id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
935d46c0-448d-4005-8891-f953a4b43af0 | Haptoglobin is a glycoprotein synthesized in the liver that binds free hemoglobin. Its scavenging function counteracts the potentially harmful oxidative and nitric oxide-scavenging effects associated with "free" hemoglobin. Low haptoglobin is considered an indicator of hemolysis. But it is increased in biliary obstruction, hence it will mask the effect of hemolysis on haptoglobin. Increased in: Acute and chronic infection (acute-phase reactant) Malignancy Biliary obstruction Ulcerative colitis Myocardial infarction Diabetes mellitus Decreased in: Newborns and children Pregnancy Malnutrition Posttransfusion Intravascular hemolysis Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Liver disease Ref: Nicoll D., Lu C.M., Pignone M., McPhee S.J. (2012). Chapter 3. Common Laboratory Tests: Selection and Interpretation. In D. Nicoll, C.M. Lu, M. Pignone, S.J. McPhee (Eds), Pocket Guide to Diagnostic Tests, 6e. | Pathology | null | Which of the following condition masks low serum haptoglobin in hemolysis?
A. Bile duct obstruction
B. Liver disease
C. Malnutrition
D. Pregnancy
| Bile duct obstruction |
1c782070-7770-4f92-bd24-c75648a6648f | Types of venom -- may be * Neurotoxic -- cobra, krait * Hemotoxic -- vipers * Myotoxic -- sea snake NEUROTOXIC in krait,eventhough it is neurotoxic,there is no swelling or burning pain at the site of bite and convulsions are milder REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | Which of the following snake produces paralysis with convulsions -
A. Vipers
B. Sea Snakes
C. Cobra
D. Krait
| Cobra |
faadc75e-08fe-4018-92aa-46db40c79f9c | (a) Fissure of Santorini(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 1981)The notch of Rivinus is the upper attachment of pars flaccida.Petro-tympanic fissure is present on the anterior wall of middle ear, on which attaches the anterior malleolar ligament.Retropharyngeal fissure does not exist. | ENT | Ear | Dehiscence in the external auditory canal cause infection in the parotid gland via:
A. Fissure of Santorini
B. Notch of Rivinus
C. Petro-tympanic fissure
D. Retro pharyngeal fissure
| Fissure of Santorini |
61d9c55c-2527-4bf5-ba6e-083cb2b9a24b | The polyps of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are generally considered to be hamaomas Hamaomatous polyps (usually <100) throughout the GIT, most common in jejunum Associated with Hypermelanotic macule in the perioral region, buccal mucosa. Mucocutaneous pigmentation usually occurs during infancy and most commonly noted in perioral and buccal region. Pigment spots usually appear in first few years of life, reach a maximum level in early adolescence and can fade in adulthood. However, pigmentation on the buccal mucosa remains throughout the life. The pigmented macules of PJS have no malignant potential. Screening consists of a baseline colonoscopy and upper endoscopy at age 20 years, followed by annual flexible sigmoidoscopy thereafter. | Surgery | Large intestine | Lalita, a female patient presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and intestinal polyps. Her sister also gives the same history. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Carcinoid tumor
B. Melanoma
C. Villous adenoma
D. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
| Peutz-Jegher's syndrome |
d7450178-fea3-4e61-ae85-7a091965340d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta cell Nesidioblastoma is due to hyperplasia of B cell of panceatic islets. | Pathology | null | Nesidioblastoma is due to hyperplasia of?
A. Alpha cell
B. Beta cell
C. Acinus
D. D cells
| Beta cell |
4d9ce514-0813-474c-a6d2-56362d9c6085 | Vitamin B12 is required for conversion of methionine to homocysteine and for the formation of succinyl CoA from methylmalonyl CoA.
Deficiency of vitamin B12 results in megaloblastic anemia, GI manifestations and neurological abnormalities (due to demyelination).
Folic acid alone will correct the symptoms of megaloblastic anemia but it does not prevent neurological abnormalities, which continue to proceed.
Neurological abnormalities manifest initially in the form of loss of posterior column sensations (vibration, proprioception etc.), but later on, can result in subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. | Pharmacology | null | In the treatment of undiagnosed megaloblastic anemia, vitamin B12 and folic acid should be given together because :
A. Vitamin B12 acts as a cofactor for dihydrofolate reductase
B. Folic acid alone causes improvement of anemic symptoms but neurological dysfunction continues.
C. Vitamin B12, deficiency may result in methylfolate trap
D. Folic acid is required for conversion of methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA.
| Folic acid alone causes improvement of anemic symptoms but neurological dysfunction continues. |
d75c1716-d29c-4c93-94d6-59fdb41a1ce5 | E. coli & streptococcus agalactie (group B streptococci) are the two most common cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis | Pediatrics | null | Most common cause of neonatal meningitis –
A. Staphylococcus
B. E. coli
C. H. influenze
D. Pneumococcus
| E. coli |
4bf5714d-d064-4fc7-aaa1-2353848261ca | C i.e. Carpometacarpal joint 1st carpometacarpal joint (cmj) is the only cmj with seperate joint cavity so the movements are much free. Flexion- extension (in the plane of palm), adduction - abduction (at right angles to the plane of palm), opposition & circumduction, movements of thumbQ take place at 1st CM Joint. | Anatomy | null | Adduction of thumb occurs at:
A. Inter carpal joint
B. MCP joint
C. Carpometacarpal joint
D. Inter phalangeal joint
| Carpometacarpal joint |
bedc6844-c0a6-4c77-bf1a-a2a041b9f0c3 | Meniere's disease is due to raised endolymphatic pressure and clinically presents with vertigo, tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss and sense of aural fullness. Vertigo can be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Choice (a) is excluded due to conductive loss, (b) due to headache and ear discharge, and (c) due to headache. Presence of headache with vertigo and tinnitus may be a feature of neurological disorder. | ENT | Ear | Meniere's disease is characterised by:
A. Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
B. Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
C. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
D. Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss
| Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss |
ed8739e7-b49e-4cf7-bc0e-6b329ed7cbee | Antigenic variations in Influenza Antigenic shift Antigenic drift Occurs due to Genetic recombination/reassoment / Rearrangement Point mutation Nature Sudden Gradual / insidious May lead to Epidemics/ pandemics Sporadic cases Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 166-172 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Influenza virus causes new epidemic by (3-5 yrs) -
A. Antigenic drift
B. Antigenic shift
C. Cyclic trends
D. Mosaicsm
| Antigenic shift |
6bbbf172-d18c-45d0-a8b8-7cceec89e76f | Drugs having poisonous effects on body causing aboion:- Unripe fruit of papaya Saffron Seeds of carrot Unripe fruit of pineapple juice of calotropis juice of plumbago | Forensic Medicine | Impotency, Virginity, pregnancy & aboion | Which of the following is not used for procuring criminal aboion
A. Ripe fruit of papaya
B. Saffron
C. Seeds of carrot
D. Unripe fruit of pineapple
| Ripe fruit of papaya |
69a7ae52-ed34-44f4-9dae-36cfeeb51762 | ADPKD Cytogenetic defect Chromosome 16 (85%): ADPKD-1 & Chromosome 4 (15%): ADPKD-2 ARPKD Cytogenetic defect Chromosome 6 Ref: HARSH MOHAN TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th ed. pg no: 659 | Pathology | Urinary tract | Chromosome associated with ADPKD
A. 14 and 16
B. 14 and 13
C. 16 and 14
D. 16 and 14
| 16 and 14 |
c7da2a2c-7246-4829-b9fe-2eebace385b5 | Tweed and Ricketts- straight line tangent to the lower most border of the mandible.
Downs- line joining Gonion to menton.
Steiner- line joining Gonion to gnathion.
Bimler’s line- line joining menton to antegonial notch.
Ref: Radiographic cephalometry:Jacobson A | Dental | null | Down’s cephalometric analysis of a patient reveals a high mandibular plane angle. Which of the following landmarks are used for the construction of the mandibular plane in this analysis?
A. Go-Me
B. Go-Gn
C. Tangent to the lower most border of the mandible
D. Me-antegonial notch
| Go-Me |
7a3e858b-da32-43eb-835f-f15bead42175 | S. mansoni more likely to cause Katayama fever than Japonicum. | Microbiology | null | Katayama fever is seen in
A. Schistosoma Mansoni
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. S. haematobium
D. S. mekongi
| Schistosoma Mansoni |
643fe851-9433-4240-9612-c3af9411b71e | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Identify colours IQ is defined by as the mental age divided by the chronological age multiplied by 100. So a child 6 years of age with an IQ of 50%, means that his mental age is that of a 3 year old child. Thus we have to look for the developmental milestones of a 3 year old child. o At 3 years of age, a child can identify two colours. o A 3 year old child can speak a small sentence but he cannot read a sentence. o At 3 years, a child can ride a tricycle (not a bicycle). o A child copies a triangle at 5 years of age. | Pediatrics | null | A year 6 old child with IQ of 50. Which of the following can the child do -
A. Identify colours
B. Read a sentence
C. Ride a bicycle
D. Copy a triangle
| Identify colours |
61a13162-16b4-4521-b597-9b53ae63198a | <p> Histogram is used to describe quantitative data of a group of patients. Histogram is graphical presentation for. &;Continuous quantitative data&;. Reference: Simple Biostatistics by Indeayan & Indrayan,1st edition,pg no:104 and Methods in Biostatistics by Mahajan,6 th edition,pg no.20, K . Park,23rd edition, pg no.844-846. <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | Histogram is used to describe-
A. Quantitative data of a group of patients
B. Qualitative data of a group of patients
C. Data collected on nominal scale
D. Data collected on ordinal scale
| Quantitative data of a group of patients |
a5cf35e9-25b1-44fb-8061-6bd6542be144 | Chancre- primary lesion in syphilis (hard chancre)Chancre redux is the relapse of the chancre lesions in the early stage of syphilisSecondary syphilis-Cutaneous lesionsRoseolarsyphilidePapularsyphilidePsoriasiform lesion CondylomataMalignant syphilidePalm & sole lesion ( Coppery red lesion )Mucosal lesions Mucous patches Snail track ulcers Lymphadenopathy Generalized symmetrical rubbery lymphadenopathy Systemic involvement Periostitis, Ahritis Iridocyclitis, Uveitis, ChorioretinitisNephritic syndrome Late or teiary syphilis- cardiovascular lesions and tabes dorsalis seen(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p372) | Pathology | All India exam | Chancre redux is a clinical feature of
A. Early relapsing syphilis
B. Late syphilis
C. Chancroid
D. Recurrent herpes simplex infection
| Early relapsing syphilis |
d402662c-d8a6-4754-83e7-f21d3cb92a5d | Carcinoid tumours arise in argentaffin tissue (Kulchitsky cells of the crypts of Lieberkuhn) and are most common in the vermiform appendix.The tumour can occur in any pa of the appendix, but it is frequently found in the distal third.Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery | Surgery | G.I.T | Most common neoplasm of appendix is
A. Pseudomyxoma peritonei
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Carcinoid
D. Lymphoma
| Carcinoid |
cdad3b2a-5ecd-4fc1-8ddc-904ff742b987 | Withdrawal method or coitus interruptus means the discharge of semen outside the female genitalia at the end of intercourse. Premature ejaculation is the only contraindication. The advantages of the withdrawal method are that it (a) involves no expense, (b) needs no medical supervision, (c) requires no prior preparation, and (d) causes no definite harm. The main drawbacks are the lack of full sexual satisfaction and the relatively higher failure rate. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | Contraindication of Coitus interruptus is:
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Perimenopausal age
C. Premature ejaculation
D. Illiterate male paner
| Premature ejaculation |
c9b5b13a-7631-4442-9e06-08d747523399 | Ans. is `b' i.e., Ehlers Danlos syndromeEhlers Danlos syndrome (EDS)o EDS comprises a clinically and genetically heterogenous group of disorders that result from some defect in the synthesis or structure of collegen and characterized by hyperelasticity of skin and hypermobile joints.Several types of EDS have been described based on the extent to which the skin, joints and other tissues are involved, mode of inheritence and biochemical analysis. Type I - severe- II Type mild Classic EDS --> Involvement of both joints & skin. Type III - Hypermobile EDS --> Joints > skin Type IV - Vascular EDS --> Vascular and intestinal intAolvement. Type V --> Similar to classic Type VI - Occular scliotic EDS --> Eye and spine involvement. Type VII - Dermatosparactic EDS --> Dysmorphic features Type VIII --> Perodontal EDS --> Dental involvement.o EDS shows all patterns of mendelian inheritance ?Type I, II, III, IV, VII A & B, VIII Autosomal dominant.Type IV & VII C ----> Autosomal recessiveType V X-linked recessive.o Clinical manifestations 1. SkinSkin is hyperextensible --* Rubber man syndrome.o Patient can develop cigarette - paper scar.o There is easly bruisability.Jointso There is ligament laxity and hypermobility of joint ---> Patient can bend thumb back to touch farearm. o Dislocation of hip or other joints may occur.OthersMitral valve prolapse pn classic (type I) EDSDiaphragmatic herniao Rupture of colon and large aeries -k In vascular (type IV) EDS.o Rupture of cornea and retinal detachmento Kyphoscoliosis In ocular-scoliotic (type VI) EDS.o Blue sclerao Absorptive periodontosis with premature loss of teeth -4 In periodontic (type VIII) EDS. | Pathology | null | Hypermability of joint and hyperelasticity is seen in -
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Ehlers danlos syndrome
C. Fragile X-syndrome
D. Angelman syndrome
| Ehlers danlos syndrome |
3198e931-1948-4692-9939-dca95f052d97 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cannabis Odors associated with poisoning Garlik like : Phosphorus, arsenic, zinc phosphide, aluminium phosphide (celphos), arsine gas, tellurium, parathion, malathion, arsenic. Rotten eggs : Hydrogen sulphide, mercaptans, disulphiram. Fishy or musty : Zinc phosphide. o Bitter almonds : Cyanide, HCN. Acrid : Paraldehyde, chloral hydrate. o Burnt rope : Cannabis. Kerosene like : Kerosene and organophosphates. Phenolic smell : Carbolic acid. | Forensic Medicine | null | Burnt rope smell is due to poisoning of ?
A. Cannabis
B. Chloral hydrate
C. Bhang
D. Charas
| Cannabis |
136372f9-8a5c-45a6-81cb-5b03ceddcde0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ketoconazole Pityriasis versicolor (Tinea versicolor!o Tinea versicolor is a misnomer as it is not caused by dermatophyte; Pityriasis versicolor is more appropriate term. It is caused by a nondermatophyte fungus called Pityrosporum ovale (Malasezia furfur). It usually affects young adults.Clinical featureso There are multiple small scaly hypopigmented macules (macules may be hyperpigmented also). Scaling is furfuraceous or rice powder like. Macules start around the hair follicles and then merge with each other to form large areas. Affects trunk and shoulders (mainly chest and back). There may be loosening of scales with finger nails - Coupled onle or stroke of nail. Lesions are recurrent in nature (may reappear after treatment).Diagnosis of P.versicoloro Examination of scales in 10% KOH shows short hyphae and round spores (Sphagetti and meatball appearance). Wood's lamp shows apple green fluorescence (blue-green fluorescence). Skin surface biopsy - A cyanoacrylate adhesive (crazy glue) is used to remove the layer of stratum comeum on glass slide and then stained with PAS reagent.Treatment of P.versicolorSystemic agents : - Systemic azoles provide a convenient therapeutic option. Drugs used are ketoconazole, Fluconazole or intraconazole.Topical antifungals :- Topical antifungals used are : -Azoles - Clotrimazole, econazole, Miconazole, Ketoconazole.Others - Selenium Sulfide, Sodium thiosulphate, Whitfield's ointment (3% salicylic acid + 6% Benzoic acid). | Skin | Papulosquamous Disorders | The following drug is effective in treatment of ptyriasis versicolor -
A. Ketoconazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Chloroquine
| Ketoconazole |
935cddd3-fa9e-4773-a8d2-acffbe59fb40 | Ans. B: P.falciparum In well-stained preparations the nuclei of the parasites are always stained red and the cytoplasm blue. The presence of malaria pigment is very characteristic of the older stages of Plasmodium sp. P. falciparum often contains a single black dot. P. vivax often contains countless fine golden yellow/brown specks of malaria pigment. In P. ovale and P. malariae the pigment inclusions are many and brownish black. Countless fine red spots in the red blood cell (Schiiffner's dots) can be seen in P. vivax and P. ovale (the more mature the parasite, the more dots). In P. ovale the dots are sometimes called James's dots. Sometimes a few flecks can be observed in P. falciparum (Maurer's dots or clefts). P. malariae almost never exhibits dots (Ziemann's dots). The visibility of these dots depends to a great extent on the acidity (pH) with which the thin slide preparation is stained (slightly alkaline: pH = 8 is best). The acidity is impoant because blood smears are usually stained for haematological tests with a slightly acid pH. | Microbiology | null | Black malarial pigment is seen in: September 2009
A. P.vivax
B. P.falciparum
C. P.nialariae
D. P.ovlae
| P.falciparum |
dd186c10-e165-4a1d-99bc-dcd0dd82ce74 | Cri du chat syndrome is caused by a deletion of the end of the sho (p) arm of chromosome 5. (5P- syndrome)Symptoms include characteristic cat-like cry of affected children, epicanthus, severe intellectual disability, low set ears. | Pathology | General pathology | The given karyotype is seen in which of the following syndrome?
A. Angelman syndrome
B. Fragile x syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Cri du chat syndrome
| Cri du chat syndrome |
ca4d9cae-829a-4754-bc29-849fc5cf037f | Achalasia cardia * All of the above mentioned condition except Achalasia cardia occur around 60 years of age. Features for differentiation between achalasia cardia and carcinoma esophagus: Achalasiacardia Carcinomaesophagus a. Around30-40 yearsofage a. Presentationafter60yearsofage b. No dysphagiafor solids b. Dysphagiafor solidspresent c. Dysphagiaforliquidspresent c. Dysphagiaforliquidsonlyat verylatestages | Surgery | null | A 40-year-old male with h/o progressive dysphagia for liquid has dilated esophagus on barium meal. Most likely cause is
A. Achalasia cardia
B. Cancer at cardia
C. Ca esophagus
D. Carcinoma gastric fundus
| Achalasia cardia |
406f665c-7bd8-400e-ab4b-e6d2c594677e | HERPES ZOSTER OPHTHALMICUS Ocular lesions: Ocular complications usually appear at the subsidence of skin eruptions and may present as a combination of two or more of the following lesions: 1. Conjunctivitis: It is one of the most common complication of herpes zoster. It may occur as mucopurulent conjunctivitis with petechial haemorrhages or acute follicular conjunctivitis with regional lymphadenopathy. Sometimes, severe necrotizing membranous inflammation may be seen. 2. Zoster keratitis: May precede the neuralgia or skin lesions. 3. Episcleritis and scleritis: These usually appear at the onset of the rash but are frequently concealed by the overlying conjunctivitis. 4. Iridocyclitis: It is of a frequent occurrence and may or may not be associated with keratitis. There may be associated hypopyon and hyphaema (acute haemorrhagic uveitis). 5. Acute retinal necrosis: 6. Anterior segment necrosis and phthisis bulbi. 7. Secondary glaucoma: It may occur due to trabeculitis in early stages and synechial angle closure in late stages. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-104,105 | Ophthalmology | Cornea and sclera | Secondary glaucoma in early stage of herpes zoster ophthalmlcus occurs due to
A. Trabeculitis
B. Hypersecretion of aqueous humour
C. Haemorrhagic hypopyon
D. lridocyclitis
| Trabeculitis |
35eb64d6-b677-448e-91e6-0c8fc5f38245 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 years Powers of Magistrate's (Sec. 29 CrPC)ClassImprisonmentFineChief judicial magistrateUpto 7 yearsAny amount1st class magistrateUpto 3 years5000 Rs.2nd class magistrateUpto 1 years1000 Rs. | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | First class judicial magistrate can give punishment upto
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years
| 3 years |
73d55fe4-5a19-4b07-8f05-9f667bbad96f | Ans. (c) Cervical spineRef.'.MR Imaging of the Spine and Spinal Cord by DetlevUhlenbrock p-375, Orthopedic surgery essentials- Spine by Christopher M. Bono, Steven R. Garfin p-188 | Orthopaedics | Rheumatoid Arthritis | Most common part of spine affected by Rheumatoid arthritis is?
A. Lumbar spine
B. Thoracic spine
C. Cervical spine
D. Sacrum
| Cervical spine |
91afa9b6-2c8a-4492-b2fb-1d677929c0d2 | Low weight for height: This is also known as nutritional wasting or emaciation which is an indicator of acute malnutrition. It is associated with an increased risk of moality and morbidity. A child who is less than 70% of the expected weight-for-height is classed as severely wasted. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p019th edition, Page 434. | Pediatrics | null | Lowering of the following parameter indicates acute malnutrition:
A. Weight for age
B. Weight for height
C. Height for age
D. BMI
| Weight for height |
59332a64-0ef2-409e-b7e1-bc6295509b74 | Electromagnetic radiation of wavelengths approx. 400nm to 700nm, elicits a retinal response in human eye. | Physiology | null | Visible range of electromagnetic spectrum of human eye
A. 370 - 740 nm
B. 740- 1140 nm
C. 200 - 370 nm
D. 200 - 370 nm
| 370 - 740 nm |
b806c08d-02ae-45d6-a4a8-a2b8d4396fe2 | Urethritis is the most common manifestation of sexually transmitted diseases in men, in whom it typically presents with urethral discharge. Both gonococcal and nongonococcal urethritis have an acute onset and are related to recent sexual intercourse. The infection manifests with urethral discharge, typically purulent and greenish yellow. Symptoms include pain or tingling at the meatus of the urethra and pain on micturition (dysuria). Redness and swelling of the urethral meatus are usually seen in both sexes. In gonococcal urethritis, the urethral discharge contains N. gonorrhoeae, which can be identified microscopically in smears of the urethral exudates. The other choices do not present with urethral suppurative discharge.Diagnosis: Gonorrhea, urethritis | Pathology | Male Genital Tract | A 20-year-old man presents with dysuria, urgency, and urethral discharge. Physical examination shows suppurative urethritis, with redness and swelling at the urethral meatus. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of urethritis in this patient?
A. Borrelia recurrentis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
b085b90f-c2bb-4097-92d9-5e7b16109741 | On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors
If LDL cholesterol is increased inside the cell, it down regulates LDL receptors so that further uptake is inhibited.
HDL cholesterol is the cholesterol that is removed from peripheral tissues; LDL cholesterol represents the cholesterol which is to be delivered to peripheral tissues.
LDL binds to LDL receptors and whole LDL particle is endocytosed by receptor mediated endocytosis via clathrin-coated pits (not by diffusion:- diffusion and endocytosis are different processes).
Intracellular cholesterol activates intracellular enzyme acyl-CoA cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT). | Biochemistry | null | Cholesterol present in LDL
A. Represents primarily cholesterol that is being removed from peripheral cells
B. Binds to a receptor and diffuses across the cell membrane
C. On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors
D. When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA; cholesterol acytransferase ACAT
| On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors |
3027ec04-d7c7-4dd4-bbb0-4510348e2aea | Ans. (B) Dantrolene(Ref: Katzung 13th/e p467-468)Dantrolene is a directly acting muscle relaxant. It does not act at neuromuscular junction Neuromuscular blockersDepolarisingNon-depolarisingSChTubocurarineAtracuriumCis-atracuriumMivacuriumPancuroniumVecuroniumPipecuronium | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | Which of the following drug does not act on neuromuscular junction?
A. Succinylcholine
B. Dantrolene
C. Vecuronium
D. Mivacurium
| Dantrolene |
534b13db-974e-4b83-a926-f1e6b2359928 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gastric Pathology Anemias of Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Pernicious Anemiao Pernicious anemia is a specific form of megaloblastic anemia caused bv an autoimmune gastritis that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, which is required for vitamin B12 uptake from the g ut.o Histologically, there is a chronic atrophic gastriti smarked by loss of parietal cells, prominent infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells, and megaloblastic changes in mucosal cells. | Pathology | Iron Deficiency and Megaloblastic Anemia | Pernicious anemia associated with -
A. Gastric pathology
B. Renal pathology
C. Esophageal pathology
D. Oral pathology
| Gastric pathology |
b8acf03f-00d6-4724-aaab-27f03cca5d3c | Lungs due to dual blood supply are generally not affected by hypovolaemic shock but in septic shock, the morphologic changes in lungs are quite prominent termed as 'shock lung'.Grossly, the lungs are heavy and wet. Microscopically, changes in ARDS are seen. The changes include congestion, interstitial & alveolar edema, interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate, alveolar hyaline membranes, thickening and fibrosis of alveolar septa, and fibrin and platelet thrombi in the pulmonary microvasculature.,i.e.,diffuse alveolar damage. Reference: Textbook of pathology-Harsh Mohan,6th edition,page no:113 and Harrison | Medicine | Respiratory system | Feature of shock lung is?
A. Diffuse alveolar damage
B. Usual interstitial pneumonitis
C. Organizing pneumonia
D. Bronchilolitis
| Diffuse alveolar damage |
bcbed6b8-b61f-4f77-be75-1baad68c67f5 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., CT SCAN CT SCAN in choanal atresiao CT SCAN in coronal and saggital projections provides a thorough evaluation of choanal atresia and adjescent structures.o The axial views supply fundamental information including site of obstruction, composition of atretic plate and unilateral or bilateral involvement,o Thus CT SCAN is the preferred imaging modality. | ENT | Congenital Anomalies of Nose and PNS | Preferred imaging modality for choanal atresia is-
A. X ray
B. CT SCAN
C. MRI
D. PET SCAN
| CT SCAN |
86316afb-7b14-41bf-895d-733352a96e8d | Ans. (b) InfluenzaRef: K. Park 23rd ed. /153DISEASECAUSATIVE ORGANISMINCUBATION PERIODMUMPSRNA Myxo Virus14 to 21 daysINFLUENZAOrthomyxo Virus18 to 72 hoursMEASLES (RUBEOLA)RNA Para myxo Virus10 to 14 daysCHICKEN POXHuman Herpes Virus 314 to 16 days | Social & Preventive Medicine | Influenza | Which has lowest incubation period
A. Mumps
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. Chicken pox
| Influenza |
f8e8a40b-5f29-40f9-a7b1-b6e7cdeb1574 | Irreversible Injury: Defect in membrane function in general, and plasma membrane in particular, is the most important event in irreversible cell injury in ischaemia. Oxygen deprivation causes shift of calcium from mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol. Increased level of calcium in the cytosol activates endogenous phospholipases from ischaemic tissue which degrade membrane phospholipids progressively which are the main constituent of the lipid bilayer membrane. An alternate hypothesis is decreased replacement-synthesis of membrane phospholipids due to reduced ATP.
Myelin figures & cellular swelling are the changes seen in Reversible cell injury. | Pathology | null | Irreversible injury is due to
A. Decrease in ATP
B. Defective membrane function
C. Myelin figures
D. Cellular swelling
| Defective membrane function |
2f895602-6f58-41c1-bc23-328fc55431a7 | Ans. A. Nitrous oxideDiffusion hypoxia is side effect seen with nitrous oxide. It is seen when suddenly N2 O is stopped while recovering from anaesthesia. It can be prevented by supplying 100 percent O2 to the patient. | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | Diffusion hypoxia is seen with which drug:
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Ketamine
C. Theophylline
D. Halothane
| Nitrous oxide |
29043d0b-e9f0-4908-b521-d9fb686b10e8 | Ans: A (Debridement) Ref: Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, 11th editionExplanation:Management of Open FracturesThree components of open fracture management are:o Aggressive wound debridement.o Definitive fracture stabilization with internal or external fixation; and o Delayed wound closure.Of these wound debridement is the first and most important step to avoid infection.Tscherne Classification of Open Fracture Management into Four Eras:The era of life preservation / preantiseptic era: Until 20th century.The era of limb preservation: During World War I and World Warll.The era of infection avoidance: Until the mid-1960s when antibiotic came into use.The era of functional preservation: At present; management consists of aggressive wound debridement, definitive fracture stabilization with internal or external fixation, and delayed wound closure.Gustilo, Burgess, Tscherne and AO-ASIF group recommendations for open fractures:1.Treat open fractures as emergencies.2.Perform a thorough initial evaluation to diagnose life-threatening and limb-threatening injuries.3.Begin appropriate antibiotic therapy in emergency department and continue treatment for 2 to 3 days only.4.Immediately debride the wound of contaminated and devitalized tissue, copiously irrigate, and repeat debridement within 24 to 72 hours.5.Stabilize the fracture with the method determined at initial evaluation.6.Leave the wound open (Controversial).7.Perform early autogenous cancellous bone grafting.8.Rehabilitate the involved extremity aggressively.Modified Gustilo-Anderson Classification for Open FracturesType I open fractures: Clean wound less than 1 cm long.Type II open fractures: Laceration more than 1 cm long, no extensive soft-tissue damage, skin flaps or avulsions.Type IMA open fractures: Extensive soft-tissue lacerations or flaps, but maintain adequate soft-tissue coverage of bone, or they result from high-energy trauma regardless of the size of the wound. Includes segmental or severely comminuted fractures, even those with 1 cm lacerations.Type NIB open fractures: Extensive soft-tissue loss with periosteal stripping and bony exposure; usually massively contaminated.Type MIC open fractures: Open fractures with an arterial injury that requires repair regardless of the size of the soft-tissue wound. | Orthopaedics | Management In Orthopedics | Best management of open fracture is:
A. Debridement
B. External fixation
C. Internal fixation
D. Tourniquet
| Debridement |
d76eef9d-f13b-4171-b71e-8b11a5752c84 | Pancreatic acini - The secretory elements of the exocrine pancreas are long and tubular (but they are usually described as acini as they appear rounded or oval in sections). Their lumen is small. Secretory Cells - The cells lining the alveoli appear triangular in section, and have spherical nuclei located basally. In sections stained with haematoxylin and eosin the cytoplasm is highly basophilic (blue) paicularly in the basal pa. With suitable fixation and staining numerous secretory (or zymogen) granules can be demonstrated in the cytoplasm, specially in the apical pa of the cell. These granules are eosinophilic. They decrease considerably after the cell has poured out its secretion. With the EM the cells lining the alveoli show features that are typical of secretory cells. Their basal cytoplasm is packed with rough endoplasmic reticulum (this being responsible for the basophilia of this region). A well developed Golgi complex is present in the supranuclear pa of the cell. Numerous secretory granules (membrane bound, and filled with enzymes) occupy the greater pa of the cytoplasm (except the most basal pa). REF: Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human Histology, seventh edition, pg.no., 298,299, 300. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following cells Contain organelles needed for the secretion of a proteinaceous product
A. Pyramidal cells of the pancreatic acini
B. Chief cells of the stomach
C. Serous-Secreting cells of the parotid gland
D. Fibroblast
| Pyramidal cells of the pancreatic acini |
39fbfd57-438a-4da6-a37b-d4e9c6699716 | The narrowest pa of the adult airway is the vocal cords In children, the narrowest pa is the cricoid cailage located in the subglottic area of the larynx. Ref: Internet | Surgery | Head and neck | What is the narrowest pa of the respiratory tract in children?
A. Glottis
B. Subglottic area
C. Trachea
D. Carina
| Subglottic area |
e61e85c2-4093-4cc0-bae8-178da7ab1396 | ANSWER: (A) HalothaneREF: Synopsis of Anaesthesia p.168Best uterine relaxant is halothane followed by ether | Anaesthesia | Obstetric Anesthesia | Which inhalational agent is best uterine relaxant?
A. Halo thane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevofiurane
D. Desflurane
| Halo thane |
d7364b35-cd96-4795-a35f-1438bb1e56c0 | Anorectal ring is formed by internal anal spincter, external anal spincter and puborectalis muscle. | Surgery | null | High or low fistula in ano are divided by which of the following
A. Anorectal ring
B. Anal canal
C. External anal spincter
D. Dentate line
| Anorectal ring |
8724d418-0226-4f08-a6e2-472acc9fde19 | Doppler ultrasonography (duplex) has become the best initial test for screening patients with carotid disease. It has become a highly accurate test, often obviating the need for carotid arteriography prior to carotid endarterectomy. Carotid arteriography remains the "gold standard" when quantifying the degree of carotid stenosis, but it is usually performed after noninvasive testing suggests significant stenosis. Spiral CT angiography is a new noninvasive modality that has been used to evaluate many segments of the vascular tree, but as yet its accuracy does not approach that of standard arteriography and it would certainly not be used in the initial evaluation of a patient with an asymptomatic bruit. Magnetic resonance arteriography (MRA) is also a relatively new modality that has enjoyed moderate success in the investigation of carotid disease. Although not quite as accurate as standard arteriography, it has been used in conjunction with the duplex as a complementary study. Once again, because of its cost, MRA would not be used as the primary screening modality. Transcranial Doppler studies are used to assess the intracranial vasculature. | Surgery | Arterial Disorders | A 75-year-old man is found by his internist to have an asymptomatic carotid bruit. The best initial diagnostic examination would be
A. Transcranial Doppler studies
B. Doppler ultrasonography (duplex)
C. Spiral CT angiography
D. Arch aortogram with selective carotid artery injections
| Doppler ultrasonography (duplex) |
405b7c79-b6ac-4407-977c-e5595bba56c4 | Ans. (a) Acute pericarditis.The tracing reveals sinus rhythm at approximately 75 beats/ min. The PR interval is prolonged to 200 milliseconds consistent with borderline first-degree AV block. The QRS axis and intervals are normal.ST elevations with concave upward morphology are seen in I and aVL, II and aVF, and V2 through V6. No Q waves are present. Furthermore, subtle PR-segment depression is seen in leads I and II. The differential diagnosis for ST-segment elevation includes, among other things, acute myocardial infarction, pericarditis, and left ventricular aneurysm. In this case, the upward concavity of the ST segment, the PR-segment depression, the lack of Q waves, and the diffuse nature of the ST-segment elevation in more than one coronary artery distribution make pericarditis the likely etiology. Patients with pericarditis will complain of chest pain, typically described as sharp and pleuritic. Radiation is to the trapezius ridge. The pain is improved with sitting up and leaning forward and worsened by leaning backward. | Medicine | Electrocardiography | A 46-year-old man presents with diffuse chest pain at rest and recent history of cough, fever and rhinor - rhea lasting for 3 days.
A. Acute pericarditis
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Takotsubo-cardiomyopathy
D. Cor pulmonale
| Acute pericarditis |
f0a888cd-816b-4fa3-bdd6-87c2e839129f | Ans. b (50%). (Ref. Shorttext book, Anaesthesia, 2nd ed., 54-55)Anesthetic potency of volatile anesthetics is measured by MAC. MAC represents the alveolar concentration of an anesthetic (at one atmosphere) that prevents movement in 50 percent of the subjects in response to pain.MINIMUM ALVEOLAR CONCENTRATION (MAC) - MAC = 1/ potency of drug# For determination of MAC in humans, the usual stimulus used is surgical skin incision.# It represents after a short time the partial pressure of the anesthetic in the central nervous system (CNS) and it is therefore the most useful index of anesthetic potency.# MAC is age-dependent, being lowest in newborns, reaching a peak in infants, and then decreasing progressively with increasing age.# The MAC can also be altered following administration of opioids.# As a rule of thumb, the addition of every one percent of alveolar nitrous oxide to another inhalation anesthetic will decrease in the MAC of that gas about one percent.# Increases in MAC result from hyperthermia and hypernatremia.# Decreases in MAC can result from hypothermia, hyponatremia, pregnancy, hypotension, and drugs such as lithium, lidocaine, opioids, and alpha2 agonists.Minimum alveolar concentration of inhaled anesthetics in 100% oxygen:- Halothane 0.74 percent- Enflurane 1.68 percent- Isoflurane 1.15 percent- Desflurane 6.3 percent- Sevoflurane 2.0 percent- Nitrous oxide 104 percent Factors increasing MACFactors decreasing MACDrugs decreasing MAC1) Hyperthermia2) MAO inhibitors3) Hypernatremia4) Alcohol abuse (chronic)1) Hyperthermia2) Hypoxia3) Metabolic acidosis4) Pregnancy5) Alcohol abuse (acute).1) Opiods, Pancuronium2) Propofol, Ketamine3) Benzodiazepines4) Barbiturates, Lidocaine5) Clonidine. | Anaesthesia | Fundamental Concepts | Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an anesthetic agent means it produces lack of reflex response to skin incision in____ of subjects.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
| 50% |
664cb622-1721-4127-9d1f-11fc03f8afb4 | FIGO Surgical Staging of Carcinoma of the Corpus Uteri: Stage I Stage Ia - Tumor limited to endometrium Stage Ib - Invasion to less than one-half the myometrium Stage Ic - Invasion to more than one-half the myometrium Stage II Stage IIa - Endocervical glandular involvement only Stage IIb - Cervical stromal invasion Stage III Stage IIIa - Tumor invades serosa and/or adnexa, and/or positive peritoneal cytology Stage IIIb - Vaginal metastases Stage IIIc - Metastases to pelvic and/or paraaoic lymph nodes Stage IV Stage IVa - Tumor invades bladder and/or bowel mucosa Stage IVb - Distant metastases including intra-abdominal and/or inguinal lymph nodes Ref: Dorigo O., Goodman A. (2007). Chapter 51. Premalignant & Malignant Disorders of the Uterine Corpus. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Obstetrics & Gynecology, 10e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A patient with Ca endometrium has > 50% myometrial invasion and vaginal metastasis. Pelvic and retroperitoneal lymph nodes are not involved. Peritoneal seedings are +ve. The stage is:
A. IIIa
B. IIIb
C. IIIc1
D. IIIc2
| IIIb |
203f7cd2-2c38-4fe2-85eb-d8683f81673a | Metabolic complication like weight gain, hyperlipidemia and precipitation of diabetes is a major limitation. Other given drugs donot cause metabolic syndrome. Ref KD TRIPATI 8TH ED. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Which of the following has highest potential to cause metabolic syndrome?
A. Clozapine
B. Risperidone
C. Quetiapine
D. Aripiprazole
| Clozapine |
14f81df2-fce4-4563-a99e-6ef7244dce10 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., X-linked recessive o Duchnne & Becker's muscular dystrophy are X-linked recessive. | Pediatrics | null | Duchnne's muscular dystrophy -
A. X-linked dominant
B. X - linked recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Autosomal recessive
| X - linked recessive |
8839fa58-63ef-4dba-8c27-1c4417d327e6 | In primi's the most common cause of non engagement at term is deflexed head or occipitoposterior position followed by cephalopelvic dispropoion. Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 330. | Anatomy | General obstetrics | Commonest cause of non engagement at term, in primi is:
A. CPD
B. Hydramnios
C. Brow presentation
D. Breech
| CPD |
a8f0881e-d9f2-4bc6-b062-ff212972a974 | Multidetector CT: It has cone shaped beam of X-ray Multiple slices of detectors and useful in Cardiovascular imaging. Multi-detector CT is paicularly suitable for imaging of the chest, hea and vessels. It is also useful for imaging of trauma patients. | Radiology | CT SCAN | Which one of the following is used in Cardiovascular imaging?
A. Second generation CT
B. Third generation CT
C. Spiral CT
D. Multidetector CT
| Multidetector CT |
572bf171-1177-4c4b-a84a-3345ed0fd222 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Epididymis Spermatozoa leaving the testis (seminiferous ubules) are not fully mobile. They continue their maturation and acquire their mobility during their passage through epididymis. From epididymis they come to vas deference, distal end of which also receives the secretions of seminal vesicle, and continues as the ejeculatory duct. The ejeculatory duct joins the prostatic urethra. Once ejeculated into the the female, vaginal secretions improve the motility and feilizing ability of sperms. Fuher exposure to secretions of female genital tract (in uterus and/or fallopian tube) fuher improves the mobility and feilizing ability of the sperms. The beneficial effects of stay in the female genital tract are collectively called capacitation, from the isthmus, capacitated sperms move rapidly to the ampullas, where feilization takes place. | Physiology | null | Sperm acquires motility in ?
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Testes
C. Epididymis
D. Ejaculatory duct
| Epididymis |
6f7305c1-d81a-4a85-ad66-b7adf46e8a38 | Maternal development of gestational diabetes result in fetal macrosomia. The pathophysiology of fetal macrosomia is not very clear but it seems clear that fetal hyperinsulinemia is one driving force. The insulin like growth factor, as well as fibroblast growth factor, also are involved, so a hyperinsulinemic state with increased levels of some growth factors, with increased expression of GLUT proteins in syncytiotrophoblast, may promote excessive fetal growth. It could also be due to elevated levels of maternal free fatty acid which leads to its increased transfer to the fetus accelerating triglyceride synthesis and resulting in adiposity. Ref: Williams Obstetrics 22nd Edition, Page 59, 689 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By D. C Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 286-7 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following maternal complication during pregnancy result in giving bih to a large baby?
A. Anaemia
B. Cardiac disease
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Gestational hypeension
| Gestational diabetes |
bf095cef-71d8-457d-820d-9b834258e1c0 | The dorsalis pedis is the continuation of the anterior tibial artery into the foot, as it passes the distal end of the tibia and the ankle joint. The pulse of the dorsalis pedis can be felt between the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus and the tendon of the extensor digitorum longus to the second toe. A strong pulse is a positive indicator of circulation through the limb. The fibular (peroneal) artery is a branch of the posterior tibial artery and passes in the calf between the flexor hallucis longus and tibialis posterior, making it difficult to palpate. The deep plantar artery, the extension of the first dorsal interosseous or lateral plantar arteries, passes deep to the aponeurotic tissues and central muscles of the foot, making palpation unlikely. The dorsal metatarsal branches of the dorsalis pedis pass under cover of the extensor digitorum longus and brevis tendons. Palpable pulses of the first or other dorsal metatarsal arteries can therefore be difficult to detect. | Anatomy | Lower Extremity | A 55-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for an iliofemoral bypass. The operation is performed successfully and the blood flow between the iliac and femoral arteries is restored. During rehabilitation which of the following arteries should be palpated to monitor good circulation of the lower limb?
A. Anterior tibial
B. Deep fibular (peroneal)
C. Deep plantar
D. Dorsalis pedis
| Dorsalis pedis |
0f26a800-1058-47c2-8694-f495949e101c | Neuroblastoma accounts for 7-10% of pediatric malignancies and is the most common solid neoplasm outside the CNS. Fifty percent of neuroblastomas are diagnosed before age 2 years and 90% before age 5 years. Ref: Kligman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 498, "Neuroblastoma", In the book, "Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Page 2137 | Pediatrics | null | The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is:
A. Malignant teratoma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Wilms' tumor
D. Hepatoblastoma
| Neuroblastoma |
6924ca3c-2407-4c1e-bff4-9de5230a1d2a | Ans. is c, i.e. Oromandibular limb defectsRef. Williams Obs. 21/e, p 990; 22/e, p 330, 23/e, p 300"Chorionic villous sampling is usually performed at 10-13 weeks and is associated with several complications but studies suggests that limb reduction and oromandibular limb hypo genesis is more common, if CVS is done before 9 weeks. So, CVS is done after 9 weeks because it is more safe." --Williams Obs. 21/e, p 990"The frequency of oromandibular limb hypogenesis, however was increased after CVS, when the procedure was performed before 9 weeks." --Williams Obs. 22/e, p 330"It was shown that limb reduction defects were associated with CVS performed earlier in gestation--typically around 7 weeks." --Williams 23/e, p 300 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis in Obstetrics | Chorionic villous sampling done before 10 weeks may result in:
A. Fetal loss
B. Fetomaternal hemorrhage
C. Oromandibular limb defects
D. Sufficient material not obtained
| Oromandibular limb defects |
a59f3a04-43fd-49b1-aa8b-5b95c654a4f4 | Erenumab belongs to a new class of drugs known as selective calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) antagonists, which are used for the treatment of acute migraine attacks. | Pharmacology | All India exam | Erenumab was approved by FDA in 2018 for
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Migraine
C. Hypeension
D. Glycogen storage disorders
| Migraine |
86435dfb-d5b1-45fc-8e69-d466365d7134 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Proximal convoluted tubule o About 80-90 of filtered HCO3- is absorbed in PCT.o Absorption of HCO3- is indirect, which is due to secretion H+, i.e., secretion of H+ is coupled with absorption of HCO3o Filtered HCO3- reacts with H+ to form H2CO3 which then is dissociated into H2O and CO2.o CO2 diffuses into epithelial cell and generate HCO3- which is then reabsorbed. | Physiology | Renal Tubular Reabsorption and Secretion | Site of maximum bicarbonate absorption-
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Cortical collecting duct
D. Medullary collecting duct
| Proximal convoluted tubule |
8e52e363-2ec1-44dc-a2e4-3e5108b3b653 | Ans. (b) RaceRef: Parikh 6th ed. / 2.26, http://en.wikipedia.org/ wiki/Cephalic_index | Forensic Medicine | Identification - Medicolegal aspects | Cephalic index is used for determination of?
A. Sex
B. Race
C. Height
D. Stature
| Race |
49acf5af-293e-4976-9663-22970825fe09 | Draining channels or communications the cavernous sinus drains: 1.into the transverse sinus through the superior petrosal sinus. 2.into the internal jugular vein through the inferior petrosal sinus and through a plexus around the internal carotid aery. 3. into the pterygoid plexus of veins through the emissary veins passing through the foramen ovals, the foramen lacerum, and the emissary sphenoidal foramen 4. In to the facial vein through the superior ophthalmic vein. 5.the right and left cavernous sinuses communicate with each other through the anterior and posterior intercavernous sinuses and through the basilar plexus of veins. Notes: all these communications are valveless and blood can flow through them in either direction Ref: BDC volume3;Sixth edition pg 195 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Cavernous sinus communicates with
A. Superior petrosal sinus
B. Inferior petrosal sinus
C. Superior ophthalmic vein
D. Middle meningeal vein
| Superior petrosal sinus |
31c088ca-004c-42f1-8c02-3fa438c18f03 | D i.e. Patient In case of malpractice, punishment is given by civil or criminal couQ (depending on type of negligence). Generally, the innocence of doctor is assumed and in cases where negligence is alleged, the plantiff (complainant, patient) has to establish the guilt. The patient is expected to prove that the defendant (doctor) was negligent; there fore the onus (responsibility) of proof lies on patient. But when the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor (ie thing speaks for itself) is applied such as in case of surgery on wrong patient / side / organ etc, the doctor will have to prove that what has happened is not due to his negligenceQ. This means onus of proof lies on patient in negligence (all civil & most criminal case) except in cases where doctrine of res ipsa loquitor appliesQ. Therapeutic misadventure (mischance / disaster / accident) is death or injury of a patient due to some unintentional act by doctor /nurse /hospitalQ during treatment (therapeutic), diagnosis (diagnostic) or experimental study. It provides defence against neglince because a doctor can't be held responsible for injuries resulting from adverse reaction of drug. However, the doctor must warn patient about possible side effects (eg death during surgery or transfusion). And ignorance of the possibility of reaction to drug prescribed to patient amounts to negligence (ie it is not 100% = absolute defence). At times it is not possible to explain every thing to the patient (who may be scared of procedure). Under such circumstances doctor can reveal the details to any one of close relatives of patient. This is called doctrine of therapeutic privilege. Doctrine of emergency says that doctor can provide the treatment without taking prior consent from a patient who is gravely sick, (critically ill), unconscious, or not able to understand the suggestion, or when mentally ill (IPC section 92). In emergency situation involving children, when their parents are not available, a/t doctrine of locoparentis, consent can be obtained from accompanying person (eg teacher or relative). On ceain occasions, despite all proper care given by doctor during treatment, the patient might suffer severe injuries or permanent deformity. This is k/a medical maloccurance, inevitable act or Act of God. If doctor proves this before cou, it will be an absolute defence against malpractice. Free (charity) treatment of patient does not give doctor immunity (defence) against negligenceQ. Whereas judgemental (diagnostic) error, therapeutic misadventure, medical maloccurance, calculated risk doctrine, contributory negligence (on pa of patient), product liability, and res judicata (complain already tried once in cou) provide defenses to a doctor against charges of negligence. Law does not consider doctrine of contributory negligence & consent in charges of criminal negligence; whereas these provide defence in civil negligence. | Forensic Medicine | null | In civil negligence, onus of proof lies on:
A. Judicial first degree magistrate
B. Police not below the level of sub inspector
C. Doctor
D. Patient
| Patient |
5263d080-8409-4b50-a18c-03f0294db021 | The superior cerebellar aery supplies the superior surface of the cerebellum and the cerebellar nuclei (dentate nucleus) | Anatomy | Brainstem lesions and blood supply of CNS | Which aery Supplies the deep cerebellar nuclei
A. Anterior inferior cerebellar aery
B. Anterior spinal aery
C. Posterior cerebral aery
D. Superior cerebellar aery
| Superior cerebellar aery |
0c41e116-c0c7-4a02-b9d0-c1440eb70589 | The informations provided in this question are :
Straining —> Sign of obstruction
Driblling —> Sign of obstruction and incomplete bladder emptying.
UTI May be due to urinary obstruction.
All these suggest the diagnosis of obstructive uropathy, and posterior urethral valve is most common cause of obstructive uropathy. | Pediatrics | null | Straining and dribbling of urine in a male infant with recurrent urinary infection should lead to the suspicion of :
A. Vesico – ureteric reflux
B. Posterior urethral valve
C. Pelvic ureteric junction obstruction
D. Phimosis
| Posterior urethral valve |
b767b144-d466-48cb-ba56-756a371c4044 | Ans. (a) CollagenRef: Harrisons, 19th ed. pg. 2504* Collagen is the most abundant protein in the body.* Harrisons states: "The first genes cloned for connective tissues were the two genes coding for type I collagen, the most abundant protein in bones, skin, tendons, and several other tissues. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which protein is abundant in our body:
A. Collagen
B. Albumin
C. Myoglobin
D. Hemoglobin
| Collagen |
abef4c0a-cbee-4563-8f3a-78262ebb5505 | Electrical burns may cause extensive muscle necrosis and consequent myoglobinuria and hemoglobinuria, both of which may lead to renal insufficiency. | Surgery | null | Myoglobinuria is seen in which type of burns:
A. Contact burn
B. Electric burn
C. Scald
D. Flame burn
| Electric burn |
5bb2ad99-6145-425f-8600-597f08d6d8e5 | LGV is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3 and occurs in three stages. In the secondary stage or inguinal stage, enlargement of the femoral and inguinal lymph nodes separated by the inguinal ligament produces the 'sign of the groove'/sign of Greenblatt. NOTE: Ramrod /saxophone penis in males and Esthiomene in females occurs in the third stage of LGV. Ref: Sexually Transmitted infections, Bhushan Kumar, 2nd edition, pg 510-511. | Skin | null | Sign of the groove is seen in:
A. Lymphogranuloma venereum
B. Granuloma inguinale
C. Syphilis
D. Chancroid
| Lymphogranuloma venereum |
934a6ba8-1573-4605-8a5e-fce2721155ca | (b) CSOM(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2141)Cholesteatoma formation is characteristic of unsafe CSOM.The other mentioned options are not associated with cholesteatoma. | ENT | Disorders of Middle Ear (Otitis Media) | Cholesteatoma is seen in:
A. ASOM
B. CSOM
C. Secretory Otitis media
D. Otosclerosis
| CSOM |
5d4f09e3-65b1-4e92-84ad-b06ad40cd7cc | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gaucher's disease * Alglucerase (ceredase) is used in the treatment of Gaucher's disease.* Enzyme replacement therapy (ERT) is also available for Fabry's disease, Type I, Type II and Type VI Mucoploysaccharidosis, Pompe's disease and ADA deficiency | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Enzyme replacement therapy is used for-
A. Gaucher's disease
B. Krabbe's disease
C. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
D. Tay Sach's disease
| Gaucher's disease |
ca769633-3650-4209-8d22-b81a2e171d25 | Ref: Harrison's 18th editionExplanation:Emphysematous CholecystitisIt is thought to begin with acute cholecystitis (calculous or acalculous) followed by ischemia or gangrene of the gallbladder wall and infection by gas-producing organisms.Bacteria most frequently cultured in this setting includeAnaerobes, such as C. welchii or C. perfringensAerobes, such as E. coli.This condition occurs most frequently in elderly men and in patients with diabetes mellitus.The clinical manifestations are essentially indistinguishable from those of nongaseous cholecystitis.The diagnosis is usually made on plain abdominal film by finding gas within the gallbladder lumen, dissecting within the gallbladder w all to form a gaseous ring, or in the pericholecvstic tissues.The morbidity and mortality rates with emphysematous cholecystitis are considerable.Prompt surgical intervention coupled with appropriate antibiotics is mandatory. | Medicine | Gall Bladder | Organism that causes emphysematous cholecystitis is:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Bacteroides
| Clostridium perfringens |
04519631-61e3-4ef4-b2d6-c352cf349ded | .It is superficial manifestation of an intraductal carcinoma. The malignancy spreads within the duct up to the skin of the nipple and down into the substance of the breast. It mimics eczema of nipple and areola.most commonly extra mammary manifestations of paget&;s disease is seen in the vulva. * Paget's disease of penis (Erythroplasia of Querat is persistent rawness of glans penis). ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 1009,473 | Surgery | Urology | Most common site for extra mammary Paget&;s disease is
A. Vulva
B. Vagina
C. Penis
D. Anus
| Vulva |
7cf99676-f2b5-4f6d-9cf5-03ff7651afb3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Crypt hyperplasia Histopathological findings of gluten sensitivity enteropathy* Villous atrophy and Crypt hyperplasia with decrease in villus: crypt ratio.* Loss of microvilli brush border.* Inflammatory cells are present in lamina propria : plasma cells, macrophages, lymphocytes, eosinophils and mast cells.* One of the characteristic feature is that overall mucosal thickness remains same (as villous atrophy is compensated by crypt hyperplasia).* Mainly proximal intestine is involved. | Pathology | G.I.T. | Histopathological finding of gluten hypersensitivity is?
A. Crypt hyperplasia
B. Increase in thickness of the mucosa
C. Distal intestine involvement
D. Villous hypertrophy
| Crypt hyperplasia |
17360c6c-2c98-4fe2-aa85-487dcf4678df | Answer- A. 0.01Tropicamide is the shoest acting mydriatic, concentration used is 0.5-l% drops (0.005-0.010).Tropicamide:Concentration used: 0.5-l% drops (0.005-0.010)Duration of action: Though effective for upto 3 hours, maximum effect appear 30 minutes after the last drop and lasts for only 10-15 minutesUsed in Adults. | Ophthalmology | null | Concentration of tropicamide:
A. 0.01
B. 0.02
C. 0.03
D. 0.04
| 0.01 |
ce49098b-cc48-4168-859e-936e3e0c7459 | *Kiesselbach's plexus: Antero superior pa is supplied by ANTERIOR & POSTERIOR ETHMOIDAL AERIES which are branches of ophthalmic aery, branch of INTERNAL CAROTID AERY. Antero inferior pa is supplied by SUPERIOR LABIAL AERY - branch of facial aery, which is branch of EXTERNAL CAROTID AERY. Postero superior pa is supplied by SPHENO-PALATINE AERY - branch of MAXILLARY aery, which is branch of ECA. POSTERO INFERIOR pa is supplied by branches of GREATER PALATINE AERY - branch of ECA Antero inferior pa/vestibule of septum contain anastomosis b/w septal ramus of superior labial branch of facial aery & branches of sphenopalatine, greater palatine & anterior ethmoidal aeries. These form a large capillary network called KIESSELBACH'S PLEXUS If dryness persists, bleeding will occur Therefore, in given options, Anterior ethmoidal aery is a branch of ICA not ECA | Anatomy | AIIMS 2017 | Which of the following are not a branch of external carotid Aery in Kiesselbach's plexus.
A. Sphenopalatine aery
B. Anterior ethmoidal aery
C. Greater palatine aery
D. Septal branch of superior labial aery
| Anterior ethmoidal aery |
18d5c4a1-cb81-41a8-9bfc-b6f7dec431d2 | Option A- Broad QRS complex with normal sinus rhythm Digoxine toxicity Option B- P wave with fluctuating QRS complexes is seen. showing ELECTRICAL ALTERANS seen in large pericardial effusion in which hea is swinging. Option C- N Height in P wave: 2.5mm But in P-pulmonale: || by 1.5mm | Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | Diagnosis of the following ECG-
A. Ventricular bigeminy
B. Electrical alternans
C. P pulmonale
D. Left ventricular failure
| Electrical alternans |
84d89a4f-db04-402d-88ab-ca39f6eee8bd | Ans: B. Pre-Botzinger complexRef: Ganong 25Ie p656, 24Ie p658)Rhythmic respiration is initiated by a small group of synaptically coupled pacemaker cells in the pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC) on either side of the medulla between the nucleus ambiguus and the lateral reticular nucleus.The main components of the respiratory control pattern generator responsible for automatic respiration are located in the medulla. Rhythmic respiration is initiated by a small group of synaptically coupled pacemaker cells in the pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC) on either side of the medulla between the nucleus ambiguus and the lateral reticular nucleus. | Physiology | null | Respiratory rhythm generation center is located at:
A. Dorsal respiratory group
B. Pre-Botzinger complex
C. Ventral respiratory neurons
D. Pneumotaxic center
| Pre-Botzinger complex |
b1cc4ab0-a82c-437a-88c2-00953f3618ff | Ans. a. ACA (Ref: Harrison 19/e p163, 18/e p193)Gait apraxia is seen in thromboembolic episode involving anterior cerebral aery.Frontal lobe is mainly supplied by anterior cerebral aery; its occlusion leads to gait apraxia | Medicine | null | Gait apraxia is seen in thromboembolic episode involving:
A. ACA
B. MCA
C. PCA
D. Posterior choroidal aery
| ACA |
9078aaca-bbfd-41cd-ad69-03057fca84ba | * Doppler is based on frequency shift and color coding depends on the direction of blood flow* Direction of blood flow:- Flow towards the probe- Red- Flow away from probe- Blue Intensity of color depends on velocity of flow Doppler effect: change in frequency because of relative motion between moving source of sound and observer. Direction of flow Color doppler showing CCA bifurcation Spectral doppler: Cursor is placed into the area of blood vessel we want to trace and its velocity is measured.An angle has to be maintained to obtain a proper image- Ideal angle = 0o (practically not possible)- Optimal angle = 45o-60o (never 90o) Spectral doppler of aeries Low resistance High resistance Example:* Brain aeries* ICA* CCA* VA- Renal aeries| Monophasic with pattern pulsatility Example: - Extremity aeries* ECA | Triphasic pattern Normal Peripheral Aerial Waveform Triphasic waveform Initial high velocity forward flow component Early diastolic reverse flow component Late diastolic forward flow component Narrow systolic window * Venous doppler:- It is Monophasic- during free breathing variations in amplitude due to cardiac and respiratory phasicity- In breath hold- pressure changes of . Atrium are reflected back in the major veins | Radiology | AIIMS 2018 | Characteristic of venous blood flow of lower limb in duplex Doppler is?
A. Monophasic
B. Biphasic
C. Triphasic
D. Non phasic
| Monophasic |
7111d7b2-7e80-4e23-b5d0-9f42595c6a80 | Answer- B. 1, decreases2,3-BPG binds to 1 site of haemoglobin and decreases the affinity for oxygen.2, 3 Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3- BPG) or 2,3 Diphosphoglycerate 2,3- DPG)It is most abundant organic phosphate in RBC. | Biochemistry | null | 2, 3-BPG binds to sites of haemoglobin and the affinity for oxygen
A. 4, decreases
B. 1, decreases
C. 4, increases
D. 1, increases
| 1, decreases |
406b5b4f-9ad4-42c0-9669-12d038df4ac8 | Bag and mask-100% O2 Venturi mask- 60% O2 Nasal cannula - 40% O2 Mask with reservoir- 80-90% O2 | Anaesthesia | AIIMS 2017 | Highest concentration of oxygen is delivered through?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Venturi mask
C. Bag and mask
D. Mask with reservoir
| Bag and mask |
7f0270fd-7d45-43ec-b77e-0038115bb845 | Before answering these questions lets first discuss hepatitis in brief.
Maternal infection: The acute infection is manifested by flu like illness as malaise, anorexia, nausea and vomiting. In majority, it remains asymptomatic. Jaundice is rare and fever is uncommon.
Clinical course (HBV): Nearly 90–95% of patients clear the infection and have full recovery. 1% develop fulminant hepatitis resulting massive hepatic necrosis. 10-15% become chronic and 10% of these chronic cases suffer from chronic active hepatitis, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.
Diagnosis is confirmed by serological detection of HBsAg, HBeAg (denote high infectivity) and antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg) and HBV DNA titer (107–1011).
Screening: All pregnant women should be screened for HBV infection at first antenatal visit and it should be repeated during the third trimester for ‘high risk’ groups (intravenous drug abusers, sexual promiscuity, hemophilics, patients on hemodialysis or having multiple sex partners).
Hepatitis C (HCV):
It is recognized as the major cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis worldwide and is the leading cause of transfusion associated hepatitis. Transmission is mainly blood borne and to a lesser extent by faecal-oral route. It is responsible for chronic active hepatitis and hepatic failure.
Perinatal transmission (10–40%) is high when coinfected with HIV and HBV.
Detection is by antibody to HCV by EIA, which develops usually late in the infection.
Confirmation is done by recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA-3).
Chronic carrier state is present. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated.
Hepatitis D (HDV):
It is seen in patients infected with HBV either as a co-infection or super infection. Perinatal transmission is known.
Hepatitis E (HEV): Hepatitis E is the most important cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis in developing countries like India. Chronic carrier state is present. Perinatal transmission is uncommon.
Maternal mortality is very high (15–20%). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A mother is Hbs Ag positive and anti Hbe Ag positive. Risk of transmission of Hep. B in child is:
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 0%
D. 90%
| 20% |
a3da135a-a6a2-4e1c-8823-8ab0913f5668 | Low esterase levels are suggestive of overdose of some drug which acts by inhibiting acetyl choline esterase like organophosphate poisoning. Inhibition of choline esterase results In increased amount of Ach at synapse, so poisoning or overdose results in cholinergic symptoms like salivation, lacrimation, urination, emesis, increased bronchial secretions, reduction in blood pressure.So treatment Of choice is Atropine. Atropine -It is highly effective in counter-acting the muscarinic symptoms, but higher doses are required to antagonize the central effects. It does not reverse peripheral muscular paralysis which is a nicotinic action. All cases of anti-ChE (carbamate or organophosphate) poisoning must be promptly given atropine2 mg i.v. repeated every 10 min till dryness of mouth or other signs of atropinization appear (upto 200 mg has been administered in a day). Continued treatment with maintenance doses may be required for 1-2 weeks. Neostigmine and physostigmine worsens the signs and symptoms as these also act by inhibiting choline esterase. Physostigmine and flumazenil are respectively used for Atropine and benzodiazepines poisoning. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | A patient presented to emergency with overdose some drug. There were increased salivation and increased bronchial secretions. On examination, blood pressure was 88/60 mmHg. RBC esterase level is 50. What should be the treatment of this person?
A. Neostigmine
B. Atropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Physostigmine
| Atropine |
f0f91922-12fd-4213-871c-19e47532a6d6 | Ans: C. Student's T-test(Ref Park 22/e p795; Biostatistics by Mahajan 7/e p134)Here, comparing a parametric quantitative variable (weight) in two unrelated group of people.Hence, "Student's t-test" used.Student t-test:Used when outcome variable is normally distributed in population (for quantitative data).Ex: BP, blood glucose. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a study, two groups of newborns are checked for their weights based on whether their mothers received food supplements or not. The appropriate test which can be used for comparing the data is:
A. Chi square test
B. Paired T-test
C. Student's T-test
D. Fischer exact test
| Student's T-test |
3624dceb-9318-4aa7-add1-b4c2fbac3065 | Glycogen phosphorylase is the rate limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis. And it requires PLP. The active form of vitamin B6 is the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) PLP can be synthesized from the three compounds pyridoxine, pyridoxal and pyridoxamine. This PLP for this enzyme Glycogen phosphorylase is not required as co-enzyme, but it act as a phosphate donor. Enzyme glycogen phosphorylase will cut glycogen a (1-4) bond apa and the glucose released are transferred in Glucose-1-phosphate and that phosphate is taken from PLP. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2017 | Which vitamin is required for glycogen Phosphorylase?
A. PLP
B. TPP
C. Riboflavin
D. Lipoic acid
| PLP |
e845e625-845e-4d02-ab3f-e00f2284d62e | Answer- A (Cricoid cailage)(Ref: BDC 5/e Vol lII/p238)Complete cailage ring is seen in Cricoid cailage.Cricoid cailage is shaped like a ring. It encircles the larynx below the thyroid cailage. It is thicker and stronger than the thyroid cailage. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is the only complete cailage ring in the respiratory tree?
A. Cricoid cailage
B. Thyroid cailage
C. Cunieform cailage
D. Epiglottis
| Cricoid cailage |
67add9f9-94b5-40b2-904d-fb4965fb8309 | Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by the transplacental passage of maternal antibody active against paternal RBC antigens of the infant and is characterized by an increased rate of RBC destruction.
Although more than 60 different RBC antigens are capable of eliciting an antibody response, significant disease is associated primarily D antigen of Rh group and with A 0 incompatibility.
Other rare antigens involved are -
C or E antigen of Rh group
RBC antigens - Cw, Cx, Cu, K (kell), M, Duffy, S, P, MNS, Xg, Lutheran, Diego and Kidd.
Anti-Lewis antibodies do not cause disease. | Pediatrics | null | In Erythroblastosis fetalis not involved is –
A. Anti C
B. Anti D
C. Anti E
D. Anti Lewis
| Anti Lewis |
641f160f-eef0-4b8c-9cb8-3241d2d63173 | Prognosis of hepatic failure in children
Children with hepatic failure have somewhat better prognosis.
The prognosis varies considerably with -
i) Cause of liver failure
ii) Stage of hepatic encephalopathy
Poor prognostic factors for mortality
If cause of liver failure is —> Wilson disease, idiopathic
Stage IV coma —> Most common cause of death is brain stem herniation
Age < I year
Sepsis
Severe hemorrhage
Renal failure
, Need for dialysis before transplantation
For option b & c -
"Pretransplant serum bilirubin concentration and the INR (prothrombin time) of coagulation are not predictive of post transplant survival". | Pediatrics | null | In a child with active liver failure, the most important prognosis factor for death is –
A. Increasing transaminases
B. Increasing bilirubin
C. Increasing prothrombin time
D. Gram (–)ve sepsis
| Gram (–)ve sepsis |
3a13e9bb-48ab-46c1-9d50-e1612840d922 | Friends this is one of those questions where we can derive the answer by excluding other options as very little information has been provided to us.
Sudden post partum collapse – may be seen in all the four cases viz – amniotic fluid embolism, PPH, uterine inversion and eclampsia.
But in case of PPH antecedent H/O excessive blood loss, in eclampsia – H/O antecedent convulsions and in amniotic fluid embolism – H/O abrupt onset of respiratory distress before collapse should be present, which is not given in the question so these options are being excluded.
The clinical picture of acute inversion occurring in the third stage of labour is characterised by shock and haemorrhage, the shock being out of proportion to the bleeding.
Since this a problem which occurs due to mismanaged third stage of labour, patient doesnot have any complain in the antenatal period or during labour.
Uterine inversion – “It should be suspected whenever a woman has unexplained postpartum collapse.”
Textbook of Obs, Sheila Balakrishnan, p 489 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A patient went into shock immediately after normal delivery, likely cause:
A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. PPH
C. Uterine inversion
D. Eclampsia
| Uterine inversion |
ddb3f2a6-295a-4d4b-8478-5c15049b62a8 | Answer- A. High level expe group of universal health program for indiaConcept of 3 years bachelor para-medical course for rural health service was proposed by Ministry of health and family welfare and received backing of Planning Commission of India's High level expe group of universal health program. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following committees has recommended a 3-year bachelor degree in medical education for rural health service?
A. High level expe group of universal health program for india
B. Central bureau of health investigation
C. Srivastava committee
D. Sundar committee
| High level expe group of universal health program for india |
9a3940ff-8c7a-492c-86d4-259c47cef675 | Ans: D. Lanz incisionLanz incision:An oblique (transverse skin crease), muscle splitting incision used for an appendectomy.A modification of McBurney's (Grid Iron) incision.Advantages:Considered cosmetically better.Exposure is better.The extension is easier.Measurements:Incision, appropriate in length to size & obesity of patient - Approximately 2 cm below umbilicus centered on the midclavicular-mid inguinal line.It can be extended medially - With retraction or suitable division of rectus abdominis muscle. | Surgery | null | Which one of the following is a muscle splitting incision?
A. Kocher's incision
B. Rutherford-Morrison incision
C. Pfannenstiel incision
D. Lanz incision
| Lanz incision |
5ce754b8-b358-4270-9bd1-8828700a19b1 | Blade angulation.
(A) 0 degrees: correct angulation for blade insertion.
(B) 45 to 90 degrees: correct angulation for scaling and root planing.
(C) less than 45 degrees: incorrect angulation for scaling and root planing.
(d) More than 90 degrees: incorrect angulation for scaling and root planing, but correct angulation for gingival curettage. | Dental | null | Which of the following blade angle is appropriate for scaling and root planing
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| B |
849b1909-c988-4d0b-8eaf-a716707cbe97 | Answer: B. DivisionDivision does not give branches | Anatomy | null | Which pa of brachial plexus do not give branches
A. Root
B. Division
C. Cord
D. Trunk
| Division |
07d58883-b752-4898-ab70-a1df892ef7bd | Answer- A. Cell cycle will stop at GI phaseRb is a tumor suppressor gene. It normally arrests cell division at G1-S phase. Phosphorylation of Rb gene allows the cell to divide, hence inhibition of phosphorylation (which is the constitutive scenario for Rb gene) arrests the cell in GI phase.RB (Retinoblastoma) geneLocated on chromosome on 13q14Tumor suppressive pocket protein that binds E2F transcription factors in hypophophorylated stateKey negative regulator of G1/S cell cycle transition . Tumors associated: Retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, Glioblastoma, small cell carcinoma of lung, CA breast & CA bladderSequence: Go- G1- S- G2 - M | Pathology | null | If the Rb gene phosphorylation is defective, which of the following will happen?
A. Cell cycle will stop at GI phase
B. Cell cycle will stop at G2 phase
C. The cell cycle will progress and the cell will divide
D. There will be no effect on cell cycle as for Rb gene phosphorylation is not needed
| Cell cycle will stop at GI phase |
0e46082c-1abc-4330-a12d-6948554559a2 | Paneth cells or zymogen cells are found only in the deeper parts of the intestinal crypts.
They contain prominent eosinophilic secretory granules.
They also contain high amount of zinc.
They are known to produce lysozyme, defensins and TNF alpha that destroy bacteria.
They exceptionally migrate towards the base of the crypts of Lieberkuhn instead of going toward the villi | Anatomy | null | The cells which will proliferate from top to bottom of villi are:
A. Chief cells
B. Goblet cells
C. Paneth cells
D. Parietal cells
| Paneth cells |
360f90ec-189e-464a-a60d-ed9d9bda46ef | Ans: B. 1.5-2.5 kg(Ref: Animal Models in Eve Research/ p188).The usual weight of rabbit used in ophthalmological experiments is between 1.5-2.5 Kg. Laboratory Animals:Laboratory AnimalsAnimalWeightRat180-200 gmGuinea Pig400-600 gmMouse20-25 gmRabbit1.5-2.5 KgdegHamster80-90 gm | Ophthalmology | null | What is the usual weight of rabbit used in ophthalmological experiments?
A. 0.5-1 kg
B. 1.5-2.5 kg
C. 5-7 kg
D. 10-12 kg
| 1.5-2.5 kg |
ee55a9bc-62bb-4952-957a-1902ff5b4376 | Ans: C i.e. HypnoziteMalariaIn malaria, size of RBC is increased in: VivaxInfective agent of malaria is: SporozoiteFalciparum malariaGametocytes are seen in peripheral blood smearParasitemia is highestMost virulent plasmodium speciesExo-erythrocytic stage is absentMultiple infections of RBC'sSplenic rupture is common | Medicine | null | In plasmodium vivax malaria, relapse is caused by:September 2012
A. Sporozoite
B. Schizont
C. Hypnozoite
D. Gamteocyte
| Hypnozoite |
1bf69f9a-987c-48fc-9356-d62d2148c3a6 | Ans. a. 10-15 seconds(Ref Current DiMMOCIC and Treatment Critical Care 3/e p255)Tracheal secretions should he suctioned limiting the time to less than 10-15 seconds. The patient should be preoxygenated with 100% oxygen for at least a minute, and the total suction time should be limited to no more than 10-15 seconds on each attempt. | Anaesthesia | null | Tracheal secretions should be suctioned for:
A. 10-15 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 3 minutes
| 10-15 seconds |
0e7917ea-310b-4477-9897-f4901f728448 | Based on electrophoretic separation from cathode to anode, the order of lipoprotein in an electrophoretogram is
Chylomicron
LDL (β Lipoprotein)
VLDL (Pre β Lipoprotein)
IDL (Broad β Lipoprotein)
HDL (α Lipoprotein) | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophoresis?
A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Chylomicrons
| Chylomicrons |
133b6b41-ac32-4d94-b0c8-9004aa2214f4 | The structure marked with arrow- Secretory vesicles. | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | Name the structure marked with arrow
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi bodies
C. Secretory vesicles
D. Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
| Secretory vesicles |
a570d3c3-865a-41b6-8e21-dccbf7feec4c | Ans: A. Aemether plus lumefantrineRef: <a href=" Combination Therapy (ACT) should be given to all the confirmed P. falciparum cases.</li>The ACT recommended in the National Program all over India except noheastern states is aesunate (AS) daily for3 days and Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine (SP) on Day 0.Noheastern states presently recommended ACT in national drug policy is fixed dose combination of Aemether-lumefaritrine.Hence, the clear-cut answer of this question is Aemether plus lumefantrine. | Pharmacology | null | A patient from,nqh-eastern states was diagnosed to have infection with P. falciparum malaria. What is the most appropriate drug for this patient?
A. Aemether plus lumefantrine
B. Sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine
C. Chloroquine
D. Mefloquine
| Aemether plus lumefantrine |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.