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baf8ee99-fa5b-4e72-aa73-1e2030575de4 | Fats excretion less than 7 gm per day in feces is considered normal. More than this amount in feces indicates malabsorption; more than 8 gm/day in feces is called steatorrhea | Physiology | Gastrointestinal System | Normal daily faecal fat excretion:
A. 0-5 gm
B. 5-10 gm
C. 10-15gm
D. 15-20gm
| 0-5 gm |
6773ca12-2ba7-4409-bd60-6e64b43908b3 | Pressure in superficial venous system decreases to 30 mmHg while walking as blood flows from superficial to deep veins. | Surgery | null | Normal pressure in superficial venous system of leg while walking is
A. 80 mmHg
B. 60 mmHg
C. 50 mmHg
D. 30 mmHg
| 30 mmHg |
6f83a4b8-f0bd-4ca6-b081-247444102d5e | The primary cellular receptor for HIV is CD4 (Helper subset of T cells). HIV has two major coreceptors: CCR5 and CXCR4 (for fusion and entry)ALSO KNOW:Kaposi's sarcoma cannot be explained completely by the immunodeficiency caused by HIV infection. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-1519. | Pathology | null | The impoant coreceptors for HIV to bind with CD4 receptors are:
A. CCR4 and CXCR3
B. CCR5 and CXCR4
C. CCR4 and CXCR5
D. CCR4 and CXCR2
| CCR5 and CXCR4 |
9bf0dd00-6914-4732-aa54-29c23afaea82 | Ans. is `a' i.e., Pseudolymphadenopathy Donovanosis Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. C. granulomatis is ? - Gram negative - Encapsulated - Nonmotile - Intracellular It shares many morphologic and serologic characteristic (antigenic) and > 99% homology at the nucleotide level with Klebsiella. Clinical manifestations - IP --) 1-4 weeks - Begins as one or more subcutaneous nodules that erode through skin to produce clean, granulomatous, sharply defined, usually painless lesions. - The genitalia are involved in 90% of cases. - Genital swelling, paicularly of labia, is common. - In donovanosis, heaped-up granulomatous tissue may follow and subcutaneous extension to inguinal area may form "pseudo-buboes"; however, the absence of true lymphadenopathy is the hallmark of this infection. - Complications Pseudoelephantiasis, phimosis and paraphimosis. Diagnosis: - The preferred diagnostic method involves demonstration of typical intracellular Donovan bodies within large mononuclear cells visualized in smears prepared from lesions or biopsy specimens. - Stain used is wright - Giemsa Treatment: - Azithromycin (DOC) - Doxycycline (2'd choice) - Chloramphenicol | Microbiology | null | In donovanosis-
A. Pseudolymphadenopathy
B. Penicillin is used for treatment
C. Painful ulcer
D. Suppurative lymphadenopathy
| Pseudolymphadenopathy |
0189c0d4-f07b-4eac-af39-9d59fde71109 | Ans. a. Hydroxyurea The only drug approved by US FDA for the treatment of sickle cell anemia is hydroxyurea.Hydroxyurea in Sickle Cell Anemia* The only drug approved by US FDA for the treatment of sickle cell anemia is hydroxyurea.* Hydroxyurea increases total and fetal hemoglobin in children with sickle cell disease.* The increase in fetal hemoglobin retards sickling of RBCs.* Hydroxyurea also reduces the level of circulating leucocytes. This decreases the adherence of neutrophils to the vascular endothelium in turn theses effects reduce the incidence of pain episodes and acute chest syndrome episodes. | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | Which of the following drug is used in sickle cell anemia?
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Carmustine
C. Paclitaxel
D. Bleomycin
| Hydroxyurea |
4b6db4a7-faf7-4bd0-845d-c12dc24dc887 | Ans-A (Hemochorial) Ref: DC Dutta's Textbook of Obstetrics, 7th edn, pg 28Explanation:Human placentaStarts developing at 6 weeks and completed by 12 weeksHuman placenta is discoid, hemochorial, deciduateDevelopment of placentaFetal part - chorion frondosumMaternal part - deciduas hasalisCleavage of placenta following delivery occurs through deciduas spongiosumNormal weight - 500 gmsFunctional unit of placenta - chorionic villiUmbilical artery has 2 arteries and one veinNitabuch's membrane is absent in placenta accretaBlood flow in feto placental unit at term 500 ml/ minOxygen saturation inUmbilical vein -70-80 %Umbilical artery - 50 -60 %Intervillous space is filled with maternal bloodVolume of blood in mature placenta - 500 ml | Unknown | null | Human placenta is:
A. Hemochorial
B. Endothen - esdothelima
C. Chorio - endothelial
D. Non-Discoidal
| Hemochorial |
e7d6968b-02ad-4946-b92c-595a86e70681 | Peripheral chemoreceptor in the carotid and aoic bodies can produce variable effects on hea rate- Direct Effect: Vagal stimulation- Bradycardia Indirect effect : Hypoxia- Peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation - Hyperventilation and increased catecholamine secretion - Tachycardia and increased cardiac output Chemoreceptor reflex Receptors Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aoic bodies Central chemoreceptors in the medulla. Stimulus Decrease in PaO2 Increase in Pa CO2, H+ ion conc Afferent IX (sinus nerve of Hering) and X (Vagus N) Center for Reflex Medulla Efferent Sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons to hea vasculature and adrenal medulla. Response Direct effect: Bradycardia Indirect effect: Hyperventilation , tachycardia, vasoconstriction, increased cardiac output and increased BP. Ref: Ganong&; s Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition Pgno: 581, 582 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors causes:
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Either bradycardia or tachycardia
D. Neither bradycardia nor tachycardia
| Either bradycardia or tachycardia |
60227b2e-f5b3-4632-8656-ebcc1b06e181 | Agents responsible for Reiter's syndrome: Salmonella enteritidis S. typhimurium S. heidelberg Yersinia enterocolitica Y. pseudotuberculosis Campylobacter fetus Shigella flexneri Genitourinary pathogens (such as Chlamydia or Ureaplasma urealyticum) Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 14. The Skin in Immune, Autoimmune, and Rheumatic Disorders. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e. | Skin | null | A person suffers from B27 associated reactive ahritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis. Which is most likely organism involved in this case?
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus bovis
| Ureaplasma urealyticum |
7bdd97cb-8138-480f-a3cf-30fb8094ba12 | Ecchymosis over the mastoid procens following fracture of middle cranial fossa is called Battles sign. | Forensic Medicine | null | Battles sign is extopic manifestation of?
A. Anterior cranial fossa fracture
B. Middle cranial fossa fracture
C. Posterior cranial fossa fracture
D. Orbital fracture
| Middle cranial fossa fracture |
4eb37883-9482-4831-81bd-a6ab7dffb9ae | A i.e. y Na+ during action potentialInhibitors & toxinsSodium dependent glucose transpoer (SGLT or Na+ glucose co transpoer) is inhibited by phlorizinQ whereas, phloretin inhibits sodium (Na+) independent glucose transpoer (GLUT 2) in intestineQ.Fish neurotoxin tetrodotoxin (applied externally) block Na' channelsQ (esp early membrane voltage dependent Na' current; hence 'm' gates controlling Na' channels externally) where as enzyme pronase (applied internally) block voltage dependent inactivation of Na* current (hence 'h.' gates controlling Na' channels from inside).Tetraethyl ammonium or 4 aminopyridine block potassium channelQ (esp delyed voltage dependent increase in K* permeability and hence 'n' gate).Absorption of Hexose in intestineHexoses are rapidly and completely absorbed before the meal reach terminal ileumTranspo of most hexoses (glucose & galactose) is dependent on Na' ions in intestinal lumen; a high Na' concentration facilitates and a low concenteration inhibits sugar influx into the epithelial cells.This is because Na' & glucose share a same cotranspoer or sympo, the sodium dependent glucose transmpoer (SGLT), Na' glucose cntranspoer). These (SGLT 1 & 2) resemble glucose transpoers responsible for facilitated diffusion in that they cross cell membrane 12 times and have their - COOH & - NH2 terminals on cytoplasmic side of membrane. However , there is no homology to glucose transpoer (GLUT). SGLT- 1 is responsible for uptake of dietary glucose from gut where as SGLT-2 is responsible for glucose transpo out of renal tubules. | Physiology | null | Tetrodotoxin blocks
A. yNa+ during action potential
B. yK+ during action potential
C. yNa+ during resting state
D. yK+ during resting state
| yNa+ during action potential |
e91c2118-9e66-4c8e-b44c-5e524ff8be7b | B i.e. Proximal tubuleProximal convoluted tubule (early pa) reabsorbs almost all of glucose, amino acids, protein, lactate & inorganic phosphate and most (65%) of bicorbonate,Na+,11)0, K+ and CI Q. PCT is also an impoant site for secretion of organic acids and bases such as oxalate, urate, bile salts, H+ and catecholamines, along with toxins, drugs eg penicillin, salicylates and PAH. So its' a work horse of nephronQ. | Physiology | null | Active reabsorption of glucose occurs in the ?
A. Distal tubule
B. Proximal tubule
C. Loop of henle
D. Collecting ducts
| Proximal tubule |
fc5ba7c2-425e-4d0d-81af-67d294537de0 | Oral hypoglycemic agents Enhance insulin secretion Sulfonylureas ( K-ATP channel blockers )I - TolbutamideSafer in elderly & those prone to hypoglycemia, Controls postprandial hyperglycemia II - Glibenclamide, Glipizide, Gliclazide, GlimepiridePotent drugs with lower incidence of hypoglycemic attacks Meglitinide analogues Repaglinide, NateglinideStimulates insulin secretion & limits post prandial hypoglycaemiaGLP-1 receptor agonists Exenatide, Liraglutide Lowers post prandial hypoglycaemia , fasting blood glucose , HbA1c and body weight Produces anorectic effect DPP 4 inhibitors Sitagliptin, Vida gliptin, Saxagliptin, Alogliptin, LinagliptinBoosts postprandial insulin release, decreases glucagon secretion, lowers meal time & fasting blood glucose Overcome insulin resistanceBiguanide ( AMP-K activator )Metformin Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis, enhances insulin-mediated glucose uptake in skeletal muscle & fat, promotes peripheral glucose utilization Thiazolidinediones ( PPARg activator )Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone, Troglitazone Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis, an activator of genes regulating fatty acid metabolism & lipogenesis in adipose tissue, lowers HbA1c and insulin levels Miscellaneous drugsa-glucosidase inhibitors Acarbose , Voglibose , Miglitol Reduces post prandial glycemia , lowers HbA1C levels Amylin analogue Pramlintide Delay gastric emptying, retard glucose absorption & promotes satiety Dopamine D2 receptor agonist Bromocriptine Suppresses glycemic peak, reduce body weight SGLT - 2 inhibitor Dapagliflozin, CanagliflozinProduces round the clock glucosuria, lowers blood glucose levels | Anatomy | All India exam | The antidiabetic drug with anorectic effect is
A. Liraglutide
B. Gliclazide
C. Acarbose
D. Chlorpropamide
| Liraglutide |
89eaf7b4-b904-4924-ab6a-85f62ad5d8f9 | Sho acting steroids - Coisone Hydrocoisone Intermediate acting - Prednisone Prednisolone Triamcinolone Long acting - Dexamethasone Betamethasone Paramethasone | Pharmacology | FMGE 2019 | Shoest acting coicosteroid he following is?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Hydrocoisone
C. Triamcinolone
D. Deflazaco
| Hydrocoisone |
dc7b3d89-508d-48c8-8e62-16e7141d480d | Ans. (c) Gastrin and CCK(Ref: Yamada's Textbook of Gastroenterology,5th ed p.284)Gastrin and CCK deficiencies can cause Gastric mucosal atrophy | Physiology | G.I.T. | A patient who underwent extensive bowel resection is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for 1 month. Endoscopy done after one month reveals diffuse gastric mucosal atrophy. Which enzyme deficiencies are most likely responsible for gastric mucosal atrophy in this patient?
A. Gastrin and ghrelin
B. Secretin and CCK
C. Gastrin and CCK
D. Gastrin and secretin
| Gastrin and CCK |
df6cc889-5f52-491a-b0ec-e704bcf8bedb | Oogenesis Near the time of bih, all primary oocytes have staed prophase of meiosis I, but instead of proceeding into metaphase, they enter the diplotene stage, a resting stage during prophase that is characterized by a lacy network of chromatin Primary oocytes remain in prophase and do not finish their first meiotic division before pubey is reached, apparently because of oocyte maturation inhibitor (OMI), a substance secreted by follicular cells. The total number of primary oocytes at bih is estimated to vary from 700,000 to 2 million. During childhood most oocytes become atretic; only approximately 400,000 are present by the beginning of pubey, and fewer than 500 will be ovulated. Some oocytes that reach maturity late in life have been dormant in the diplotene stage of the first meiotic division for 40 years or more before ovulation. Whether the diplotene stage is the most suitable phase to protect the oocyte against environmental influences is unknown. The fact that the risk of having children with chromosomal abnormalities increases with maternal age indicates that primary oocytes are vulnerable to damage as they age. (Refer: Langman's Medical Embryology, 9th Edition, Chapter. 1, Pg 21 - 22) | Anatomy | All India exam | Oogonia at the time of bih, is present in which of the following stage of meiosis?
A. Prophase 1
B. Metaphase 1
C. Anaphase 1
D. Telophase 1
| Prophase 1 |
575f4d23-4fcc-46b1-8a31-1b4115297c3b | Posterior superficial compartment of leg is devoid of neurovascular bundle | Anatomy | null | Compartment devoid of neurovascular bundle
A. Anterior compartment of leg
B. Posterior deep compartment of leg
C. Posterior superficial compartment of leg
D. Lateral compartment of leg
| Posterior superficial compartment of leg |
54f58f03-ac4b-4aa5-8e4c-bf2073734dd8 | Enzyme InvolvedType Major Signs and SymptomsResults of Laboratory TestsProtoporphyrinogen oxidaseVariegate porphyria (hepatic)Photosensitivity, abdominal pain,neuropsychiatric symptomsUrinary ALA, PBG, and coproporphyrinIII and fecal protoporphyrinIX increasedRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 31 Porphyrins & Bile Pigments | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | Enzyme involved in Variegate porphyria
A. Ferrochelatase
B. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
C. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
D. ALA dehydratase
| Protoporphyrinogen oxidase |
1ae5d699-b3f1-4702-989f-f4f1d51ecf74 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1-5 o The two type of devices used for aerosol therapy are matered-dose inhalers and nebulizer. Both devices provide a range of paicle sizes that includes the desired 1-5 range. | Pharmacology | null | Size of paicle for aerosol therapy/respirable dust is?
A. 0.5-1
B. 5-Jan
C. 10-May
D. 15-Oct
| 5-Jan |
b3ef04ef-7f91-49b8-b77b-58065ca57198 | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Medical etiquettes Medical etiquettesMedical etiquettes : It refers to existing customs of brotherhood among members of medical profession, i.e. couesy followed between members of medical profession, e.g. it is a custom not to charge another doctor or his close relatives. Medical ethicsThe earliest code of medical ethics was Hippocratic oath. It is modified by World Medical Association, and was named as `Declaration of Geneva'; it is followed by MCI as code of medical ethics. | Forensic Medicine | null | Rules followed amongst medical professionals which are mutual ?
A. Medical etiquettes
B. Medical ethics
C. Privileged communication
D. Vicarious responsibility'
| Medical etiquettes |
d5f92859-b0ca-4f89-b98b-781c5a1eb615 | Artemether-lumefantrine
Lumefantrine is an orally active, high efficacy, long-acting erythrocytic schizontocide, related chemically and in mechanism of action to halofantrine and MQ. Like the other schizontocides, vivax hypnozoites are not affected. Lumefantrine is highly lipophilic; absorption starts after 2 hours of ingestion and peaks at 6-8 hours. Antimalarial action is slower than CQ. Plasma protein binding is 99%, and it is metabolized predominantly by CYP3A4. Terminal t½ is 2- 3 days, which is prolonged to 4 -6 days in malaria patients.
Lumefantrine is used only in combination with artemether, as FDC tablets. The two components protect each other from plasmodial resistance.
As such, no clinically relevant resistance has developed so far. Clinical efficacy is high achieving 95- 99% cure rate. Artemether-lumefantrine is active even in multidrug resistant Plasmodium falciparum areas, including MQ-resistant.
Key Concept:
Artemisinin derivatives like dihydroartemisinin, arteether and artemether, etc., are fastest acting antimalarial drugs.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 889
| Pharmacology | null | The fastest acting schizonticidal drug among the following is:
A. Artemether
B. Mefloquine
C. Chloroquine
D. Proguanil
| Artemether |
668eedaf-9165-4f2e-b86e-e9973eb8727e | Merciful anosmia is seen in atrophic rhinitis(Ozaena). There is foul smell from the nose, but the patient himself is unaware of smell due to marked anosmia due to degenerative changes Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 173. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Merciful anosmia is seen in
A. Nasal polyp
B. Atrophic rhinitis
C. Rhinosporidiosis
D. Rhinoscleroma
| Atrophic rhinitis |
fc5e8494-369c-4353-b1f8-b1b01f1e93dd | Adson's test is used for determining vascular insufficiency due to Cervical rib. | Surgery | Aerial disorders | Adson's test is used for determining vascular insufficiency. It is useful in:-
A. Peripheral vascular disease
B. Varicose veins
C. Cervical rib
D. AV fistula
| Cervical rib |
551419bc-ddb4-43f7-8d39-f4ba6c6daefe | Pectoralis major muscle is typically classified as a spiral Muscle. Muscles with spiral or twisted fasciculi are found in Trapezius, Pectoralis major, Latissimus dorsi, and supinator. Spiral or Twisted: The muscle fibers undergo a twist of approximately 180 degrees between their medial and lateral attachement. Spiral or Twisted Muscle: Pectoralis major Latissimus dorsi Trapezius Supinator Some skeletal muscles may be classified into more than one category. Pectoralis Major muscle has been classified both as convergent (or Triangular muscle) and Spiral Muscle in different textbooks. Note that Pectoralis major has been classified as &;Spiral &; in Gray&;s text and hence this has been selected as the single best answer of choice for this question. Convergent may be selected as the correct answer if spiral is not provided amongst the options. Ref: Gray&;s anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 113 | Anatomy | Upper limb | The pectoralis major is classifies as a
A. Spiral Muscle
B. Cruciate muscle
C. Fusiform muscle
D. Bipennate Muscle
| Spiral Muscle |
773b5d6e-e653-4b10-9d6c-cdc05b9aa06e | Vitamins are organic molecules that function in a wide variety of capacities within the body. The most prominent function of the vitamins is to serve as cofactors (co-enzymes) for enzymatic reactions. The distinguishing feature of the vitamins is that they generally cannot be synthesized by mammalian cells and, therefore, must be supplied in the diet. The vitamins are of two distinct types, water soluble and fat soluble Alpha-lipoic acid, LA, (chemical name: 1,2-dithiolane-3-pentanoic acid; also known as thioctic acid), is a naturally occurring dithiol compound synthesized enzymatically in the mitochondrion from the medium-chain fatty acid octanoic acid. Because LA can be synthesized in the body it is not technically considered a vitamin but because of its vital role in overall cellular metabolism, it is considered as an impoant, but not necessary, dietary supplement. Given that LA is a necessary cofactor for mitochondrial a-ketoacid dehydrogenases, it thus serves a critical role in mitochondrial energy metabolism. In addition to de novo synthesis, LA is also absorbed intact from dietary sources, and it transiently accumulates in many tissues | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Non-vitamin coenzyme is
A. Lipoic acid
B. CoA
C. S-adenosyl methionine
D. Niacin
| Lipoic acid |
e5693c3d-9d58-43f3-a76f-4f97188c6aba | Lymphatics from glans penis, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra and superficial inguinal nodes drains into deep inguinal lymph nodes. Ref: Grant's Atlas of Anatomy By A M R Agur, 13th Edition, Page 233 | Anatomy | null | Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into which of the following lymph nodes:
A. Sacral nodes
B. Deep inguinal nodes
C. Internal inguinal nodes
D. Superficial inguinal nodes
| Deep inguinal nodes |
dc386be2-36fe-470c-9e93-74170ae833ee | Pigbel is caused by by Clostridium perfringens. C. perfringens produces clinical syndromes as follows: a) Necrotizing enteritis/Pigbel Due to contaminated meat products. Incubation Period- 8-24 hrs. Involves Heat labile enterotoxin but spores are heat resistant. (b) Food poisoning (c) Soft tissue infections (d) Septicemia NOTE Clostridium perfringens causes stormy fermentation of lactose in litmus milk | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli) | Pigbel is caused by:
A. Echinococcus
B. T. saginata
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium tetani
| Clostridium perfringens |
7b355652-65fa-49bb-814b-b80060654dfa | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa H. pylori, though initially infects the gastric mucosa only, may later on infect the duodenal mucosa. the process is as follows : Infection of gastric mucosa leads to hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion. Acid hypersecretion leads to metaplasia in the duodenal mucosa. "This duodenal metaplasia allows H. pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and in these patients, the risk of developing a duodenal ulcer increases 50 fold" - Schwaz | Surgery | null | H pylori -
A. Gram - ye nonflagellate spiral organism
B. Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa
C. Does not infect duodenal mucosa
D. Antibiotics not effective
| Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa |
16d33309-63c0-49b6-b4eb-cb18c78929a4 | Painful red eye with diminution of vision along with evidence of aqueous flare, hypopyon and loss of normal red reflex, three days after cataract surgery suggests a diagnosis of Acute Postoperative Endophthalmitis. | Ophthalmology | null | A 60–year old diabetic patient has an uneventful phacoemulsification with IOL implantation. He presented with pain, diminished vision, redness, watering and a greyish yellow pupillary reflex on the third postoperative day. Examination revealed circumcorneal congestion, aqueous cells 4+, hypopyon in the anterior chamber with posterior synechiae and retrolental flare. The most likely diagnosis is –
A. Keratitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Endophthalmitis
D. Postoperative cyclitis
| Endophthalmitis |
ea32a776-76f9-4b5f-b44a-fcbe94b16fc6 | The endometrial lining of the uterus is called decidua during pregnancy, If there is feilization and pregnancy occurs, the decidua differentiated intoDecidua basalis - becomes the maternal poion of the placentaDecidua - capsularis - the thin layer covering the ovumDecidua vera or parietalis - which is the rest of the decidua lining the uterine cavity outside the site of implantation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | An ectopic pregnancy is shed as
A. Decidua vera
B. Decidua basalis
C. Decidua capsularis
D. Decidua rubra
| Decidua vera |
31611265-c0ab-43e0-8240-9ea9dcb1a94c | Mean of daily rate of enamel formation – 3.5µm/day to 4µm/day
So to form 1mm thickness total approximately 240 days needed. | Dental | null | How many days took to form 1mm layer of enamel:
A. 90 days.
B. 140 days.
C. 240 days.
D. 180 days.
| 240 days. |
dd65a265-9e6f-43fd-92da-1ccc13ebb5d1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type -1 hypersensitivity HypersensitivityType I (IgE mediated)Type II (IgG IgM and complement mediated)o Eczemao Blood transfusion reactionso Hay fevero Erythroblastosis fetaliso Asthmao Autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia or agmulocytosiso Atopyo Pemphigus vulgariso Urticariao Good pasture syndromeo Anaphylactic shocko Bullous pemphigoido Acute dermatitiso Pernicious anemiao Theobald smith phenomenono Acute rheumatic fevero Prausnitz Kusnter (PK) reactiono Diabetes mellituso Casonistesto Graves diseaseo Schultz-Dale phenomenono Myasthenia gravisType III (IgG IeM. complement and leucocyte mediated)Tvpe IV (Cell mediated)o Local-Arthus reactiono Tuberculin testo Systemic-serum sicknesso Lepromin testo Schick testo Sarcoidosiso Polyarteritis nodosa (PANo Tuberculosiso Rheumatoid arthritiso Contact dermatitiso SLEo Granulomatous inflammationo Acute viral hepatitiso Type I lepra reactiono Penicillamine toxicityo Patch testo Hyperacute graft rejectiono Temporal arteritiso Type 2 lepra reaction (ENL)o Jones mote reaction (cutaneous basophilic HSN)o Hypersensitivity pneumonitiso Graft rejectiono R.Ao Fairleys testo Infective endocarditiso Frie's testo Henoch schonlein purpura o Glomerulonephritis | Pathology | Hypersensitivity Reactions: Immune-Mediated Injury | Asthma is which type of hypersensitivity?
A. Type -1 hypersensitivity
B. Type -2 hypersensitivity
C. Type -3 hypersensitivity
D. Type -4 hypersensitivity
| Type -1 hypersensitivity |
c4946dde-f87a-4d98-80fd-c42f99f79648 | The designation "thymoma" is restricted to tumors of thymic epithelial cells. Such tumors typically also contain benign immature T cells. The tumors usually occur in adults older than 40 years of age; thymomas are rare in children. Males and females are affected equally. Most arise in the anterior superior mediastinum, but sometimes they occur in the neck, thyroid, pulmonary hilus, or elsewhere. | Pathology | FMGE 2019 | Most common anterior mediastinal tumour?
A. Thymoma
B. Neurofibroma
C. Pericardial cyst
D. Bronchogenic cyst
| Thymoma |
93e7eecd-c5c0-4d02-bf94-1a07a3db34b4 | o Multiple endocrine neoplasia involves RET protooncogene (not tumor suppressor gene). | Biochemistry | null | Tumor suppressor gene is not involved in ?
A. Breast cancers
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Multiple endocrine neoplasia
D. Retinoblastoma
| Multiple endocrine neoplasia |
42982222-1122-4b31-b8ad-d303c5125f74 | Clinical Features Acute Poisoning Ingestion: * Metallic taste,* Increased salivation * Colicky abdominal pain * Nausea and vomiting. Vomitus is bluish or greenish in color * Diarrhea * Myalgia * Pancreatitis * Methemoglobinemia * Hemolysis * Jaundice * Oliguria and renal failure * Convulsions * Delirium * Coma. Inhalation of Copper Fumes or Dust Causes * Respiratory tract irritation * Cough * Conjunctivitis * Metal fume fever. Chronic Poisoning * Abdominal pain * Greenish line on dental margins of gum (Clapton's line) * Vineyard Sprayer's lung disease: Copper sulphate is used as an insecticide spray in vineyards. During spraying, chronic inhalation of copper sulphate causes this disease. * Greenish hair discolouration * Wilson's disease. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 309 | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | A person was found dead with bluish green frothy discharge at the angle of mouth and nostrils. What is the diagnosis?
A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Copper poisoning
C. Mercury poisoning
D. Lead poisoning
| Copper poisoning |
3cbc68e7-f27c-4339-aa66-0e9fbb8db491 | (B) Hepatitis B # Genome of HBV is made of circular DNA, but it is unusual because the DNA is not fully double-stranded.> One end of the full length strand is linked to the viral DNA polymerase.> The genome is 3020-3320 nucleotides long. | Microbiology | Misc. | Near double stranded DNA among the following
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
| Hepatitis B |
3a938ac1-5eed-45cb-8e4b-23891900a986 | Helicases are enzymes that bind and may even remodel nucleic acid or nucleic acid-protein complexes. There are DNA and RNA helicases. DNA helicases are essential during DNA replication because they separate double-stranded DNA into single strands allowing each strand to be copied Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e p401 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Which of the following enzymes unwind DNA?
A. Ligase
B. DNA primase
C. Helicase
D. DNA polymerase
| Helicase |
cadaed76-a710-49b5-a37d-abc7248ca2cf | Clinical features of trachoma - Lacrimation Photophobia Red eyes Hall mark - Sago grain follicles Herbe's pits seen Arlt's line on upper palpebral conjunctiva seen - sub conjunctival line of fibrosis Arlt's triangle seen in anterior uveitis - lower 1.3rd of the corneal endothelium where Keratic Precipitates settle due to the normal aqueous flow dynamics Pannus seen (nonspecific sign) Chalazion are not associated with trachoma- chronic inflammatory granuloma of the meibomian gland Seen in people with Oily skin Ocular rosacea | Ophthalmology | FMGE 2018 | NOT a feature of trachoma:
A. Corneal opacity
B. Chalazion
C. Entropion
D. Herbe's pits
| Chalazion |
d6ff563c-5f17-4d39-9def-b1f672e809f6 | Duodenum [Ref Robbins 7/e p819; Curling's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum described in 1842 by Curling as a complication of burns. Cushing's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of stomach, duodenum and esophagus seen in intracranial injury, operations or tumor. | Anaesthesia | null | Most common site of Curling's ulcer
A. Ileum
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Esophagus
| Duodenum |
234d09c6-ba3b-471e-9c19-af7e575b2381 | Because the sub- pubic angle is about 60deg and the pelvic brim is hea shaped, you are look ing at a male. The bones of the pelvis arise from three different centers of ossification and generally fuse together at about pubey through the twenty-third year, thus you know you have to be looking at a 14-year-old male, not a 3-year-old or an 80-year- old male. | Surgery | null | Parts of some human skeletal remains are brought to you. The pelvis is complete, yet the individual bones of the pelvis, the ilium, ischium, and pubis have just staed to fuse together. The subpubic angle you estimate at 60deg and the pelvic brim has a distinctive hea shaped appeareance. On the basis of this information, you guess the remains are of which of the following?
A. 3-year-old female
B. 4-year-old male
C. 14-year-old male
D. 30-year-old female
| 14-year-old male |
344c4767-4ee1-4ab1-a7f0-090cdc83730e | Ans. D: Diabetic nephropathy The constellation of renal changes attributed to Diabetes mellitus are- Armanni-Ebstein lesion, aerionephrosclerosis, aeriolonephrosclerosis, chronic interstitial nephritis, diabetic glomerulosclerosis, fatty changes in renal tubules, glomerulonephritis, Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease--focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis, nephrotic syndrome, papillary necrosis, and pyelonephritis. | Medicine | null | Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for: September 2009
A. Antiphospholipid syndrome
B. Goodpasture's syndrome
C. Renal amyloidosis
D. Diabetic nephropathy
| Diabetic nephropathy |
4e702680-fb68-4328-a0c0-3c071931c65f | Answer is 'a' i.e. Meconeum ileus In meconium ileus meconium is so thick that it is unable to form air-fluid level desptie complete small intestinal obstruction (Note the multiple air-fluid level is a feature of mechanical small bowel obstruction & paralytic ileus). | Surgery | null | Fluid levels are not visible in -
A. Meconeum ileus
B. Intussusception
C. Colon pouch
D. Duodenal obstruction
| Meconeum ileus |
42208db7-4760-48c8-b07a-7e60c1e364db | Ans. (a) Cystic hygroma.* Cystic hygroma is a form of Lymphangioma caused by benign aberrant development of lymphatics and presents at birth with airway obstruction.* Imaging with USG, CT scan or MRI can identify the extent of lesion and surgery is required. (EXIT Procedure). Doxycycline, ethanol and sildenafil are Sclerosants and sclerotherapy can be done.* Sternocleidomastoid tumor is seen after a traumatic birth and leads to lump in neck with torticollis.* Brachial cyst is small and located on anterior border of sternocleidomastoid and does not cause respiratory compromise.Image source. style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0"> | Pediatrics | Miscellaneous | A neonate with doughy soft lump in neck causing distortion of face and audible grunt. Diagnosis is:
A. Cystic hygroma
B. Brachial cyst
C. Sternocleidomastoid Tumor
D. Birth injury
| Cystic hygroma |
3afb23ab-3857-4201-b203-a28ed72b4baa | Ans. (a) SteroidsRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition page 724Medical Treatment of ITP* The treatment of choice is medical- oral prednisolone 1mg/kgproduces dramatic response in 50-70% cases.* Intravenous immunoglobin is indicated for internal bleeding.Refractory ITP* Failure of initial therapy mentioned above.* Rituximab given IV* Thromboplastin Receptor antagonists - Eltrombopag and RomiplostimSplenectomy* Most common indication for elective splenectomy* For patients with low platelet count should have platelets available at surgery but should be infused only after ligating the pedicle.* Should not be given preoperatively | Surgery | Spleen | What is the treatment of Choice for Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
A. Blood transfusion
B. Steroids
C. IV immunoglobin
D. Splenectomy
| Blood transfusion |
a3f5bb6c-0e31-41ec-a2db-fd23b80bd585 | Tear Film break-up time:
It is the interval between a complete blink and appearance of first randomly disributed dry spot on the cornea.
Normal value - 15-35 seconds. | Ophthalmology | null | Normal value of tear film break-up time
A. 5-10 seconds
B. 10-15 seconds
C. 15-30 seconds
D. > 35 seconds
| 15-30 seconds |
c7139a9d-35f3-4083-a34b-c2afeb2d5b60 | Neoplastic cells in Paget's disease of mammary glands express markers CEA, CK 7 and GCDFP 15. The neoplastic cells also express androgen receptors and HER2/neu. Paget's disease of the nipple is a superficial manifestation of an underlying breast carcinoma. In most cases tumor cells have spread to the skin of the nipple and areola from underlying invasive ductal carcinoma or ductal carcinoma in situ. Ref: Harrison's Principles Of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 439, 563; Skin Cancer - A World-Wide Perspective By Reinhard Dummer, page 129; Bailey and Love's Sho practice of surgery 24th edition , page 837. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is a maker of Paget's disease of the mammary gland?
A. CEA
B. S- 100
C. HMB 45
D. Neuron specific enolase
| CEA |
49f1e397-4d3e-404c-bdb0-b570b2155938 | Ans: D i.e. Toes Rigor mois first appears in the involuntary muscles; the myocardium. It begins in eyelids, neck and lower jaw and passes upwards to the muscle of the face, and downwards to the muscles of the chest, upper limbs, abdomen and lower limbs and lastly in the finger and toes | Forensic Medicine | null | Rigor mois appears last in: March 2012
A. Eyelids
B. Neck
C. Lower limb
D. Toes
| Toes |
9289f230-4d28-4346-876b-6e623410f295 | (Liver) (37-Ganong 23rd), Centrioles in hepatocytes cellular and molecular life sciences vol-24, Number 11, 1157-59, DOI 10; 1007/BFO 214785Centrioles which are small cytoplasmic bodies of about 150-200 nm in diameter and 300-350 nm in length concerned with organization in the spindle during cell division have rarely been reported in adult mammalian liver cellsCENTROSOMES - Near the nucleus in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic aniimal cells is a centrosome. The centrosome is made up of two centrioles and surrounding amorphous pericentriolar material* The centrosomes are microtubule - organizing centers (MTOCs) that contain y- tubulin* Centrioles are responsible for the movement of chromosomes during cell divisions (10.K. Sembulingum 5th)* If there is no centriol in the cell, the cell cannot divide. Neurons of postnatal life have no centrioles hence they cannot divide; hence in the post natal life no new neuron formation can occur. But throughout life, death of individuals neurons continue Hence in old age, there is considerable loss of brain mater (8- S.K chaudhari 6th) | Physiology | General | Centriole is absent in
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Intestine
D. Kidney
| Liver |
2eede6c8-bf32-4f85-9cd5-723404e27538 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propylthiouracil * Propylthiouracil is the DOC for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Methimazole and carbimazole used in early pregnancy have been associated with esophageal and choanal atresia, aplasia cutis, and fetal agranulocytosis.* Graves' disease is the MC cause of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Hashimoto's thyroiditis is the MC cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy.* Complications associated with both hypo- and hyperthyroidism in pregnancy:1) Recurrent first trimester abortions2) IUGR3) Increased risk of preeclampsia4) Abruption5) Stillbirths, hydrop fetalis6) Preterm labor* Hypothyroidism is also associated with cretinism. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | In a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism , the safest drug to be used is -
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Lugols Iodine
| Propylthiouracil |
a99f0d08-428c-4e26-afb7-f0e30da48953 | Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is a human infection caused by a papova virus. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition. | Microbiology | Virology | Which of the following is not a prion disease
A. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
B. Transmissible mink encephalopathy
C. Scrapie
D. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
| Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy |
4df6a161-3784-403d-87f7-82e37f08738c | Role of Chemotherapy in Epithelial ovarian tumors | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Chemotherapeutic drug effective in the treatment of epithelial ovarian cancer is:a) Carboplatinb) Paclitaxelc) Cyclophosphamided) Methotrexate karnatka
A. ac
B. a
C. ab
D. bc
| ab |
81efd66d-cbaa-45e8-a44d-1bf0d3c08c0b | Answer C. Herpes zosterThe results of a scraping from the base of several vesicles were positive for the varicella-zoster virus. The lesions resolved within 2 weeks of treatment with acyclovir. Herpes zoster is unusual in persons younger than 10 years of age, and when it does occur in this age group, the lesions have a predilection for dermatomes supplied by the cervical and sacral nerves. | Medicine | Infection | What is the most likely diagnosis for this 19-month-old girl who presented with a 1-week history of an ascending erythematous eruption?
A. Cellulitis
B. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
C. Herpes zoster
D. Lymphadenitis
| Herpes zoster |
8bb1ad2d-37ce-4732-bab5-ebd44c6ec59f | The axons of purkinje cells are the only output through cerebellar cortex.
However, it should be kept in mind that the output from the cerebellum is through deep nuclei, purkinje cells axons generally pass to deep nuclei. | Anatomy | null | Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell -
A. Golgi cells
B. Basket cells
C. Purkinje cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
| Purkinje cells |
3e115372-d73e-4606-a2e5-8041beceb76b | ANSWER: (A) Acute pancreatitis has reversible changesREF: Harrison's 18th ed chapter 313Chronic pancreatitis is a disease process characterized by irreversible damage to the pancreas as distinct from the reversible changes noted in acute pancreatitis. The condition is best defined by the presence of histologic abnormalities, including chronic inflammation, fibrosis, and progressive destruction of both exocrine and eventually endocrine tissueAlcohol is implicated in both acute and chronic pancreatitis and both can occur in young adults. | Surgery | Pathophysiology - Acute Pancreatitis | Difference between acute and chronic pancreatitis is?
A. Acute pancreatitis has reversible changes
B. Alcohol causes only acute pancreatitis
C. Chronic pancreatitis shows no signs of inflammation]
D. Acute pancreatitis affects mainly younger population
| Acute pancreatitis has reversible changes |
9f78a3cf-c64c-461c-908c-bbfe5f885174 | Tinea incognito- coicosteroid modified tinea. Clinical features: topical coicosteroids will suppress the inflammation , less visible lesions. Raised margins will be diminished scaling is lost and inflammation is reduced. Concentric rings with steroid induced erythema , atrophy telengiectasia are seen . Iadvl textbook of dermatology page 271 | Dental | Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis | Tinea incognito is seen with -
A. Steroid treatment
B. 1% BHi3
C. 5% permethrin
D. Antibiotics
| Steroid treatment |
1a122417-34c3-4c3e-9642-962cac2702d8 | (D) Systematic desensitisation # SSRIs are drug of choice. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline have been approved for OCD# Antidepressants: Some patients may improve dramatically with specific serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Clomipramine (75-300 mg/day), a non specific serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI), is the first drug used effectively in the treatment of OCD. The response is better in presence of depression, but many patients with pure OCD also improve substantially. Fluoxetine (20-80 mg/day) is a good alternative to clomipramine. Fluvoxamine (50-200 mg/day) is marketed as a specific anti-obsessional drug, while paroxetine (20-40 mg/day), and sertraline (50-200 mg/day) are also effective in some patients.> Antipsychotics: These are occasionally used in low doses (e.g. haloperidol, risperidone, olanzapine, pimozide) in the treatment of severe, disabling anxiety.> Buspirone has also been used beneficially as an adjunct for augmentation in some patients.# Second line drugs include> Valproate, lithium, or carbamazepine, venlafaxine, pindolol, & MAO inhibitors esp phenelzine, buspirone, 5 -hydroxy tryptamine (5-HT), L- tryptophan, & clonazepam.MANAGEMENT OF OCDBehavior therapyPharmacotherapyIs treatment of choiceSSRIs are drug of choice. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline have been approved for OCDIncludes: Exposure and response prevention, desensitization, thought stopping, flooding implosion therapy and aversion conditioning.Clomipramine: of all the tricyclic and tetracyclic drugs, clomipramine is the most selective for serotonin reuptake exceeded in this respect only by SSRI> People with OCD who fear dirt and germs are encouraged to get their hands dirty and wait increasing amounts of time before washing them.> The therapist helps the person cope with the anxiety that waiting produces; after the exercise has been repeated a number of times, the anxiety diminishes.> Systematic desensitization techniques involve gradually exposing the client to ever-increasing anxiety-provoking stimuli.> It is important to note here, though, that such a technique should not be attempted until the client has successfully learned re- laxation skills and can demonstrate their use to the therapist.> Exposing a patient to either of these techniques without increased coping skills can result in relapse and possible harm to the client | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Which of the following will be LEAST useful in treating Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
A. Clomipramine
B. SSRI's
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy
D. Systematic desensitisation
| Systematic desensitisation |
266c0685-8f9e-4763-9f91-cddfbb7f7cc9 | Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of inspiratory stridor in neonates. The stridor in case of laryngomalacia is not constantly present, rather it is intermittent. So laryngomalacia is also the M/C cause of intermittent stridor in neonates. | ENT | null | MC cause of intermittent stridor in a 10-day-old child sholy after bih is:
A. Laryngomalacia
B. Foreign body
C. Vocal nodule
D. Hyperophy of turbinate
| Laryngomalacia |
6b3e23b9-f6c3-4df0-87e2-f42c7bd90f4f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lundy Term 'balanced anaesthesia' was introduced by Lundy in 1926. Balanced anaesthesia The cardinal feature of general anaesthetics are : ? Loss of all sensations, especially pain Sleep (unconciousness) and amnesia Immobility and muscle relaxation Abolition of reflexes In modern practice of balanced anaesthesia these modalities are achieved by using combination of inhaled and iv.drugs. | Anaesthesia | null | The term "balanced anaesthesia" has been given by?
A. Simpson
B. Fischer
C. Lundy
D. Moan
| Lundy |
4688afb9-1453-40b5-bcad-7f29455fcce4 | The dental lamina serves as the primordium of ectodermal portion of deciduous teeth. The permanent molars arise directly from a distal extension of dental lamina. | Dental | null | In considering the process of eruption, the pre-functional eruptive stage of a tooth begins when the:
A. Bud stage begins
B. Cap stage begins
C. Bell stage begins
D. Dental lamina begins forming
| Dental lamina begins forming |
1bd6357e-9075-4c38-9338-fe3757ad2b08 | Ans. C: Buerger's disease Risks for superficial thrombophlebitis include: Chemical irritation of the area Disorders that involve increased blood clotting Infection Pregnancy Sitting or staying still for a prolonged period Use of bih control pills Varicose veins Superficial thrombophlebitis may be associated with: Abdominal cancers (such as pancreatic cancer) Deep vein thrombosis Factor V Leiden Prothrombin gene mutation Thromboangiitis obliterans | Surgery | null | Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in: March 2005
A. AV fistula
B. Raynaud's disease
C. Buerger's disease
D. Aneurysm
| Buerger's disease |
18c14d87-6efb-4ecc-9ac7-fe1db2f0a41b | In Moschcowitz repair, several purse string sutures staing from below are used to obliterate the cul-de-sac of the pouch of Douglas. Care should be taken not to include the ureter in the stitch. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology,18th edition, p342. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | Moschcowitz repair is done for
A. Vault prolapse
B. Enterocoele
C. Chronic inversion of uterus
D. Adenomyosis
| Enterocoele |
6a697011-88fa-4273-880a-fdd9d28f4771 | Ans. b. Azygous, inferior thyroid and left gastric veins | Anatomy | null | Venous drainage of esophagus is into the:
A. Azygous and inferior thyroid veins
B. Azygous, inferior thyroid and left gastric veins
C. Azygous, inferior thyroid and right gastric veins
D. Superior thyroid, inferior thyroid veins, azygous and hemi-azygous veins
| Azygous, inferior thyroid and left gastric veins |
33fcddc1-0637-4b7c-8e97-11509e58c8ca | 800-m run would be over in about 2 min, and it would need a quick burst of activity of the muscle rather than a slow and sustained activity for prolonged periods. Option A: Oxidative phosphorylation generates ATPs in a slow and sustained manner for a low-intensity muscular activity that continues for prolonged periods (e.g., marathon). It will be the least useful of the energy systems for a sho-time event like 800-m run. Option C: LOHMANN REACTION: CREATINE PHOSPHATE - ADP - ATP - UTILIZED For such sho-duration intense muscular activity, pale fibers are more useful as they generate quick ATPs anaerobic glycolysis, using muscle glycogen as the source. Thus, options B and D are useful. | Physiology | Muscle | Least useful for a 800-m run in a competitive event would be
A. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Pale muscle fibres
C. Lohmann reaction
D. Muscle glycogen
| Oxidative phosphorylation |
4fa6d10b-88db-48f0-bca6-d3ae9bbb9b70 | Ans:C- Increases appetiteMarijuana or cannabis sativa contains the active principle tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), which has an appetite stimulant effect.While marijuana derivatives do not appear to reverse cachexia, they could potentially form pa of a combination treatment for wasting.For example, cannabinoid drugs might be used to boost patients' food consumption while they undergo physical therapy or take medications designed to increase the propoion of lean tissues in their bodies. | Psychiatry | null | Role of marijuana in AIDS-related cachexia?
A. Euphoric
B. Psychostimulator
C. Increases appetite
D. Decrease emetic feeling
| Increases appetite |
74773879-f784-47eb-aa88-4a61a52f592a | Amifostine:It is used as a cytoprotectant(Radioprotectant) in anticancer chemotherapy.Ref: Sharma and Sharma 3rd ed/pg 877 | Pharmacology | Antibiotics | Cytoprotectant among the following is
A. Minocycline
B. Oxytetracycline
C. Amifostine
D. Doxycycline
| Amifostine |
1af0b2c9-6a1a-4b69-a142-3a190a095b1d | B. i.e. (Carbon - dioxide) (560 - Dutta 4th) (217- Shaw's 14th)* Pneumoperitoneum - Most commonly used gas is carbon dioxide (1L - 4L)* For diagnostic purposes nitous oxide or room air or oxygen can be used* CO2 is safer than air and nitrous oxide which can cause air embolism and accidental explosion respectively* The flow rate of the gas is about 1 L/minutc with a pressure not exceeding 20 mm HgCONTRAINDICATIONS OF LAPAROSCOPY* Severe cardiopulmonary disease* Extensive peritoneal adhesion* Patient haemodynamically unstable* Large pelvic tumour* Generalized peritonitis* Pregnancy > 16 weeks* Significant haemoperitoneum* Previous periumbilical surgery (relative)* Intestinal obstruction* Extreme obesity | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Most commonly gas used in Laparoscopy is
A. Oxygen
B. Carbondioxide
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Room air
| Carbondioxide |
a3273a33-bae8-4cc0-99b6-bfbb7416921a | Ceramide is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum from the amino acid serine. Ceramide is an impoant second messenger regulating pathways such as apoptosis, cell cycle, cell differentiation and senescence. Sphingomyelins are formed when ceramide reacts with phosphatidylcholine to form sphingomyelin plus diacylglycerol. It occurs mainly in the golgi apparatus and to lesser extend in the plasma membrane. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 24. Metabolism of Acylglycerols & Sphingolipids. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following amino acid is involved in the synthesis of ceramide?
A. Serine
B. Tyrosine
C. Arginine
D. Threonine
| Serine |
00403daa-2518-42a1-b213-39faa13b6144 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Suxamethonium Suxamethonium (succinylcholine) is the shoest acting skeletal muscle relaxant. o Mivacurium is the shoest acting nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant. | Pharmacology | null | Shoest acting skeletal muscle relaxant is ?
A. Suxamethonium
B. Mivacurium
C. Pancuronium
D. Vecuronium
| Suxamethonium |
c59e1644-9f27-4248-8ad7-ae167e62cb44 | Rifampicin is not used in the management of lepra reaction. Reversal reaction, or lepra type 1 reaction, is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction that arises when borderline leprosy shifts toward borderline lepromatous leprosy with treatment. The reaction is characterized by edema and erythema of existing skin lesions, formation of new skin lesions, neuritis, and additional sensory and motor loss. Treatment includes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and high-dose steroids. Erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL), also known as lepra type 2 reaction, is a complication of lepromatous leprosy. It is characterized by the development of inflamed subcutaneous nodules accompanied at times by fever, lymphadenopathy, and ahralgias. Treatment includes prednisolone, clofazimine, thalidomide, or chloroquine. | Medicine | null | Which of the following drug is not used in the management of lepra reaction?
A. Chloroquine
B. Rifampicin
C. Clofazimine
D. Thalidomide
| Rifampicin |
8c79bc07-60d8-415c-8595-b24fbb91aa5a | The information in this question are:-
Patient is alcoholic and diabetic (both are risk factors for Dupuytren's contracture).
Flexion deformity at MCP joint of little finger.
Patient is old (65 years).
The Diagnosis is Dupuytren's contracture.
The only effective treatment is by operation; however, operation is not necessary in every case; a contracture that is not progressing rapidly is often better left alone, especially in an elderly patient.
Primary indication for surgery is fixed contracture of > 30° at metacarpophalangeal joint or > 15° at proximal interphalangeal joint. | Orthopaedics | null | A-65 years alcoholic suffering from diabetes has a flexion deformity at the right little finger over the metacarpophalangeal joint of around 15 degrees. The ideal management for him would be -
A. Observation
B. Percutaneous fasciotomy
C. Subtotal fasciectomy
D. Total fasciectomy
| Observation |
51b38807-1dfa-4b22-acaa-e58fd6123c0a | Cytogenetic abnormalities in the tumor cells of Burkitt&;s lymphoma is t (8;14) ,and t (8;22) involving MYC gene on chromosome 8 witho overexpression of MYC protein having transforming activity. Reference textbook of Pathology 6th edition Author Harsha Mohan page number 378 | Pathology | Haematology | Burkitts lymphoma shows which translocation-
A. t (8-14)
B. t (11-14)
C. t(14-18)
D. t (14-21)
| t (8-14) |
3eb07ed5-34fb-424e-a21a-0a06437d9725 | *Frieberg's disease is osteochondritis of 2nd metatarsal head. Ref: Appley's 9th/e p.723 | Anatomy | null | Frieberg's disease involve -
A. Tibial tuberosity
B. Calcaneal tuberosity
C. 2nd metatarsal
D. 5th metarasal
| 2nd metatarsal |
ba0a5e39-38ce-4ab6-81f6-43ed1f44b192 | Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition, Pages 39, 40 Explanation: Preventing childhood obesity becomes primordial prevention for most of the non-communicable diseases. This is because the risk factor for other diseases is prevented, which means primordial prevention. Level of prevention Phase of disease Interventions Examples Primordial Prevention of risk factors Health education * School health education Health promotion * Lite style modification * Stop smoking * Stop alcoholism Primary Prevention of disease * Chemoprophylaxis * Condom usage * Wearing helmet * Seat belt Specific protection Secondary Prevention of spread of disease and complications Early diagnosis and prompt treatment * Screening lor any disease * Two weeks cough with sputum in ease of tuberculosis * Any fever case treated as malaria * MCR slipper in diabetes before complication Tertiary Limiting the occurred complication and rehabilitation Disability limitation * Appropriate tool cure in diabetes and leprosy Rehabilitation * Artificial limbafter road traffic accidents | Unknown | null | Childhood-obesity prevention is an example of which of the following types of prevention? (E. REPEAT 2007)
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
| Primordial |
10c7736d-38ba-4509-b9c0-e0fe9e5aa0a5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ext. rotation, abduction, flexion Anterior dislocation of hipo Anterior dislocation of the hip is much less common than posterior dislocation. Indeed, it is a very uncommon injury.o It is caused by forced abduction and lateral (external) rotation of hip, usually in a violent injury such as a motor accident on aircraft crash.o Clinically, the limb is in marked external (lateral) rotation, flexion and abduction.o There may be apparent lengthening due to abduction deformity,o Closed reduction under anaesthesia is the treatment of choice,o Complications are avascular necrosis, and secondary osteoarthritis. | Orthopaedics | Congenital Dislocation of Hip (C.D.H.) | Deformity in anterior dislocation of hip is -
A. Ext. rotation, abduction, flexion
B. Ext. rotation, adduction, flexion
C. Int. rotation, abduction, flexion
D. Int. rotation, adduction, flexion
| Ext. rotation, abduction, flexion |
6ecf1028-787b-47a7-a010-a6b525dc5858 | Granuloma formation is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by helper T cells. This reaction is similar to caseating granuloma formation in TB Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.: 56 | Pathology | General pathology | Epithelial granuloma is caused by -
A. Neutrophil
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Helper T cells
D. NK cells
| Helper T cells |
c0d35225-3d34-4216-877d-17cc7639cb0d | Ans. (b) DuloxetineRef: Harrison 18/e, chapter 384 | Medicine | Endocrinology | First line drug used for painful diabetic neuropathy is?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Duloxetine
C. Venlafaxine
D. EMLA
| Duloxetine |
a7599647-04f2-4e3f-82fa-bc3fc723a427 | Heme is synthesized in the mitochondria. Staing substances required in the synthesis of heme are succinyl CoA and glycine. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for activation of glycine. Globin the protein pa of hemoglobin is synthesized in ribosomes. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is required in the initial stage of the synthesis of haemoglobin?
A. Glycine
B. Histidine
C. Iron
D. Folic acid
| Glycine |
24a7b961-0023-4e7e-9c9f-89996f746d76 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Carbohydrate intolerance Adverse effects of OCPs c Nausea, vomiting, headache (migraine may be worsened). o Breakthrough bleeding or spotting, Amenorrhoea o Breast discomfo (mastalgia) o Weight gain, acne and increased body hair. o Cholasma, pruritus vulvae o Carbohydrate intolerance o Mood swing, abdominal distention (especially with minipill). o Leg vein and pulmonary thrombosis. Coronary & cerebral thrombosis --> MI, stroke u Estrogen component is responsible for venous thromboembolism. Both estrogen and progesterone are responsible for the aerial phenomena. o Mechanisms involved may be ? I. Increase in the blood clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) Decrease antithrombin III and plasminogen activator. Increased platelet aggregation. o Rise in BP T risk of breast and cervical carcinoma (risk of endometrial and ovarian carcinoma decreases) o Benign hepatoma - may turn into malignant. Gall stones. Remember o Estrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer. o Progesterone component decreases this risk in OC pills. o Estrogen has orable effect on lipid profile, while progesterone has opposite effect. o Progesterone component is mainly responsible for MI. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | S/E of OC pills is -
A. Dysmenorrhoea
B. Prolactin level
C. Carbohydrate intolerance
D. Endometriosis
| Carbohydrate intolerance |
c3acd5f1-56e1-480d-a92d-2745e314ac3c | *The H reflex is basically an electrophysiologically recorded Achilles' tendon stretch reflex. *It is performed by stimulating the tibial nerve in popliteal fossa. *It is recorded over the soleus or gastrocnemius muscle. *It is used most commonly to evaluate S1 radiculopathy or to distinguish it from an L5 radiculopathy. REF:Ref: Text book of Neurology p.781 | Anatomy | Miscellaneous | Most common nerve used conduction study in H reflex -
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Tibial nerve
D. Peroneal nerve
| Tibial nerve |
ec47bfd1-0864-49f2-ad1a-bd6c92918979 | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:161 Infective Endocarditis (IE) It is the colonisation of the hea valves with microbiologic organisms, leading to the formation of friable, infected vegetations and frequently valve injury. Types 1. Acute infective endocarditis: Caused by highly virulent organisms mainly S. aureus (20-30%), seeding a previously normal valve. 2. Subacute infective endocarditis: Caused by organisms of moderate or low virulence mainly Streptococci (60-70%), seeding an abnormal or previously injured valve. 3. Endocarditis occurring in IV drug abusers: Caused predominantly by organisms found on the skin (S. aureus, Candida) and affecting the valves on the right side of the hea. 4. Prosthetic valve endocarditis: This may be early (symptoms appearing within 60 days of valve inseion), due to intraoperative infection of the valve or inseion of an infected valve or late (symptoms appearing after 60 days of valve inseion), due to late bacteraemia or earlier infection with microorganisms having a long incubation period. Prosthetic aoic valve is more prone for infective endocarditis than the mitral valve. Right sided IE has a more ourable prognosis than the left sided IE. However, when right sided IE vegetation size exceeds 2 cm, the moality increases. | Medicine | C.V.S | A patient has prottitetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible Is
A. Stahylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. HACEK
| Staphylococcus epidermidis |
3a913ca2-d389-4704-8160-14df91fb40d4 | Carcinoid tumours * Neuroendocrine tumors - comprise a broad family of tumors, the most common of which are ; - carcinoid tumors (most commonly arising in the lungs and bronchi (so-called bronchopulmonary), small intestine, appendix, rectum, and thymus) and - pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors. - Other less common neuroendocrine tumors include those arising in the parathyroid, thyroid, adrenal, and pituitary glands) . TREATMENT OF CARCINOID SYNDROME Diuretics -- hea failure Bronehodilators -- wheezing Antidiarrhoeal agents, niacin supplementation Somatostatin analogues nwtreolide) -- 100 mg sk 8 hourly -- 3000 mg/ day Before surgery -- 150-250 nig sk 6-8 hrly 24-48 hrs prior to anaesthesia Inhibitors of serolonin synthesis are emerging as a new dam of age. to treat eareinoid syndrome. Telotristat etiprate Right hemicolectiomy Ref: Sabiston 20th Ed. ; Schwaz 11th Ed. | Surgery | All India exam | What is the T/t of pt with carcinoid tumor of appendix of size more than 2 cm -
A. Right hemicolectomy
B. Appendicectomy
C. Appendicectomy + abdominal CT scan
D. Appendicectomy + 24 hrs urinary HIAA
| Right hemicolectomy |
c92c15f2-2c89-436a-be85-22838c855912 | The time taken for S, G2 and M phases are similar for most cell types, occupying about 6, 4 and 2 hours respectively whereas the duration of G1 shows considerable variation as short as 2 hours in rapidly dividing cells i.e., embryonic tissue or longer than 12 hours in some adult tissue. | Biochemistry | null | Which parts of cell cycle are fixed in durationa) GIb) G2c) Sd) M
A. c
B. d
C. bcd
D. ac
| bcd |
73df60dd-6a85-49d8-be32-f01ff5d9496d | The average birth weight of neonates is about 3 Kg.
During first few days after birth, the newborn loses extracellular fluid equivalent to about 10% of the body weight.
Most full term infants regain their birth weight by the age of 10 days.
Subsequently, they gain weight at a rate of approximately 25 to 30 gm per day for the first 3 months of life.
Thereafter they gain about 400 gm of weight every month for the remaining part of first year. | Pediatrics | null | Infant body weight is tripled by age of –
A. 5 months
B. 11 months
C. 2 years
D. 18 months
| 11 months |
23ef563d-5d23-4b2f-be48-bfe36a1c9ac0 | Anemia of chronic illness traditionally encompassed any inflammatory, infectious, or malignant disease of a long-standing nature. Includes rheumatoid ahritis, severe trauma, hea disease, or diabetes mellitus. There is primarily a decreased availability of iron, relatively decreased levels of erythropoietin, and a mild decrease in the lifespan of RBCs to 70-80 days. Early onset rheumatoid ahritis with positive rheumatoid factor is more likely to have normocytic normochromic anemia. | Medicine | Rheumatoid Ahritis | Which type of anemia is seen in Rheumatoid ahritis?
A. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Hyperchromic, Normocytic
C. Hypochromic, normocytic
D. Hypochromic, leucopenia
| Normocytic, normochromic |
a8ad764b-f3f2-4cc9-8fc7-f2bfdc95c505 | Rupture of the bulbar urethra There is a history of a blow to the perineum, usually due to a fall astride injury. The bulbar urethra is crushed upwards onto the pubic bone, typically with significant bruising. Extravasation of urine is common if the urine is not diveed and the extravasated urine is confined in front of the mid-perineal point by the attachment of Colles' fascia to the triangular ligament and by the attachment of Scarpa's fascia just below the inguinal ligament. The external spermatic fascia stops it getting into the inguinal canals. Extravasated urine collects in the scrotum and penis and beneath the deep layer of superficial fascia in the abdominal wall. CLINICAL FEATURES The signs of a ruptured bulbar urethra are perineal bruising and haematoma, typically with a butterfly distribution. There is usually bleeding from the urethral meatus and retention of urine is also typically present. MANAGEMENT If the diagnosis is suspected, the patient should be treated with appropriate analgesia and antibiotics should be administered. He should be discouraged from passing urine. A full bladder should be drained with a catheter placed by percutaneous suprapubic puncture using a Seldinger technique . This reduces urinary extravasation and allows investigations to establish the extent of the urethral injury. Diagnosis is made by urethrography using water-soluble contrast. If there is significant extravasation, then the perineal collection should be drained. The suprapubic catheter should remain in situ while the bruising and extravasation settle down and a stricture will typically develop at the site of the injury. The optimal treatment is delayed anastomotic urethroplasty after the swelling and bruising have settled down (typically 8-12 weeks later), with excision of the traumatised section and spatulated end-to-end reanastomosis of the urethra. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1479 | Surgery | Urology | Which of the following is the most common urethral injury?
A. Rupture of bulbar urethra
B. Rupture of penile urethra
C. Rupture of prostatic urethra
D. Rupture of membranous urethra
| Rupture of bulbar urethra |
e1f5f525-57ab-494e-a8fd-fd7256f505b1 | Rhinosporidiosis caused by rhinosporidium seeberi, mostly affects nose and nasopharynx, other sites such as lip, conjunctiva, epiglottis, larynx, trachea, bronchi, skin, vulva and vagina. In the nose, the disease is presented as leafy, polypoidal mass, pink to purple in colour and attached to the nasal septum or lateral wall.
The mass is very vascular and bleeds too easily to touch. Its surface is studded with white dots representing the sporangia of fungus. hence giving it a "strawberry " appearance. | ENT | null | Strawberry appearance is seen in
A. Lupus vulgaris
B. Rhinosporidiosis
C. Rhinoscleroma
D. Angiofibroma
| Rhinosporidiosis |
276fe8e5-43ce-4d50-9245-6881562bcd10 | Therapeutic misadventure is a mischance or an accident or a disaster. Therapeutic misadventure is a case in which n individual has been injured or had died due to some unintentional act by a doctor or agent of the doctor or hospital. Vicarious liability is liability for act of others i.e. an employer is responsible not only for his own negligence but also for the negligence of his employee by the principle of respondent superior (let the master answer), provided there (1) Must be employer-employee relationship, (2) While on job, (3) Employee conduct within the job of employment. Therapeutic privilege is an Exception to the rule of 'full disclosure' i.e. the doctor can use his discretion as to the facts that he discloses or of not telling the patient about the risks involved in treatment or about the diagnosis, e.g. in cases where patient is fearful, emotionally disturbed, psychotic or psycho-neurotic. The doctor should carefully note his decision in the patient's records mentioning the reasons. Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology; 5th ed; Page no: 189 | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by a doctor, staff or hospital is
A. Therapeutic misadventure
B. Vicarious liability
C. Therapeutic privilege
D. Diminished liability
| Therapeutic misadventure |
78e536ab-91c2-45d2-9bf6-b742dce60f60 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Microtubule associated protein 4 Proteins present in cochlea Actin-binding and microtubule-associated proteins regulate microfilament and microtubule number, length, organization and location in cells. In freeze-dried preparations of the guinea pig cochlea, both actin and tubulin are found in the sensory and suppoing cells of the organ of Coi. Fodrin (brain spectrin) co-localized with actin in the cuticular plates of both inner and outer hair cells and along the lateral wall of the outer hair cells. Alpha-actinin co-localized with actin in the cuticular plates of the hair cells and in the head and foot plates of the suppoing cells. It was also found in the junctional regions between hair cells and suppoing cells. o Profilin co-localized with actin in the cuticular plates of the sensory hair cells. Myosin was detected only in the cuticular plates of the outer hair cells and in the suppoing cells in the region facing endolymph. Gelsolin was found in the region of the nerve fibers. Tubulin is found in microtubules in all cells of the organ of Coi. In suppoing cells, microtubules are bundled together with actin microfilaments and tropomyosin, as well as being present as individual microtubules arranged in networks. An intensely stained network of microtubules is found in both outer and inner sensory hair cells. The microtubules in the outer hair cells appear to course throughout the entire length of the cells, and based on their staining with antibodies to the tyrosinated form of tubulin they appear to be more dynamic structures than the microtubules in the suppoing cells. The microtubule-associated protein MAP-2 is present only in outer hair cells within the organ of Coi and co-localizes with tubulin in these cells. No other MAPs (1,3,4,5) are present. Tau is found in the nerve fibers below both inner and outer hair cells and in the osseous spiral lamina. | ENT | null | Following protein is not found in organ of coi ?
A. Myosin
B. Microtubule associated protein 2
C. Microtubule associated protein 4
D. Fodrin
| Microtubule associated protein 4 |
51ddd9e5-6bb3-4e5e-9926-11540270a253 | The commonest site of the mandible is condylar process followed by angle, body and symphysis of mandible (Mnemonics - CABS). | ENT | null | Which among the following is the commonest site of fracture of mandible?
A. Angle
B. Body
C. Coronoid process
D. Condylar process
| Condylar process |
1f62809c-4a05-4aa9-8ab3-2940d7ce5791 | Vaginal secretion is acidic during reproductive life which is oestrogen dependent, and inhibits growth of pathogenic organisms. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | P4 pf vagina during reproductive life is
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Neutral
D. Variable
| Acidic |
37dffdb2-3587-47e6-b50d-c35379d00406 | Ans. is a i.e. Ovarian disease As explained earlier PCOD is the most common cause of hirsutism. PCOD most common affects teenage girls (15 - 25 years). Therefore, In teenage girls most common cause of hirsutism is PCOD. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Commonest cause of hirsutism in a teenage girl :
A. Ovarian disease
B. PheochromocytomaObesity
C. Obesity
D. Adrenogenital syndrome
| Ovarian disease |
f0fb85d2-cb84-4a72-94af-59899f533eaf | Asymmetrical inflammatory Oligoarthritis - Most common pattern. | Medicine | null | Most common pattern of Joint involvement in psoriatic arthropathy
A. Psoriatic spondylitis
B. Arthritis mutilans
C. Symmetrical polyarthritis
D. Asymmetrical inflammatory oligoarthritis
| Asymmetrical inflammatory oligoarthritis |
82f66941-2765-4a6d-8a1e-e0833664b5c3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sporozoite Sporozoites are infective to man. Human infection begins when a female anopheline mosquito inoculates plasmodial sporozoites from its salivary gland during a blood meal. | Microbiology | null | In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers?
A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Hypnozoite
D. Gametocyte
| Sporozoite |
0a4629cd-b72e-4aef-a801-bffd2d95a47c | Risk factors for squamous cell ca of bladder
Schistosoma haematobium
it's a risk factor for both TCC & sq. cell ca, but more for sq. cell ca.
Chronic irritation from urinary calculi, long term indwelling catheters, chronic urinary infections
Bladder diverticula | Surgery | null | Sq. cell tumor of urinary bladder is due to -a) Stoneb) Schistosomiasisc) Chr. cystitisd) Diabetes mellitus
A. ab
B. bc
C. abc
D. bcd
| abc |
c626ae23-2ab4-408a-9f7c-fbdc1e400087 | Up to 5-10% of fatty acids in human milk are polyunsaturated. Most of these are linoleic acid with smaller amounts of linolenic acid.
Linoleic acid → gives rise to Arachidonic acid
Linolenic acid → gives rise to Docosahexaenoic acid
Docosahexaenoic acid is found in human milk and brain lipids and is required for the development of our nervous system and visual abilities during the first six months of life.
Lack of sufficient Docosahexaenoic acid may be associated with impaired mental and visual functioning as well as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. | Pediatrics | null | The important fatty acid present in breast milk which is important for growth is –
A. Docosahexaenoeic acid
B. Palmitic acid
C. Linoleic acid
D. Linolenic acid
| Docosahexaenoeic acid |
23b6a6ff-c056-4c39-8f9e-21763c2e6809 | Nucleus basalis of Meyne for Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease dementia. The nucleus basalis of Meyne (NBM) is a large source of cholinergic innervation to widespread coical areas. There have been two repos of DBS of the NBM for either AD or PD. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | Medicine | C.N.S | Lesion is Alzheimer's disease are commonest at
A. Aniygdala
B. Nucleus of Meynes
C. Pineal gland
D. Prefrontal sulcus
| Nucleus of Meynes |
851fd0ae-2912-44b9-aae9-e3291a73de3c | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alzhiemers disease Smoking is not a risk factor for the development of alzhiemers disease | Pathology | null | Smoking is not a risk factor for ?
A. Lung carcinoma
B. Osteoporosis
C. Nonunion of bones
D. Alzhiemers disease
| Alzhiemers disease |
28553c97-0ff3-45c1-ad41-d853a1fb3d08 | Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an aerobic and facultative anaerobic gram positive rod that appear club shaped. They are arranged in V or L shaped formations. The rods have a beaded appearance and the beads consist of granules of highly polymerized polyphosphate. These granules stain metachromatically. It is transmitted through airborne droplets. It can also infect the skin at the site of a preexisting skin lesion. It produces a toxin which inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (EF-2). It can be cultured on Loeffler's medium, a tellurite plate, and a blood agar plate. The typical gray-black color of tellurium in the colony is a telltale diagnostic criterion. Methylene blue staining shows tapered, pleomorphic gram-positive rods and it can also reveal the typical metachromatic granules. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 17. Gram-Positive Rods. In W. Levinson (Ed),Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | Microbiology | null | Which among the following is an anaerobic bacteria?
A. Staph aureus
B. E. coli
C. Str. pneumoniae
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
| Corynebacterium diphtheria |
d0da27b3-93ea-470a-aa5f-0ccd38ec4e54 | Most patients present with palpable lymphadenopathy that is nontender; in most patients, these lymph nodes are in the neck, supraclavicular area, and axilla. More than half the patients will have mediastinal adenopathy at diagnosis, and this is sometimes the initial manifestation. Subdiaphragmatic presentation of Hodgkin's disease is unusual and more common in older males." - Harrison | Surgery | null | Commonest presentation of Hodgkin's lymphoma is -
A. Painless enlargement of lymph node
B. Pruritis
C. Fever
D. Leuocytosis
| Painless enlargement of lymph node |
6eef68a0-bd74-4934-8bbd-6822e4f7e605 | In order to deal with the blindness caused by trachoma, the WHO has declared the SAFE strategy which includes the following: S - Surgery A - Antibiotics F - Facial hygiene ( Face washing) E - Environmental modification Surveillance is not included in the SAFE strategy. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 19th edition; pages 258 - 260; Parson's Textbook of Ophthalmology 19th Edition, Page 595 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is not included in the SAFE strategy?
A. Surveillance
B. Antibiotics
C. Facial hygiene
D. Environmental modification
| Surveillance |
b807a6bd-bdd5-47b6-b6d4-8f7557bfcc45 | The management technique described here is aversive conditioning, in which a maladaptive but pleasurable stimulus (for this man, sexual interest in children) is paired with painful stimulus (e.g., a shock) so that the two become associated. Flooding - Type of behavioral therapy in which maximum stimulus is given in first exposure. Biofeedback - Uses principle of operant conditioning Useful in disorders which are caused by autonomic dysfunction such as tension headache Eg use of EMG to control muscle tone in disorders such as Bruxism. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | A 42-year-old man with sexual interest in children (pedophilia) is given an electric shock each time he is shown a videotape of children. Later, he feels tense around children and avoids them. Which of the following management techniques does this example illustrate?
A. Implosion
B. Biofeedback
C. Aversive conditioning
D. Flooding
| Aversive conditioning |
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