id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
e6368577-0cf2-425b-8f33-9c2e8df7e8e5 | OSTEOLYTIC SECONDARIES Tumor cells produce growtl factors that stimulate bone destruction i.e. RANK &;igen& Osteoclasts are activated and break down bone Osteoblasts cannot build bone back fast enough Decreased bone density and strength: high risk for fracture OSTEOBLASTIC SECONDARIES Osteoblasts are stimulated by tumors to lay down new bone Bone becomes abnormally dense and stiff Paradoxically bones are also at risk of breaking REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | Orthopaedics | Tumors | Most common cause of bone malignancy -
A. Secondaries
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewing's sarcoma
D. Osteoclastoma
| Secondaries |
aa8d52cd-8e0e-465e-a3eb-6ff53c981edc | Summons/Subpoena is a document compelling the attendance of a witness in a cou of law, under penalty, on a paicular day, time and place for the purpose of giving evidence. Code of Criminal Procedure, from section 61 to 69 deals with the topic of summons. Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology; 5th ed; Page no: 10 | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | CrPC sec. 61-69 deals with
A. Coroner inquest
B. Summons
C. Police inquest
D. Magistrate inquest
| Summons |
ae770a4f-0b05-4619-9d4d-467fd9764ba3 | Ans: a. B. bacilliformis Baonellosis, or Carrion's disease, is caused by B. bacilliformisBaonellosis, or Carrion's disease, is caused by B. bacilliformis. The disease is characterized by two distinct phases:an acute febrile hematic phase, known as Oroya fever; andan eruptive phase manifested by cutaneous lesions, known as verruga peruana | Microbiology | null | Oroya fever is caused by:
A. B. bacilliformis
B. B. henselae
C. B. quintana
D. B. elizabethae
| B. bacilliformis |
9e6679da-326f-4161-9229-fc34cbef61bd | Whipple's disease is a chronic multisystem disease caused by tropheryma whipplei bacteria. Dementia is a late symptom. Diagnosed by PAS positive macrophages in small intestinal biopsy. DOC is double strength trimethoprim / sulfamethoxazole. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2479 | Medicine | null | A 30 year old male presented with insidious onset of diarrhea, steatorrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, migratory large joint ahropathy, fever and dementia. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Chronic calcific pancreatitis
B. Whipple's disease
C. Tropical sprue
D. Celiac sprue
| Whipple's disease |
895f4932-6852-4dba-9106-0a31e8b63545 | Answer: a) Laryngectomy (DHINGRA 6th ED, P-316)TRACHEOSTOMY* Emergency tracheostomy* Elective or tranquil tracheostomy* Permanent tracheostomy* Percutaneous dilatational tracheostomy* Mini tracheostomy (cricothyroidotomy)Emergency tracheostomy* It is employed when airway obstruction is complete or almost complete and there is an urgent need to establish the airway.* Intubation or laryngotomy are either not possible or feasible in such cases.Elective tracheostomy (tranquil, orderly or routine tracheostomy)* Almost all operative surgical facilities are available, endotracheal tube can be put and local or general anaesthesia can be given.* Elective tracheostomy is often temporary and is closed when indication is over.* It is of two types:> Therapeutic, to relieve respiratory obstruction, remove tracheobronchial secretions or give assisted ventilation.> Prophylactic, to guard against anticipated respiratory obstruction or aspiration of blood or pharyngeal secretions such as in extensive surgery of tongue, floor of mouth, mandibular resection or laryngofissure.Permanent tracheostomy* This may be required for cases of bilateral abductor paralysis or laryngeal stenosis.* In laryngectomy or laryngopharyngectomy, lower tracheal stump is brought to surface and stitched to the skin.High tracheostomy* Above the level of thyroid isthmus (isthmus lies against II, III, IV tracheal rings)* It violates the I tracheal ring* Can cause perichondritis of the cricoid cartilage and subglottic stenosis* Always avoided* Only indication: carcinoma larynxMid tracheostomy* Preferred one* Through II or III rings (isthmus either divided or retracted)Low tracheostomy* Below the level of isthmus | ENT | Larynx | End tracheostomy is performed in patients undergoing surgery for
A. Laryngectomy
B. Laryngofissure surgery
C. Oropharyngeal growth
D. Obstructive sleep apnea with stridor
| Laryngectomy |
643995c8-253d-4fce-95b6-f29a98f59381 | Hypocalcaemia (Hypoparathyroidism, hypovitaminosis D) causes zonular (lamellar) cataract. | Ophthalmology | null | Hypovitaminosis D causes –
A. Zonular cataract
B. Blue – Dot cataract
C. Rosette cataract
D. Cupuliform cataract
| Zonular cataract |
a504fbed-692b-49d9-96dd-aa78868d5dad | Aoo-iliac disease - Tissue distal to aery occlusion becomes ischemic - as this aery supplies muscles - causes Intermittent claudication like Buttock, thigh, calf claudication andLeriche syndrome - Erectile dysfunction - Impotence | Surgery | NEET Jan 2020 | A 30 years old man presents with cramping gluteal pain after walking 500 meters. Which is the vessel involved?
A. Aerial disease with aoo-iliac involvement
B. Aerial disease with femoral aery involvement
C. Femoral venous insufficiency
D. Saphenous venous insufficiency
| Aerial disease with aoo-iliac involvement |
1707f3c0-400e-427e-b96d-4ec03a1f0f55 | Answer- A. Duct ectasiaDuct ectasia is dilatation of lactiferous ducts associated with periductal inflammation.Chronic inflammation and scarring will lead to indrawing and slit-shaped inversion of the nipple.If secondary infection supervenes, a mammary duct fistula can also develop. | Surgery | null | Slit shaped nipple seen in
A. Duct ectasia
B. Duct pappiloma
C. Paget's disease
D. CA breast
| Duct ectasia |
4c1cdb26-fcf3-40ba-85b1-309c3453b402 | *MMR vaccine if administrate within 72 hours of exposure or immunoglobulin if administrate within 6 days of exposure provide some protection or modify the clinical course of disease. Measles vaccine Prepared in chick embryo cell line Thermolabile Injected subcutaneously Indication: Under national immunisation schedule of India , measles vaccine is given at 9 months of age along with vit A supplements. Side effects: Toxic shock syndrome ,mild measles like illness may develop in 15 -20% of vaccines. REF:Anantha Narayanan and paniker's textbook of microbiology 9th edition. | Microbiology | Virology | Post-exposure immunization is done for
A. Measles
B. Polio
C. Rabies
D. Chicken pox
| Measles |
ed7fa3a7-9745-4f54-bb30-f61784574b8f | Ans: C i.e. Alkalosis, hypothermia, hyperkalemia The complications usually seen with massive blood transfusion are: i) hyperkalemia, ii) Hypocalcemia, iii) Hyperammonemia, iv) Hypothermia, v) Metabolic alkalosis, vi) Dilutional coagulopathies, DIC & vii) ARDS. | Surgery | null | Triad following massive blood transfusion includes: March 2012
A. Acidosis, hypehermia, hyperkalemia
B. Acidosis, hypothermia, hyperkalemia
C. Alkalosis, hypothermia, hyperkalemia
D. Alkalosis, hypehermia, hyperkalemia
| Alkalosis, hypothermia, hyperkalemia |
4e5313db-d176-4750-b149-c7bec4364fc1 | Classification of jaundice A. Predominantly unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia 1. increased production of bilirubin Hemolytic anemias Resorption of blood from intestinal hemorrhages(eg: gi bleeding, hematomas) Ineffective erythropoiesis 2. Reduced hepatic intake Drug that interfere with the membrane carrier systems Diffuse liver disease ( hepatitis, cirrhosis) Some cases of Gilbe syndrome 3. Impaired bilirubin conjugation Physiological jaundice of the new born Crigler-Najjar syndrome types I and II Gilbe syndrome Diffuse liver disease ( hepatitis, cirrhosis) B. Predominantly conjugated hyperbilirubinemia 1. Decreased hepatocellular excretion Deficiency of canalicular membrane transpoers - Dubin- Johnson syndrome - Rotor syndrome Liver damage or toxicity 2. Impaired intra/extra hepatic bile flow Inflammatory destruction of bile ducts( eg: primary biliary cirrhosis) Gallstones Carcinoma of pancreas GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK PGNO.429 | Pathology | G.I.T | Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in
A. Rotor syndrome
B. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
C. Gilbe syndrome
D. Bile duct obstruction
| Gilbe syndrome |
6cd8eea4-e9d2-4c6c-96b1-e0f8b5d83450 | .It is telescoping or invagination of one poion (segment) of bowel into the adjacent segment. Types 1. Antegrade--Most common. 2. Retrograde--Rare (jejunogastric in gastrojejunostomy stoma). In elderly intussusception: * Colocolic is most common type * Apex is formed usually by growth * No role of hydrostatic reduction * It can be single or multiple (rare). * It can be ileo-colic (most common type, 75%), colocolic, ileoileocolic, colocolic. *It is common in weaning period of a child (common in male), between the period of 6-9 months. ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 863 | Surgery | G.I.T | The most common type of intussuception is
A. Multiple
B. Colocolic
C. Ileoileal
D. Ileoilecolic
| Ileoilecolic |
5b645940-1862-40b5-82cf-3729d8effd04 | Leydig Cell Tumor Sex-cord stromal type of testicular tumor Age- usually at 5-10 years of age or in middle adulthood (30-60 years). Tumors of Leydig cells may secrete androgens, estrogens and coicosteroids. In males , testicular swelling is the most common presenting feature. Children usually present with precocious pubey due to excess of testosterone secreted by the tumor. Adults usually present with gynaecomastia, loss of libido, erectile dysfunction and infeility Histology : Large, closely packed cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and small nucleoli. Reinke crystals are pale-staining, cylindrical, eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are pathognomonic for Leydig cell tumors and are found in up to 30% of patients . | Pathology | Testicular Tumors | A 34-year-old man presents to OPD with gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction. Physical examination reveals a palpable, non-tender testicular mass within the body of testis. His serum testosterone and estradiol levels were elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Leydig cell tumour
B. Granulosa cell tumour
C. Spermatocytic tumour
D. Yolk sac tumour
| Leydig cell tumour |
9399c7a6-6707-452c-bfc8-9389968ed54b | Oppounistic infections of the CNS generally occur in HIV infected patients with CD4 counts below 200. Most common organism that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is Cyptococcus neoformans. Cryptococcus neoformans is an encapsulated budding yeast that is found worldwide in soil and on dried pigeon dung. Infections are acquired by inhalation. In the lung, the infection may remain localized, heal, or disseminate. Progressive lung disease and dissemination occur in cases of cellular immunodeficiency. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 36 | Microbiology | null | Which of the following organism is the most common cause of acute meningitis in an AIDS patient?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Listeria monocytogenes
| Cryptococcus neoformans |
517ed9a4-788e-43f7-985c-1412a8fcb3bc | Answer C. Ascending aortic aneurysmA widened mediastinum is visible on chest radiography. The patient was diagnosed with a 9.5-cm ascending aortic aneurysm. | Medicine | C.V.S. | This patient presented with chest pain. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute pulmonary embolism
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Ascending aortic aneurysm
D. Coarctation of the aorta
| Ascending aortic aneurysm |
df77a283-968d-4bee-a46c-503204b2dafb | Fed state Preferred fuel
Starvation preferred fuel
RBC
Glucose
Glucose
Heart
Fatty acids
Ketone bodies
Brain
Glucose
Ketone bodies
Liver
Glucose
Fatty acids / protein
Muscle
Glucose
Fatty acids
Adipose tissue
Glucose
Fatty acids. | Biochemistry | null | Fatty acids are the main source of energy for
A. Muscles
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. RBC
| Heart |
ede34bce-a372-4e69-9299-1b08ddfa120b | Steroids overwhelm the fungal infection,it also causes immunosuppression. Ref khurana 6/e p243 | Ophthalmology | Cornea and sclera | Steroid is contraindicated in -
A. Herpetic keratitis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Fungal corneal ulcer
D. Exposure Keratitis
| Fungal corneal ulcer |
0be58ffb-50af-41c1-b0a3-a7912c9cbc7c | Refer Miller's anesthesia 5/e p 892 Among the given options Rapacuronium IA the shoest acting drug Rapacuronium has been withdrawn from the market because it produces intense bronchospasm in a significant number of patients Mivacurium is shoest acting NDMR | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Shoest acting non depolarising muscle relaxant
A. Succinylcholine
B. Rapacuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Pancuronium
| Rapacuronium |
3e2783b0-3ef8-423b-8b55-72b90f1f427a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dispropoionate dwarfism Note - Patient has sho stature with sho limbs. | Pediatrics | null | Cretinism is -
A. Dispropoionate dwarfism
B. Sho stature with long trunk
C. Sho stature with sho trunk
D. Long stature with long trunk
| Dispropoionate dwarfism |
459e06ea-07be-439b-8973-c3a6c8449889 | Lung Abscess Lung abscess refers to a microbial infection of the lung that results in necrosis of the pulmonary parenchyma MC cause of primary lung abscess: Anaerobic bacteria Etiology of anaerobic lung abscess: Aspiration | Surgery | Thorax And Mediastinum | Commonest cause of lung abscess:
A. Aspiration
B. Hematogenous spread from distant site
C. Direct contact
D. Lymphatic spread
| Aspiration |
30a12f31-4c50-4bae-9d54-8fa7b1b07186 | i.e. (Occurs in seminiferous tubules): (11-12-IBS-Embryology 8th)Spermatozoa are formed in the walls of the seminiferous tubules of the testesSPERMATOGENESIS - formation of gametes (spermatozoa) takes only during the reproductive periods which begins at the age of puberty (12 to 16 years) and continue even though old age* The process of spermatogenesis, including spermiogenesis requires about two months** for its completion.Difference between Spermatogenesis and SpermiogenesisSpermatogenesis is the complete process of formation of a spermatozoon from a spermatogonium. It includes first and second meiotic division and spermiogenesisSpermiogenesis - is the process of transformation of a rounded spermatid into a spermatozoanSERTOLI CELLSSertoli cells are specialized cells within the seminiferous tubules and are involved in the orchestration and coordination of all of the key events in spermatogenesis (including spermiogenesis)Function of Sertoli cells1. Provide support, nutrition to developing spermatozoa2. Protect developing germ cells by forming the blood testes barrier (BTB)3. Secretion of important substances - Androgen binding protein (ABP)*, Inhibin*, Mullerian Inhibiting substance (MIS)*, contain aromatase (CYP)*4. Presence of FSH receptors5. Important role in the final maturation phase of spermiogenesis which is characterized by shedding of excess or residual cytoplasm of the spermatids (Phagocytosis) | Anatomy | Embryology | Spermatogenesis
A. Starts at birth
B. Maximum in 37degC
C. Occurs in seminiferous tubules
D. Time required for a spermatogonium to develop into mature spermatozoan is 6 weeks
| Occurs in seminiferous tubules |
6d983206-297f-42b4-9509-aba979b95f97 | The virulence factors of group A streptococcus or Streptococcus pyogenes: 1. Capsule 2. Carbohydrate antigen 3. Protein antigen M, T, R proteins 4. Pili M protein - acts as virulence factor by inhibiting phagocytosis. Heat and acid stable but susceptible to tryptic digestion. Antibody to M proteins promote phagocytosis of cocci and is protective. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 213 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Virulence factor of the group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is
A. Protein M
B. Protein T
C. Protein R
D. Lipotechoic acid
| Protein M |
379671a7-fcf0-4b71-8675-54ec9d0c3dd0 | Obligate intracellular parasites cannot reproduce outside their host cell, meaning that the parasite's reproduction is entirely reliant on intracellular resources. Toxoplasma,Cryptosporidium Bacteria-chlamydia ,Rickettsia | Microbiology | parasitology | Obligate intracellular parasite among the following is
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Toxoplasma
D. Balamuthia
| Toxoplasma |
4f4ebfaf-0a18-4ed9-b5a1-41b9f86741fc | The aVR is often neglected lead. It is an unipolar lead facing the right superior surface. As all the depolarization are going away from lead aVR, all waves are negative in aVR (P, QRS, T) in normal sinus rhythm. | Medicine | ECG and Arrhythmias 1 | In a normal ECG which lead does it represent?
A. aVL
B. aVR
C. V1
D. V6
| aVR |
f18019de-1c8b-40c8-91e6-a60d43404b24 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lag phase The various phases of growth curve are associated with morphological and physiological alterations of the cells. | Microbiology | null | Maximum cell size in bacterial cell growth cycle?
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. End of plateau phase
D. Early stage of decline
| Lag phase |
fe9eb926-eacb-4487-ad10-594e3d349a4b | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bronchoscope Endoscops are sterilized by chemical methods :? i) Rigid endoscope ---> Autoclave ii) Flexible endoscope --> Glutaraldehyde Bone & tissue graft, and cat gut suture are sterilized by ionizing radiation ('y - rays) | Microbiology | null | Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E ?
A. Bone graft
B. Suture
C. Aificial tissue graft
D. Bronchoscope
| Bronchoscope |
8e718c27-9fec-4fc4-b624-15db0f89a44a | Linezolid is Oxazolidinone. MOA: It inhibits protein synthesis by preventing formation of the ribosome complex that initiates protein synthesis by binding to 23S ribosomal RNA of the 50S subunit. It is active against Gram positive organisms including Staphylococci, Streptococci, Enterococci, Gram positive Anaerobic cocci and Gram positive bacilli such as Corynebacteria, Nocardia sp. and L.monocytogenes. It is primarily a Bacteriostatic agent but is Bactericidal against Streptococci. It is also active against Mycobacterium Tuberculosis. Thrombocytopenia is the most common complication seen with its chronic use , also Optic and Peripheral Neuropathy and Lactic acidosis can occur (due to inhibition of mitochondrial protein synthesis). Anemia and Neutropenia can also occur . | Pharmacology | Protein Synthesis Inhibitors | On chronic use Linezolid leads to which of the following ?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Deranged LFT
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Ototoxicity
| Thrombocytopenia |
2b23af86-f86a-4f85-bcb0-1a943c1586e6 | The lung response to acute altitude exposure is mainly hyperventilation which, together with elevated hea rate, aims at achieving an adequate supply of oxygen to the tissues. At rest, ventilation increases by firstly increasing the tidal volume, at least up to 3500 m. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:365,376,377 | Physiology | Respiratory system | The following acute respiratory response to ascent to high altitude, there is normalization of blood pH. The mechanism is
A. Increased erythropoesis leads to increased buffering by hemoglobin
B. Increased excretion of HCO3 - by the kidneys
C. Increased levels of 2, 3--DPG
D. Retention of bicarbonate by the kidneys
| Retention of bicarbonate by the kidneys |
4f9e76c0-0a6c-4d95-973a-28e44d8d0054 | Ans: b (Shape) Ref: Harshmohan,ed, p. 336Increase variation in shape of red cell is termed as poikilocytosis. Poikilocytes are produced in various types of abnormal erythropoesis.Eg:Megaloblastic anaemiaIron deficiency anaemiaThalassaemia. MyelosclerosisMicroangiopathic haemolytic anaemiaVariation in size is anisocytosis. | Pathology | Blood | Poikilocytosis is due to difference in:
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Number
D. Width
| Shape |
d41b6154-c6db-4a8e-95c5-5bc24b4de39e | Ans. (C) Botulinum toxin(Ref: KK Sharma 2/e p217)As shown in the diagram, the drug is inhibiting the exocytosis of ACh. Botulinum toxin act by this mechanism. Other features pointing towards botulinum toxin are:Anticholinergic adverse effects (dry mouth, blurring of vision)Use in wrinkles, spastic disorders, prophylaxis of migraine. | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | A 30-year-old theatre actress developed few wrinkles on the face. The treating physician advised her to have local injections of a drug. This drug is also indicated in cervical dystonia and other spastic disorders like cerebral palsy. Very recently, it has also been approved for prophylaxis of migraine. The physician warned of the drug to cause dry mouth and blurring of vision. The actress searched the compound on internet and found the site of action of the drug as shown in the Figure below.Which of the following drug is being talked about?
A. Hemicholinium
B. Vesamicol
C. Botulinum toxin
D. Physostigmine
| Botulinum toxin |
ec7f081a-0417-49b9-98a1-c625ec23b895 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Niemann-Pick disease o Gaucher's disease is due to deficiency of b-glucosidase (glucocerebrosidase).DiseaseEnzyme deficiencyLipid accumulatedTay-sach diseaseHexosaminidase AGM2 gangliosideSandoff diseaseHexosaminidase BGM2 gangliosideNiemann-Pick diseaseSphingomyelinaseSphingomyelineFarber's diseaseCeramidaseAcyl-sphingosine (ceramide)Fabry's diseasea-galactosidaseGlobotrisylceramideKrabbe's diseaseb-galactosidase (Galactosylceramidase)GalactosylceramideGaucher's diseaseb-glucosidase (glucocerebrosidase)GlucosylceramideMetachromatic leukodystrophyArylsulfatase A3-Sulfogalactosylceramide | Biochemistry | Lipid Oxidation and Synthesis | Accumulation of sphingomyelin in lysosome occurs in which disease -
A. Niemann-Pick disease
B. Farber's disease
C. Tay Sach's disease
D. Krabbe's disease
| Niemann-Pick disease |
c25154c7-a460-4b45-aa24-5019cf88c1f4 | <p> Essential fatty acids: Those that cannot be synthesised by humans.They can be derived from food only. The most impoant essential fatty acid is linoleic acid, which serves as the basis for production of other essential fatty acids( linolenic and arachidonic acid) . Not all PUFA are essential fatty acids. Linoleic acid:- dietary source and per cent content . Safflower oil- 73 Corn oil- 57 Sunflower oil-56 Soyabean oil-51 Sesame oil-40 Ground nut oil-39 Mustard oil -15 Palmoil- 9 Coconut oil- 2 Eichosapentanoic acid: Fish oil: 10 % present. Linolenic acid : Soyabean oil-7 {Reference: Park&;s textbook of community medicine 23 rd edition, pg no. 611} | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Which of the following dietary source contains the lowest percent of linoleic acid?
A. Coconut oil
B. Mustard oil
C. Groundnut oil
D. Corn oil
| Coconut oil |
ea4a7f36-fee1-4017-8909-eef7b0167758 | Ans. (a) 1%Ref: Sabiston 19th ed. 1523Perineum involved in burns is 1% of body surface area. | Surgery | Initial Care of the Burn Patient | What is the % Body surface area involved in burns of the perineum?
A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 9%
| 1% |
994e8efb-e7a7-4eaf-804e-cd2a6b2b6e16 | (B) (Progesterone- only pill) (491- Dutta 6th)POP/MINIPILL* POP is contain very low dose of a progestin Leuonorgestrel, Norethisterone, desogestrel, lynestrenol or norgestrel* It has to be taken daily from the first day of the cycle*** Mechanism of action - it works mainly by making cervical mucus thick and viscous, thereby prevents sperm penetration**AdvantagesDisadvantages1. Side effects attributed to estrogen in the combined pill are totally eliminated1. Acne, mastalgia headache back through bleeding2. No adverse effect on lactation (''Lactation pill")2. All the side effects, attributed to progestins may be evident3. Easy to take as there is no ''on and off' regime3. Simple cysts of the ovary may be seen, but they do not require any surgery4. It may be prescribed in patients having (medical disorder) Hypertension, fibroid DM, epilepsy, smoking and history of thrombo-embolism4. Failure rate is about o.5-2 per 100 women years of use5. Reduces the risk of PID and endometrial cancerCONTRAINDICATION1. Pregnancy2. Unexplained vaginal bleeding3. Recent breast cancer4. Arterial disease5. Thromboembolic disease* OCP do not act by interference with placental functioning* Contraceptive of choice for Rheumatic heart disease is Barrier method (condom)* Ideal contraceptive for newly married couple is combined OCP* Ideal contraceptive for a couple living in different cities meeting only occasionally - Barrier method* Best contraceptive for parous young women- IUCD* Progesterone of choice in emergency contraceptive is Levonorgestrel*** Effective life of device - Nova Cu-T (5 years) Multiload Cu-T 375 (5years) Cu-T 380A (10 years)* OCP should be avoided in patients on antiepileptic medication* The risk of chlamydial infections is increased in patients using OCP. In most patients such chlamydial infection is asymptomaticAzithromycin is drug of choice in chlaraydial infection in pregnancy* Fishy vaginal odor is most characteristic of Bacterial vaginosis due to Gardnella viginalis (Gram negative bacilli, decreased number of lactobacilli, clue cells, few leucocytes (polymorphs), PH of discharge is >4.5) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Best contraceptive method during lactation
A. IUD
B. Progesterone only pill (POP)
C. Lactational amenorrhoea
D. Barrier method
| Progesterone only pill (POP) |
8e3d8b59-248f-4f6b-951c-3024ae184cd9 | Onion peel appearancne Typical of ---Ewings sarcoma May also be seen in ----Osteosarcoma and osteomyelitis Refer Campbell 13th/e p 953 | Anatomy | null | Onion peel appearance in X-ray suggests
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Ewings sarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Chondrosarcoma
| Ewings sarcoma |
f3161ce9-6869-445f-aa2b-42a56d7a40ce | Not all, but many studies have found that patients with retinitis pigmentosa tend to have lower blood levels of DHA (Docosa Hexaenoic Acid, o3, 22:6), an omega -3 fatty acid found in the photoreceptor cells. ADDITIONAL READING ON DHA: Also known as Cervonic acid. This is having 22 C and 6 double bonds (Docosa means 22, Hexaenoic means 6 double bonds). These days health drinks (bournvita, horlicks) are foified with DHA, as it is impoant for the brain and retina development in infants and children. Decreased amounts lead to increase risk of Retinitis Pigmentosa. DHA is present in high concentration in sperms, retina, cerebral coex. Constant source of DHA is breast milk. Synthesized to a limited extent from a-linolenic acid or obtained directly from fish oils. | Biochemistry | NEET 2019 | Retinitis pigmentosa patients doesn't have:-
A. DHA
B. Eicosa pentaenoic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Timnodonic acid
| DHA |
75a617dc-002e-4043-808b-7acdfd05597f | Ref Walter and Israel 7/e p150 Chediak Higashi syndrome is an autosomal ressive Condition in which polymorphs exhibit defective random movements , defective chemotaxis and impairee degranulation on phagocytosis paicles | Anatomy | General anatomy | Chediak_higashi syndrome is due to defect in
A. Opsonisation
B. Chemotaxis
C. LAD
D. Extracellular microbacterial killing
| Chemotaxis |
0d6de076-be13-4370-ae5a-142319ddec72 | 1. Capillary refill time (C) * The accepted upper normal time is < 3 sec. * A study of 469 preterm and term healthy neonates at 1-7 days of age demonstrated significant site and observer variations when C was measured on the chest, forehead, palm, and heel. * C is more reliable when measured on the chest but not the forehead, palm or heel. A positive predictive value of C for SBF was found only when the refill time was over 6 s. When the refill time is this long, the clinician generally does not need to press the skin to know that something is wrong. Press on the finger for five seconds using moderate pressure at an ambient temperature of 20-25 degrees Celsius. A capillary refill time of three seconds or more should be considered abnormal. ... Normal capillary refill time is usually 2 seconds or less. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Fluid and electrolytes | Capilary Refill time in child with shock is ?
A. > 1 second
B. > 2 seconds
C. > 3 seconds
D. > 4 seconds
| > 3 seconds |
bcfd4182-1aa6-45a8-9f9d-92d8ea7c8af5 | Inferior constrictor muscle has 2 parts; thyropharyngeus with oblique fibres and cricopharyngeus with transverse fibres. Between these 2 parts, there is a potential gap called as killians dehiscence or gateway of tears as perforation can occur at this site during oesophagoscopy and it is also the site for herniation of pharyngeal mucosa in case of the pharyngeal pouch. | ENT | null | Which of the following is known as "Gateway of tears" -
A. Killian's dehiscence
B. Rathke's pouch
C. Waldeyer's ring
D. Sinus of Morgagni
| Killian's dehiscence |
05efacf2-26c7-4fc5-acb0-75a922638a3b | Guedel's classification is a means of assessing of depth of general anesthesia introduced by Ahur Ernest Guedel for Ether in1937. Stage I (stage of analgesia or disorientation) Stage II (stage of excitement or delirium) Stage III (stage of surgical anesthesia) plane I to IV Stage IV: from stoppage of respiration till death Stage III (stage of surgical anesthesia): from onset of automatic respiration to respiratory paralysis. It is divided into four planes: Plane I - from onset of automatic respiration to cessation of eyeball movements Plane II - from cessation of eyeball movements to beginning of paralysis of intercostal muscles Plane III - from beginning to completion of intercostal muscle paralysis. Plane IV - from complete intercostal paralysis to diaphragmatic paralysis Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e. | Anaesthesia | General anaesthesia | Stage of surgical anesthesia during ether administration is
A. Loss of Consciousness
B. failure of circulation
C. Regular respiration to cessation of breathing
D. Loss of Consciousness to beginning of regular respiration
| Regular respiration to cessation of breathing |
b747e2c1-572c-47b3-a209-058b88804705 | A, B and C are branches of external carotid aery. If external carotid aery is ligated,the source of epistaxis will be Ethmoidal aery which is a branch of internal carotid aery. Ref Dhingra 6/e,p 178. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Source of epistaxis after ligation of external carotid aery is:
A. Maxillary aery
B. Greater palatine aery
C. Superior labial aery
D. Ethmoidal aery
| Ethmoidal aery |
ccb341bf-ca41-45ca-b0a4-4e4552dacbcd | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IAnaphylactic shock is caused by type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction. | Pathology | Hypersensitivity Reactions: Immune-Mediated Injury | Anaphylactic shock is caused by w hich type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
| I |
8d7dfe30-a605-4368-91f3-1a96bca69eb4 | The bicarbonate buffer system is one of the most effective buffer systems in the body because the amount of dissolved CO2 is controlled by respiration (ie, it is an "open" system). Additional control of the plasma concentration of HCO3- is provided by the kidneys. Additional factors that make the carbonic-acid-bicarbonate system such a good biological buffer: The reaction CO2 + H2O ? H2CO3 proceeds slowly in either direction unless the enzyme carbonic anhydrase is present. There is no carbonic anhydrase in plasma, but there is an abundant supply in red blood cells, spatially confining and controlling the reaction. The presence of hemoglobin in the blood increases the buffering of the system by binding free H+ produced by the hydration of CO2 and allowing for movement of the HCO3- into the plasma. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 35. Gas Transpo & pH. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | Physiology | null | The most effective buffer system in the blood which is controlled by respiration is:
A. Bicarbonates
B. Hemoglobin
C. Protein
D. Phosphate
| Bicarbonates |
f90f5c63-eb4f-4d1c-a41e-6ac6f9ed9083 | Cross reactivity with endogenous antigen Acute Rheumatic fever results from immune response to group A streptococci. - The main factor responsible for virulence in infection with streptococcal A group is "M" protein. - The body mounts an immune response against streptococci A organism by producing antibodies directed against the "M" protein. Antibodies directed against the "M" protein of streptococci have been shown to cross react with self antigens in the hea. - The streptococcal M protein and the human myocardium appears to be identical antigenically. - Epitopes present in the cell wall membrane and the A,B,C repeat regions of the "M" protein are immunologically similar to molecules in human myosin. tropomysin, keratin actin, laminin, vimentin. - "This molecular mimicry is the basis for autoimmune response that leads to Acute Rheumatic fever". | Pathology | null | What is the mechanism of acute rheumatic fever
A. Cross reactivity with endogenous antigen
B. Innocent by slender effect
C. Due to toxin secretion by streptococci
D. Release of pyrogenic cytokines
| Cross reactivity with endogenous antigen |
3ee6cf84-6bde-42b2-94aa-6de4e28f5ff0 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Abducent nucleus o There is some misprinting in the question. It is abducent nucleus (not abducent nerve) which is covered by facial colliculus.o Facial colliculus is a small elevation in pons, produced by genu (recuring fibers) of facial nerve looping around (covering) abducent nucleus.o Facial colliculus produces medial eminence on each side of median sulcus in 4th ventricle | Anatomy | Cranial Nerves | Facial colliculus covers-
A. Facial nucleus
B. Abducent nucleus
C. Vestibular nucleus
D. Vagal nucleus
| Abducent nucleus |
67bfe8a2-4378-4392-a291-212aac6bbda5 | Twin peak or lambda sign it is characterized of dichorionic pregnancies and is due to the chorionic tissue between the two layers of the intewin membrane at the placental origin . twin peak appears as a triangle with base at chorionic surface and apex in intewin membrane. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | JIPMER 2018 | Twin peak sign seen in
A. Monochorionic Monoamniotic
B. Monochorionic Diamniotic
C. Dichorionic Diamniotic
D. Dichorionic Monoamniotic
| Dichorionic Diamniotic |
cc118bb4-b546-47dd-bcbb-b77e11468e29 | Akinesia + Mutism is a feature of stupor, which is seen in catatonic schizophrenia or catalepsy.
Option c : Cataplexy is sudden loss of muscle tone seen in Norcolepsy, which is not a correct answer. | Psychiatry | null | Akinesia (hypoactivity) and mutism is a feature of
A. Twillight state
B. Stupor
C. Cataplexy
D. Torpor
| Stupor |
2902211e-e3e0-4a58-997e-dd0290d80bac | Cyclic AMP was the first intracellular second messenger signal identified in mammalian cells. Different peptide hormones can either stimulate (s) or inhibit (i) the production of cAMP from adenylyl cyclase, which is encoded by at least nine different genes. Hormones that Inhibit Adenylyl Cyclase (HI) and the production of cAMP: Acetylcholine Alpha 2-Adrenergics Angiotensin II Somatostatin Hormones that stimulate Adenylyl Cyclase (HI) and the production of cAMP: ACTH ADH Beta -Adrenergics Calcitonin CRH FSH Glucagon hCG LH LPH MSH PTH TSH Ref: Weil P. (2011). Chapter 42. Hormone Action & Signal Transduction. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following enzymes inhibit the production of cAMP?
A. Glucagon
B. Angiotensin II
C. ACTH
D. Beta-Adrenergics
| Angiotensin II |
781a48cb-2842-4dc4-8da4-4d98c23f13a0 | Ans. b. Neutral endopeptidase inhibitorRef: CMDT 2018/P 414Sacubitril is a neutral endopeptidase or neprilysin inhibitor approved for treatment of chronic CHF in combination with angiotensin receptor blocker like valsartan.It can cause angioedema and hence is contraindicated with ACE inhibitors or within 36 hours of use of ACE inhibitors. | Pharmacology | C.V.S | What is the mechanism of action of sacubitril?
A. ACE inhibitor
B. Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor
C. Endothelin antagonist
D. Angiotensin receptor blocker
| Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor |
49a9b6c2-562d-4062-ae65-7a770fc8a6fe | Ans. (d) Reticulocyte count(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 645-648)This is a tricky question as the initial investigation looks like B12 /folate levels, as the patient has macrocytosis.But remember, Macrocytosis can also be seen in hemolytic anemia, as newer RBC precursors released are larger in size.So the initial investigation should be reticulocyte countIf reticulocyte % is low it can be macrocytic anemia & if there is reticulocytosis, then it can be a case of hemolytic anemia. | Pathology | Misc. (R.B.C) | A man presents with fatigue. Hemogram analysis done suggested low Hb, high MCV. The next investigation is?
A. Vit B12/folatelevels
B. Bone Marrow
C. S. Iron studies
D. Reticulocyte count
| Reticulocyte count |
e2b0394c-7982-4535-80f3-b2d24f2ce30a | Option 1, 3, 4 IgM: IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be synthesized by a neonate in about 20 weeks of age. IgM is not transpoed across the placenta; hence, the presence of IgM in the fetus or newborn indicates intrauterine infection. The first immunoglobulin produced in response to an antigen is IgM. after 3 monts of bih class switching is staed and then other class of immunoglobulins are synthesised. IgM is secreted as a pentamer and is composed of five H2L2 units (similar to one IgG unit) and one moleculeof a J chain.. It is the most efficient Because its interaction with antigen can involve all 10 binding sites, it has the highest binding capacity and cross-linking of all the immunoglobulins. Option 2 IgG is the only immunoglobulin class to cross the placenta and therefore is the most abundant immunoglobulinin newborns.( this is not the the first to be synthesised in newborn) | Microbiology | Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders) | The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is -
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM
| IgM |
22bb7f44-2046-4c62-866c-c300cb31dcd4 | Tyrosinosis is synonymous with Type-1 Tyrosinemia and is caused by a deficiency of Enzyme Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase. Tyrosine Catabolic pathway and Associated Disorders: Tyrosine aminotransferase 4-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase Homogentisate oxidase Fumarylacetoacetatehydrolase Tyrosine aminotransferase Tyrosinemia type II (Richner-Hanha sydrome) 4-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate deoxygenase Tyrosinemia type III (Complete deficiency of Enzyme) 4-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase complex Transient Tyrosinemia of the new-born (immaturity of Enzyme ) 4-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase complex Hawkinsinuria (Mutant enzyme) Catalyses a paial reaction Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase Tyrosinemia type I (Tyrosinosis) Homogentisate oxidase Alkaptonuria Disorders associated with 4-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase: Immaturity of 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (4HPPD) enzyme Transient neonatal Tyrosinemia (TNT) is a form of hypeyrosinemia produced by the complete deficiency of 4-Hydroxyphenylpyruavate dioxygenase (4HPPD) leads to Tyrosinemia III. Ref: Harper 30th edition Pgno: 304 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is associated with Tyrosinosis:
A. Tyrosine aminotransferase
B. 4-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase
C. Homogentisate oxidase
D. Fumarylacetoacetate hydroxylase
| Fumarylacetoacetate hydroxylase |
b5bc6eb4-94b0-418d-84dc-17b69618c52e | NKX3-1 expression acts as a transcription factor that has been found to play a main role in prostate development and tumor suppression. The loss of NKX3-1 expression is frequently observed in prostate. Other markers for prostate cancer are:- PSA(prostate specific antigen) AMACR Urinary PCA 3 TMPRSS2 | Pathology | Ovaries & prostate gland | NKX3-1 immunohistochemical used for diagnosis of?
A. Colorectal carcinoma
B. Pancreatic carcinoma
C. Prostate
D. Renal cell carcinoma
| Prostate |
bae61c53-47e4-4981-8a73-a0b2a28134d8 | square root sign is a charecteristic feature of Constrictive pericarditis Dip & plateau pattern' or 'square root sign': Early diastolic filling of the ventricles is unimpeded and abnormally rapid, but late diastolic filling is abbreted and halts abruptly when total cardiac volume expands to the volume limit set by the stiff pericardium Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1436 | Medicine | C.V.S | 'Square root' sign is characteristic of
A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopahty
C. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Contractile dysfuncation seen in which type of cardiomyopathy?
| Constrictive pericarditis |
c7c7071e-6d15-407c-a4e5-d6257bababea | Granulomatous inflammation is a characteristic feature of Type IV hypersensitivity reaction against tubercle bacilli. When ceain non degradable antigen such as tubercle antigen is present, the initial perivascular mononuclear cell monocyte infiltrate is replaced by macrophages over a period of 2-3 weeks. The accumulated macrophage then undergo morphological transformation into epithelial like cells and are then referred to as epithelioid cells. A microscopic aggregation of epithelioid cells, usually surrounded by a collar of lymphocytes, is referred to as granuloma. And this pattern of inflammation is called granulomatous inflammation.Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Pages 204-6 | Pathology | null | The epithelioid cell and multinucleated giant cells of Granulomatous inflammation are derived from which of the following cells?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. CD4-T lymphocytes
D. Monocytes - Macrophages
| Monocytes - Macrophages |
9ff808a7-4e6b-490c-85a0-fd8603fad951 | Halothane inhibit intestinal and uterine contractions. This propey is used for facilitating external or internal version during late pregnancy. However it&;s use during labour can prolong delivery bad increase postpaal blood loss. Muscle relaxation is minimal with nitrous oxide. Rest of the drugs donot have uterine contractions as a propey. From KD Tripati 7th edition Page no 378,379 | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Best uterine relaxation is seen with:
A. Chloroform
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Ether
D. Halothane
| Halothane |
c38d8526-fd7c-44a9-9773-937d88486686 | This HIV positive patient is showing clinical features and X-ray findings suggestive of pneumocystis carnii pneumonia. PCP infection occur in HIV positive individuals with CD4 count less than 200. It is an oppounistic fungal pulmonary pathogen that is an impoant cause of pneumonia in the immunocompromised host. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 207 | Medicine | null | A 30-year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Cryptococcosis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Pneunocystis carinii pneumonia
| Pneunocystis carinii pneumonia |
6df104e7-eb8d-49cb-9854-6bd6bcc53757 | Gall stones are the most common cause of obstruction in cholangitis.
Other causes are
benign & malignant strictures
parasites
instrumentation of the ducts and indwelling stents
partially obstructed biliary enteric anastomosis
Most common organisms cultured from bile in patients with cholongitis include
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Streptococcus faecalis
Enterobacter
Bacteroides fragilis | Surgery | null | Most common cause of cholangitis -
A. Viral infection
B. CBD stone
C. Surgery
D. Amoebic infection
| CBD stone |
18f8a6f3-e19e-4bc4-b07a-7afbae2eecfd | B i.e. Donated human cadaver eyes Donor corneas are harvested from cadaveric donors within 6 hours after death Q (upto 12 hours after death in cold countries.) Corneal Transplantation (Grafting) /Keratoplasty General Indications To provide a clear visual axis and restore good vision (Optical Keratoplasty) To restore the integrity of the globe in corneal diseases (Tectonic Graft) To remove infective tissue unresponsive to conservative treatment (Therapeutic Graft) To improve the appearance of the eye (Cosmetic Graft) Contraindications Death of unknown cause CNS disease such as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, rubella, Reye's syndrome, rabies & infectious encephalitis. Infections such as HIV, Hepatitis, septicemia, syphilis, & endocarditis. Eye disease as retinoblastoma, malignant tumor of anterior segment & active ocular inflammation (uveitis, scleritis, retinitis & choroiditis) Prior ocular surgery (although pseudophakic eyes may be used with good cell density) Congenital or acquired anterior segment abnormalities such as Keratoconus & Fuch's endothelial dystrophy. * Corneas from infants (53 year) are used only very occasionally, even for pediatiric transplants as they are a/w surgical, refractive and rejection problems Graft-Harvesting Donor corneas are harvested from cadaveric donors within 6 hours after death Q (upto 12 hours after death in cold countries.) Graft-Preservation Sho term (upto 96 hours) - Moist chamber (at +40C) method for 24 hours. - M-K (Mc Carey-Kaufman) medium upto 96 hours. Intermediate-term (upto 2 weeks) - K-SOL / DEXOL / OPTISOL-medium Long term (months - years) - Viable: Organ culture & cryopreservation - Nonble: Glycerine Types Full Thickness or Penetrating keratoplasty Paial Thickness or Lamellar Keratoplasty - Superficial LK (replacement of corneal epithelium & superficial stroma) Deep anterior LK (DALK). all opaque tissue almost upto the level of Descemet membrane is removed Descemet stripping endothelial Keratoplasty (DSEK)/DS automated EK (DSAEK; when a microkeratome is used to perform donor lamellar dissection)/ Posterior LK (PLK) Small Patch grafts which can again be full or paial thickness Full Thickness/ Penetrating Keratoplasty (PKP) It is full thickness replacement of diseased corneal tissue with a healthy donor. It can be done in disease involving all or few layers of cornea eg keratoconus, pseudophakic bullous keratopathy, Fuchs endothelial & other dystrophies. An ideal graft size is 7.5 mm; grafts smaller than this may 1/t high astigmatism. Grafts 8.5 mm are prone to postoperative anterior synechiae formation, vascularization and increased intraocular pressure. - PKP has long been the gold standard for treatment of endothelial dysfunction. The limitations of PK include However, because of recent advances & lack of these limitations, endothelial keratoplasty is rapidly gaining popularity. It takes 6 months to many years for the refraction to stabilize 10-15% of patients typically require a hard contact lens for best vision and final mean refractive cylinder of 45D is common PKP incision cuts all corneal nerves, so the inclination to blink and produce tears is reduced postoperatively. This, together with prolonged presence of corneal sutures, increases the risk that ocular surface complications will interfere with recovery. PKP wound never heals back to the full strength of a virgin cornea, so a PKP eye is forever at increased risk of loss from a traumatic injury. Paial Thickness /Lamellar Keratoplasty (LKP) - It is a procedure in which a paial thickess graft of donor tissue is used to provide tectonic stability and /or optical improvement. - It may be of 2 types: anterior LKP and posterior LKP. - In anterior LKP, the transplanted tissue does not include corneal endothelium. This procedure avoids endothelial rejection and thus donor tissue may be obtained from older eyes. Indications for anterior LKP mainly include anterior corneal pathology in which the posterior cornea is unaffected - In deep LKP and posterior LKP, the diseased corneal endothelium is replaced while keeping the anterior corneal surface intact. - Because the donor endothelium is not used, the criteria for anterior LKP are less stringent than those used in PKP; the tissue does not need to be as fresh as that used in PKP. Corneal stroma may be used upto 7 days postmoem (whereas, Posterior LKP has same criteria as PKP) . Endothelial Keratoplasty (EK) i.e. posterior lamellar keratoplasty/ Descemet's Stripping endothelial Keratoplasty involves selective removal of dysfunctional recipient corneal endothelium and replacement with donor tissue consisting of posterior stroma and healthy endothelium. EK is performed through a small incision and spares the majority of host cornea so corneal strength and surface topography are minimally altered & technique is essentially refractive neutral. Fuhermore, corneal innervaton is retained and corneal sutures are not required. So corneal surface complications are minimal. The small incison allows rapid healing and rapid visual recovery after surgery. While fewer patients may achieve 20/20 vision after EK compared with PKP, overall the visual results are more predectible. - DSEK increases corneal thickness because posterior donor stroma is implanted without removal of any recipient stoma. In general, younger patients are likely to achieve better visual acuity after DSEK than older patients (even when have no retinal problems). Whereas PKP was often post phoned until after retirement or at least until visual problems were quite disturbing, EK is now being performed earlier, when visual problems begin to interfere with daily activities, such as reading or driving Infact, it is preferable to perform EK before long standing corneal edema 1/ anterior stromal scarring, because the anterior stroma is not replaced in EK. | Ophthalmology | null | In human corneal transplantation, the donor tissue is
A. Synthetic polymer
B. Donated human cadaver eyes
C. Donated eyes from live human beings
D. Monkey eyes
| Donated human cadaver eyes |
d4f62b1b-9379-413a-b7bf-dbe46e753c66 | A normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by the loss of bicarbonate with a reciprocal increase in chloride concentration. It is also known as hyperchloremic acidosis. It most commonly results from abnormal gastrointestinal or renal losses of HCO3-. Diarrhea is the most common cause of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. Cholera is associated with massive diarrhea. This diarrheal fluid consist of small bowel, biliary, and pancreatic fluids which contains 20-50 mEq/L of HCO 3 -. This loss of large volumes of fluids lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 47 ; Current Diagnosis & Treatment Emergency Medicine, 7th Edition, Chapter 44 | Medicine | null | Which of the following condition is associated with normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?
A. Cholera
B. Starvation
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Ethylene glycol poisoning
| Cholera |
2e57482b-1b66-4415-8ba1-9f38fac0c2f9 | .A plasma glucose level of less than 30 mg/dL (1.65 mmol/L) in the first 24 hours of life and less than 45mg/dL (2.5 mmol/L) thereafter constitutes hypoglycemia in the newborn. Dextrose also has medical purposes, Because dextrose is a "simple" sugar, the body can quickly use it for energy. Simple sugars can raise blood sugar levels very quickly, and they often lack nutritional value. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | A large for gestational age baby delivered at 40 weeks was observed to be lethargic. The Blood sugar was measured to be 35mg/dl. The management is __________
A. Foified Breast Milk
B. 10% IV Dextrose
C. Oral Glucose Solution
D. Normal saline
| 10% IV Dextrose |
2b544534-f1f6-442b-82c4-0ec08799ba67 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 90% Advantage of herd immunity o It is not necessary to achieve 100% immunization to control a disease by providing herd immunity. o When a ceain percentage of population, is vaccinated, the spread of disease is effectively stopped. o This critical percentage is referred to as herd immunity threshold. Disease Herd immunity threshod Diphtheria 85% Measles 83-94% Mumps 75-86% Peussis 92-94% Polio 80-86% Rubella 80-85% Small pox 83-85% Limitation of Herd immunity o Only a small fraction of the population (or herd) can be left un-vaccinated for this method to be effective. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Threshold level of herd immunity for Peussis is
A. 80%
B. 70%
C. 90%
D. 50%
| 90% |
a6d2756f-3a3f-411e-9439-6cb0ff5b6189 | Sibutramine is a centrally acting anorectic drug which was used as anti obesity drug. The target site of action is ventromedial and lateral hypothalamic regions in the CNS. It functions as a serotonin and nor epinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It was withdrawn from US market in October 2010, due to an increased risk of non fatal myocardial infarction and non fatal stroke among individuals with pre existing cardiovascular disease. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edn, Chapter 78 | Pharmacology | null | Sibutramine belongs to which group of drugs according to it's indication of use?
A. Antipsychotic
B. Antihypeensive
C. Anti-Obesity
D. Anti-Diabetic
| Anti-Obesity |
1f78b4ab-d93b-4f29-8a4e-d7d9cac19f76 | C i.e., Kraepelin Benedict Morel used term demence precoce (in french) for deteriorated patients whose illness began in adolescence. Emil Kraeplin translated it into dementia. PrecoxQ i.e. dementia = deteriorated cognitive process & precox = early onset Eugen Bleuler coined term schizophreniaQ Kahlbaum described catatoniaQ, Hacker decribed hebephrenia | Psychiatry | null | The term "Dementia precox" was coined by
A. Freud
B. Bleuler
C. Kraepelin
D. Schneider
| Kraepelin |
6950df0d-d379-48a9-896a-e8c02f6fb9b2 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., DiabetesNeuropathic joint (Charcot's joint)o It is a progressive destructive arthritis associated with loss of pain sensationx, proprioception or both, in addition normal muscular reflexes that modulate joint movements are decreased.o Without these protective mechanisms, joints are subjected to repeated trauma, resulting in progressive cartilage and bone damage.o It is most commonly caused by diabetes mellitus.Causes of Neuropathic joint disease (Charcoat's joint)o Diabetes mellitus {most common) o Amyloidosiso Tabes Dorsalis o Leprosyo Meningomyelocele o Congenital indifference to paino Syringomyelia o Peroneal muscular atrophy | Orthopaedics | Neuropathic Joints | Most common cause of neuropathic joint -
A. Leprosy
B. Tabes dorsalis
C. Diabetes
D. Nerve injury
| Diabetes |
3aa8424d-28de-4787-b363-ce845a59ccc1 | .ACUTE PARONYCHIA * It is the most common hand infection. * It occurs in subcuticular area under the eponychium. * Minor injury to finger is the common cause. * Suppuration occurs very rapidly. * It tracks around the skin margin and spreads under the nail causing hang nail or floating nail. * Organisms are Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes Treatment --* Pus is sent for culture and sensitivity. * Antibiotics like cloxacillin, amoxycillin. * Analgesics. * The pus is drained by making an incision over the eponychium. * If there is a floating nail, then the nail is dead and it has to be removed. Recovery is fast. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 132 . | Surgery | Urology | Most appropriate treatment for acute paranychia
A. Paial nail removal
B. Nail removal
C. Lifting of eponychium
D. Incision and drainage
| Paial nail removal |
a80bf51b-6b81-413a-af79-3c17f89836ce | Kindly don't get confused with the fact that the symptoms are following husband's death. Even negative life events can precipitate manic episode. This patient has increased religiosity, overspending, increased activity levels, decreased sleep, new interests and goals and lack of insight. All these symptoms are suggestive of mania. | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | A 67 year old lady is brought in by her 6 children saying that she has gone senile. Six months after her husband's death she has become more religious, spiritual and gives lots of money in donation. She is occupied in too many activities and sleeps less. She now believes that she has a goal to change the society. She does not like being brought to the hospital and is argumentative on being questioned on her doings. The diagnosis is:-
A. Depression
B. Schizophrenia
C. Mania
D. Impulse control disorder
| Mania |
0d0ccf67-f33d-4662-9b5d-54b27f6c0d64 | parks textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition * in remand homes ,the child is placed under the care of doctors,psychiatrists and other trained personnel.every effos is made to improve mental and physical well beiing of the child .elementary schooling is given,various as and crafts are taught,gaames are played and other recreational activites are arranged. *boys over16years who are too difficult to be handled in a ceified school or have misbehavedvthere are sent to brostal. | Social & Preventive Medicine | obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics | A 14 year old boy having lost his father a year ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent to -
A. An orphanage
B. An anganwari
C. A prison
D. A remand home
| A remand home |
d901fd9b-3b46-43d2-b24f-1895a593b8ef | A major function of parathyroid hormone is to act as a trophic hormone to regulate the rate of formation of 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D. The mechanism by which parathyroid hormone exerts this effect may be secondary to its effects on phosphorus metabolism. Other hormones, including prolactin and estrogen, also may playa role in stimulating the production of 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D. | Unknown | null | The most important regulator of serum 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D concentration is:
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum magnesium
C. Serum 25 (OH) vitamin D
D. Parathyroid hormone
| Parathyroid hormone |
92d02631-6740-429f-bd53-f3b6e64175c3 | tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyper phosphate moa, and hypocalcemia .caused by destruction of large number of rapidly proliferating neoplastic cells.acidosis may develop.acute renal failure occur frequently. Hyperuricemia may be present at time of chemotherapy. The finding of uric acid crystals in urine is strong evidence for uric acid nephropathy. Hyperphospatemia caused by release of intracellular phosphate pools by tumor lysis , produce reciprocal depression in serum calcium (Harrison 17 pg 1736) | Medicine | Endocrinology | Hypercalcemia is NOT seen in -
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Tumour lysis syndrome
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Sarcoidosis
| Tumour lysis syndrome |
181fb4f3-d5ab-42e5-949f-c2149d0fd2ce | The gingival bevel removes the unsupported enamel and compensates for casting shrinkage. It is a feature of resistance form. Reverse bevel is given in inlay for lap sliding fit. It locks the restoration and prevents proximal displacement. | Dental | null | The most common aspect in gold inlay and amalgam cavity design is
A. Axiopulpal bevel
B. Gingival bevel
C. Occlusal bevel
D. Axiofacial bevel
| Gingival bevel |
d0d522c0-33cc-4828-844b-6770e1b2f537 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Niacin o This question is confusing one (Read text below)o Niacin (Vitamin B3) is synthesized from tryptophan inside the bodo Some vitamins are also formed by bacterial activity in coloni) Vitamin Kii) Vitamin B12Thiamin (Vitamin Bl)iv) Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)v) Biotin (Vitamin B7)o Thus, options a, b & d all are correct here. But best answer among these is niacin as it is the only vitamin which is synthesized by proper anabolic metabolism. | Biochemistry | Vitamins | Which water soluble vitamin is synthesized in our body -
A. Niacin
B. Folic acid
C. Cobalamine
D. Pyridoxine
| Niacin |
969647be-6e6a-470d-b51e-a99f8a747492 | Ceruloderma- Due to defect in migration of melanocyte. Melanocyte derived from neural crest and migrate to stratum basale (epidermis) Defect in migration of melanocytes due to which they remain in dermis Eg. Of Ceruloderma - 1. Mongolian spot 2. Nevus of OTA3. Nevus of ITO Clinical features - Dermis- Blue lesion - Don't become dark under wood's lamp . Blue d/t - Tyndall effect/optical effect i.e. paial scattering of light Most of light reflected back is blue in colour. | Dental | Hyper Pigmented Disorders | Ceruloderma is characterised by-
A. Excess melanin in dermis , pigmentation not accentuated under Wood's lamp
B. Excess melanin in basal and suprabasal layers, pigmentation accentuated under Wood's lamp
C. Increased epidermal and dermal melanin
D. Excess melanin in basal and suprabasal layers, pigmentation not accentuated under Wood's lamp
| Excess melanin in dermis , pigmentation not accentuated under Wood's lamp |
cfdeea99-ec03-4ede-98c1-41971cdbfc4a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 20 - 30% Henoch-schonlein_purpura (HSP) Small vessel vasculitis Purpuric rash Ahritis Abdominal pain Glomerulonephritis Gross hematuria is seen in 20-30% of cases | Pediatrics | null | In HSP gross hematurea is seen in what % of children?
A. 5 - 10%
B. 10 - 20%
C. 20 - 30%
D. 30 - 40%
| 20 - 30% |
167501c1-7b49-4744-a5b6-7358acae4efe | Ans. is `c' i.e., Iron"The level of iron in plasma is sensed by specific iron regulatory proteins which control the rate offerritin synthesis and to maintain homeostasis" - Human physiologyHepicidin regulates absorption of iron. But, it is also according to the serum iron level. If serum iron is deficiem, hepacidin level falls and there is increased iron absorption. | Physiology | null | Ferritin biosynthesis is regulated by serum level of ?
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Hepcidin
C. Iron
D. Transferrin
| Iron |
30fd59d4-aeb3-428c-b70c-af7a79ab49bd | Normal Distribution:
Is also known as ‘Gaussian distribution’ or ‘Standard distribution’
Type of distribution: Is the distribution of values of a quantitative variable such that they are symmetric with respect to a middle value with same mean, median and mode, and then the frequencies taper off rapidly and symmetrically on both sides – ‘bell shaped distribution’. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The standard normal distribution
A. Is skewed to the left
B. Has variance = 1.0
C. Has standard deviation = 0.0
D. Has mean = 1.0
| Has variance = 1.0 |
96770f3d-307b-4ae3-a93e-1e1e02e3fa5c | In Spanish Windlass, an iron collar is tightened by a screw for strangulation. It is an example of garrotting where the victim&;s throat may be grasped or a ligature is thrown over the neck & quickly tightened by twisting it with a lever, which result in sudden loss of consciousness & collapse Reff: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology 28th edition pg : 187 | Forensic Medicine | Asphyxia | Spanish windlass is practiced in Spain as a method of execution, it is a type of
A. Bansdola
B. Mugging
C. Garrotting
D. Hanging
| Garrotting |
924a49ba-0a3c-4fab-8ea3-69ab9b017cd3 | Ans: A (Popliteal) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition & Harrison online Chapter 249.Explanation:"Popliteal artery aneurysms are the most common peripheral artery aneurysms".Popliteal Artery AneurysmPopliteal artery aneurysms are the most common peripheral artery aneurysms.Approximately 50% are bilateral.Associated with aneurysms of other arteries, especially the aorta.The most common clinical presentation is limb ischemia secondary to thrombosis or embolism.Rupture occurs less frequently.Other complications include compression of the adjacent popliteal vein or peroneal nerve.Popliteal artery aneurysm can be detected by palpation and confirmed by duplex ultrasonography.Repair is indicated for symptomatic aneurysms or when the diameter exceeds 2-3 cm. owing to the risk of thrombosis, embolism or rupture | Pathology | Aneurysms and Dissections | Most common site for peripheral aneurysm is:
A. Popliteal
B. Profunda femoral
C. Femoral
D. External iliac
| Popliteal |
af750bd3-a41a-4a04-a9f2-d2d3af291207 | Ans. (a) Leydig cellsRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. /1341Rectangular, crystal-like inclusions, composed of protein, with pointed or rounded ends in the interstitial cells of the testis (Leydig cells) and hilus cells in the ovary. Inside the Leydig cells of human males can be found Reinkes crystals. The purpose of these crystals is uncertain, some believe that they are a by-product of a degenerative process related to aging. They appear to have no contribution to androgen or testosterone production, and they can be used to identify Leydig cells easily when viewing testicular tissue under a microscope | Surgery | Anatomy & Physiology (Testis & Scrotum) | Reinke's crystals are seen in?
A. Leydig cells
B. Sertoli cells
C. Curschmann spirals
D. Creola bodies
| Leydig cells |
65165057-c63c-4cae-a044-f91618bb41cc | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Atheromatous plaqueDystrophic calcification o When pathological calcification takes place in dead, dying or degenerated tissue, it is called dystrophic calcification. o Calcium metabolism is not altered and serum calcium level is normal.Dystrophic calcification in dead tissues1.In caseous necrosis of tuberculosis(most common which may be in lymph nodes)2.Chronic abscess in liquifactive necrosis3.Fungal granuloma4.Infarct5.Thrombi6.Haematomas7.Dead parasites-Cystecercosis/Toxoplasma Hydatid/Schistosoma8.In fat necrosis of breast & other tissuesDystrophic calcification in degenerated tissuesAtheromatous plagueMonkeberg's sclerosisPsommama bodiesDens old scarsSenile degenrated changes such as in costal cailage, tracheal, bronchial rings, Pineal gland in brain.Hea valves damaged by rheumatic fever.How does calcification occurs in these site with normal serum calcium ?o Calcification of dead and dying cells and tissues is a common finding in human pathologic conditions. o Denatured proteins in dead or irreversible damaged tissues preferentially bind phosphate ions. o Phosphate ions react with calcium ions to form a precipitate or calcium phosphate.o Thus, necrotic tissue serves as a calcium sink. | Pathology | null | Dystrophic calcification is seen in ?
A. Milk alkali syndrome
B. Atheromatous plaque
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Vitamin A intoxication
| Atheromatous plaque |
689b829a-e507-45fe-8784-db90ba50a3ae | Dressler syndrome is an autoimmune phenomenon that result in fibrinous pericarditis. Fibrinous pericarditis is both an early and late complication of MI. The delayed pericarditis typically develops 2-10 weeks post MI and present clinically as chest pain and pericardial friction rub. It is generally treated with aspirin or coicosteroid. Cardiac arrythmia is a common cause of post MI death, typically occurring the first few days following the event. It is not associated with friction rub. Ventricular rupture is a serious cause of post MI death typically occurs 3-7 days after initial event. It can present with persistent chest pain, syncope and distended jugular veins. | Pathology | Myocardial Infarction | A 55-year-old woman present due to recent onset of chest pain and dyspnea. Six weeks prior, patient suffered MI. On physical examination, friction rub over 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line along with elevated JVP. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?
A. Cardiac rupture syndrome
B. Thromboembolism
C. Dressler syndrome
D. Ventricular aneurysm
| Dressler syndrome |
0fb6fa10-5407-4363-9888-d317425e9da8 | Oxygen is stored at a pressure of 1900psi | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | What is the pressure at which oxygen is stored ?
A. 75 psi
B. 1600 psi
C. 760 psi
D. 2200 psi
| 2200 psi |
1f45779a-010a-4ecb-a284-532a3aab3ae9 | Facial nerve enters the temporal bone through - Internal acoustic meatus Facial nerve exits the skull through - Stylomastoid foramen. Ref: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 99 | ENT | Oral cavity & Oesophagus | Facial nerve exits the skull through
A. Stylomastoid foramen
B. Internal acoustic meatus
C. Foramen Lacerum
D. Foramen Rotundum
| Stylomastoid foramen |
58049b95-9b55-437d-b0d7-6a0c39eca507 | Epiphyseal dysgenesis is radiological finding of hypothyroidism which is characterized by centers of ossification, especially of the hip, may show multiple small centers or a single stippled, porous, or fragmented center. Other radiological findings of hypothyroidism: Delayed bone age Cardiomegaly Thyrotrophic hyperplasia characterized by an enlarged sella or pituitary gland Ref: Zeitler P.S., Travers S.H., Nadeau K., Barker J.M., Kelsey M.M., Kappy M.S. (2012). Chapter 34. Endocrine Disorders. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | Pediatrics | null | A child presenting with clinical features of an endocrine abnormality showed epiphyseal dysgenesis in imaging studies. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a pathognomonic feature of:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hypehyroidism
| Hypothyroidism |
d1e3de35-3e36-4bc5-b0a5-8f750dacadf6 | The answer is A: Advanced age. Substances that cannot be metabolized accumulate in cells. Examples include:- (1) endogenous substrates that are not processed because a key enzyme is missing (lysosomal storage diseases) (2) insoluble endogenous pigments (lipofuscin and melanin) (3) exogenous paiculates (silica and carbon) Lipofuscin is a "wear and tear" pigment of aging that accumulates in organs such as the brain, hea, and liver. None of the other choices are associated with lipofuscin accumulation.Diagnosis: Aging, lipofuscin | Pathology | Pigmentation | A 90-year-old woman with mild diabetes and Alzheimer's disease die in her sleep. At autopsy, hepatocytes are noted to contain golden cytoplasmic granules that do not stain with Prussian blue. Which of the following best accounts for pigment accumulation in the liver of this patient?
A. Advanced age
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Congestive hea failure
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
| Advanced age |
f0013e89-e17a-4684-a19b-c6fab23d5b3d | Ans. (a) Urine microscopy and cytologyRef: Smith 17th Edition, Pages 308-315Diagnosis of Urinary bladder carcinoma:* Cystoscopy and transurethral resection is the IOC for obvious lesions.* Urinary cytology is the IOC for carcinoma in situ.* Cytological examination of exfoliated cells from tumor is useful in detecting cancer in symptomatic patients and assessing the response to treatment.* Cytological examination is also most useful to detect early recurrence* CT and MRI are used in stagingExfoliative markers:* NMP22 (Nuclear matrix protein 22)* Hyaluronidase* Lewis X ag* Telomerase activity | Surgery | Urethra & Penis | A 55 years old smoking presents with history of five episodes of macroscopic hematuria each lasting for about 4-5 days in the past five years. Which of the following investigations should be performed to evaluate the suspected diagnosis?
A. Urine microscopy and cytology
B. X-ray KUB
C. Ultrasound KUB
D. DTPA scan
| Urine microscopy and cytology |
75f686b2-0de1-4692-b43e-e4369a67efec | *Congenital toxoplasmosis is caused by toxoplasma gondi .The transmissibility increases but the risk of feral disease decreases with advancing pregnancy * The classical triad of toxoplasmosis includes intracranial calcification, hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis. Diagnosis is confirmed by demonstrating IgM in serum of the baby Image : Severe, active retinochoroiditis. Reference : Ghai essential pediatrics, 9 th edition, pgno :264 | Pediatrics | Infectious disease | The most common manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis
A. Deafness
B. Chorioretinitis
C. Hepatosplenomegaly
D. Thrombocytopenia
| Chorioretinitis |
f1b5bbf5-1072-421e-87da-846c05e52a85 | FNAC "Percutaneous fine-needle aspiration of chromallin tumors is contraindicated; indeed, pheochronwcytoma should be considered before adrenal lesions are aspirated." -Harrison "Catastrophic hypeensive crisis and fatal cardiac arrhythmias can occur spontaneously or may be triggered by intravenous contrast dye or glucagon injection, needle biopsy of the mass, anesthesia, and surgical procedures." - | Pathology | null | The diagnostic procedure not done in case of ph eochromoc ytoma.
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. FNAC
D. MIBG scan
| FNAC |
5ff554e7-d44b-4733-a082-a11222f0b3c8 | Ans. b (Suicide) (Ref. FMT by N. Reddy 5th/pg.93)TENTATIVE (preliminary cuts) CUTS# Hesitation cuts derive their name from the hesitation with which these incisions are made by a person intending to commit suicide by a cutting instrument.# He or she usually makes preliminary cuts before gathering sufficient courage to make final deep incision.# These are generally small, multiple, superficial, and usually skin deep.# They are seen with commencement of the incised wound and merge with the main incision. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries by Sharp Force | 'Tentative cuts' are seen with
A. Homicide
B. Suicide
C. Culpicide
D. Fabricated wounds
| Suicide |
e82ac2dc-bfb4-413f-94c4-9e3f193d73c0 | Ref Harrison 16/e p1491 ,9/e p123 Protein C and protein S are two vitamin K-dependent proteins that act in a complex to proteolytically inacti- vate cofactors Va and VIIIa. Protein C activation by thrombomodulin was described earlier; protein S is a cofactor for protein C activity Resistance to activated protein C due to the factor V R506Q (Leiden) mutation is the most common clotting abnormality in patients with venous thromboembolism | Anatomy | General anatomy | Coagulation defect associated with increased coagulation are seen in
A. Increased protein C
B. Increased protein S
C. Increased anti thrombin 3
D. Protein C resistance
| Protein C resistance |
e0227b97-3cbd-4d9e-98ea-f8bd7ad5a958 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4+ Bacteriological Index For Leprosy It is a rough index expressing probable number of acid fast bacilli for standardized microscopic field in skin smear. It is indicative of the load of bacteria at the site from which smear is taken. It does not differentiate between live and dead bacilli. It is not an indication of total bacillary load in the body. Ridleys scale is followed to calculate the bacterial index. = no bacilli in 100 fields 1+ = 1 - 10 bacilli in 100 fields 2+ = 1 - 10 bacilli in 10 fields 3+ = 1 - 10 bacilli in 1 fields 4+ = 10 - 100 bacilli in 1 field 5+ = 100 - 1000 bacilli in 1 field 6+ = >1000 bacilli in 1 field. Our patient has 10 - 100 bacilli in 1 field thus the bacteriological index is - 4+ | Skin | null | Patient with leprosy, smear sample taken show 10 - 100 bacilli in one field. Bacterial index is ?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+
| 4+ |
10dbd538-989e-48e8-973a-6e5793123479 | Pemphigus vulgaris is the most common form of pemphigus and occurs when antibodies attack Desmoglein 3. Usually begins with painful blisters in your mouth and then on the skin or genital mucous membranes. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1334 | Dental | Vestibulobullous disorders | The commonest type of Pemphigus is
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Pemphigus foliaceous
C. Pemphigus erythematous
D. Pemphigus vegetans
| Pemphigus vulgaris |
9c350cb2-2a64-48a1-830c-e0109493d9f3 | Under-running/ tail gating Tail-gating occasionally occurs with cars driving into the back of large trucks. In such case, the windscreen and front of the passenger compament are smashed with severe injuries to the head and in some cases decapitation of the occupants of the front seat. Also seen where the motorcyclist drives under the rear of the truck, causing head injuries and even decapitation. | Forensic Medicine | Regional injuries | Under-running may involve:
A. Crush injury abdomen
B. Run over injury
C. Decapitation
D. Chest injury
| Decapitation |
096ce485-a8f2-4357-9244-4f5a8d41797f | A typical lesion of Acute Cutaneous Leishmaniasis is papule at the site of the sand fly bite which enlarges and breaks down in the centre. The ulcer usually has a rolled border. When the lesion heals in a year's time it leaves a distinctive depressed hyper pigmented scar. The typical sites are cheeks and arms (exposed areas). Localised Cutaneous Leishmaniasis (LCL) is seen in India in the forests of Rajastan, caused mostly by Leishmania tropica. Himachal Pradesh is repoed as a recent focus. Ref: Thieme Clinical Companions Dermatology By Wolfram Sterry, Ralf Paus, Walter H. C. Burgdo; Leishmania: After the Genome By Peter J. Myler, Nicolas Fasel, Pages 2-3. | Skin | null | A young tourist presents with a skin lesion after being to Rajastan. He presents with an erythematous lesion on the cheek with central crusting. What is the likely dermatological condition?
A. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
C. Lupus vulgaris
D. Chilblains
| Cutaneous Leishmaniasis |
e72c5519-e944-45ce-8787-08de7bd530af | Pituitary tumors 1.Eosinophil (Acidophil) adenomas: Tumour is usually small. Rarely it causes compressive features. It secretes excess growth hormone causing acromegaly in adults and gigantism in children. 2. Chromophobe adenomas are common in females and in the age group--20-50 years. Initially, it is intrasellar and after sometime becomes suprasellar. Later, it extends intracranially often massively, causing features of intracranial space occupying lesion. It presents with myxoedema, amenorrhoea, infeility, headache, visual disturbances, bitemporal hemianopia, blindness, intracranial hypeension, epilepsy. Differential diagnosis: Meningiomas, aneurysms. CT scan, angiogram, X-ray skull are diagnostic. Treatment is surgical decompression by craniotomy through subfrontal approach or trans-sphenoidal approach. Deep external radiotherapy and steroids are also used. 3. Basophil adenomas are usually small. They secrete ACTH and presents as Cushing's disease with all its features. 4. Prolactin-secreting adenomas causes infeility, amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th Pgno : 1105 | Surgery | Trauma | In prolactinoma most common symptom other than galactorrea is?
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Amennorhea
C. Thyroid dysfuntion
D. Headache
| Amennorhea |
9e55d3c7-3554-4e70-9601-f53aee558d22 | Ans. (b) Surface ectodermSurface EctodermNeural EctodermMesodermNeural Crest* Conjunctival Epithelium* Corneal Epithelium* Lacrimal gland* Tarsal gland* Lens* Smooth muscle of Iris* Iris Epithelium* Ciliary Epithelium* Retina & its pigment epithelium* Optic nerve fibre* Part of vitrous* EOM* Sclera* Iris* Vascular endothelium* Choroid* Part of vitrous* Corneal stroma* Ciliary ganglion* Schwann cell* Uveal and conj melanocytes* Meningeal sheath of ON* Part of vitrous | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous (Lens) | Lens develops from.
A. Neuroectoderm
B. Surface ectoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Neural crest
| Surface ectoderm |
9275fad7-2ffd-4508-b94f-c25531ffffb6 | Ans. A: McMurray's Test McMurray's test is performed for meniscus injury For medial meniscus: Patient lying flat (non-weight bearing), the knee is completely flexed. The foot is rotated externally and the leg abducted. The joint is now slowly extended keeping the leg externally rotated and abducted. As the torn cailage gets caught during this manoeuvre, the patient will experience pain or a click may be heard and felt. | Surgery | null | Manoeuvre carried out for diagnosing medial meniscus injury is: March 2010, March 2013 (c, d)
A. McMurray's test
B. Lachmann's test
C. Valgus stress test
D. Varus stress test
| McMurray's test |
3cdcb8a3-7240-430c-96f7-3838086bcb59 | Hunter's syndrome belongs to Type II mucopolysaccharidoses in which mucopolysaccharides accumulate in the lysosomes causing disorganization of the cell structure & function.This syndrome is characterised by mild mental retardation;marked skeletal changes like thickening of the skull,marked deformity of sella tursica,broad spatula like ribs,beak shaped veebrae(around L1 veebra) and proximal tapering of metacarpals-these abnormalities are referred to as dysostosis multiplex;coarse facies & hepatosplenomegaly. Reference:Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no: 660,661. | Pediatrics | Metabolic disorders | Only male are affected in
A. Scheie's syndrome
B. Hunter's syndrome
C. Hurler's syndrome
D. Gaucher's disease
| Hunter's syndrome |
7e7393c1-0e7f-4473-916b-800944abe7ad | Aadoptive immunity: a special type of immunisation is the injection of immunologically competent lymphocytes. - instead of whole lymphocytes, an extract of immunologically competent lymphocytes, known as the transfer factor can be used. Reference: Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:84 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | Adoptive immunity is by?
A. Infection
B. Injection of antibodies
C. Injection of lymphocytes
D. Immunization
| Injection of lymphocytes |
f6b8f3c0-c8da-4a7c-a43c-8d6d5624892c | History of sudden onset, normal morning erections and normal erection during masturbation is suggestive of Psychogenic Erectile dysfunction. The cause is usually performance anxiety. To differentiate between psychogenic and organic erectile dysfunction best test is ask for nocturnal / early morning erections as patient is relaxed in these conditions. So in the above case it rules out all organic causes. | Psychiatry | Sexual Disorders | A 41 y/o male presents with complaints of inability to achieve proper erections during sexual intercourse. He repos that there were no abnormalities till last month, when on one occasion he tried having sex with wife while he was drunk. He was not able to achieve a proper erection at that time and since than, on four other occasions , he was not able to have an erection during attempted sex. He repos that his morning erections are fine and erection during masturbation was also normal. He is a diabetic, and the blood repos show, FBS-103 mg/dl, HbA1C- 6.6. His BP was 138/88 mm Hg What is the likely cause of erection disturbances?
A. Anxiety
B. Diabetes
C. Alcohol
D. Hypeension
| Anxiety |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.