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b0e1c035-1968-4efe-a73c-934009e1e4fa | . An immature I$? cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive) | Pathology | null | A 17 year old boy presented with total count of 138 x 109 /L with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. Chest X-ray demonstrated a large mediastinal mass. Immunophenotyping of this patient's blasts would most likely demonstrate:
A. No surface antigens (null phenotype)
B. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive)
C. Myeloid markers, such as CD13, CD33 and CD15
D. B cell markers, such as CD19, CD20 and CD22
| An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive) |
980919d7-2fee-4ec7-af1e-d6853139e647 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ciprofloxacin o The older agents used for the treatment of typhoid were;ChloramphenicolAmpicilinTrimethoprim Sulfamethoxazoleo These drugs are not used nowdays because o f widespread resistance.o Nowdays the drug of choice for Typhoid all over the world is a "Fluroquinolone" (Ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin).An important point to remembero High level of fluoroquinolone resistance (ciprofloxacin) have been reported from India and other parts of South East Asia in S, paratyphi and S.typhi infection.# Nalidixic acid resistant S.typhi (NARST) have decreased ciprofloxacin sensitivity-1 and are less effectively- treated with fluoroquinolones.# The fluroquinolones should not be used as first line treatment for typhoid fevers in patients from India and other parts of South Asia with high rates offluroquinolone resistance unless antibiotic susceptibility data demonstrates fluoroquinolone or nalidixic acid sensitivity>.Alternative drugs for patients with fluoroquinolone resistance are : -o Beta lactam Parenteral - Ceftriaxone Oral - Cefiximeo Azithromycino ChloramphenicolAntibiotic Therapy for Enteric Fever in AdultsIndicationAgentEmpirical treatmento Ceftriaxoneo AzithromycinFully susceptibleo Ciprofloxacinb (first line)o Amoxicillin (Second line)o Chloramphenicolo Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleMutlidrng-Resistanto Ciprofloxacino Ceftriaxoneo AzithromycinNalidixic Acid-Resistanto Ceftriaxoneo Azithromycino High-dose ciprofloxacin | Medicine | Drugs | Drug of choice of typhoid -
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Ampicillin
C. Azithromycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
| Ciprofloxacin |
ac442492-3f37-4130-ba8d-da4fc5824a02 | It is given in the central space Central space : also called, muscular cone or retrobulbar space. It is bounded anteriorly by the Tenon's capsule lining back of the eyeball and peripherally by the four recti muscles and their intermuscular septa in the anterior pa. In the posterior pa, it becomes continuous with the peripheral space. Tumors lying here produces axial proptosis. Ref:AK Khurana 6thE pg 403 | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous | Retrobulbar injection is given in -
A. Inside muscle cone
B. Outside muscle cone
C. Subtenon space
D. Subperiosteum
| Inside muscle cone |
5bd77d25-b671-4902-b918-aa33439d9a48 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Strep pyogenes Erysipelas - is due to S. pyogenes and - is characterized by an abrupt onset of fiery-red swelling of the face or extremities. the distinctive features of erysipelas are well-defined indurated margins, paicularly along the nasolabial fold; rapid progression; and intense pain. extension to deeper soft tissues is rare. treatment with penicillin is effective | Surgery | null | Erysipelas is caused by ?
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph albus
C. Strep pyogenes
D. Hemophilus
| Strep pyogenes |
79d66eee-b9b9-46d3-a504-e10c560fa6b4 | Among the following, ASD is the least common cause of infective endocarditis. Here the low turbulence is responsible for decreased incidence of IE. | Medicine | null | Which among the following is the least common cause of infective endocarditis?
A. ASD
B. MS
C. VSD
D. AR
| ASD |
116624cd-0b33-436b-b042-32a303368e9c | Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010. Pg: 478Explanation:Phenol poisoning can lead to green or black urine due to carboluria.Carboluria is due to oxidation of phenol to hydro- quinone and pyrocatechol.Poisonings affecting Urine ColorRed Coloured Urine - CausesMyoglobinuria- there will be a brownish-red colour. Often associated with ischemic muscle damage, crush injuries, and after vigorous exercises and toxinsGreen Coloured Urine - CausesOxalate Poisoning Phenol poisoning.Black Coloured Urine - CausesCarbolic acid poisoning.Phenol poisoningBlue Coloured Urine - CausesPresence of indigo or of methylene blue (used as an antidote to certain types of poisoning). | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | Colour of urine in phenol poisoning:
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue
| Green |
0efa8065-47b9-4f58-9760-e67ff13443fb | Emerging patterns for language behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Jargon Follows simple commands May name a familiar object (e.g., ball) Responds to his/her name 18months 10 words (average) Names pictures Identifies 1 or more pas of the body 24months Puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object) 30months Refers to self by the pronoun "I" Knows full name 36months Knows age and sex Counts 3 objects correctly Repeats 3 numbers or a sentence of 6 syllables Most of the speech intelligible to strangers 48months Counts 4 pennies accurately Tells story 60months Names 4 colours Repeats sentence of 10 syllables Counts 10 pennies correctly Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | A child can Count 4 pennies accurately by the age of ?
A. 30 months
B. 36 months
C. 48 months
D. 60 months
| 48 months |
e5dca100-4dd3-4570-9ad3-eb23524ae78c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Intusseption Radiological investigations and signs seen in IntussusceptionPlain filmo Features of small intestinal obstruction o Abdominal soft tissue density in some cases which may showTarget sign - soft-tissue mass with concentric area of lucency due to mesenteric fatMeniscus sign - crescent of gas within colonic lumen that outlines the apex of intussusceptionBarium EnemaClaw sign - rounded apex of intussusception protrudes into the contrast column Coiled spring sign - edematous mucosal folds of returning limb of intussusceptum outlined by contrast material.Ultrasoundo Target signo Bull's eye signo Pseudokidney signAlso knowo Dance sign - feeling of emptiness in rt. iliac fossa on palpation | Surgery | Small Intestine - Small Bowel Obstruction | Coiled spring appearance -
A. Intusseption
B. Achalasia
C. Duodenal perforation
D. Chronic pancreatitis
| Intusseption |
c82e72e6-de13-4d1d-95d0-34fca534267f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Height for age Stunting (deficit in height for age) generally points towards a chronic course of malnutrition. Ghai "Height is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to body weight. Whereas weight reflects only the present health status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also". | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is the best indicator of long term nutritional status -
A. Mid arm circumference
B. Height for age
C. Weight for age
D. Weight for height
| Height for age |
d50b2943-45ba-48fb-a8c2-e702d1fb3ad8 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., EMG NCV The diagnosis of mononeuropathy in entrapment neuropathy is based on electrodiagnostic studies (EMG/ NCV) and Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Entrapment neuropathy is a medical condition caused by entrapment and compression of a peripheral nerve wherever it traverses fibro-osseous tunnels. Sites of entrapment neuropathy are : - Carpal tunnel :- Median nerve (carpal tunnel syndrome) Cubital tunnel :- Ulnar nerve (cubital tunnel syndrome) Guyan's canal :- Ulnar nerve (Guyan's canal syndrome) Tarsal tunnel :- Posterior tibial nerve (Tarsal tunnel syndrome) Inguinal ligament :- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (meralgia paraesthetica). Suprascapular notch :- Suprascapular nerve Neck of fibula :- Common peroneal nerve Fascial tunnel of superficial peroneal nerve :- Superficial peroneal nerve Arcase of Frohse :- Posterior interosseous syndrome Thoracic outlet :- Lower trunk of brachial plexus Compression in the foot :- Digital nerve (Moen's metatarsalgia) | Surgery | null | Investigation of choice for entrapment neuropathy is ?
A. CT SCAN
B. Clinical examination
C. Ulrasonography
D. EMG NCV
| EMG NCV |
71f96eeb-8005-41e6-a85a-f5080b2fcb9b | Growth curve:Lag phase: maximum cell size is obtained towards the end of the lag phaseLog phase: cells are smaller and stain uniformlyStationary phase: cells are frequently Gram-variable and show irregular staining due to the presence of intracellular storage granules. Sporulation occurs at this stage. Also, many bacteria produce secondary metabolic products such as exotoxins and antibioticsPhase of decline: involution forms are common Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p22-23 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Which of the following takes place during the stationary phase of growth curve?
A. Bacterial cell number increases
B. Bacterial cell size decreases
C. Bacterial cell size increases
D. Sporulation
| Sporulation |
11652335-371c-4ff1-8d87-fb3bb5e179e1 | Unless the GI tract is non-functional, its use for nutritional suppo is preferable as compared to TPN. In a patient who is comatose either NG feeding or feeding through a gastrostomy tube may lead to vomiting and aspiration. This can be avoided by using a nasoenteric tube with the tip placed in jejunum under fluoroscopic guidance or endoscopic control. Alternatively, a catheter may be placed directly into the proximal jejunum through a small upper abdominal incision. Enteral Nutrition Enteral feeding means delivery of nutrients into the GIT. The alimentary tract should be used whenever possible. This can be acheived with oral supplements (sip feeding) or with a variety of tube-feeding techniques delivering food into the stomach, duodenum or jejunum. Advantages of Enteral route over Parenteral route Maintains integrity of gastrointestinal tract. Reduces translocation of gut bacteria that may lead to infection. Reduces levels of pro inflammatory cytokines generated by the gut that contribute to hypermetabolism. Enteral Nutrition Indication Contraindication Protein-energy malnutrition with inadequate oral intake Dysphagia except for fluids Major trauma (Or surgery) when return to required dietary intake is prolonged Inflammatory bowel disease Distal, low-output (<200 ml/day) enterocutaneous fistula To enhance adaptation after massive enterectomy Small bowel obstruction or ileus Severe diarrhoea Proximal small intestinal fistula Severe pancreatitis Ref: Sabiston 27th edition Pgno: 112 | Surgery | General surgery | Ramesh met an accident with a car and has been in &;deep coma&; for the last 15 days. The most suitable route for the administration of proteins and caloriesis by?
A. Jejunostomy tube feeding
B. Gastrostomy tube feeding
C. Nasogastric tube feeding
D. Central venous hyperalimentation
| Jejunostomy tube feeding |
dda4d7ed-1f10-48ec-b8ba-a0485fc00f41 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gluconic acid Oxidation of sugaro When aldose sugars are oxidized they may form three different sugar acid, depending upon oxidation of aldehyde group (at C-l) or terminal alcohol group (at C-6).i) Aldonic acid:- Oxidation of an aldose with hypobromous acid (HOBr) oxidises only aldehyde group and convert it to carboxyl group to form aldonic acid. For example, glucose is oxidized to gluconic acid.ii) Saccharic acid:- Oxidation of aldoses with nitric acid convert both aldehyde and terminal primary alcohol groups to carboxyl group, formic saccharic acid. For example, glucose is oxidize to glucosaccharic acid.iii) Uronic acid:- When an aldose is oxidized in such a way that the terminal primary alcohol is converted is to carboxyl without oxidation of aldehyde group, a uronic acid is produce. For example, glucose is oxidized to glucuronic acid. | Biochemistry | Chemistry of Carbohydrates, Amino sugars, and Mucopolysaccharides | If only one terminal aldehyde group of glucose is oxidized, the product is -
A. Glucuronic acid
B. Gluconic acid
C. Gluchosaccharic acid
D. Gluconalactone
| Gluconic acid |
f3b65c32-10e7-4f5b-a84d-caedaa7fd843 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., First referral unit First Referral Units (FRU) under the RCH programe 3 Community Health Cetres and Subdistric Hospitals that provide the following services can be declared as FRUs under the RCH programme. Three critical determinants for a facility to be declared as an FRU o Availibility of surgical interventions. o Availibility of new born care. o Availibility of blood storage facility on a 24 hour basis. o To be able to perform the full range of FRU functions a health facility (CHC or subdistrict hospital or otherwise) must have the followine facilities. Facilities required (not critical) to perform full range of FRU functions : a)A minimum bed strength of 20-30. However in difficult areas, as the Noh-East states and the under-served areas. this could initially be relaxed to 10-12 beds. b) A fully functional operation theatre c) A fully functional labour room d) An area equipped for new-born care in the labour room, and in the ward. e) A functional laboratory f) Blood storage facility g) 24-hour water supply and electricity supply h) Arrangements for waste disposal and i)Arnbulance facility | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | As per RCH, the community health centre is a ?
A. First referral unit
B. Secondary referral unit
C. Teritary referral unit
D. Not a referral unit
| First referral unit |
cf0077f2-55fd-4640-9667-5cb43db86ef3 | Social marketing Concept: Seeks to develop and integrate marketing concepts with other approaches to influence behaviors that benefit individuals and communities for the greater social good - Social marketing seeks to influence social behaviors not to benefit the marketer, but to benefit the target audience and the general society Example: installation of condom vending machines at parks, pay and use toilets, railway stations, bus stations, petrol pumps, wine shops, bars, restaurants, STD/PCO booths, tea-shops, paan-shops. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Allied Health Sciences | Condom vending machine at petrol pump in high prevalence area is example of:-
A. Appropriate technology
B. Social marketing
C. Socialization
D. Community paicipation
| Social marketing |
57aec219-f16a-41c4-b099-5e196c96d78e | The history of the patient suggests the presence of the tic disorder. Treatment of Tic Disorder: *Dopamine depleter: Tetrabenazine (drug of choice) *Dopamine receptor blockers: Haloperidol,Fluphenazine, Pimozide *Atypical antipsychotics: Aripiprazole, Risperidone *Clonazepam *Carbamazepine *Botulinum toxin (Local injection) REF:KATZUNG 14TH ED. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | A 30 year old male presents with history of abnormal excessive blinking and grunting sounds. He has no control of these symptoms which have increased in frequency. Which of the following medications can be used for treatment of this person?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Imipramine
C. Risperidone
D. Methylphenidate
| Risperidone |
5fadf683-43d4-4c16-952a-f16651d05682 | While all hospitalized patients are at risk for HAI, ceain subpopulations are at increased risk. These include the elderly, the immune-compromised, the very young or premature, and burn and surgical patients. Ref: Ananthanarayana & panikers 9th edition | Microbiology | miscellaneous | Which of the following causes highest risk of nosocomial infection to a patient
A. Patient admitted for elective surgery
B. HIV patient coming in follow up OPD
C. Patient undergoing endoscopy
D. Patient admitted for normal delivery
| Patient admitted for elective surgery |
dd6a450a-02dd-4fe3-b995-b47fdcc9a743 | Dopamine at dose 1-2mcg/kg.min- renal vasodilatation2-10mcg/kg/min : beta 1 stimulationMore than 10 mcg/kg/min - vasoconstriction - alpha stimulationRef: Harrison; 17th ed. Pg 1453 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Action of 1-2mcg/kg.min of dopamine is
A. Renal vasodilatation
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Inotropic action
D. Vasoconstriction
| Renal vasodilatation |
144b9ddd-2b1a-4497-8f60-d8796dbe48f7 | The skull at birth contains 45 bones.
The adult skull consists of 22 bones (OR 28 bones including 3 paired ear ossicles).
Calvaria/brain box - 8 bones (OR 14 bones, including 6 ear ossicles).
Facial skeleton - 14 bones. | Anatomy | null | Number of Bones in adult skull are:
A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 40
| 22 |
659d8fb4-e1d8-4fbd-a09a-b08cb36b0cbf | ANGLE'S CLASSIFICATION OF MALOCCLUSION
In 1899, Edward Angle classified malocclusion based on the mesial-distal relation of the teeth, dental arches and jaws. He considered the maxillary first permanent molar as a fixed anatomical point in the jaws and the key to occlusion.
Ref: Textbook of orthodontics Gurkeerat Singh 2nd ed page no 163 | Dental | null | E.H. Angle introduced his classification of malocclusion in:
A. 1876
B. 1900
C. 1899
D. 1903
| 1899 |
7a603add-33a7-4a96-a9a9-f72b482cb41c | Yellow staining of palms & soles indicates a bilirubin level > 15 mg/dl Modified Kramer rule: | Pediatrics | Neonatal Jaundice | How much is the probable bilirubin level of this neonate?
A. 6 mg/dl
B. 9 mg/dl
C. 12 mg/dl
D. 18 mg/dl
| 18 mg/dl |
8c7f6285-ce04-44cd-a9ca-24e52bacacb1 | INSULIN is a protein hormone formed from proinsulin in the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans. The major fuel-regulating hormone, it is secreted into the blood in response to a rise in concentration of blood glucose or amino acids. Insulin promotes the storage of glucose and the uptake of amino acids, increases protein and lipid synthesis, and inhibits lipolysis and gluconeogenesis.Tyrosine kinase is any of a group of enzymes that influence signaling between cells, esp. as relates to cell growth and death, cellular adhesion and movement, and cellular differentiation. Abnormalities in tyrosine kinases are found in some human diseases, including chronic myeloid (myelogenous) leukemia.Glucose transpoer type 4, also known as GLUT4, is a protein that in humans is encoded by the GLUT4 gene. GLUT4 is the insulin-regulated glucose transpoer found in adipose tissues and striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac) that is responsible for insulin-regulated glucose transpo into the cell. This protein is expressed primarily in muscle and fat cells, the major tissues in the body that respond to insulin.Na+, K+-ATPase is an enzyme that spans the plasma membrane and hydrolyzes ATP to provide the energy necessary to drive the cellular sodium pump.Hexokinase an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group of a donor to d-glucose, producing d-glucose-6-phosphate.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-436 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Not a mechanism of Action of Insulin
A. Tyrosine kinase-beta cell stimulation
B. Incroporation of GLUT-4 into cells
C. Inhibition of Na+K+ATPase
D. Hexokinase stimulation
| Inhibition of Na+K+ATPase |
cadae1b1-a5cb-49f9-b6fd-33c81ae6682f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Furosemide Loop diuretics (furosemide) can be used in renal failure. Among thiazides, only metolazone is used in renal failure. | Pharmacology | null | Diuretics that can be used in renal failure is -
A. Furosetnide
B. Chlohiazide
C. Mannitol
D. Chlohalidone
| Furosetnide |
3ddd6157-7227-41bd-a5d6-81fa79f20418 | Cardiogenic shock is a condition in which your hea suddenly can&;t pump enough blood to meet your body&;s needs. The condition is most often caused by a csevere hea attack. Angina Pectoris, squeezing pain in center of chest. # Dysrhythmias * Diminished hea sounds * Acute drop in blood pressure > 30 mm Hg * Decreased cardiac output # Tachypneas, shoness of breath # Weak, thready pulse # Sweating, cold hand & feet # Urine output < 30 mL/hr PHARMACOLOGIC MANAGEMENT : Inotropic Agents augments the coronary blood flow Dopamine stimulates adrenergic and dopaminergic receptors Action depend upon the dose *(low dose): 1-5 mcg/kg/min IV- increase urine output and renal blood flow *(medium dose): 5-15 mcg/kg/min IV ; increase renal blood flow, cardiac output, hea rate, and cardiac contractitlity *(high dose): 20-50 mcg/kg/min IV ; increase blood pressure and stimulate vasoconstriction; may not have a beneficial effect in blood pressure; may increase risk of tachyarrhythmias . ref : kd tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | All India exam | patient is known case of CAD suddenly presents with chest pain , shoness of breath, and with blood pressure of 90/60mmhg o/e cold clammy skin is observed, with urine output of 25ml/hr .what is the drug of choice ?
A. droxidopa
B. adrenaline
C. dopamine
D. dobutamine
| dopamine |
55d899f1-0d0d-434f-acc5-377cf098be0d | Ans. B. Chemotherapy before surgeryNeoadiuvant chemotherapy refers to Combination of Chemotherapy and surgery/radiotherapy in which chemotherapy is given prior to surgery/radiotherapy. | Radiology | null | Neoadjuvant chemotherapy stands for -
A. Chemotherapy along with surgery
B. Chemotherapy before surgery
C. Chemotherapy after surgery
D. Chemotherapy along with radiation therapy
| Chemotherapy before surgery |
5a5817da-ca1f-4653-ba95-4e5287095a3f | Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis: DISH (hyperostotic spondylosis, Forestier's disease) is a multifocal entity of older people characterized by "flowing ossifications of the spine" involving four or more contiguous vertebrae and hyperostosis of some ligamentous attachments. The thick, flowing, florid, exuberant corticated plaques are extensive than that seen in degenerative changes producing so-called 'dripping candle wax or flowing candle wax' appearance. | Radiology | null | Flowing wax appearance on anterior and posterior borders of vertebrae with normal intervertebral disc space occurring due to ligament calcification is seen in –
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hypertrophy
C. Psoriatic spondyloarthropathy
D. RA
| Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hypertrophy |
0b486244-a2f0-40f5-92d3-b018dd85e760 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Renal agenesis Renal agenesis prevents urine formation which leads to oligohydramnios.Oligohydramnios is condition where amniotic fluid is deficient in amount to the extent of 100ml or entirely absentAetiologyRenal agenesis*Amnion nodosum*IUGR*Post maturity*Obst. of urinary tract (post urethral Valve*) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Hydramnios and Oligo Hydramnios | Oligohydramnios is seen in -
A. Renal agenesis
B. Oesophageal atresia
C. Exomphalos
D. Neural tube defect
| Renal agenesis |
06db2902-3592-4f74-acb6-f4f9d01a1635 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., C7 * Sensory distribution of upper limb is as followThe cutaneous nervesRegion suppliedNerve(s)Root valueDerived fromUpper part of pectoral region, and skin over upper part of deltoidSupraclavicularC3,C4Cervical plexusArm 1. Upper medial partIntercostobrachialT22nd intercostal2. Lower medial partMedial cutaneous nerve of armT1,T2Medial cord3. Upper lateral part (including skin over lower part of deltoid)Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of armC5, C6Axillary nerve4. Lower lateral partLower lateral cutaneous nerve of armC5, C6Radial nerve5. Posterior aspectPosterior cutaneous nerve of armC5Radial nerveForearm 1. Medial sideMedial cutaneous nerve of forearmC8,T1Medial cord2. Lateral sideLateral cutaneous nerve of forearmC5> C6Musculocutaneous3. Posterior sidePosterior cutaneous nerve of forearmC6, C7, C8Radial nervePalm 1. Lateral two-thirdsPalmar cutaneous branch of medianC6, C7Median2. Medial one-thirdPalmar cutaneous branch of ulnarC8UlnarDorsum of hand 1. Medial half including proximal phalanges of medial 2 1/2 digitsDorsal branch of ulnarC8Ulnar2. Lateral half including proximal phalanges of medial 2 1/2 digitsSuperficial terminal branch of radialC6, C7RadialDigits Palmar aspect, and dorsal aspect of middle and distal phalanges 1. Lateral 3V6 digitsPalmar digital branch of medianC7Median2. Medial 1 Vi digitsPalmar digital branch of ulnarC8Ulnar | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Dermatome supplying the middle finger is-
A. C6
B. C7
C. C8
D. T1
| C7 |
65f3144c-1d8b-480e-bdc7-b18e4dfa4d96 | All these renal disease leads to hypeension. But except in polycystic kidney disease, all other will show characteristics urine findings. Polycystic kidney disease is usually asymptotic. Hypeension devolops about 10 to 20 years of age. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | C.V.S | A 10 year old boy is having hypeension. There is no other significant history and urine analysis is cause for his hypeension ?
A. Chronic glomerulonephritis
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Reflux nephropathy
D. Renal Parenchymal disease
| Polycystic kidney disease |
ccef4d75-9799-4592-9555-e775093126d4 | Fulvestrant: is an estrogen receptor antagonist that downregulates the estrogen receptor and has no agonist effects. Fulvestrant competitively inhibits binding of oestradiol to the estrogen receptor (ER), with a binding affinity that is 89% that of oestradiol. Reduces the number of estrogen receptor. Good to know: It is approved for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women who have failed antiestrogen therapy. Given once in a month as a intramusclar injection. Ref: Goodman & Gillman's Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics' 12th Edition, Page 1759, 1760. | Pharmacology | null | What is the mechanism of action of Fulvestrant?
A. Selective estrogen agonist
B. Selective esrogen receptor modulator
C. Selective esrogen receptor upregulator
D. Selective esrogen receptor downregulator
| Selective esrogen receptor downregulator |
f4f20037-2971-4f59-9589-4bcd3666a0df | Ans. is 'b'i.e., Ig A Nephnopathy IgA nephropathy Predominant deposition of IgA in glomeruli. RECURRENT episode of gross rematuria that also precipitation by UI in last 2-5 days. PSGN Acute GN following infection by group A - -hemolytic streptococci. Common in school age children. o Streptococcal infection usually of throat (4 or 12 strain) or skin (strain 49) by 1-4 week prior to AGN. Edema, oliguria, hypeension, ARF, hematurea of abrupt onset. | Pediatrics | null | 8 year old child with hematuria in 5 days after throat infection?
A. Post streptococcal nephropathy
B. Ig A nephropathy
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. can be a or b
| Ig A nephropathy |
55a55d2f-2795-4614-b35e-d8335ef0fa92 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Menorrhagia * There are many causes of carpal tunnel syndrome: -1) Idiopathic: - This is the most common cause.2) Pregnancy and menopause3) Metabolic: - Gout, Diabetes mellitus4) Endocrine: - Hypothyroidism, Myxedema, Acromegaly, Hyperparathyroidism.5) Deposition disorder:- Amyloidosis, Sarcoidosis, Rheumatid arthritis, Leukemia, CRF, Mucopoly-saccharoidosis.6) Alcoholism7) Local causes: - Malunited colie's fracture, osteo-arthritis of the carpal bones, synovitits of flexor tendon sheath, hematoma. | Orthopaedics | Miscellaneous | Which of the following is not a cause for the development of carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Alcoholism
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Gout
D. Menorrhagia
| Menorrhagia |
b9fd7182-d6a5-4e10-b9ef-a2f26a3a9b62 | Temper tantrum reaches its peak point during second and third year of life and gradually subsides in between 3 to 6 years as the child learng to control his negativism and complies to the requests of others. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following childhood disorder improves with increase in age –
A. Conduct disorder
B. Emotional problems
C. Temper tantrum
D. Sleep disorder
| Temper tantrum |
180a5762-2c82-4bb7-863d-8c30659ad414 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Symblepharon * A symblepharon is a partial or complete adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva of the eyelid to the bulbar conjunctiva of the eyeball. It results either from disease (conjunctival sequelae of trachoma) or trauma. | Ophthalmology | Lid | Condition in which lid is adhered to conjunctiva is-
A. Ankyleblepharon
B. Symblepharon
C. Trichiasis
D. Madarosis
| Symblepharon |
fa28d875-46fc-4997-9eec-0fd9c8290986 | Infraglottic cavity extends from rima glottidis to the lower border of the cricoid cailage. The rima glottidis is the space between the vocal folds and arytenoid cailages. Vestibule extends from the laryngeal inlet to the vestibular folds. Ventricle extends between vestibular fold and the vocal fold. Piriform recess is a pear-shaped fossa in wall of the laryngopharynx lateral to the arytenoid cailage. | Anatomy | Pharynx, larynx and trachea and cranial nerves 3,4,6 | A 10 year old child due to choked suddenly on consuming food . On the failed attempt of Valsalva's manoeuvre a needle cricothyrotomywas performed . It would open into which of the following regions?
A. Rima glottidis
B. Laryngeal vestibule
C. Laryngeal ventricle
D. Infraglottic cavity
| Infraglottic cavity |
82ebbe53-d8c6-42bb-8625-e5cdf1a2d7d1 | Pseudomonas affect small children with malnutrition and poor immunity.it colonise airway of patients with cysticfibrosis and cause recurrent pulmonary exacerbations. pathology:well demarcated areas of consolidation and necrosis occur due to vasculitis Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS ,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:355,7 th edition | Pediatrics | Respiratory system | The main infectious agent associated with recurrent pulmonary infections in patients with cystic fibrosis is _____________ .
A. Mycoplasma
B. Pseudomonas
C. Pneumocystis
D. Aspergilus
| Pseudomonas |
81c41c9a-1d5c-4bff-b21f-f434326278d9 | Step 5: Transketolase Reaction - Transketolase is a thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) dependent enzyme. It transfers two-carbon unit (with keto group) from xylulose-5-phosphate to ribose-5-phosphate to form a 7 carbon sugar, sedoheptulose-7-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate. Transketolase enzyme will transfer the group from a donor ketose to an aldose acceptor. In thiamine deficiency transketolase activity is decreased. The reaction may be summarized as 5C + 5C = 7C + 3C. REF: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK OF BIOCHEMISTRY, SIXTH EDITION,PG.NO.,114. | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Which is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
A. Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
B. O2
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
D. NADPH
| O2 |
e2a6614c-8723-4dc3-8225-be6a69b2b2f1 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Corticospinal tract Descending pathwaysPyramidal tractExtrapvramidal tractso Corticospinal tracto Rubrospinal tracto Tectospinal tracto Vestibulospinal tracto Reticulospinal tracto This question is a direct repeat from NBE based A1 2013-14. | Physiology | Neural Tracts | Which is not an extrapyramidal tract -
A. Reticulospinal tract
B. Rubrospinal tract
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Tectospinal tract
| Corticospinal tract |
4034edd7-030e-4e74-a67b-f01c752e5fbf | Resting tremor is the manifestation of parkinsonism In cerebellar lesion intentional tremors are seen | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy 1 | In cerebellar lesion NOT seen is
A. Ataxia
B. Nystagmus
C. Resting tremors
D. Past pointing
| Resting tremors |
7a57b1dc-7558-42ec-8bdb-efd1fe3be24d | Foreign body inhalation is most common cause of acute collapse with peak age incedence in 1-2 years. Ref: Textbook of Pediatrics By K.N Agarwal, 2010, Page 235 | Radiology | null | A 2 yrs old boy, is brought with sudden onset of stridor and respiratory difficulty. The chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds and wheeze in the right side. The chest X-Ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Acute epiglottitis
C. Massive pleural effusion
D. Foreign body aspiration
| Foreign body aspiration |
f24b6333-bc80-4b41-8db3-b91cfdb945cd | Streptococcus mutans is an alpha Hemolytic streptococcus which is a pa of the normal flora of the oral cavity. This gram-positive coccus is commonly found in the mouth from where it can spread to cause dental caries or endocarditis in individuals with risk factors(dental extraction in individuals with damaged hea valves). The bacteria has a polysaccharide coat that allows it to stick to teeth and also to the damaged hea valves. It produces acid from sugar in saliva and this promotes erosion of tooth enamel. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 221 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Dental caries is caused by
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Enterococcus
D. Hemophilus Influenzae
| Streptococcus mutans |
2a4d9231-b099-44c3-a814-20aa31b23592 | Complications of Massive transfusion Massive transfusion cam lead to coagulapathy and metabolic complications Most common cause of death after massive transfusion : Dilutional Coagulopathy or DIC Transfusion of 15-20 units of blood components causes Dilutional thrombocytopenia After massive transfusion initially transient hyperglycemia due to glucose in preservatives leading to insulin release and causing hypoglycemia (MC) Galvimetric method of estimation of blood loss : Blood loss during operation is measured by weighing the swabs after use & subtracting the dry weight plus volume of blood collected in suction or drainage Metabolic complications of Massive transfusion General Fluid overload Hypothermia Impaired oxygen delivery capacity of Hb (decreased 2,3-DPG). Electrolyte Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypomagnesemia Metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis (rare) Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :138 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Massive transfusion can cause a) Hyperkalemia b) DIC c) Thrombocytopenia d) Hypothermia
A. a,d
B. b,c
C. a,c,d
D. a,b,c,d
| a,b,c,d |
6c07ea7b-ef89-4cd9-ab60-02b483a53609 | Heat stroke Exposure to high environmental temperatures can lead to following conditions ? I . Heat fatigue - Performance of a person decreases due to high environmental temperatures. The person gets tired early d/t high temp. 2. Heat cramps - these are painful spasms of voluntary muscles following strenous work in hot conditions, These cramps are caused by loss of water and salt from profuse sweating. 3. Heat syncope (heat exhaustion, heat collapse) - It is a condition of collapse without increase in body temperature, following exposure to hot and humid atmosphere. - On examination,. face is pale, .skin cold, the temperature subnormal - The pt. usually recovers when placed at rest. Death is unusual and may occur d/t hea failure. 4. Heat stroke - (heat hyperpyrexia, sub stroke) - It is due to impairment of body's heat regulating mechanism caused by failure of cutaneous circulation & sweating, following prolonged exposure to hot, humid conditions. - The onset is usually sudden with sudden collapse and loss of consciousness. Predominant symptoms may also be seen (i.e. headache, nausea, vomitting, dizziness, mental confusion, muscle cramps, excessive thirst, excessive desire to micturate) - The skin is dry, hot and flushed with complete absence of sweating - Body temperature rises as high as 43degC (hence k/a hyperpyrexia) when body temp. rises above 42degC vasodilation occurs with decrease in blood volume leading to circulatory collapse and cardiac failure. - Delirium and convulsions may precede death. - Moality rate in this condition is relatively high. - Fatal period varies from few minutes to 3 days. | Forensic Medicine | null | Sweating is Not present in
A. Heat syncope
B. Heat cramps
C. Heat stroke
D. Heat fatigue
| Heat stroke |
48a34f28-3ee4-42ec-a8ab-21f8c98b7796 | Ans. (b) Olfactory bulb(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.217)Olfactory bulb has got special synaptic units called olfactory glomeruli where four types of cells are seen namely,#Mitral cells#Tufted cells#Granule cells#Periglomerular cells | Physiology | Nervous System | Mitral and periglomerular cells are seen in
A. Medulla
B. Olfactory bulb
C. Primary visual cortex
D. Geniculate body
| Olfactory bulb |
9903c825-5f6d-47cb-88aa-393dec323c28 | Ans. B. OsteoporosisGlucocorticosteroid have many side effects like Cushing syndrome hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, delay in wound healing, increase in infection and many other. | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Long term side effect of glucocorticosteroids:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Osteoporosis
C. Precocious puberty
D. Lupus like syndrome
| Osteoporosis |
c1a18b08-f746-45d8-80f4-41ede31adb67 | (a) Epitympanum(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 1983)The space of the epitympanum, lying in between the Shrapnell's membrane or pars flaccida and the neck of malleus is known as "PRUSSAK'S SPACE".When the retraction pocket on Pars flaccida grows medially, it goes into this Prussak's space making this the most common site of primary cholesteatoma. | ENT | Ear | Prussak's space is situated in:
A. Epitympanum
B. Mesotympanum
C. Hypotympanum
D. Ear canal
| Epitympanum |
0bd7db39-237c-4a87-a84a-68f113c5929b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Caffeine is associated with occurrence of disease Case-control study does not establish the cause and effect relationship because it can not distinguish between cause and associated factors. o Case-control study can only tell the association between cause and effect. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a case controlled study. It is found that the disease is more common in the group taking coffee as compared to the control group. The significance of this is -
A. Cause and effect relationship established
B. Disease median can be calculated
C. Caffeine is associated with occurrence of disease
D. Controls will not get the disease
| Caffeine is associated with occurrence of disease |
89619730-6009-42db-97bb-2c42e2f10c5f | Ans. (a) AsparateRef: Satyanarayan Biochemistry, pg. 339Role of Aspartate in urea cycle:* Aspartate participates in urea cycle for condensation with citrulline to form Argino succinic acid. The reaction is catalyzed by Argino succinic acid synthetase (Asparate provides one out of the two nitrogens of urea, the other nitrogen is contributed by Glutamate).* In the subsequent reaction, Argino succinic acid undergoes a lytic reaction to form Arginine and fumarate. Fumarate forms a link between TCA cycle and urea. Fumarate can be recycled to form oxaloacetate, through intermediate formation of malate that can be transmmated to form aspartate, to get reutilized in the urea cycleLink between TCA and urea cycleRole of Aspartate in TCA cycle* Oxaloacetate, the keto acid obtained from Aspartate by transamination is an intermediate of TCA cycle.* Oxaloacetate can either be utilized in TCA cycle or be channeled to the pathway of gluconeogenesis.* Hence asparatate is a common intermediate of TCA cycle (through oxaloacetate) and urea cycle (directly) | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which is the common amino acid between urea cycle and TCA?
A. Asparate
B. Alanine
C. Asparagine
D. Glutamate
| Asparate |
95472eb2-aece-47ba-a1f4-d9c6f9c7ee60 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Portal vein * Liver has dual blood supply and receives 20% of its blood supply through hepatic artery (systemic) and 80% through portal vein (splanchnic). Portal vein is formed by union of splenic vein and superior mesenteric veins.* Venous drainage is through hepatic veins into IVC. | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | Normal splanchnic blood supply of the liver includes-
A. Portal vein
B. Splenic artery
C. Superior mesenteric artery
D. Inferior mesenteric vein
| Portal vein |
e092c51c-6d27-4406-ba01-f1b1c43468ad | STARVE FEED CYCLE
Divided into 5 stages:
Well-fed state (1–4 hours after food)
Early fasting (4–16 hours after food)
Fasting (16–48 hours after food)
Starvation (2–3 days without food)
Prolonged starvation (> 5 days without food). | Biochemistry | null | In prolonged starvation the main energy source of brain is:
A. Glucose
B. Ketone bodies
C. Fructose
D. Fatty acids
| Ketone bodies |
8f99fcb8-8c5d-4639-94a9-34d09aecb646 | Fabry's disease is x-linked recessive. Red are autosomal recessive. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following disorder is x-linked recessive ?
A. Gaucher disease
B. Neimann Kick disease
C. Tay Sachs disease
D. Fabry's disease
| Fabry's disease |
552b8010-b294-44cf-b882-efc1d9d9011d | The iron concentration and iron-binding capacity are low; however, in contrast to the finding in anemia of iron deficiency, the serum ferritin level is increased. This increase is typical of anemia of chronic disease. In this case, the chronic disease is rheumatoid arthritis. Underlying chronic inflammatory or neoplastic diseases increases the secretion of cytokines such as interleukin-1, tumor necrosis factor, and interferon-g. These cytokines promote the sequestration of iron in storage compartments and depress erythropoietin production. Autoantibody hemolytic anemias occur in several autoimmune diseases, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, but not usually in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, as in this case. Normal serum haptoglobin rules out intravascular hemolysis; iron is recycled at a rapid rate. Impaired synthesis of b-globin chains gives rise to b-thalassemia, also characterized by hemolysis. Complement lysis is enhanced in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, which results from mutations in the PIGA gene. Patients with this disorder have a history of infections. Sequestration of RBCs in the spleen occur when RBC membranes are abnormal, as in hereditary spherocytosis or sickle cell anemia, or RBCs are coated by antibodies, as in autoimmune hemolytic anemias. Metastases are space-occupying lesions (myelophthisic process) that can lead to leukoerythroblastosis, with nucleated RBCs and immature WBCs appearing on the peripheral blood smear. | Pathology | Blood | A 45-year-old woman has experienced worsening arthritis of her hands and feet for the past 15 years. On physical examination, there are marked deformities of the hands and feet, with ulnar deviation of the hands and swan-neck deformities of the fingers. Laboratory studies show an elevated level of rheumatoid factor. CBC shows hemoglobin, 11.6 g/dL; hematocrit, 34.8%; MCV, 87 mm3; platelet count, 268,000/ mm3; and WBC count, 6800/ mm3. There is a normal serum haptoglobin level, serum iron concentration of 20 mg/ dL, total iron-binding capacity of 195 mg/dL, percent saturation of 10.2, and serum ferritin concentration of 317 ng/mL. No fibrin split products are detected. The reticulocyte concentration is 1.1%. What is the most likely mechanism underlying this patient's hematologic abnormalities?
A. Autoantibodies against RBC membranes
B. Impaired synthesis of b-globin chains
C. Inadequate usage of stored iron
D. Sequestration of RBCs in splenic sinusoids
| Inadequate usage of stored iron |
b0343895-cf99-47fd-b6eb-bc34ed101ca0 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Obesity Acanthosis nigricans is a brown to black, velvety hyperpigmentation of the skin. It is usually found in body folds, such as posterior & lateral folds of neck, axilla, groin, umblicus, forehead. It typically occurs in individuals younger than 40 years of age. Histopathologically papillomatosis is characteristically seen; however, there is no hypermelanosis and there is only mild acanthosis, if present. It is associated with : Obesity (most common) Endocrinopathies --> Hypothyroidism, hypehyroidism, insuline resistance diabetes, Cushing's disease, PCOD, Bloom syndrome. Internal malignancy --> Gastric adenocarcinoma. | Skin | null | Most common association with Acanthosis nigricans ?
A. Hypeension
B. DM
C. Obesity
D. Hypothyroidism
| Obesity |
287bd3e6-0982-46f8-b205-63d8721e1e82 | Unlike a freckle that darkens upon light exposure, lentigo (pleural:lentigenes) does not. There is a focal increase in melanocytes of the basal layer, along with thinning of epidermis and elongation of rete ridges. Lentigines can occur at any age; those in older persons may be termed senile lentigines or age spots. A nevus typically forms a nodule and likely appears much earlier in life. Loss of melanin is termed vitiligo and is a separate process from melanocyte hyperplasia. A collection of mast cells can produce urticaria pigmentosa, which often has a light brown appearance, but pruritus is common. Some superficial fungal infections (black piedra) may be pigmented, but they typically do not persist for years. | Pathology | Skin | A 74-year-old woman has noted increasing size and number of darker brown patches on the dorsum of each hand for the past 15 years. They do not change with sun exposure, are nonpruritic, and non-tender. On examination, these 0.5- to 1-cm lightly pigmented lesions are flat. Which of the following is the most likely microscopic finding in these lesions?
A. Basal melanocytic hyperplasia
B. Dermal nevus cells
C. Loss of melanin in surrounding skin
D. Mast cell proliferation
| Basal melanocytic hyperplasia |
cc31a3a5-a1be-4a72-addb-1ccdf0ae555f | Pericardial space (pericardial cavity) lies between parietal serous pericardium and visceral serous pericardium. | Anatomy | null | Pericardial space is present between
A. Parietal and visceral pericardium
B. Endocardium and pericardium
C. Epicardium and pericardium
D. Endocardium and epicardium
| Parietal and visceral pericardium |
0fe98237-9348-4c3b-a554-e0187760c9f4 | Answer is B (Gottron's rash) : Gottron's rash is a feature of dermatomyositis and is characterized by erythema of knuckles witlz raised violaceous scaly eruptions. No rash is seen in patients of polymnyositis Polymyositis is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion Polymyositis is a subacute inflammatory myopathy affecting adults and rarely children who do not have I. Rash) Involvement of extraocular or fascial muscles) Family history of neuromuscular disease History of exposure to myotoxic drugs or toxins Endocrinopathy Neurogenic disease Muscular dystrophy Biochemical muscle disorder. Dermatomyositis : is a distinctive entitiy identified by a characteristic rash, accompanying or more often preceding muscles weakness. | Medicine | null | Which is NOT a feature of polymyositis?
A. Pharyngeal muscle involvement
B. Gottron's rash
C. Proximal muscle involvement
D. Pain in limbs
| Gottron's rash |
e5c9f88f-3af3-42ca-a6c7-f4a995a7caf0 | Conjugation
Bacterial conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacteria through direct cell to cell contact or through a bridge- like the connection between two cells.
Conjugation is a process whereby a donor (male) bacterium makes physical contact with a recipient (female) bacterium.
Donor status is determined by the presence of plasmid.
This plasmid codes for specialized fimbria (sex pilus) and for self-transfer.
Sex pilus (conjugation tube) helps in the transfer of genetic material from male bacterium to female bacterium.
The plasmid is known as transfer factor (sex factor or fertility factor).
The plasmid may be R factor, which codes for transferrable multiple drug resistance.
The DNA of the plasmid replicates during transfer so that each bacterium receives a copy → Recipient becomes a donor and the donor retains its donor status. | Microbiology | null | Transmission of R factor is by -
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. Lysogenic conversion
| Conjugation |
0c3210af-dd70-47ff-910c-5043b1c363ff | Boutonniere deformity involves: Flexion at PIP and extention at DIP joint seen in RA Other deformities in RA- Swan-neck deformity Z-deformity of thumb Ulnar detion of fingers | Orthopaedics | Joint Disorders | Boutonniere deformity involves:
A. Flexion at PIP and DIP joint
B. Extention at PIP and DIP joint
C. Flexion at PIP and extention at DIP joint
D. Extention at PIP and flexion at DIP joint
| Flexion at PIP and extention at DIP joint |
da715cdc-7b0e-4af0-81f1-07c6f44ef243 | Cat and other felines- definitive host Human - intermediate host (Refer pgno:64 baveja 3 rd edition) | Microbiology | parasitology | Cat is an agent for transmission of the following disease of man -
A. Isospora hominis
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Chilomastrix mensili
| Toxoplasma gondii |
453400f4-8772-45e6-9e35-63e9e32f11f1 | Since the neonates are asymptomatic at bih all newborns are screened for neonatal hypothyroidism. TSH is estimated either in cord blood at the time of bih (preferred) or blood obtained from heel prick after 2 days of bih.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2669 - 2773) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Screening of neonatal thyroid disease is done by
A. T4
B. T3
C. TSH
D. TPO antibodies
| TSH |
24a5809c-da4e-4589-a1a5-dfec6afcd20d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cribriform plate of ethmoid The olfactory mucosa lines the upper one-third of nasal cavity including the roof formed by cribriform plate and the medial and lateral walls up to the level of superior concha (turbinate). | Anatomy | null | The roof of the olfactory region is formed by ?
A. Nasal bone
B. Cribriform plate of ethmoid
C. Sphenoid
D. Temporal bone
| Cribriform plate of ethmoid |
6b1609d4-0745-43d3-8210-e222eb697867 | Ayre&;s T piece is used in infants. The patient inspires fresh gas from the reservoir tube,expires into the reservoir tube. Advantages are they are inexpensive,compact,no valves and low dead space | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant -
A. Jackson Rees modification of Ayre's T piece
B. Mapleson A or Magill's circuit
C. Mapleson C or water's to & fro canister
D. Bain's circuit
| Jackson Rees modification of Ayre's T piece |
dc084aa0-bb3a-4408-ab4f-d3005b48cde6 | Ans. is b i.e. Colposcopy and biopsy investigation of choice in post-coital bleeding in a 60 years old lady (which suggests carcinoma cervix) is Colposcopy and Biopsy. The aim of Colposcopy is : - to confirm the diagnosis - to identify the extent of lesion - it allows conservative treatment in case of precancerous lesions. Pap smear is not the investigation of choice, as it is a screening procedure. If pap smear is negative in this case (In postmenopausal females, where there are less metaplastic changes at squamo columnar junction) we still have to confirm by Colposcopy. Cone biopsy is a destructive method and is advised only if diagnosis cannot be confirmed by colposcopy or SCJ is not visualised. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Investigation of choice in postcoital bleeding in a 60 years old lady is :
A. Pap smear
B. Colposcopy and biopsy
C. Pelvic ultrasound
D. Cone excision of cervix
| Colposcopy and biopsy |
16ad6c75-c769-41ad-85f2-bc3b4cec9a39 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mesothelioma & 'd' i.e., Fibroma The pleura may be involved by primary or secondary tumors. Primary tumors Benign - Solitary fibrous tumor (benign fibrous mesothelioma or benign mesothelioma or pleural fibroma). Malignant - Malignant mesothelioma. Secondary tumors More common than primary tumors. Most common primary sites are lung and breast. Pleural fibroma (Benign fibrous mesothelioma) This is the primary benign lesion of pleura. The tumor is often attached to the pleural surface by a pedicle. These tumor do not usually produce a pleural effusion and have no relationship to asbestos exposure (in contrast to malignant mesothelioma). They consist of dense fibrous tissue with occasional cysts filled with viscid fluid. Microscopically, the tumors show whorls of reticulin and collegen fibers among which are interspersed spindle cells resembling fibroblasts. The tumor cells are CD 34 (+)ve and keratin negative by immunostaining. This feature can be diagnostically useful in distinguishing these lesions from malignant mesothelomas which is CD34 (-)ve and keratin positive. | Pathology | null | Primary pleural tumor is ?
A. Mesothelioma
B. Myxoma
C. Lipoma
D. Fibroma
| Mesothelioma |
fc9a4e65-d6d3-454b-8fd8-eb8fa49cd5b0 | Ans. D. Ca2+Vascular Control by lons and Other Chemical Factors Guyton 12th(SAE)/269An increase in calcium ion concentration causes vasoconstriction.An increase in potassium ion concentration,.within the physiological range, causes vasodilation.An increase in magnesium ion concentration causes powerful vasodilation.An increase in hydrogen ion concentration (decrease in pH) causes dilation of the aerioles.Anions that have significant effects on blood vessels are acetate and citrate.An Increase in carbon dioxide concentration causes moderate vasodilation in most tissues but marked vasodilation in the brain. | Physiology | null | Tissue elevation of which of the following cause vasoconstriction :
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Mg
D. Ca2+
| Ca2+ |
a051b259-e4df-450a-a9d8-804432ba0176 | Population statistics Vital statistics Population size Sex ratio Density of population Dependency ratio Bih rate, death rate Natural growth rate Life expectancy at bih Moality rates Feility rates | Social & Preventive Medicine | Definition & Concepts | Vital statistics in a population include:-
A. Sex ratio
B. Age composition
C. Bih rate
D. Dependency ratio
| Bih rate |
94741fb9-e52a-42c1-8df5-59f338e300b9 | Breast self-examination is to be performed by all women above 18 years throughout their life. It should be performed every month at the same time of menstrual cycle. For pre-menopausal women: The best time is right after the menstrual cycle ends (7-10 day; after menstrual cycle stas) as at this time the breasts are less swollen and less tender a; estrogen levels are low. For post-menopausal women: BSE at any specific date can be selected for each month For women on H: BSE to be done after finishing each cycle of H For women on OCP: BSE should be performed with the sta of new pill pack each month | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The MOST appropriate time for self-examination of breast in relation to menstraution in a pre-menopausal woman is?
A. A week after menstruation stas
B. Before ovulation
C. During menstruation
D. A day after menstruation ends
| A week after menstruation stas |
a110dad9-ff70-4a1e-a727-7a94cfa2057d | COTRIMOXAZOLE This is a fixed dose combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in a ratio of 5:1. Due to different bioavailability (more for sulfamethoxazole), plasma concentration of the two drugs attained is 20:1 (in vivo), which is the best bactericidal concentration required. The bactericidal activity is due to sequential blockade at two steps in the DNA synthesis (sulfamethoxazole inhibits folate synthase and trimethoprim inhibits DHFRase). It is the drug of choice for pneumocystosis, nocardiosis and infections caused by Burkholderia cepacia. | Pharmacology | Antimetabolites and Quinolones | Ratio of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in cotrimoxazole tablet is:-
A. 5:01
B. 1:05
C. 1:01
D. 5:05
| 5:01 |
d73557d4-5a1a-4f36-af3a-185d8971e239 | Disability: Any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for human being. Disability Limitation: It is mode of intervention when patient repos late in the pathogenesis phase. The objective of this intervention is to prevent or halt the transition at' the disease process from impairment to handicap. Sequence of events leading to disability and handicap have been stated as follows Disease -> Impairment -> disability --> handicap In the question: Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization = Specific protection Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PPRP and providing calipers for waIking -> Rehabilitation. Resting affected limbs in neutral position = Disability limitation. | Surgery | null | Which is an example of disability limitation
A. Resting the affected limb in neutral position
B. Arranging for schooling of a child suffering from PPRP
C. Reducing occurrence by polio immunisation
D. Providing calipers for walking
| Resting the affected limb in neutral position |
b07944cc-4026-4799-926b-e15e120ef6ba | Type B gastritis mainly involves the region of antral mucosa (hence antral predominant not body predominant.) and is more common. It is also called hypersecretory gastritis due to excessive secretion of acid, commonly due to infection with H. pylori. These patients may have associated peptic ulcer. Unlike Type A gastritis, this form of gastritis has no autoimmune basis nor has an association with other autoimmune diseases. Type A is body predominant. Type AB gastritis effects the mucosal region of A as well as B types. This is the most common gastritis in all age groups. It is also called environmental gastritis, mixed gastritis, chronic atrophic gastritis. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY HARSH MOHAN 6TH EDITION PAGE NO:547 | Pathology | G.I.T | Type B gastritis is
A. Body predominant
B. H. pylori associated
C. Autoimmune gastritis
D. Environmental gastritis
| H. pylori associated |
aa317892-de0d-46ec-9d03-e3c08fbee204 | Answer is C (Respiratory and metabolic acidosis) The acid base disorder is therefore both respiratory and metabolic acidosis. There is acidosis (pH < 7.35). Raised PCO2 (acidosis) indicates that change in CO2 is in keeping with change in pH. The respiratory component is therefore primary. Decreased HCO3 (acidosis) indicates that change in HCO3 is also primary. The acid base disorder is therefore both respiratory and metabolic acidosis. | Medicine | null | An ABG analysis shows : pH 7.2, raised pCO2, decreased HCO3; diagnosis is :
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
| Respiratory and metabolic acidosis |
c563d00a-06f9-4c5c-976b-b90077480d77 | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition RB gene is located on long arm chromosome 13. This is the first ever tumor suppressor gene identified and this has been amply studied.. | Pathology | General pathology | Retinoblastoma gene is located on chromosome -
A. 6
B. 9
C. 13
D. 21
| 13 |
17819a61-a4f2-4f92-93a0-a6de01eb8193 | Interossei and lumbricalsflexes MCP (metacarpophallangeal joint) and extend IP (interphallangeal joint). Injury to interossei and lumbricals leads toclaw hand (extended MCP and flexed IP) | Anatomy | NEET Jan 2020 | Hand deformity presennting as hyper-extension at the metcarpo phalaogeal joint and flexion at inter-phalanngeal joint, occurs due to paralysed
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Lumbricals
C. Lumbricals and interossei
D. Extensor digitorum
| Lumbricals and interossei |
97c1e5e7-6935-4bb3-adef-7d62f28690fe | It is an inborn error of metabolism.In the pathway, L-xylulose is conveed to D-xylulose by two enzymes, xylitol dehydrogenase, and xylulose reductase.Absence of any of these enzymes leads to pentosuria.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 135 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Essential pentosuria is due to defect in
A. HMP pathway
B. Glycolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Uronic acid pathway
| Uronic acid pathway |
565c7f96-85ea-4522-8986-8b04a9b44bc4 | Ans: c (Indinavir) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 1127; 17th ed, p. 1192Indinavir is the antiretroviral drug which causes urinary stones.Classification of antiretro viral drugNucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)* Zalcitabine* Didanosine* Lamivudine* Zidovudine* Stavudine* Abacavir* EmtricitabineProtease inhibitors* Indinavir* Saquinavir* Ritonavir* Nelfinavir* LopinavirFusion inhibitorsEnliiviritideNon nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)* Nevirapine* Efavirenz* DelavirdineNucleotide analogueTenefovirAdefbvirSide effects of antiretroviral drugsNRTIPeripheral neuropathy-Stavudine> Zalcitabine> DidanosinePancreatitis-Didanosine> Zalcitabine> StavudineHepatic steatosisAnaemia / neutropeniaProtease InhibitorsGastro intestinal intoleranceFat redistributionHyperlipidaemiaInsulin resistanceIndinavir-Renal stones, crystalluria, hyperbilirubinaemiaRitonavir-Perioral paraesthesiaMyopathyZalcitabine-mouth ulcersZidovudine-nail pigmentationAbacavir-Hypersensitivity.NNRTIRashSteven Johnson syndromeEfavirenz-vivid dreamsNevirapine-hepatitisFusion inhibitors-hypersensitivity. | Medicine | Infection | Anti retro viral drug causing urinary stones:
A. Zidovudine
B. Lamivudine
C. Indinavir
D. Nelfinavir
| Indinavir |
66f6d998-ca24-4603-ae1d-217d375d3f69 | Type A - Magills circuit Type C - Water,'s (to and from) circuit Type D - Bain's circuit Type E - Sure's T piece Type F -Jackson-Rees circuit. | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | Bains' circuit is Mapelson type - circuit -
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type D
D. Type E
| Type D |
cacc0a5d-ff7c-472d-a663-4a88cdc038fc | Erythema multiforme(EM) is an acute ,self limiting skin disease charecterised by the abrupt onset of symmetrical target lesions. Erythema multiforme is a skin reaction that can be triggered by an infection or some medicines. The classic lesions are iris or target lesions which are less than 3 cm in diameter, rounded and have 3 zones:central area of dusky erythema, middle paler area of oedema and an outer ring of erythema with well defined margin. Sites: commonly the extremities and the face, but face,trunk ,oral and genital mucosa may be affected. There are two forms: EM major and EM minor. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1235, Fitzpatrick 8thednpg 434) | Dental | All India exam | Iris lesion is seen in
A. Utricaria
B. Scabies
C. Lichen planus
D. Erythema multiformae
| Erythema multiformae |
29671dd8-a42b-401e-a831-ade026608bde | Refer Katzung 11/e p 595 Vitamin K causes gamma carboxylation of glutamate reduces in many clotting factors that result in their activation | Pharmacology | Respiratory system | Vitamin K is involved in the post translational modification of
A. Glutamate
B. Aspaate
C. Glycine
D. GABA
| Glutamate |
0b492117-da6a-4231-ac9d-e03c92b27681 | In reoviruses the double stranded RNA is transcribed into mRNA by viral polymerase REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOIK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:433 | Microbiology | Virology | Double stranded RNA is seen in -
A. Reovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Retrovirus
| Reovirus |
03f56962-fb05-42fd-af7b-74e673a0cb31 | Infection with Hepatitis B virus (HBV) at bih or a very young age is associated with chronic HBV infection and the development of hepatocellular carcinoma later in life. In fact, infants born to Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)-positive mothers are commonly infected, and approximately 90% become chronic carriers of the virus. Chronic carriers suffer from hepatocellular carcinoma at an incidence over 200 times higher than a noncarrier. The current recommendation for infants born of HBsAg-positive mothers is administration of hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIg) in the delivery room, with the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine given at the same time or within 1 week. The second and third dose of the vaccine are then given at 1 and 6 months. With this protocol, 94% protection is achieved. The Epstein-Barr virus is the agent of heterophile-positive infectious mononucleosis. In children, primary EBV infection is often asymptomatic. The measles virus often causes a more severe disease in adults. Over the age of 20, the incidence of complications, including pneumonia, bacterial superinfection of the respiratory tract, bronchospasm and hepatitis, is much higher than in children. Poliovirus causes asymptomatic or inapparent infections 95% of the time. Frank paralysis occurs in approximately 0.1% of all poliovirus infections. However, the probability of paralysis increases with increasing age. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following viruses produce disease or sequelae that is/are more severe if the infection occurs at a very young age?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Measles virus
D. Poliovirus
| Hepatitis B virus |
3448a0bd-571b-4200-b357-6868acacec9e | During prolonged fasting there is increased gluconeogenesis. Alanine is provided by the muscle is one of the substrates for gluconeogenesis and is called Glucose Alanine cycle. So plasma level of alanine increases in prolonged starvation. | Biochemistry | null | Increased alanine during prolonged fasting represents-
A. Increased breakdown of muscle proteins
B. Impaired renal function
C. Decreased utilization of amino acid from Glucogenesis
D. Leakage of amino acids from cells due to plasma membrane leakage
| Increased breakdown of muscle proteins |
d382e57b-f281-4ccf-9993-7ef724dd74c6 | (A) (Roentgen) (16 Apley 9th)* X-ray discovered by Roentgen in 1895.X-ray are produced by firing electrons at high speed onto a rotating anode. The resulting beam of X-rays is attenuated by the patient's soft tissues and bones, casting what are effectively, shadows, which are displayed as images on an appropriately sensitize plate or stored as digital information, which is than available to the transferred throughout the local information (IT) network.* Electromagnetic waves, non particulate, a beam of photons* Penetration power in air is 200 meters* Penetration power in lead is 0.3mmX-rays films are least sensitive to RED light* CT scan was invented by Geofiery hounds field* MRI - described fist by Bloch and Purcell, but applied as human analytical by Damadian and Lauterbur.* Radioactivity was discovered by - Henri - Becqueral | Medicine | Miscellaneous | X-ray were discovered by -
A. Roentgen
B. Madam curie
C. Becqueral
D. Houndsfield
| Roentgen |
e3c42b9e-ddf9-4268-8123-05cb31e58da8 | Ans. B: HBeAg, D: HBV DNA The first detectable viral marker for hepatitis-B is HBeAg, followed by hepatitis B, e-antigen (HBeAg) and HBV DNA. Titers may be high during the incubation period, but HBV DNA and HBeAg levels begin to fall at the onset of illness and may be undetectable at the time of peak clinical illness. Core-antigen does not appear in blood, but antibody to this antigen (anti-HBc) is detectable with the onset of clinical symptoms. The immunoglobulin M (IgM) fraction is used in an impoant diagnostic assay for acute hepatitis B, infection. Before current molecular assays were available, it was the only marker detectable in the window period, the time between the disappearance of HBsAg and the appearance of anti-HBs. Patients who clear the virus lose HBsAg and develop anti-HBsAb, a long-lasting antibody associated with immunity. The presence of anti-HBsAb and anti-HBcAb (IgG) indicates recovery and immunity in a previously infected individual, whereas a successful vaccination response produces antibody only to HBsAg. HBeAg is another viral marker detectable in blood and correlates with active viral replication and therefore high viral load and infectivity. The-antigen is synthesized from a strand of DNA immediately preceding the area that codes for the core-antigen. | Pathology | null | Serum marker indicating active viral replication in hepatitis-B is: September 2006, March 2013
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. HBcAg
D. HBV DNA
| HBeAg |
ec909278-98e6-48e2-a826-185805cae175 | A most common type of congenital cataract → punctate (blue dot) cataract.
A most common type of cataract which is clinically (visually) significant → zonular or lamellar cataract. | Ophthalmology | null | Most common cataract in a newborn is –
A. Zonular
B. Morgagnian
C. Anterior Polar
D. Posterior Polar
| Zonular |
783f7cdc-2d26-4b6e-9274-75c04d9ae75c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., PancreasEctopic (Accessory) pancreatic tissue may be found in submucosa of :?Stomach Meckel's diveiculumDuodenum Gall bladderSmall intestine (jejunum, ileum) Spleen | Anatomy | null | Accessory organ which may be found in stomach ?
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Kidney
| Pancreas |
63893941-cbe4-4eb0-b099-41185abda5a3 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HPV Was . Was are caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) | Microbiology | null | Condyloma acuminatum is caused by ?
A. HSV
B. HPV
C. HIV
D. VZV
| HPV |
900afe1c-ba0c-485e-b0e0-4e99a1cf8c01 | Pathologic supraventricular tachycardia A. Tachycardia originating from the atriumDefining feature: tachycardia may continue despite beats that fail to conduct to the ventricles, indicating that the AV node is not paicipating in the tachycardia circuitB. AV nodal reentry tachycardiaDefining feature: paroxysmal regular tachycardia with P waves visible at the end of the QRS complex or not visible at allThe most common paroxysmal sustained tachycardia in healthy young adults; more common in womenC. Tachycardias associated with accessory atrioventricular pathwaysDefining feature: paroxysmal sustained tachycardia similar to AV nodal reentry; during sinus rhythm, evidence of ventricular preexcitation may be present (Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome) or absent (concealed accessory pathway)Harrison 19e pg: 1476 | Medicine | C.V.S | The most common form of PSVT?
A. Tachycardia originating from the atrium
B. AV nodal reentry tachycardia
C. WPW syndrome
D. Focal atrial tachycardia
| AV nodal reentry tachycardia |
19ab5337-6b86-4aab-9de6-2eb84f33a1ce | Rx of Cervical cancer NOTE: THERE IS NO ROLE OF SURGERY IN TREATMENT OF STAGE IIB AND ABOVE - Stage I - IIA - Surgical management: Radical Hysterectomy (aka type 3 hysterectomy) - Structures removed in radical hysterectomy are : Uterus, cervix, upper 1/3 - 1/2 of vagina, entire parametrium, uterine aery ligated at its origin from internal iliac aery, uterosacral ligament at most distal attachment (rectum) - Stage >= IIB - Chemoradiation - Radiotherapy alone is effective Rx in all stages. - Maximum radiation given at Point A 2cm above and 2 cm lateral to external os Ureter crosses the uterine aery (bridge over water) here ureter is under the uterine aery Parametrium seen here Upto 7500 to 8000 RADs given here Point B 3cm lateral to point B Obturator lymph nodes at the pelvis side walls Obturator lymph nodes -sentinel group of LN Upto 6000 RADS given here. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Cervical Carcinoma | A female having carcinoma cervix stage IIIb. What is the treatment:-
A. Weheims hysterectomy
B. Schauta's radical vaginal hysterectomy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Intracavitary brachytherapy with external beam radiotherapy
| Intracavitary brachytherapy with external beam radiotherapy |
67b658f7-a9a0-41e1-8163-6778d231eb2b | Prolonged bottle feeding more than 1 year can lead to ECC. | Dental | null | The bottle feeding should be discontinued by the age of:
A. 12 months
B. 8 months
C. 18 months
D. 20 months
| 12 months |
8331f967-1fc5-479b-8af9-ae34f153e0de | Increased hematocrit in this patient reflects hemoconcentration caused by dehydration, secondary to diarrhea. This hematologic condition, termed relative polycythemia, is characterized by decreased plasma volume with a normal red cell mass. When patients suffer from burns, vomiting, excessive sweating, or diarrhea, they not only lose fluid but also suffer electrolyte disturbances. Systemic blood pressure falls with continuous dehydration, and declining perfusion eventually leads to death. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) may cause dehydration but is an unlikely choice because the patient has a history of diarrhea. None of the other choices cause relative polycythemia.Diagnosis: Dehydration, relative polycythemia | Pathology | Hemodynamics | A 1-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room by her parents who report she has had a fever and diarrhea for 3 days. Her temperature is 38degC (101degF). The CBC shows a normal WBC count and increased hematocrit (48 g/dL). Which of the following is the most likely cause of increased hematocrit in this patient?
A. Acute phase response
B. Dehydration
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Malabsorption
| Dehydration |
12e8b938-a435-4457-9c8d-9f556b1730d1 | complete prineal tear <24HRS= Repair immediately >24HRS - schedule after 3months REF : SHAW GYNECOLOGY | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | A 2hyr old women who had home delivery 2wks back now presents with complete perineal tear whats the next line of the management
A. repair immediately
B. repair after 3wks
C. repair after 3months
D. repair after 6 months
| repair after 3months |
5cb09b22-97b5-43b1-a48c-bbb0b3c04202 | Ans. C: 280-290 mOsm/L Plasma osmolality is a measure of the concentration of substances such as sodium, chloride, potassium, urea, glucose, and other ions in blood Osmolal concencentration of plasma is 290 mOsm/L Osmolality of blood increases with dehydration and decreases with overhydration. In normal people, increased osmolality in the blood will stimulate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This will result in increased water reabsorption, more concentrated urine, and less concentrated blood plasma. A low serum osmolality will suppress the release of ADH, resulting in decreased water reabsorption and more concentrated plasma. | Physiology | null | Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult: September 2005, March 2012, September 2012
A. 320-330 mOsm/L
B. 300-310 mOsm/ L
C. 280-290 mOsm/ L
D. 260-270 mOsm/ L
| 280-290 mOsm/ L |
90135651-e561-4789-b144-39c740f1f834 | Ans: b (Resistant schizophrenia) Ref: Katzung, 10th ed, p. 457Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic. It has weak D2 blocking action and produces few extrapyramidal side effects.lt inhibits 5-HT, receptor.The main adverse effects are agranulocytosis and other blood dyscrasias. It reduces seizure threshold. It is reserved for resistant cases of schizophrenia. | Psychiatry | Treatment | Clozapine is used in:
A. Depression
B. Resistant schizophrenia
C. Mania
D. Delirium
| Resistant schizophrenia |
62ef9384-16ef-455c-bcf7-a693c33060d6 | Ref: Harrison 20th edition, P 384Cardiac specific markers of myocardial damage include quantitative determination of CK-MB, Troponin I and Troponin T. Troponins can become elevated by 3 hours. The circulating values remain elevated up to a week. | Pathology | C.V.S | Most sensitive and specific marker for MI is?
A. Troponin
B. Cytokeratin
C. Myoglobin
D. CPK-MM
| Troponin |
f7033ab3-d74a-422e-ba6c-3c498d4da0c3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Crude Death Rate Human development index : includesLongevity (Life expectancy at birth)knowledge (adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling)Income (reveal GDP per capita in purchasing power parity in US Dollars).* HDI values ranges between 0 to 1. the HDI value for a country shows the distance that it has already travelled towards maximum possible value to 1.Physical quality of life index includes*infant mortalitylife expectancy at age oneliteracy | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of Health and Disease | Human development index includes A/E :
A. Crude death rate
B. Education
C. Life expectancy at birth
D. GDP
| Crude death rate |
94566a9e-828c-4005-9a50-0b14c2413cac | Answer is A (Endoscopic removal): Stones in the lower pa of ureter within 5-6 cm of ureteric orifice (that are small in size) are best managed by Ureteroscopic (Endoscopic) removal. | Medicine | null | T/t used for lower ureteric stone is:
A. Endoscopic removal
B. Diuretics
C. Drug dissolution
D. Laser
| Endoscopic removal |
a1953f4e-e132-4bdb-962c-d60818fb79dc | Ref: Harsh Mohan, Textbook of Pathology, 7th ed. pg. 236The image shows basophilic stippling of red blood cells. The causes are:Mnemonic: LUNATIC* Lead poisoning* Unstable hemoglobin* Nucleotidase deficiency* Anemia due to B12 deficiency* Thalassemia* Infections* CirrhosisThe closest answer Pappenheimer bodies are basophilic erythrocytic inclusions that are usually located at the I periphery of the cell. They contain iron and stain with Prussian blue. Prussian blue is the stain that is used to identify that these Pappenheimer bodies are pure iron deposits, and not heme as in Heinz bodies. | Pathology | Blood | Spot the diagnosis
A. Lead poisoning
B. Macrocytic anemia
C. Howell-Jolly bodies
D. Heinz bodies
| Lead poisoning |
9a0c22ae-b1c4-4977-8372-0df38e32cd61 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 60-80deg C Temperature requirement of bacteriao Bacteria vary in their requirements of temprature for growth.Psvchrophilic bacteria grow best at temperature below 20degCThermophilic bacteria grow best between 55-80degCMesophilic bacteria grow best between 25-40degC | Microbiology | Morphology and Physiology of Bacteria | Thermophile bacteria grow at -
A. 20deg C
B. 20-40deg C
C. 40-60deg C
D. 60-8CTC
| 60-8CTC |
ee16bdaf-efd5-4675-8a6c-6f0ca45135a6 | Ans. D. TirofibanGP IIb/IIIA are the fibrogen activator receptor. On stimulating they activates the aggregation of platelets. Abciximab and tirofiban are the drugs which block these receptors and inhibit the platelet aggregation. | Pharmacology | Hematology | Drug which inhibits GPIIb/IIIa and is platelet anti Aggregatory:
A. Clopidogrel
B. Enoxaparin
C. Fondaparinux
D. Tirofiban
| Tirofiban |
25d17943-885a-4d0e-841f-147ed7a05d3a | Horner syndrome is a result of sympathetic autonomic nerve involvement by invasive pulmonary carcinoma. Such a neoplasm in this location with these associated findings is called a Pancoast tumor. Infectious processes such as pneumonia are unlikely to impinge on structures outside the lung. Bronchiectasis destroys bronchi within the lung. Sarcoidosis can result in marked hilar adenopathy with a mass effect, but involvement of the peripheral nervous system is unlikely. Likewise, tuberculosis is a granulomatous disease that can lead to hilar adenopathy, although usually without destruction of extrapulmonary tissues. | Pathology | Respiration | A 72-year-old woman has had difficulty with vision in her right eye for 3 months. She also has pain in the right upper chest. The findings on physical examination include unilateral enophthalmos, miosis, anhidrosis, and ptosis on the right side of her face. A chest radiograph shows right upper lobe opacification and bony destruction of the right first rib. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present in her?
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Sarcoidosis
| Bronchogenic carcinoma |
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