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06a0be0c-7da0-49e7-a843-ae57131373ea | The clinical profile of fever, cough and X-ray revealing bilateral pneumonitis and presence of diarrhea and confusion indicates the presence of Atypical pneumonia. The organism causing atypical pneumonia out of the given choices is Legionella pneumophila Confusion can be explained by hyponatremia due to SIADH. The clinical manifestations of Legionnaires' disease are usually more severe than those of most "atypical" pneumonias. Clinical Clues Suggestive of Legionnaires' Disease Diarrhea High fever (>40degC; >104degF) Numerous neutrophils but no organisms revealed by Gram's staining of respiratory secretions Hyponatremia (serum sodium level <131 mg/dL) Failure to respond to b-lactam drugs (penicillins or cephalosporins) and aminoglycoside antibiotics Occurrence of illness in an area where potable water supply is known to be contaminated with Legionella Onset of symptoms within 10 days after discharge from the hospital (hospital-acquired legionellosis manifesting after discharge or transfer) | Medicine | Pneumonia | A 28-year-old woman presented with high-grade fever, cough, diarrhea and mental confusion for 4 days. X-ray chest revealed bilateral pneumonitis. Search for etiology will most likely reveal?
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
| Legionella pneumophila |
d127dbab-e1b2-4a9f-8f58-931c2c0bc933 | scrapie,CJD&Kuru are prion disease REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.557 | Microbiology | Virology | Which of the following not a prion associated disease -
A. Srapie
B. Kuru
C. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
D. Alzheimer's disease
| Alzheimer's disease |
c09dfbd6-7f27-473f-b937-33902eafe06b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oseltamivir Oseltamivir acts by inhibiting influenza virus neuraminidase enzyme which is needed for release of progeny virions from the infected cell. | Pharmacology | null | Neuraminidase inhibitor ?
A. Oseltamivir
B. Amantadine
C. Enfuviide
D. Formivirsen
| Oseltamivir |
29b70167-7b41-4cf9-b6f4-73e646d88352 | Endoscopic (internal) urethrotomy Internal urethrotomy is performed using the optical urethrotome. The stricture is cut under visual control using a knife passed through the sheath of a rigid urethroscope. The stricture is usually cut at the 12 o'clock position, taking care not to cut too deeply into the vascular spaces of the corpus spongiosum that surrounds the urethra. It is possible to get lost when trying to cut a way through a very tight stricture, and this is especially true when there are false passages because of previous dilatation attempts. Accordingly, a guidewire should be passed through to the bladder prior to incision of the stricture in order to establish the true lumen of the urethra. Following urethrotomy a catheter should be left in situ for 1-3 days afterwards. A single urethrotomy seems to give a permanent cure of an uncomplicated stricture in about 50% of patients. Success rates are highest when the stricture is sho and when it is present within the bulbar urethra. In contrast, failure rates are highest in long strictures, strictures within the penile urethra and in recurrent strictures. The main complications are infection and bleeding. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1484 | Surgery | Urology | The recent treatment of sho bridle passable stricture of urethra in the penile and bulbous urethra is
A. Internal urethrotomy with Thompson-Walker's urethrotome
B. Optical internal urethrotomy
C. Syme's operation
D. Wheelhouse operation
| Optical internal urethrotomy |
eaa5d92e-e4eb-4216-97e0-e4fd43dd4e46 | CD4 antigen is present on t helper cells Cd8 antigen on T suppressor cells CD8 cells recognize MHC class I antigens Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 135 | Microbiology | Immunology | CD8 antigen is present on
A. T helper cells
B. B cells
C. T suppressor cells
D. Macrophages
| T suppressor cells |
1c84989b-784c-49a8-8af9-fecd15ac5200 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., OABO incompatibility has a protective effect to the development of Rh sensitization and thus the development of hemolytic disease of newborn | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Hemolytic disease of newborn is least common with which blood group female -
A. A
B. B
C. 0
D. AB
| 0 |
3a35e70b-7ce6-42b1-85ab-25ee1be89659 | Ritgen manuever is done for delivery of head in normal labor to allow controlled delivery of head. When the head distends the vulva and perineum enough to open the vaginal introitus to a diameter of 5cn of more , a towel is drapled ,gloved hand may be used to exe forward pressure on the chin of fetus through the perineum just in front of coccyx. Concurrently the other hand exes pressure superiorly against occiput. This ours nect extension so that the head is delivered with its smallest diameter passing through the introitus and over perineum | Anatomy | General obstetrics | Ritgen maneuver is done in
A. Shoulder dystocia
B. For delivery of head in breech presentation
C. For delivery of legs in breech
D. For delivery of head in normal labour
| For delivery of head in normal labour |
b3da4536-6f78-4558-8b11-e7e545d56e04 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Voiding cystourethrography o Poor urinary stream since bih suggests urinary tract obstruction (usually infravesical). o Most common cause of urinary tract obstruction in a male child is posterior urethral valve. o And the best diagnostic method for posterior urethral valve is voiding cystourethrogram. | Pediatrics | null | One year old male child presented with poor urinary stream since bih. The investigation of choice for evaluation is -
A. Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)
B. USG bladder
C. Intravenous urography
D. Uroflowmetry
| Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG) |
fef017c3-afd7-486b-98cd-b8c6f136f8b7 | Modiolus is a point where eight muscles meet at the ANGLE OF MOUTH
1. Depressor anguli oris (or) triangularis
2. Levator anguli oris or caninus
3. Risorius
4. Orbicularis oris
5. Buccinator
6. Zygomaticus major
7. Quadratus labii superioris
8. Quadratus labii inferioris | Dental | null | Muscle which is not there in a modiolus:
A. Depressor anguli oris.
B. Buccinator.
C. Zygomaticus major.
D. Zygomaticus minor.
| Zygomaticus minor. |
d6e838e0-5cc0-423c-9361-9a8cca679b28 | Ketamine is a general anesthetic agent which acts by blocking excitatory NMDA type of glutamate receptors. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Which of the following acts as an antagonist to NMDA receptor?
A. Ketamine
B. Spermine
C. Muscimol
D. Baclofen
| Ketamine |
d42cc2ff-3742-4468-842a-52445b029cdc | Ans. is 'b' i.e., ADHD Atomoxetine it is selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and is approved for use in ADHD. It is indicated in children > 6 years and in adults with concentration and attention problems. Atomoxetine absorbed orally, hydroxylated by CYP2D6 and excreted in urine, mainly as glucuronide. While majority of individuals are extensive metabolizers (EM), few are poor metabolizers (PM) due to polymorphism of CYP2D6. Inhibitors of CYP2D6 like fluoxetine, paroxetine, quinidine increase concentration and toxicity of atomoxetine. It should not be given with MAO inhibitors and is contraindicated in glaucoma. | Pharmacology | null | Atomoxetine is used for ?
A. Nocturnal enuresis
B. ADHD
C. Temper tantrums
D. Patent ductusaeriosus
| ADHD |
1376f1d6-d83d-4b31-ac2f-11242cbb8473 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oral Oral administration of drugs is safe, convenient and economical, but has the potential for the most variable absorption pattern. Clinical pharmacology Routes of drug administration Drugs are administered by various routes. Different routes have different characteristics, so that the route of administration may have a profound effect upon the speed and efficiency with which the drugs act. The routes of drug administration may be: i) Local route ii) Systemic route Local route - Drug is administered at the site of lesion. Systemic route - Drug is administered through systemic routes is intended to be absorbed into the blood stream and distributed all over, including the site of action, through circulation. | Pharmacology | null | Most variable absorption is seen with which route?
A. Oral
B. Intramscular
C. Intravenous
D. Per rectal
| Oral |
1e88f345-94d7-4a08-a6db-fefa6b71fe8b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., M3 Prognostic factors in AMLGood PrognosisBad Prognosiso Age < 40 yearso Age < 2 years or > 55 yearso M2, M3, M4 forms of AMLo M0, M6, M7 FORMS OF AMLo Blast cell with Auer rodso Complex karyotypeso TLC <25x109/Lo TLC> 100 x 109/Lo t (15;17), t (8;21), inv 16o Deletions 5q, 7q (Monosomy 5 or 7)o Leukemia without preceeding MDSo AML with preceding MDS or anticancer drug exposure | Pathology | Lukemia | Which variety of AML is associated with good prognosis -
A. MO
B. M3
C. M6
D. M7
| M3 |
9bbfbe9b-5d44-4c4b-a898-7dd1d63bfbb1 | Anterior belly of digastric is supplied by the trigeminal nerve and posterior belly by facial nerve Spinal accesory nerve and c3,c4 nerves supply Trapezius Ischial pa of sciatic nerve and the obturator nerve supply adductor magnus Ref: Gray's 39e/p112-127 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Muscle not having dual nerve supply
A. Digastric
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Trapezius
D. Adductor magnus
| Thyrohyoid |
3c34d08c-f68a-461a-b3a8-2e19b9733efe | There is weight loss (not gain).
The presenting complains are : -
Back pain : Commonest and earliest symptom. Initially, pain occurs on the sudden movement of the spine.
The stiffness of back : Is also an early symptom and occur along with pain.
Visible deformity: Gibbus or Kyphosis
Localized swelling : Due to cold abscess
Paraplagia : In neglected cases
Constitutional symptoms : Evening fever, loss of appetite, night sweat, loss of weight.
On examination, following findings may be seen : -
Decreased range of motion.
Local tenderness : Over the spinous process of an affected vertebra.
Deformity : -
Cervical spine : - Straight neck with loss of cervical lordosis.
Thoracic : - Gibbus/kyphosis
Lumbar : - Loss of lumbar lordosis
iv) Para-vertebral swelling : - Cold abscess | Orthopaedics | null | Clinical features of T.B. Spine are AJE -
A. Loss of lordosis
B. Night sweats
C. Weight gain
D. Evening rise of temperature
| Weight gain |
f7c1b902-a525-4b6f-8186-1753ec79db14 | "The genes that determine the A and B phenotypes are found on chromosome 9p and are expressed in a Mendelian codominant manner." | Pathology | All India exam | Inheritance pattern of ABO blood group system and HLA system
A. Pseudodominance
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Codominant
| Codominant |
df082dfc-9274-4b19-bc92-844e8180ae0d | Sterile pyuria -caused by Chlamydia , ureaplasma and mycoplasma. McCoy culture is used for Chlamydia. Thayer Main - Neisseria gonorrhea. L J medium - Mycobacterium tuberculosis Levinthal medium - Hemophilus | Microbiology | All India exam | A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be best for culture?
A. Mc Coy culture
B. Thayer Main medium
C. L.J medium
D. Levinthal medium
| Mc Coy culture |
9d7c41ca-86e9-4be5-a227-2d941ada5981 | Life history of plasmodium The malaria parasite undergoes 2 cycles of development the human cycle (asexual cycle) and the mosquito cycle (sexual cycle). Man is the intermediate host and mosquito the definitive host Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 281-285 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | In the life cycle of malaria parasite, the definitive host is -
A. Mosquito
B. Man
C. Pig
D. Sandly
| Mosquito |
fad62936-b769-4009-80a0-d866c1ef3e8a | Retrograde ureterogram demonstrating the collecting system. The radiolucent filling defect in the renal pelvis is caused by radiolucent calculus | Surgery | Urology | What is this study?
A. Retrograde Pyelogram
B. Ultrasound
C. X Ray KUB
D. Contrast CT KUB
| Retrograde Pyelogram |
720caea5-273d-490c-8b9d-5349a9f1773b | Maximal number of oogonia is achieved at 20th week of gestation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Maximum number of oogonia is seen at
A. Puberty
B. 20th week of gestation
C. At birth
D. 20 years age
| 20th week of gestation |
e47aa61f-6d01-4d6e-90f8-981c300f587c | Infants with GERD presents with anorexia, dysphagia, arching of back during feedings, irritability, hematemesis, anaemia, failure to thrive.other symptoms are chest pain, recurrent pneumonia apnoea, wheezing, stridor, hoarseness, cough, abnormal neck posturing(Sandifer syndrome) Sandifer syndrome is most commonly mistaken for seizures Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:253, 7th edition | Pediatrics | Gastrointestinal tract | Sandifer syndrome due to GERD in infants is confused with __________
A. Seizures
B. Recurrent vomiting
C. Acute otitis media
D. Sinusitis
| Seizures |
c9dd7ab8-ba64-4c05-9765-a3e69e38da5c | Answer is B (Ventilatory malfunction) Ventilatory malfunction is the single best answer of exclusion This is consistent with a diagnosis of ventilatory mal function. None of the other three condition satisfy the given parameters of the patients. The answer of exclusion therefore is some form of ventilatory malfunction. In carbon monoxide poisoning ABG analysis would reveal acidosis and nollnal PO2 In voluntary hyperventilation oxygen saturation would be normal. In methyl alcohol poisoning ABG would reveal acidosis and not alkalosis. | Medicine | null | The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, pCo2 23 mm Hg pO2 300 mm Hg and oxygen saturation 60% are most consistent with-
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Ventilatory malfunction
C. Voluntary hyperventilation
D. Methyl alcohol poisoning
| Ventilatory malfunction |
018d6239-9661-4d5d-995c-325f670406c9 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Deletion of alpha genes a thalassemiasAlpha thalassemias are hemoglobin disorders in which the a chain of the hemoglobin is not/partly synthesized. a chains are required for all types of hemoglobin synthesis of all types of hemoglobin i.e.HbA (a2 b2)HbF (a2 g2)* HbA2 (a2d2) | Medicine | Thalassemia | Cause of alpha thalasemia -
A. Deletion of alpha genes
B. Deletion of beta genes
C. Excess of alpha genes
D. Single amino acid substitution in alpha chain
| Deletion of alpha genes |
5319d11b-e13f-4a02-a642-b145a0236422 | C. Coagulase negativeb hemolysis and bacitracin resistance occur in bothStaphylococcus AureusCoagulase Positive: Ananthanarayan Whf2l0Beta type of hemolyisis on blood agar-Microbiology by Baveja 5th/175"Streptococci- coagulase negative" Ananthanarayan lQ7h/218 "Lancefield group B consists of a single species, S. agalactiae, which is definitively identified with specific antiserum to the group B cell wall-associated carbohydrate antigen. A streptococcal isolate can be classified presumptively as GBS on the basis of biochemical tests, including hydrolysis of sodium hippurate (in which 99% of isolates are positive), hydrolysis of bile esculin (in which 99-100% are negative), bacitracin susceptibility (in which 92% are resistant), and production of CAMP factor (in which 98-100% are positive). CAMP factor is a phospholipase produced by GBS that causes synergistic hemolysis with p lysin produced by certain strains ofS. aureus'-Harrison 19th/969Staphylococci produce catalase, which converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. The catalase test differentiates the staphylococci, which are positive, from the streptococci, which are negative- Jawetz 27th/205Ananthanarayan 10th/210Species or common nameLancefield groupHemolysisLaboratory testS. pyogenesABetaBacitracin-sensitive, PYR test-positive; Ribose not fermntedS. agalactiaeBBetaCAMP test, Hippurate hydrolysisBacitracin Test microbeonline.com Positive: Streptococcus pyogenes Negative: Streptococcus agalactiaeThe bacitracin test is useful for differentiating b-hemolytic Group A streptococci from b-hemolytic non-Group A streptococci. This is important because most streptococcal diseases are caused by Group A streptococci. The bacitracin test can also be used to differentiate the bacitracin-resistant Staphylococcus from the bacitracin-susceptible Micrococcuswww.austincc.edu | Microbiology | Bacteria | Which of the following is/are feature of streptococcus agalactiae rather than staphylococcus aureus?
A. Catalase positive
B. Bacitracin resistant
C. Coagulase negative
D. a hemolysis
| Coagulase negative |
4eb4b60d-432b-408b-9051-957f16f8f94e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Urea cycleCarbamyl phosphate synthase I Urea cycleCarbamyl phosphate synthase II- Pyrimidine synthesis | Biochemistry | null | Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is used in ?
A. Purine synthesis
B. Pyrimidine synthesis
C. Urea cycle
D. Uronic acid pathway
| Urea cycle |
2bb12dc9-9cd8-40a1-81bb-f89f7f6a1784 | Medical etiquette:- It deals with the conventional laws of couesy observed between members of the medical profession. A doctor should behave with his colleagues as he would have them behave with himself. Medical jurisprudence (juris= law; prudentia = knowledge):- It deals with legal responsibilities of the physician with paicular reference to those arising from physician-patient relationship, such as medical negligence cases, consent, rights and duties of doctors, serious professional misconduct, medical ethics, etc. In sho, it deals with legal aspects of practice of medicine. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-01 | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | Medical etiquette is related to
A. Moral principles followed by doctors
B. Legal responsibilities of doctors
C. Couesy observed between doctors
D. Rules to be followed by doctors
| Couesy observed between doctors |
d162a2c2-a04e-47f6-be8f-dc0683652afd | Ans. C. Glutamine and ureaBoth urea and glutamine play an important role in the storage and transport of ammonia in the blood. Histidine, phenylalanine, methionine, and lysine are not involved in ammonia transport. | Physiology | Misc. | Because free ammonia in the blood is toxic to the body, it is transported in which of the following non-toxic forms?
A. Histidine and urea
B. Phenylalanine and methionine
C. Glutamine and urea
D. Lysine and glutamine
| Glutamine and urea |
22784de7-ffb3-45a2-8b70-763f4766e60a | Diencephalon consist of:- Thalamus Hypothalamus Meta-thalamus-include medial and lateral geniculate body Epi-thalamus-include Pineal body, Habenular trigone and post. commisure Sub-thalamus | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy 3 | Which one of the following structures is pa of the diencephalon?
A. Caudate nucleus
B. Cerebral hemispheres
C. Hippocampus
D. Thalamus
| Thalamus |
329bff24-9d23-417b-9ecf-5f644a5205d8 | Squamous cell carcinoma is MC carcinoma in burns. SCC commonly occurs in long standing ( Marjolin's ulcer) , old scar or keloid. Both Marjolin's ulcer & keloid are complications that arise after burns | Surgery | Burns | Most common carcinoma after burns is:
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Mucoid carcinoma
| Squamous cell carcinoma |
74f62b3e-b936-4d9b-abe9-15a0510ee2e4 | Answer is option 1 T cell responses differ from B cell responses in at least two crucial ways. First, T cells are activated by foreign antigen to proliferate and differentiate into effector cells only when the antigen is displayed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells in peripheral lymphoid organs. The T cells respond in this manner because the form of antigen they recognize is different from that recognized by B cells. Whereas B cells recognize intact antigen, T cells recognize fragments of protein antigens that have been paly degraded inside the antigen-presenting cell. The peptide fragments are then carried to the surface of the presenting cell on special molecules called MHC proteins, which present the fragments to T cells. T cells don't act as antigen presenting cells. | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following cells do not act as antigen presenting cells. ?-
A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Macrophages
D. Osteoclasts
| T-cells |
ff4fa443-2059-4f45-8528-52294e33e624 | Aqueducts stenosis is most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Central Nervous system | Commonest cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children
A. Acqueductal stenosis
B. Aquaductal gliosis
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Tubercular meningitis
| Acqueductal stenosis |
3c8e7bec-2dc7-4add-a915-3e15a0de0444 | . Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability | Pathology | null | Characteristic feature of acute inflammation is:
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vascular stasis
C. Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability
D. Margination of leucocytes
| Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability |
777e4501-6a4a-418c-8059-d38880722d15 | Both alpha-fetoprotein and acetylcholinesterase in amniotic fluid are markers for neural tube defects. But acetylcholinesterase is the most specific marker. Ref : Dutta book of obstetrics 8th Ed | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | Most specific marker for neural tube defects is
A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. Unconjugated estriol
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. Pseudocholinesterase
| Acetylcholinesterase |
110d1286-fd91-4349-a698-29a20b59deee | Kawasaki disease is an acute, febrile, usually self-limited illness of infancy and childhood (80% of the patients are younger than 4 years of age) associated with an aeritis of mainly large to medium-sized vessels. Its clinical significance stems from the involvement of coronary aeries. Coronary aeritis can cause aneurysms that rupture or thrombose, resulting in myocardial infarction. (Robbins basic pathology,9th edition,pg no.352) | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | The most dreadful complication of Kawasaki disease is
A. Rash
B. Lymph node
C. Cardiac involvement
D. Thrombocytosis
| Cardiac involvement |
780d95aa-a1de-4707-80e1-929d341a928d | Ans. c. Lack of differentiationRef: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 9th Ed; Page No-269Cellular ChangesHyperplasia: Increase in number of cells. May be a risk factor for future malignancy (e.g. to endometrial hyperplasia) but not considered premalignant.Hypertrophy: Increase in size of cells.Atrophy: Decrease in tissue mass due to increase in size and/or number of cells. Causes include disuse, denervation, loss of blood supply, loss of hormonal stimulation, poor nutrition.Dysplasia: Disordered, non-neoplastic cell growth. Term used only with epithelial cells. Mild dysplasia is usually reversible; severe dysplasia usually progresses to carcinoma in situ.Metaplasia: Replacement of one cell type by another. Usually due to exposure to an irritant, such as gastric acid or cigarette smoke. Reversible if the irritant is removed but may undergo malignant transformation with persistent insult (e.g. Barrett esophagus - esophageal adenocarcinoma).Neoplasia: Uncontrolled, clonal proliferation of cells. Can be benign or malignant.Anaplasia: Complete lack of differentiation of cells in a malignant neoplasm.Differentiation The degree to which a malignant tumor resembles its tissue of origin:Well-differentiated tumors (often less aggressive) closely resemble their tissue of origin.Poorly differentiated tumors (often more aggressive) look almost nothing like their tissue of origin. | Pathology | Neoplasia | Anaplasia is:
A. Changing one type of epithelium to another
B. Nuclear chromatin
C. Lack of differentiation
D. Morphological changes
| Lack of differentiation |
bace2c54-6e9c-41be-a415-3e72d4de49c4 | Chancroid Corimoxazole in Typhoid Initially cotrimoxazole was an effective alternative to chloramphenicol. However, in many areas resistant S. typhi have appeared and now it is seldom used. Cotrimoxazole in chancroid Corimoxazole for 7 days is a 3rd choice inexpensive alternative to ceftriaxone, erythromycin or iprofloxacin. Cotrimoxazole It is a combination of sulfonamide (sulfamethoxazole) and trime- thoprim in the ratio of 1 :5. Cotrimoxazole was claimed to be more effective than either of its components individually in treating bacterial infections. Because of its associated greater incidence of adverse effects including allergic responses its widespread use has been restricted in many countries to very specific circumstances where its improved efficacy is demonstracted. Uses of Cotrimoxazole Upper and lower respiratory tract infections - Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis - For otitis media and sinusitis. - It should never be used for streptococcal pharyngitis. Urinary tract infections -Uncomplicated cystitis in non pregnant women. Especially valuable for chronic and recurrent cases. - Prostatitis (cotrimoxazole is concentrated in goodamounts in prostate) Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia -Drug of choice next to pentamidine for the treatment and prophylaxis of pneumonias caused by Pneumocystic Jirovecci (commonly seen in imtnunocompromised patients including those suffering from HIV/AIDS). Other conditions where cotrimoxazole finds its use. -Listeria monocytogens infections - Meliodosis - Shigellosis - Traveller's diarrhoeas (E. coli, Campylobacter, Shigella, Y. enterocolitica) - Prophylaxis of cerebral toxoplasmosis - Whipple's disease - Salmonella (typhoid) initially it was responsive but now resistant strains have emerged. - Chancroid According to K.D.T. - Cotrimoxaxole can be used in both chancroid and typhoid. According to Harrison (18/e) Cotrimoxazole is used in Typhoid but it is not used in chancroid. Antiobiotic therapy in typhoid Empirical Ceftriaxone Azithromycin Fully susceptible Ciprofloxacin Amoxicillin Chloramphenicol Cotritnoxazole Multidrug resistant Ciprofloxacin Ceftriaxonl Azithromycin Nalidixic acid resistant Ceftriaxone Azithromycin High dose ciprofloxacin Treatment of chancroid Ciprofloxacin Ceftriaxone Azithromycin | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is not an indication ofcotrimoxazole aEUR'
A. >Lower UTI
B. >Prostatitis
C. >Chancroid
D. >Typhoid
| >Chancroid |
5f0ac119-9f7f-4fdf-b90e-29b444333045 | Fiber diameter (thickness) and conduction velocity relationship: The relationship is linear for myelinated axons and parabolic relation for nonmyelinated axons. | Physiology | null | Relationship between nerve thickness and conduction velocity of myelinated nerves is:
A. Linear
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. No relation
| Linear |
5d2df81e-9e1f-4701-947e-7750ef5c79cf | Foam cells containing lepra bacilli are called virchow's cells (lepra cells). These cells are abundant in lepromatous leprosy. | Dental | null | Virchow's cells are seen in –
A. Henoch scholein purpura
B. Toxic Epidermal necrolysis
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Leprosy
| Leprosy |
7022a295-d3b0-4209-a66e-0a41df750b89 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hyponatremia Causes of status epilepticus in children o Idiopathic o Drug intoxication o Congenital/Developmental neurological abnormalities o Hypoglycemia o Meningitis, Encephalitis o Hyponatremia o Head trauma o Pyridoxin deficiency | Pediatrics | null | Causes of status epilepticus in a child-
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
| Hyponatremia |
6d8e7874-11ca-4620-8d6a-3f9410c0636b | A female with genital herpes simplex is at increased risk for cervical cancer. Genital herpes simplex isn't a risk factor for cancer of the ovaries, uterus, or vagina. HPV is the primary neoplastic-initiating event in the vast majority of women with invasive cervical cancer. HPV- 16 and -18 are the types most frequently associated with high-grade dysplasia. | Dental | Sexually Transmitted Infections | A female with genital herpes simplex is being treated in the outpatient depament. The doctor teaches her about measures that may prevent herpes recurrences and emphasizes the need for prompt treatment if complications arise. Genital herpes simplex increases the risk of:
A. Cancer of the ovaries
B. Cancer of the uterus
C. Cancer of the cervix
D. Cancer of the vagina
| Cancer of the cervix |
dc8ed65e-7931-4687-b942-5b6210c6537b | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Tyrosine kinase Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by BCR-ABL translocationThe BCR-ABL translocation in chronic myeloid leukemia encodes a tyrosine kinase which is essential for cell proliferation and survivalImatinib (511-571) is a new molecularly targeted drug, which inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity, producing hematological and cytological remission in majority of patients.The treatment of CML has changed with the introduction of imatinib mesylate.The drug is a specifically designed inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase activity of the bcr/abl oncogene.It is well tolerated and results in nearly universal, 98% hematologic control of chronic phase disease.It has now replaced both interferon and hydroxyurea as standard therapy.The addition of either alpha interferon or low dose chemotherapy with cytarabine holds promise for even better results.Adverse effects of imatinibNauseaPeriorbital swellingRashMyalgia | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | The drug imatinib acts by inhibtion of:
A. Tyrosine kinase
B. Glutathione reductase
C. Thy midile synthetase
D. Protein kinase
| Tyrosine kinase |
18fecf42-0103-416d-9750-672a5515ba2b | Absence of vasculitis, history of fever and nodular lesions with neutrophillic infiltration may be seen in Sweet's syndrome and Erythema Nodosum. However, presence of histiocytic infiltration is rare or uncommon in Sweet's syndrome and more common in Erythema nodosum. Therefore, Erythema nodosum is the right Answer amongst the above options and wins the duel with Sweet's syndrome. Ref: Tarascon pocket rheumatologica, by Andrew E. Thompson, Page 32; Vasculitis in clinical practice, by Richard A.Watts, David G.I. Scott, Page 153. | Skin | null | A young female presents with a history of fever and nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with neutrophilic infiltration. There is no evidence of Vasculitis. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Sweet's Syndrome
B. Erythema nodosum
C. Erythema nodosum leprosum
D. Behcet's syndrome
| Erythema nodosum |
a6053c89-bcc7-46b3-8f31-0b1618ef8e17 | Chandler Index
It is the average number of hookworm eggs per gram of faeces for the entire community. | Unknown | null | Chandler’s Index is used for:
A. Filariasis
B. Ascariasis
C. Guinea worm
D. Ancylostoma
| Ancylostoma |
4ae2e062-b21e-48d0-8bf6-89f40c5c1bf3 | Stomach is the most common site for leiomyoma in GIT.
Most common benign tumor of oesophagus is stomach. | Pathology | null | Most common site for leiomyoma in GIT ?
A. Appendix
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Stomach
| Stomach |
84f0ed49-9e34-4370-951e-9451f28c65d2 | Ans. a (Duodenum) (Ref. BDC, Vol. II, 3rd ed., 212)THE DUODENAL GLANDS OF BRUNNER (BRUNNER'S GLAND)# These lie in the SUBMUCOSA of the duodenum.# These are small, compound tubuloacinar glands.# They secrete mucus.RegionMajor characteristicsMucosal cell types at surfaceFunction of surface mucosal cellsEsophagus# Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium# Skeletal muscle in muscularia externa (upper 1/3)# Smooth muscle (lower 1/3)--Stomach (body and fundus)Rugae: shallow pits; deep glandsMucous cellsSecrete mucus; form protective layer against acid; tight junctions between these cells probably contribute to the acid barrier of the epithelium Chief cellsSecrete pepsinogen and lipase precursor Parietal cellsEnteroendocrine (EE) cellsSecrete HCI and intrinsic factorSecrete a variety of peptide hormonesPylorusDeep pits; shallow branched glandsMucous cellsParietal cellsEE cellsSame as aboveSame as aboveHigh concentration of gastrinSmall intestineVilli, plicae, and cryptsColumnar absorptive cellsContain numerous microvilli that greatly increase the luminal surface area, facilitating absorptionDuodenumBrunner glands, which discharge alkaline secretionGoblet cellsSecrete acid glycoproteins that protect mucosal liningsPaneth cellsContain granules that contain lysozymeMay play a role in regulating intestinal floraEE cellsHigh concentration of cells that secrete cholecystokinin and secretinJejunumVilli, well developed plica, cryptsSame cell types as found in the duodenal epitheliumSame as aboveIleumAggregations of lymph nodes called Peyer patchesM cells found over lymphatic nodules and Peyer patchesEndocytose and transport antigen from the lumen to lymphoid cellsLarge intestineLacks villi, cryptsMainly mucus-secreting and absorptive cellsTransport Na+ (active) and water (passively) out of lumen | Anatomy | Small Intestine | Brunner's glands are present in
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Proximal ileum
D. Distal ileum
| Duodenum |
8fdfdfb1-acdc-40d3-8f70-eafc6f482ed3 | Cayenne pepper stippling d/t hemosiderin seen in uncircumcised patient in Plasma cell balanitis of zoon/ zoon balanitis C/F - Erythematous, shiny lesions- Over glans penis- Asymptomatic lesion- Mild pruritus- Shows cayenne pepper strippling Cayenne pepper stippling appearance is d/t purpose develops pruritic spot d/t hemosiderin deposition. Erythroplasia of Queyrat- premalignant condition | Dental | JIPMER 2018 | Cayenne pepper stippling due to hemosiderin is found in:-
A. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
B. Paget's disease
C. Plasma cell balanitis of zoon
D. Bowen's disease
| Plasma cell balanitis of zoon |
6d044ab3-6c3e-42c1-9467-583675478961 | Ans. c. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches (Ref: BDC 4/vol-I/123) Nerve damaged in case of numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscles is ulnar nerve, before division into superficial and deep branches. Supplied muscles Ulnar Nerve (C7C8T1) Musician's NerveQ Median Nerve (C5678T1) Laborer's nerveQ Axilla and Arm No branch No branch Forearm * Flexor carpi ulnarisQ * Flexor digitorum profundus (medial half)Q * Flexor carpi radialis * Flexor digitorum profundus (lateral half) * Flexor digitorum superficialisQ * Flexor pollicis longus * Palmaris longus * Pronator teres and quadratusQ Hand * Last two (3rd and 4th) lumbricalsQ * Palmar and dorsal interosseiQ * Thenar muscles: - Adductor pollicisQ * Hypothenar muscles: - Palmaris brevis - Abductor digiti minimi - Flexor digiti minimi - Opponens digiti minimi * 1st two (1st and 2nd) lumbricalsQ * Thenar muscles: * Abductor pollicis b.revisQ * Flexor pollicis brevisQ * Opponens pollicisQ | Anatomy | Hand | Loss of extension of little ring finger, hypothenar atrophy is seen in injury of:
A. Post interosseous nerve
B. Radial trunk
C. Ulnar Nerve
D. Median nerve
| Ulnar Nerve |
b41d80ab-8e4c-482c-9837-bb9be343594a | Tay-Sachs Disease (GM2 Gangliosidosis: Deficiency in Hexosaminidase b Subunit) Gangliosidoses are characterized by accumulation of gangliosides, principally in the brain, as a result of a deficiency of a catabolic lysosomal enzyme. Depending on the ganglioside involved, these disorders are subclassified into GM1 and GM2 categories. Tay-Sachs disease, by far the most common of all gangliosidoses, is characterized by a mutation in and consequent deficiency of the b subunit of enzyme hexosaminidase A, which is necessary for the degradation of GM2. More than 100 mutations have been described; most affect protein folding or intracellular transpo. Referense:Robbins basic pathology pg no:229,230 | Pathology | Pediatrics, environment and nutrition | Deficinecy of enzyme hexosaminidase, subunit causes -
A. Tay - Sach's disease
B. Hurler's syndrome
C. Fabry disease
D. Pompe disease
| Tay - Sach's disease |
800bd0a9-d05f-48af-9c17-ce161396c2e4 | SLE FLARE: LAB RESULTS Increases in quantities of anti-dsDNA herald a flare, paicularly of nephritis or vasculitis It may be associated with declining levels of C3 or C4 complement. Antibodies to Sm is specific for SLE and assist in diagnosis; anti-Sm antibodies do not correlate with disease activity or clinical manifestations. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2735 | Medicine | null | The laboratory evidence of flare in SLE is:
A. Increase in titre of anti-dsDNA
B. Increase in titre of ANA
C. Increase in anti-Sm
D. Elevation of ESR
| Increase in titre of anti-dsDNA |
e4453f82-0320-4fc3-a8d5-0771184b6f21 | Ans. is 'b' i.e.,3 - 5%Vulval CarcinomaIt occurs in 17/100,000 females.It accounts for 3 - 5% of the genital tract malignanciesIt usually occurs in post menopausal females with median age of 60 years.It has increased association with obesity, hypeension, diabetes and multiparity. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Vulvar carcinoma accounts for what percentage of genital tract malignancies?
A. 0.5 - 1%
B. 3 - 5%
C. 7 - 11%
D. 13 - 15%
| 3 - 5% |
c2b593ea-9721-4906-9f81-c2e22a7fcaae | Chondroblastoma is an uncommon benign neoplasm consisting of chondroid tissue mixed with more cellular tissue. In 98% cases it arise from the epiphysis. Osteoid osteoma is most commonly located in the proximal medial femoral coex just distal to the lesser trochanter. In long bones it is mostly located in the diaphysis followed by metaphysis. Ewings sarcoma usually arise from the diaphysis of long bones. Chondrosarcoma has a predilection for flat bones especially shoulder and pelvic girdles but can also affect diaphyseal poion of long bones. | Surgery | null | Which of the following bone tumor arise from epiphysis?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Ewing's sarcoma
D. Chondroblastoma
| Chondroblastoma |
9978bf8d-9aeb-41e9-82e8-2ed07f541d77 | The magnitude of resting membrane potential from tissue to tissue ranges from - 9 to - 100.RMP of nerve Fibre is - 70mV(REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO 22) | Physiology | General physiology | Resting membrane potential of neuron is
A. +70mv
B. -70mv
C. +90mv
D. -90mv
| -70mv |
187e7c8d-4974-4221-9ceb-09a1771acbb1 | Cycloplegics are used in any corneal disease as a symptomatic treatment.
Atropine ointment or eye drop is the DOC. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer –
A. Atropine sulphate eye ointment
B. Dexamethasone eye drops
C. Pilocarpine eye drops
D. Lignocaine eye drops
| Atropine sulphate eye ointment |
8fff83bf-e469-4328-8f9d-cea5e72c975c | Ans. D. Neuroblastoma* Neuroblastoma - is the most common intra-abdominal malignancy and also, the most common extracranial solid tumor in children.* It is an embryonal cancer of the peripheral sympathetic nervous system.* The median age for diagnosis is 22 months and 90% of cases are diagnosed by 5 years of age.* Other options:- Optic nerve glioma, more properly referred to as juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, is the most frequent tumor of the optic nerve in childhood.- Chloromas, which are collections of myeloid leukemia cells, seen in patients with AML, can occur throughout the neuraxis.- Retinoblastoma is the most common primary malignant intraocular tumor of childhood. | Pediatrics | Childhood Tumors | The most common extracranial solid tumor in pediatric age group is ____:
A. Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
B. Chloroma
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Neuroblastoma
| Neuroblastoma |
a7434b3f-ee59-4619-a070-c9da63fc2c21 | Purpura fulminans is a severe form of DIC resulting from thrombosis of extensive areas of the skin. It predominantly affects young children following viral or bacterial infection, paicularly those with inherited or acquired hypercoagulability due to deficiencies of the components of the protein C pathway. | Medicine | Platelet & Coagulation disorders | Purpura fulminans is seen in?
A. Protein C deficiency
B. Protein S deficiency
C. AT III deficiency
D. Factor 5 leiden mutation
| Protein C deficiency |
6f53a7b0-8a07-49bc-9edb-7b3f195f7a81 | Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8'k edition. & Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th EditionExplanation:INSULINOMAfi-cell tumors (insulinomas) are the MC of pancreatic endocrine neoplasms.They may be responsible for the elaboration of sufficient insulin to induce clinically significant hypoglycemia.The characteristic triad of clinical symptomsHypoglycemia (Glucose levels < 50 mg/dL)CNS manifestations such as confusion, stupor, tremor and loss of consciousnessS ymptoms precipitated by fasting or exercise and are promptly relieved by feeding or glucose administrationClinical featuresProfound hypoglycemia during fasting or after exercise.Signs and symptoms of neuroglycopeniaAnxietyTremorConfusionObtundationSympathetic response (Hunger, Sweating, and Tachycardia)Whipple's triad refers to the clinical criteria for the diagnosis of insulinoma:- Hypoglycemic symptoms during monitored fasting.- Blood glucose levels less than 50 mg/dL. and- Relief of symptoms after administration of intravenous glucose.Factitious hypoglycemia (excess exogenous insulin administration) and postprandial reactive hypoglycemia must be excluded. (Estimation of C peptide will differentiate)In insulinoma, C peptide levels are increased but in Factitious hypoglycemia, it is decreasedMorphologyInsulinomas are most often found within the pancreas and are generally benign.Most are solitary, although multiple tumors may be encountered.Bona fide carcinomas, making up only about 10% of cases, are diagnosed on the basis of local invasion and distant metastases.On rare occasions an insulinoma may arise in ectopic pancreatic tissue.In such cases, electron microscopy reveals the distinctive granules of |3.Solitary tumors are usually small (<2 cm in diameter) and are encapsulated, pale to red- brown nodules located anywhere in the pancreas.Histologically, these benign tumors look remarkably like giant islets, with preservation of the regular cords of monotonous celts and their orientation to the vasculature.Deposition of amyloid in the extracellular tissue is a characteristic feature.ImagingDynamic CT scanning at 5-mm intervals with oral and intravenous contrast is the initial localizing test for insulinoma, with success in 35-85% of cases.Endoscopic ultrasound is also effective but is operator dependentIndium-111 (111 In)-octreotide scintigraphy is less effective (approximately 50%) for localization of insulinoma than other islet cell tumors because insulinomas typically have few somatostatin receptors.Selective arteriography with observation of a tumor "blush'- is the single best diagnostic study for the primary tumor and hepatic metastases. If a tumor is still not identified, regional localization to the head. body, or tail of the pancreas can be accomplished by portal venous sampling for insulin or by calcium angiography.Calcium angiography involves injection of calcium into selectively catheterized pancreatic arteries and measurement of plasma insulin through a catheter positioned in a hepatic vein.TreatmentIt is surgical in nearly all cases.Use of intraoperative ultrasonography greatly facilitates identification of small tumors, especially those located in the pancreatic head or uncinate process.Most insulinomas can be enucleated from surrounding pancreas, although those in the body or tail may require resection.In general, blind pancreatectomy should NOT be performed when the tumor cannot be identified. Approximately 5% of insulinomas are malignant, and 10% are multiple (usually in association with MEN type I).Medical treatment for insulinoma with diazoxide. verapamil, or octreotide has limited effectiveness but may be used in preparation for surgery or for patients unfit for surgery. | Surgery | Pathophysiology - Pancreatic Endocrine Tumors | A man presents with weakness, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, giddiness on fasting which is prompltly relieved with food intake. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Insulinoma
B. Pancreatic ca
C. Carcinoid
D. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
| Insulinoma |
bccc793d-a17d-4cab-a32a-3291bd629a7b | Superantigens
Certain species of infectious microorganisms produce powerful,
immunostimulatory and disease-causing toxins called superantigen, so called because of their ability' to a polyclonally active large fraction ( up to 20% ) of T cell population.
Superangens are potent acvators of T-lymphocytes.
Superangens smulate very large numbers of T cells, without relaon to their epitope specificity'.
This leads to an excessive and dysregulated immune response with release of cytokines IL - 1, IL - 2, TNF - α and IF - γ.
Conventional antigens bind to MHC class I or II molecules in the groove
of the β dimer (T cell receptor). In contrast, superantigen bind directly to the lateral portion of TCR β chain and MHC class II β chain, and stimulate T cells solely on γ β gene segment utilized
independent of the D, J and γ aα - sequences present → γ β restricted T cell mitogens.
Superantigens are capable of giving up to 20% of the peripheral T-cell pool,
whereas conventional antigens activate < 1 in 10, 000.
Examples of superantigen Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin □ Certain nonhuman retroviral proteins,
Staphylococcal enterotoxins □ Yersinia pseudotuberculosis Staphylococcal exfoliative (erythrogenic) toxin □ Mycoplasma arthritis. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin □ Mouse mammary tumor virus. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is a superantigen
A. Cholera toxin
B. Diphtheria toxin
C. TSST
D. Vero-cytoxin
| TSST |
90c2d77b-3178-480f-882c-8df67e0e3c61 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Brachioradialis o Lateral boundary of cubital fossa is formed by brachioradialis and medial boundary is formed by pronater teres. Cubital FossaLateral boundryBrachioradialisMedial boundryPronater teresBaseLine joining the two epicondyles of humerusApexPoint joining lateral and medial boundriesFloorBrachialis, supinatorRoofSkin, superficial fascia (containing medial cubital vein, lateral and medial cutaneous nerve of forearm), deep facia, bicipital aponeourosis Contents of cubital fossa (medial to lateral)o Median nerveo Brachial artery termination and begining of radial and ulnar arteries.o Biceps tendono Radial nerve and Radial collateral artery | Anatomy | Arm and Cubital Fossa | Lateral boundary of cubital fossa is formed by -
A. Biceps
B. Pronater teres
C. Brachialis
D. Brachioradialis
| Brachioradialis |
27a754c6-eb0a-4ddc-8474-de5212dbe3d9 | Ans. A: Immediately after bih Bacillus Calmette-Guerin/BCG is a vaccine against tuberculosis that is prepared from a strain of the attenuated (weakened) live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis, that has lost its virulence in humans by being specially cultured in an aificial medium for years. The bacilli have retained enough strong antigenicity to become a somewhat effective vaccine for the prevention of human tuberculosis. It should be given at bih. If missed at bih, it should be given at 6 weeks as per Indian National Immunization Schedule. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | BCG should be given: September 2005
A. Immediately after bih
B. At the age of 1 month
C. At the age of 6 months
D. At the age of 1 year
| Immediately after bih |
7959efa7-3c97-4d5c-8b09-46348111c406 | IL-2 promote growth and differentiation of T & B cells , cytotoxicity of T & NK cells Reff: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 154 table 15.3 | Microbiology | Immunology | N K cells activity is enahnced by -
A. IL-1
B. TNF
C. IL-2
D. TGP-b
| IL-2 |
d4cb51de-7d4b-4edc-9c78-6ab615b2967a | *Shenton's line is an imaginary line drawn along the inferior border of the superior pubic ramus and along the infero- medial border of the neck of femur. REF:Ref: Maheshwari J.Essential Ohopaedics 6th/e p.222 | Anatomy | null | Shenton's Line is present in-
A. knee
B. Shoulder
C. Elow
D. Hip
| Hip |
a3cbf092-5849-4e46-98e4-4c7aa5714d4f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4%The recurrence risk of neural tube defect is :3 - 5 % if a couple has previously had a child with either anencephaly or spina bifida.5% if either parent was born with a NTD.10% if a couple has two affected children | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Chance of subsequent baby having NTD when first baby was born with NTD -
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 10%
D. 20%
| 4% |
1a45798e-b827-45af-86b8-58fdc8d22700 | ANSWER: (C) AdenocarcinomaREF: Novaks gynaecology 14th ed.pg no 1350Uterine sarcomas are, in general, the most malignant group of uterine tumorsAbout 90% of women with endometrial carcinoma have vaginal bleeding or discharge as their only presenting symptom.The risk for endometrial cancer is 4 to 8 times greater in postmenopausal women receiving unopposed estrogen therapy, and the risk increases with time and higher estrogen doses.The endometrioid type of adenocarcinoma accounts for about 80% of endometrial carcinomas. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Carcinoma Endometrium | Most common histological variety of Uterine carcinoma is?
A. Squmous cell carcinoma
B. Columnar cell carcinoma
C. Adeno carcinoma
D. Mixed carcinoma
| Adeno carcinoma |
8c22bc36-1a71-4fda-a3cf-347e85c752f5 | Hyperacute rejection occurs when preformed anti-donor antibodies are present in the circulation of the recipient. Such antibodies may be present in a recipient who has previously rejected kidney transplant, Multiparous women, Prior blood transfusionsHyperacute Rejection occurs within minutes or hours after transplantation.Robbins pathology 9e Pg: 233 | Surgery | General surgery | Hyperacute rejection is due to
A. Preformed antibodies
B. Cytotoxic T lymphocyte mediated injury
C. Endothelitis caused by donor antibodies
D. Circulating macrophage mediated injury
| Preformed antibodies |
70123f24-ea9f-45bb-b261-d79b38d46597 | Ans is 'b' i.e. Syringomyelia * In Syringomyelia, there sensory deficit in upper extrimities in the form of loss of pain and temperature sensations with touch and vibration being intact. | Pathology | Central Nervous System | Painless burn in hand is a characteristic feature of?
A. Thalamic syndrome
B. Syringomyelia
C. Cord compression
D. SLE
| Syringomyelia |
f293bf95-1a65-4606-b2cd-56cbc31b2e3b | Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is an appetite suppressing substance found in the brain and intestine. In the brain, GLP-1 acts as a satiety signal. In the intestine, it slows emptying of the stomach and stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreas.Pancreatic polypeptide is a 36-amino acid peptide secreted by islet cells of the pancreas in response to a meal and of unceain physiologic function;glucagon a polypeptide hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans in response to hypoglycemia or to stimulation by growth hormone. It increases blood glucose concentration by stimulating glycogenolysis in the liver and can be administered parenterally to relieve severe hypoglycemia from any cause, especially hyperinsulinism.Somatostatin is a cyclic tetradecapeptide hormone and neurotransmitter that inhibits the release of peptide hormones in many tissues. It is released by the hypothalamus to inhibit the release of growth hormone (GH, somatotropin) and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary; it is also released by the delta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas to inhibit the release of glucagon and insulin and by the similar D cells in the gastrointestinal tract.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-433 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Insulin is secreted along with the following molecule in a 1:1 ratio
A. Pancreatic polypeptide
B. Glucagon
C. GLP- 1
D. Somatostatin
| GLP- 1 |
1dec6929-4aca-4d43-8ea8-9050b3226867 | Measurement of blood loss during surgery (Gravimetric Method)
Blood loss during operation is measured by: Weighing the swabs after use and subtracting the dry weight and fluid used + volume of blood collected in suction bottles (after subtracting irrigating fluid) | Surgery | null | Blood loss during major surgery is best estimated by:
A. Visual assessment
B. Suction bottles
C. Transesophageal USG Doppler
D. Cardiac output by thermodilution
| Suction bottles |
1fbfc98a-f744-4f57-8a6e-45cb51c84e27 | Ans. is'd'i.e., Glycolytic(Ref: Principles of medicalphysiolog p. 512)TYPES OF MUSCLE FIBERS:Two fibers types:Type I/red fibersType II/white fibers.Motor unit contains only one muscle fibers type:I.e., All motor unit fibers are either type-I or type II.Hence, named accordingly.CHARACTERISTICS OF MUSCLE FIBER TYPES:Parameters/CharacteristicsType I muscle fiberType II muscle fiberDifference according to fiber typeRed -Due to |ed myoglobin & mitochondrial content.White -Lack myoglobin & have few mitochondria.Subtypes- Nil -Type IIA & Type IIBIIA - Oxidative & glycolytic.IIB - Glycolytic.Usually type IIB fibers refer type II fibers.Other names1. "Slow-twitch" fibers:Due to small fiber length & diameter.Maintain relatively sustained contraction.2. "Slow motor units"Have early recruitment.1. "Fast-twitch" fibers -Sho duration of twitch.Due to bigger diameter & |ed myosin & actin filaments.Generate greater tension comparatively.2. Type IIa/"Fast Fatigue Resistant" (FR) units:Intermediate fatigability.3. Type IIb/"Fast fatigable units":Late recruitment thresholdMetabolismAerobic.Slow oxidative.Anaerobic.Fast glycolytic.Glycolytic capacity &glycogen contentLowHighSarcoplasmic reticulumNormalExtensiveBlood supplyHighNormalMyosin ATPase activityLowHighConduction velocitySlowFastContractile propeiesSlow time to peak tensionType IIa - Fast time to peak tension.Type IIb - Fastest time to peak tension.Type of muscleRed muscles -In muscles required for prolonged contraction.Also with muscles maintaining posture.Back muscles (At back of hip)Gluteus muscles .Calf muscles.White/Pale muscles -Muscles helpful in rapid contractions & finer movements.Hand & extraocular muscles. | Physiology | null | Fast muscle fibers are?
A. Red
B. Oxidative
C. Tonic
D. Glycolytic
| Glycolytic |
e85df0e9-7a64-4e94-8866-bd991d1c037f | Behavioural therapy includes bladder training, pelvic floor exercise, fluid management. | Pharmacology | null | Which is the first line of treatment for overactive bladder?
A. Antimuscarinic drug
B. Behavioural therapy
C. Cholinergic drug
D. Botulinum toxin type A
| Behavioural therapy |
ae3e0956-2070-4273-aebd-175b679406e2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mefloquine Chemoprophylaxis of malaria Chemoprophylaxis is recommended for travellers from non-endemic areas, and as a sho term measure for soldiers, police and labour forces serving in highly endemic areas. Chemoprophylaxis should begin a week before arrival in malarious area and continued for at least 4 weeks or preferably 6 weeks after leaving malarious area. Drugs used are : ? Chloroquine - DOC for chemoprophylaxis in chloroquine sensitive P. falciparum areas. Atovaquone/Proguanil - Used in areas with chloroquine or mefloquine resistant P. falciparum. Doxycycline - Used in areas with chloroquine or mefloquine resistant P. falciarum. Mefloquine - Used in areas with chloroquine resistant P. falciparum Hydroxychloroquine - Alternative to chloroquine in areas with chloroquine sensitive P. falciparum | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Drug for prophylaxis of malaria in chloroquine resistant P.falciparum ?
A. Mefloquine
B. Quinine
C. Halofantrine
D. Aesunate
| Mefloquine |
aa2018bc-4a47-4b17-82be-063f77abddb1 | MALA-N contains levonorgestrel 0.15 mg and ethinyl estradiol 0.03mg MALA-N is supplied free of cost through all PHC&;s, Urban family welfare centres etc. Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 500 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Mala-N contains
A. Ethinyl estradiol 30 mcg
B. Norgesterol 50 mcg
C. Ethinyl estradiol 50 mcg
D. Progesterone 10 mg
| Ethinyl estradiol 30 mcg |
95f19616-1ba6-474a-9ac1-9fa96ccad686 | Retinoblastoma: It is a malignant glioma of the retina, usually unilateral, that occurs in young children and usually is hereditary. In about 30 % of patients retinoblastoma is bilateral. The initial diagnostic finding is usually a yellow or white light reflex seen at the pupil (cat's eye reflex). | Ophthalmology | All India exam | Retinoblastoma is bilateral in
A. 100 % of cases
B. 1 % of cases
C. 50 % of cases
D. 30 % of cases
| 30 % of cases |
a9f916d7-6a0e-42b2-9167-f74b1f2d365c | The patterns of fingerprints : Loops-these reconstitute 60-70 percent patients encountered Whorl-represent 25-30 percent patients encountered Arch -represent about 5 percent of patients encountered Least commonly encountered is composite Refernce:Essentials of Forensic Medicine and toxicology PG no 2,vol 3 | Forensic Medicine | Identification | Which of the following is most common fingerprint pattern
A. Loops
B. Whorl
C. Composite
D. Arches
| Loops |
a710ef33-0ac7-4ac7-9e24-f5a271145fad | Outer blood retinal barrier is formed by retinal pigment epithelium Blood Retinal Barrier * Outer BRB: Formed by RPE * Inner BRB: Formed by endothelium of microvasculature | Ophthalmology | Retina | Outer blood retinal barrier is formed by
A. Internal limiting mebrane
B. Endothelium
C. Retinal pigment epithelium
D. Ganglion cells
| Retinal pigment epithelium |
a5724364-a404-4a60-9ce4-8a1dc8e5b405 | Radiographic signs of Intussusception: 1. Target sign 2. Crescent sign 3. Absent liver edge sign (also called the absence of the subhepatic angle) 4. Bowel obstruction 5. May have a normal x-ray The corkscrew sign describes the spiral appearance of the distal duodenum and proximal jejunum seen in midgut volvulus. It has been identified as a diagnostic indicator of midgut volvulus. Ref: Oiz-neira CL. The corkscrew sign: midgut volvulus. Radiology. 2007;242 (1): 315-6. | Surgery | G.I.T | Which of the following radiographic presentation cannot be seen in a patient with intussusception?
A. Target sign
B. Corkscrew sign
C. Crescent sign
D. Normal radiograph
| Corkscrew sign |
2a3148e2-464e-491d-98ab-8ca190e4e970 | A i.e. Pseudogout In pseudogout (CPPD), there is intra & peri-aicular calcificationQ due to radio dense deposits are deposited in menisci & aicular hyaline cailage. | Radiology | null | Calcification around the joint is seen in:
A. Pseudogout
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Rh. ahritis
D. Gout
| Pseudogout |
94f802f9-ef67-47e1-a750-869eafc8790b | Ans. a. Thymidine dimmers repair (Ref: Harper 27/e p345-346; Lehning 5/e p1003)This patient is most likely have xeroderma pigmentosa, in which damage produced by UV-rays is caused due to formation of pyrimidine (mainly thymidine) dimmers.The damage produced by UV rays is caused due to formation of pyrimidine (mainly thymine) dimmersQ. The thymine dimmer prevent DNA polymerase from replicatingQ the DNA strand beyond the dimmer, thus inhibiting the repair of defective DNA.In Xeroderma Pigmentosa mechanism for repair (nucleotide excision repair)Q of damaged DNA is defective due to formation of Thymidine dimmersQ.Xeroderma Pigmentosa (AR)An autosomal recessive condition in which cells cannot repair the damaged DNA.The clinical syndrome include marked sensitivity to sun lightQ resulting inSkin cancersQPremature deathQArises because of defect in 'nucleotide excision' pathway of repair due to defect in either of three:UV specific endonuclease (MC defect)Q DNA polymerase 1QDNA IigaseQ Mechanism of DNA RepairMechanismProblemSolutionMismatch RepairCopying errorsQMethyl directed strand cutting, exonudease digestion and replacementBase Excision RepairSpontaneous or chemical, or radiation damage to a single baseQBase removal by N-glycosylase, a basic sugar removal, replacementNucleotide Excision RepairSpontaneous or chemical, or radiation damage to a single segmentQRemoval of approximately 30 nucleotide oligomer and replacementDouble Strand Break repairIonizing radiation, chemotherapy,oxidative free radicalsQSynapsis, unwinding, alignment, ligationAtaxia telangiectasia, Bloom's syndrome, Fanconi's anemia, Xeroderma pigmentosa, HNPCC and few breast cancers are due to DNA repair defectsQ. | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | A child develop skin tumor with blisters on exposure to sunlight. Irregular dark spots on the skin were also found. He is very likely has defect in which of the following mechanism?
A. Thymidine dimmers repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Double strand break repair
| Thymidine dimmers repair |
42713bab-2119-47f1-9298-b11923598ac7 | (b) Endolymphatic hydrops(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2331)Meniere's is also known as endolymphatic hydrops.There is no condition called Perilymphatic hydrops.Otospongiosis also known as otosclerosis is fixation of foot plate of stapes.Coalescent mastoiditis is infection of the mastoid air cells and is a complication following ASOM/ unsafe CSOM. | ENT | Otosclerosis | Meniere's disease is:
A. Perilymphatic hydrops
B. Endolymphatic hydrops
C. Otospongiosis
D. Coalescent mastoiditis
| Endolymphatic hydrops |
98626654-2e98-438a-8a62-6a8c78867cb2 | Bictegravir (an Integrase Inhibitor) is a component of the fixed-dose combination product bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide (brand name: Biktarvy), which received marketing approval for the treatment of HIV infection by U.S. Food and Drug Administration in February 2018. | Pharmacology | All India exam | Bictegravir was approved by FDA recently for
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. TB
C. Hypeension
D. HIV
| HIV |
f7982d79-b9e1-41ac-a378-c69f1afe897e | Answer-C. Fluctuating parasympathetic response during respirationSinus rhythm with a beat-to-beat variation in the P-P interval (the time between successive P waves), producing an irregular ventricular rate.Sinus arrhythmia is a normal physiological phenomenon, most commnonly seen in young, healthy people.The hea rate varies due to reflex changes in vagal ( parasyntpathetic ) tone during the different stages of the respiratory cycle,Inspiration increases the hea rate by decreasing vagal tone.With the onset of expiration, vagal tone is restored, leading to a subsequent decrease in hea rate. | Medicine | null | Sinus arrhythmia is due to-
A. Sinus node disease
B. Exaggerated response to sympathetic system
C. Fluctuating parasympathetic response during respiration
D. Decreased hea rate in inspiration
| Fluctuating parasympathetic response during respiration |
989ea808-e1cf-4ec8-bd78-dba14489ea2e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clubbing Clinical indicators of clubbing are Lovibond profile sign and cuh's modified profile sign". Lovibond angle is the angle located at the junction between the nail plate and proximal nail fold. It is normally less than 160deg. In clubbing, the angle exceeds 180deg (Lovibond profile sign). | Skin | null | Lovibond profile sign is seen in ?
A. Koilonychia
B. Platynochia
C. Clubbing
D. Onycholysis
| Clubbing |
3e03b82c-ad2f-40b7-8089-28030721c153 | Middle meningeal artery passes between roots of auriculotemporal nerve. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following artery passes between the roots of the auriculotemporal nerve?
A. Maxillary artery
B. Middle meningeal artery
C. Superficial temporal artery
D. Accessory meningeal artery
| Middle meningeal artery |
438f68a9-6e98-4d3e-b706-97146f74c8ac | Ans. C) Galactosemia Oil drop cataract Commonly seen in patients with galactosemia (a recessively inherited inborn error of carbohydrate metabolism). Accumulation of dulcitol (galactose reduction product) within the lens cells leads to increased intracellular osmotic pressure and fluid influx into the lens. | Ophthalmology | null | Oil drop cataract is characteristic of ?
A. Diabetes
B. Chalcosis
C. Galactosemia
D. Wilson's disease
| Galactosemia |
8350f6f8-cdb3-45ff-8468-ed8e6c5a1bdd | All non-depolarizing blockers (D-tubocurarine) act as competitive antagonist of acetylcholine on nicotinic (Nm) receptors at myoneural junction. | Anaesthesia | null | D–tubocurarine acts by –
A. Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction
B. Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion
C. Producing depolarizing block
D. By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine
| Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction |
dcb4e06e-4461-4dc4-846d-cc2f2eb86f85 | Sildenafil & Tadalafil are the PDE-5 inhibitors which are contrainidicated with Nitrates to prevent severe hypotension. | Pharmacology | null | Nitrates are contraindicated with
A. Sulphonylureas
B. Immunomodulators
C. SSRI's
D. PDE-5 inhibitors
| PDE-5 inhibitors |
c25aa1bc-32fd-4bf7-93fa-c3fe65034669 | Ans. A. <1AMH and ovarian reserveAMH of 1.0 has very poor ovarian reserveThe central concept for the measurement of blood levels of AMH to determine ovarian reserve is this: women with lower AMH levels have a lower ovarian reserve than women with high AMH levels. AMH is currently being used by feility specialists to help predict women who may respond poorly to feility medications and in general, couples who are less likely to be successful with feility treatment. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In low ovarian reserve,anti mullerian hormone level will be:
A. <1
B. 4-Jan
C. >7
D. >10
| <1 |
694aecb0-4eb3-4026-aff1-322c0dec77d5 | Right upper lobe segments-apical,posterior,anterior B D CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX-VOLUME1 SIXTH EDITION,Page no-241 | Anatomy | Thorax | Which are segments of upper lobe of right lung ?
A. Anterior, posterior, medial
B. lateral,medial,superior
C. Apical, anterior, posterior
D. Basal, medial, lateral
| Apical, anterior, posterior |
294792e4-d7d2-4a8b-919b-95346c69d425 | (A) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL or DLBL)[?]Diffuse Large B-Cell LymphomaoDiffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) is the most common form of NHL.oEach year in the United States there are about 25,000 new cases.oThere is a slight male predominance. The median patient age is about 60 years, but DLBCL also occurs in young adults and children. Germinal centre or post germinal center B celloDiverse chromosomal re-arrangements, most often BC26 (30%), BCL2 (10%), or C-MYC (5%).oAll ages, most common in Adults, 30% extranodal, aggressiveoTHC positive for CD10, CD20, CD10 & BCL6oPathogenesis:-Genetic, gene expression profiling, and immunohistochemical studies indicate that DLBCL is molecularly heterogeneous.-One frequent pathogenic event is dysregulation of BCL6, a DNA-binding zinc-finger transcriptional repressor that is required for the formation of normal germinal centers.-About 30% of DLBCLs contain various translocations that have in common a breakpoint in BCL6 at chromosome 3q27.-Acquired mutations in BCL6 promoter sequences that abrogate BCL6 autoregulation (an important negative-regulatory mechanism) are seen even more frequently.oImmunophenotype:-These mature B-cell tumors express CD19 and CD20 and show variable expression of germinal center B-cell markers such as CD10 and BCL6. Most have surface Ig.oSpecial Subtypes: Immunodeficiency-associated large B-cell lymphoma, Primary effusion lymphomaoClinical Features:-DLBCL typically presents as a rapidly enlarging mass at a nodal or extranodal site.-It can arise virtually anywhere in the body.-Waldeyer ring, the oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue that includes the tonsils and adenoids, is involved commonly.-Primary or secondary involvement of the liver and spleen may take the form of large destructive masses.-Extranodal sites include the gastrointestinal tract, skin, bone, brain, and other tissues.-Bone marrow involvement is relatively uncommon and usually occurs late in the course.-Rarely, a leukemic picture emerges.Other Options[?]Hairy cell Leukemia:-This rare but distinctive B-cell neoplasm constitutes about 2% of all leukemias.-Hairy cell leukemias are associated in more than 90% of cases with activating point mutations in the serine/threonine kinase BRAF, which is positioned immediately downstream of RAS in the MAPK signaling cdscade[?]Burkitt's lymphoma:-Within the category of Burkitt Lymphoma fall (1) African (endemic) Burkitt lymphoma, (2) sporadic (non-endemic) Burkitt lymphoma, and (3) a subset of aggressive lymphomas occurring in individuals infected with HIV.-Burkitt lymphomas occurring in each of these settings are histologically identical but differ in some clinical, genotypic, and virologic characteristics.-All forms of Burkitt lymphoma are highly associated with translocations of the MYC gene on chromosome 8 that lead to increased MYC protein levels.-Essentially all endemic Burkitt lymphomas are latently infected with EBV, which is also present in about 25% of HIV-associated tumors and 15% to 20% of sporadic cases.-Characteristic "starry sky" pattern.-When the bone marrow is involved, aspirates reveal tumor cells with slightly clumped nuclear chromatin, two to five distinct nucleoli, and royal blue cytoplasm containing clear cytoplasmic vacuoles.[?]Mantle Cell lymphoma:-Mantle cell lymphoma is an uncommon lymphoid neoplasm that makes up about 2.5% of NHL in the United States and 7% to 9% of NHL in Europe.-It usually presents in the fifth to sixth decades of life and shows a male predominance.-As the name implies, the tumor cells closely resemble the normal mantle zone B cells that surround germinal centers.-Virtually all mantle cell lymphomas have an (11;14) translocation involving the IgH locus on chromosome 14 and the cyclin D1 locus on chromosome 11 that leads to over expression of cyclin D1.-Most common presentation is painless lymphadenopathy.-Symptoms related to involvement of the spleen (present in -50% of cases) and gut are also common. | Pathology | Blood | Most common among the Non-Hodgkin s Lymphoma (NHL) is
A. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL or DLBL)
B. Haiiy cell Leukemia
C. Burkitt's lymphoma
D. Mantle Cell lymphoma
| Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL or DLBL) |
76294a31-d4e8-4b3b-8aa8-16a1168f0aeb | Ans. is `a' i.e., Anterior division of internal iliacBranches of anterior division of internal iliac aery are : (i) Superior vesical, (ii) Middle rectal, (iii) Inferior vesical (in males), (iv) Internal pudendal, (v) Vaginal (in females), (vi) Uterine (in females), (vii) Obturator, and (viii) Inferior gluteal.Branches of posterior division are : (i) Iliolumbar, (ii) Lateral sacral, and (iii) Superior gluteal. | Anatomy | null | Internal pudendal aery is a branch of ?
A. Anterior division of internal iliac
B. Posterior division of internal iliac
C. Anterior division of external iliac
D. Posterior division of external iliac
| Anterior division of internal iliac |
04d81502-541a-4e26-b3ce-36bf793a6873 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Corynebacterium Diphtheriae | Microbiology | null | Daisy head colonies are seen with -
A. Staph. Aureus
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Staph. Pyogenes
D. Anthrax
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
aee54667-ff80-4a7a-a196-550c4646a259 | Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
It begins at below 16 years of age
NSAIDs are given
Ra factor is negative
Uveitus is seen in oligoarticular JIA | Pediatrics | null | Characteristic feature of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis is
A. Uveitis is a feature
B. It occurs after 16 years of age
C. NSAIDs are contraindicated
D. RA factor is negative
| RA factor is negative |
a2ec1ac4-09e9-4b05-8020-505ab64c9d78 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) Causes of Acute Pancreatitis Common causes Gallstones (including microlithiasis) - most common Hyperiglyceridemia Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), especially after biliary manometry. Trauma (especially blunt abdominal trauma) Postooperative (abdominal and nonabdominal operation) Drugs (L-asparginase, thiazide diuretics, frusomide, estrogens, azathioprime, 6-mercaptopurine, methyldopa, sulfonamide, tetracyclin, valproic acid, anti-HIV medicacations) Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction Uncommon causes Vascular causes and vasculitis (ischemic-hypoperfusion states after cardiac surgery) Connective tissue disorders and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) Cancer of the pancreas Hypercalcemia Periampullary diveiculum Pancreas divisum Hereditary pancreatitis Cystic fibrosis Renal failure | Pathology | null | Which of the following is not a cause of acute pancreatitis ?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
| Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) |
854a5440-6eff-4f6e-a900-a22be4196eba | Ans. B. 10 mL/minThe amount of oxygen exchanged is equal to the product of the blood flow and the arterial venous oxygen content difference: 200mL/minx(20mL/100mL-15mL/100mL)=10mL/min. | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | For an arterial blood content of 20 mL oxygen per 100 mL blood and venous blood content of 15 mL oxygen per 100 mL of blood, how much oxygen is transferred from blood to tissue if the blood flow is 200 mL/min?
A. 5 mL/min
B. 10 mL/min
C. 15 mL/min
D. 20 mL/min
| 10 mL/min |
8540be06-254f-4daa-9214-ce0d1b2911cf | Ans. is c, i.e. Trichomonas infectionRef: Williams Gynae 3rd/ed, p52* Whiff Test:Vaginal discharge +10% KOH gives a Fishy odour.This test is characteristic of BV with vaginal pH >4.5 and this stems from diminished acid production by bacteria.Similarly Trichomonas vaginals infection is also associated with anaerobic overgrowth & resultant elaborated lamines.Thus women diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis should have no microscopic evidence of trichomoniasis | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Sexually Transmitted Disease in the Female | Whiff test is positive in:
A. Candidians
B. Chlamydial infection
C. Trichomonas vaginitis
D. HSV infection
| Trichomonas vaginitis |
3eaa6e22-fd9c-4c98-a623-0caa41889416 | Aspirin Clopidogrel Ticlopidine 3 Act on TXA2 2 Act on ADP Abciximab Tirofiban Eptifibatide Act on GpIIb/IIIa | Pharmacology | Hematology | A drug that binds to and inhibits Gp IIb/IIIa glycoprotein and is responsible for platelet antiaggregatory effects is:
A. Clopidogrel
B. Enoxaparin
C. Fondaparinux
D. Tirofiban
| Tirofiban |
578a0850-ca30-4678-87f1-2b13166c87a8 | Mitochondrial DNA is inherited only by Mother. So mother trammits disease related to Mitochondria to all her children. | Pediatrics | null | What is the pattern of inheritance in the given pedigree chart
A. Holandric inheritance
B. Mitochondrial inheritance
C. X linked dominant inheritance
D. Autosomal donminant inheritance
| Mitochondrial inheritance |
c7fac04d-a5e5-4325-84a4-b1b45bb5030b | Adenovirus causes pharyngitis, pneumonia, ARD, pharyngoconjunctival fever, EKC, acute follicular conjunctivitis, diarrhea, and acute hemorrhagic fever. Pharyngeoconjunctival fever is usually associated with serotypes 3,7 and 14. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:482 | Microbiology | Virology | Pharyngeconjunctival fever is caused by -
A. Adenovirus 3 and 7
B. Adenovirus 11, 21
C. Adenovirus 40, 41
D. Adenovirus 8, 19
| Adenovirus 3 and 7 |
a62c9a9f-9093-4e5c-ad28-c46417808666 | IQ between 50-70 is mild mental retardation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | IQ = 51 –
A. Mild MR
B. Moderate MR
C. Severe MR
D. Profound MR
| Mild MR |
c4a20ef2-c3fb-45b2-931a-41fd199cfea4 | Ans. (c) M. tuberculosis Features M. tuberculosis M. leprae Acid fastness Resist decolorization by 20% H2SO4 Resist decolorization by 5% H2SO4 Alcohol fastness Present Absent Culture Possible Not possible Niacin Positive (also some strain of M. microti) Negative Generation time 14-15 hours 12-1 3 days Remember:- Nocardia resist 1-4% of sulphuric acid (weakly acid fast). | Microbiology | null | Which of the following are acid fast positive with 20% sulphuric acid:
A. M. avium
B. M. leprae
C. M. tuberculosis
D. Nocardia
| M. tuberculosis |
91d1ea30-df10-4e1c-b5ff-a00b7ca8439b | The Lachman test is the most sensitive and specific clinical test for anterior cruciate ligament injury. It is especially useful because it can be performed even in an acutely painful knee when the knee is painful and swollen. Ref: Campbell's Operative Ohopaedics, 11th Edition, Page 2440; Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adult, 5th Edition, Pages 1902-3; Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Board Review, Sara J. Cuccurullo, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, Musculoskeletal Medicine, Page 240 | Surgery | null | In acute knee injuries with swelling and hemahrosis with muscle spasm, which of the following tests in most sensitive to detect anterior cruciate ligament injury?
A. Lachman's test
B. Pivot shift test
C. Apley's grinding test
D. Anterior drawer test
| Lachman's test |
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