria.
–– Autosomal recessive and autosomal dominant forms also exist in which both the sexes are equally susceptible.
–– In Alport syndrome, Hematuria is the earliest manifestation and the sensorineural deafness is the commonest extra renal abnormality. | Pathology | null | A 28 year old man has lenticonus and end stage renal disease now. His maternal uncle also died of the same illness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
C. Oxalosis
D. Alport syndrome
| Alport syndrome |
df8ae3bc-aef6-48d0-8033-d715cfe36b3d | Answer- B. -PCR for virusDetection of rabies virus RNA by - PCR is highly sensitive and specific. This technique can detect virus infresh saliva samples, skin, CSF, and brain tissues.Detection of rabies virus RNA by -PCR is highly sensitive and specific. This technique can detect virus in fresh saliva samples, skin, CSF, and brain tissues. In addition, -PCR with genetic sequencing can distinguish among rabies virus variants, permitting identification of the probable source of an infection."-Harrison 19/e p1302.Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction testing can be used to amplify pas of a rabies virus genome from fixed or unfixed brain tissue or saliva. Sequencing of amplified products can allow identification of the infecting virus strain. | Microbiology | null | A patient comes after a dog bite with hydrophobia, tearing and altered sensorium. You suspect rabies in this patient. Corneal impression has been taken. What test will you do on it for most accurate diagnosis?
A. Indirect immunofluorescence
B. -PCR for virus
C. Histopathological examination for Negri bodies
D. Antibodies against Rabies virus
| -PCR for virus |
a6cc1419-094c-4675-b250-ba45e4569bd2 | Ans: A. Copper IUCD(Ref Dutta 8/e p615, 7/e p551)Best contraceptive for 32-year old P2L2 lady coming after 5 days after unprotected sexual intercourse - Copper-containing IUCD.Copper IUCD:Inseion within maximum period of 5-7 days after accidental unprotected exposure.Prevents implantation.Unsuitable for women with multiple sex paners & rape victims. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 32-year-old P2L2 lady comes five days after unpro!tected sexual intercourse. What will be your advice for contraception in this lady?
A. Copper IUCD
B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg
C. Two tablets of high dose OCP, repeated after 24 hours
D. Laparoscopic tubectomy
| Copper IUCD |
796e190d-09a8-4eef-98a4-26eecd5b7de7 | Ans: B. District level health survey(Ref Park's 22/e p786)District Level Health Survey - Objectives:Coverage of ante-natal, natal and post-natal checkups and child immunization.Propoion of institutional/safe deliveries.JSY beneficiaries.Contraceptive prevalence rates.Unmet need for contraceptives - Spacing & limiting.Awareness about I/ STI and HIV/AIDS.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India, has included the Clinical, Anthropometric and Biochemical (CAB) component for data collection in the District Level Household Survey (DLHS)-4. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Data about recent trends of immunization in the community can be found by:
A. Sample registration system
B. District level health survey
C. Rural survey
D. Census data
| District level health survey |
b8621196-05ba-414e-a112-0b48be3fcd7c | Ans: C. Thiazide diureticThiazide diuretics :Given in mild to moderate hypeension.Low-dose thiazide diuretics used alone or in combination with other antihypeensive drugs.Safe, efficacious, inexpensive & reduce clinical events. MOA:Inhibits Na/Cl- pump in DCT a Increases sodium excretion.In long term - Acts as vasodilators.Provide additive blood pressure-lowering effects (On combination with beta blockers, ACE-I, ARBs).Drug of Choicein HypeensionConditionDrug of ChoiceHypeensionThiazidesHypeension with BPHPrazosinHypeension with diabetes mellitusACE inhibitorsHypeension with ischemic hea disease (angina)Beta-blockersHypeension with chronic kidney diseaseACE inhibitorsHypeension in pregnancyAlpha-methyldopaHypeensive emergenciesNicardipine + EsmololHypeensive emergencies in cheese reactionPhentolamineHypeensive emergencies in clonidine withdrawalPhentolamineHypeensive emergencies in aoic dissectionNitroprusside + EsmololHypeensive emergencies in pregnancyLabetalol(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1623). | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following diuretic can be given in mild to moderate hypeension?
A. Potassium sparing diuretic
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Thiazide diuretic
D. Loop diuretic
| Thiazide diuretic |
e3840b78-8e45-4c14-83da-2a1ed7178d7e | Chemical preparation of glazed ceramic may be done with 9.6% hydrofluoric acid (HFA) or acidulated phosphate fluoride and then treated with silane coupling agent to increase the bond strength.
Zachrisson recommends the following techniques for bonding to porcelain surfaces:
Isolation is very critical in this technique, not just to prevent contamination with saliva and water, but also to prevent soft tissues contact with HFA.
Barrier gel such as Kool-Dam prevents flowing of etchant onto the gingival tissue.
Deglaze the area slightly larger than bracket base by sandblasting with 50 µm aluminium oxide for 3 s.
Etch porcelain with 9.6% HF acid for 2 min.
Carefully remove gel with cotton roll and then rinse using high volume suction.
Dry with air, apply silane coupling agent and bond bracket conventionally. | Dental | null | Which of the following is used for etching porcelain?
A. 1.23% HF
B. 4% HF
C. 9.6% HF
D. 37% HF
| 9.6% HF |
54f0597f-d43c-4813-b202-935ae07e4e20 | 1. Simple lipid:
TAG (glycerol + 3 FA)
Ceramide ( Sphingosine + FA)
2. Compound lipid:
Phospholipids
Glycolipid / Sphingoglycolipid
Aminolipids
Sulfolipids
Lipoproteins
3. Miscellaneous:
Precursor lipid - Compounds that can give rise to another lipids. Eg: Fatty Acids
Derived lipid - Eg: Bile acids
Precursor derived lipid - Eg: Cholesterol | Biochemistry | null | Ceramide is:
A. Simple lipid
B. Compound lipid
C. Precursor lipid
D. Derived lipid
| Simple lipid |
f6bb3faa-6ccb-4838-a2d9-1ae2f2d63e7d | Ans: A. Chronic atrophic candidiasisChronic erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis appears as a red, raw-looking lesion instead of a white patch seen in all other types.Erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis:Appears as a red, raw-looking lesion.Subtypes of erythematous candidiasis:Denture-related stomatitis, angular stomatitis, median rhomboid glossitis & antibiotic-induced stomatitis.Since they are commonly erythematous/atrophic.Precede pseudomembrane formation,.Left when membrane is removed, or arise de novo.Tongue:Loss of lingual papillae, leaving a smooth area on tongue.Occurs on dorsum of tongue in long-term coicosteroids or antibiotic patient.But occasionally it can occur after only a few days of using a topical antibiotic.This is usually termed 'antibiotic sore mouth/stomatitis' because it is commonly painful as well as red. | Skin | null | Which type of oral candidiasis does not presents with white patch?
A. Chronic atrophic candidiasis
B. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
C. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
D. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
| Chronic atrophic candidiasis |
ccca9015-2ce5-40cf-bed4-187f9428d984 | Given scenario suggests diagnosis of Paget's disease. Image shows- a) Ivory veebra, b) Picture frame veebra Osteoporosis- Cod fish veebra Osteopetrosis- bone within a bone appearance Renal osteodystrophy- Rugger jersey spine | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2019 | A 55 yr old patient presented to the opd with complaint of pain in back. On examination his limbs seemed to be bent with overlying warm and thick skin. Patient also complain of decreased hearing over a few days. On biochemical analysis his serum ALP was raised. X-ray obtained showed the following features. Most probable diagnosis?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Pagets disease
D. Renal osteodystrophy
| Pagets disease |
04adb80a-e020-4328-a871-e403f6d5861f | Hyrax appliance
This type of expander uses the Hyrax (hygienic rapid expansion) screw. It has heavy wires that are adapted, welded and soldered to the palatal aspects of the bands in the permanent molars. It is used for Rapid palatal expansion.
Examples of slow expansion:
Jack screw
Coffin spring
Quad helix appliance
Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar Premkumar | Dental | null | Which of the following appliances is not used for slow maxillary expansion?
A. Jack screw
B. Coffin spring
C. Quad helix appliance
D. Hyrax appliance
| Hyrax appliance |
d321d320-c06f-4d18-9aa2-dae718851dfd | Direct lines from book "warming of NaOCI to 122° F (50' C) leads to increase in collagen dissolution as potential to disinfecting, but it can leads to detrimental corrosion effects on NiTi instruments immersion for 1 hr". | Dental | null | For how long should NiTi files be submerged in NaOCl at 122-degree F to prevent damage to file corrosion
A. 20 mins
B. 45 mins
C. 60 mins
D. 2 hours
| 60 mins |
70be9151-2441-49de-8dd1-3bd6ee597992 | Inadvertent lip biting after inferior alveolar nerve block is most commonly seen in children after extraction.
This self-injury mostly occurs due to dentist fail to mention/provide important instructions to child/ their parents that he/she should not eat anything till effect of anesthesia completely wears off as it leads to unknowing/ Inadvertent lip biting during eating.
Sometimes this also happens if child/parents fail to follow the instructions mentioned by dentist. | Surgery | null | Self injury most likely caused after extraction in children is
A. Inadvertent lip biting after anesthesia
B. Chemical burn
C. Permanent palsy
D. Trismus
| Inadvertent lip biting after anesthesia |
ae0f40e1-2d9f-4d1a-a431-3062793ef007 | The image shown in question is of Ayre's spatula which is used in papsmear Sensitivity of the cervical cytology for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranged from 47% to 62% Errors occurred because of - Poor fixation on the glass slide, leading to air drying - Smear were thick and obscured by vaginal discharge, blood, or mucus. Liquid - based Cytology Liquid samples are processed to provide a uniform, thin layer of cervical cells without debris on a glass slide & this eliminates air drying. The cell sample is collected with an endocervical brush used in combination with a plastic spatula or with a plastic broom. The sample is rinsed in a l containing liquid alcohol-based preservative. Hence 80% to 90% of the cells are retrieved The cells are retrieved from the l by passing the liquid through a filter. Recommendation : 2020 Novaks For women 21 to 29 years Screening with cytology every 3 year From 30 to 65 years Co - testing with conventional cytology and high - risk HPV testing every 5 years Or Cytology alone every 3 years are appropriate alternatives After the age of 65 it is Discontinue screening when 3 negative cytology results or 2 negative co test in the previous 10 years | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 | The following is used in which procedure in gynecology?
A. Pap smear
B. Endometrial Biopsy
C. Cervical Biopsy
D. Vulval Biopsy
| Pap smear |
4e8f5ba7-452a-464f-a328-d8b96eafade6 | Ans: D : 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal salineExplanation:(Ref: Ghai 8Ie p718)In hypovolemic or septicemic shock, replacement of intravascular volume by isotonic fluids is the main stay of treatment.Hence, normal saline resuscitation with 20 ml/kg boluses. | Pediatrics | null | A 5 years old child presented with continuous fever and features of sepsis with a BP of 90/60 mm Hg, Pulse rate 144/min and respiratory rate of 30/min. What is the initial fluid of choice for management?
A. 10 mL/kg of 10% dextrose
B. 10 mL/kg of hydroxyethyl starch
C. 20 mL/kg of 0.45% normal saline
D. 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal saline
| 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal saline |
f204b864-ca16-4d18-9d0c-6c6a9cb3533a | Menkes disease- aka kinky hair disease - Defect in copper binding ATPase - Involves CNS- intellectual disability, seizures - Characterized by sparse hypopigmented kinky hairs. - Trichorrhexis nodosa and pili toi seen Von Gierke disease is glycogen storage disease type I, in which the child has doll like facies, abdominal distension, hepatomegaly and recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia. On investigation, there is hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia and lactic acidosis. Lesch nyhan syndrome- mental retardation, microcephaly, seizures and gout. | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2017 | A child presented with abdominal distension, hepatomegaly, doll like facies and recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Menkes disease
B. Down syndrome
C. Von gierke disease
D. Lesch nyhan syndrome
| Von gierke disease |
b02a0880-4fc7-46d1-83a9-d86a8f1f077c | Ans: D. Corpus luteum(Ref Williams 24/e p169; Ganong 25/e p412, 24/e p414).Estrogen and progesterone in first 2 months of pregnancy - Produced by Corpus luteum.Functions of corpus luteum:Enlarged corpus luteum of pregnancy secretes estrogens, progesterone & relaxin.Progesterone & relaxin -Helps maintain pregnancy.By inhibiting myometrial contractions.Progesterone prevents prostaglandin production by uterus - Stops contractions.Corpus luteum function begins to decline after 8 weeks of pregnancy.Yet persists throughout pregnancy.In humans placenta produces sufficient estrogen & progesterone from maternal & fetal precursor taking over corpus luteum function after 6th week of pregnancy.Ovariectomy before 6th week a Hence cause aboion.Ovariectomy after 6th week doesn't affect pregnancy.Note:hCG secretion decreases after initial marked rise.Estrogen & progesterone secretion increase until just before paurition. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Estrogen and progesterone in the first 2 months pregnancy are produced by:
A. Fetal ovaries
B. Fetal adrenal
C. Placenta
D. Corpus luteum
| Corpus luteum |
9220447e-0ac6-41b7-b22d-07d1340b3641 | Ans. (B) 5An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B.Two events are independent if and only if the OR equals 1: the odds of one event are the same in either the presence or absence of the other event.If the OR is greater than 1, then A and B are associated (correlated) in the sense that, compared to the absence of B, the presence of B raises the odds of A, and symmetrically the presence of A raises the odds of B.Conversely, if the OR is less than 1, then A and B are negatively correlated, and the presence of one event reduces the odds of the other event.Most Impoantly Odds ratio does not demonstrate causality .But we can say that they are positively correlated. Since 5 Factors have odds ratio more than 1 so the answer will be B | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Case control study was done regarding breast cancer & risk factors & odds ratio was obtained. Which of the following are causative factors ?ParameterCaseControlORAge at menarche>12171423291.04Menopause177124081.53OCP use93511051.02Smoking932140.97Family history5135021.10BMI>27.51654930.53Breastfeeding94225140.56Multiparity(2)277833661.05
A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
D. 2
| 5 |
d2f3fa53-c024-4179-bf34-169fd7b99fc9 | It is seen in scleroderma. Limited form of scleroderma known as CREST has anti centromere antibody positive and generalized form has anti topoisomerase positive antibody Anti histone antibodies are positive in drug induced lupus Anti SS-A (RO) antibodies and anti SS-B(LA) antibodies are positive in Sjogren's Syndrome Most specific antibody in SLE is anti nuclear antibody and most specific antibody is anti ds-DNA and Anti smith antibody Presence of anti P antibody is associated with development if psychosis /CNS manifestation in SLE patients Presence of anti RO antibody is associated with development of cutaneous lupus and congenital hea block Presence of b2 glycoprotein is associated with development of Antiphospholipid antibody | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | Anti-centromere antibodies seen in which of the followings conditions:
A. Drug induced lupus
B. SLE
C. Sjogren syndrome
D. Scleroderma
| Scleroderma |
64fefa75-a0d1-45da-a81b-961ed7565c9c | BV is a maldistribution of normal vaginal flora Lactobacilli are decreased, and Anaerobic bacteria species are overrepresented. Anaerobes include Gardnerella, Prevotella, Mobiluncus, and Bacteroides species; Atopobium vaginae; BV-associated bacteria, provisionally named BVAB1, BVAB2, and BVAB3. Pregnancy -DOC - Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily orally for 7 days; 0.75-percent gel, intra-vaginally, daily for 5 days Clindamycin 2% One applicator intra-vaginally nightly for 7 days. 300 mg orally twice daily for 7 days 100-mg clindamycin ovules Vaginally nightly for 3 days | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 | What is the drug of choice of Bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy
A. Metronidazole
B. Clindamycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Rovamycin
| Metronidazole |
662c0f6c-a3d9-48a4-b21a-0cc20ef76b87 | Answer-A- HistidineMaximum buffering capacity occurs at a pH equal to the pKa, So amino acid which has pKa range near physiologic pH can act as an effective buffer * lmidazole group of histidine - 6.5- 7.4 pKa range * SH group of cysteine- 8.5-9.0 pKa range * OH group of tyrosine - 9.5-10.5 pKa range* Arginine - > 12 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is having Maximum buffering capacity
A. Histidine
B. Cysteine
C. Tyrosine
D. Arginine
| Histidine |
4032c899-2223-435f-a007-c513fd59a065 | Important clues provided in question are -
Increased total bilirubin
I So, T unconjugated bilirubin
Normal conjugated bilirubin
Amongst the given options, only hemolytic jaundice causes increased unconjugated bilirubin.
Remaining three cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. | Pediatrics | null | A child has bilirubin of 4 mg. Conjugated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase are normal, bile salts and bile in urine are absent. However urobilinogen in urine is raised. What is the likely diagnosis –
A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Rotor's syndrome
C. Biliary cholestasis
D. Hemolytic jaundice
| Hemolytic jaundice |
8b91d707-6038-40de-8833-d865318f791e | Sickle-cell anemia Due to a single base alteration Point mutation Glutamate at the 6th position of b-chain of haemoglobin is replaced by Valine. UCA (serine) UCU (Serine) CCA (Proline) UAA (Stop codon) Silent mutation Mis-sense mutation Non sense Mutation | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 | Mutation seen in sickle cell anemia:
A. Point
B. Inseion
C. Deletion
D. Frame shift
| Point |
653d9209-e3ec-4f56-bb30-6e9f74c210df | Isolation period of measles is Onset of prodromal phase until 3rd day of rash. Maximum communicability occurs from onset of prodrome through the first 3-4 days of rash.Prodromal phase-stage last for 4 days(from 10th to 14th day of infection) characterized by Fever, Koplik spots , coryza, nasal discharge, redness .Incubation period of measles is 10 daysEruptive phase- Maculopapular rash appear after 4 days of fever (14day after infection) | Microbiology | AIIMS 2018 | Isolation period of measles:-
A. Onset of prodromal stage until 7th day of rash
B. Eruptive stage until 2 days of rash
C. Onset of prodromal phase until 3rd day of rash
D. Eruptive stage until 7th day of rash
| Onset of prodromal phase until 3rd day of rash |
45c32d6f-deb0-456a-91e8-9d264d471c0a | Answer- B. Kawasaki diseaseThe most likely diagnosis is Kawasaki disease. | Pediatrics | null | A 6-year old girl presents with fever tor the past 5 days, generalized erythematous rash, strawberry tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is: (Asked twice)
A. Kimura disease
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Scarlet fever
D. Rosie-Dorfman syndrome
| Kawasaki disease |
ae4e70ec-f2cc-4afa-b122-cdb5a4eede13 | Now friends - here in the question it is asked specifically that hematuria is seen in a patient with previous LSCS during
labour - which indicates impending rupture of scar.
"There are no reliable signs of impending uterine rupture that occurs before labor, although the sudden appearance of gross hematuria is suggestive.”
COGDT 10/e, p 340
Here in this questions obstructed labor is not given in the options, but even if it was given, I would have still opted for impending scar rupture as the question is specifically asking, in a case of previous LSCS. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Hematuria during labour in previous LSCS is sign
A. Impending rupture of scar
B. Urethral trauma
C. Prolong labour
D. Sepsis
| Impending rupture of scar |
2ab8b27b-1646-4886-8378-f2f11f84a79e | Ans: C. HF(Ref Reddy 34/e p493, 33/e p530; Principles of Clinical Toxicology 3/e p220; Forensic Pathology 3/ep241, 110).HF does not show coagulation necrosis on contact.Hydrofluoric acid causes liquefaction necrosis. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which acid does not show coagulation necrosis on contact?
A. HC1
B. H,SO4
C. HF
D. HNO3
| HF |
9700977a-4009-4233-8fab-fe55e727be6b | Answer- A. Heterophile antibody testEpstein-Bat virus (EBV) infection includes specific antibodies to EBV and various unrelated non-EBV heterophile antibodies. These heterophile antibodies reuct to antigens from animal RBCs. Sheep RBCs agglutinate in the presence of heterophile antibodies and are the basis for the Paul-Butrnell test. | Microbiology | null | A 22 years old male presented with history of fever, sore throat and enlarged neck lymph nodes. He was ordered a Paul-Bunnell test with a suspicion of Infectious mononucleosis. What is the immunological basis behind the use of this test?
A. Heterophile antibody test
B. Complement mediated agglutination reaction
C. Homophile antibody test
D. Latex agglutination test
| Heterophile antibody test |
59ecbb71-66e3-4d3c-b963-b9ef607449e0 | Histologic features of lichen planus include:
Saw, tooth appearance of retepegs
Liquefaction degeneration of basal layer which is replaced by thin band of eosinophilic coagulum
Presence of civatte bodies
Characteristic band Like subepithelial mononuclear infiltrate consisting of T- lymphocytes and histiocytes sharply limited to papillary and most superficial portion of the reticular layers of connective tissue
Hyperparakeratosis or hyperorthokeratosis
Thickening of granular layer | Pathology | null | Histopathologic study of lichen planus shows:
A. Mixed cellular inflammatory infiltrate
B. Presence of T-Lymphocytes predominantly
C. Antiepithelial antibodies
D. Scattered infiltrate with ill-defined lower border
| Presence of T-Lymphocytes predominantly |
86155521-ea6f-485e-b258-14c51d44578e | Ans. 45XOTurner's syndrome is a genetic disease with a karyotype of 45, X or 46, XX/45, X (mosaicism) or other structural abnormalities of X chromosomes.With conventional chromosomal studies, about 50% of Turner syndrome patients show a 45,X pattern.* Mosaicism of 45,X with other cell lines such as 46,XX, 46,XY, or 47,XXX are common.* Structural abnormalities of an X chromosome (deletions, rings, or translocations), either isolated or mosaic with a 45,X or 46,XX cell line, are also seen.* With modern cytogenetic techniques, mosaicism is increasingly being detected.* The sho stature in Turner syndrome appears to be caused by the absence of one copy of the SHOX gene, which is located on the sho arm of the X chromosome. | Forensic Medicine | null | A 19-year-old woman presented with primary amenorrhea, sho stature, webbed neck and widely spaced nipples. Examination showed weak pulses in lower extremity and streak ovaries, raised FSH, no oocyte in histology of ovary. Karyotype most likely to be present:KCET 12; JIPMER 12; AIIMS 13; PGI 13
A. 45XO
B. 47XXY
C. 46XY
D. 46XX
| 45XO |
a7a74ef5-0ff4-474c-b160-bd1c4fa24434 | Most Powerful technique of screening of inborn error of metabolism is Tandem Mass Spectrometer. *TM Spectrometer combines two mass spectrometers. The first one is used to select a single (precursor) mass, which is characteristic of given analyte in the mixture. These selected ions are collided with neutral gas for activation. The second Mass Spectrometer is used to separate the fragment ions according to mass resulting in "MS/MS" or MS2 spectrum. Advantage is that large number of samples can be dealt with in a sho time.. *HPLC is used as a confirmatory test of the primary test by TMS. HPLC has limited capacity, so not a good screening method. * An alternative good screening method is Microfluorometry (MFL). | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Best investigation for metabolic disorders is?
A. Western blot
B. Tandem mass spectrometry
C. PCR
D. Gel electrophoresis
| Tandem mass spectrometry |
00aa1776-c20f-40c5-9412-11932a24f9bf | Strain—Change in dimension per unit initial dimension. For tensile and compressive strain, a change in length is measured relative to the initial reference length.
Strain, or the change in length per unit length, is the relative deformation of an object subjected to a stress. Strain may be either elastic, plastic, elastic and plastic, or viscoelastic. Elastic strain is reversible. The object fully recovers its original shape when the force is removed.
Phillips dental materials 12th edition page no 48, 51 | Dental | null | Strain is defined as:
A. An applied load or force
B. A deformation resulting from an applied load
C. An external force opposing an applied load
D. An internal force opposing an applied Load
| A deformation resulting from an applied load |
769fac02-71ac-4554-bade-5d6a9a5edfb4 | The phosphoric acid in the liquid makes the mixture quite acidic and therefore cytotoxic, when a prosthesis is luted with this cement on a prepared tooth. As setting occurs, the acidity is partially neutralized, but the cement remains acidic after 24 hours, with the pH rising from about 3 to about 6. For thin layers of dentin, a cavity liner (i.e.,Ca2) is recommended to prevent an adverse pulpal response from the pressure of luting, which forces acid into the pulp tissue. Younger patients are especially susceptible, because they have a more open dentin tubule area, whereas older patients with sclerotic dentin will have a more tortuous path that restricts the penetration of acid toward the pulp.
Key concept :
pH of the cement
The acidity is high at the time of insertion due to phosphoric acid. At the time of cementation, the pH is 2 (approx.). As time passes, the acidity reduces. By the end of 24 hours, the pH is 5.5, which is still in the acidic range (neutral value is 7).
Pulpal response: The pulp response may be classified as moderate. | Dental | null | Which cement is irritating to the pulp?
A. Carboxylate cement
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
C. Zinc phosphate
D. Ethoxybenzoic acid
| Zinc phosphate |
714eb700-67f2-4ce9-ab0d-ffdf8660ac08 | Major Classes of Lipoproteins:
Based on ultracentrifugation, in the ascending order of density is
Chylomicrons (Least density)
Very Low Density Lipoproteins (VLDL)
Low Density Lipoproteins (LDL)
Caps-Intermediate density Lipoproteins (IDL)
High Density Lipoproteins (HDL) | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following has least density?
A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Chylomicrons
| Chylomicrons |
7060bcf3-fde4-41e3-ad46-260857a92b46 | Muscle marked - temporalis Elevators of mandible: MTM Masseter Elevation, protraction Temporalis Elevation retraction Medial pterygoid Elevation, protraction Depressors of mandible Lateral pterygoid Depression, protraction Mylohyoid Depression Ant. belly of digastric Depression Muscle of mastication develop from 1st pharyngeal arch Nerve - mandibular branch of trigeminal. | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 | Action of the muscle marked (with arrow) on mandible is
A. Elevation
B. Depression
C. Retraction
D. Protraction
| Elevation |
399563b2-ad18-41a9-82bc-3d49e1642fd9 | Ans: C. NAORef: Harper 30Ie p132)Cyanide blocks citric acid cycle by blocking NAD+ | Biochemistry | null | A child to emergency with accidental ingestion of cyanide. It blocks citric acid cycle by blocking:
A. Aconitase
B. Acetyl-CoA production
C. NAO
D. Citrate
| NAO |
c68dea51-2e4e-4276-89b2-30b2337be400 | Problem ownership:
Negative messages like 'You must sit still'; undermine the rapport between child and dentist. "You" messages carry the implication that the child is wrong.
Instead "I" messages increase the flow of information. Eg: I cannot fix your teeth if you do not open your mouth wide. This is called problem ownership. | Dental | null | When a dentist says that " I cannot fix your teeth if you do not open your mouth wide:" He is employing:
A. Problem ownership.
B. Voice control
C. Tolerance.
D. Flexibility.
| Problem ownership. |
78b95ab4-b15f-4942-b618-8b36e946a5d0 | Ans: C: Cauda equine syndromeRef: Apley!c system of ohopaedics and fracture 9" ed., pg. 246,480Cauda equina is tuft of fibres which begins at the end of spinal cord.Compression over this pa may cause cauda equina syndrome.Causes of Cauda equina syndrome are:Lumbar disc herniation, Spinal canal stenosis, Trauma, Abscess etc. | Surgery | null | A 55-year-old male presents with severe backache for 10 days and urinary incontinence with a H/o Interveebral lumbar disc prolapse. There is no H/o fever or weight loss. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Potts spine
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Cauda equine syndrome
D. Bone metastasis
| Cauda equine syndrome |
75394ad7-5dde-4b6b-8cec-7365972b5dd6 | TYPES OF PIT AND FISSURE SEALANTS
1. Based on curing method:
First generation:
Polymerized with ultraviolet light of 350 nm wavelength.
Absorbs UV light excessively and prevents complete polymerization of the sealant.
Light intensity varies from lamp to lamp.
Second generation:
Self-cured or chemically cured.
Most of them were unfilled.
Can be transparent, opaque or tinted.
Filled show increased wear and abrasion resistance than unfilled.
Third generation - Visible light cured of 480-490 nm wavelength.
Fourth generation - With addition of fluoride for added benefit.
Soben Peter
5th edition
Page no. 440 | Dental | null | Fluoride pit and fissure sealants belong to which
generation?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
| IV |
cafc0a38-bb29-4271-a180-95433a85392c | Ans. A. 5HT4 agonist* Prucalopride is a drug acting as a selective, high affinity 5-HT4 receptor agonist which targets the impaired motility associated with chronic constipation, thus normalizing bowel movements.* Approved for use in Europe in 2009.* Prucalopride, a first in class dihydro-benzofuran-carboxamide, is a selective, high affinity serotonin (5-HT4) receptor agonist with enterokinetic activities.* Prucalopride alters colonic motility patterns serotonin 5-HT4 receptor stimulation: it stimulates colonic mass movements, which provide the main propulsive force for defecation.* The observed effects are exeed highly selective action on 5-HT4 receptor.* Prucalopride has >150-fold higher affinity for 5-HT4 receptors than for other receptors. | Pharmacology | null | Prucalopride drug is ?
A. 5HT4 agonist
B. 5HT2b agonist
C. 5HT2b antagonist
D. 5HT2a agonist
| 5HT4 agonist |
f6c37d84-4658-45dd-b75d-741f6f1bcff2 | Ans: D. Tension in the muscle(Ref.: Ganong 25/e p232; Guyton 13/e p697, 701).Golgi tendon organ senses muscle tension."The Golgi organ (also called Golgi tendon organ, GTO, tendon organ, neurotendinous organ or neurotendinous spindle) senses changes in muscle tension.It is a proprioceptive sensory receptor organ that is at the origins and inseion of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle. It provides the sensory component of the Golgi tendon reflex. | Physiology | null | During voluntary movements, Golgi tendon organ has an impoant role to play because it continuously relays to the efferent neurons:
A. Length of the muscle at rest
B. Change in angle of joint during motion
C. Change in length of muscle before and after the movement
D. Tension in the muscle
| Tension in the muscle |
3fb75e9e-82c7-424f-b7ff-60e5ddaa24b5 | Answer- B. Combined with nitrous oxideInduction of inhalational agent is faster, if it is combined with nitrous oxide.'The blood:gas paition coelficient is the mainfactor that determines the rate of induction and recovery of an inhalationanaesthesic, and the lower the blood: gas paition coefficient, the faster is induction and recovery.The second gos effect usually refers to nitrous oxide combined with an inhalation agent. Because nitrous oxide is notsoluble in blood, its rapid absorption from alveoli causes an abrupt rise in the alveolar concentration of the otherinhalation anesthetic leading to faster induction. | Anaesthesia | null | Induction of inhalational agent is faster.
A. Agent with high blood gas solubility
B. Combined with nitrous oxide
C. Person with increased residual volume
D. Right to left shunt
| Combined with nitrous oxide |
20445700-6fe0-4e44-b27c-561d580c5ea9 | Ans: B. Its components can be increased or decreased in the body as needed(Ref:Harper 30/e p11; Gaizung 25/e p6).HCO/H2CO3:Best buffer.As components can be increased or decreased in body as needed.Bicarbonate buffer system:Most powerful extracellular buffer in body.Since both elements of buffer system (HCO 3- & CO).Regulated respectively by kidneys & lungs.pH of extracellular fluid precisely controlled by HCO removal & addition by kidneys & CO 2 removal by lungs. | Biochemistry | null | HCO3/H2CO3 is the best buffer because it is:
A. pKa near physiological pH
B. Its components can be increased or decreased in the body as needed
C. Good acceptor and donor of H+ ions
D. Combination of a weak acid and weak base
| Its components can be increased or decreased in the body as needed |
6bd02755-f813-46d8-87ff-e40297a2a949 | Ans. D. DHEADHEA is an endogenous steroid hormone. This means it is naturally made by the body, and it spurs specific tissues or cells into action.It is also known as androstenolone, 3b-hydroxyandrost-5-en-17-one and 5-androsten-3b-ol-17-one.DHEA is one of the most abundant steroid hormones in the human body. It is produced by the adrenal glands, the gonads, and the brain.It is normally found in the form of dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS).The body holds DHEAS in reserve and conves it to specific hormones when needed.It is impoant for creating estrogen and androgen sex hormones and contributes to the development of so-called androgenic effects, or masculinization.These changes include the production of oilier skin, changes in body odor, and the growth of armpit and pubic hair. | Physiology | null | In female adrenal gland secretes which hormone?
A. Progesterone
B. Testosterone
C. Estrogen
D. DHEA
| DHEA |
eb01af3c-48a4-484b-a376-1074eb7450e2 | Ans: A. Cardiac rhythm generationHyperpolarizing Cycling Nucleotide (HCN) gated channels:Present in SA & AV nodes.Channel opens in hyperpolarization phase.Essential for generating pacemaker potential in SA Node (cardiac rhythm generation).HCN-Nervous systemHCN-Cardiovascular systemControls neuronal excitability, synaptic transmission & rhythmic oscillatory activity in individual neurons & neuronal networks.Play an impoant role in synaptic plasticity & memory, thalamocoical rhythms & somatic sensation.Some evidence indicates they also play a role in mechanisms of epilepsy & pain.HCN4 is the main isoform expressed in the SA node, but low levels of HCN1 & HCN2 are also seen.Current through HCN channels, called "funny current or pacemaker current", plays a key role in generation & modulation of cardiac rhythmicity. | Physiology | null | Which of the following is the function of Hyperpolarizing Cyclic Nucleotide (HCN) gated channels?
A. Cardiac rhythm generation
B. Generation of mitochondrial action potential
C. Myocardial muscle contraction
D. Memory formation
| Cardiac rhythm generation |
62b9add2-a5e9-451f-92c2-2eee629ee143 | A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in central incisor one month ago. On examination, a necrotic pulp was seen with no other pathological findings. The treatment of choice is endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE. | Dental | null | A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in central incisor one month ago. On examination, a necrotic pulp was seen with no other pathological findings. The treatment of choice is:
A. Watchful observation
B. Extraction followed by space maintainer
C. Pulpectomy and root canal filling with gutta percha
D. Endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE
| Endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE |
238019d8-3c6b-486e-9d00-fda1273d22e7 | Ans: D. OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-BRef: ip. o rg/file s/I A P-imm unizution-sc he du le- 2 0 I 6- I P- 2 0 I 6-E p u b. p df* The latest schedule of immunization under NIS is as follows:* vNational Immunization Schedule (NIS) for Infants, children and Presnant women - - OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B | Pediatrics | null | An un-immunized 13 months old child comes to you in OPD, according to the latest immunizations schedule, what vaccines will you advise??
A. OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and I measles
B. BCG, OPV 3 doses, 3 lPV, 3 Pentavalent and I measles
C. OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and 2 measles
D. OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B
| OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B |
05f7f85c-a5f7-438b-a8b4-afd025228b21 | Fibronectin is a glycoprotein that binds amnion and chorion to the decidua of uterus. Normally present in the cervicovaginal secretions before 22 weeks and after 37 weeks of pregnancy. Presence of Fibronectin (>50ng/ml) in between these weeks is suggestive of preterm labor. When the test is negative it reassures that delivery will not occur within next 7 days. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2018 | A 32 weeks pregnant female presented with labor pains and minimal vaginal discharge, on analysis of the cervicovaginal discharge showed presence of fetal fibronectin. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. Preterm labour
B. IUGR
C. IUD
D. Cervical infection
| Preterm labour |
086cd30e-0ed9-4b7b-9346-38529b1445b8 | Answer- A. 4 cmPaograph recording is usually staed after a cervical dilation of 3 cm (not the 4 cm), i.e. the active stage of labor As 3 cm is not given in the option, we have to choose 4 cm. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A midwife at a PI-IC is monitoring pregnancy and maintaining the paograph of pregnancy progression. At how much cervical dilation should the paograph plotting be staed?
A. 4 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 8 cm
| 4 cm |
05863ba7-3f7b-48eb-a74b-7cd2598065b4 | Geniculate neuralgia (Nervus intermedius neuralgia) results from herpes zoster infection of geniculate ganglion and nervus intermedius branch of seventh cranial nerve. | Pathology | null | Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve
A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. II
| VII |
d7f6905a-377d-4fa0-a5a5-d7f5c8d8ac4f | * Arachnoiditis is chronic inflammation of meninges and can occur after intrathecal injection of contrast agent, infections, drugs leading to nerve root getting adhered into peripheral meninges giving the appearance of EMPTY THECAL SAC sign on T2 weighted MRI * Tethered Cord Syndrome is when the spinal cord extends below the elbow level due to lipoma of Filum terminal or post op scarring/ adhesions that prevent spinal cord from ascending upward and it remains below L2 level. | Radiology | AIIMS 2018 | Empty Thecal sac sign in:
A. Arachnoiditis
B. Tethered Cord syndrome
C. Veebral osteomyelitis
D. Discitis
| Arachnoiditis |
7ce281ed-c512-4456-a9f7-87b7620d628d | Heart disease during pregnancy, in itself is not an indication for cesarean section.
Cesarean section in heart disease is done in specific cases.
“In coarctation of aorta, elective cesarean section is indicated to prevent rupture of the aorta or mycotic cerebral aneurysm.”
Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 278 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | An absolute indication for LSCS in case of a Heart disease is:
A. Co-arctation of Aorta
B. Eisenmenger syndrome
C. Ebsteins anomaly
D. Pulmonary stenosis
| Co-arctation of Aorta |
71803632-1b88-4332-88f5-be3ac2515b85 | Answer- B. CRYGS-3'Gene-S crystalline gene (CRYGS) mutalion causes dominant progressive coical cataract in humans. | Ophthalmology | null | Gene commonly indicated in congenital cataract:
A. PAX-6
B. CRYGS-3
C. LMX- IB
D. PITX-3
| CRYGS-3 |
3b184f01-db13-4379-ab0b-7709853e0326 | 50% direct bilirubin means conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Normally the direct (conjugated) bilirubin is less than 15-20% of total bilirubin.
Normal Values of bilirubin
Total bilirubin > 0.2 - 1.9 mg/d1.
Direct bilirubin > 0 - 0.3 mg/dl.
So, this child has : -
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Other LFTs normal
Amongst the given options, Rotor syndrome and Primary biliary cirrhosis cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
In Primary biliary cirrhosis, other LFTs are also abnormal, e.g., SGOT and SGPT are raised. Now we are left with Rotor syndrome which causes conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Other LFTs are normal. | Pediatrics | null | A case of jaundice with 50% direct bilirubin, other LFTs normal. Diagnosis is –
A. Rotor syndrome
B. Gilbert syndrome
C. Glucuronyl transferase deficiency
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
| Rotor syndrome |
35e5b5ae-82da-4f68-a011-91818a64c684 | Endothelial cells contain intracellular stores known as WeibelPallad bodies which contain Von-willebrand factor and P-selectin. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Von Willebrand factor is secreted by which of the following?
A. Macrophages
B. Endothelial cells
C. Platelets
D. Fibroblast
| Endothelial cells |
b934e553-46ba-4692-a9cc-cc1ae26e7d4f | Ans: B. 8 drops/minA dosing of 10 mgm/kg/min of drug is requiredWeight = 80 kgTotal dose required = 10x80 = 800 mgm/min = 0.8 mg/minNow two 5 mL ls each containing 200 mg is diluted to a 250 mL solution.i.e. 400 mg is mixed in 250 mLConcentration of solution: 1 mL = 400/250 = 1.6 mg/mLNow, 1 mL 16 drops = 1.6 mg i.e. 16 drops contain 1.6 mgHence, 0.8 mg/min = 8 drops/min = 0.5 mL/min | Medicine | null | An 80 kg male patient presented to the emergency with hypotension and you have been instructed to sta him on an inotrope at a dose of 10 mcg/kg/min. Each 5 mL amp of the drug contains 200 mg drug. You choose 2 ampules of the drug and decide to mix it with saline to make a 250 mL solution. What should be the flow rate of the drug solution to maintain the BP of the patient (assuming 16 drops = 1 mL)?
A. 4 drops/min
B. 8 drops/min
C. 10 drops/min
D. 16 drops/min
| 8 drops/min |
f9739409-2790-47a9-80b7-98c70f0bcc16 | This 2 years child has following problems.
Hand wringing movements.
Impaired language and communication development.
Breath holding spells
Poor social skills
Decleration of hand growth after 6 months.
Now see the clinical features of Rett syndrome.
a. Age of onset is around 5 months.
Development may proceed normally until 1 yr of age, when regression of language and motor milestones become apparent.
a. Acquired microcephaly (Decleration of head growth due to significantly reduced brain weight).
* Most children develop peculiar sighing respirations with intermittent periods of apnea that may be associated with cyanosis --> Breath holding spells.
The hallmark of Rett syndrome is repetitive hand wringing movements and a loss ofpurposeful and spontaneous use of the hands.
Autistic behavior is a typical finding in all patients.
Generalized tonic-clonic convulsions occur in the majority.
Feeding disorder and poor weight gain are common.
Death occurs in adolescence or in the 3rd decade.
Cardiac arrhythmias may result in sudden, unexpected death.
Clinical features given in question prefectly match with Rett syndrome
Asperger syndrome
Qualitative impairment in the development of reciprocal social interaction.
More common in males
Normal intelligence.
Eccentric interests.
No language impairments that characterize autism.
Children with Asperger syndrome appear to be at high risk for other psychiatric disorder | Pediatrics | null | A two year old girl child is brought to the out patient with features of hand wringing stereotype movements, impaired language and communication development, breath holding spells, poor social skills and deceleration of head growth after 6 months of age. The most likely diagnosis is –
A. Asperger's syndrome
B. Rett's syndrome
C. Fragile x–syndrome
D. Colarad syndrome
| Rett's syndrome |
541cbd4f-c0d8-43b8-bebe-9fabaa9023cd | DEAN'S FLUOROSIS INDEX
It was introduced by Trendley H. Dean in 1934. It is also known as 'Dean's Classification System For Dental Fluorosis'.
The criteria for Dean's fluorosis index was based on a 7-point ordinal scale: normal, questionable, very mild, mild, moderate, moderately severe, and severe.
Dean's Fluorosis Index – Modified Criteria (1942)
6 points – Normal, questionable, very mild, mild, moderate, severe.
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
5th edition
Soben Peter | Dental | null | How many scores are used in modified Dean's fluorosis index?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 5
| 6 |
a1bea2c7-217e-4240-a208-541618437eec | Beta 3 glucan assay is used to detect the presence of beta 3 glucan in the fungal cell wall. It is used for Invasive candidiasis, Aspergillosis, Pneumocystis cranii but not for Mucormycosis. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Beta 3 glucan assay testing not done for
A. Invasive candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Pneumocystis carnii
D. Mucormycosis
| Mucormycosis |
b192b045-d178-4bbf-8796-3c26dae548f3 | Ans: B. Cidofovir(Ref Dhingra 74, p346, 6/c, p305).Cidofovir:Topical treatment for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (Incomplete in stopping tumor growth).Mostly injected to control frequency of tumor growth. | ENT | null | Topical treatment for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis includes:
A. Acyclovir
B. Cidofovir
C. Ranitidine
D. Zinc
| Cidofovir |
c3b4d610-571b-4e86-be27-d41b8b2efc65 | LOADING DOSE = Vd * target plasma concentration MAINTENANCE DOSE = Clearance * target plasma concentration | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Major determinant of loading dose of a drug is
A. Half life
B. Clearance
C. Volume of distribution
D. Bioavailability
| Volume of distribution |
10b14133-7f8a-43dd-ab66-b0cfd0c784c2 | Ans. d. Nodular calcified (Ref Robbins 9/e1)395, SA, 1)392-393)Surrounding edema is seen in the colloidal vesicular and granular nodular stages.StageCyst wallScolexCommentVesicularNon-enhancingWall defined membraneOnly one ble scolexEccentric hyperdense hole-with-dot" appearanceSuggestive of ble larvaColloidalRing Enhancing with perilesional edemaDegenerating scolexFluid becomes more turbidEarliest stage in the cyst involution - larval degenerationGranularFocal nodular enhancing necrotic lesions with perilesional edemaDegenerating scolexEosinophilic structure Bladder and scolex are in various stages of disintegationCalcifiedSmall hyperdense nodules without perilesional edema | Pathology | null | In which stage of neurocysticercosis, there is no edema?
A. Vesicular
B. Vesicular colloidal
C. Granular nodular
D. Nodular calcified
| Nodular calcified |
f3f3ad74-951f-4907-913d-f5c6c6c2dd2a | TRIPLE TEST b Hcg || a feto protein || Estriol || QUADRAPLE TEST BHcg || A feto protein || Estriol || Inhibin A || | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following is not a pa of the quadruple test for antenatal detection of Down syndrome?
A. AFP
B. Estriol
C. Beta HCG
D. Inhibin B
| Inhibin B |
3d3896ce-b736-4e9a-bb7e-cb4608cdd29a | Ans: D. Dengue hemorrhagic feverAntiborly-dependent enhancement is implicated in the immunopathogenesis of Dengue hemorrhagic fever. | Microbiology | null | Antibody-dependent enhancement is implicated in the immunopathogenesis of which disease?
A. Influenza
B. Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome
C. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
D. Dengue hemorrhagic fever
| Dengue hemorrhagic fever |
5900458a-b839-47eb-a745-b93e35ba2d40 | Posterior or Suboccipital cervical lymphadenopathy is caused by Roseola, Rubella, Scalp infections.
The lymphatic drainage of posterior scalp is to the occipital region.
Posterior or Suboccipital cervical lymphadenopathy without obvious disease or secondary infection is characteristic of lice.
Secondary pyodenna due to scratching may result in matting together of the hair and cervical and occipital lymphadenopathy. | Pediatrics | null | Most common cause of postauricular lymphadenopathy in children :
A. Sore throat
B. Pediculosis capitis
C. Pulmonary Koch's
D. Chronic suppurative otitis media
| Pediculosis capitis |
a629e297-c858-4665-8991-b4c49606bf38 | We can never place a foreign object(implant mini plates or reconstruction plates) at infection site. | Surgery | null | Infected mandibular angle fracture is treated by?
A. Mini plates
B. Reconstruction plates
C. Champy plate at upper border
D. IMF + ID
| IMF + ID |
e1cf9f3f-2fd8-40e3-96c3-1a6ecb016b22 | Ans. A. ADH* Because, arginine vasopressin (AVP) also known as antidiuretic hormone, cannot reduce water loss below a ceain minimum level obligated by urinary solute load and evaporation from skin and lungs, a mechanism for ensuring adequate intake is essential for preventing dehydration.* This vital function is performed by the thirst mechanism.* Like AVP, thirst is regulated primarily by an osmostat that is situated in the anteromedial hypothalamus and is able to detect very small changes in the plasma concentration of sodium and ceain other effective solutes. | Physiology | null | The following enzyme is responsible for thirst mechanism during dehydration?
A. ADH
B. Noradrenaline
C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine
| ADH |
da143133-e8d3-44d6-a66d-607ed0bcf458 | SDP-Single Donor Platelet are preffered. -In this process whole bloodis drawn from one arm into a sterile kit inside a cell separating machine. -The machine separates the bloodso that onlyplateletsand plasma are collected. -The other bloodcomponents (red cells and white cells) are returned to thedonor the same arm. -Because we want the blood to flow in the proper way, so we will do addition of anti-coagulant solution like citrate based anti-coagulant. -This anti-coagulant solution will not only prevent clot formation but will also cause decrease in the concentration of ionized Ca2+ - causing transient hypocalcemia which will lead to Perioral tingling and numbness. To prevent this condition from happening we prescribe oral calcium supplementation to the respective patient or we reduce the flow of device through which the blood is supposed to pass. | Pathology | AIIMS 2017 | A voluntary donor underwent apheresis for platelet donation for the first time after which he developed perioral tingling and numbness. This is seen because
A. His platelet count was low for donation
B. He underwent apheresis for the first time
C. Due to fluid depletion
D. Due to citrate based anticoagulant
| Due to citrate based anticoagulant |
a2106819-7406-4698-8f7d-b166a05fe17e | Ans. A. CA cervixSYMPTOMS:Arises from: Squamo-columnar junctionEarliest symptom: Post-coital bleedingAs the cancer progresses, symptoms may include:Unusual vaginal dischargeVaginal bleeding between periodsBleeding after menopausePyometraBleeding or pain during sexMC site: EctocervixLymph nodes affected: Obturator, hypogastric and external iliacTime taken for conversion of CIN to invasive Ca: 10 yearsMC type: Squamous cell Ca100% cure rates are seen in: CISUremia: altered sensorium and is having hiccupsMC cause of death: Renal failureCa cervix can be prevented by screeningBoth positive Pap smear and test is suggestive of CA cervix | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | P3L3 came to opd with postcoital bleeding and pap positive p/v cervix hyperophied bleed on touch diagnosis -
A. CA cervix
B. Fibroid
C. Cervicitis
D. Cervical polyp
| CA cervix |
6ec2995f-3b3d-495c-8768-98368ad2b08d | Personal protective equipment: PPE - protect the user against health or safety risks at work. Can include items such as safety helmets, gloves, eye- protection, high visibility clothing, safety footwear and safety harness. It can also include respiratory protective equipment (RPE) Order of removing PPE: Gloves Face shield Gown Mask | Surgery | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) is removed first?
A. Gloves
B. Face shield
C. Gown
D. Mask
| Gloves |
2e78ce60-b4af-41c4-b2bd-595a6e728c1d | livpolastic left heart syndrome
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome occurs when parts of the left side of the heart (mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, and aorta) do not develop completely. The condition is present at birth (congenital).
Hypoplastic left heart is a rare type of congenital heart disease. It is more common in males than in females. As with most congenital heart defects, there is no known cause. About 10 % of patients with hypoplastic left heart syndrome also have other birth defects.
The problem develops before birth when the left ventricle and other structures do not grow properly, including the:
(i) Aorta-the blood vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood from the left ventricle to the entire body
Entrace and exit of the ventricle
Mitral and aortic valves
This causes the left ventricle and aorta to be poorly developed, or hypoplastic. In most cases, the left ventricle and aorta are much smaller than normal.
In patients with this condition, the left side of the heart is unable to send enough blood to the body. As a result, the right side of the heart must maintain the circulation for both the lungs and the body. The right ventricle can support the circulation to both the lungs and the body for awhile, but this extra workoad eventually causes the right side of the heart to fail.
The only possibility of survival is a connection between the right and left side of the heart, or between the systemic
arteries and pumonary arteries (the blood vessels that carry blodd to the lungs). Babies are normally born with two
of these connections:
(i) Foramen ovale (a hole between the right and left atrium)
Ductus arteriosus (a small vessel that connects the aorta to the pulmonary artery)
Both of these connections normally close on their own a few days after birth.
In babies with hypoplastic left heart syndrome, blood from the right side of the heart travels through the ductus arteriosus. This is the only way for blood to get to the body. if the ductus arteriosus is allowed to close in a baby with hypoplastic left heart syndrome, the patient may quickly die because no blood will be pumped to the body.
Babies with known hypoplatic left heart syndrome are usually started on a medicine to keep the ductus arteriosusopen.
Because there is little or no flow out of the left heart, blood reaming to the heart from the lungs needs to pass through the foramen ovale or an atrial septal defect (a hole connecting the collecting chambers on the left and right sides of the heart) back to the right side of the heart. If there is no foramen ovale, or if it is too small, the baby could die. Patients with this problem have the hole between their atria opened, either with surgery or using a thin, flexible tube (heart catheterization).
Symptoms
At first, a newborn with hypoplastic left heart may apper normal. Symptoms usually occur in the first few hours of life, although it may take up to a few days to develop symptoms. These symptoms may include:
Bluish (cyanosis) or poor skin color
Cold hands and feed (extremities)
Lethargy
Poor pulse
Poor suckling and feeding
Pounding heart
Rapid breathing
Shortness of breath.
Since the systemic circulation is dependent on the patent ductus arteriosus the closure of ductus arterious leads to shock.
Signs of heart failure usually appears within the first few days or weeks of life and include dyspnoea, hepatomegaly and low cardiac output. When PDA closes suddenly shock occurs all the peripheral pulses may be weak or absent.
Ventricular septal defect
These patients with VSD's become symptomatic around 6-10 weeks of age.
They usually present with congestive cardiac failure.
Ebstein's anomaly
Ebstein's anomaly consists of downward displacement of an abnormal tricuspid value into the right ventricle.
These patients usually present in teenage/adolescent years.
They may also present in infancy but they usually do not present with shock or severe hypoperfusion.
Aorticopulmonary window defect
An Aorticopulmanry window defect consists of a communication between the ascending Aorta and the main pulmonary artery.
In these cases minimal cyanosis is present and they may present with heart failure in infancy. | Pediatrics | null | A child is admitted on 7 days of life with severe respiratory distress and shock. He was discharged 2 days back healthy. What could be the probable diagnosis –
A. VSD large
B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C. Ebstein anomaly
D. AP window defect
| Hypoplastic left heart syndrome |
6370f514-0f67-4a88-835d-9d94a6ffa24d | Sublingual hematoma is the best pathognomonic sign. | Surgery | null | Most common pathognomonic sign of mandibular fracture:
A. Sublingual hematoma.
B. Malocclusion
C. Tenderness
D. Buccal hematoma.
| Sublingual hematoma. |
d8c8d387-cac9-4633-b85c-9fd5f0aa2dd2 | Answer- C. Pigtail inseion and drainageThis patienl is most likely having a biliary leak from the cystic duct stump, which has formed a large 5 x 5 cm collection.Such a patient needs to be managed with intravenous antibiotics as well as drainage of the collections (as it acts as source of injection). Ultrasound guided pigtail inseion is the easiest method to obtain adequate drainage of the bile leak. | Surgery | null | A patient underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy and was discharged on the same day. On postoperative day 3, he presented to the hospital with fever. Ultra-sonography showed a 5 x 5 cm collection in the right sub diaphragmatic region. What will be the manage!ment?
A. Observe with antibiotic cover
B. Re-explore the wound with T-tube inseion
C. Pigtail inseion and drainage
D. ERCP and proceed
| Pigtail inseion and drainage |
f9be858f-ef2f-475e-9c82-ced530a1a623 | The best way to prevent infection in a child born to HBsAg positive mother is to give both active and passive immunization.
Infants born to HBsAg positive mothers should be given hepatitis immunoglobulin (0.5 m 1/m) within 12 hours after birth. Along with this the first dose of hepatitis B recombinant vaccine is given.
This is followed by hepatitis B vaccine at 1 and 6 months.
Hepatitis B is not a contraindication for breastfeeding. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant lady is diagnosed to be HBs Ag positive. Which of the following is the best way to prevent infection to the child:
A. Hepatitis vaccine to the child
B. Full course of Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin to the child
C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin to the mother
D. Hepatitis B immunization to mother
| Full course of Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin to the child |
18c1a5f9-d998-414e-bb9c-991191c10710 | Answer- A i.e. As early as feasibleAll diabetic (IDDM & NIDDM both) aged over 12 years and/or entering pubey should be screened (visual activity measurement and fundus examination by ophthalmoscopy)For retinopathy. and those with risk for visual loss referred to an ophthalmologist.Type I DM (IDDM) require ophthalmoscopic examination within 3 years of diagnosis and annual review. (If lt is diagnosed before the age of pubey).Type II DM (NIDDM) require ophthalmoscopic examination at the time of diagnosis (because it is usually diagnosed after the age of 12 years) and annual review. | Ophthalmology | null | A patient with a history of diabetes for one year with no other complications should have an ophthalmic examination?
A. As early as feasible
B. After 5 years
C. After 10 years
D. Only after visual symptoms level
| As early as feasible |
94cfe1dc-7810-4c50-af95-87a3c560f6bb | Infective endocarditis typically occurs at sites of pre-existing endocardial damage, but infection with particularly virulent or aggressive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus can cause endocarditis in a previously normal heart. Staphylococcal endocarditis of the tricuspid valve is a common complication of intravenous drug use. Many acquired and congenital cardiac lesions are vulnerable, particularly areas of endocardial damage caused by a high-pressure jet of blood, such as ventricular septal defect, mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation, many of which are haemodynamically insignificant. In contrast, the risk of endocarditis at the site of haemodynamically important low-pressure lesions, such as a large atrial septal defect, is minimal.
Reference: : Davidson 23rd ed page no 527 | Medicine | null | An I.V. drug abuser presents with fever for 10 days. CXR shows B/L lower lobe consolidation with necrosis and right sided pyopneumothorax. Probable diagnosis is:
A. MV endocarditis due to viridans Streptococci
B. TV endocarditis due to Staph. aureus
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
| TV endocarditis due to Staph. aureus |
0f86c441-70a5-466d-b59f-1512fe88cbfd | The child is having hypernatremia. Serum sodium >170 rnEq/L (Normal level is 135-145 mEq/L).
Urine sodium is also very high, >70mEq/L (Normal urine sodium level in <20 mEq/L)
This combination can be seen with excessive intake of sodium.
With excessive intake of sodium there will be increase in serum sodium and excessive excretion of sodium in urine (Kidney tries to compensate for increase in serum sodium by excreting large amount of sodium).
Diabetes Insipidus -> Serum sodium conc. will be high but urine sodium conc. will be very low (Lack of ADH leads to defect in concentration of urine).
Acute necrosis -> Urine sodium conc. will be high but serum sodium conc. will be low.
Severe dehydration -> Urine sodium concentration will be low. | Pediatrics | null | A breast fed child presents with hypernatremia (Serum sodium > 170m Eq/L). His urine sodium is 70 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause –
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Acute necrosis
C. Severe dehydration
D. Excessive intake of sodium
| Excessive intake of sodium |
3b514c9e-965c-463a-b141-9dcecd91c957 | Stages
0 : Absence of crypt
1 : Presence of crypt
2 : Initial calcification of crown
3 : 1/3rd calcification of crown – completed
4 : 2/3rd of crown completed
5 : Crown almost completed
6 : Complete calcification of crown. Tooth shows eruptive movement
7 : 1/3rd of root completed
8 : 2/3rd of Root completed
9 : Root almost completed with open apex
10 : Apical end of Root completed | Dental | null | Initial calcification of crown represents Which Nolla's stage:
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
| Stage 2 |
5c0f862f-2651-4ed4-88d4-2456dab0f036 | Ans. A i.e. 8Patients with severe head injury, an altered level of consciousness, or a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8 or less usually require placement of a definitive airway.Orotracheal or nasotracheal intubation can be attempted with cervical spine precautions if a second person maintains axial immobilization of the head to prevent destabilization of the spine.In this patient, GCS score was 8, so endotracheal intubation was done to secure airway.You don't have to calculate the GCS score of this patient after intubation. | Surgery | null | A patient sustained A and endotracheal intubation was done. Most likely GCS score of such a patient would be:March 2013 (b, c, d)
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
| 8 |
05887319-687e-4b8e-a850-9c4097ceeef7 | Congenital varicella syndrome is characteristically associated with scarring of skin and limb reduction defect (limb hypoplasia).
Perinatal chicken Pox (Perinatal varicella infection)
The baby may develop two types of complications depending on the period of gestation. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following intrauterine infections is associated with limb reduction defects and scarring of skin –
A. Varicella virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Rubella
D. Parvovirus
| Varicella virus |
28b7a6ea-c657-4da7-81dc-88457a064655 | Ans: A. Milnacipran(Ref. Goodman Gilman 12/e p1299; Katzung 13/e p761-762, 12/e p775; Harrison 19/e p2493, 18/c' p3120; Apley 9/e p /3 I-133)Milnacipran:Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI).Approved for treatment of pain in fibromyalgia, not in osteoporosis.Drugs useful in OsteoporosisInhibit Bone ResorptionStimulates Bone Both actionBisphosphonates: Alendronate, risedronate & etidronateCalcium receptor agonist: CinacalcetCalcitoninSERMs: Tamoxifen, raloxifeneGallium nitrateRANKL inhibitors: DonesumabTeriparatideCalciumCalcitriolFluorideStrontium ranelate | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is not used in osteoporosis?
A. Milnacipran
B. PTH
C. Strontium ranelate
D. Denosumab
| Milnacipran |
69c15b27-e061-413c-a011-854ea197f141 | The nucleus ambiguus is a group of large motor neurons, situated deep in the medullary reticular formation. The nucleus ambiguus contains the cell bodies of nerves that innervate the muscles of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx which are strongly associated with speech and swallowing.
Nucleus in brain common to IX, X and XI cranial nerves is nucleus ambiguous. | Anatomy | null | Nucleus in brain common to IX, X and XI cranial nerves:
A. Nucleus solitarius
B. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Dentate nucleus
D. Red nucleus
| Nucleus ambiguus |
b2378ac9-d9c4-415f-9e8d-f77a39b6117a | Ans. A. NSP4Rotavirus nonstractural protein 4 (NSP4) is known to function as an intracellalar receptor at the endoplssmic reticalam (ER) critical to virul morphogenesis and is the first characterized virul enterotoxin.The associntion of NSP4 snd cuveolin-I contributes to NSP4 intrqcellular trfficking from the ER to the cell surfuce and speculate that exogenously added NSP4 stimulutes sigaaling molecules located in caveola microdomains. | Microbiology | null | A 6-month child presented with diarrhea and vomiting for three days. Which of the following enterotoxin is most likely responsible for the condition?
A. NSP4
B. NSP6
C. VP3
D. VP7
| NSP4 |
af87accb-34b2-42de-be48-16e94bbf22ab | Zellweger syndrome Cerebro-Hepato-Renal Syndrome. Impaired neuronal migration, hypomyelination, hepatomegaly, renal cysts Autosomal recessive Rare Absence of Peroxisomes in almost all tissues, peroxisomes are responsible of oxidation of very long chain fatty acid which contain more than 22 carbon Accumulation of polyenic acids in brain, with carbon > 22 Severe neurological symptoms Most patients die within 1st year of life. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | In a cerebrohepatorenal syndrome, which of the following accumulate in brain?
A. Pyruvate
B. Sho-chain fatty acid
C. Very long-chain fatty acid
D. Acetyl CoA
| Very long-chain fatty acid |
422e1a54-04f3-4193-ac55-61c4ae8b23a9 | Answer (A) succinyl-CoAAll the carbon and nitrogen atoms of the porphyrin molecule are provided by glycine(a nonessential amino acid) and succinyl coenzyme A (an intermediate in the citric acid cycle) that condense to form ALA in a reaction catalyzed by ALA synthase(ALAS)Heme synthesis also requires a functional tricarboxylic acid cycle and an oxygen supply.Heme synthesis stas in mitochondria with the condensation of succinyl-CoA with the amino acid glycine, activated by pyridoxal phosphate.ALA synthase is the rate-limiting enzyme of heme synthesis. ALA molecules enter the cytoplasm, where their union in the presence of ALA dehydratase yields porphobilinogen(PBG) and water molecules. | Biochemistry | null | intermediate of kreb cycle used in heme synthesis;
A. succinyl-CoA
B. Alpha ketoglutarate
C. Citrate
D. Aspaate
| succinyl-CoA |
4a131164-eb3c-4152-9556-b81ae98e2066 | Ans: A. Malignancy(Ref Yanoff and Duker 4/e p1339)Evisceration of eye is not done in malignancy.Evisceration:Surgical technique removing entire intraocular eye contents.Simpler procedure than enucleation surgery.Advantages:Leaves scleral shell & extraocular muscle attachments intact.Offers better orbital anatomy preservation & natural motility of ophthalmic socket tissues.Contraindications:Documented or suspected intraocular malignant tumors. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following is not an indication for evisceration?
A. Malignancy
B. Panophthalmitis
C. Severe globe trauma
D. Expulsive hemorrhage
| Malignancy |
721d3b8f-c3a4-4f82-899a-db8078710935 | The best test to detect fetal lung maturity in diabetic mothers is presence of phophatidyl glycerol (PG) in amniotic fluid. If PG is present in amniotic fluid fetal lungs are considered mature and vice versa. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The one measurement of fetal maturity that is not affected by a 'bloody tap' during amniocentesis is:
A. L/S ratio
B. Phosphatidyl glycerol
C. α-fetoprotein
D. Bilirubin as a measured by DOD 450
| Phosphatidyl glycerol |
1bcbe056-96b4-41aa-a7aa-044d7d2ac555 | Ans: A. Tendon transfer(Ref Apley 9/e p347,348)Treatment of choice for irreparable tear of rotator cuff in young patient = Tendon transfer.Subacromial decompression and debridement of degenerate cuff tissue:Useful for irreparable massive full thickness tears.Pain relief allows reasonable shoulder abduction by remaining muscles.Other methods:Supraspinatus advancement.Latissimus dorsi transfer.Rotator cuff transposition.Fascia Iota autogruit.Synthetic tendon graft. | Surgery | null | A young patient is diagnosed to have irreparable tear of the rotator cuff. Treatment of choice will be:
A. Tendon transfer
B. Total shoulder replacement
C. Reverse c shoulder replacement
D. Acromioplasty
| Tendon transfer |
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