id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
ecdb0306-bc7b-4bc6-88cb-917a88f701ec | *The more the angle, the more unstable is the fracture, and worse the prognosis. Ref: Maheshwari 9th/e p.132,133& 4th/e p.129 | Orthopaedics | Pelvis and Hip injuries | Increase is Pauwel's angle indicate -
A. Good prognosis
B. Impaction
C. More chances of displacement
D. Trabecular alignment disrupted
| More chances of displacement |
ef0b1d8c-fdd8-4895-84a1-9edce78782b9 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Throat Swab Culture Carriers can be detected only by cultural methods --> Swabs are taken from nose and throat and it is examined by cultural methods for Diphtheria bacilli | Microbiology | null | Investigation of choice of diphtheria carrier is -
A. Throat Swab Culture
B. Gram's stain
C. Albe's stain
D. Zeil Nelson's stain
| Throat Swab Culture |
a2108ba6-0ac8-4aea-9e94-d3384e89f40f | Methylergometrine (methergine) is administered during delivery of anterior shoulder to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. | Pharmacology | null | Ergot alkaloid commonly used to prevent postpartum hemorrhage is :
A. Methylergometrine
B. Ergotamine
C. Dihydroergotamine
D. Dihydroergotoxine
| Methylergometrine |
a0db46ec-37bb-4aa0-a462-0486d99d9a6f | Segment I is the caudate lobe and is situated posterior l and it may receive its supply from both the right and the left branches of poal vein. It contains one or more hepatic veins which drain directly into the IVC Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1422 | Anatomy | G.I.T | With couinaud's segment nomenclature, which one the following segments of liver has an independent vascularization
A. Segment I
B. Segment II
C. Segment IV
D. Segment VIII
| Segment I |
d86cdb33-cb87-41a9-9c4d-ec97abf5651f | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli The water molecules on the surface of water (at air-water interphase) have an especially strong attraction for one another. This results in the water surface to contract producing surface tension.Thus the water molecules lining the alveoli produce an elastic contractile force due to surface tension which causes the alveoli to collapse.This surface tension force of water molecules is broken by surfactant (a mixture of phospholipids, proteins and ions, most important phospholipid of which is dipalmitoylphosphatidyl-choline-DPCC). It is secreted by type II alveolar epithelial cells and lines the alveoli.The phospholipid molecules have a hydrophilic head and two parallel hydrophobic 'tails'. Thus only head part of the molecule dissolves in the fluid lining the alveolar surface and the hydrophobic tails face the alveolar lumen. This new surface thus formed of the surfactant has a significantly reduced surface tension than the water molecules.By reducing the surface tension, surfactant serves two purposes:Prevents the alveoli from collapsingPrevents pulmonary edema. | Physiology | Functional Anatomy - Respiratory System | The mechanism of action of surfactant is
A. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
B. Binds oxygen
C. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
D. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
| Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli |
b0b3ae7b-0618-4ef9-b829-6e9a05bb4908 | Ans. 4. Simple columnar > 3. Simple cuboidal Cell lining of common bile duct is simple columnar epithelium, it may be cuboidal at the proximal region. The Intrahepatic ducts, cystic duct, and the common bile duct are lined by tall columnar epithelium. Ducts are usually lined by simple cuboidal epithelium, which differentiates to form the secretory and duct poions of glands. Stratified cuboidal epithelium protects areas such as the ducts of sweat glands, mammary glands, and salivary glands. At locations like common bile duct, the ducts may be lined by columnar epithelium. | Anatomy | Epithelial tissue | Cell lining of common bile duct is :
A. Stratified columnar
B. Stratified squamous
C. Simple cuboidal
D. Simple columnar
| Simple columnar |
87261074-15a7-4e42-9e00-7cfc1c025da7 | Membrane excitability is related to the ease with which depolarization opens Na+ channels. The opening of the Na+ channel in response to depolarization is, in pa, related to the extracellular Ca2+ concentration; the lower the extracellular Ca2+ concentration, the easier it is for Na + channels to open when the membrane depolarizes. Hyperventilation (lowering aerial CO2 tension) decreases extracellular Ca+ concentration by increasing aerial pH. When pH rises, H+ is released from plasma proteins in exchange for Ca and ionized Ca+ concentration decreases. | Surgery | null | In tetany the increased membrane excitability is caused by:
A. Decreased release of inhibitory neurotransmitter from nerve terminals
B. Depolarization of the nerve and muscle membranes
C. Spontaneous release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Activation of sodium channels at more negative membrane potentials
| Depolarization of the nerve and muscle membranes |
b7ba0310-9b87-4f6b-ad4b-c37e4317ddc6 | Microbial killing can also occur through the action of other substances in leukocyte granules. Cationic arginine-rich granule peptides that are toxic to microbes; cathelicidins is present in leukocyte granules. Ref: Robbins 8th edition, Chapter 2. | Pathology | null | Cathelicidins are rich in which of the following amino acid?
A. Cysteine
B. Cystine
C. Methionine
D. Arginine
| Arginine |
1f4801a0-c9c5-4fda-b55d-0a193fe99622 | The route by which most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the bloodstream. Once dissolved in the blood plasma, carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid, which immediately ionizes into hydrogen and bicarbonate ions. The bicarbonate ions serve as part of the alkaline reserve. | Physiology | null | Most important from of carbon-dioxide transport in the blood
A. It is mostly transported as carboxy hemoglobin
B. As dissolved CO2
C. As bicarbonates
D. Due to CO2 molecules attached to hemoglobin
| As bicarbonates |
e40da2d7-1b90-4773-9b46-a4746de28849 | Staphylococcus aureus is the most common (about 90%) organism isolated in septic ahritis in adults. In neonates joint sepsis is caused by S. aureus with group B streptococci being the next most common. In young children aged 2 months to 2 years, S. aureus, Streptococcus and Haemophilus influenza in an decreasing order. In young adults, S. aureus and N. gonorrhoeae are the most common organisms causing joint sepsis. In elderly people, S.aureus causes infection. Gram negative septic ahritis may occur in patients with sickle cell anemia. | Surgery | null | A 45 year old comes with symptoms of septic ahritis. What will be the most common cause in this patient?
A. Gonococcus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Salmonella
D. Pneumococci
| Staphylococcus aureus |
8d07f1a5-e144-49fc-ab94-0403949bd0e6 | Although factors such as idiosyncratic reactions or allergic reactions can contribute to the overall safety profile of a drug, the therapeutic index gives a reliable indication of the drugs safety margin if other considerations are assumed to be equal. The therapeutic index represents the ratio between the median lethal dose (LD50) and the median effective dose ( ED50) of a drug. This calculation of LD50/ DD50 generates an index that is the therapeutic window between the dose that produces the desired effect and the dose that results in toxic effects. Like all indices, the T.I. is dimensionless since the dose units, usually express in "mg-kg ", cancel each other. The therapeutic index conveniently represents the safety merger of a drug. The greater the therapeutic ratio, or spread, between the ED50 and LD50, the greater the drug safety. Therefore a T.I. of one thousand represents a drug with a far greater safety profile than a drug with a T.I. of two. Ref: Von Zastrow M. (2012). Chapter 2. Drug Receptors & Pharmacodynamics. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following therapeutic index (T.I.) values represent the greatest safety profile for a drug?
A. 100
B. 1,000
C. 500
D. 2
| 1,000 |
f293fe33-634c-45d6-8223-fe7fa3266360 | The degree to which a person reacts to pain varies tremendously. This variation results paly from a capability of the brain itself to suppress input of pain signals to thenervous system by activating a pain control system called an analgesia system. The analgesia system consists of three major components: (1) The periaqueductal gray and periventricular areas of the mesencephalon and upper pons surround the aqueduct of Sylvius and poions of the third and fouh ventricles. Neurons from these areas send signals to (2) the raphe magnus nucleus, a thin midline nucleus located in the lower pons and upper medulla, and the nucleus reticularis paragigantocellularis, located laterally in the medulla. From these nuclei, second-order signals are transmitted down the dorsolateral columns in the spinal cord to (3) a pain inhibitory complex located in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord. At this point, the analgesia signals can block the pain before it is relayed to the brain. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:698,699,700 | Physiology | Nervous system | Mechanism of analgesia is by
A. Nocioeptin stimulation
B. Nooistatln stimulation
C. Nicotinic & cholinergic receptors
D. Anadumide receptors
| Nocioeptin stimulation |
0b877906-faae-44f7-bdc0-1502acb9aba0 | Dual marker and Triple marker tests are screening tests and since the patient here already has a past history of Downs syndrome fetus, she is at an increased risk of having an aneuploid fetus again, so it is advisable to undergo a diagnostic procedure rather than a screening test. Fetal chromosomes can be assessed only on amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling But CVS is best done between 10 to 13 weeks of gestation and amniocentesis is best done between 16 to 18 weeks of pregnancy | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis of Pregnancy | Investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 16 weeks of pregnancy with past H/0 delivering a baby with Downs syndrome:
A. Triple screen test
B. Amniocentesis
C. Chorionic villous sampling
D. USG
| Amniocentesis |
219eba4a-9450-4af8-8b14-c24be04f9cc9 | Ans. (a) Principal and intercalated(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.672)Colleting duct is made up of two types of cell: principal cells (P cells) and intercalated cells (I cells) | Physiology | Kidneys and Body Fluids | Collection duct has which cells
A. Principal and intercalated
B. Parietal and oxyntic cells
C. Lacis cells
D. Podocytes
| Principal and intercalated |
4d6cb090-ded4-4d9f-a8f0-2ed765764c3d | Most patients (70-80%) presenting with fever and petechiae have defined or presumed viral infections, which are often caused by enteroviruses or adenovirus. Parvovirus B19 may also be responsible for many cases of fever and generalized petechiae inchildren. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Central Nervous system | Child with generalized petechiae. CSF shows gram negative diplococci. Treatment
A. IV Ceftriaxone
B. IV Penicillin G
C. IV Cefotaxine
D. IV Penicillin V
| IV Ceftriaxone |
b4251522-4482-4643-bcf2-b1ec89207c76 | The scenario described in the question stem is unfounately not at all uncommon. The open oven door is a tip-off that carbon monoxide was involved. Carbon monoxide has a very high affinity for hemoglobin, and binds, nearly irreversibly, to it in such a manner that oxygen cannot bind, drastically decreasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Carbon monoxide also causes the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the left, making oxygen more difficult to unload. Traditionally, patients with carbon monoxide poisoning have been described as having "cherry red" blood and, consequently, skin, but this change is somewhat unreliable in real life. The 1st and 3rd Choices list secondary changes that are commonly observed in injured cells, no matter what the cause of the injury. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 32. Cardiovascular Regulatory Mechanisms. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | Physiology | null | An elderly couple living in a very cold apament turned on the oven, opened the oven door, and went to sleep. The next morning, the neighbors found the couple dead. The direct mechanism by which death was caused most likely involves which of the following?
A. Damage to the plasmalemma
B. Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
C. Increased calcium transpo into mitochondria
D. Poisoning of oxidative phosphorylation
| Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood |
dcf0ad73-4b97-443e-bc29-2f69fa9fb3bf | Surgical indications for ulcerative colitis: Urgent Non-urgent: Fulminant colitis Toxic megacolon Perforation Massive hemorrhage Acute colonic obstruction Colon cancer Medically refractory disease Unacceptable medication related toxicity Dysplasia Suspected ca Ulcerative colitis Crohn's disease MC pa involved is Rectum(colon) MC is terminal ileum (mouth to anus) Hallmark is pseudo polyp Fistula More prone for malignancy Less prone that ulcerative colitis Mucosa and submucosa involved Transmural involvement Complications: Hemorrhage Toxic megacolon Fistula Abscess Obstruction Perforation Lead pipe colon String of Kantor Surgery can be done DOC is sulphasalazine Surgery is of no use DOC is sulphasalazine | Medicine | Inflammatory Bowel Disease | When is surgery not done in cases of Ulcerative Colitis?
A. Toxic megacolon
B. Colonic perforation
C. Colonic obstruction
D. Refractory fistula
| Refractory fistula |
e3a83f62-3191-4c1b-ac2f-8cdf6107aead | Enoxaprin is a LMW heparin. It does not require monitoring. Both heparin as well as enoxaprin do not cross placenta and are not teratogenic. | Pharmacology | Hematology | In contrast to heparin, enoxaparin:
A. Can be used without monitoring the patient's aPTT
B. Is less likely to have a teratogenic effect
C. Is more likely to be given intravenously
D. Is more likely to cause thrombosis and thrombocytopenia
| Can be used without monitoring the patient's aPTT |
f8900b57-8135-4aeb-83c1-e9713c23bf49 | Cigar shaped yeast cells are seen in sporothrix schenkii which is a dimorphic fungus. at 37 degree C - it is yeast at 25 degree C - it is mold Flower like sporulation appearance is seen in mould form of the sporothrix Sporotrichosis ( Rose gardener's disease) | Microbiology | Mycology | Cigar body is seen in -
A. Cryptococcus
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Aspergillosis
| Sporotrichosis |
601bf305-2426-4567-a7ef-3648430ee89b | OPTION B: Metabolic syndrome - Obesity - Fatty liver Option A: Marasmus do not have hepatomegaly rather kwashiorkor will have hepatomegaly Option C: Wilson disease leads to Cirrhosis Option D: Nutmeg liver leads to Cirrhosis Best test for fatty liver = Gamma GGT Alcoholic liver disease + fatty liver - Best Test - SGOT / SGPT Ratio more than 2 | Medicine | FMGE 2017 | Fatty liver with hepatomegaly is seen in:
A. Marasmus
B. Metabolic syndrome
C. Wilson disease
D. Nutmeg liver
| Metabolic syndrome |
c4402817-16e0-46e4-85f3-e2806819d85e | No effect on Prognosis: Tumor size and duration of symptoms.
Tumor size and configuration (endophytic, exophytic, annular) do not carry any prognostic significance in colorectal carcinoma. | Surgery | null | Prognosis for carcinoma rectum is best assessed by -
A. Site of tumour
B. Histological grading
C. Size of tumours
D. Duration of the symptoms
| Histological grading |
02e6af69-4ef7-4241-99e7-5bc9d7b9d7a6 | Pathological changes of bacterial pneumonia
A. Lobar pneumonia
Large confluent area of the lung or entire lobes is consolidated.
The lower lobes are affected most commonly.
There are four stages of the inflammatory response (Laennec's stages) -
1. Stage of congestion (initial phase)
The affected lobe is enlarged, heavy, dark red and congested.
Cut surface exudes blood-stained frothy fluid.
There are dilatation and congestion of alveolar capillaries.
There are few neutrophils and numerous bacteria in the alveolar fluid.
2. Stage of red hepatization (early consolidation)
The term hepatization refers to the liver-like consistency of the affected lobe on cut section.
The affected lobe is red and firm.
The edema fluid of preceding stage is replaced by strands of fibrin.
There is marked cellular exudate of neutrophils with extravasation of red cells.
3. Stage of gray hepatization (late consolidation)
The affected lobe is grayish brown, firm and dry.
The fibrin strand are dense and more numerous.
There is progressive disintigration of red cells and neutrophils.
The macrophages begin to appear in the exudate.
The organisms are less numerous and appear as degenerated forms.
4. Resolution
The previously solid and fibrinous constituent is liquefied by enzymatic action.
Granular and fragmented strands of fibrin in the alveolar spaces are seen due to progressive enzymatic digestion.
There is progressive removal of fluid content as well as cellular exudate from the air spaces, resulting in restoration of normal lung parenchyma with areation.
B. Bronchopneumonia
Patchy areas of red or grey consolidation, more often multilobar and frequently bilateral and basal (lower zones) because of tendency of secretions to gravitate into lower lobes.
There is suppurative exudate, consisting chiefly neutrophils, filling bronchi, bronchioles and adjacent alveolar spaces.
Alveolar septa thicken due to congested capillaries and leucocytic infiltration. | Pathology | null | In the stage of Grey hepatization -
A. WBC's fill the alveoli
B. RBC's fill the alveoli
C. Organisms fill the alveoli
D. Accumulation of fibrin
| Accumulation of fibrin |
83db8501-995c-4248-85c7-67e9bc66a6c1 | Answer is D (I.V. Immunoglobins): The characteristic clinical presentation and CSF finding lead us to the diagnosis of GBS Either high does intravenous immunoglobulins or plasmapharesis can be initiated as they are equally effective. -- Harrison 's Glucocoicoids have not been found to be effective in GBS - Harrisons Steroids do not reduce the duration but may increase the risk of infection and worsen the problem. Steroids should be considered contraindicated in the treatment of GB syndrome - API 6th/ 835 | Medicine | null | A child presents with ascending flaccid paralysis. There is subsequent respiratory muscle involvement. CSF examination shows albuminocytological dissociation. Treatment of choice is :
A. Cycloserine
B. Oral prednisolone
C. I.V. methyl prednisolone
D. I.V. immunoglobins
| I.V. immunoglobins |
c60b9dc4-e116-4eac-a849-0408e00e54b3 | Answer is A (Parvovirus) Aplastic crisis is usually triggered by an acute parvovirus infection. | Medicine | null | Aplastic anemia in hereditary spherocytosis precipitated by-
A. Parvo virus
B. HIV
C. Adenovirus
D. Influenza virus
| Parvo virus |
c407dae6-43d7-46d4-b47f-fbed05cbd1ee | Howell Jolly bodies are purple nuclear remnants ,usually found singly, and are larger than basophilic stippling.They are present in megaloblastic anemia & after splenectomy.Reference :Harsh Mohan Textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 293. | Medicine | Haematology | Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in-
A. Liver disease
B. Postsplenectomy
C. Hemolysis
D. DIC
| Postsplenectomy |
8672ebc1-a842-4575-bb44-bd3247ff2e9e | Most cases of medullary thyroid carcinomas (MTC) are sporadic. But 25% occur in inherited syndromes such as familial medullary thyroid cancer and MEN types 2A and 2B. These occur due to germline mutations in the RET protooncogene. MEN2A consists of Medullary thyroid cancer, Pheochromocytoma and Primary hyperparathyroidism. MEN 2B consists of MTC, Pheochromocytoma, Mucosal neuromas, Gangliomas, and aMarfan-like habitus. Any patient with MEN 2A or MEN 2B may develop medullary carcinoma at a very young age and therefore should be followed carefully for pheochromocytoma with urine VMA, for hyperparathyroidism with serum calcium, and for medullary carcinoma with serum calcitonin. | Surgery | Parathyroid and adrenal glands | A mother brings her 10 year old son to OPD because of a history of medullary carcinoma of thyroid in his father and grandparents. There are no findings on physical examination. Which of the following tests you would perform?
A. Serum insulin level
B. Serum glucagon level
C. Urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) level
D. Serum somatostatin level
| Urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) level |
6231a4c1-2264-4afd-b0ed-6e852d7e86ef | Molybdenum containing enzymes include aldehyde oxidase, sulfite oxidase and xanthine oxidase. | Biochemistry | null | Molybdenum is a constituent of:
A. Xanthine oxidase
B. Cytochrome oxidase
C. Phosphofructokinase
D. Carbonic anhydrase
| Xanthine oxidase |
7472e4c6-6ee5-4497-9cbd-bb2ae1ca1914 | Answer- D. AlbuminSerum albumin has a long half life 15-20 days with approximately 4% degraded per day | Medicine | null | Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease
A. Aminotransaminase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Bilirubin
D. Albumin
| Albumin |
069dcb39-966e-4ca6-b0ef-eb28d4aae478 | Ans. (a) Bronchogenic carcinoma with collapse of lung* The Golden S sign (reverse S sign of Golden.) is seen in PA chest radiographs with right upper lobe collapse.* It is caused by a central mass obstructing the upper lobe bronchus and should raise suspicion of a primary bronchogenic carcinoma.* The right upper lobe appears dense and shifts medially and upwards with a central mass expanding the hilum. The combination of two changes together form a reverse S shane. | Radiology | Imaging of Lung Nodules and Masses | Golden S sign is seen in:
A. Bronchogenic carcinoma with collapse of lung
B. Traction Bronchiectasis with apical scarring
C. Emphysema with increased lucency and flattened diagphragm
D. Pulmonary edema
| Bronchogenic carcinoma with collapse of lung |
099f6a8c-8ee6-4e13-8651-764a6c23c771 | Ans. (b) Resection of complete nail with part of nail bed* Zadek's procedure is the surgical correction of ingrowing toe nail.* Removal of complete nail with part of nail bed. | Surgery | Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery | Well known Zadek's procedure is:
A. Resection of part of nail with nail bed
B. Resection of complete nail with part of nail bed
C. Injection of phenol at base of toe nail
D. Wide excisions of nail
| Resection of complete nail with part of nail bed |
42eb627f-a77e-4484-98d9-15e8b5e2248e | Unna boot is used for the varicose vein ulcers. | Orthopaedics | Lower Limb Traumatology | Unna boot is used for treatment of:
A. Diabetic foot ulcer
B. Varicose ulcers
C. Ankle instability
D. Calcaneum fracture
| Varicose ulcers |
9c6da4e4-51be-4e9c-ba45-01d66e332148 | More the fat content less will be the density The density increases from: VLDL< LDL< HDL. Hence VLDL have maximum amount of triglycerides. ENDOGENOUS TRIGLYCERIDES MAX IN : VLDL EXOGENOUS TRIGLYCERIDES MAX IN :CHYLOMICRON | Physiology | Blood Physiology | Endogenous triglycerides are maximum in:
A. Chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. HDL
| VLDL |
925e5366-cb63-4df0-a365-7a368983ceb8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Frusemide therapy "Loop diuretics cause the abolition of transepithelial potential difference that results in marked increase in excretion of Ca2++ and mg2++". | Pharmacology | null | Which one of the following drugs cause hypo magnesemia by increased excretion?
A. Frusemide therapy
B. Cisplatin
C. Digitalis
D. Aminoglycosides
| Frusemide therapy |
62b40302-cbac-484e-b8ee-08038a77fa36 | Combination of a bacteriostatic and a bactericidal drug in most cases is antagonistic. Bactericidal drugs act on fast multiplying organisms whereas bacteriostatic drugs inhibit the growth. Here, penicillins are bactericidal whereas tetracyclines are bacteriostatic. | Pharmacology | Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors | Which of the following is not an established antimicrobial drug synergism at clinical level?
A. Amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis
B. Carbenicillin and gentamicin in pseudomonal infections
C. Penicillin and tetracycline in bacterial meningitis
D. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole in coliform infections
| Penicillin and tetracycline in bacterial meningitis |
bdfcfc98-e05e-431a-a8cd-ac6880451fc8 | Cardiac output returns to pre labour values by one hour following delivery and pre pregnancy level by 4 weeks. Cardiac output: It stas to increase from 5th week of pregnancy reaches a peak 40-50% at about 30-34 weeks. It increases fuher during labour (50%) and immediately following delivery (70%) over pre labour values. Increase in cardiac output is due to: Increased blood volume To meet the additional oxygen required due to increased metabolic activity during pregnancy. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C Dutta, 6th edn, page 53 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In what period, following delivery, does the cardiac output return to the pre-pregnancy state?
A. 4 hours
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks
| 4 weeks |
ff8c6385-0f57-4d64-b868-6d861904c5d1 | (D) Homogentisic acid oxidase # Enzyme defect in Ochronosis (Alkaptonuria):> Defective enzyme in alkaptonuria is Homogentisate oxidase in tyrosine metabolism.> Homogentisate accumulates in tissues and blood, and is excreted into urine.> Homogentisate, on standing, gets oxidized to the corresponding quinones, which polymerize to give black or brown colour.> For this reason, the urine of alkaptonuric patients resembles coA are in colour.> Homogentiste gets oxidised by polyphenol oxidase to benzoquinone acetate which undergoes polymerization to form a pigment "Alkapton".> Alkapton gets deposited in connective tissues, bones and various organs resulting in a condition called "Ochronosis".> Many patients suffer from arthritis: and this is believed to be due to the deposition of pigment alkapton in the connective tissues. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Alkaptonuria is due to deficiency of
A. Alkaptonase
B. Tyrosinase
C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
D. Homogentisic acid oxidase
| Homogentisic acid oxidase |
509d259f-d12d-48c8-a32a-a639df2cf626 | C i.e. Common in elderly women Coll's fracture is fracture of lower end of radius at its coico cancellous junctionQ (- 2.5 cm / 1.5 inch above the distal aicular surface) mostly occuring in post menopausal osteoporotic elderly womenQ ; as a result of fall on outstretched hand. (with wrist in extension). It is most common of all fractures in older people. | Surgery | null | A colles fracture is
A. Common in adolescence
B. A fracture about the ankle joint
C. Common in elderly women
D. A fracture of head of the radius
| Common in elderly women |
27c8dc07-8e0f-4038-b843-34449f51a942 | Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 35; DNA Organization, Replication, & Repair | Biochemistry | Structure and function of protein | The function of g DNA Polymerase
A. DNA repair
B. Mitochondrial DNA synthesis
C. Processive, leading strand synthesis
D. Primase
| Mitochondrial DNA synthesis |
0808f1ee-1ede-4ddc-b8bd-0abf43ef9419 | The dead body cools at an average rate of 1.5 degree F per hour in temperate climate and 0.75 degree F in a tropical climate. According to Simpson, the cooling of the body is the only reliable indicator of the lapse of time during the first 18 hours after death. Factors controlling the cooling rate are: Condition of the body Clothing Atmospheric temperature Mode of death Medium Ref: Forensic Medicine By P.V. Guhara page 62. | Forensic Medicine | null | In normal conditions of temperature and atmosphere, the rate of cooling of dead body is:
A. 1.0 F/hour
B. 1.5 F/hour
C. 2.0 F/hour
D. 2.5 F/hour
| 1.5 F/hour |
772d7047-aaac-4497-b0d7-ff0d7afbe7fe | Afferent impulses from Proprioceptors and psychic stimuli are causes for hyperventilation during the beginning of an exercise Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 658 | Physiology | Nervous system | Moderate exercise tachypnea is due to stimulation of which of the following receptor?
A. Proprioceptors
B. J receptors
C. Lung receptors
D. Baroreceptors
| Proprioceptors |
8d5f22b9-bd7e-4044-8b4a-5e434b3053b7 | - for post - exposure treatment of person who have been vaccinated for rabies previously is given rabies vaccine on days 0 and 3 intradermally or 1 dose delivered intramuscularly. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:280 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Post exposure vaccine of rabies already immunised patient is ?
A. 0-3
B. 0-3-14
C. 0-7-28
D. 8-04-0-1-1
| 0-3 |
1955f988-e6ad-4ce1-bbd7-42b84824adc1 | SEROTONIN is produced from TRYPTOPHAN it is a neuro transmitter that controls the well being of the individual it controls drive to day to day activities, controls sleep and appetite. TRPTOPHAN helps in production of MELATONIN MELATONIN controls SLEEP A decreased level of brain 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) has been theorized to be a factor in depression. The theory arose from clinical observations that drugs enhancing extracellular levels of 5-HT have antidepressant effects in many patients. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 752 | Psychiatry | All India exam | In depression, there is a deficiency in
A. 5-HT
B. Ach
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
| 5-HT |
320d9a3d-97f8-44cb-9c90-2aa6f7dc6040 | .It is fracture of two or more consecutive ribs, with each rib having two or more fracture sites. Such segment is called as flail segment. Treatment Intercostal tube drainage. Applying clips to fracture ribs and fi xing above and below to normal ribs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cefotaxime. Blood transfusion, IV fluids. Bronchodilators, steroids. Ventilator suppo with IPPV--IPPV is treatment of choice. Assisted ventilation is required for several days until the chest wall stabilises. If ventilator suppo is required for more than 10 days, then tracheo stomy is done to prevent laryngeal stenosis which can occur due to prolonged endotracheal intubation. Thoracotomy--when required only. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th Edition, pg. no. 1196 | Surgery | Trauma | Treatment of choice of flail chest is
A. Ext. fixation of flail segment & mech ventilation
B. Strapping
C. O2 administration
D. Intrapleural local analgesia
| Ext. fixation of flail segment & mech ventilation |
dc74d128-2460-4dc2-b763-a4ec3a4e455f | Testing of HLA-B' 5701 is recommended prior to initiation of abacavir. Abacavir if given in a patient who has HLA-B' 5701 causes high risk of MI. | Pharmacology | Anti-HIV Drugs | Testing of HLA-B' 5701 is recommended prior to initiation of this antiretroviral agent:-
A. Atazanavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Raltegravir
D. Abacavir
| Abacavir |
613a244e-d9f3-4f25-9ef3-d4d18e00d885 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 10, 9 Right lung Upper lobe Middle lobe Lower lobe 1. Apical 2. Posterior 3. Anterior 4. Lateral 5. Medial 6. Superior 7. Anterior basal 8. Medial basal 9. Lateral basal 10. Posterior basal Left lung Upper lobe Lower lobe 1. Apical 2. Posterior 3. Anterior } Upper division 6. Superior 7. Anterior basal 8. Lateral basal 9. Posterior basal 4. Superior lingular 5. Inferior lingular } Lower division | Unknown | null | Bronchopulmonary segments in right and left lungs respectively -
A. 9,11
B. 11,9
C. 10,9
D. 8,10
| 10,9 |
22eb540a-c4e8-4cc0-9c61-7d139d6fe6e3 | Meningoceles (or meningomyeloceles) are commonly associated with Arnold Chiari malformation which cause hydrocephalus. Ref : CSDT 13/e p852 | Surgery | Head and neck | Meningomyelocele patient after being operated developed hydrocephalus due to -
A. Arnold chiari malformation
B. Injury to absorptive surface
C. Central canal injury
D. Arachnoidal block
| Arnold chiari malformation |
453c7308-da02-436e-879b-a35a773a60cf | . *Wernicke's hemianopic pupil indicates lesions of optic tract . In this condition light reflex is absent when light is thrown on temporal half of retina of affected side and nasal half of opposite side. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | Medicine | C.N.S | Wernicke's hemianopic pupillary response is seen in lesion of-
A. Optic tract
B. Optic chiasm
C. Optic radiation
D. Lateral genicular body
| Optic tract |
2d48c323-7cc4-4f3d-9be7-3e036e9a64e1 | PRESBYCUSIS Sensorineural hearing loss associated with physiological aging process in the ear is called presbycusis. It usually manifests at the age of 65 years but may do so early if there is hereditary predisposition, chronic noise exposure or generalized vascular disease. Four pathological types of presbycusis have been identified. 1. Sensory. This is characterized by degeneration of the organ of Coi, staing at the basal coil and progressing gradually to the apex. Higher frequencies are affected but speech discrimination remains good. 2. Neural. This is characterized by degeneration of the cells of spiral ganglion, staing at the basal coil and progressing to the apex. Neurons of higher auditory pathways may also be affected. This manifests with high tone loss but speech discrimination is poor and out of propoion to the pure tone loss. 3. Strial or metabolic. This is characterized by atrophy of stria vascularis in all turns of cochlea. In this, the physical and chemical processes of energy production are affected. It runs in families. Audiogram is flat but speech discrimination is good. 4. Cochlear conductive. This is due to stiffening of the basilar membrane thus affecting its movements. Audiogram is sloping type. Patients of presbycusis have great difficulty in hearing in the presence of background noise though they may hear well in quiet surroundings. They may complain of speechbeing heard but not understood. Recruitment phenomenon is positive and all the sounds suddenly become intolerable when volume is raised. Tinnitus is another bothersome problem and in some it is the only complaint. Patients of presbycusis can be helped by a hearing aid. They should also have lessons in speech reading through Visual cues. Cuailment of smoking and stimulants like tea and coffee may help to decrease tinnitus. Ref : ENT textbook by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 37 | ENT | All India exam | In which of the following condition, positive Rinne test is seen?
A. Presbycusis
B. CSOM
C. Otosclerosis
D. Wax impacted ear
| Presbycusis |
bcb1495a-1c10-4078-b5f7-ebb128e27d3a | Ans. (b) Inhibit TXA2 formationRef KDT 6th ed. / 609; Katzung 9th ed. / 446Thromboxane helps in platelet aggregation.* TXA2 formation is suppressed at very low doses of aspirin.* Aspirin blocks thromboxane formation by inhibiting COX activity by enzyme COX1 and TX- synthase irreversibly. | Pharmacology | Antiplatelets and Fibrinolytics | Mechanism of action of Aspirin
A. Inhibit PGI2 formation
B. Inhibit TXA2 formation
C. Stimulate TXA2 formation
D. Stimulate platelet aggregation
| Inhibit TXA2 formation |
0e379d9f-7b96-4c13-a5ed-584a5b7d3ac1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e.Young females o Fibroadenosis, Fibrocystic disease, chronic mastitis & mastopathy are old nomenclature used to describe the spectrum of benign breast disease. The new name coined to avoid all the confusing names is ANDI i.e. Aberration of normal development and involution.o The basic principles behind ANDI are:Benign breast disorders and diseases are aberrations of the normal dynamic changes occurring throughout the life with superimposed menstrual changes.It includes a spectrum of breast conditions that range from normal to mild abnormality to severe abnormality (disease).o These disorders are classified into 3 groups.Nonproliferative Breast ChangesProliferative disease without atypiaProliferative disease with atypiay Duct ectasiay Cystsy Apocrine changesy Mild hyperplasiay Adenosisy Fibroadenoma without complex featuresy Moderate or florid hyperplasiay Sclerosing adenosisy Papillomay Complex sclerosing lesion (radial sar)y Fibroadenoma with complex featuresy Atypical ductal hyperplasiay Atypical lobular hyperplasiaThe cancer risks associated with Benign Breast disorders are as follows :AbnormalityRelative RiskNonporliferative lesionsNo increased riskSclerosing adenosisNo increased riskIntraductal papillomaNo increased riskModerate or Florid epithelial hyperplasia1[?]5 to 2 foldAtypical lobular hyperplasia4-foldAtypical ductal hyperplasia4-foldDuctal involvement by cells of atypical ductal hyperplasia7-foldo Epitheliosis implies epithelial hyperplasia.o Of the fibrocystic (or AND!) changes only epitheliosis or epithelial hyperplasia is associated with increased risk of malignancyo Not all epithelial hyperplasias are associated with increased risk. It is moderate or florid hyperplasia and hyperplasia with atypia that is associated with increased risk. Mild hyperplasia is not associated with increased risk. | Surgery | Fibroadenoma | Fibroadenoma is commonly seen in which age group:
A. Young females
B. Old females
C. Reproductive age group
D. Neonates
| Young females |
dcaa3904-056a-4792-9e03-23e5e42d83e3 | Ans: c (IgE) Ref: Harrison's, 16th ed, p. 657; 17th, ed, p. 703Multiple myeloma represents a malignant proliferation of plasma cells derived from a single clone. The serum M component is IgG in 53% of patients, IgA in 25% and IgD in 1 %. IgE is very rare. The most common translocation is t( 11:14).Myeloma is more commonly seen than expected among farmers, wood workers, leather workers, and those exposed to petroleum products.Bone pain is the most common symptom in multiple myeloma, effecting nearly 70% of patients.Hypercalcaemia is the most common cause of renal failure. The earliest manifestation of tubular damage is the adult Fanconi syndrome.Anaemia in multiple myeloma is normocytic normochromic and occurs in about 80% of patients.The classical triad of multiple myeloma is:Marrowplasmacytosis (.>10%),Lytic lesions, andSerum and/or urine M component.Diagnosis of multiple myeloma (The Dune and Salmon myeloma diagnostic criteria).The diagnosis of multiple myeloma requires a minimum of one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria as defined in the Table belowMajor criteria1) Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy2) Bone marrow palsmacytosis with 30% plasma cells3) Monoclonal globulin spike (M protein) on SPEP:IgG>3.5 g/dl,IgA > 2.0g/dl, light chain excretion on UPEP >= 1 g per 24 hr in the absence of amylodosisMinor criteriaa) Bone marrow plasmacytosis with 10-30% plasma cellsb) Monclonal globulin spike present ,but lower levels than defined in major criteriac) Lytic bone lesionsd) Normal IgM >50 mg/dl, IgA > 100 mg/dl, or IgG >600 mg/dlThe diagnosis of myeloma requires a minimum of one major criteria and one minor criteria (although 1 +a is not sufficient) or three minor criteria that must include a+b (SPEP-serum protein electrophoresis, UPEP-urineprotein electrophoresis) | Medicine | Immunology and Rheumatology | Rarest variety of multiple myeloma:
A. IgM
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
| IgE |
538e59ad-e782-482e-8f33-6a8dbec73f2a | A i.e. Ulnar collateral ligament injury of MCP Joint | Surgery | null | Game Keeper's thumb is
A. Ulnar collateral ligament injury of MCP Joint
B. Radial collateral ligament injury of MCP joint
C. Radial collateral ligament injury of CMC joint
D. Ulnar collateral ligament injury of CMC joint
| Ulnar collateral ligament injury of MCP Joint |
f747f49f-3b62-421d-ac2b-482c0e111f5c | Ans. is `b' i.e., Red Microbial laboratory culture wastes are category No. 3. o Category 3 wastes have color code Fellow or red. o See above explanation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The color code of plastic bag for disposing microbial laboratory culture waste-
A. Black
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Yellow
| Red |
db2bad34-e67f-40c6-8225-6dac65e7641c | This is a case of rheumatoid ahritis. 1st image shows the boutonniere's deformity. 2nd image shows the Z-deformity of the thumb. 3rd image shows the trigger finger. Most common lymphoma associated with RA is DLBCL. Most common marker of DLBCL is BCL-6 > BCL-2 | Unknown | Integrated QBank | A 70-year-old female presented to the OPD with deforming ahritis of hands which is B/L symmetrical. Various deformities were observed. A lymph nodal mass is also observed in the cervical region. Which of the following markers would be most likely positive if the biopsy of the lymph node is done: -
A. BCL-2
B. BCL-1
C. BCL-6
D. BCL-3
| BCL-6 |
ad9753c7-59ba-4dba-8a41-3db22091b7f0 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymphnode Most common site of extra pulmonary TB is lymphnode Most children who develop tuberculosis disease experience pulmonary manifestations 25 to 35 percent of children have an extrapulmonary presentation. The most common extrapulmonary form of tuberculosis is lymphatic disease accounting for about two thirds of cases of extrapulmonary tuberculosis. the second most common form is meningeal disease occurring in 13% of patients | Pediatrics | null | Most common site of extra - pulmonary TB in children is ?
A. Abdominal
B. Genitourinary
C. Lymphnode
D. Congenital
| Lymphnode |
a974a74f-0d17-48e1-a531-2ebf38fe6f8f | The striatum (caudate nucleus & putamen) receives thalamic input from centromedian nucleus. centromedian nucleus- largest of the intralaminar nuclei. | Anatomy | Brainstem, cerebellum and ventricles | Which thalamic nucleus projects to the striatum?
A. Centromedian nucleus
B. Mediodorsal nucleus
C. Ventral anterior nucleus
D. Ventral lateral nucleus
| Centromedian nucleus |
53edd076-17b8-472b-a829-593da1ba9c8b | CJD is a subacute preaenile encephalopathy with progressive incordination and dementia ending fatally in about a year.It is a prion disease. prion disease in animals include scrapie,mink encephalopathy,BSE madcow disease.These are caused by slow virus group B. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:556,557 | Microbiology | Virology | Mad Cow disease (Bovine Spongioform Encephalopathy) is similar in man to -
A. Alzheimer's Disease
B. Creutzfeldt Jacod Disease
C. Huntingtons Chorea
D. Picks Disease
| Creutzfeldt Jacod Disease |
37ab693c-1ef5-4533-a7cd-035636f4a5b2 | Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health problem if prevalence rate of night blindness in children between 6 months to 6 years is more than –
A. 0.01%
B. 0.05%
C. 0.10%
D. 1.00%
| 1.00% |
51e6713b-912e-482c-9a6d-e067741e4eb9 | Ayre's spatula Used to take cervical smear(Pap smear) It is a wooden spatula with U shaped openings on one side and a flat surface on another. Takes sample from squamocolumnar junction. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Cervical Carcinoma | Which of the following is used to take cervical smear:
A. Pipelle spatula
B. Sims spatula
C. Ayre's spatula
D. Colposcope
| Ayre's spatula |
b3d9f89d-7924-427f-b875-3e1c7fb0e5ac | TB is is still a common infection in developing countries. After lung and lymph nodes bone and joint is the next common site of TB in the body. The commonest bursa involved in TB is trochanteric bursa resulting in trochanteric bursitis. REF:Essential ohopaedics- Maheshwari- 5th edn - pg no 182. | Orthopaedics | Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection | Usual site of TB bursitis -
A. Prepatellar
B. Subacromial
C. Subdeltoid
D. Trochanteric
| Trochanteric |
9830e794-73a8-4129-8e06-38034a902855 | Generalized body aches, high grade fever followed by clinical deterioration and bleeding diathesis with raised hematocrit (65%) and low platelet and leucopenia strongly suggest dengue haemorrhagic fever, although meningococcemia is always a close diagnosis and many times requires serological confirmation. Complicated malaria usually has anemia and splenomegaly Leptospirosis may occur in icteric as well as nonicteric form. In nonicteric form shock and skin rashes are uncommon. Prominent features are severe myalgias and exquisite tenderness. | Surgery | null | An 8-year old child was brought to you for a high grade fever of 3 days duration with vomiting headache and decreased responsiveness. Examination revealed a distressed child , in shock with maculopapular and ecchymotic rashes on the skin with bleeding from venepuncture sites and hepatomegly. Investigation showed PCV =65% WBC 4000 platelet 25000 & mildly prolonged PT. CXR revealing left sided pleural effusion. Diagnosis is ?
A. Meningococcemia with DIC
B. Dengue heamorrhagic fever
C. Leptosporisis
D. Complicated malaria
| Dengue heamorrhagic fever |
250ed57f-7f66-41fe-88f4-30d0764ab611 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., CT pulmonary angiography o Invasive pulmonary angiography is the most accurate method for diagnosis of PE, it is an invasive procedure. # Investigation of choice for PE - Chest CT with contrast (especially MDCTA) # Investigation of 2nd choice - Lung scan (V/Q scan) # Best investigation for PE - Chest CT with contrast (MDCTA) # Most accurate investigation for PE - Invasive pulmonary angiography # Gold - standard test for PE - Invasive pulmonary angiography # Screening test for PE - D-dimer assay | Radiology | Respiratory System | The most accurate imaging for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is -
A. CT SCAN of chest
B. MRI of chest
C. X - ray chest
D. CT pulmonary angiography
| CT pulmonary angiography |
325cea6e-fa62-48a6-a64a-7a36a9987906 | Ans. d (Lightening) (Ref. Forensic Medicine Reddy, 17th/ Page 261; Forensic Medicine 1st /Apurva Nandy, 286)# Filigree burns are seen in lightening# Crocodile Flash Burns and "arc eye" are seen in Electrical Injuries# Joule Burn is seen in Electrical Injuries# Spark Burns are seen in Electrical InjuriesLIGHTENING# Mode- Direct Strike- Side Flash - Hits another object and then enters the subject- Conduction through another object# Burns may be- Linear# 3 to 30 cm in length, 0.3 to 2.5 cm in width# Often in moist creased and skin folds- Arborescent or Filigree or Lichtenberg's flowers# Superficial, Thin, Irregular and Tortuous# Fern like pattern# Resembles a tree- Surface burns# True bums which occur beneath metallic objects worn or carried by the person# Cause of Death- Cerebral "Anaemia"# Due to spasmodic contraction of cerebral vesselsEducational Points# Filigree bums usually imply that the effect is superficial and are more often seen in cases where the victims have "escaped". They are seen in shoulders and flanks and pass away in due course of time.# They do not follow the path of blood vessels.# They may be due to:- Copper deposits in Dermis- Deposits of Hemoglobin from RBCs lysed by the current | Forensic Medicine | Injuries | Arborescent marks' or 'filigree burns' are seen in
A. Radiation
B. Electrical burns
C. Chemical burns
D. Lightening
| Lightening |
43769ae4-5859-4e02-b398-aa78af02e333 | Platelet adhesion
Platelet adhesion referes to the binding of platelets to subendothelial matrix.
Platelet membrane glycoprotein Ib-IX is essential for platelet adhesion to subendothelial matrix.
Platelet aggregation
Platelet aggregation referres to adherence of platelets to one another.
Platelet membrane glycoprotein ddb-IIIa helps in aggregation.
Congenital dysfunction of platelet
1. Bernard-soulier syndrome
Defect in platelet adhesion due to inherited deficiency of glycoprotein Ib-IX.
2. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
Defect in platelet aggregation due to inherited deficiency of glycoprotein Ilb-IIIa. | Pediatrics | null | In thromboasthenia there is a defect in –
A. Platelet aggregation
B. Platelet adhesion
C. Decreased ADP release
D. Desordered platelet secretion
| Platelet aggregation |
47fcc196-6094-4a7a-9da0-714604945a2d | In inspired air, partial pressure of O2- 158mmHg | Physiology | null | O2 which is about 21% of inspired air exerts a partial pressure of
A. 160 mmHg
B. 240mmHg
C. 580mmHg
D. 760mmHg
| 160 mmHg |
54c576d7-cd4c-49c8-b29b-f46b9f35e68a | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:182 Risk Factors Category I (For which interventions have been proved to lower CVD risks) 1. Raised LDL cholesterol 2. Reduced HDL cholesterol 3. Atherogenic diet 4. Cigarette smoking 5. Hypeension 6. LVH 7. Thrombogenic factors Category II (For which interventions are likely to lower CVD risks) 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Physical inactivity 3. Increased triglycerides 4. Small dense LDL 5. Obesity Category III (Associated with increased CVD risk that, if modified, might lower risk) 1. Psychosocial factors 2. Increased Lipoprotein a (normal level--0-3 mg/dl) 3. Hyperhomocysteinemias 4. No alcohol consumption 5. Oxidative stress 6. Post-menopausal status Category IV (Associated with increased CVD risk which cannot be modified) 1. Age 2. Male gender 3. Low socio-economic status 4. Family history of early onset CVD | Medicine | C.V.S | Risk factors for coronary aery disease (CAD) -
A. High HDL
B. LowLDL
C. Increased homocysteine levels
D. Decreased fibrinogen levels
| Increased homocysteine levels |
4333f94c-3c8e-45c1-a418-565ddb70a59c | The most powerful weapon in tuberculosis control is → case finding and t/t.
Cases are defined by WHO as a patient whose sputum is positive for tubercle bacilli. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Most crucial part of tuberculosis control programme is –
A. Contact tracing
B. BCG vaccination
C. Treatment of sputum positive cases
D. Treatment of X–ray positive cases
| Treatment of sputum positive cases |
5fb4f479-0262-40c7-b225-81e37976f738 | Ans. is `b' i.e., Coicosteroids o Insulin, epinephrine and glucagon act on membrane receptors. o Coicosteroids act on intracellular (cytoplasmic receptors). | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is present intracellularly in muscle cells -
A. Insulin
B. Coicosteroid
C. Epinephrine
D. Glucagon
| Coicosteroid |
dd0157b2-47cf-40f9-9892-bddacf5a3cb1 | Clinical features of Peptic ulcers Peptic ulcer disease is a chronic condition with spontaneous relapses and remissions lasting for decades, if not for life. The most common presentation is with recurrent abdominal pain that has three notable characteristics: localisation to the epigastrium, relationship to food and episodic occurrence. Occasional vomiting occurs in about 40% of ulcer subjects; persistent daily vomiting suggests gastric outlet obstruction. In one-third, the history is less characteristic, especially in elderly people or those taking NSAIDs. In this situation, pain may be absent or so slight that it is experienced only as a vague sense of epigastric unease. Occasionally, the only symptoms are anorexia and nausea, or early satiety after meals. In some patients, the ulcer is completely 'silent', presenting for the first time with anaemia from chronic undetected blood loss, as abrupt haematemesis or as acute perforation; in others, there is recurrent acute bleeding without ulcer pain. The diagnostic value of individual symptoms for peptic ulcer disease is poor; the history is therefore a poor predictor of the presence of an ulcer. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 799 | Medicine | G.I.T | In the Forrest classiflcation for bleeding peptic ulcer with a visible vessel or pigmented protuberance is classified as -
A. FI
B. FIIa
C. FIIb
D. FIIc
| FI |
4047e5cc-11b8-4cc4-9880-ca53e29a51ff | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Largely anaerobic " The greatest number of bacteria found in colon are bacteriods, a group of gram- negative, anaerobic, non-spore forming bacteria. "-------Todar s 68o Anaerobic bacterias exist as components of the normal flora on the mucosal surfaces of humans and animals,o The major reservoirs of these bacteria are the mouth, lower gastrointestinal tract, skin and female genital tract.Oral cavityo Among the constituents of the oral flora, anaerobes are the predominant organisms, ranging in concentration from l09ml in saliva to 1012/ml in gingival scrapings.o In the oral cavity, the ratio of anaerobic to aerobic bacteria ranges from 1:1 on the surface of tooth to 1000:1 on the gingival crevices.Gastrointestinal tracto Anaerobic bacteria are not found in appreciable numbers in the normal upper intestine until the distal ileum,o In the colon, the proportion of anaerobes increases significantly as does the overall bacterial count,o For example in colon there are I011 to 1012 organism per gram of stool with an anerobe to aerobe ratio of 1000:1. Female genital tracto In the female genital, there are ~ 10* organisms per millilitre of secretions with anaerobe to aerobe ratio ~ 10:1. | Microbiology | Nonsporing Anaerobes | The predominant colonic bacteria are -
A. Largely aerobic
B. Largely anaerobic
C. E. coli
D. Staphylococci
| Largely anaerobic |
c6626fd2-3714-4fd2-9f57-56d8b156a742 | Ans. is'c'i.e., Heparin(Ref KDT &/e p. 598, 599; Katzung llnle p. 592) | Pharmacology | null | A PTT is required for monitoring of ?
A. Streptokinase
B. Warfarin
C. Heparin
D. Tranexamic acid
| Heparin |
eadc6bb1-cde3-4d1a-881c-f6ad3fabff72 | Michaelis guttman bodies (malacoplakia) # Chronic granulomatous infection as a result of the inability of macrophages to kill phagocytosed E. coli. # Most commonly affects immunosuppressed(BMT> HIV/AIDS) # Most commonly affects GU tract; may affect skin of perianal/genital region (ulcerated abscesses and soft polypoid lesions) Histology:- Dense granulomatous infiltrate comprised of von Hansemann cells (large macrophages w/ eosinophilic cytoplasm) containing Michaelis Gutmann bodies (round, laminated, calcified basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions; comprised of incompletely killed bacteria within calcified phagolysosomes; stain w/ von Kossa, PAS, Perls, Giemsa). Treatment:- * Localized: surgical excision * Nonsurgical candidates: difficult to treat; may try long courses of ciprofloxacin, TMP/SMX, or clofazimine. Ref:- Review of Dermatology by Alikhan pg num:-298 | Dental | Bacterial infections | Michaelis Gutmann bodies are seen in
A. Brucellosis
B. Melioidosis
C. Tularemia
D. Malakoplakia
| Malakoplakia |
ddb4ad48-7c72-4260-9004-7e25d4b7b644 | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Lymphangiosarcoma o Angiosarcoma is a vascular tumor which may arise de novo in the breast or as a complication of the radiation therapy."This vascular tumor may occur de novo in the breast, but the clinically important presentation is in the dermis after breast radiation or in the lymphedematous upper extremity, following radical mastectomy'' ___ Sabiston | Surgery | Breast Cancer - Prognosis and Follow-Up | A female undergone surgery for left breast cancer 3 yrs back now developed blue nodule on same side -
A. Lymphangiosarcoma
B. Recurrence
C. Hemangioma
D. Cellulitis
| Lymphangiosarcoma |
2f67e365-82f7-43fc-9f39-794048f1fd3a | ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD) Medical classification list by the World Health Organization (WHO); Revised every 10years Consists of 21chapters The ICD-10 consists of: Tabular lists containing cause-of-death titles and codes (Volume 1) Inclusion and exclusion terms for cause-of-death titles (Volume 1) Description, guidelines, and coding rules (Volume 2) and An alphabetical index to diseases and nature of injury, external causes of injury, table of drugs and chemicals (Volume 3) Ref : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | ICD 10
A. Revised every 5 years
B. Consists of 10 chaptors
C. Arranged in 3 volumes
D. Produced by UNICEF
| Arranged in 3 volumes |
8f8318b1-f44f-488a-af3b-05fe570988ae | S. aureus REF: Nelson 17th edition page 863, "Meningitis due to S. aureus is not common; it is associated with cranial trauma and neurosurgical procedures ( e.g. craniotomy, cerebrospinal fluid shunt placement) and less frequently with endocarditis, parameningeal foci (e.g., epidural or brain abscess), diabetes mellitus, or malignancy. The CSF profile in S. aureus meningitis is indistinguishable from that in other bacterial causes of meningitis" Causes of bacterial meningitis vary by age group and comorbid conditions: Age Group & conditions Causes Premature babies & New- horns up to 3 month Group B Streptococci (mc), Streptococcus pneumoniae, Escherichia coli (carrying K1 antigen), Listeria monocytogenes Infants Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae Children (2-29 years) N. meningitidis (mc), S. pneumoniae Adult S. pneumoniae (mc), N. meningitidis, Mycobacteria Impaired cellular immunity L monocytogenes, gram-negative bacilli, S pneumoniae Postsurgical or posttraumatic Staphylococcus aureus, S pneumoniae, gram-negative bacilli | Pediatrics | null | Not a common cause of meningitis in a child of age 8 years is:
A. S. pneumococci
B. H. influenza
C. S. aureus
D. Meningococci
| S. aureus |
7a623a06-ad91-4b21-a823-2f5a54cc476f | Ans. (b) The pyloric tumour is best felt during feedingRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Page 1869* Baby is not marasmic. It feeds vigorously in between the episodes of vomiting | Surgery | Stomach & Duodenum | What is the most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
A. Affects the first born female child
B. The pyloric tumor is best felt during feeding
C. The patient is commonly marasmic
D. Loss of appetite occurs early
| The pyloric tumor is best felt during feeding |
e262c609-f143-4bf2-a573-65c62a85bdc1 | Physostigmine, neostigmine and pyridostigmine are carbamates by chemical nature, they bind to both esteritic as well as anionic site whereas edrophonium is an alcohol and binds to anionic site only. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug binds only with the anionic site of cholinesterase ?
A. Physostigmine
B. Neostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Pyridostigmine
| Edrophonium |
0fa43662-7890-4460-a368-bb774fd35529 | H. Influenza Type Meninigtis It is frequent in children between the ages of 3 and 12 months. Residual auditory deficit is a common complication. - Ghai 6th/ed Since, residual auditory deficit is a common complication of H. influenza meningitis, audiological test to detect the deficit should be performed before discharging any patient suffering from H. influenza meningitis. In children best test to detect hearing loss is brainstem evoked auditory response. | ENT | null | A child was treated for H. Influenza meningitis for 6 month. Most impoant investigation to be done before discharging the patient is:
A. MRI
B. Brainstem evoked auditory response
C. Growth screening test
D. Psychotherapy
| Brainstem evoked auditory response |
95ede403-e28b-4b57-a174-57f4cda063ce | Early onset and bad prognosis is seen in Disorganized / hebephrenic schizophrenia According to DSM 4, types of schizophrenia Paranoid schizophrenia Most common type Characterized by predominant positive symptoms Late onset and good prognosis Catatonic schizophrenia Predominant catatonic or motor symptoms Best prognosis out of other schizophrenia 1st line treatment - i.v lorazepam & electroconvulsive therapy Disorganized / hebephrenic schizophrenia Characterized by disorganized symptoms Early onset with bad prognosis Significant disorientation of personality Simple schizophrenia Predominant negative symptoms Worst prognosis of all types Post schizophrenic depression Max chance of suicidal attempt | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders | Early onset and bad prognosis is seen in:
A. Catatonic Schizophrenia
B. Hebephrenic Schizophrenia
C. Paranoid Schizophrenia
D. Simple Schizophrenia
| Hebephrenic Schizophrenia |
ef1581ed-ad1c-4463-8c01-e3faebf1ef44 | In moderate-risk to high-risk patients who are receiving acetylsalicylic acid and require noncardiac surgery, continuing acetylsalicylic acid around the time of surgery is suggested instead of stopping acetylsalicylic acid 7 to 10 days before surgery. | Anaesthesia | null | A patient on aspirin for long period is selected for elective surgery. What should be done
A. Stop aspirin for 7days
B. Infusion of fresh frozen plasma
C. Go ahead with surgry maintaining adequate hemostasis
D. Infusion of platelet concentration
| Go ahead with surgry maintaining adequate hemostasis |
23d2b2b2-30b1-406e-b3ec-8ef7bdac692b | The oral cavity offers a range of different niches (mucosa, tongue, tonsils, saliva and teeth, etc.) where the bacteria can adhere and survive. The transmission of bacteria from one niche to another is likely to occur.
If this transmissions occurs at high speed (nothing but translocation), it could jeopardize the outcome of periodontal therapy (because of reinfection). This can be prevented by 'One-stage Full mouth disinfection', which is nothing but scaling and root planning of all pockets in 2 visits within 24 hrs, in combination with tongue brushing with 1% chlorhexidine gel for 1 min, mouth rinsing with 0.2% chlorhexidine solution for 2 mins and subgingival irrigation of all pockets with 1% chlorhexidine gel. This concept was given by Quirynen | Surgery | null | In one-stage Full mouth disinfection scaling is done in 2 visits within:
A. 48 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 12 hours
| 24 hours |
75163497-ec11-4a87-8381-4fbc3e90cba3 | Ref Robbins 9/e p218 Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a multisystem auto- immune disease of protean manifestations and variable clinical behavior. Clinically, it is an unpredictable, remit- ting and relapsing disease of acute or insidious onset that may involve viually any organ in the body; however, it affects principally the skin, kidneys, serosal membranes, joints, and hea. Immunologically, the disease is associ- ated with an enormous array of autoantibodies, classically including antinuclear antibodies (ANAs). The clinical pre- sentation of SLE is so variable, with so many overlapping features with those of other autoimmune diseases (RA, polymyositis, and others), that it has been necessary to develop diagnostic criteria for SLE (Table 4-9). The diag- nosis is established by demonstration of four or more of the criteria during any interval of observation. Hematoxylin bodies are seen these are deposition of antigen antibody complexes in various tissues | Anatomy | General anatomy | Hemotoxylin bodies seen in
A. SLE
B. PAN
C. Rheumatoid ahritis
D. Wegener's granulomatosis
| SLE |
a5901dde-fd98-41d0-939a-0934f63cd41a | Ans. (b) Rocky mountain spotted fever Family rickettsiae includes six genera: - Rickettsia - Ehrlichia - Orientia - Anaplasma - Neorickettisa - Coxiella | Microbiology | null | Which is caused by Rickettsia?
A. Weil's disease
B. Rocky mountain spotted fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Lymes disease
| Rocky mountain spotted fever |
c9b846c7-9702-4560-8cdd-c76dfa6e3ab4 | USG B scan is not useful for evaluating optic neuritis. MRI head and orbit is needed for evaluation of optic neuritis to rule out MS. ESR- |sed in infectious causes of optic neuritis. Visual fields are used for follow up and extent of vision loss. OCT (Optical coherence tomography)- used to see amount of optic nerve edema. | Ophthalmology | Neuro Ophthalmology | Which of the following investigation is not necessary for investigating optic neuritis?
A. MRI head and orbit
B. ESR
C. USG B scan
D. Visual Fields
| USG B scan |
b2b00e6c-8f8f-46d8-9cf9-b2cd25e8e0c1 | Ans. b (2 to 6%). (Ref. Nelson, Textbook of Paediatrics, 18th/pg. 1878)Congenital heart disease occurs in# 0.5 to 0.8% of live births.# 3 to 4 % of stillboms.# 10 to 25% of abortuses.# 2% of premature infants (except PDA)# 0.8% of normal population.# 2-6% after birth of a child with CHD or if parent affected.# 20-30% when 2 first-degree relatives have congenital heart disease.NOTE: Most congenital defects are well tolerated in the fetus because of the parallel nature of the fetal circulation. Even the most severe cardiac defects (hypoplastic left heart syndrome) can usually be well compensated for by the fetal circulation. It is only after birth when the fetal pathways (ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale) are closed that the full hemodynamic impact of an anatomic abnormality becomes apparent. One notable exception is the case of severe regurgitant lesions, most commonly of the tricuspid valve. In these lesions (Ebstein anomaly), the parallel fetal circulation cannot compensate for the volume load imposed on the right side of the heart. In utero heart failure, often with fetal pleural and pericardial effusions, and generalized ascites (nonimmune hydrops fetalis) may occur. | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | Risk of congenital heart disease in first degree relative is
A. 0.5 to 0.6%
B. 2 to 6%
C. 5 to 6%
D. 20 to 25%
| 2 to 6% |
79e59cb9-1968-410f-a615-01970f628e0b | Cerebral malaria involves the clinical manifestations of Plasmodium falciparum malaria that induce changes in mental status and coma and is accompanied by fever. Without treatment, cerebral malaria is fatal in 24-72 hours and the moality ratio is between 25 to 50 percent. The common histopathologic finding is the sequestration of parasitized and nonparasitized red blood cells in cerebral capillaries and venules. Ref:- Baveja | Microbiology | parasitology | Cerebral malaria most commonly attends infection with which of the following
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium ovale
| Plasmodium falciparum |
91c103c3-f8ce-47f8-856d-5ddbb67727b3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL1 Pyrogeneso Pyrogenes are substances that cause fever.o Pyrogens may be exogenous or endogenous* Exogenous- Bacterial toxins* Endogenous- IL0-l,TNF-a, IL-6, Interferons, Cilioiy's neurotropic factoro These pyrogenes increase the level of PGE2 in the hypothalamus that elevates the thermoregulatory set point and causes fever. | Pathology | Chemical Mediators and Regulators of Inflammation | Fever occurs due to -
A. IL 1
B. Endoephin
C. Enkephalin
D. Histamine
| IL 1 |
cbbe9911-98fc-4e3e-a941-96e314994b8e | Rhinosporidiosis is caused by Rhinosporidium seeberi. This organism was previously considered to be a fungus. It is now identified to be an aquatic protistan protozoa parasite belonging to the class Mesomycetzoea. ( Ref Scott Brown, 8th edition, VOL 1, Pg no. 208 ) | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Rhinosporidiosis is caused by which of the following?
A. Fungus
B. Virus
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa
| Protozoa |
03c26382-4b74-43d5-923a-4345e647db76 | Calcinosis universalis is the diffue deposition of calcium salts in the skin, subcutaneous tissue and sometimes in connective tissue. It occurs in Juvenile Dermatomyositis. | Dental | null | Calcinosis universalis occurs in –
A. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
B. Christian Weber syndrome
C. Deimatomyositis
D. Scleroderma
| Deimatomyositis |
93be188f-4383-4407-8c10-e27baa961c3f | Antifibrinolytic drugs promote blood clotting by preventing blood clots from breaking down. Some examples of antifibrinolytic drugs are aprotinin, tranexamic acid (TXA), epsilon-aminocaproic acid and aminomethylbenzoic acid. Doctors sometimes give these drugs to patients having surgery to prevent blood loss. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Which of the following belongs to antifibrinolytic drugs
A. Alteplase
B. Urokinase
C. Aprotinin
D. Reteplase
| Aprotinin |
ce565495-ec7f-4170-8cd8-667c07a58cda | Dibucaine is the longest acting LA (duration is 2.5-3.5 hours).
Amongst the given options tetracaine & bupivacaine are longest acting (both have duration of 2-3 hours).
Decreasing order of duration :- Dibucaine (longest acting) > Bupivacaine = Tetracaine = Ropivacaine = Etidocaine > Prilocaine = Lignocaine = Mepivacaine = Cocaine > Procaine > chlorprocaine. | Anaesthesia | null | Longest acting L.A. – a) Bupivacaineb) Tetracainec) Xylocained) Procaine
A. ac
B. a
C. ad
D. ab
| ab |
c5b3a14a-e4b8-4302-a59f-4fa1939652ae | Sustained release preparation are used for prolonged duration of action of drug . So, used when drug has sho half life and when we require the action of drug for longer duration. Anti-hypeensive drug are used for lifelong. So, sustained release preparations are required. Anti-arrhythmic drugs used in treatment of PSVT are not to be used as sustained release preparation as we need action for only a sho duration. Anti-inflammatory drug with the half life of 24 hrs is already acting for long duration we don't need sustained release preparation. Hypnotic drug with a half life of 2hrs will work for 5-6 hrs. So, no need of sustained release preparation. | Pharmacology | Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia | Which of the following drugs should be given in sustained release oral dosage form?
A. An anti-arrhythmic drug with a plasma half life of 10 seconds used for acute treatment of PSVT
B. An anti-inflammatory drug with a plasma half life of 24 hr
C. A hypnotic drug with a plasma half life of 2 hours
D. An antihypeensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours
| An antihypeensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours |
59a170ce-9306-4168-8915-7668054fa294 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clonazepam DrugBreast milk to plasma concentrationCarbamazepine0-69Clonazepam033Ethosuximide0-94Gabapentin0-7-1-3Lamotrigine0-057-1-47Phenobarbitone0-4-0-6Phenytoin018-0-45Primidone0-72Topiramate0-86-1-1Valproate0-42Zonisamide0-93 | Pharmacology | Epilepsy | Which antiepileptic drug is least secreted in breast milk -
A. Ethosuximide
B. Clonazepam
C. Gabapentin
D. Carbamazepine
| Clonazepam |
6d8abf23-31fc-4b89-b8f1-c0098f3c2d18 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bronchoscopy Treatment of aspirated foreign body A) Treatment of foreign body in upper respiratory tract. o If obstruction is complete --> Immediate intervention. o If obstruction is paial --> Patients should allow to use their own cough reflex to extrude the foreign body --> If it fails than intervention should be done. o Method of removal of foreign body : - 1)If child is younger than 1 year --> Child should be placed face down over the rescuir's arm with head positioned below trunk. Five measured back blows are delivered rapidly between the scapula. If obstruction persists, the infant should be rolled over and five rapid chest compressions should be performed. This sequence is repeated until the obstruction is relieved. 2) If child is elder than 1 year ---> Abdominal thursts (Heimlich maneuver) should be performed. B) Treatment of foreign body in lower respiratory tract. o The treatment of choice is prompt endoscopic (bronchoscopic) removal of foreign body. | Pediatrics | null | Immediate management of a child with foreign body inhalation is -
A. IPPV
B. Bronchoscopy
C. Tracheostomy
D. Exploratory Thoracotomy
| Bronchoscopy |
63aa8e57-1604-4567-be91-2762f7673b53 | Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) occurs during adolescent rapid growth period when epiphysis plate is weak & the capital epiphysis is displaced down & back. * Etiology : age - 10-17years of age Sex- male : female - 5:2 Location: left hip is involved in 58% of the cases *stages 1. Preslipping stage 2.chronic slipping stage 3.stage of fixed deformity *Radiographic changes - *early change : marginal blurring of the proximal metaphysis , lower margin of metaphysis is included within the acetabulum normally but excluded in the early epiphyseal slip, Trethovan &;s line : line drawn along the superior margin of the neck , transects the epiphysis normally , but will be above it in slip, depth of epiphysis is reduced , there is a step between metaphysis & epiphysis. *Late changes : trethovan&;s sign is present , head is atrophic , neck shaft angle is less than 90 degree , new bone formation is seen at the anterior superior pa of neck , joint space is clear , shenton&;s line is broken. * CT scan is very useful in assessing degree of slips. Classification of slipping - mild(51%), moderate(22%), severe slipping (17%) REF:Essential ohopedics, John Ebenezer, 4th edition, pg.no.416 | Orthopaedics | Pediatric orthopedics | Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is seen most commonly in which age group -
A. Infants
B. Adolescents
C. Old age
D. Childhood
| Adolescents |
c12899ab-803e-43df-97e7-90da885a75ad | The scalp on each side of the midline is drained by five veins. The veins of the scalp accompany the arteries and have similar names. These are as follows:
Supratrochlear and supraorbital veins: They join each other at the medial angle of the eye to form the angular vein, which continues downwards as the facial vein behind the facial artery.
Superficial temporal vein: It descends in front of tragus to enter the parotid gland where it joins the maxillary vein to form the retromandibular vein, which terminates by dividing into anterior and posterior divisions. The anterior division unites with the facial vein to form common facial vein, which drains into the internal jugular vein.
Posterior auricular vein: It descends behind the auricle and unites with the posterior division of the retromandibular vein to form the external jugular vein, which drains into the subclavian vein.
Occipital vein: It terminates in the suboccipital venous plexus. | Anatomy | null | Common Facial vein is formed by the union of
A. Anterior facial and posterior facial veins
B. Anterior facial and posterior auricular veins
C. Anterior facial and maxillary veins
D. Anterior facial and anterior branch of the posterior facial vein
| Anterior facial and anterior branch of the posterior facial vein |
fce378d3-c6ad-42a3-bd96-8da5b7b06c51 | There are two resting phases and two active phases in the cycle.
Resting phases → G1 & G2
Active phases
S-phase (synthetic phase) - As the name suggests, synthesis of new DNA takes place, i.e. doubling of DNA occurs.
M-phase (mitotic phase) - Mitosis takes place and the daughter cells receive one copy of DNA. In this phase, cell number is doubled. | Pathology | null | During which phase of the cell cycle the cellular content of DNA is doubled -
A. Mitotic phase
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase
D. S phase
| S phase |
a1dd1af2-3e95-43e1-810d-d9ed305fad0d | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Pancreatitis Most common cause of pancreatic pseudocyst is Pancreatitis (90%) The second most common cause is trauma (10%). Pseudocysts are seen in both acute and chronic pancreatitis. | Surgery | null | Pancreatic pseudocyst most commonly occurs after ?
A. Trauma
B. Pancreatitis
C. Pancreatic surgery
D. Pancreatic malignancy
| Pancreatitis |
8c3a9523-e068-4739-8112-442278ce8e2e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Effectiveness of treatment Disability - adjusted life year (DALY) DALY is a measure of :- The burden of disease in a defined population The effectiveness of interventions It expresses years lost to premature death and years lived with disability adjusted for the severity of the disability. That means, DALY measures both moality and disability together (in contrast to sullivan's index which is related to disability only). One DALY is one lost year of healthy life. DALY combines following : - Years of lost life (YLL). Years lost to disability (YLD) DALY = YLL + YLD Japanese life expectancy statistics are used as a standard for measuring premature death, as Japanese have the longest life expectancy. Health - adjusted life expectancy (HALE) HALE is the indicator used to measure healthy life expectancy. HALE is based on the life expectancy at bih but includes an adjustment for time spent in poor health. It is the equivalent number of years in full health that a newborn can expect to live based on current rates of ill health and moality. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Disability adjusted life year (DALY) is a measure of ?
A. Life expectancy
B. Effectiveness of treatment
C. Quality of life
D. Human development
| Effectiveness of treatment |
97562fb9-c62b-4bec-99f2-2850e396176a | * After filtration from glomerulus, a drug may undergo two processes (tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion) before going out from the body i.e. renal clearance *Suppose 100 mg of a drug is filtered by glomerulus and the renal clearance is 150 mg, it means 50 mg is coming from somewhere else, i.e. tubular secretion must be present. However, we cannot say that reabsorption is not occuring because if 20 mg is reabsorbed and 70 mg is secreted, same thing can happen. * Suppose, 100 mg of a drug is filtered but renal clearance is 50 mg. Therefore, 50 mg must have gone somewhere i.e. tubular reabsorption must be occurring. Again, we cannot say that tubular secretion is not present. | Pharmacology | Pharmacokinetics | A drug X is secreted through renal tubules, tubular secretion of this drug can be confirmed if renal clearance of drug X is:
A. More than the GFR
B. Equal to the GFR
C. Less than the GFR
D. More than volume of distribution
| More than the GFR |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.