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890982b8-3906-44be-aff1-437a7c6c373d | Answer- D. Transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstructionAbsent fructose with no sperms in ejaculate is suggestive of obstruction of vas deferens with seminal vesicle agenesis or obstruction. Next line of management in this patient would be transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstruction.Transrectal Ultrasound-High-frequency (5-7) mHz transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) offers superb imaging of the prostate, seminal vesicles, and ejaculatory ducts.Due to both accuracy and convenience, TRUS has replaced surgical vasography in the diagnosis of obstructive lesions that cause infeility. | Surgery | null | In a couple for treatment of infeility from the last four years, female paner is normal. Male paner has 0.8 ml semen volume per ejaculate on two repeated samples and absent fructose, with no sperms on examination under microscope. What is the next line of management?
A. Per-rectal examination to check ejaculatory duct obstruction
B. Give antioxidants
C. Testicular biopsy
D. Transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstruction
| Transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstruction |
1e94a9ca-55e4-4e9a-bf7b-cb2dc4ba2ab5 | Since SD plasma destroys lipid enveloped viruses the viruses which are not enveloped are most likely to cause infection. The impoant non enveloped viruses are viruses belonging to family PICORNAVIRIDAE, REOVIRIDAE, ASTROVIRIDAE and CALCIVIRIDAE and one of the impoant member of PICORNAVIRIDAE is hepatitis a virus which is a non enveloped RNA virus. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2018 | SD plasma destroys lipid enveloped virus. On SD plasma transfusion, which of the following infection is the likely possibility?
A. HIV
B. HAV
C. HBV
D. HCV
| HAV |
d1d16eda-c34e-4492-bee4-1b8c4246daf3 | L-Gulonolactone oxidase produces Vitamin C Uronic acid pathway, but only in plants & most animals. Humans cannot make vitamin C due to absence of L-Gulonolactone oxidase enzyme.(See fig) Uronic acid pathway- glucose is conveed to glucuronic acid, pentoses and, in some animals, to ascorbic acid (not in man). ADDITIONAL EDGE: Uronic Acid Pathway synthesize Glucuronic Acid, Pentoses and Vit C Uses of Glucuronic acid: Incorporated into proteoglycans (Glucuronate used) Acts as a conjugating agent (Phase II conjugation reactions like bilirubin conjugation) | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Due to which of the following enzyme deficiency, vitamin C cannot be synthesised in humans?
A. L-Glucuronic acid oxidase
B. L-Gulonic acid reductase
C. L-Gulonolactone oxidase
D. L-Gulonolactone reductase
| L-Gulonolactone oxidase |
87d8663f-e0cd-4766-87b7-5312dfc4cd62 | A thermal contraction mismatch that results from a higher coefficient of contraction of porcelain (αP is greater than αM) will introduce residual tangential and hoop tensile stresses. The additive effect of tangential tensile stress induced in the porcelain by the intraoral force can exceed the tensile strength of the porcelain and causes crack propagation in the porcelain veneer. When the contraction coefficient of the porcelain is much lower than that of the metal (αP much lower than αM), porcelain cracking or metal-ceramic bond failure can occur near the metal-porcelain interface. This incompatibility failure is likely caused by the development of radial tensile stresses that exceed the tensile strength of porcelain.
Contraction coefficient of the porcelain - αP
Contraction coefficient of the metal - αM
Phillip’s 12th edition page 423 | Dental | null | Which of the following type of failure may occur, if the coefficient of thermal expansion of ceramic is much lower than that of metal?
A. Cohesive failure of ceramic
B. Adhesive failure of metal ceramic bond
C. Cohesive failure of metal
D. Cohesive failure of metal ceramic bond
| Adhesive failure of metal ceramic bond |
e621e03f-d935-427f-a7a7-14f6f9a0efab | HEREDITARY FRUCTOSE INTOLERANCE
Symptoms of hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly develping after injection of excessive fructose intake (sugar cane juice contains the major dietary source of fructose-Sucrose suggest the diagnosis of hereditary fructose intolerance.
Clinical disorders related to fructose metabolism can result from excessive fructose consumption that exceed's the body's ability to efficiently convert the sugar into metabolic intermediates.
In normal persons fructose is metabolized in the following way | Pediatrics | null | Child of Vasanthi was weaned from breast milk on the 5th day and was given sugarcane juice the child developed hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly biochemical examination showed hypophosphatemia and enzyme deficiencies–reducing substances in urine. The child is probably suffering from which of the following enzyme deficiencies –
A. Fructokinase
B. Aldolase B
C. Glucose 6 Phosphatase
D. Beta galactosidase
| Aldolase B |
90481eeb-fa12-4a3d-8348-dd3f1758167c | Ans: A(Ref: Harper 30/c 1)1880)Acetyl Co-A stimulation of pyruvate carboxylase is most effective for gluconeogenesis.In Gluconeogenesis, pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes oxaloacetate synthesis from pyruvate. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is most effective for gluconeogenesis in starvation?
A. Acetyl Co-A stimulation of pyruvate carboxylase
B. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate stimulation of phosphofructokinase-1
C. Citrate stimulation of acetyl carboxylase
D. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate stimulation of phosphofructokinase-2
| Acetyl Co-A stimulation of pyruvate carboxylase |
d2398cd6-b205-4fb3-a4c4-9e575662b0bf | Transferrin is used for transpoing iron throughout the body BUT Transthyretin (Option a) - transpos Thyroxine & Retinol binding protein. So, it is NOT involved in iron metabolism WITH RESPECT TO OTHER OPTIONS: (Option b) Ceruloplasmin is a Cu containing enzyme also having Ferroxidase activity. Ferroxidase conves Fe +2 to Fe +3 (i.e. Ferrous to ferric). Ferric form of iron is required for transpo by transferrin in plasma. (Option c) Hepcidin regulates iron transpo in circulation. (Option d) Ferritin & Haemosiderin are proteins for iron storage. Haemosiderin has higher iron content than Ferritin. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2017 | Which is not involved in iron metabolism?
A. Transthyretin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Hepcidin
D. Ferropoin
| Transthyretin |
820b79a8-3eef-494b-a007-995db6b5258c | Sensitivity of Local anesthetic To nerve fibers B > A 8 = C > Ag > Ab > Aa | Anaesthesia | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following nerve fibre types is least susceptible to LA blockade?
A. A beta
B. A alpha
C. B fibers
D. C fibers
| A alpha |
740f528e-5192-44dc-89a3-4e2a1249e3c6 | Friends, Remember CNS anomaly (NTD) + CVS anomaly + facial defects are seen with the use of isotretinoin. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A child born with multiple congenital defect including cleft palate, neural tube defect, atrial septal defect and microcephaly which of the following drug is used by mother during pregnancy:
A. Erythromycin
B. Isotretinoin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Metronidazole
| Isotretinoin |
94e49b87-631d-4d93-bdf8-e8e71ae04654 | Ans: B. Endothelial cellsVon willebrand factor (vWF)* This is the larger component.* It is produced by endothelial cells (main source) and megakaryocytes.It has two major functions ?* Helps in platelets adhesion by interacting with platelet membrane glycoprotein ib-IX.* Stabilizes factor VIllc. | Pathology | null | Vwf factor is produced by:
A. Platelets
B. Endothelial cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Monocytes
| Endothelial cells |
e7f023ea-2147-47d3-9f2a-61fb60a900be | Answer- A. Epsilon aminocaproic acidEpsilon aminocaproic acid is an antidote for fibrinolytic therapy. Epsilon-aminocaproic qcid is a synthetic inhibitor of theplasmin-plasminogen system. It is the only potent antifibrinolylic agent, which is commercially available."Aminocaproic acid is a lysine analog that competes for lysine binding sites on plasminogen and plasmin, blocking theinteraction of plasmin with fibrin.Fibrinolytic overdose - Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid (EACA) | Pharmacology | null | Which of these drugs is an antidote for fibrinolytic therapy?
A. Epsilon aminocaproic acid
B. Protamine
C. Heparin
D. Streptokinase
| Epsilon aminocaproic acid |
efa0e92a-b11b-4c1c-a97d-8b4409430caa | The resolution of IOPA is 16 lines pair/millimeter. | Dental | null | The resolution of IOPA is about:
A. 10 Lp/mm
B. 16 Lp/mm
C. 28 Lp/mm
D. 30 Lp/mm
| 16 Lp/mm |
29e07bd0-f864-4738-bdbc-491f1205287f | HOPEWOOD HOUSE STUDY
(Sullivan and Harris- 1958, Harris- 1963 )
The dental status Of children between 7 to 14 years of age residing at Hopewood House, Bowral New South Wales, was studied longitudinally for 10 years. Almost all these children had lived from early infancy at Hopewood House.
All lived on a strictly natural diet, that, with the exception of on occasional serving of egg yolk, was entirely vegetable in nature and largely raw. The absence of meat and restriction of refined carbohydrate were the principal features of the Hopewood House diet.
The meals were supplemented by vitamin concentrates and an occasional serving of nuts and a sweetening agent such as honey. The fluoride content of water and food was insignificant and no tea was consumed.
TURKU SUGAR STUDY
(Scheinin and Makinen in 975)
The study was carried outin Turku, Finland.
Aim Of the study
To compare the cariogenicity of sucrose, fructose and Xylitol.
Basis of the study
XylitoI is a sweet substance not metabolized by plaque micro organisms.
Key Concept:
In Hopewood house study : the children's oral hygiene was poor, calculus is uncommon, but gingivitis was prevalent in 75% of children. This work showed that, in institutionalized children at least, dental caries can be reduced by a spartan diet, without the beneficial effects of fluoride and in the presence of unfavorable oral hygiene.
Ref: Soben Peter , 4th ed page no 96 | Dental | null | Sugar restricted to diet was beneficial in presence of unfavorable hygiene was from which study?
A. Hopewood
B. Experimental
C. Vipeholm
D. Turku
| Hopewood |
cc0d09f8-564d-4fe5-8b22-4b7d3e4ed586 | Ans. d. Hamate fractureMost common tumor of lacrimal gland is Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (37%)> Pleomorphic adenoma (25%). Most commonmalignant epithelial tumor of the lacrimal gland is adenoid cystic carcinoma.Lacrimal Gland TumorMC tumor of lacrimal glandNon-Hodgkin's lymphomadegMC epithelial tumor of lacrimal glandPleomorphic adenomadegMC malignant epithelial tumor of lacrimal glandAdenoid cystic carcinomadeg | Ophthalmology | null | Most common tumor of lacrimal gland:
A. Trans-scaphoid perilunate fracture
B. Scaphoid fracture
C. Distal radius fracture
D. Hamate fracture
| Hamate fracture |
57d48689-dcbd-4e81-9ea9-d56b7f7eed2d | MATERIALS USED FOR MANUFACTURING CUTTING INSTRUMENTS
Carbon Steel
Carbon steel alloy contains 0.5 to 1.5 percent carbon in iron.
Instruments made from carbon steel are known for their hardness and sharpness.
Disadvantages with these instruments are their susceptibility to corrosion and fracture. They are of two types:
1. Soft steel: It contains <0.5% carbon
2. Hard steel: It contains 0.5 to 1.5% carbon
Nisha Garg, Amit Garg. Textbook of Operative Dentistry. Edition 3. Page: 80 | Dental | null | Percentage of carbon in carbon steel hand instruments is
A. 1-1.2%
B. 10-12%
C. 0.6 to 0.8%
D. 6 to 8%
| 1-1.2% |
aadafd4c-cb37-460b-8e6f-28f42d01dd60 | Ans. c. Pharmacological blockade (Ref-YANNOFF 3/E PG,1052-1055)Pilocarpine I% is a sufficient miotic dose for any eye, but a sphincter with all its cholinergic receptor blockade by atropine or tropicamide (i.e. eye with pharmacological blockade) does not constrict with pilocarpine 1%. | Ophthalmology | null | Topical administration of I% Pilocarpine failed to produce pupillary constriction in a patient who had a large, dilated pupil What should be the most probable reason?
A. Adie's tonic pupil
B. Diabetic III nerve palsy
C. Pharmacological blockade
D. Uncal herniation
| Pharmacological blockade |
0d96ee7c-7133-4d5a-becf-f9ad47582e54 | Facial artery enters the face by winding around the base of the mandible, and by piercing the deep cervical fascia, at the anteroinferior angle of the masseter muscle. It can be palpated here and is called ‘anaesthetist’s artery’. | Anatomy | null | Artery palpable at the anterior border of the masseter is :
A. Superficial temporal artery
B. Facial artery
C. Lingual artery
D. Maxillary artery
| Facial artery |
e881fcb0-a4f2-45ed-97cf-c53045f98e30 | Ans: B. Griseofulvin (Ref: Goodman Gilman I2/e p1585; Katzung 13/e p632, 12/e p855,. KUT 7/e p790, 6/e p760)The oral administration of a 0.5 g dose of griseofulvin produces peak plasma concentrations of 1ug/mL in 4 hours.Improved drug absorption along with a fatty meal.Drug Absorption Reduced/Delayed by FoodDrug Absorption increased by foodAmpicillindegAspirindegAtenololdegAzithromycindegCaptoprildegCefaclorCephalexinCiprofloxacinDidanosineIndinavirdegIsoniazidaLoratidineNaficillinPenicillin G or VdegPhenobarbitaldegPhenytoindegRifampindegSucralfatedegTetracyclinedegDoxycyclinedegAtovaquonedegCarbamazepinedegChlohiazidedegCefuroximedegClofaziminedegDiazepamdegErythromycin GanciclovirdegHydrochlorothiazidedegItraconazoleaLithiumdegLovastatinMethylphenidateMetoprololdegNelfinavirNitrofurantoinPropranololdegPropoxypheneRitonavirdegSaquinavirdegSpironolactonedeg*Hydralazinedeg | Pharmacology | null | Absorption of which of the following drugs is increased after a fatty meal?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Griseofulvin
C. Ampicillin
D. Aspirin
| Griseofulvin |
818e92da-69f5-41d8-a15a-f22c851140fb | Relapse :- The resting forms are called hypnozoites. It is feature seen in P.vivax and P.ovale. From time to time, some are activated to become schizonts and release merozoites, which go on infecting RBCs producing clinical relapse. Recrudescence:- In Plasmodium falciparum and P. malariae, initial tissue phase disappears completely, and no hypnozoites are found. However ,small numbers of erythrocytic parasites persist in the blood stream and in due course of time, they multiply to reach significant numbers resulting in clinical disease. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | Malaria relapse common with which type plasmodium species?
A. Plasmodium malariae and vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum and vivax
C. Plasmodium vivax and ovale
D. Plasmodium ovale and malariae
| Plasmodium vivax and ovale |
dd210467-68c5-4566-9cad-34e5ffa22bc9 | upper 1st molar resembles upper 1st premolar | Dental | null | Which primary tooth resemble premolar
A. Upper 1st molar
B. Lower 1st molar
C. Upper 2nd molar
D. Lower 2nd molar
| Upper 1st molar |
0c240f5f-b2d4-4229-8a70-5c2bd42f2144 | Ans: D. Surgeon doing liver transplant(Ref: Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissue Rules)In the case of brain-stem death of the donor, a ceificate has been signed by all the members of the Board of medical expes; Where a neurologist or a neurosurgeon is not available, an anesthetist or intensivist nominated by the Registered Medical Practitioner and who is not member of the transplantation team for the recipient concerned, may ceify the brain stein death as a member of the Board.Because of vested interest, surgeon doing liver transplant cannot declare a person brain dead. | Forensic Medicine | null | According to Transplantation of Human Organs Act, which of the following doctors is/are not authorized to declare brainstem death?
A. RMP incharge of the hospital
B. Treating physician
C. Neurosurgeon
D. Surgeon doing liver transplant
| Surgeon doing liver transplant |
6167ceda-f896-4511-a570-ae19f725e1e7 | Ans: B. Hormone-sensitive lipase Ref: Harper 30/e p262)Hormone sensitive lipase is controlled by glucagon."Hormone-sensitive lipase is activated by ACTH, TSH, glucagon, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and vasopressin and inhibited by insulin, prostaglandin E1, and nicotinic acid. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following types of lipase is controlled by glucagon?
A. Lipoprotein lipase
B. Hormone-sensitive lipase
C. Gastric lipase
D. Pancreatic lipase
| Hormone-sensitive lipase |
539291d5-becc-4ccc-8862-9d9ff4fcc121 | Ans: D. Factor XIIIConversion of fibrinogen into cross-linked fibrin:Thrombin directly conves soluble fibrinogen into fibrin monomers.Fibrin monomers polymerize into an insoluble clot & also amplifies coagulation process - By activating factor XI, factors V & VIII.Also stabilizes secondary hemostatic plug - By activating factor XIII.Factor XIII - Covalently cross-links fibrin.Ref: Robbing 9/e 11 9 | Physiology | null | The clot formed is not stable unless extensive cross-linking occurs. This extensive cross-linking of blood clot is done by:
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. HMWK
D. Factor XIII
| Factor XIII |
3ea8bac5-2e0f-4f6f-8f5e-c9c1ef405a76 | Ans: D. Glutamine(Ref. Harper 30/e p292).Ammonia from brain is removed as glutamine.Ammonia disposal:Ammonia from all over body reaches liver, detoxified to urea by liver cells & excreted through kidney.Ammonia formed in most tissues including brain is trapped by glutamate to form glutamine (primary ammonia trapping). | Biochemistry | null | Ammonia from brain is removed as:
A. Urea
B. Alanine
C. Glutamate
D. Glutamine
| Glutamine |
da27e783-4c0b-4621-bc3d-938a109d8425 | Lithium causes Ebstein's anomaly (malformation in tricuspid valve of hea) if given in pregnancy. Other side effects of lithium includes: Leucocytosis I Tremors (most common adverse effect) Hypothyroidism Increase Urine (polyuria) Mothers (avoided in pregnancy). | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Use of lithium during pregnancy increases the risk of development of which of the following malformations in the baby?
A. Facial defects
B. Cardiac defects
C. Neural tube defects
D. Urogenital defects
| Cardiac defects |
ed111e74-8d76-4f2f-ac59-56e7ddc2be88 | Desmoid tumors: "Clinically, the most common areas of origin include the extremity, intraperitoneal, abdominal wall, and chest wall. Affected patients may present with a painful versus asymptomatic firm mass, bowel obstruction, or bowel ischemia." -Sabiston 20/e p765 "Patients with a desmoid tumor present with an asymptomatic mass or with symptoms related to mass effect from the tumor." -Sabiston 20/e p1073 | Surgery | AIIMS 2017 | Most common presentation of abdominal desmoids tumor is?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Abdominal mass
C. Fever
D. Urinary retention
| Abdominal mass |
671eebea-f741-4ed8-bf68-36e36c8de1eb | Ans. b. Outer hair cell Noise induced hearing loss mostly affects outer hair cell."Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) causes damage to hair cells, staing in the basal turn of cochlea. Outer hair cells are affected before the inner hair cells.""Noise-induced hearing loss damages hair cells, which begin at the basal turn of cochlea. Outer hair cells are affected earlier than the inner hair cells." | ENT | null | Noise induced hearing toss inosto affects:
A. Inner hair cell
B. Outer hair cell
C. Macula
D. Cupula
| Outer hair cell |
f213cf1e-b5d6-4a25-8027-f1e39514ff20 | Non surgical management is the best approach in patients who are at increased risk of non/delayed healing. Medical history of the patient indicates risk factors which can interfere with recovery so Gunning splint is the best approach. | Surgery | null | A 75 year old chronic smoker who is diabetic and edentulous for the last 30 years has a bilateral body fracture, best treatment modality is
A. ORIF with reconstruction plate
B. Gunning splints
C. Two mini plates
D. Wire osteosynthesis
| Gunning splints |
58d24187-ca26-4e5b-a3d9-c57ce0ff543b | The lateral geniculate body receives retinal fibres of both the eyes (from temporal half of the retina of the same side and nasal half of the retina of the opposite side) through optic tract and gives rise to fibres of the optic radiation which convey visual impulses to the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.
Primary visual area is situated mainly on the medial surface of the occipital lobe in the walls and floor of the posterior part of the calcarine sulcus (postcalcarine sulcus) and extends around the occipital pole onto the lateral surface of the occipital lobe as far as the lunate sulcus.
Reference: TEXTBOOK OF ANATOMY HEAD, NECK AND Brain, Volume III, second edition page no 384, 393 | Anatomy | null | Visual cortex is present in the:
A. Occipital lobe
B. Temporal lobe
C. Frontal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
| Occipital lobe |
35fb00cb-9acc-4177-8873-c3915a142c99 | Dimorphic fungi: They exist as molds (hyphal form) in the environment at ambient temperature (25deg C) and as yeasts in human tissues at body temperature (37deg C). Some medically impoant dimorphic fungi are: Histoplasma capsulatum Blastomyces dermatitidis Coccidioides immitis Paracoccidioides brasiliensis Penicillium marneffei Sporothrix schenckii | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following exists as yeast at 37deg and hyphae at 25deg?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix globosa
C. Candida albicans
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
| Histoplasma capsulatum |
14e05154-05a2-4472-a63e-261d765893ae | Klippel - Trenaunay syndrome (KT syndrome)
The triad of KT syndrome is:-
Cutaneous vascular malformation —> Most commonly capillary malformation.
Bony capillary malformation and soft tissue hypertrophy.
Venous abnormalities —> Deep venous system may be absent or hypoplastic.
The anomaly present at birth and usually involves lower limb.
When there is associated Arterio - venous malformation, it is known as Klippel - Trenaunay - Weber syndrome.
Thick walled venous varicocities typically become apparent ipsilateral to the vascular malformation —> May be pulsatile because ofAV malformation. | Pediatrics | null | Pulsatile varicose veins in lower limbs is seen in –
A. Klippel trenaunay syndrome
B. TR
C. RV failure
D. Carcinoid stenosis of tricuspid
| Klippel trenaunay syndrome |
b9546516-2a4a-4179-a956-60d0387bf11f | Answer-C. b- 2 microglobulinHemodialysis-associated amyloidosis-Associated disease is Chronic renal failureMajor fibril protein is A | Pathology | null | Amyloid protein in Hemodialysis associated with amyloidosis is-
A. AA
B. A b
C. b- 2 microglobulin
D. Transthyretin
| b- 2 microglobulin |
2dd59aba-38c0-4aff-a000-1bcb640254ff | Ans: B. Date of expiry of the drug(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p1883; Manual of Experimental and Clinical Pharmacology/p 345).Date of drug expiry need not to be given in drug adveisement letter.Regulated according to The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.Amended (Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997).Permits use of print & television adveising for prescription drugs.Drug adveisements:Contain summary information relating to side effects, contraindications & effectiveness.Current adveising regulations:Specify that this information disclosure needs to include all risk information in a product's approved labeling or must direct consumers to healthcare professionals to obtain this information.Print adveisements:Include reprinting of risk-related sections of product's approved labeling (package inse).Television adveising:Not includes reprinting of risk-related.Note:Adveisements cannot be false or misleading or omit material facts.Must present fair balance between effectiveness & risk information. | Pharmacology | null | Drug adveisement letter is a necessary component of each drug formulation and contains various information about the drug like drug dosing, frequency and half-life. Which of the following information need not be given in the drug adveisement letter?
A. Research papers and other aicles proving efficacy of the drug
B. Date of expiry of the drug
C. Rare, but serious life threatening adverse-effects
D. Common, not so serious adverse-effects
| Date of expiry of the drug |
58ffad4a-5613-4d26-88b2-a4bb2ce2b9e6 | Answer- B. FluoxetineFluoxetine has the lowest incidence of discontinuation syndrome among several antidepressants including paroxetin and venlafaxine. The longer half life of fluoxetine will avoid any withdrawal symptoms because this medication effectively tapers itself from the patient's system over a few days. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs can be stopped abruptly without any withdrawal symptoms?
A. Esctilaopram
B. Fluoxetine
C. Fluvoxamine
D. Seraline
| Fluoxetine |
845fbff7-6332-49ce-8ecb-d62616e2ae9a | Ans: C. Lateral geniculate body(Ref Walsh and Hoyt; Clinical Neuro-Ophthalmology 6/e p122)Key-hole shaped visual field defects are typically seen in the lesions involving lateral geniculate body but keyhole shaped defect (not visual field defect) is seen in the coloboma of Iris. | Ophthalmology | null | Keyhole-shaped visual field defect is seen in lesion involving which of the following regions?
A. Optic disk
B. Optic chiasma
C. Lateral geniculate body
D. Occipital lobe
| Lateral geniculate body |
87311a9e-97ac-43de-8964-55eb7ced00a9 | Mw vaccine is a killed leprosy vaccine developed in India in 2018 using Mycobacterium indicus pranii. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | Mw vaccine is prepared from:
A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Mycobacterium indicus pranii
C. Mycobacterium welchii
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
| Mycobacterium indicus pranii |
3e4d2174-1e88-4652-9aed-78e71215ffe8 | Ans. C. Dexamethasone* Dexamethasone is used in the treatment of hypercalcemia due to vitamin D toxicity. Glucocoicoid (Dexamethasone, prednisolone etc) therapy will decrease plasma calcium levels by blocking the action of vitamin D(1,25 D) which results in reduced intestinal calcium absorption and increased urinary excretion of calcium. * Other drugs like chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine are less effective in treating hypercalcemia due to vitamin D toxicity. | Pharmacology | null | Vitamin D toxicity is treated with
A. Chloroquine
B. Hydroxycholoquine
C. Dexamethasone
D. Ketoconazole
| Dexamethasone |
82f0f5d7-996b-49cc-8c8c-b9ff7cb35ecc | Cystinuria
It is an autosomal recessive disorder.
The disease is caused by a defective high affinity transporter for L-cystine and diabasic amioacids present in the proximal tubules.
It is characterize by recurrent kidney stone formation. | Pediatrics | null | Cystinuria is characterised by –
A. Generalised aminoaciduria
B. Systemic acidosis
C. Deposition of cystine crystals in Renal tubular cells
D. Recurrent urinary caliculi
| Recurrent urinary caliculi |
19567e6c-e0f7-4201-816d-23b58786f586 | Answer- B. Due to overload of PPFTransfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) is an established, but grossly under diagnosed and underrepoed complication of blood transfusion. | Medicine | null | Patient with PPF transfusion complaint of breathing difficulty, tachycardic, tachypnia, Had Batwing sign present in X-ray. What will be the possible reason?
A. Transfusion related lung injury
B. Due to overload of PPF
C. Acute renal tubular acidosis
D. Hemoglobinuria
| Due to overload of PPF |
006fea5f-8d1c-489b-9ea6-1028a64484ab | Ans: C. Little finger(Ref: Reddy 34Ie p84, 33Ie p87; Parikh 6Ie p2.15).Fingerprint reader (FINDER):Computerized automatic fingerprint reading system which can record each fingerprint data in half second. Prints of eight fingers are recorded excluding little fingers.The light reflected from a fingerprint can be measured and conveed to digital data which is classified, codified and stored in the computer. | Forensic Medicine | null | Fingerprinting (FINDER) involves recording prints of 8 fingers. Which finger pair is excluded?
A. Ring finger
B. Thumb
C. Little finger
D. Middle finger
| Little finger |
3592f545-8b31-4f41-9ccc-89eb67bc818a | Ans: A. TSH(Ref Harrison I9/e p2 p2267)Galactorrhea - amenorrhea syndromes:Serum prolactin &TSH advised.Laboratory diagnosis:Measure basal, fasting morning PRL levels - To assess hypersecretion.Normal PRL levels <20 ,ug/L.Markedly elevated PRL levels (>1000 ,ug/L) -Falsely lowered.Due to assay aifacts & aggregated circulating PRL forms.Sample dilution required for accurate measurement.Usually biologically inactive (macroprolactinemia).Measuring TSH and T4 levels - To exclude hypothyroidism. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In Galactorrhoea--amenorrhea syndromes, which is the investigation you should advise (apa from serum prolactin)?
A. TSH
B. LH
C. hCG
D. Urinary ketosteroids
| TSH |
8c968c9b-35b1-4394-959a-fe3c80e283e5 | Rooting reflex disappears in 3-4 months but if both are in option then go for 4 months. | Dental | null | Rooting reflex also known as search reflex disappears:
A. 2 month
B. 3 month
C. 4 month
D. 5 month
| 4 month |
be168ef1-fee0-4f80-9c60-6259e78b56b9 | Ans: B. 90 minutes(Ref Ganong 25/e p496, 24/e p498)Migrating motor complexes in the gut reappear after intervals of 90 minutes.MMCs:Initiated by motilin.Circulating motilin increases at intervals of 100 min in interdigestive state.Coordinated with contractile phases of MMC.Contractions migrate aborally at a rate of about 5 cm/ min. | Physiology | null | Migratory motor complexes in the gut reappear after intervals of:
A. 60 minutes
B. 90 minutes
C. 120 minutes
D. 150 minutes
| 90 minutes |
1bb2cc45-79b6-45f8-add8-e6832e5090f0 | Repeated microinfarction can destroy tissues having micro vascular beds prone to sickling. Thus splenic function is frequently lost within 18-36 months of life causing susceptibility to infection paicularly by pneumococci. So ( PPV-23) polysaccharide pneumococcal vaccine is beneficial in sickle cell anemia. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2019 | For which of the following is PPV-23 is most beneficial:
A. Cystic fibrosis patient
B. Sickle cell anemia patient
C. Patient with recurrent rhinitis and sinusitis
D. Child less than 2 years
| Sickle cell anemia patient |
2674faba-e6d7-4790-b13e-97c597408919 | M/C Mediastinal tumor - Neurogenic tumor M/C anterior mediastinal tumor - Thymoma Mediastinal Tumors in Adults Tumor Type Percentage of Total Location Neurogenic tumors 21 Posterior Cysts 20 All Thymomas 19 Anterior Tumor Type Percentage of Total Location Lymphomas 13 Anterior/middle Germ cell tumors 11 Anterior Mesenchymal tumors 7 All Endocrine tumors 6 Anterior/middle Mediastinal Tumors in Children Tumor Type Percentage of Total Location Neurogenic tumors 400 Posterior Lymphomas 180 Anterior/middle Cysts 18 All Germ cell tumors 11 Anterior Mesenchymal tumors 9 All Thymomas Rare Anterior MEDIASTINAL MASSES (MM) MC anterior MM: Thymoma Q MC middle MM: Cyst (Pericardial cyst is MC) MC posterior MM: Neurogenic tumors MC MM (overall): Neurogenic tumors MM seen in all three compaments of mediastinum: Lymphoma, bronchogenic cyst & mesenchymal tumors IOC for diagnosis of MM (except neurogenic tumors): CT IOC for diagnosis of neurogenic tumors: MRI | Surgery | AIIMS 2019 | Most common mediastinal tumor:
A. Neurogenic tumor
B. Thymoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Bronchogenic cyst
| Neurogenic tumor |
6bce210a-7174-4c76-b1f0-9bc3f5c835fc | Ans: B. Rabeprazole(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p1990; Katzung131e p1060, 12/e p1089; KDT 7/e p653).Rabeprazole:Exclusively metabolized by CYP2C19 and does not cause any inhibition of CYP450.Highest efficacy.Lansoprazole - Most potent.Rabeprazole & pantoprazole have no significant drug interactions.The FDA has issued a warning about a potentially impoant adverse interaction between clopidogrel and proton pump inhibitors.Proton pump inhibitors should be prescribed to patients taking clopidogrel only if they have an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding or require them for chronic gastro-esophageal reflux or peptic ulcer disease, in which case agents with minimal CYP2C19 inhibition (pantoprazole or rabeprazole) are preferred | Pharmacology | null | CYP50 inhibition is least by:
A. Pantoprazole
B. Rabeprazole
C. Lansoprazole
D. Omeprazole
| Rabeprazole |
673a0bbe-b4d8-46bb-83b0-e01658f9f22f | Ans: A. CRAO(licr Parson's 22/e p320-32l, 21 /e p313,314: Kanski 7/e p559-562: Yanoff and Duker 4/e p522)Cherry red spot & Hollenhorst plaque:Seen in both Central Retinal Aery Occlusion (CRAO) & BRAG.CRAO incidence is more common than BRAG. | Ophthalmology | null | Cherry red spot and Hollenhorst plaque are seen in:
A. CRAO
B. CRVO
C. Branch RAO
D. Branch RVO
| CRAO |
4df0486d-1aba-4df0-9a1f-fd86bb8acc9a | Answer- B (Third nerve)The third nerve (Oculomotor) does not form the floor of the third ventricle although it lies in close relation to the floor.The anterior wall of the third ventricle is formed by Lamina terminalis, Anterior commissure, Anterior columns of the fornixThe posterior wall is formed by the Pineal body, Posterior commissure, Cerebral aqueduct.The roof is formed by Body of fornix and the ependyma lining the undersurface of the tela choroidea of the third ventricle.The floor of the third ventricle is formed by Optic chiasma, Tuber cinereum, Infundibulum, the Mammillary bodies, Posterior perforated substance, and Tegmentum of the midbrain. The lateral wall is formed by the Medial surface of the thalamus, Hypothalamus, and the Hypothalamic sulcus. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following structure is not present on floor of third ventricle?
A. Optic stalk
B. Third nerve
C. Infundibulum
D. Mammillary body
| Third nerve |
38810794-2735-4239-b36f-d9a509a2997f | Ans: B. >81 dB(Ref: http://wwwwlio.intipbaideulne.ssilieuring_impairment_gracies/en/)According to the WHO (2008) definition of hearing loss, hearing threshold in better ear >81 dB is classified as profound hearing loss.WHO (2008) Classification of Degree of Hearing LossHearing threshold in better ear (average of 500, 1000, Grade of Impairment0-25No impairment26-40Milddeg impairment41-60Moderatedeg impairment61-80SevereQ impairment>81Profound impairment including | ENT | null | According to the WHO definition of hearing loss, what is the value to classify as profound hearing loss?
A. 61-71 dB
B. >81 dB
C. >91 dB
D. >101 dB
| >81 dB |
3b150083-1a5e-49ef-bc36-41a06b677b32 | Phase 1 clinical trial : It is first phase in humans. It is conducted mainly on healthy volunteers. In drugs with serious adverse effects and where alternative treatment is not available, phase 1 can be conducted on patients also. Major aim is to know the maximum tolerable dose (MTD). The aim of phase 1 trials should be marked as MTD > Dose > Pharmacokinetics > Safety | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Major aim of phase 1 clinical trials is:
A. Safety
B. Efficacy
C. Dose
D. Pharmacokinetics
| Dose |
fe1ce20a-009c-45a2-8279-bff1d2e4abcf | Ans: B. 50Quaile:Type of quantile.In descriptive statistics - Quailes are ranked set of data values.Are 3 points dividing data set into four equal groups.Each group comprising quaer of data.1stquaile (Q1):25' percentile (splits off lowest 25% of data from highest 75%).2ndquaile (Q2):50' percentile (cuts data set in half).3rdquaile (Q3):75" percentile (splits off highest 25% of data from lowest 75%).Interquaile range (IQR):Difference between upper & lower quailes.IQR = Q3 - Q1.Per question:Between every two quailes one/ fouh of total number of patients present.I.e. 200/4 = 50 patients. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The blood pressure data of 200 persons were collected. The first quaile BP of the data was 94 mm Hg and third quaile was 110 mm. How many patients have blood pressures between the 3rd and 4th quaile?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
| 50 |
b687604e-5145-4aa3-ba07-56c624e501ec | Answer- C. Mean circulatory filling pressureMean Circulatory Filling pressure (MCFP) is equilibrium pressure that is reached throughout the cardiovascular system when cardiac output is stopped completely. MCFP can be measured by stopping blood flow (e.g., by stopping hea pumping by giving shock to hea with electricity) and allowing the pressure throughout the circulatory system to reach equilibrium. MCFP is equilibrium pressure everywhere in circulation. | Physiology | null | Which of the following defines the pressure in the vascular system in the absence of blood flow? (Asked twice)
A. Pulse pressure
B. Critical closing pressure
C. Mean circulatory filling pressure
D. Perfusion pressure
| Mean circulatory filling pressure |
e5e1f694-5bce-4ea7-8d47-b629076533e1 | “Abdominal circumfernece (AC) is the single most sensitive parameter to detect IUGR. Serial measurements of AC and estimations of fetal weight are more diagnostic to fetal growth restriction.”
Dutta 7/e, p 463
“The biometric parameters, AC is most affected by fetal growth”
Williams 24/e, p 199 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Best parameter for ultrasound evaluation of IUGR is:
A. Placental membrane
B. Length of femur
C. Abdominal circumference
D. BPD
| Abdominal circumference |
790947ee-b119-4f1f-ac07-8f0c5a701010 | Ans: C. Delta bilirubin(Ref Harrison 19/e p280, 18/e p325)Delta Bilirubin:Albumin-linked bilirubin fraction (delta fraction/biliprotein)Is pa of direct-reacting bilirubin fraction including conjugated bilirubin, covalently linked to albumin.Represents an impoant fraction of total serum bilirubin in patients with cholestasis & hepatobiliary disorders.Clearance rate of albumin-bound bilirubin from serum approximates half-life of albumin (12-14 days) rather than sho half-life of bilirubin (4 hours).Due to tight albumin bonding. | Pediatrics | null | In a child, surgery was done for biliary stricture with hepatojejunal anastomosis. Postoperative bilirubin level after 2 weeks was 6 mg/dL from a preoperative level 12mg/dL. The reason for this could be:
A. Normal lowering of bilirubin takes time
B. Anastomotic stricture
C. Delta bilirubin
D. Mistake in lab technique
| Delta bilirubin |
3084edf2-d176-43aa-87f4-412ea4098b47 | Ans. B: Normal HbF and normal HbA2Alpha (0) thalassemia -Individuals with this disorder are not able to produce any functional alpha-globin and thus are unable to make any functional hemoglobin A, F, or A2. This leads to the development of hydrops fetalis, also known as hemoglobin Ba, a condition that is incompatible with extra uterine life.Alpha (+) thalassemia - genetic mutations that result in decreased production of alpha-globin usually due to the functional deletion of 1 of the 4 alpha globin genes. Based on the number of inherited alpha genes, it is subclassified into 3 general forms:Thalassemia (-u/ a a) is characterized by inheritance of 3 normal a-genes. These patients are referred to clinically as silent carrier of alpha thalassemia. Other names for this condition are alpha thalassemia minima, alpha thalassemia-2 trait, and heterozygosity for alpha (+) thalassemia minor. The affected individuals exhibit no abnormality clinically and may be hematologically normal or have mild reductions in red cell mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH).Inheritance of 2 normal alpha genes due to either heterozygosity for alpha (0) thalassemia (u a/ --) or homozygosity for alpha (+) thalassemia (-u/-a) results in the development of alpha thalassemia minor or alpha thalassemia-1 trait. The affected individuals are clinically normal but frequently have minimal anemia and reduced mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH).Inheritance of one normal alpha gene (-a/ --) results in abundant formation of hemoglobin H. This condition is known as ElbH disease. The affected individuals have moderate to severe lifelong hemolytic anemia, modest degrees of ineffective erythropoiesis, splenomegaly and variable bony changesPersons with alpha-thalassemia traits have normal HbA2 and HbF levels whereas beta- thalassemia patients have elevated HbA2 | Medicine | null | In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows:March 2005
A. Increased HbF and normal HbA2
B. Normal HbF and normal HbA2
C. Normal HbF and decreased HbA2
D. Decreased HbF and normal HbA2
| Normal HbF and normal HbA2 |
070ff387-f612-43ac-a23e-ab3e8ed192b4 | Ans: C. Change in paial weight of lungs(Ref: Reddy 34/e p411, 33/e p439).In assessing infant deaths, Ploucquet's test involves change in paial weight of lungs.Ploucquet's test:The blood flow in the lung beds is so increased after breathing that their weight is almost doubled from 1/70 of the body weight before respiration to 1/35 after respiration.This increase in weight is not constant and is not a reliable indication of breathing. | Forensic Medicine | null | In assessing infant deaths, Ploucquet's test involves:
A. Change in specific gravity of lungs
B. Presence of air in stomach and duodenum
C. Change in paial weight of lungs
D. Air in middle ear
| Change in paial weight of lungs |
b0060b73-4e6b-4537-a556-c1fb94a65c4a | Ans. d. Functional vision loss (Ref Kanski 6/e p 477, 790, 792-793)The most likely diagnosis in this young lady who presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light and normal examination findings including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus, who is able to touch tips of her finger with right eye closed but not with left eye closed, is functional vision loss. | Ophthalmology | null | A 25-year-old lady presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light. Rest of the examination including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus are normal. She was able to touch the tips of her fingers with her right eye closed but not with her left eye closed. The most like1 tgnosis is:
A. Optic neuritis
B. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
C. CMV retinitis
D. Functional vision loss
| Functional vision loss |
624cf635-1421-416e-978a-996781f350c0 | Ans. a. Varicella zosterA 60-year-old male presents with painful, grouped vesicles over erythematous plaques in T dermatome region of trunk. Varicella zoster is the most likely causative organism. | ENT | null | A 60-year old male presents with painful, 141 oupet. vesicles over erythematous plaques in T3 dermatome region of trunk. Which of the following would be the most likely causative organism?
A. Varicella zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. Pox virus
D. Papilloma virus
| Varicella zoster |
e7278113-c555-4128-a8df-cbd10ca7833f | Answer- C. 30 mgDrug remains in the body at the end of 4th 90 minutes (6 hours) : 48.7 -18.3 = 30.4 (Approx. 30 mg) | Pharmacology | null | A patient is administered 200 mg of a drug. 75 mg of the drug is eliminated from the body in 90 minutes. If the drug follows first order kinetics, how much drug will remain after 6 hours?
A. 12.5 mg
B. 25 mg
C. 30 mg
D. 50 mg
| 30 mg |
6506849d-8885-4adf-88b7-4e010e026d6c | Ans: A. Total bihs* PERINATAL MOALITY RATE is the sum of the number of resident fetal deaths of 28 or more weeks gestation plus the number of resident newborns dying under 7 days of age in a specified geographic area (country, state, county, etc.) divided by TOTAL BIHS includes the sum of the number of resident live bihs plus the number of resident fetal deaths of 28 or more weeks gestation for the same geographic area (for a specified time period, usually a calendar year) and multiplied by 1,000. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Denominator in perinatal moality rate
A. Total bihs
B. Total live bihs
C. Live bihs + Still bih
D. Total number of newborns
| Total bihs |
1d7028cb-08b7-422e-8feb-26392e8f97dc | The second number of a four-number code indicates the primary cutting edge angle, measured from a line parallel to the long axis of the instrument handle in clockwise centigrade.
The centigrade angle is expressed as a percent of 360 degrees (e.g., 85 = 85% × 360 degrees = 306 degrees). The instrument is positioned so that this number always exceeds 50.
Sturdevants operative dentistry 7th edition page e2 | Dental | null | According to instrument formula given by G.V. Black, primary cutting edge angle should be:
A. More than 50 degree
B. More than 90 degree
C. Less than 50 degree
D. Less than 90 degree
| More than 50 degree |
81a24a92-4459-4999-9c49-6ee91a6182a3 | Ans: C. Complete description of injury as seenRef KSN Reddy's The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 33' edn; Page no. 97Impoant: The order of Bite mark investigation: C > B > A> DBite Mark InvestigationComplete description of injury as seenPhotograph: Keep scale for measuring below the mark and take photo from different angle.Swabbing of saliva: To identify or exclude assailant from secretor status who exude blood group substance in the saliva.Impression of bite mark: Plastic substance (rubber or silicone based) or plaster of Paris is laid over the bite mark that hardens and produces permanent negative cast of the lesion.Skin carrying the bite is removed and preserved in formalin during autopsy. | Forensic Medicine | null | Concentric teeth bite mark on forearm, what to do next?
A. 2 swab technique for saliva collection
B. Keep scale for measuring below the mark and take photo in the plane of bite
C. Complete description of injury as seen
D. Prepare cast using vinyl polysiloxane
| Complete description of injury as seen |
36eda6ec-6654-41ba-937b-60a3052e6c49 | Ans. d. Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference The given description suggests that the patient is having delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference.Delusion of grandeurExaggerated conception of one's impoance, power, or identity.Delusion of persecutionFalse belief of being harassed or persecuted; often found in litigious patients who have a pathological tendency to take legal action because of imagined mistreatment.MC delusion.Delusion of referenceFalse belief that behavior of others refers to oneself or that events, objects, or other people have a paicular & unusual significance, usually of a negative natureDerived from idea of reference, in which persons falsely feel that others are talking about them (e.g., belief that people on television or radio are talking to or about the person). | Psychiatry | null | A patient believes he is the most impoant person in the world than anyone so his neighbors and family is trying to harm him as they are jealous of him. His wife says otherwise and says he behaves like this recently only before he was working as a school-teacher peacefully and brought to OPD. He is suffering from:
A. Delusion of grandiosity
B. Delusion of persecution
C. Delusion of grandiosity and persecution
D. Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference
| Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference |
e8aa61af-a6f5-49ed-a221-93765caf901f | Flow cytometry can rapidly and quantitatively measure several individual cell characteristics, but is mainly used to identify cellular antigens expressed by liquidtumors , those that arise from blood forming tissues. Hyper IgM syndrome - In this disorder the affected patients make IgM antibodies but are deficient in their ability to produce IgG, IgA and IgE antibodies. There is problem in Ig class switching. Approximately 70%of individuals with hyper lgM syndrome have the X linked form of the disease , caused by mutations in the gene coding CD40L located on Xq26. In remaining patients,the disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Most of these patients have loss of function mutation involving either CD40 or enzyme called AID. So, B-cells can be detected by flowcytometryhaving low expression of CD40. Bruton's disease -In this disease, there is defect in B-cell tyrosine kinase enzyme. This leads to hypogammaglobulinemia. Bare lymphocyte syndrome- In this disorder, There is defect in MHC-2 molecule which is required for CD4 T-cell formation. SCID - This is both X-linked and autosomal recessive disorder. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following diseases is diagnosed with the help of the flowcytometry pattern?
A. Bruton disease
B. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
| Hyper IgM syndrome |
9a292f87-6a2d-4bba-bcee-f11ca9a94c73 | Ans: D. Frozen specimenFor Connective Tissue and LipidsName of stainElements stainedTrichrome StainCollagenVerhoeff-Van Gieson stain (Best for Elastin)Elastic fibersLuna stainElastin & Mast cellsSilver Methenamine stainReticulinOil red '0' stain (on Fresh specimen)Sudan black (on fixed specimen)FatMallory's PTAH stainMuscle striationsMaius scarlet blue (MSB)FibrinPAS, Silver Methenamine stainBasement membraneBielschowsky (silver stain)Neurofibrillary tangles senile plaquesLuxol fast blueMyelin(Ref Netter :s* Essential Histology 2/e p479) | Pathology | null | Oil red '0' stain is used for:
A. Glutaraldehyde fixed specimen
B. Alcohol fixed specimen
C. Formalin fixed specimen
D. Frozen specimen
| Frozen specimen |
62081a5c-5ffc-4a88-9aca-c9e430490e73 | Ans. a. Airway maintenanceThe primary survey aims to identify and manage the most immediately life-threatening pathologies first and follows ABCDE.c- exsanguinating external hemorrhageA- Airway maintenanceB- Breathing & ventilationC- Circulation & hemorrhageD- DisabilityE- Exposure | Surgery | null | A female with suspected child abuse was brought to the casualty with severe bleeding from the perineum. What should be the first line of management?
A. Airway maintenance
B. Internal iliac aery ligation
C. Whole blood transfusion
D. Inform police before staing the treatment
| Airway maintenance |
33a697bc-627a-4a24-b381-19c181fcdded | A history of Anuria suggests Acute Renal failure.
Ultrasonography is the ideal imaging tool in Renal failure because of its non dependence on Renal function.
As it allows visualization of :
Pelvicalyceal system ofAssessment of Renal Size o Structural anomalies and calculi .
Note - In this question DTPA scan has not been provided as an option. So, the best answer is USG. | Pediatrics | null | Method of choice for a New born child not passing urine for 36 hours :
A. Ultrasound of kidney & bladder
B. CT Scan
C. Cystoscopy
D. X–ray pelvis
| Ultrasound of kidney & bladder |
3f6665ca-6b69-4345-88c2-72c2befd4d18 | The nerve marked in the diagram is oculomotor nerve. It supplies superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and inferior oblique. Superior oblique is supplied by Trochlear nerve. | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following muscle is not supplied by the nerve marked in the diagram?
A. Superior oblique
B. Medial rectus
C. Inferior rectus
D. Inferior oblique
| Superior oblique |
47f8f5d9-4611-4a68-9e8f-2993951ccc95 | Abducent nerve: Only cranial nerve passing through the centre of cavernous sinus. | Anatomy | null | Which is a direct content of cavernous sinus?
A. Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
B. Trochlear nerve
C. Abducent nerve
D. Oculomotor nerve
| Abducent nerve |
d2a908d2-59df-4591-9a9c-1212a0ce7347 | Answer- C. Positional asphyxiaKeeping in Jack-knife position for long leads to death by positional asphyxia."Postural or Positional Asphyxia":Occasionally, it results from indirect compression, when the body is subjected to force in such a manner that his thighs and the knees are driven against his chest, the so-called "Jack-Knife" position. There is usually marked congestion, cyanosis, and petechiae in the face and neck.This occurs when the individual acquires a ceain body position in which breathing is impaired, often because of neck twisting with kinking or compression of trachea and/or elevation of the tongue into the posterior hypopharynx. Normal venous return to the hea may be impaired.The body is typically inveed (upside-down) & weight of abdominal contents press against the diaphragm pushing it upwards, thus compressing the thoracic organs, which combined with decreased respiratory movements, leads to cardiorespiratory failure & death.It is always accidental | Forensic Medicine | null | Keeping in Jack-knife position for long leads to death by:
A. Wedging
B. Burking
C. Positional asphyxia
D. Traumatic asphyxia
| Positional asphyxia |
aefae2fe-eb5f-411d-95a2-e7823c010a40 | Crouzon syndrome can have following appearances/conditions | Pathology | null | Which of the following features is not seen in Crouzon syndrome?
A. Midface hypoplasia
B. Syndactyly
C. Beak shaped nose
D. Ocular hypertelorism
| Syndactyly |
5682860b-5ef4-4c1d-88b4-eb81546548ba | Down Syndrome– (Trisomy 21)
Seen in 11n 800 to 1000 newborns
M/C Nonlethal trisomy
Risk of Down syndrome increases with increase in maternal age
At maternal age of 35 years, the risk of having a baby with Down syndrome is 1:365. to 1:400.
Recurrent Risk of Down’s syndrome | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Kamlesh, a 2 year old girl, has Down's syndrome. Her karyotype is 21/21 translocation. What is the risk ofrecurrence in subsequent pregnancies if the father is a balanced translocation carrier :
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 0%
| 100% |
315212cd-d605-4f61-8d4e-535ef7847059 | Granulomatous skin diseases may have a characteristic appearance under diascopy, such as in lupus vulgaris (cutaneous tuberculosis), in which ‘apple jelly nodules’ are typically seen on diascopy.
Ref: Davidson Ed 23 Pg 1214 | Medicine | null | Which of the following is characterized by Apple Jelly Nodules?
A. Scrofula
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. Ghon’s focus
D. Ghon's complex
| Lupus vulgaris |
710d1f09-b5eb-46b7-b5b7-801b1ebe3341 | diagnosis Polycythemia Vera Polycythemia | platelet | WBL | | RBC | JAK2 mutation Polycythemia Vera | WBC | Basohils | histamine release - contribute to hot flushes or itching Every time patient takes bath (aquagenic pruritis) impoant diagnostic feature: Serum erythropoietin level below normal. Impoant diagnostic feature: Serum erythropoietin level below normal. Rx=Hydroxyurea Cells count control Option A- PMF Should show SplenoHepatomegaly Pancytopenia No TLC RBC drop mentioned Option B- CML ||| WBL upto 1 lakh Jak2 must along with bcr-abl fusion transcription present. Option D- Essential thrombocytosis Leads to |only platelet count initially other counts will increase Later significant increase in platelet count upto 5-6 lakh approx.: less in our of answer. | Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | A 40 year male complaining of hot flushes each time he baths. Hb: 20%gm, Platelet: 89,000/mL, WBC: 30,000/mL, Investigation revealed JAK2 mutation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. PMF
B. CML
C. PCV
D. Essential thrombocytosis
| PCV |
e59188f6-856a-4300-a2fa-176a8a1b030a | Answer- D. Serum creatinine levelsDM can lead to both retinopathy and nephropathy, Serum creatinine levels would be the best for kidney function and evaluation of patient symptoms. | Medicine | null | A 55- year old diabetic patient presents with transient obscuration in vision for 2-3 days followed by sudden loss of vision. Which of the following would be the best test to evaluate the symptoms?
A. Serum ACE levels
B. Quantiferon-Gold TB test
C. Elevated homocysteine levels
D. Serum creatinine levels
| Serum creatinine levels |
100d2a31-8f28-4500-99c9-67690fe15625 | Ans: D .Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors(Ref: Goodman Gilman 13/e p108, 12Ie p255; Katzung 13Ie p108, 12/e p98).Ganglionic transmission is mediated by nicotinic receptors present post-synaptically.Nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor mediates neurotransmission post-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction and peripheral autonomic ganglia.In CNS, controls release of neurotransmitters from presynaptic sites.The receptor is called the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor - Due to both alkaloid nicotine & neurotransmitter ACh can stimulate the receptor. | Pharmacology | null | Ganglionic transmission is mediated by:
A. Presynaptic alpha-receptors
B. Postsynaptic beta-receptors
C. Postsynaptic dopaminergic receptors
D. Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors
| Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors |
c86f02db-18ea-4ef1-a03a-1bee6d661c7b | Answer- D. Bloom syndromeUniparental disomy is the term used when both chromosome of a pair of chromosome is a person with normal number of chromosome, have been inherited from only one parent (Normally one chromosome of a pair is inherited from only one parent).The two chromosomes inherited from the same parent maybe identical (Uniparental isodisomy) or different (Uniparental heterodisomy).In Uniparental isodisomy, both chromosomes in the pair are identical; consequently the genes on both chromosomes are also identical.Angelman syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome and Russell-Silver syndrome are ossociated with uniparental disomy. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is not an example of a syndrome caused by uniparental disomy?
A. Prader-Willi syndrome
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Russell-Silver syndrome
D. Bloom syndrome
| Bloom syndrome |
f7469b1f-dda2-476a-9b27-312a080e0c8a | Ans. d. Cryptosporidium hominisOppounistic infections are extremely common post-transplant in the period staing from 1 month post-transplant to 6 months post-transplant.Clostridium difficle is usually seen within 1 month post-transplant because of profound antibiotic use.Kinoyn stain (Modified acid fast) positivity rules out Balantidium.Now it is between cryptosporidium vs cycloisospora. Size (smaller i.e., 2-6 microns) tells us that the organism is undoubtedly cryptosporidium hominis (previously parvum). | Microbiology | null | Postrenal transplant patient presents with diarrhoea after 3 months; it was showing organism measuring 2-6 micron meter and kinoyn stain positive. Most likely it is caused by:
A. Balantidium coli
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Cystoisospora belli
D. Cryptosporidium hominis
| Cryptosporidium hominis |
40a69530-6238-4f33-8003-86d143d6de77 | GI Luminal non-heme iron is mostly in the Fe3+ (ferric) state and must first be reduced to Fe2+ ferrous) iron by ferrireductases, such as b cytochromes and STEAP3. Fe2+ iron is then transpoed across the apical membrane of enterocytes by divalent metal transpoer-1 (DMT1). | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Iron entry into enterocytes occurs which of the following?
A. DMT-1
B. Ferropoin
C. Transferrin
D. Hepcidin
| DMT-1 |
44483815-3319-493d-b156-d3663a4d61a1 | Ans-D. Sickle cell anaemia* PPSV23 (Pneumovax or Pnu-Immune) is the most widely available formulation and contains 23 pneumococcal polysaccharides* A single dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is indicated for adults (ages 19 to 64 years)* Vaccination with both PCV13 and PPSV23 is indicated in individuals with impaired splenic function for eg- Sickle cell disease or other hemoglobinopathy | Microbiology | null | 23 serotypes pneumococcal vaccine Most useful in
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Recurrent otitis media & sinusitis
C. Child less than 2 years
D. Sickle cell anaemia
| Sickle cell anaemia |
fd315adc-df4b-4a81-895b-6f093eeb71b2 | Indications of tonsillectomy
Recurrent sore throat —› If more than six attacks of tonsillitis in a year for two consecutive years.
Tonsillar or peritonsillar abscess o Retention cyst of tonsil o Diphtheria carriers
Tonsillolith o Suspicious malignancy o Obustructive sleep apnea | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is an indiction for tonsillectomy –a) Rheumatic feverb) Glomerulonephritisc) Recurrent upper respiratory infectiond) Persistent carrier of diptheria bacilli
A. ab
B. cd
C. bd
D. ac
| cd |
9c176b2e-017d-4b57-902a-3637bdf4dff8 | Constriction of efferent aeriole has biphasic effect on GFR. At moderate levels of constriction, It increases glomerular hydrostatic pressure resulting in increasing GFR If efferent aeriolar constriction is severe; It decreases renal blood flow; filtration fraction & glomerular colloid osmotic pressure increases as efferent aeriolar resistance increases resulting in colloid osmotic pressure exceeds increase in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting in decrease in GFR. Blood from efferent aerioles enter peritubular capillaries, so if efferent aeriole is constricted, less blood enters peritubular capillaries, which results in increase in oncotic pressure in peri tubular capillaries. | Physiology | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following is not an effect of efferent aeriole constriction :
A. Decreased GFR
B. Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
C. Decreased blood flow in peritubular vessels
D. Increased oncotic pressure in peritubular vessels
| Decreased GFR |
4bfec2de-e6e7-41c6-bbe9-3dc864f9d719 | Answer- c- point mutation.Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the b-globin chain of hemoglobin, causing the hydrophilic amino acid glutamic acid to be replaced with the hydrophobic amino acid valine at the sixth position.It is caused by a point mutation (Base substitution mutation) at the sixth position of the b-globin chain leading to subsitution of a valine residue for a glutamic acid residue resulting in sickle hemoglobin (HbS).Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder. | Biochemistry | null | Sickle cell anemia is a -
A. Gene deletion
B. Gene modification
C. Point mutation
D. Frame shift mutation
| Point mutation |
cb8ad6b2-009b-443e-9237-85b46e3a87a5 | Humby Knife A knife with a roller attached, used for cutting skin grafts of varying thickness The distance between the roller and blade of knife can be varied by means of a calibration device. | Surgery | AIIMS 2018 | What is the name of the given instrument, used for harvesting the graft from healthy area in split thickness skin graft?
A. Dermatome
B. Silver's knife
C. Catlin amputating knife
D. Humby knife
| Humby knife |
2902efec-b01a-417c-94b9-406e94662f27 | Ans: A. Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more(Ref: Park 24/e p188-189, 23/e p178: 22/e p 168; htip://tbcindia.nic.in)A contact of confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient - TB suspect.If persistent cough of any duration (2 weeks is not required).TB suspects:Pulmonary TB Suspect:Defined as:Any individual having cough of >2 weeks.Contacts of smear positive TB patients having cough of any duration.Suspected/confirmed extra-pulmonary TB patient having cough of any duration.HIV-positive patient having cough of any duration.MDR-TB Suspect:Any TB patient who fails an RNTCP Category failing I or III treatment regimen.Any RNTCP Category II patient with sputum smear positive at end of 4th month of treatment or later.Close contacts of MDR-TB patients with smear positive pulmonary TB. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | According to the new RNTCP guidelines, the following is not a suspect of tuberculosis
A. Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more
B. HIV-positive patient with cough of any duration
C. Contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient with cough of any duration
D. Any individual having cough of duration 2 weeks or more
| Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more |
e21be124-85de-4313-bc26-ff82218fce73 | The mesiobuccal pulphorn of permanent maxillary 1st molar is commonly exposed during cavity preparation.
Mesiolingual pulphorn of permanent mandibular 1st molar is commonly exposed during cavity preparation.
Mesiobuccal pulphorn of primary 1st molars is commonly exposed during restorative procedures on primary molars. | Dental | null | Which of the following pulp horn of primary molar is commonly exposed during restorative procedures:
A. Mesiobuccal puplhorn of 1st molars.
B. Distobuccal pulp horn of 1st molars.
C. Mesiobuccal pulp horn of 2nd molars.
D. Distobuccal pulp horn of 2nd molars.
| Mesiobuccal puplhorn of 1st molars. |
535bf03d-8714-46a8-84a0-13bf499129f7 | Ans: A. tRNA of alanineSmall nuclear RNAs contain a unique 5'-caps. Sm-class snRNAs are found with 5'-trimethylguanosine caps, while Lsm-class snRNAs are found with S'-monomethyl phosphate caps.mRNAs do have a 7-methylguanylate cap, abbreted m7G.tRNAs and rRNAs don't require 5' capping. They have other modifications. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following does not require 5'capping?
A. tRNA of alanine
B. mRNA for histone
C. U6 snRNA
D. siRNA
| tRNA of alanine |
965fa6a2-969e-4b51-bdb7-934a02c809f6 | Ans: A. Obstruction of sub-dermal lymphaticsPeau-d-orange is due to cutaneous lymphatic edema.Caused by obstruction of subdermal lymphatics. As the disease advances locally there may be skin involvement with peau d'orange or frank ulceration and fixation to the chest wall. This is described as cancer-en-cuirasse when the disease progresses around the chest wall. | Surgery | null | Peau d'orange in carcinoma breast is due to:
A. Obstruction of sub-dermal lymphatics
B. Infiltration of Cooper's ligament
C. Hematogenous dissemination
D. Hematogenous dissemination
| Obstruction of sub-dermal lymphatics |
59ade17d-2139-4c4b-b0b5-ec6d6cf3c073 | Ans. A. Ulcerated infantile hemangiomaRef: <a href=" hemangiomas (IHs) are the most common benign pediatric soft-tissue tumors.</li>Ulceration--the most frequent complication of IH--tends to heal poorly and is associated with pain, bleeding, infection, and scarring.Mainstay treatment modalities include propranolol (b-blocker) and coicosteroids, whose effectiveness is countered by a need for long-term medication and risk of systemic adverse effects and ulcer recurrence. | Pharmacology | null | Propranolol is drug of choice for -
A. Ulcerated infantile hemangioma
B. Lymphangioma
C. Pyogenic granuloma
D. Capillary malformation
| Ulcerated infantile hemangioma |
e62b12e5-0a92-44d3-95b0-33bbf59bd891 | Capping of mRNA in eukaryotes: 7-Methyl Guanosine cap is added at the 5' end of mRNA by enzyme Guanylyl Transferase. So, this is RNA methylation, not DNA. DNA methylation Epigenetic mechanism Transfer of methyl group to C5 position of cytosine to form 5-methyl cytosine. DNA replication Dnmt (DNA methyl transferases) during DNA replication to copy DNA methylation pattern from parental strand to daughter strand Mismatch repair -Identify parent strand with help of CH3 | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2020 | DNA Methylation is not related with?
A. Mismatch repair
B. DNA Replication
C. Gene silencing
D. Capping
| Capping |
044e8f11-ca21-4220-9ddc-0fca648ed401 | Ans. b. NerinNerium odorum (white oleander, kanero) grows wild in India.. Seed pod is slim, cylindrical, ribbed, up to l5 cm. long, tums brown, dries and splits, releasing small seeds tipped withbrown hair.. All pas of the plant including nectar are poisonousq.. It contains several cardiac glycosides, primarily:- Oleandrosidee (Oleandrin) and Nerioside (Nerin), both of which resembles digitalis in action- Folinerin- Rosagenin | Forensic Medicine | null | The active principle of white oleander is:
A. Nicotine
B. Nerin
C. Abrine
D. Pilocarpine
| Nerin |
55093e71-8916-4f25-9524-9425d51455e1 | chest x-ray of an infant with RDS is characterized by atelectasis, air bronchograms, and a diffuse reticular-granular pattern commonly referred to as "ground glass". The chest x-ray may progress to a complete "white out" with severe disease.
About other options
Antenatal corticosteroids are given in pre-term (pre-mature) pregnancies not in term pregnancies. Further, antenatal corticosteroids are given to prevent RDS (HMD) --> after antenatal corticosteroids administration, risk of HMD is reduced.
Respiratory distress occurs within first 6 hours.
HMD occurs in pre-term neonate. | Pediatrics | null | A term gestation newborn developed respiratory distress. Which of the following would favour Respiratory distress syndrome (HIVID) ?
A. History of receiving antenatal corticosteroids
B. Air bronchogram on chest x–ray
C. Onset of distress after 6 hours of birth
D. Term birth
| Air bronchogram on chest x–ray |
80066b5e-d621-4912-b7fd-f1e867a9c8d4 | Answer- C. High calorie low volumeLimiting fluids, eating a low-protein diet, limiting salt, potassium, phosphorous, and other electrolytes, and getting enough calories if you are losing weight. | Medicine | null | Renal feed for CKD patients-
A. Low calorie low volume
B. Low calorie high volume
C. High calorie low volume
D. High calorie high volume
| High calorie low volume |
b9d0ecb7-910b-4740-a744-5e7fa0780a3e | Answer- C. 18Each gram of hemoglobin can bind with a maximum of 1.34 milliliters of oxygen (1.39 milliliters when the hemoglobin is chemically pure, but impurities such as methemoglobin reduce this).Here, Hb = 14.Hence, oxygen carrying capacity: l.34 x 14 = 18 mLO2/dL | Physiology | null | What will be the oxygen carrying capacity of an 18-year-old patient with a hemoglobin of 14 g/dL?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 18
D. 28
| 18 |
179b5138-d8ce-4e02-9445-ada73b642671 | Ans: A. PCRReverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (-PCR) It is a laboratory technique combining reverse transcription of RNA into DNA (in this context called complementary DNA or cDNA) and amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction (PCR).It is primarily used to measure the amount of a specific RNA. This is achieved by monitoring the amplification reaction using fluorescence, a technique called real-time PCR or quantitative PCR (qPCR). Combined -PCR and qPCR are routinely used for the analysis of gene expression and quantification of viral RNA in research and clinical settings.A method used to quantitate mRNA levels that rely upon the first step of cDNA copying of mRNAs catalyzed by reverse transcriptase before PCR amplification and quantitation. Sanger sequencing,Also known as the chain termination method, is a technique for DNA sequencing-based upon the selective incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) by DNA polymerase during in vitro DNA replication.Next-generation sequencing:Modified methods of genome sequencing. It has significantly reduced the cost and time taken for whole-genome sequencing.It is a technique similar to Sanger sequencing, done on DNA | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following techniques is based on RNA?
A. PCR
B. Sanger's technique
C. Next generation sequencing
D. Western blot
| PCR |
ad195e5d-7f52-42cc-a183-b05e3181d0ab | Ans: B. Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1634-1636, 18/2170-2177)Findings indicate patient most probably suffering from massive pulmonary embolism.Management of Massive Pulmonary Embolism:For patients with massive PE & hypotension, replete volume with 500 mL of normal saline.Additional fluid should be infused with extreme caution-Due to excessive fluid administration exacerbates RV wall stress a more profound RV ischemia & worsens LV compliance and filling.Dopamine & dobutamine - 1st line inotropic agents for PE-related shock treatment.Fibrinolysis in Massive Pulmonary Embolism:Preferred fibrinolytic regimen: Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).Contraindications: Intracranial disease, recent surgery & trauma. | Medicine | null | A 40 years old female presented with acute onset shoness of breath. She has a history of nephrotic syndrome 1 year back and recent prolonged air travel. She has a BP of 90/60 mm Hg, hea rate of 115 per minute and sinus tachycardia on ECG. A 2-D echocardiogram revealed dilation of right ventricle with bulging of the interventricular septum to the left. What will be the primary treatment modality?
A. Thrombectomy
B. Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator
C. Unfractionated heparin
D. d. IVC filter
| Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator |
93d8bac0-76ae-4440-91c0-fa3b724bbc65 | Answer- B (Vaginal delievery)Vaginal delivery increases risk of mother to childhood transmission of HIV.'HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, avoiding breast feeding decreases the mother to child transmission of HIV.' | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following will not decrease mother to child transmission of HIV?
A. Avoid breastfeeding
B. Vaginal delivery
C. Zidovudine given to mother antenataly and to neonate after bih
D. Vitamin A supplementation given to mother
| Vaginal delivery |
4c0b406e-5d78-4f1d-99ca-c51f8d240e4f | Ans: A. Yellow colored sputum(Ref Reddy 33/e p325-326: Parikh 6/e p4. /60)Yellow sputum/ phlegm = Mostly a sign of bacterial infection.In burns takes time to develop.Grade 3 burns:Sputum with carbonaceous colored.Singeing of facial hair, burns on face, soot marks & singed eyebrows or facial hair - Indicative of acute burns inhalational injury.Features of inhalation injury:Characteristic:History of fire in an enclosed space.Burns of face.Singed nasal & facial hair.Inflamed pharyngeal mucosa.Carbonaceous sputum.Evidence of edematous glottis (e.g., hoarseness). | Forensic Medicine | null | A 38 years old female presented to the emergency with extensive burns. The patient had grade 3 burns on the face, back, upper arms and forearms along with singeing of hairs. Which of the following is not a proof of inhalation burns?
A. Yellow colored sputum
B. Blackish soot deposit on posterior pa of tongue
C. Hoarseness & stridor of voice
D. Singeing of eyebrows and facial hair
| Yellow colored sputum |
864ebcb5-85f5-45eb-a209-5d14ef53e787 | Ans: B. Angle of the jawJudicial Hanging:Placement of knot beneath the chin (submental position) - Most effective.Ensures quicker death.In India & UK, left sub-aural (below the angle of the jaw) knot - Preferred for hanging.Process:The rope is looped around the neck & person is allowed to drop for 5-7 meters - According to weight, age & build of the person.A sudden stop causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of C2-C3 or C3-C4 veebra & rupture of brain stem between pons & medulla.Death is instantaneous.Hea-beat may continue for 15-20 minutes & spasmodic muscle jerking may occur for a considerable time. | Forensic Medicine | null | In judicial hanging, the knot is placed at:
A. Below the chin
B. Angle of the jaw
C. The back of the neck
D. Choice of hangman
| Angle of the jaw |
13088525-20c1-4b21-8fba-f48097969211 | Trigeminal nerve is the 5th cranial nerve. It is a mixed nerve containing both the motor and sensory fibres but predominantly it is sensory.
It is a motor nerve to the muscles of mastication and several small muscles and the principal sensory nerve of the head and face.
It consists of three large nerves: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular, hence the name trigeminal nerve (L. trigeminus = triplet).
Key concept:
Mandibular nerve supplies muscles of mastication mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, and tensor tympani.
Posterior belly of digastric and stapedius are supplied by Facial nerve. | Anatomy | null | The fifth nerve innervates the following:
A. Mylohyoid, anterior and posterior belly of digastric
B. Mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, and tensor tympani
C. Mylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric and tensor tympani
D. Mylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric, Stapedius and tensor tympani
| Mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, and tensor tympani |
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