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4dffa19d-e239-419d-8f9d-e9d1e5ba0c8c | Peak level of LH required for ovulation is 75 ng/ml It lasts for 24 hrs Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 40. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Disorders of menstruation | Peak level of LH required for ovulation:
A. 15 ng/ml
B. 50ng/ml
C. 30ng/ml
D. 75ng/ml
| 75ng/ml |
eba34bef-a2d5-46a0-be77-4bf89588d64e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ketamine * Ketamine is a potent bronchodilator; therefore it is the anesthetic agent of choice in bronchial asthma patients.* Halothane is the inhalational agent of choice in asthmatics.Anesthetics safe in asthma patientsInducing agentPropofol, etomidate, ketamineOpioidsPethidine, Fentanyl, AlfentanilMuscle relaxantsVecuronium, rocuronium, PancuroniumVolatile agentsHalothane, Sevoflurane, Desflurane, Isoflurane, N2OOthersBenzodiazepines (among hypnotics BZDs are safe) | Anaesthesia | Anaesthesia For Special Situations | Anesthetic agent of choice in asthma patient is?
A. Thiopentone
B. Methexitone
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
| Ketamine |
df777c64-9b09-43be-b040-7e50efd9de18 | Atropine eye drops are used to reduce pain from ciliary spasm and prevent formation of posterior synechiae. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following drugs is used as adjunct therapy for treatment of fungal corneal ulcer?
A. Atropine eye drops
B. Dexamethasone eye drops
C. Pilocarpine eye drops
D. Lidocaine
| Atropine eye drops |
89293cb9-27a1-4486-ac88-d406ef59e980 | The stylohyoid is supplied by the facial nerve, which is the nerve of the second pharyngeal arch. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | Anatomy | Head and neck | Nerve supply to stylohyoid is from?
A. 1st arch
B. 2nd arch
C. 3rd arch
D. 4th arch
| 2nd arch |
c28cef40-7c75-4833-a31b-884e22264746 | Hypothyroidism is one of the causes of hyponatremia, thus thyroid-stimulating hormone determination is mandatory during the evaluation of patients with reduced serum sodium levels. .Patients with moderate to severe hypothyroidism and mainly patients with myxedema may exhibit reduced sodium levels (<135 mmol/L) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 370 | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Hyponatremia is seen in
A. Hypehyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. DM
D. Increased insensible loss
| Hypothyroidism |
26c5c388-86f4-4546-b743-e2b613ef738c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., DTPA renogram o The most convenient method of estimation of renal function is by isotope renography. Kumar/85] o Two types of isotope renography is there ? 1) Renogram, DTPA scan or MAG3 DTPA and MAG3 are rapidly excreted by the kidney and are therefore used as radiopharmaceutical agents for dynamic scan. This scan is preferred for the information ? i) About the blood flow of kidney ii) How well each kidney is functioning iii) It there is any obstruction to urine output 2) DMSA scan DMSA is concentrated in the renal parenchyma for a time and is therefore used as static scan. This scan is preferred to lood at structure of kidney, i.e. size, shape and position. | Pediatrics | null | In a child, non - functioning kidney is best diagnosed by-
A. Ultrasonography
B. IVU
C. DTPA renogram
D. Creatinine clearance
| DTPA renogram |
323ec616-c821-491f-8082-6d1dc6e28e54 | HBV-infected hepatocytes may show a cytoplasm packed with spheres and tubules of HBs Ag, producing a finely granular cytoplasm ("ground-glass hepatocytes"). | Pathology | null | Ground glass hepatocytes are seen in which of the viral hepatitis -
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
| HBV |
8d89de30-dcdc-4acf-bc70-9b05a7e1746d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blastomyces Dimorphic fungio Fungi that have two growth forms, such as mold (filaments) and a yeast, which develop under different growth conditions.o In host tissues or cultures at 3 / C they occur as yeasts, while in the soil and in cultures at 22 C they appear as moulds.o Most fungi causing systemic infections are dimorphic fungi.Examples:# Coccidioides# Histoplasma# Blastomyces# Paracoccidioides# Sporothrix (Sporotrichum)# Candida albicans# Penicillium mameffiNote - Candida albicans is a dimorphic fungus, while other species of Candida are not dimorphic. | Microbiology | Properties of fungus | Example of Dimorphic fungus -
A. Cryptococcus
B. Blastomyces
C. Cladosporum
D. T. montagrophytes
| Blastomyces |
47345e92-a6c5-4703-99f9-a870533e8fa5 | a. Proerythroblast(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2304-2308, Ghai 8/e p 330)Stage of RBC development are: Proerythroblast - Basophillic - polychromatic - Orthochromatic erythroblast - Nucleated RBC - Reticulocyte - Mature RBC. | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | First cell of RBC development:
A. Proerythroblast
B. Intermediate normoblast
C. Reticulocyte
D. Basophilic erythroblast
| Proerythroblast |
812b3c91-0ed3-46bb-819f-e57b82cb9f7e | A child laughs aloud at the age of 4 month. 1 month - ales to sound 2 months - Vocalizes 3 months - Coos 4 months - Laughs aloud | Pediatrics | Social and Language Milestones | A child can laugh aloud at the age of:-
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
| 4 months |
c9ebbee0-8360-4f04-95d5-5c39ad53ca89 | Answer is C (Whipple's Disease): An intestinal biopsy is diagnostic/specific for malabsorption due to Whipple's disease. Three most commonly asked forms of Malabsorption Syndromes Whipple's Disease Tropical Sprue Coeliac Disease Malabsorption syndrome with systemic Malabsorption syndrome of infectious Malabsorption syndrome of non infectious features with infectious etiology etiology without systemic features etiology without systemic features Etiology Etiology Etiology Gram negative actinomycetee Caused by some strains of E.coli Caused by intolerance to 'gliadin' gluten a Tropheryma whippelii protein found in wheat rye, barley . Biopsy Biopsy Biopsy Biopsy is Abnormal and Biopsy is abnormal but not Biopsy is abnormal but not specific/diagnostic specific/diagnostic specific/diagnostic Lamina Propria is infiltrated with Shoened, thickened villi increased Blunting and flattening surface with villi macrophages containing PAS positive crypt depth infiltration by either absent or broad and sho glycoproteins and rod shaped bacilli mononuclear cells Crypts are elongated | Medicine | null | In which of the following conditions of malabsorption, an intestinal biopsy is diagnostic-:
A. Celiac disease
B. Tropical sprue
C. Whipple's disease
D. Lactose intolerance
| Whipple's disease |
61b96f11-caa4-4af7-accd-f86194e58cde | 10 years staing from 10 days after vaccination | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | . Immunity by vaccine of yellow fever is provided for:
A. 6 years staing from 6 days after vaccination
B. 6 years staing from 10 days after vaccination
C. 10 years staing from 6 days after vaccination
D. 10 years staing from 10 days after vaccination
| 10 years staing from 10 days after vaccination |
f751c247-3392-4a11-8530-6ba4332c68ba | The active form of vitamin C is ascorbic acid (Figure 28.8). The main function of ascorbate is as a reducing agent in several different reactions. Vitamin C has a well-documented role as a coenzyme in hydroxylation reactions, for example, hydroxylation of prolyl and lysyl residues of collagen (see p. 47). Vitamin C is, therefore, required for the maintenance of normal connective tissue, as well as for wound healing. Vitamin C also facilitates the absorption of dietary iron from the intestine.Deficiency of ascorbic acid A deficiency of ascorbic acid results in scurvy, a disease characterized by sore and spongy gums, loose teeth, fragile blood vessels, swollen joints, and anemia (Figure 28.9). Many of the deficiency symptoms can be explained by a deficiency in the hydroxylation of collagen, resulting in defective connective tissue.Ref: Lippincott, 5th edition, page no: 377 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Vitamin required for collagen synthesis
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Thiamine
D. Folic acid
| Vitamin C |
8ec816e6-2a4d-4fa5-bfc9-c11ee1827c57 | Disease control : Is decrease in incidence of disease, so that it is no more public health problem.
Disease elimination : Complete reduction in incidence of disease in defined geographical area, but organism persists.
Disease Eradication : Global removal of organism. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Global removal of disease agent refers to
A. Disease control
B. Disease elimination
C. Disease eradication
D. Prevent disease
| Disease eradication |
b5a42778-95c4-44e1-abab-5e192cf9c3d0 | Treatment of pneumonia in children
For mildly ill patient (not require hospitalization)
Empirical treatment → Amoxicillin is the DOC.
Atypical (mycoplasma) pneumonia → macrolides (Azithromycin, Erythromycin).
For Hospitalized patients
IV cefuroxime or cefotaxime or ceftriaxone.
If clinical features suggest staphylococcal pneumonia, vancomycin or clindamycin are also added. | Pediatrics | null | The drug of choice in mycoplasma pneumonia in children is –
A. Tetracycline
B. Streptomycin
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Erythromycin
| Erythromycin |
8e6ac4be-6dba-4fe1-ba3f-2245af1b17e8 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lateral pterygoid Temporomandibular jointo It is a synovial, bicondylar joint between the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of temporal bone above and the head of mandible below. The joint is completely divided into two compartments (upper and lower) by a fibro cortilaginous articular disc. Ligaments of TM joints are fibrous capsule, Lateral temporomandibular ligament, and stylomandibular ligament.o The articular disc is a fibrocartilaginous disc which divides joint cavity into an upper and a lower compartment. The upper compartment permits gliding movement and the lower compartment permits rotatory as well as gliding movements. The articular disc represents the degenerated premitive insertion of lateral pterygoid: Central portion of articular disc is least vascular. Articular disc acts as shock absorber, prevents friction between articular surfaces and also has proprioceptive function. Articular disc also increases the area of contact and hence helps in distribution of weight across the joint, o There are following movements in TM joints1) Protrusion (protraction of chin):- Lateral and medial pterygoid of both sides acting together, assisted by superficial fibers of masseter.2) Retraction (Retraction of chin):- Posterior fibers of temporalis assisted by deep fibers of masseter.3) Elevation (Closing of mouth):- Masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid, of both sides.4) Depression (opening of mouth):- Both lateral pterygoids assisted by digastric, mylohyoid and geniohyoid.5) Side to side (lateral) movement:- Lateral and medial pterygoid of one side acting alternately with each other.o Dislocation of mandible occurs when mouth is opened too widely by excessive contraction of lateral pterygoid. Head of the mandible slips anteriorly into infratemporal fossa, o TM joints is supplied by auriculotemporal nerve and masseteric nerve. | Anatomy | Temporomandibular Joint | Which muscle is attached to intra-articular disc of temporomandibular joint ?
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. MedialPterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
| Lateral pterygoid |
e68ee764-24f3-4664-9cbc-5b86fb894b0f | Radiological features of DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis) : Flowing calcification and ossification along the anterolateral aspect of veebral bodies. - Flowing wax appearance Preserved disc space. Absence of bony ankyosis of facet joints,absence of sacroiliac bony erosion,sclerosis or bony fusion. | Radiology | Skeletal system | Flowing wax appearance on anterior and posterior borders of veebrae is seen in -
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. DISH
C. Psoriatic ahropathy
D. Rheumatoid ahritis
| DISH |
0c456031-a4aa-47d5-9e34-914db7f17ca5 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., FSHIncreasing age affects the hormonal secretion of body. | Physiology | null | Which hormone increases with age ?
A. GI
B. Prolactin
C. FSH
D. Insulin
| FSH |
7ec12dae-2636-4937-b34b-60bf79af3efc | MC genetic mutation in Ca pancreas/ Cholangiocarcinoma - KRAS > p-16 MC genetic mutation in Ca- GB - P53 > K-RAS MC genetic mutation in Ca stomach - P53 > COX - II | Surgery | Pancreas | Most common genetic mutation in Ca pancreas
A. KRAS
B. p-16
C. P53
D. COX - II
| KRAS |
e57b5a8c-552e-407a-8607-f119b915591d | Main function of Golgi apparatus is protein soing, packaging, and secretion. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of cell. Detoxification of various drugs is an impoant function of ER. Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students, 7th edition, page no: 12 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | The protein synthesis is soed out at/by
A. Ribosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi-apparatus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
| Golgi-apparatus |
2a60aa57-2594-4fc1-85e3-10302e60b0f3 | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1545 Valve repair for ischemic MR is associated with lower periopera- tive moality rates but higher rates of recurrent MR over time. In patients with ischemic MR and significantly impaired LV systolic function (EF <30%), the risk of surgery is higher, recovery of LV per- formance is incomplete, and long-term survival is reduced. | Anatomy | General anatomy | A 59 yr old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic,wi wia left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an endsystollic diameter index of 2.9cm/m2 . The most appropriate treatment is
A. Mitral valve repair or replacement
B. No treatment
C. ACE inhibitor therapy
D. Digoxin and diuretic therapy
| Mitral valve repair or replacement |
eb3c2655-40d5-48c2-a4bd-3970abe8227a | Ans. d (1000 mg) (Ref. Park Textbook of PSM 22nd/pg.590; table 29)PREGNANCYLACTATION# Extra calories - 300,# Extra calories - 550 (0 to 6 months) 400 (6 to 12 months),# Extra proteins - 15 g,# Extra proteins - 25 gm (0 to 6 months) 18 gm (6 to 12 months),# Calcium 1000 mg/day,# Calcium 1000 mg/day, iron - 30 mg/day,# Iron - 38 mg/day,# Folic acid - 150 mg/day.# Folic acid - 400 mg/day. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics | Pregnant and lactating mothers need_____ mg of dietary calcium per day
A. 400 mg
B. 600 mg
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg
| 1000 mg |
58123203-0382-402b-bedb-48fde85da14f | Class I - < 750 mL
Class II - 750 - 1500mL
Class III - 1500 - 2000mL
Class IV - 2000mL. | Medicine | null | Blood loss in class III hemorrhagic shock
A. < 750 mL
B. 750 - 1500 mL
C. 1500 - 2000 mL
D. > 2000 mL
| 1500 - 2000 mL |
e5fe83ce-e1b4-4049-aaae-4d3c794123c8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Imatinib Tyrosine kinase inhibitors imatinib and sunitinib are approved for the treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST) | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following agents is recommended for treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST) -
A. Sorafenib
B. Imatinib
C. Gefitinib
D. Erlotinib
| Imatinib |
14bc1395-5cdc-4ef9-b87f-53693c97c7ef | antibiotics, such as ACE inhibitors like <a class="content-link" style="-webkit-font-smoothing: antialiased; box-sizing: inherit; background-color: transparent; cursor: pointer; text-decoration-line: none; border-color: currentcolor; color: ;" href=" anhydrase inhibitors, such as methazolamide etc</li> ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH EDITION-KD TRIPATHI Page:688,689 | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Drug causing impaired taste is
A. metronidazole
B. losaan
C. paracetamol
D. aspirin
| metronidazole |
7fda6dd5-0af1-46cd-a6ba-6611b3daf757 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 21 Chromosome In 95% of cases of Down syndrome-trisomy of 21:? Extra chromosome is of maternal in origin. 1% have mosaic with some all have 46 chromosome. 4% have robesonian translocation. t (13 21) o t (14 : 21) t (15 : 21) Very rarely long arm of chromosome 21 is triplicate (Paial trisomy). | Pediatrics | null | Down syndrome is due to non-disjunction of?
A. 21
B. 18
C. 11
D. 15
| 21 |
8f2fb49a-8206-456d-b914-66a934286b9d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gastrinoma Gastrin Provoking tests* Gastrin provocative tests have been developed in an effort to differentiate between the causes of hypergastrinemia.* The tests are the secretin stimulation test and the calcium infusion study.* The most sensitive and specific gastrin provocative test for the diagnosis of gastrinoma is the secretin study. An increase in gastrin of >120 pg within 15 minutes of secretin injection has a sensitivity and specificity of >90% for ZES. PPI induced hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria may lead to a false-positive secretin test, thus this agent must be stopped for 1 week before testing.* The calcium infusion study is less sensitive and specific than the secretin test, which coupled with it being a more cumbersome study with greater potential for adverse effects, relegates it to rare utilization in the cases where the patient's clinical characteristics are highly suggestive of ZES, but the secretin stimulation is inconclusive. | Medicine | Endocrinology | Secretin stimulation test used for -
A. Gastrinoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Incidenteloma
D. Insulinoma
| Gastrinoma |
d15a7ec8-7ffe-49ef-b878-52dc74ff5278 | Ans: B (Cholangiocarcinoma arising from bifurcation of bile duct) Ref: Benbrahim Z et al. Askin's tumor: a case report and literature review. World J Surg Oncol. 2013: 11: 10.Explanation:Cholangiocarcinoma arising from bifurcation of bile duct - Klatsin tumorLung adenocarcinoma involving apical region - Pancoast tumorAskin tumors - Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNET) arising from the chest wallOther named TumorsBuschke-Lowenstein tumor-- Giant condyloma acuminatumAckerman tumor - Subtype of Verrucous Carcinoma (Carcinoma cuniculatum)Grawitz tumor - Renal cell carcinomaKrukenberg tumor - Metastatic secondaries in GIT from an ovarian primaryKuttner's stumor - Sialadenitis (sialoadenitis) - Inflammation of a salivary glandPotts puffy tumor - Frontal osteomyelitis with subperiosteal abscess e:Wilms tumor - Nephroblastoma affecting children | Pathology | Clinical Aspects of Neoplasia | Klatskin tumor: (Repeat)
A. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor in chest
B. Cholangiocarcinoma arising from bifurcation of bile duct
C. Lung adenocarcinoma involving apical region
D. Enterochromaffin cell tumor
| Cholangiocarcinoma arising from bifurcation of bile duct |
cc18a0ee-49b0-45cd-ac18-8c7d8de3768e | Ans: c (PAN) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 539 & Harrison, 16th ed, p. 2002"PAN has no association with ANCA"More about PAN:* Vasculitis of medium sized/small muscular arteries sparing pulmonary circulation* Characteristic -- All stages of inflammation coexist in different vessels.Microaneurysms (< 1 cm) - but not pathognomonic* 30% patients have hepatitis B Ag in their serum* MC organ system involved -- musculoskeletal > renal* MC cause of death -- gastrointestinal* Involvement of venules is suggestive of microscopic polyangitis | Pathology | Blood Vessels | Which among the following is ANCA negative?
A. Wegener's granulomatosis
B. Microscopic polyangitis
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Churg-Strauss syndrome
| Polyarteritis nodosa |
533d29aa-ae81-473a-8120-1771e0b0dd5f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Limiting bih Many women who are sexually active would prefer to avoid pregnancy, but neveheless are not using any method of contraception.These women are considered to have 'unmet need' for family planning.The concept is usually applied to married women.According to the National Family Health Survey-3, Unmet need for family planning is highest (27.1%) among women below 20 years age and is almost entirely for spacing the bihs rather than for limiting the bihs.It is also relatively high for women in age group 20-24 years (21-1%) with 75% need for spacing and 25% for limiting the bih.Unmet need for contraception among women aged 30 years and above are mostly for limiting | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Unmet need for contraception in a 35 years female is for ?
A. Spacing bih
B. Limiting bih
C. Improve maternal health
D. Improve family health
| Limiting bih |
e90c3e9c-ca17-40c4-95e6-cbfca88fcc9a | Only 5 amino acids are both glucogenic and ketogenic. Mnemonic - TTT I P Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids: Tryptophan Tyrosine Threonine, Isoleucine, Phenylalanine Note: there is a controversy regarding Lysine, some book says it is purely ketogenic some say it is both Ketogenic and glucogenic serine is only glucogenic amino acid. | Biochemistry | Classification and metabolism of amino acids | Substrate for gluconeogenesis include?
A. Glycerol
B. Leucine
C. Fatty acids
D. Acetyl CoA
| Glycerol |
dc4a9e0f-7e84-40c9-ab1d-fc1bdb18b25c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antigen presenting cells | Microbiology | null | Langerhans cells in skin are
A. Antigen presenting cells
B. Pigment producing cells
C. Keratin synthesising cells
D. Sensory neurons
| Antigen presenting cells |
858f2bda-6f1f-4046-8e37-74d07bbd4469 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ectopic bruise [Ref: Reddy 30th/ep. 167-168\o Site of bruise is at the site of impact most of the time however it may be away from the site of impact due to gravity shifting of blood, i.e., ectopic bruise. So, site of bruise does not always indicate site of violencet.o Example of ectopic bruise are : -Black eye (or spectacle hematoma in eyes & eyelids) may be due to fracture of floor of anterior cranial fossa or trauma of forehead (and rarely due to direct trauma),Bruise behind ear indicates basal fracture (rather than a direct blow).Jaw fracture may produce bruise in neck; fracture pelvis my produce bruise in thigh; fracture femur may produce bruise in lowrer thigh or above knee; Calf injury may produce bruise in ankle. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries by Blunt Force | Black eye is a type of-
A. Patterend abrasion
B. Ectopic abrasion
C. Ectopic bruise
D. Friction abrasion
| Ectopic bruise |
71f44cd9-e1a7-4614-a954-e78a73e718e1 | Ans. (C) Ethylene glycol poisoning(Ref: Harrison 19/e p319)Symptoms of alcohol overdose along with oxalate crystalluria points towards ethylene glycol poisoning. It is confirmed because the patient is being treated with antidotes like ethanol and fomepizol (4 methyl pyrazole). | Pharmacology | Opioids | A patient presented with vomiting and ataxia. There were oxalate crystals in the urine. The patient was given ethanol and 4 methyl pyrazole for treatment. The likely diagnosis of the patient was?
A. Methanol poisoning
B. Ethanol poisoning
C. Ethylene glycol poisoning
D. Diazepam poisoning
| Ethylene glycol poisoning |
498a7a61-6899-4e29-960e-0824f76542ad | Thyroid disease may affect the heart muscle directly or there may be excessive sympathetic stimulation. Common symptoms of thyrotoxic heart disease include palpitations, exertional dyspnea, and worsening angina. Atrial fibrillation is particularly common in older individuals. | Medicine | C.V.S. | A 60-year-old woman presents with symptoms of weight loss, anxiety, and palpitations. On examination, she has a thyroid goiter. Which of the following is the most likely cardiac finding?
A. prolonged circulation time
B. decreased cardiac output
C. paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
D. pericardial effusion
| paroxysmal atrial fibrillation |
fc690b3b-cf20-4f32-91cb-aa396ad9ffb8 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mitochondrial inheritance i) Disease is manifesting in both males and females. ii) But, the disease is transmitting to next generation only by females (mother). Both these are characteristics of mitochondrial diseases. Mitochondrial diseaes o Mitochondria' DNA is the only non-chromosomal DNA in human cells DNA in humans may be found either in the Nucleus (Nuclear DNA) or in the Mitochondria (Organelle DNA) o Mitochondria' DNA,is always maternally inherited. Mitochondrial and nuclear DNA are located in different places in the cell. During feilization, the sperm and egg cell nuclei fuse to form an embryo. The egg cell is very large compared to the sperm, so although the cells' nuclei fuse, the rest of the cell mass in the embryo comes from the egg only. Nuclear DNA is therefore co-inherited but the mitochondrial DNA, which is located outside of the nucleus, is always maternally inherited because all mitochondria in a foetus and later adult are derived from the mitochondria in the mother's egg. All children from affected mother will inherit the disease but it will not be transmitted from an affected father to his children.- | Pediatrics | null | Pedigree analysis - Analyze the following pedigree and give the mode of inheritance ?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Mitochondrial inheritance
D. X linked dominant
| Mitochondrial inheritance |
ff7f214f-d0ce-4b03-bcc3-aad739727d26 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Roger Haugen "A popular term 'cafe coronary * was coined by Dr. Roger Haugen, Medical Examiner of Broward County, Florida for such impaction of food in the respiratory passage ".-- Krishan Vij | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | Term cafe coronary was coined by -
A. Roger Haugen
B. J. Morton
C. NeilMarkson
D. M.Hoppefield
| Roger Haugen |
84ed7fcd-ee25-4b49-b01e-e2c9db2bd3a2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anakinra Drugs used for Rheumatoid arthritisDisease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)Biologic response modifier (BRMs)Adjuvant drugs1. Immunosuppresants - Methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporine2. Sulfasalazine3. Choloroquine or hydroxychloroquine4. Leflunomide5. Gold sod. thiomalate, Auranofin6. d - Penicillamineo TNF a - inhibitors Etanercept, Infliximab, Adalimumabo IL-1 antagonist Anakinrao CorticosteroidsNote- Other immunosuppressants like cyclosporine, chlorambucil, cyclophosphomide are reserved for cases not responding to other DMARDs. | Pharmacology | Immunomodulator | IL1 antagonist is -
A. Anakinra
B. Abatacept
C. Adalimumab
D. Leflunomide
| Anakinra |
d5a87c4f-e16b-49d9-a4d2-cead5773e7ee | Approximately 60% of the blood supply to the supraduodenal bile duct originates from the pancreaticoduodenal and retroduodenal aeries, whereas 38% of the blood supply originates from the right hepatic aery and cystic duct aery and 2 percent is non-axial.Ref: Gray's Anatomy (40th Edition), Pages 1177, 1185; Essentials of Human Anatomy A.K.Datta 8th Edition, Page 259 | Anatomy | null | Predominant blood supply to the supraduodenal bile duct is from vessels:
A. Which run upward from the major vessels located near the lower pa of bile duct such as the gastroduodenal and retro duodenal aery
B. Which run downward along the bile duct from right hepatic aery
C. That arise from hepatic aery proper as it carries up along the common bile duct and supplies it with twigs in a non-axial distribution
D. That run from cystic aery
| Which run upward from the major vessels located near the lower pa of bile duct such as the gastroduodenal and retro duodenal aery |
11f72356-c59c-4f43-a667-596e08b270f5 | Factor VII is required for the activation of Factor X in extrinsic pathway Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:533 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Which of the following is not involved in intrinsic pathway?
A. Factor XII
B. Factor XI
C. Factor IX
D. Factor VII
| Factor VII |
ed61802c-f45f-439f-b718-ba40d08c79bb | General feility rate is the number of live bihs per 1000 women in the reproductive are group ( 15-44 or 49 years) in a given year GFR = number of live bih in an area during the year X 1000/ mid year female population age group 15-44 (or 49) in the same area in same year General feility rate is a better measure of feility than the crude bih rate because the denominator includes the number of women in the child bearing age rather than the whole population Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 488 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | General feility rate is a better measure of feility than the crude bih rate because the denominator includes
A. 15 - 45 years of aged females
B. Midyear population
C. Total women population
D. Married women population
| 15 - 45 years of aged females |
dbc3c190-1406-46cc-a5bf-d91d4a4fb320 | c. Mental retardation(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 636-642, Ghai 8/e p 653-655)Clinical features of Hartnup disease:Most children with Hartnup defect remain asymptomaticMajor clinical manifestation in symptomatic patient is cutaneous photosensitivity: pellagra-like rash on sun exposureSome patients may have intermittent ataxia & Psychological disturbances, but mental development is usually normal. | Pediatrics | Inborn Errors of Metabolism | Not a feature of Hartnup's disease:
A. Pellagroid skin lesion
B. Cerebellar ataxia
C. Mental retardation
D. Psychological disturbances
| Mental retardation |
8e945d84-4300-492e-afe2-abc8eb94978d | "The earliest histologic finding in both the major and the minor salivary glands is periductal and perivascular lymphocytic infiltration." (Ref: Robbins)
Sjogren Syndrome
It is an immune-mediated destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands characterized by dry eyes {keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dry mouth (xerostomia)
It occurs as an isolated disorder (primary form), also known as the sicca syndrome, or more often in association with another autoimmune disease (secondary form).
Associated diseases
Rheumatoid Arthritis (Me)
SLE
Polymyositis
Systemic sclerosis
Vasculitis
Thyroiditis
The ductal epithelial cells of the exocrine glands are the primary target for autoantibodies.
There is also systemic B-cell hyperactivity, as evidenced by the presence of ANAs and RF.
Autoantibodies to the RNP antigens SS-A (Ro) and SS-B (La) (also present in SLE)
Other secretory glands like nasopharynx, upper airway, and vagina, may also be involved
Involved tissues show an intense lymphocyte (primarily activated CD4+ T cells) and plasma cell infiltrate.
Lacrimal gland destruction results in a lack of tears, leading to drying of the corneal epithelium, with subsequent inflammation, erosion, and ulceration (keratoconjunctivitis).
Similar changes may occur in the oral mucosa as a result of the loss of salivary gland output, giving rise to mucosal atrophy, with inflammatory Assuring and ulceration (xerostomia).
Dryness and crusting of the nose may lead to ulcerations and even perforation of the nasal septum.
When the respiratory passages are involved, secondary laryngitis, bronchitis, and pneumonitis may appear.
Approximately 25% of the patients (especially those with anti-SS-A antibodies) develop extra-glandular disease affecting the CNS, skin, kidneys, and muscles.
Renal lesions take the form of mild interstitial nephritis associated with tubular transport defects: Unlike in SLE. glomerulonephritis is rare.
90% of cases occur in women between 35 and 45 years
Extraglandular manifestations include synovitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and peripheral neuropathy.
There is a 40-fold increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma. | Pathology | null | Biopsy of the parotid gland in Sjogren’s shows:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Lymphocytes
| Lymphocytes |
be631359-fec9-4679-a547-17af77ae61a7 | All travellers including infants exposed to the risk of yellow fever or passing through an endemic zones of yellow fever should possess a valid international ceificate of vaccination against yello fever before they are allowed to enter yellow fever receptive areas. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 301 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | The disease for which vaccination ceificate is required for international travel is -
A. Cholera
B. Hepatitis
C. Yellow fever
D. Tetanus
| Yellow fever |
f3853730-b776-4d1a-b5bb-79acbd7c19aa | Classification: bronchodilators: beta 2 agonists anticholinergics and methylxanthines like caffeine and theophylline ref KD Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Respiratory system | Which of the following is not a bronchodilator
A. Beta 2 agonist
B. Methylxanthines
C. Steroids
D. Anticholinergics
| Steroids |
9cbc1d25-945b-4668-845e-9f12595dc681 | The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology;Dr k.s narayan reddy; 28th edition;pg.no. 88; Contusion or bruises are not washable but postmoem lividity is washable. Also refer page no.106 | Forensic Medicine | Mechanical injuries | Difference between contusion and post-moem lividity is that post-moem lividity-
A. Shows sequential color change
B. Easily washable
C. Shows diffuse irregular margins
D. Has raised enzyme levels
| Easily washable |
3837875e-2eac-4904-af61-61ac9ee459f5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methanol poisoning Methanol is highly toxic alcohol. It is metabolized to formaldehyde (by alcohol dehydrogenas) and formic acid (by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase). It is the accumulation of formic acid which causes toxic effects in methanol poisoning. Accumulation of formic acid results in lactic acidosis/high anion gap metabolic acidosis with low plasma bicarbonates, blindness due to retinal damage, papilledema. Methanol poisoning can be treated by suppoive measures, gastric lavage and sodium bicarbonate (to treat acidosis). Ethanol is useful because it competitively inhibits the conversion of methanol to formic acid. Fomepizole can also be used as it is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase. Folic acid or folinic acid. Enhance the metabolism formic acid to CO2. Hemodialysis may also be used. | Pharmacology | null | Fomepizole acts as antidote for ?
A. Methanol poisoning
B. Cannabis poisoning
C. Lead poisoning
D. Cadmium Poisoning
| Methanol poisoning |
f8fbb990-f838-4b99-8978-552096725a83 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., IgiMValency of antibodyo The valency of antibody refers to the number of antigenic determinants that an individual antibody molecule can bind.o The valency of all antibodies is at least two and in some instances more.AntibodyValencyIgG2IgA2,4IgM10IgD2IgE2Though the theoretical valency of Ig M is ten, this is observed only with small haptens. With larger antigens, the effective valency falls to five, probably due to steric hindrance. Physical, chemical, and Biologic Properties of Human ImmunoglobulinsPropertyIgGIgAIgMIgDIgEUsual molecular formMonomerMonomer, dimerPentamer, hexamerMonomerMonomerOther chainsNoneJ chain, SCJ chainNoneNoneSubclassesG1G2, G3, G4Al, A2NoneNoneNoneHeavy chain allotypesGm (=30)No Al, A2m (2)NoneNoneNoneMolecular mass, kDa150160, 400950, 1150175190Sedimentation constant, Sw206.6S7S, 11S19S7S8SCarbohydrate content, %3710913Serum level in average adult, mg/mL9.5-12.51.5-2.60.7-3.70.040.0003Percentage of total serum Ig75-857-155-100.30.019Serum half-life, days236532.5Synthesis rate, mg'kg per day3 365'0.40.016Antibody valency22, 430, 12O Classical complement activation+ (G1, 2?, 3)----Alternate complement activation-(G4)+-+-Binding cells via FcMacrophages neutrophils, large granular lymphocytesLymphocytesLymphocytesNoneMast cells, basophils, B cellsBiologic propertiesPlacental transfer, secondary Ab for most antipathogen responsesSecretory immunoglobulinPrimary Ab responsesMarker for mature B-cellsAllergy, antipaTasite responses | Microbiology | Immunology | Pentavalent immunoglobin is -
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
| IgM |
d70c4174-b6c6-47ee-9f2d-eaa96feb9ece | MHC restriction
T cells (in contrast to B cells) cannot be activated by soluble antigens.
Therefore, presentation of processed antigen by antigen presenting cells is required for induction of cell mediated immunity.
T cell receptors recognizes peptide antigens that are displayed by major histo compatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of antigen presenting cells.
T cells develop MHC restriction so that :-
Helper (CD4) T cells respond only to foreign antigens presented along with HLA class II (MHC class II).
CD8 T cells respond to antigens presented along with HLA class I (MHC class I).
MHC restriction refers to the fact that a given T cell will recognize a peptide antigen only when it is bound to a particular MHC molecule. | Microbiology | null | T helper cells recognizes -
A. MHC class I
B. MHC class II
C. Processed peptides
D. Surface Ig
| MHC class II |
25bc3186-87e9-49ac-a35f-23ab56d52254 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Paper chromatography o Paper chromatography is the most sensitive test. o Note : In previous question, paper chromatography was not there in options, therefore the answer was nitric acid test. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Most sensitive test for detection of argemone oil?
A. Nitric acid test
B. Paper chromatography
C. Phosphatase test
D. Methylene blue test
| Paper chromatography |
e6998cf5-3304-4583-85b3-bcd046bba191 | ANSWER: (C) Acanthosis NigransREF: Fitz Patricks Dermatology 6th Edition Page 1612, Harrison's 18th ed chapter 53Indirect repeat Dermatology 2008,2003 (See table of TYPES AND CAUSES OF ACANTHOSIS NIGRICANS) 8t Surgery June 2009 | Unknown | null | Dermatological sign of carcinoma stomach is?
A. Palmoplantar keratoderma
B. Acquired ichthyosis
C. Acanthosis Nigrans
D. Acrokeratosis paraneopiastica
| Acanthosis Nigrans |
3a4924cf-c71b-4501-9741-739a882e42b9 | Ans. a (An abrasion) (Ref. FMT by Reddy. 27th/ Pg. 145 & FMT by Krishan Vij 4th/Pg. 282-283).# An abrasion (or a graze) is a superficial injury involving only the outer layers of the skin and not penetrating the full thickness of the epidermis.# A graze is an injury, which is produced when a broad surface of the skin slides or scrapes against a rough surface.# It is also k/a 'brush burn' as it is caused by the frictional force of rubbing against a surface causes it; resembles a bum.ABRASIONS (GRAZES, SCRATCHES, BRUSH BURNS)# Loss/crushing of outer skin layer due to impact with a rough surface- Tangential impact produces a moving abrasion:# Indicates direction.# Trace material (e.g., grit).- Direct impact produces an imprint abrasion:# Pattern of causative object.# All abrasions reflect site of impact (contrast bruises).# Assessment of age difficult.# Postmortem abrasion - Brown, leathery.- Patterned Abrasions:o Patterned abrasions occur when the force is applied at or around right angle to the surface of skin. The classical example of this is seen in traffic accidents when tyre of a motor car passes over the skin leaving the pattern when the skin has been squeezed into the grooves of the rubber thread.- Pressure Abrasions (Crushing Abrasions / Imprint Abrasions):o When the impact is vertical to the skin surface, the epidermis gets crushed and pressure type of abrasions result and the imprint of the impacting object may be produced. These may be seen in manual strangulation (abrasions produced by fingernails) and in hanging, where weave of the ligature material may be reproduced. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries by Blunt Force | 'Brush burn' is
A. An abrasion
B. Electric bum
C. Chemical bum
D. Contusion
| An abrasion |
61c5b173-b4f5-4f85-bae9-e71d5daaae2d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., RBC casts in urine Acute nephritic syndrome o Nephritic syndrome is a collection of signs associated with disorders affecting the kidneys, more specifically glomerular disorders and is characterized by haematuria, protenuria, hypeension, edema and oliguria. 1. Haematuria The haematuria is slight giving the urine smok appearance. Erythrocytes are detectable by microscopy or by chemical testing for hemoglobin. Presence of RBC casts in urine is classical feature of nephritic syndrome. 2. Proteinuria Proteinuria is mild (< 3 gm/day) also called nephritic range proteinuria or subnephrotic range proteinuria. Proteinuria is nonselective. Edema --> Usually mild and results from sodium and water retention. Liguria --> Reflects the severity of glomerular involvement. Note ? Edema and proteinuria are not as severe as in nephrotic syndrome. | Pediatrics | null | Characteristic feature of nephritic syndrome in children -
A. Lipid casts in urine
B. WBC casts in urine
C. RBC casts in urine
D. Albumin in urine
| RBC casts in urine |
67c7cfaf-92b0-4a73-b5ed-f40706303bf0 | A foreign body is commonly responsible for vaginal bleeding in pediatric patients. | Pediatrics | null | 6 years old girl with vaginal spotting. Diagnosis is –
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Foreign body
C. Sexual abuse
D. PID
| Foreign body |
85e668dd-1745-4551-b067-07530de468e3 | - Mc Naughton's rule is related to Criminal responsibility of Insane person - Sec. 84 IPC also deals with the Criminal responsibility of Insane person Section 84 IPC embodies McNaughton rules as follows: "Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to the law." | Forensic Medicine | FMGE 2019 | McNaughton's rule is related to:
A. IPC 82
B. IPC 84
C. IPC 87
D. IPC 85
| IPC 84 |
559f2623-e217-473b-9119-6638df93c6ac | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5o Renal artery Right renal artery is longer and passes behind I VC. Renal artery divides into : -Posterior division :- Supplies posterior segment.Anterior division :-Divides further into 4 branches to supply apical, upper anterior, middle anterior and lower segments.o Thus, there are five vascular segments in each kidney Posterior, apical, upper anterior, middle anterior and lower.o Branches of renal artery are end arteries. | Anatomy | KUB & Adrenal Gland | How many vascular segments are present in each kidney?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
| 5 |
f70f5f9a-8ce6-4d59-a745-0209fba667f3 | They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material.
Due to the small size of primary molars and, therefore, small restorations as well, it is helpful to reduce stresses within the restorative material. It has been demonstrated that rounded internal line angles aid in reducing stress when compared to sharp internal line angles. Many of the burs recommended for use in primary molars have a rounded end to help achieve softened internal line angles. | Dental | null | Why are rounded internal line angles desirable in the preparation of amalgam restorations in primary teeth?
A. They increase retention
B. They conserve tooth structure
C. They increase resistance
D. They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material
| They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material |
30b1b21e-ba0b-448c-9282-616068182906 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Kappa and Lambda chains (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 99 and 8th/e, p. 100)* A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein or immunoglobulin light chain found in the urine, with a molecular weight of 22-24 kDa. Detection of Bence Jones protein may be suggestive of multiple myeloma or Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia.* Bence Jones proteins are light chains of immunoglobulins so may occur as Lambda or Kappa forms, but in any other patient the chain is either Kappa or Lambda, never both. | Microbiology | Immunology | Bence Jones proteins are best described as:
A. u chains
B. g chains
C. Kappa and Lambda chains
D. Fibrin split products
| Kappa and Lambda chains |
63e60c88-3798-41cf-8fce-094236cfcefd | Dichotomy means fee splitting or bribery or commissioning.
Receiving commissions on referral of a patient to a doctor or forwarding commissions, both are included under dichotomy.
Dichotomy is infamous conduct as defined under the rules and regulations of MCI, 2002.
If a doctor repeatedly indulges in dichotomy, a warning notice could be issued against him, if he still indulges in dichotomy, his name could be erased from the medical register and it is called as professional death sentence. | Forensic Medicine | null | Dichotomy means -
A. Erasure of name
B. Disclosure of secrets of patients
C. Fee-splitting
D. Adultery
| Fee-splitting |
ddc3fcd0-d23e-43d3-82c4-dd3c09c2ca8b | Absence of the thymus and inferior parathyroid glands would be due to defective development of the third pharyngeal pouch, their normal site of origin. The first pouch gives rise to the tympanic membrane and cavity. The second pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils and tonsillar sinus. The fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands and the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. The fifth pharyngeal pouch contributes to the formation of the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. | Anatomy | Head & Neck | A 5-week-old male infant is born without a thymus or inferior parathyroid glands. Which of the following pharyngeal arches is most likely involved?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
| Third |
f976b21a-e63e-4739-8974-7e91b47a8adb | Ans. d. Palm & solesPompholyx is a form of recurrent palmoplantar eczema with firm deep-seated vesicles on sides of finger giving sago grain or tapioca like feel | Skin | Papulosquamous Disorders | Pompholyx affects:
A. Groin
B. Trunk
C. Scalp
D. Palm and soles
| Palm and soles |
085c111d-3fcc-4d63-bf73-460634a665da | Rice proteins are richer in lysine than other cereal proteins, and for this reason, rice protein is considered to be a better quality. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Best quality proteins are found in highest quantities in –
A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Ragi
D. Bajra
| Rice |
305099b7-1b32-4e47-8fc3-080420f31923 | All the listed diseases except Q fever are tick-borne. The rickettsia C. burnetii causes Q fever, and humans are usually infected by aerosol of a sporelike form shed in milk, urine, feces, or placenta of infected sheep, cattle, or goats. Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete, Borrelia burgdorferi, and produces the characteristic lesion erythema chronicum migrans (ECM). The etiologic agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is R. rickettsia. It usually produces a rash that begins in the extremities and then involves the trunk. Two human forms of ehrlichiosis can occur: human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME), caused by E. chaffeensis; and human granulocytic ehrlichiosis (HGE), caused by an as yet unnamed Ehrlichia. HME infection is transmitted by the brown dog tick and A. americanum. HGE infection is transmitted by I. scapularis, the same tick that transmits Lyme disease. Both infections cause fever and leukopenia. A rash rarely occurs. E. chaffeensis infects monocytes, and HGE infects granulocytes; both organisms produce inclusion bodies called morulae. Francisella tularensis is a small, Gram-negative, nonmotile coccobacillus. Humans most commonly acquire the organism after contact with tissues or body fluid of an infected mammal or the bite of an infected tick. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria) | A 33-year-old man presents at OPD complaining of fever and headache. On examination, he had leukopenia and increased liver enzymes, and inclusion bodies were seen in his monocytes. History revealed that he went on camping and remembered removing a tick from his leg. Which of the following diseases is most likely causing the symptoms described?
A. Lyme disease
B. Ehrlichiosis
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. Q fever
| Ehrlichiosis |
2f9623cf-80b4-4e4d-a014-5a9f73d66563 | (C) Naegleria fowleri # Human infection of naegleria comes from water containing the amoebae and usually follows swimming or diving in ponds.> Patients are mostly previously healthy young adults and children.> The amoebae invade the nasal mucosa, pass through the olfactory nerve and initiate an acute meningitis and encephalitis (primary amoebic meningoencephalitis). | Microbiology | Misc. | The causative agent of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis is:
A. Endolimax nana
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. Entamoeba histolytica
| Naegleria fowleri |
c20d83da-2a5b-499e-803b-98d88f45da74 | Ans. D: Autosomal dominantAutosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is one of the most common inherited disorders. It is the most frequent genetic cause of renal failure in adults,It is a multisystemic and progressive disorder characterized by the formation and enlargement of cysts in the kidney and other organs (e.g., liver, pancreas, spleen).Clinical features usually begin in the third to fouh decade of life, but cysts may be detectable in childhood and in utero.Some other autosomal dominant disorders:Huntington choreaNeurofibromatosisMyotonic dystrophyHereditary spherocytosisMarfan syndromeOsteogenesi imperfectAchondroplasia | Pathology | null | Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited:March 2005
A. X-linked dominant
B. X-linked recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal dominant
| Autosomal dominant |
a2f375ee-6b9a-4ed0-898b-9e5ad18c401d | Ans. A. 0.1NKOHReichert-Meissl number is defined as the number of moles of 0.1NKOH required to Completely neutralize the soluble volatile fatty acids distilled from 5g fat. | Biochemistry | Structure & Function of Protein | Reichert-Meissl number:
A. 0.1 N KOH
B. 0.5 KOH
C. 0.1 N NaOH
D. 0.5 NaOH
| 0.1 N KOH |
cca03ea7-c10f-42cd-9559-934485f90c8a | Patients treated with antibiotics develop diarrhea that, in most cases, is self-limiting. However, in some instances, paicularly in those patients treated with ampicillin or clindamycin, a severe, life-threatening pseudomembranous enterocolitis develops. This disease has characteristic histopathology, and membranous plaques can be seen in the colon by endoscopy. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis and antibiotic-associated diarrhea are caused by an anaerobic Gram-positive rod, Clostridium difficile. It has been recently shown that C. difficile produces a protein toxin with a molecular weight of about 250,000. The "toxin" is, in fact, two toxins, toxin A and toxin B. Both toxins are always present in fecal samples, but there is approximately one thousand times more toxin B than toxin A. Toxin A has enterotoxic activity--that is, it elicits a positive fluid response in ligated rabbit ileal loops-- whereas toxin B appears to be primarily a cytotoxin. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Bacteriology | A patient was hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds became infected and the patient was treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin, and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient developed severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibioticassociated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by
A. Clostridium sordellii
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. S. aureus
| Clostridium difficile |
85cabf43-4f55-452e-ba1e-6a9aec2da054 | Mutations involving single genes follow one of three patterns of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or X-linked. Autosomal Dominant Inheritance Familial hypercholesterolemia Huntington disease Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Hereditary spherocytosis Neurofibromatosis, type 1 Adult polycystic kidney disease Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Tay-Sachs disease Severe combined immunodeficiency a- and b-Thalassemias Sickle cell anemia Mucopolysaccharidoses--all types Glycogen storage diseases--all types Galactosemia X-linked Recessive Inheritance Hemophilia A Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy Fragile X syndrome (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no. 219) | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following is an autosomal dominant metabolic disorder -
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Alpha-I anti-trypsin deficiency
D. Familial hypercholesterolemia
| Familial hypercholesterolemia |
769b0394-d70e-42af-9889-8f57c98c39df | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 15-20 days Houseflies 'Houseflies should be regarded as a sign of insanitation' and their number as index of that sanitation. Impoant species : Musca domestica, M. vicinia, M. nebula, M. sorbens Life span : 15-25 days Eggs : 8-24 hours Larvae (maggots) : 2-7 days Pupae : 3-6 days Adults : 5-20 days Impoant breeding places (In order of impoance). Fresh horse manure Human excreta Manure of other animals Garbage Decaying fruits and vegetables Rubbish dumps containing organic matter Grounds where liquid wastes are spilled Feeding habits : Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods; it vomits on ssolid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state. Modus of disease transmission: Mechanical transmission: Houseflies are known as 'Poers of infection' Vomit-drop Defecation Houseflies in disease causation: As vector of diseases : Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma, conjunctivitis. As causative agent of disease : Myiasis. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Life spon of a housefly ?
A. 1-2 days
B. 5-10 days
C. 10-15 days
D. 15-20 days
| 15-20 days |
f206d675-dadc-4bb3-833f-0f5a2c2300af | Ans. is'a'i.e., 2 GyBone marrow or hematological syndrome:- Full syndrome occurs with a dose between 0.7 and 3 Gy (70-300 rads).The destruction of bone marrow cells results in pancytopenia. | Radiology | null | Threshold radiation dose for hematological syndrome is?
A. 2 Gy
B. 6 Gy
C. 15 Gy
D. 50 Gy
| 2 Gy |
547bbe6f-6b25-4205-9307-84e6a79f1467 | When the metabolism of a drug is high during its passage from the site of absorption into the systemic circulation, the rate, and extent of absorption of that drug decreases. absorption- amount of drug reaching the systemic circulation from the site of administration (Ref.Essentials of medical pharmacology TD Tripathi 7th edition page no.16,27) | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Causes of reduced bioavailability of a drug includes
A. High first pass metabolism
B. Increased absorption
C. IV drug administration
D. High lipid solubility
| High first pass metabolism |
1b7ffa5a-8453-40e6-b2e6-8ebd70d26ec2 | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:146-147 Jones Criteria for Diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever Major Criteria Carditis Pancarditis, seen in 50-60% of patients, develops within the first 2 weeks of rheumatic fever. Pericarditis is evidenced by presence of a pericardial rub, myocarditis by tachycardia, soft S1, presence of S3 and CCF and endocarditis by the presence of Carey-Coombs' murmur (mitral diastolic murmur). Ahritis (60-75%) Flitting and fleeting type of polyahritis involving large joints with no residual deformity is seen in 60-75% of patients and occurs early in rheumatic fever. Jaccod's ahritis: Ulnar detion of 4th and 5th finger with flexion at metacarpophalangeal joints is the only residual deformity seen in rheumatic polyahritis. Subcutaneous Nodules Non-tender nodules are seen over bony prominences like elbows, shin, occiput, spine in 3-5% of patients and occur 3-6 weeks after onset of rheumatic fever. Patients who have subcutaneous nodules almost always have carditis. Erythema Marginatum (< 5% and evanescent) Macular lesions with an erythematous rim and central clearing in a bathing suit distribution are seen in < 5% of patients and occur early in rheumatic fever. Chorea (Sydenham's Chorea) (2-30%) A neurological disorder with rapid, involuntary and purposeless non-repetitive movements with a self limiting course of 2-6 weeks is more common in females and is a late manifestation of rheumatic fever. Minor Criteria Clinical 1. Fever 2. Ahralgia 3. Previous history of rheumatic fever or rheumatic hea disease. Laboratory 1. Acute phase reactants (leucocytosis, raised ESR, C-reactive protein) 2. Prolonged PR interval in ECG (> 0.2 sec). WHO Criteria Jones major and pa of the minor criteria except prior history of rheumatic fever/rheumatic hea disease and C-reactive protein. Essential Criteria Evidence for recent streptococcal infection as evidenced by: 1. Increase in ASO titre a. > 333 Todd units (in children) b. > 250 Todd units (in adults). 2. Positive throat culture for streptococcal infection. 3. Recent history of scarlet fever. Two major (or) one major and two minor criteria, in the presence of essential criteria, is required to diagnose Acute Rheumatic Fever. A Positive Rheumatic Fever history is usually elicited in only 50% of patient with Rheumatic Hea Disease. | Medicine | C.V.S | ASO (Antistreptolysin o) test Is used for the diagnosis of-
A. Rheumatoid ahritis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Rickettsial fever
| Rheumatic fever |
e1c4c376-3789-4e0c-be4b-a48eda596e75 | Answer is D (Anterior Coex) : Anterior Coex (Frontal lobe) is not involved in posterior cerebral aery infarct Posterior Cerebral Aery infarcts The posterior Cerebral Aery supplies the midbrain, thalamus, lateral geniculate bodies, posterior poion of choroid plexus, occipital lobes, inferior and medial aspect of the temporal lobe and posterior inferior areas of the parietal lobe. Occlusion of the Posterior Cerebral Aery usually results in two common clinical syndromes depending on the areas involved P1 Syndrome Occlusion of the proximal segment of PCA from its origin to its union with the posterior communicating aery P1 syndrome present primarily with the following signs Midbrain signs Thalamic signs Subthalamic signs P2 Syndrome Occlusion of the distal segment of PCA distal to the junction of PCA with the posterior communicating aery P2 syndrome presents primarily with the following signs Temporal lobe signs Occipital lobe signs | Medicine | null | Which of the following sites is not involved in a posterior cerebral aery infarct:
A. Midbrain
B. Thalamus
C. Temporal lobe
D. Anterior Coex
| Anterior Coex |
b50c885d-cc4e-4495-a848-f667a32f9df1 | Fat content of food items: Food item Fat content Jowar 4% Bajra 6.5% - Highest fat content Rice 3% Wheat 3% | Social & Preventive Medicine | Proteins, Fats, Rich Sources | Highest fat content is present in:
A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Bajra
D. Jowar
| Bajra |
068c6788-406e-40bf-8a95-b9f30debe91f | A i.e. SildenafilSildenafil is only approved & effective oral agent for erectile dysfunctionQ. It is useful in wide range of e.d.including - pyschogenic, diabetogenic, vasculogenic, post radical prostatectomy (nerve sparing procedure) & spinal cord injury.It acts by inhibiting phosphodiesterase - 5 (PDE-5)Q & releasing NOQ from nerve endings & endotheliumOther t/t for Erectile dysfunction are:PIPE therapy (PapaverineQ/ Phentolamine Induced Penile Erection)- AndrogenIntraurethral - alprostodil (PGE1)Penile prosthasis, vaccum constriction deviceMaster Johnson technique is for premature ejaculationQp Blockers can cause erectile dysfunctionQ | Psychiatry | null | Most accurate treatment of erectile dysfunction:
A. Sildenafil
B. Master and johnson technique
C. B-blockers
D. Papaverine
| Sildenafil |
0415d880-674a-46ba-b86d-4a44d38885df | Ref Robbins 9/e p257;8/e p253;7/e p261 TB , bronchiectasis and chronic osteomyelitis were the most impoant underlying conditions but with the advent of effective antimicrobial chemotherapy the connective tissue disorders such as rheumatoid ahritis , ankylosing spondylitis and inflammation bowel disease . paicularly crohn disease and ulcerative colitis | Anatomy | General anatomy | Secondary amyloidosis complicates which of the following
A. Pneumonia
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Irritable bowel sydrome
D. Chronic osteomyelitis
| Chronic osteomyelitis |
e2c942c9-b750-4e59-a3d3-906cd5be7c5e | Ans. (c). i.e. N. meningitidis The patient here is under state of shock (hypotension, tachycardia) in conjunction with meningitis (headache fever)and rash. Meningococcal meningitis is the most common meningitis complicated by shock. CLINICAL MANIFESTATION OF MENINGOCOCCAL DISEASE Rash A nonblanching rash (petechial or purpuric) develops in >80% of cases of meningococcal disease. Rashesare initially blanching in nature but within hours become non-blanching. In severe cases large purpuriclesions (purpura fulminons) develops. Meningitis Commonly present as fever, vomiting, headache, irritability, petechial or purpuric rash occurs in 2/3 of cases. Headache is seen in adults usually. In upto 40% of cases there are some features of septicemia too. Septicemia Can be isolated or as a accomplication of meningitis. The condition may cause death within hours. Purpura fulminans is a specific feature. Chronic meningococcemia Present as repeated episodes of petechial rash associated with fever joint pain, ahritis and splenomegaly. The main differential diagnosis is acute rheumatic fever. This condition has been associated with complement deficiently and with inadequate sulfonamide therapy. If left untreated chances of progression to meningococcal septicemia are high. Postmeningococcal reactive disease In small propoion of patients, an immune complex disease develops 4-10 days after the onset of meningococcal disease with manifestations that include a maculopapular or vasculitic rash, ahritis, pericarditis and/or polyserosites associated with fever. | Microbiology | null | Young female with 3 day fever presents with headache, BP 90/60 mmHg, Hea rate of 114/min, and pin point spots developed distal to BP cuff. Most likely organism is:
A. Brucella abous
B. Brucella suis
C. N. meningitidis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
| N. meningitidis |
5ba62b8f-9bcd-4646-b9b0-59c0b5374ff6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mast cells Type I hypersensitivity (Immediate hypersensitivity) o It is a rapidly developing immunological reaction occuring within minutes after the combination of an antigen with antibody bound to mast cells in individuals previously sensitized to the antigen. o Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by Ig E, but T and B cells play impoant role in the development of these antibodies. o Type I reaction requires prior sensitization to a specific antigen (allergen). o Most exposures occur either by inhalation (respiratory route) or ingestion (GIT) of antigen. o Type one hypersensitivity has two phases :- 1.Initial response o After first antigen exposure, this antigen is presented to CD-4 helper T cells (TH2 type) by antigen presenting cells. These primed TH2 cells release IL-4 that acts on B-cells to form Ig E specific for that paicular antigen. The antigen specific lg E antibodies then bind to the surface receptors of mast cells and basophils. The process from first antigen exposure to the coating of mast cells by Ig E acts as sensitization (prior sensitization) and first exposure is also called priming or sensitizing exposure (dose). Subsequent exposure (shocking dose) to same antigen then result in activation of mast cells and basophils with release of mediator from these cells that leads to ? Smooth muscle spasm Increase mucus secretion from the epithelial cells. Vasodilatation Increased vascular permeability Recuritment of inflammatory cells Note - Most of the clinical effects are due to smooth muscle spasm. 2. Late phase response In this phase additional leukocytes are recruited. These cells amplify and sustain the inflammatory response without additional exposure to the triggred antigen. Among the cells that are recruited in the late-phase reaction, eosinophils are paicularly impoant. Eosinophils produce major basic protein and eosinophilic cataionic protein that are toxic to epithelial cells. Platelet activating factor (PAF) recruits and activates inflammatory cells and is most impoant cytokine in the initatiation of late phase response. Type I hypersensitivity occurs in two forms Anaphylaxis --> Acute, potentially fatal, systemic. Atom --> Chronic, Nonfatal, Lacalized. Remember o Mast cells are the most impoant cells in type I hypersensitivity. o Eosinophils are the most impoant cells in the late phase reaction of type I hypersensitivity. o Histamine is the most impoant mediator in type I hypersensitivity. o IL-4 is paicularly impoant, it is essential for turning on IgE secreting B cells. o PAF is the most impoant cytokine in the initiation of late phase reaction. o Most potent eosinophilic activating cytokine is IL-5. | Pathology | null | The most impoant cells in type I hypersensitivity
A. Macrophages
B. Mast cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes
| Mast cells |
1572cbab-f2d2-4e6d-bb21-971d8e8fcaea | High Glycemic index foods have values of 70 or greater and include baked potato, white bread and white rice. Low Glycemic index foods have values of 55 or lesser and include multi grain breads, pasta, legumes. | Medicine | Diabetes Mellitus | High Glycemic index is defined as value more than?
A. 55
B. 60
C. 70
D. 100
| 70 |
dd8d6da5-ea32-43ac-aefe-d261770561e5 | Ans. is'a'i.e.,0 dBAudiometric zeroThreshold of hearing, i.e. The faintest intensity which a normal healthy person can hear will vary from person to person.The International Standards Organisation (ISO) adopted a standard for this, which is represented as the zero level on the audiometer (0 dB).According to ISO, audiometric zero is the mean value of minimal audible intensity in a group of normally hearing healthy young adults. | ENT | null | Threshold of hearing in a young normal adult is ?
A. 0 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 30 dB
| 0 dB |
495f0900-664e-40bb-aee1-3b9ed066445f | Autistic disorder (childhood autism) Social deficits. Examples include babies who don't like being held, and also reduced eye contact, unusual facial expressions, lack of gestures, poor understanding of others' feelings, lack of empathy, and few peer relationships. Communication deficits. Speech in autistic children shows wide variety; it may be completely absent (30 per cent), or merely show unusual or asocial qualities. Common abnormalities of speech include echolalia, odd prosody and pronoun reversal. These children have difficulty in two-way conversations, and some ask a string of questions instead. Restricted/repetitive interests and behaviors. Autistic children often show a deep interest in things others regard as very mundane; for example, washing machines or license plates. | Psychiatry | Psychoanalysis | A neurodevelopmental disorder which is characterized by impaired social interaction, impaired verbal and nonverbal communication, and restricted and repetitive behavior is description for:
A. Autism
B. Anxiety disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Paranoid schizophrenia
| Autism |
9bd8f193-5321-420a-bb9b-f0b753bc6c95 | Ans is option 1 HRCT The usual screening test is to measure the serum potassium level. If it is low, diagnostic tests are done including measuring blood and urinary aldosterone levels and blood renin levels. In Conn's syndrome, the aldosterone is elevated and the renin is suppressed. If these tests are diagnostic then imaging studies are done to see if a tumor can be localized. Since these tumors are small they can be hard to find even with the best CT or CT with contrast or MRI scan. Some patients may have no obvious radiographic tumor but one adrenal is affected (unilateral primary adrenal hyperplasia) and they can benefit from surgical removal. Other patients may have both adrenals affected with no visible tumor (idiopathic hyperaldosteronism) and surgery will not help. In these situations blood has to be drawn from each adrenal vein (so called adrenal venous sampling) in order to measure aldosterone levels to be sure which adrenal has the tumor. The symptoms of hyperaldosteronism may resemble other conditions or medical problems. Always consult your physician for a diagnosis. the diagnostic procedures for aldosteronoma may include: Blood and urine tests to measure potassium and hormone levels Computed tomography (CT or CAT scan) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) - are non-invasive procedures that take cross-sectional images of the adrenal or other internal organs; to detect any abnormalities that may not show up on an ordinary x-ray Adrenal venous sampling- an invasive test performed by a radiologist where a catheter is placed in the adrenal veins to measure the hormone level and confirms the tumor location. Ref Harrison 17/e p2260 , Semantischolar.org | Medicine | Endocrinology | Adrenal aldosteronoma is best diagnosed by -
A. HRCT
B. MRI
C. JVP
D. KUB
| HRCT |
ee1d1c6b-3c4e-48c7-bc39-9bd0e9db28fd | Posterior communicating aery is a branch of internal carotid aery. The other branches of basilar aery are: Superior cerebellar aery Posterior cerebral aeries . The branches of cerebral pa of internal carotid aery are: Ophthalmic aery Anterior cerebral aery Middle cerebral aery Posterior communicating aery Anterior choroidal aery . imageref - Vishram singh 2e pg 174 | Anatomy | Brain | Which of the following is not branch of the basilar aery ?
A. Labrynthine aery
B. Anterior inferior cerebellar aery
C. Pontine aery
D. Posterior communicating aery
| Posterior communicating aery |
acdce155-b928-4bd1-8add-ccd4633fc0a7 | V-Fib or VF is the most common rhythm that occurs immediately after cardiac arrest. In this rhythm, the hea beats with rapid, erratic electrical impulses. Treatment: * Shock / Defibrillation: every 2 minutes in a single one shock, successive, shockable increments * 200 joules - Followed by immediate CPR for 2 minutes / give and circulate a drug(s) * 300 joules - Followed by immediate CPR for 2 minutes / give and circulate a drug(s) * 360 joules - Followed by immediate CPR for 2 minutes / give and circulate a drug(s) * Drugs : * Give Epinephrine 1mg of a 1:10,000 solu,on every 3 to 5 minutes * Give either: * Amiodarone : 300mg first dose / 150mg second dose at 3 to 5 minutes increments. Lidocaine: First dose: 1mg/kg or 1.5 mg/kg. Can repeat it at half the original dose up to a total of 3 mg/kg REF : BAILEY AND LOVE 27TH ED | Surgery | All India exam | In ACLS which drug can be given following ventricular fibrillation after cardiac arrest other than epinephrine?
A. Amiodarone
B. Dopamine
C. Adenosine
D. Atropine
| Amiodarone |
7e5c15b8-68aa-4675-b152-df5213bc058e | The alpha-toxin is produced by all types of Clostridium perfringens and most abundantly by type A strains. This is the most impoant toxin biologically and is responsible for the profound toxemia of gas gangrene. It is lethal, dermonecrotic and hemolytic. It is phospholipids which, in the presence of calcium and magnesium ions, splits lecithin into phosphorylcholine and diglyceride. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 259 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Gas gangrene is due to
A. Alpha toxin
B. Theta toxin
C. Beta toxin
D. Delta toxin
| Alpha toxin |
e5732529-521a-482f-b646-ff0cf6a03950 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., GnRH analogues Drugs causing osteoporosis : o Glucocoicoids o Cytotoxic drugs o Excessive alcohol intake o Excessive thyroxine o Heparin o Cyclosporine o Anticonvulsants o Aluminum o GnRH agonist o Lithium | Pharmacology | null | Which drug causes osteoporosis on long-term use
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. GnRH analogues
D. Warfarin
| GnRH analogues |
a0c2f6fb-905a-4703-b181-76801f03c1ab | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leptospira Media for the culture of leptospirae usually contain either rabbit serum (Flatcher medium, stua broth) or bovine serum albumin (EMJH medium plus long - chain fatty acids and vitamins (B1 & B12). | Microbiology | null | Fletcher's medium containing Rabbit serum is used for ?
A. Streptococcus
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Leptospira
D. Borrelia
| Leptospira |
5279cb26-b9cf-43be-ae0d-942b12b73923 | "Bloody discharge is more suggestive of cancer but is usually caused by a benign papilloma in the duct." - CSDT
"Intraductal papilloma is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge." — Schwartz 7/e p 553
Also, remember
Nipple discharge is suggestive of cancer if it is spontaneous, unilateral, localized to a single duct, occurs in women age 40 years or more, is bloody, or is associated with a mass.
Nipple discharge is suggestive of a benign condition if it is bilateral or multiductal in origin, occurs in women age 39 years or less, or is milky or blue-green in colour. | Surgery | null | A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates -
A. Breast abscess
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Duct papilloma
D. Fat necrosis of breast
| Duct papilloma |
e8f22d5d-3712-43d0-9ecf-c489c8b69019 | Answer is C Size-exclusion--or gel filtration--chromatography separates proteins based on their Stokes radius, the radius of the sphere they occupy as they tumble in a solution. The stokes radius is a function of molecular mass and shape. When rapidly tumbling, an elongated protein occupies a larger effective volume than a spherical protein of the same mass. Size-exclusion chromatography employs porous beads. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 30E (2015) Pg No 27. in Ion Exchanege chromatography ,Cation-exchange solid phases contain covalently bound, negatively charged functional groups. Examples include strongly acidic groups, such as sulfonate ions, or weakly acidic groups, such as carboxyl or carboxymethyl . Immobilized enzymes have been chemically bonded to adsorbents, such as (1) microcrystalline cellulose,(2) diethylaminoethyl (DEAE) cellulose, (3) carboxymethyl cellulose, and (4) agarose. Ref: Tietz Textbook of Clinical Chemistry and Molecular Diagnostics, 5E Pg no 308 and 375 Iso Electric focussing is based on electric field and pH. Ionic buffers called ampholytes and an applied electric field are used to generate a pH gradient within a polyacrylamide matrix. Applied proteins migrate until they reach the region of the matrix where the pH matches their isoelectric point (pI). Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 30E (2015) Pg No 29. | Biochemistry | Structure and function of protein | The following separation technique depends on the molecular size of the protein
A. Chromatography on a carboxymethyl cellulose column
B. Iso-electric focusing
C. Gel filtration chromatography
D. Chromatography on a diethylaminoethyl (DEAE) cellulose column
| Gel filtration chromatography |
a5aefc13-e516-4edb-9531-ae2c91b9f6dc | 2 Advanced treatment options for depression: Vagus Nerve Stimulation: A number of clinical studies have shown that vagus nerve stimulation (VNS) has antidepressant effects in patients with depression resistant to four or more treatments. Improvement with VNS result in enhanced neurocognitive function in many patients. VNS appears to be most effective in patients with low to moderate antidepressant resistance. Response rates usually range from 30-40%, and long-term VNS treatment appears to be associated with sustained symptomatic improvement. VNS is also known to improve mood in depressed patients with epilepsy. Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation: Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) is a noninvasive and easily tolerated method of altering coical physiology. Clinical studies suppo an antidepressant effect of high-frequency rTMS administered to the left PFC; however, antidepressive efficacy is not consistent, and where efficacy is demonstrated, degree of clinical improvement appears to be small. The absence of psychosis, and younger age may be predictors of treatment success. Low frequency TMS to the right PFC also has shown promise. Repetitive TMS may be useful in augmenting or hastening the response of antidepressant drugs in patients with major depressive disorder. Ref: Loosen P.T., Shelton R.C. (2008). Chapter 18. Mood Disorders. In M.H. Ebe, P.T. Loosen, B. Nurcombe, J.F. Leckman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Psychiatry, 2e. | Psychiatry | null | Stimulation of which of the following nerves cause improvement in mood?
A. Olfactory Nerve
B. Optic Nerve
C. Trigeminal Nerve
D. Vagus Nerve
| Vagus Nerve |
4f296411-845f-4ff2-91fe-2a46929bb9c6 | Ans. is'd'i.e., ThiazideRef KDT &/e p. 567; Katung If le p. 261Diuretics causing hyperglycemia are loop diuretics (furosemide) and thiazide diuretics. | Pharmacology | null | Diuretic causing impaired glucose tolerance is ?
A. Triamterene
B. Acetazolamide
C. Amiloride
D. Thiazide
| Thiazide |
c8d2c819-e67f-40ce-8458-9b123b83d82d | Streptococcus viridans is a group which normally resides in the mouth and upper respiratory tract and is alpha hemolytic. In persons with pre-existing cardiac lesions, they may cause bacterial endocarditis, Streptococcus sanguis being most often responsible. Following tooth extraction or dental procedures, they cause transient bacteremia and get implanted on damaged or prosthetic valves or in congenitally diseased hea and grow to form vegetation. Streptococcus mutans is also a member of viridans group which causes endocarditis in individuals with risk factors ( dental extraction in people with damaged valves). Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 220 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Causes of community-acquired native valve endocarditis are
A. Streptocccus viridians
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Diphtheriods
D. Staphyloccous epidermidis
| Streptocccus viridians |
73c6352b-a3b2-40f4-8b5b-e05a1731aec9 | So, both the Methyl dopa & clonidine are used as Anti- hypeensive drugs. KEY POINTS ABOUT METHYL DOPA It's a prodrug DOC in pregnancy induced hypeension (but if both Labetalol and Methyl dopa are given in option mark Labetalol as the drug of choice S/E of Methyl Dopa - Hemolytic Anemia | Pharmacology | Sympathetic System | Which of the following is the mechanism of action of methyl dopa?
A. Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors
B. Agonism of alpha 2 receptors
C. Blockade of alpha 2 receptors
D. Agonism of beta 2 receptors.
| Agonism of alpha 2 receptors |
ecbfbcde-2585-4ab8-a446-377c61d7fe27 | Rickettsial pox caused by R.akari Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 316 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Rickettsial pox is caused by ?
A. Rickettsia ricketsiae
B. Rickettsia akari
C. R. Typhi
D. Rickettsia coonri
| Rickettsia akari |
00646152-3ca0-4a34-8bca-1c24af980c41 | Ans- A Question ask -The diagnosis is not likely to be | Radiology | Abdominal Radiography | A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on abdominal X-ray, multiple air fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be -
A. Pyloric obstruction
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Illeal atresia
D. Ladd s bands
| Pyloric obstruction |
ad57fc51-e5e0-4b68-986c-0b2d12b09ff7 | Ans. C. Corrosive acid poisoningGastric Lavage is contraindicated when patients havea. Corrosive substance poisoningb. Convulsion (strychnine, tetanus)c. Comad. Volatile poisons (kerosene)e. Hypothermiaf. patients at risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage or perforation.g. aluminum phosphide poisoning | Pharmacology | Miscellaneous (Pharmacology) | In which type of poisonings is gastric lavage contraindicated?
A. Organophosphorus poisoning
B. Sedative drug poisoning
C. Corrosive acid poisoning
D. Barium carbonate poisoning
| Corrosive acid poisoning |
ce791f22-da23-434b-bd1b-85268ca1ff27 | Inherited Unconjugated HyperbilirubinemiaCrigler Najjar Type - 1 Crigler Najjar Type - 2Persistence of unconjugated bilirubin > 20mg/dl after 1st week in the absence of hemolysis suggests CN-1.KERNICTERUS -usual UDPGT activity reduced.Autosomal recessive.Rx - Phototherapy.Heme oxygenase inhibition by metalloporphyrin therapy.Cure - ohotropic liver transplantation.Can be differentiated from CN1 by marked decrease in serum bilirubin with phenobarbitone.KERNICTERUS -unusual.Inducible phenobarbitone response on UGTA1 promoter.Orlistat intestinal lipase inhibitor reduces bilirubin in both CN-1 & CN -2Inherited Conjugated HyperbilirubinemiaDubin Johnson syndrome Rotor syndrome Absent MRP2 protein - multiple drug resistant protein is responsible defectCholangiography fails to visualize gall bladderTotal urinary coproporphyrin is normal||| coproporphyrin 1 excretion||| coproporphyrin 3 excretionX ray -Gall bladder abnormalLiver histology-Black pigment.Additional deficiency of organic anion uptakeTotal urinary coproporphyrin is increasedX ray gall bladder - normalNo black pigment(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Paediatrics, 19thedition, pg no:604) | Pathology | All India exam | Kernicterus is invariably associated with
A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type-I
B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type-II
C. Dubin Johnson syndrome
D. Rotor syndrome
| Crigler-Najjar syndrome type-I |
e8d4a0b3-b194-4a1a-b75b-560875903705 | Ans. (b) Medio lateral oblique viewRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 525There are numerous mammography views that can broadly be split into two groups* Standard views- Medio-Lateral, Medio-lateral oblique, Craniocaudal* Supplementary views - Additional information or problem solving# The mediolateral oblique (MLO) view is one of standard mammographic views. It is the most important projection as it allows to depict most breast tissue.# The Mediolateral view loses significant tissue volume in the upper outer quadrant of the breast where statistically the most breast cancers are found. By doing an MLO view you get extra tissue without extra exposure. | Radiology | Plain Film Radiography, Fluoroscopy, and Tomosynthesis | The most appropriate technique for mammography is:
A. Spot Compression view
B. Medial lateral oblique view
C. Lateral view
D. Medilateral view
| Medial lateral oblique view |
72f11ff9-fc8c-41ab-82f2-b141c882626b | a. 21 hydroxylase deficiency(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2227-2729, Ghai 8/e p 525)The given clinical scenario of ambiguous genitalia, hyperpigmentation and electrolyte disturbances suggest a diagnosis of CAH due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency.Features Seen in Adrenal Enzyme Deficiency17-a-hydroxylase11-b hydroxylase21 hydroxylase and 3b-HSDSalt retention and hypertensionFeminization of maleSalt retention and hypertensionVirilization of femalePrecocious puberty in maleSalt losingVirilization of femalePrecocious puberty in male | Pediatrics | Endocrinology | A 3-week-female infant is brought for ambiguous genitalia and hyperpigmentation of skin. She has hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
B. 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
C. 17, 20 lyase deficiency
D. 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency
| 21 hydroxylase deficiency |
aa213ed0-f7b2-4a5e-81f1-140acfbdc8e8 | Ans. b (Throttling). (Ref. Textbook of FMT by Parikh 6th ed. 3.53)Throttlingis defined as a form of strangulation effected by hand, and is therefore often called manual strangulation.Mugging (choke-hold)When strangulation is effected by compressing the victim's neck against forearm.GarrotingVictim is attacked from back without warning and strangulated by throwing ligature over the neck and tightening it quickly. It was the mode of execution in Spain, Portugal and Turkey.BansdolaNeck is compressed between two sticks or hard objects, usually bamboo, one being placed across the throat in front and another behind. It is practiced in north India. | Forensic Medicine | Asphyxial Deaths | Death of a person due to compressing of neck by another person is:
A. Hanging
B. Throttling
C. Bansdola
D. Asphyxiating
| Throttling |
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