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79202c53-4f02-49ab-ac97-475b1219e301 | Sinuscopy or Diagnostic nasal endoscopy is the most appropriate investigation.The classical feature is the presence of mucopus in the middle meatus or above the middle meatusA more appropriate investigation would be CT scan of the nose and PNS.Ref: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 331 | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Most definitive diagnosis of sinusitis is
A. X-ray PNS
B. Proof puncture
C. Sinuscopy
D. Transillumination test
| Sinuscopy |
d86a75a0-2453-4cf4-a309-330d5a3bbdc3 | As tourniquet application can precipitate sickling and hypoxia, IVRA is contraindicated in sickle cell anemia. | Anaesthesia | null | Intravenous regional anaesthesia is contraindicated in
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Thalassemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. G6PD deficiency
| Sickle cell disease |
35a35502-e061-433b-b3a1-d92c46f15496 | Ans (a)BCG vaccine should not be given to infants and children with active HIV disease. Babies born to mother with AFB positive spectum should not be given BCG at birth, but only after a course of preventive chemotherapy. | Microbiology | Bacteria | BCG vaccine in HIV (+) newborn is:
A. Contraindicated
B. Double dilution
C. Half dilution
D. Dose double
| Contraindicated |
a6bb24d6-9850-4755-8805-48c7e673cd31 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pulmonary angiography o The definitive diagnostic for pulmonary thromboembolism is pulmonary angiography.o It is the most specific investigation for pulmonary> thromboembolism but it is expensive time consuming and invasive,o Therefore chest CT with contrast has virtually replaced angiography as the diagnostic test.o Best investigation when there is clinical suspicion of pulmonary embolism - Contrast enhanced CT. | Medicine | Pulmonary Embolism | A person is diagnoses with pulmonary embolism invasive modality for diagnosis is -
A. Venous ultrasonography
B. Pulmonary angiography
C. CT
D. MRI
| Pulmonary angiography |
946868d8-9927-4cc0-9f25-1fd9cf8f5418 | mTOR INHIBITORS Sirolimus This new and potent immunosup-pressant is a macrolide antibiotic (like tacrolimus), which was earlier named Rapamycin. Mech of action:- It binds to immunophillin FKBP and the sirolimus-FKBP complex inhibits kinase called 'mammalian target of rapamycin' (mTOR). uses:- 1)For prophylaxis and therapy of graft rejection reaction, sirolimus can be used alone, but is generally combined with lower dose of cyclosporine/tacrolimus and/or coicosteroids and mycophenolate mofetil. It is paicularly suitable for patients developing renal toxicity with cyclosporine.( Sirolimus is non nephrotoxic). 2)sirolimus coated stents are being used to reduce the incidence of coronary aery restenosis, by inhibiting endothelial proliferation at the site. Adverse effects:- Significantly, sirolimus is not nephrotoxic, but it can suppress bone marrow, mainly causing thrombocytopenia. Rise in serum lipids is common. Other adverse effects are diarrhoea, liver damage and pneumonitis. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-882 | Pharmacology | Immunomodulators | Wof is an immunosuppressant that acts by inhibiting mTOR and is non nephrotoxic
A. Azathioprine
B. Tacrolimus
C. Sirolimus
D. Rapamycin
| Sirolimus |
16edd80b-d637-48f9-94e7-0f645b257705 | Ans. D. Uterus MaleFemaleMesonephric ductDuct of epididymisDuct of epoophoron(Wolffian duct)Ductus deferensPart of bladder and urethra Ejaculatory duct Part of bladder and prostatic urethra (Paramesonephric or Mullerian duct)Appendix of testisUterine tube Prostatic utricleUterus Vagina | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrical Anatomy | Paramesonephric duct develops into:
A. Vas deferens
B. Seminal vesicle
C. Ureter
D. Uterus
| Uterus |
7f280242-ffab-48b0-b914-4363c54b43c0 | Streptococcal TSS is caused by pyrogenic exotoxin. Ref: Text Book of Microbilogy By Ananthanarayan, 8th Edition, Page 208-209 ; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 14th Edition, Page 889, 15th Edition, Page 903 | Microbiology | null | Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is:
A. Pyrogenic toxin
B. Erythrogenic toxin
C. Hemolysin
D. Neurotoxin
| Pyrogenic toxin |
da329f21-34db-46ee-86d7-dadd692f8868 | Tc-99m sulphur colloid is used in liver scan.Tc-99m DTPA measurement of GFR.Tc99m-sestamibi is taken up by cells with a high concentration of mitochondria i.e. highly cellular/metabolically active tissues such as the hea but also abnormal tissues such as oxyphil cell parathyroid adenomas, myeloma and breast cancer. | Radiology | GIT and hepatobiliary system | Radiopharmaceutical used for the liver scan is
A. Tc-99m sulphur colloid
B. Tc-99m mebrofenin
C. Tc-99m MIBI
D. Tc-99m DTPA
| Tc-99m sulphur colloid |
c51d0052-17e9-4bc9-8383-1f8aaa2de323 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Intercostal According to miller "The greater the blood supply to the area injected, the greater is the systemic absorptionSites of absorption from greatest to least include:-Intrapleural > intercostal > pudendal > caudal > epidural > brachial plexus > infiltration. | Anaesthesia | Miscellaneous (Local and Regional Anesthesia) | From which of the following routes absorption of local anaesthetic is maximum?
A. Intercostal
B. Epidural
C. Brachial
D. Caudal
| Intercostal |
9ebccb1c-687b-4031-ae37-436c0450d4e4 | Sperm is the male reproductive cell in the sexual reproduction. Capacitation is the penultimate step in the maturation of mammalian spermatozoa and is required to render them competent to feilize an oocyte. This step is a biochemical event; the sperm moves normally and looks mature prior to capacitation. In vivo, this step typically occurs after ejaculation, in the female reproductive tract. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-422 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Capacitance of sperms takes place in
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Epididymis
C. Vas deference
D. Uterus
| Uterus |
69d34d76-8d26-492e-a0d1-50a9c22a7a6f | • Acute inflammation of prostate associated with UTI
• Caused by ascending urethral infection or reflux of infected urine into prostatic ducts
• MC organism: E. coli
• Patients present with sudden onset high grade fever with chills and rigors, severe irritative symptoms and enlarged, tender and boggy prostate
• Catheterization and prostatic massage is contraindicated
• MC used antibiotics are: TMP-SMX and Ciprofloxacin (Both are having better concentration in prostatic tissue)
• Around 4-6 weeks of antibiotic therapy is used to avert chronic bacterial prostatitis.
Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis
• Due to persistent bacterial infection of prostate
• Insidious in onset, characterized by relapsing or recurrent UTI caused by persistence of pathogen in prostatic fluid despite of antibiotic therapy
• Diagnosis is made by microscopic examination and culture of prostatic expressate and culture of urine obtained before and after prostatic massage.
• Treated by chronic antibiotic suppression (3–4 months)
Prostatic Abscess
• Most cases result from complications of acute bacterial prostatitis
• Fluctuation is a very late sign
• Predisposing factors: Diabetes, renal insufficiency, immunosuppression, urethral instrumentation, chronic indwelling catheter
• Diagnosis: TRUS or pelvic CT scan is crucial for diagnosis and treatment
• Treated by transurethral drainage and antibiotics | Surgery | null | Complication which commonly accompanies acute prostatitis -
A. Epididymitis
B. Orchitis
C. Seminal vesiculitis
D. Sterility
| Seminal vesiculitis |
29269e38-1995-4ea5-8711-5aa3e23869b0 | The iliocostalis thoracis muscle is found in the deep back and functions to maintain posture. It is not associated with neck flexion. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is innervated by CNXI and functions in contralateral rotation and bilateral flexion of the neck. Rhomboid major and minor are both innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve and serve to adduct the scapulae. Teres major is innervated by the lower subscapular nerve and serves to medially rotate and adduct the humerus. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | An 18-year-old female passenger injured in a rollover car crash was rushed to the emergency department. After the patient is stabilized she undergoes physical examination. She demonstrates considerable weakness in her ability to flex her neck, associated with injury to CN XI. Which of the following muscles is most probably affected by nerve trauma?
A. Iliocostalis thoracis
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Rhomboid major
D. Rhomboid minor
| Sternocleidomastoid |
d7d496ac-5807-403f-bf2f-8ea8e21b2ed5 | Ans. (a) Diffuse iris melanomaRef: Surgical Pathology of Head & Neck p. 1935Intractable secondary glaucoma may also occur in cases of blunt trauma due to anteriorly dislocated lens setting caught in the pupil.Iris melanoma(malignant neo plasms that arise from neuroectodermal melanocytes with in the Iris)Circumscribed/nodular iris melanoma* Present as pigmented spot on the iris* These tumors are usually localized, well circumscribed and nodular* These tumors usually tend to involve only a limited segment of the angle circumference and hence glaucoma is less common and usually treatableDiffuse iris melanoma* Present as a unilateral dark iris (hyperchromic heterochromia) Q* These tumors show a flat and diffuse infiltration pattern of growth* The infiltration invades the intertrabecular spaces and plugs the drainage mechanism, resulting in an intractable secondary glaucoma | Ophthalmology | Uveal Tract | Intractable secondary glaucoma is seen in:
A. Diffuse iris melanoma
B. Nodular iris melanoma
C. Melanocytic deposits in anterior part of iris
D. Melanocyte proliferation in posterior uveal tissue
| Diffuse iris melanoma |
c994e2a7-87c4-4396-9688-3a062c15bc52 | Ref. Textbook of forensic medicine. Krishnan Vij. Page. 302
Locard Principle:
When any two objects come into contact, there is always a transfer of material from each object on the other.
Some examples are fingerprints, footprints,hair, tool marks etc. | Unknown | null | Locard’s principle is concerned:
A. Theory of relativity
B. Theory of decomposition
C. Theory of trauma
D. Theory of exchagnge
| Theory of exchagnge |
98d72f63-ca49-42ac-a301-034db712388a | Ans. (a) Serous cystadenoma(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 1023)*Most ovarian tumors are surface epithelial (65-70%)*Serous cystadenoma is the most common surface epithelial tumor | Pathology | Female Genital Tract | Most common ovarian tumor
A. Serous cystadenoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Teratoma
D. Fibroma
| Serous cystadenoma |
0648d1c0-2723-41b4-8580-93423c3e811e | Cardiolipin Is a Major Lipid of Mitochondrial Membranes
Phosphatidic acid is a precursor of phosphatidylglycerol, which in turn gives rise to cardiolipin. This phospholipid is found only in mitochondria and is essential for the mitochondrial function. Decreased cardiolipin levels or alterations in its structure or metabolism cause mitochondrial dysfunction in aging and in pathological conditions including heart failure, hypothyroidism, and Barth syndrome (cardioskeletal myopathy).
HARPERS ILLUSTRATED BIOCHEMISTRY30th ed, Page No:343 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following lipids is found exclusively in mitochondria?
A. Cephalin
B. Phosphatidylserine
C. Cardiolipin
D. Phosphatidylinositol
| Cardiolipin |
eee6144a-9a77-4dd7-94c6-64f461421689 | In clinical cases of thyroid nodule, Thyroid profile (T3 T4 TSH) is done. If TSH is low, thyroid scan is done to see if nodule is hot or cold. If TSH is low or normal, ultrasound followed by FNAC is done Source :Sabiston 20 th edition Pg 890 | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | A 20 yr old girl presents with 9 month history of neck swelling with thyrotoxicosis symptoms. On investigation increased T4 and decreased TSH with palpable 2 cm nodule was found. Next investigation will be
A. USG
B. Thyroid scan
C. Radioactive iodine uptake
D. CT scan
| Thyroid scan |
8dab6439-dbff-471f-846f-0f5c84f93ff9 | Brain imaging Imaging tests can help diagnose hydrocephalus and identify underlying causes of the symptoms. These tests may include: Ultrasound. Ultrasound imaging, which uses high-frequency sound waves to produce images, is often used for an initial assessment for infants because it&;s a relatively simple, low-risk procedure. The ultrasound device is placed over the soft spot (fontanel) on the top of a baby&;s head. Ultrasound may also detect hydrocephalus prior to bih when the procedure is used during routine prenatal examinations. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses radio waves and a magnetic field to produce detailed 3D or cross-sectional images of the brain. This test is painless, but it is noisy and requires lying still. MRI scans can show enlarged ventricles caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid. They may also be used to identify underlying causes of hydrocephalus or other conditions contributing to the symptoms. Children may need mild sedation for some MRI scans. However, some hospitals use a very fast version of MRIthat generally doesn&;t require sedation. Computerized tomography (CT) scan is a specialized X-ray technology that can produce cross-sectional views of the brain. Scanning is painless and quick. But this test also requires lying still, so a child usually receives a mild sedative. Drawbacks to CT scanning include less detailed images than an MRI, and exposure to a small amount of radiation. CT scans for hydrocephalus are usually used only for emergency exams. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Central Nervous system | Investigation of choice for Hydrocephalus in infants ?
A. Cranial USG
B. CT Scan
C. MRI
D. X-ray skull
| Cranial USG |
6b637bca-5962-401b-9799-60fec3343407 | NF is a type of genetic condition Gene Chromosome Protein Features NF 1 17 Neurofibromin - Cafe-au-lait-macules (CALM) NF 2 22 Merlin -Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic neuroma): commonest neurological tumour. -Giant Neurofibromas, Meningioma - Axillary Freckling | Dental | FMGE 2018 | Commonest neurological tumour associated with NF-2:-
A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Optic glioma
C. Cafe-Au-Lait macules
D. Meningioma
| Acoustic neuroma |
1da6386b-e6b8-4cef-af55-fdb380869829 | Wahin Tumor: Viually restricted to the parotid gland More common in Male; Smoking is most impoant risk factor EXTRA EDGE: Most common salivary gland tumor - Pleomorphic Adenoma. Most common Benign salivary gland tumor - Pleomorphic Adenoma MC Primary malignant salivary gland tumor - Mucoepidermoid carcinoma. Adenoid cystic carcinoma - Most aggressive salivary tumor, can cause perineural invasion. Larger the size of salivary gland more likely it's benign. Smaller the size of salivary gland more likely it's malignant. MC salivary gland involved - parotid gland > submandibular gland. | Pathology | DNB 2018 | Tumor seen exclusively in parotid:
A. Wahin tumor
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Mucoepidermoid
D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
| Wahin tumor |
c0714db8-f3b7-4880-a895-829a1ca99063 | Ans is 'a' i.e. Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis Biochemical abnormality in congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis is a regular feature of AIIMS and AI examinations it has been repeated several times. The biochemical abnormalities seen are: ( I ) Hypokalemia (3) Alkalosis and (2) Hypochloremia (4) Paradoxical aciduria | Surgery | null | Hypochloremia, hypokalemia and alkalosis are seen in?
A. Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis
B. Hirschsprung's disease.
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Jejunal atresia
| Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis |
2c32c23c-b3bf-475b-8306-3430701b1712 | Axillary abcess should be incised through the floor of axilla, midway between the anterior and posterior axillary folds,and nearer to the medial wall in order to avoid injury to the main vessels running along the anterior,posterior and lateral walls. | Anatomy | null | Axillary abscess is safely drained by which approach
A. Medial
B. Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral
C. Floor
D. Lateral
| Floor |
5b915b5d-3499-4e95-b3d0-ed3a9a698877 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nevirapine Treatment during pregnancyo HIV infected mother can transmit the virus to fetus/infant during pregnancy, during delivery or by breast feeding,o Early diagnosis and antiretroviral therapy to mother and infant significantly decrease the rate of intrapartum and perinatal transmission (vertical transmission) of HIV infection,o Zidovudine treatment of HIV infected pregnant women from the beginning of second trimester through delivery and of infant for 6 weeks following birth decreases the rate of transmission from 22.6% to < 5%.o Single dose of nevirapine given to the mother at the onset of labor followed by a single dose to the newborn within 72 hours of birth decreased transmission by 50%. This is the prefered regimen now in developing countries. | Pharmacology | Anti-Viral | Anti HIV drug used for prevention of vertical transmission -
A. Nevirapine
B. Lamivudine
C. Efavirez
D. Tenofovir
| Nevirapine |
b5406864-f3bc-4053-92c3-a6de01530ce4 | Auricular branch of vagus nerve provide innervation of the external auditory canal. So mechanical stimulation of ear canal while cleansing it cause stimulation of this nerve branch of vagus nerve and may induce cough. The auricular branch of vagus nerve passes through the mastoid canaliculus and through a space between the mastoid process and the tympanic pa of the temporal bone to the external ear and external auditory canal. The ear canal receives sensory fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve through its communicating branch with the vagus nerve. | ENT | null | The cough response caused while cleaning the ear canal is mediated by stimulation of:
A. The V cranial nerve
B. Innervation of external ear canal by C1 and C2
C. The X cranial nerve
D. Branches of the VII cranial nerve
| The X cranial nerve |
4e9b8c2c-3599-4b04-9655-cb891a61d598 | Alkaptonuria is caused by defect of the enzyme homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase(homogentisic acid oxidase).The disorder comes to attention due to change in colour of urine to brownish black/ staining of diapers.The urine becomes dark on standing,especially if the pH of urine is alkaline,due to the presence of homogentisic acid.Excessive urine homogentisate results in positive reducing substances. Reference:Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no:653. | Pediatrics | Metabolic disorders | Darkening of urine on standing is associated with
A. Alkaptonuria
B. Cystinuria
C. Fabry's disease
D. Tyrosinemia
| Alkaptonuria |
6f796142-482f-4156-9811-61f55dd7b2e0 | ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMOCOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION KD TRIPATHI Page :636,637 Impoant statins are :lovastatin Simvastain, pravastatin, rosuvastatin etc Rosuvastatin This is the latest and the most potent statin (10 mg rosuvastatin :::::. 20 mg atorvastatin), with a plasma tlh. of 18-24 hours. Greater LDL-CH reduction can be obtained in severe hypercholesterolaemia; paly due to its longer persistence in the plasma. In patients with raised TG levels, rosuvastatin raises HDL-CH by 15--20% (greater rise than other statins). Dose: Sta with 5 mg OD, increase if needed upto 20 mg/ day, (max 40 mg/ day) ROSUV AS, ROSYN 5, 10, 20 mg tabs. Adverse effects All statins are remarkably well tolerated; overall incidence of side effects not differing from placebo. Notable side effects are: * Headache, nausea, bowel upset, rashes. * Sleep disturbances (probably more with lipophilic drugs). * Rise in serum transaminase can occur, but liver damage is rare. * Muscle tenderness and rise in CPK levels occurs infrequently. Myopathy is the only serious reaction, but is rare ( < 1 per 1000). Few fatalities due to rhabdomyolysis are on record. Myopathy is more common when nicotinic acid/ gemfibrozil or CYP3A4 inhibitor- ketoconazole I erythromycin/ cyclosporine I HIV protease inhibitor is given concurrently. Gemfibrozil inhibits the hepatic uptake of statins by the organic anion traspoer OATP2.it must not be given to pregnant ladies. Uesd in primary hyperlipipidemias. | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Svere myopathy commonly is a side effect of
A. Rosuvastatin
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Ezetimibe
D. Colesevelam
| Rosuvastatin |
fa1db88b-cd77-44f5-9e03-897ba2a37810 | A i.e. 24 hours prior to ovulationEvent In OogenesisTime periodMaximum number of germ cell (Oogonia & few oocyte) - 7 million are found by5th month (prenatal)All oogonia become atretic and only primary oocyte surrounded by follicular cell (k/a primordialfollicle) remain by7", month (prenatal)All primary oocyte have staed prophase of meiosis I, but instead of proceeding into metaphase,they enter diplotene stageNear the time of bihPrimary oocyte remain in prophase of meiosis I untilPubeyPrimordial follicle (with primary oocyte) grow to form primary/ preantral- follicle, which grows intosecondary / vesicular / Graffian- follicle. The 2deg follicle enters preovulatory stage - 36 hours beforeovulation (when LH surge occurs) resulting in completion of meiosis I and formation ofsecondary oocyte and 1st polar bodyQ- 36 hours before ovulation2deg oocyte enters meiosis 11 but arrests in metaphase- 3 hours before ovulationMeiosis II is completed with formation of ovulin and 2" polar body only ifFeilization occursWithout feilization 2deg oocyte degenerates with in- 24 hours after ovulation | Anatomy | null | In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded
A. 24 hrs prior to ovulation
B. Accompanied by ovulation
C. 48 hrs after the ovulation
D. At the time of feilization
| 24 hrs prior to ovulation |
91a4b0ea-310b-4655-b4f7-733ebaf5804d | i.e. (Thalassaemia) : (292-Harsh mohan 6th) (658-H17th/6th)Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling is diffuse and uniform basophilic granularity in the cell which does not stain positively with Perl's reaction (in contrast to pappenhamer bodies which stain positively)Examples -* Aplastic anaemia* Thalassaemia* Myelodysplasia* Infections* Lead poisoning* Howell -Jolly bodies - present in Megaloblastic anemia and after splenectomy* Basophilic leucocytosis indicative of CML**PYRIMIDINE 5' - NUCLEOTIDASE (PSN) DEFICIENCY - Highly distinctive feature of this condition is a morphological abnormality of the red cells known as basophilic stippling. This condition is rare but it probably ranks third in frequency among red cell enzyme defects (after G6PD deficiency and pyruvate Kinase deficiency) (658-H17th) | Pathology | Blood | Basophilic stippling is seen with
A. Thalassaemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Splenectomy
| Thalassaemia |
665c3491-7982-4e75-8d24-5c791bd29cf7 | Ans. C: Ischemic colitis Earlier features of intestinal ischemia seen on abdominal radiographs include bowel wall edema, known as "thumb printing". Radiological signs in GIT: Thumb printing sign: Ischemic colitis Bird of prey sign: Sigmoid volvulus Double bubble sign (X-ray abdomen): - Annular pancreas - Duodenal atresia String sign: - Crohn's disease - Pyloric stenosis Single bubble sign: Pyloric stenosis Chain of lake appearance: Chronic pancreatitis Fox sign: Acute pancreatitis Widening of duodenal C loop: Carcinoma of head pf pancreas | Radiology | null | Thumb print sign is seen in: March 2011
A. Crohn's disease
B. Deal carcinoma
C. Ischemic colitis
D. Lymphoma of colon
| Ischemic colitis |
46354617-2c12-4b35-be52-0f58c85782ad | Exploratory puncture is one of the most practical methods for confirming the diagnosis of amboebic liver abscess. The aspirated pus may be examined for the demonstration of trophic forms (trophozoites) of E. histolytica.
Aspirations from the center of amoebic liver abscess do not show trophozoites, while aspirates from the margins show trophozoites
About other options
Option 'a'
"Cysts are never seen in extraintestinal lesions"
Option 'c & d'
In extraintestinal amoebiasis, often stool examination is negative | Microbiology | null | An amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating-
A. Cysts in the sterile pus
B. Trophozoites in the pus
C. Cysts in the intestine
D. Trophozoites in the feces
| Trophozoites in the pus |
d5d5045e-5143-462e-bbd9-ff6208dddd9a | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Biotin o Biotin is a coenzyme for carbon dioxide fixation reactions.o It serves as prosthetic group of ATP-dependent carboxylase, i.e., in carboxylation reactionQ,o It acts as coenzyme tor acetyl-CoA carboxylaseQ, propionyl-CoA carboxylaseQ, pyruvate carboxylaseQ and metbylcartonyl-CoA carboxylase. | Biochemistry | Mechanisms of Enzyme Action | Carboxylases requires -
A. Vitamin B12
B. Folic acid
C. Niacin
D. Biotin
| Biotin |
7129c530-5c65-4e5c-a90b-19a7dfaaab51 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., LactuloseDietary fibres (Review) Dietary fibre consists of unabsorbable cell wall and other consititutents of vegetable food like celluloseQ, lignin, hemicellulosee, gums, pectinsdeg, aliginates and other polysaccharides.In herbivorous animals, intestinal microoganism breakdown these polysaccharides into acetate, propionate and butyrate.These polysaccharides contain 13-glycosidic linkages.Therefore, they cannot be digested by a-amylase present in human saliva and pancreatic juice because a-amylase breaks a-glycosidic bond (especially 1-4 a linkage).So, dietary fibers are not digested or hydrolyzed but are fermented by colonic bacteria except for lignin, which is neither digested nor fermented by intestinal microorganismsdeg.Dietary fibre absorbes water in the intestine, swells, increase bulk of stool by increasing water content of faeces and soften it, decreases transit time by facilitating colonic tansit."The presence of fibre shoens the transit timese and increases the stool bulk".Dietary fibre is of two types : -Soluble fibree : - These are pectin, aliginates, and gums. These absorb upto 15 times its weight in water as it moves through GIT, producing softer stools. Its good sources are oat, flaxseeds, peas, beans, apple, citrus fruits, carrots, bareley and psyllium.Insoluble fibredeg : - These are cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin. These promote movement of material through digestive system and increases stool bulk. Its good sources are wheat flour, wheat bran, nuts and vegetables. | Biochemistry | null | Which is not a dietary fiber ?
A. Lignin
B. Lactulose
C. Pectin
D. Cellulose
| Lactulose |
12f94e6e-10b3-44b0-bf3f-138ee297c7b0 | Glomerular basement membrane contains: a. Collagen type IV b. Laminin c. Polyanionic proteoglycans (responsible of charge-dependent filtration) d. Entactin e. Fibronectin f. Sialoglycoprotein coating on endothelial and visceral epithelial cells. Ref: ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th ed Pg no: 551 | Pathology | Urinary tract | The protein in the GBM responsible for charge dependent filtration is
A. Albumin
B. Collagen type IV
C. Fibronectin
D. Proteoglycan
| Proteoglycan |
a0b35bf5-98a5-4f11-9cd2-528476d6cbdd | Alkaptonuria - Due to deficiency of Homogentisate dioxygenase/ oxidase (requires Iron) Fresh urine is normal in colour On standing or on exposure to air - turns Black - Homogentisic acid accumulated - get oxidised - gives rise to Black urine - Homogentisic acid gets polymerized in body forming ALKAPTON BODIES, which gets accumulated in: Cailages - Nose, ear pinna, interveebral disc Connective tissue has bluish black colour. Patient develops ahralgia & ahritis. - This condition is known as Ochronosis. Ahritis is also known as ochronotic ahritis - Benedict 's test is positive due to homogentisic Acid, which is a Reducing substance - Treatment drug is NITISINONE | Pediatrics | NEET Jan 2020 | A patient complains of knee pain. Routine investigations are unremarkable and still, the patient is unsatisfied. Urine turns black on standing, what is the enzyme involved?
A. Homogentisate oxidase
B. Xanthine oxidase
C. Methyl malonate oxidase
D. Phenyl pyruvate oxidase
| Homogentisate oxidase |
8f0e1a44-996c-4d95-ac95-105fbbdb5736 | A pneumothorax is, when looked for, usually easily appreciated. Typically they demonstrate: visible visceral pleural edge is seen as a very thin, sharp white line. no lung markings are seen peripheral to this line. | Physiology | All India exam | Minimum pneumothorax is best seen in which of the following view (chest x-ray)?
A. Lordotic view
B. Right lateral view
C. Left lateral view
D. Chest x-ray in complete expiration
| Chest x-ray in complete expiration |
b390caa1-84cc-46dd-8aeb-8a4e3cfbbb4c | Glasgow coma scale: Eye opening Best verbal response Best motor response Response Score Response Score Response Score Spontaneously 4 Oriented and Converses 5 Obeys commands 6 To verbal stimuli 3 Disoriented and converses 4 Localises pain 5 To pain 2 Inappropriate words 3 Flexion- withdrawal to pain 4 Never 1 Incomprehensible words 2 Abnormal flexion (decoicate rigidity) 3 No response I Abnormal extensive obsturing 2 No response 1 Maximum score is : 15 Minimum score is :03 RE: BAILEY AND LOVE 27TH ED | Surgery | All India exam | Calculate GCS of 25 old head injury patient with following parameters confused,opening eyes in response to pain ,localising pain response to pain
A. 6
B. 11
C. 12
D. 7
| 11 |
c1d28c2f-2713-4781-921d-76eed2d1463a | Pronator of proximal radioulnar joint - Pronator teres (median nerve).
Pronator of distal radioulnar joint - Pronator quadratus (anterior interosseous nerve). | Anatomy | null | The nerve supply to pronator muscle of distal radioulnar joint is :
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Anterior interosseous nerve
D. Posterior interosseous nerve
| Anterior interosseous nerve |
6b2f8217-46c6-4e5f-8684-dbbaa46a98d6 | Severe Congenital toxoplasmosis Block in B cell differentiation due to defective interaction between T and B cells. Naive B cells are not able to differentiate into IgA - producing cells. | Microbiology | null | Acquire IgA deficiency may occur in ?
A. Severe Congenital toxoplasmosis
B. Severe Measles infection
C. Severe Brucellosis
D. Severe Leptospirosis
| Severe Congenital toxoplasmosis |
0ddf3989-776a-4623-bd72-2a1693b0b16c | Ans. is 'd' i.e., F3 International classification of disease-10 (ICD-10)o ICD -10 is WHO classification for all diseases and health problems (and not only psychiatric disorders). ICD-10 uses alpha numeric code made of an alphabet (in contrast DSM-IV uses numerical coding) - 'F' is for mental disorders. There are 10 main categories denoted by digits 0 to 9.CodeCategoryF0Organic, including symptomatic mental disorders.FIMental and behaviuor disorders due to psychoactive substance useF2Schizophrenia, schizotypal and delusional disordersF3Mood (affective) disordersF4Neurotic, stress-related and somatoform disorders.F5Behavioral syndromes associated with physiological disturbances and physical factorsF6Disorders of adult personality and behaviourF7Mental retardationF8Disorders of psychological developmentF9Behavioural and emotional disorders with onset usually occuring in childhood or adolescence. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Miscellaneous | Which category of ICD is associated with mood disorders?
A. F0
B. F1
C. F2
D. F3
| F3 |
88b9e21e-380b-4921-b420-d0dfc516837d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Orthomyxovirus DNA virusesPoxviridaeVariola, vaccinia, cowpox, monkeypox, tanapox, molluscum contagiosumHerpesviridaeHSV-1, HSV-2, varicella-zoster, EBV, CMV, HTLV-1, RK-virusAdenovirideAdenovirusParvoviridaeParvovirus, Adenosatellovirus, DensovirusPapovaviridaePapilloma \4rus (HPV), PolyomavirusHepadnaviridaeHepatitis-B virus RNA VirusesPicornaviridaePoliovirus, Coxsackievirus, Echovirus, Enterovirus, Rhinovirus, Hepatitis A virusCaliciviridaeNorwalk virus, Hepatitis E virusTogaviridaeRubella virus, Eastern equine encephalitis virus, Western equine encephalitis virusFlaviviridaeYellow fever virus, Dengue virus, St. Louis encephalitis virus, West nile virus, Hepatitis C virus, Hepatitis G virusCoronaviridaeCoronavirusesRhabdoviridaeRabies virus, Vesicular stomatitis virusFiloviridaeMarburg virus, Ebola virusParamyxoviridaeParainfluenza virus, Respiratory syncytial virus, Newcastle disease virus, Mumps virus, Rubeola (measles) virusOrthomyxoviridaeInfluenza virus | Microbiology | Virology | Influenza is caused by which virus -
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Orthomyxovirus
C. Bunyaviridae
D. Togaviridae
| Orthomyxovirus |
d190fe02-76e4-49b4-bbf5-bc3cfe129ad2 | At birth, the average height of a child is 50 cm.
During first year height increases about 50% of birth height (25 cm). | Pediatrics | null | Increase in height in first year is by –
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%
| 50% |
0fce4709-52c5-4717-80a9-956f48216267 | Incidence of malignant change in erythroplakia is 17- fold higher than in leukoplakia. | Surgery | null | The pre-malignant condition with the highest probability of progression to malignancy is
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Leuoplakia
D. Erythroplakia
| Erythroplakia |
7195909e-bcd7-49a0-911d-08fbd12c6a7a | The Ideal IUCD candidateThe planned parenthood federation of America has described the ideal IUCD candidate as a woman:who has born at least one childhas no history of pelvic diseaseis willing to check the IUCD tailhas access to follow up and treatment of potential problems, andis in a monogamous relationshipRef: Park pg no: 497 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Not an Ideal Candidate for inseion of IUCD
A. Have normal menstrual periods
B. No history of PID
C. Has at least one child
D. Cancer Cervix
| Cancer Cervix |
ca13a82e-7978-4817-be45-acd2f797deb4 | Tourette's disorder(Gilles de la Tourette) - combined vocal and multiple motor tic disorder. presence of both multiple motor and one or more vocal tics (>1 year) Onset <18 years involuntary, spasmodic, stereotyped movement of small groups of muscles; seen most predominantly in moments of stress or anxiety Ex: Nose twitching, Shoulder shrugging, Sustained eye closure, Tensing of abdominal or limb muscles Etiology- Neurotransmitter dysregulation in basal ganglia, striatum, and frontal lobes. Rx- Haloperidol , pimozide(first line) , Risperidone , olanzapine comorbidity- ADHD, OCD AUTO IMMUNE-PANDAS( Peadiatric Auto immune NeuroPsychiatric disorders assosiated with Streptococcus) Akathisia* Motor restlessness (unpleasant need to move), usually in the lower extremities Ballismus* Intermittent, coarse, large-amplitude, jerking, shaking, flinging movements Chorea* Irregular, spasmodic movements, usually affecting the limbs or face Tic* Non-rhythmic, Stereotyped, rapid, recurring movement, involuntary or semivoluntary, and sudden in onset. TYPES: (motor tic) or vocalization (phonic or vocal tic) Tremor* Unintentional, somewhat rhythmic, muscle movement involving oscillations of one or more pas of the body Stereotypy* Repetitive, usually meaningless, gestures, habits, or automatisms Reference: P 3617: chap 46.Tic Disorders(Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition)P 81 DSM-5 | Psychiatry | All India exam | Tourette is a disorder of
A. Attention deficit
B. Tics
C. Autism
D. Mental retardation
| Tics |
4b122166-7e01-453d-a28d-896b95c9c028 | Ref: Chapter 7. Neoplasia; page: 275; Robbins and Cot ran Pathologic Basis of Disease: 8t>? editionExplanation:* Defective DNA - repair syndromes are set of syndrome due to defect in DNA repair genes and resultant DNA instability.* These are autosomal recessive in inheritance and include:Xeroderma pigmentosumBloom syndromeAtaxia telangiectasia.* Whereas, HNPCC is associated with inactivation of DNA mismatch repair gene, resulting in increased susceptibility to colon cancer, and cancers of Endometrium, ovary etc.,* Example for Base pair defect is Sickle cell anemia; example for Translocation defect is Philadelphia chromosome in CML - t (9:22). | Pathology | Cytogenetic Disorders | Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused due to defect in: (Repeat)
A. Base pair
B. Nucleotide excision repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Translocation
| Nucleotide excision repair |
120f0df5-d2e8-485d-8f24-f50b45c17ae9 | ForamensStructuresCribriform plate of ethmoidOlfactory nervesOptic foramenOptic nerve, ophthalmic aery, meningesSuperior orbital fissureOculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves; ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve; superior ophthalmic veinForamen rotundumMaxillary division of trigeminal nerve, small aery and veinForamen ovaleMandibular division of trigeminal nerve, veinForamen lacerumInternal carotid aery, sympathetic plexusForamen spinosumMiddle meningeal aery and veinInternal acoustic meatusFacial and vestibulocochlear nerves, internal auditory aeryJugular foramenGlossopharyngeal, vagus, and spinal accessory nerves; sigmoid sinusHypoglossal canalHypoglossal nerveForamen magnumMedulla and meninges, spinal accessory nerve, veebral aeries, anterior and posterior spinal aeries | Anatomy | All India exam | Which of the following transmits the Internal Carotid aery?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen lacerum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen rotundum
| Foramen lacerum |
51181250-90e8-407c-9853-8fab29a64d15 | A specific BZD antagonist flumazenil is used for BZD poisoning ,it is a BZD analogue which has little intrinsic activity (no effect on normal subject), but competes with BZD agonist as well as inverse agonist for BZD receptor &reverse its effect . Ref: KD tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Which of the following compounds acts as a benzodiaz epine antagonist?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Furazolidone
D. Naltrexone
| Flumazenil |
b4fd053c-6aa1-49e5-bb01-4aefbcb872c4 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nasopharyngeal carcinoma o Among the given options only nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a common cause of cervical nodes in 70 years male,o Information in this question :i) Cervical adenopathy (Neck node) Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.ii) Type B tympanogram Indicates serous otitis media, which may be a complication of nasopharyngeal carcinoma due to eustachian tube blockade.o Thus, among the given options, nasopharyngeal carcinoma is the answer of choice.Clinical features of nasophary ngeal carcinomao Symptomatology of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is divided into five main groupsNasal symptomsNasal obstruction, nasal discharge, denasal speech (rhinolalia clausa), episiaxis.Otologic symptomsOtologic symptoms are due to obstruction of eustachian tube.This results in serous or suppurative otitis media. Which causes conductive deafness.Presence of unilateral serous otitis media in adult should raise the suspicion of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.Tinnitus and dizziness may occur.OphthalomoneuroLogical symptomsThese symptoms occur due to spread of tumor to the surrounding regions.Squint and diplopia due to involvement of VP cranial nerve.Ophthalmoplagia due to involvement of IIIrd. IVth &. VIth cranial nerve.Facial pain & reduced corneal sensations due to Vth nerve involvementExophthalmos and blindness due to direct extension into the orbit.Jugular foramen syndrome (IXth, Xth, XIth cranial nerve involvementj due to pressure by enlarged lateral retropharyngeal lymph nodes.Cranial nerve XIth involvement due to extension of growth to hypoglossal canal.Horner's syndrome due involvement of cervical sympathetic chain.Neckmass:-Itisthemnstcommonpresentation(60-90%)Due to cervical lymphadenopathy.Distant metastasisInvolve bone, lung, liver and other sites. | ENT | Pharynx | 70 year old man with cervical lymphadenopathy.What can be the cause -
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Angiofibroma
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. Otosclerosis
| Nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
86f53dbf-591a-4e58-beea-37369112da8a | Ans. C. HyperparathyroidismSerum alkaline phosphatase is increased in hyperparathyroidism, rickets, obstructive jaundice and Paget's disease. | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Serum alkaline phosphatase levels increases in:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Carcinoma of prostate
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Myocardial infarction
| Hyperparathyroidism |
553586eb-4e08-4bb9-81f5-e2c4b82d56c9 | Ans. B. S2 S3 S4 The pudendal nerve (Root Value S2 S3 S4 ) is the main nerve of the perineum. It carries sensation from the external genitalia of both sexes and the skin around the anus and perineum, as well the motor supply to various pelvic muscles, including the male or female external urethral sphincter and the external anal sphincter. If damaged, most commonly by childbirth, lesions may cause sensory loss or fecal incontinence. | Anatomy | Lower Extremity | Root Value of Pudendal Nerve is:
A. S1S2S3
B. S2S3S4
C. S3S4S5
D. L5S1S2
| S2S3S4 |
a02aa430-9053-4f18-ae5e-f3e6d3880bbe | Ans. (a) JAK-2The figure shows increased platelets in smear and increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow. To diagnose this as essential thrombocythemia (neoplasm); JAK-2 mutation analysis should be done. | Pathology | Misc. (W.B.C) | The most important investigation in the given case to diagnose if the condition is a neoplasm?
A. JAK-2
B. EPO level
C. PaO2
D. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
| JAK-2 |
3601e6a4-5888-49f2-9cb6-67b4589a2efb | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 14th November* 8th may - world red cross day* 8th march - international womens day* 14th november - world diabetes day* 1st december - world AIDS day | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non-Communicable Diseases | World diabetes day is celebrated on -
A. 8th may
B. 8th march
C. 14th November
D. 1st december
| 14th November |
65408e88-2c5d-4a4e-9306-16c386ba94eb | Refer Anesthesiology by Longnecker 2008/777 Boiling point of methoxyflurane is 104,7 degree Celsius whereas other flurrinated anesthetics have boiling point between 50 C and 60 C | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | An anesthetic agent with boiling temperature more than 75 C is
A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Cyclopropane
D. Methoxyflurane
| Methoxyflurane |
6e5c4ea0-c0f3-42a6-990a-60e76a6d0d38 | Airflow resistance of the normal upper airway is substantial, constituting up to 80% of total airway resistance during nose breathing and 50% during mouth breathing.Theoretically, tracheostomy tubes should decrease airflow resistance, but in fact, this does not occur because of the smaller radius (inner diameter 7-8 mm) of the tubes. Tracheostomy tubes may reduce dead space by up to 100 mL -150 mL, 30-50% when compared to spontaneous breathing. This occurs because the tubes are small and bypass the glottic and supraglottic spaces. | Microbiology | All India exam | Dead space is reduced in tracheostomy by
A. 5-10%
B. 15-20%
C. 20-30%
D. 30 - 50%
| 30 - 50% |
675fed7f-41d4-48c1-afa6-3d05607ef9b6 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Infeility and development vaginal carcinoma in female offspring Stilbestrol given to pregnant women Increased risk of vaginal and cervical carcinoma in the female offspring in childhood or early adulthood. | Pharmacology | null | S/E of diethyl stilbesterol when used in pregnant woman-
A. Deep vein thrombosis in pregnant woman
B. Feminization of external genitalia of male offspring
C. Infeility and development of vaginal carcinoma in female offspring
D. Virilization of the external genitalia of female offspring
| Infeility and development of vaginal carcinoma in female offspring |
7d317f2e-cfde-4d93-9b4a-8ce29283cc15 | ASA grade 3 is when comorbidities are present and make patient symptomatic often. | Anaesthesia | null | ASA -3 is
A. Comorbidities with minimal limitation
B. Comorbidities with moderate limitation
C. Comorbidities which are constant threat to life
D. No comorbidities
| Comorbidities with moderate limitation |
c3612ca4-cd68-4f9f-a691-4174b60ccfc9 | Lepromatous leprosy The first clinical manifestations are usually dermal (because early nerve involvement is usually asymptomatic) Leonine facies occur due to diffuse involvement of the facial skin Early symptoms Nasal symptoms of stuffiness, discharge and epistaxis, and oedema of legs and ankles due to increased capillary stasis and permeability. Eyebrows and eyelashes become thinned or lost (madarosis) Ear lobes are thickened Nose becomes misshapen, and may collapse due to septal perforation and loss of the anterior nasal spine Dermal signs comprise macules, diffuse papules, infiltration or nodules, Hair growth and sensation are not initially impaired over the lesions. | Dental | Mycobacterial Infections | Lesion not seen in Lepromatous leprosy is:-
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
| Vesicle |
9bb82660-2395-45ab-ac2d-e4c8fb998b92 | Every person, aware of the Commission of ceain offences shall give information to the nearest Magistrate or police officer.This comes under 39 Crpc section. Examples of such offences are: Offences relating to adulteration of food and drugs, etc Offences affecting life (302, 303, 304 IPC) Offence relating to kidnapping for ransom (364AIPC) Offences of robbery and dacoity | Forensic Medicine | Legal sections | When a homicide case comes to a doctor, he has to inform police. This comes under which section?
A. 39 Crpc
B. 27 Crpc
C. 174 Crpc
D. 176 Crpc
| 39 Crpc |
9c20eba0-1614-4dd2-8654-a1545b4338ce | MRI - gives soft tissue extent of tumor; Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA) shows compression of the carotid aery whereas magnetic resonance venography shows invasion of jugular bulb by the tumor. | ENT | null | The glomus tumor invasion of jugular bulb is diagnosed by
A. Carotid angiography
B. Veebral venousvenography
C. X-ray
D. Jugular venography
| Jugular venography |
23939a47-1320-48f9-8f38-4d76e6fe4376 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lysogenic conversion o The toxigenicity of the diphtheria bacilli depends on the presence in it of corynephages (tox +). Nontoxigenic strains may be rendered toxigenic by infecting them with beta phage or some other larger phage. This is known as lysogenic conversion or phage conversion. | Microbiology | Corynebacterium | Toxin production by Corynebacterium diphtheria is due to ?
A. Chromosomal mutation
B. Presence of plasmid
C. Lysogenic conversion
D. Transformation
| Lysogenic conversion |
23ee37ae-7506-4536-8090-9e3a7022ba0b | Type III vWD is the rarest type of von Willebrand disease. It result from the inheritance of a mutant vWF gene from both parents. TYPES OF vBD: Condition Defect vWD type 1 Mild to moderate quantitative deficiency of vWF (i.e., about 20-50% of normal levels). vWD type 2A The most common qualitative abnormality of vWF selective loss of large and medium-sized multimers vWD type 2B Loss of only large multimers vWD type 2N Characterized by a defect residing within the patient's plasma vWF that interferes with its ability to bind F VIII. vWD type 2M Involves qualitative variants with decreased platelet-dependent function vWD type 3 A severe, quantitative deficiency associated with very little or no detectable plasma or platelet vWF, have a profound bleeding disorder | Medicine | Platelet & Coagulation disorders | Which is the rarest type of von Willebrand disease?
A. vWD type 1
B. vWD type 2A
C. vWD type 2N
D. vWD type 3
| vWD type 3 |
1b045676-aba6-43eb-8670-9c3c4bd60a7a | Circulatory adjustments at birth
These are brought about because of a shift from placental dependance for gas exchange in the fetus to pulmonary gas exchange in the neonate.
1) Pulmonary circulation
Immediately after birth lungs expand due to the first few breaths of the neonate.
This causes a fall in pulmonary vascular resistance (O2 causes pulmonary vasodilatation).
This results in increased flow into pulmonary trunk and arteries.
The pulmonary artery pressure falls due to lowering of pulmonary vascular resistance.
The pressure relations between the aorta and pulmonary trunk are reversed so that the blood flow through the ductus arteriosus is reversed → Instead of blood flowing from the pulmonary artery to aorta, the direction of flow through ductus, is from the aorta to pulmonary trunk.
Increasing oxygen saturation causes the muscle of ductus to constrict →
In full term neonates, the ductus arteriosus closes within 10 to 25 days.
2) System circulation and circulation through the heart
Loss of placental circulation and clamping of the cord after birth results in an increase in systemic vascular resistance.
This tends to increase the aortic blood pressure and the left ventricular systolic pressure.
The loss of placental circulation results in a sudden reduction of flow through ductus venosus which closes off → Flow through ductus venosus disappears by the 7th day of postnatal life.
The loss of placental flow results in a decrease in the volume of blood returning to right atrium → Right atrial pressure decreases.
The left atrial pressure becomes higher than right atrial pressure and the septum primum which ats as a valve of fossa ovalis, approximates with the septum secundum to close off formen ovale.
Functional closure of foramen ovale occurs very quickly.
Over a period of months, the septum primtun and septum secundum become firmly adherent resulting in anatomical closure of the foramen ovale.
After closure of ductus arteriosus, there is establishment of postnatal circulation : -
The blood reaching the right atrium through IVC and SVC is emptied into the right ventricle from where it is pumped into pulmonary trunk.
After coursing through lungs for gas exchange, it reaches the left atrium and ventricle.
The left ventricle pumps it out for distribution in the body for oxygenation of the tissues.
The venous return again comes back to right atrium through IVC and SVC.
All of the blood leaving the right ventricle, after coursing through lungs, reaches the left ventricle → The two ventricles are connected in series and therefore, the output of right and left ventricles are same (in contrast to fetal circulation, where right ventricular output is more). | Pediatrics | null | Anatomical closure of ductus arteriosus occurs at –
A. Birth
B. 3–4 day
C. 10th day
D. 30th day
| 10th day |
9cac582d-668e-4040-ae2e-f0029f21aef8 | harshmohan textbook of pathology *detection of circulating autoantibody called rheumatoid factor against Fc poion of autologous IgG in about 80% of cases | Pathology | General pathology | Rheumatoid factor is directed against-
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgA
| IgG |
e8e43a1c-0e44-40d2-b702-31b139d131e1 | To reduce prevalence of blindness in population from 1.38% to 0.31% by 2000. Ref- Park&;s textbook of Preventive and social medicine 24th edition. . | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non communicable diseases | Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, the goal is to reduce the prevalence of blindness to a level of -
A. 0.10%
B. 0.31%
C. 0.50%
D. 1%
| 0.31% |
1d029dc4-b64f-4e73-ada6-c1deccc87a11 | The pathway conves acetyl-CoA to palmitate and requires NADPH, ATP, Mn2+, biotin, pantothenic acid, and as cofactors. Ref: Harper 28th edition, chapter 23. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not required for conversion of acetyl CoA to palmitate?
A. ATP
B. Niacin
C. NADPH
D. Biotin
| Niacin |
c396af37-6e38-4458-909a-7e01e91f617b | Femur gets its nutrient artery from 2nd perforating Branch arising from profunda femoris artery. | Anatomy | null | Nutrient artery to Femur is a branch of
A. Inferior gluteal Artery
B. 1st perforating Branch of profunda femoris artery
C. 2nd perforating Branch of profunda femoris artery
D. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
| 2nd perforating Branch of profunda femoris artery |
9dee6709-ee80-4c43-8a72-8c7ed477c63a | Kuppuswamy &;s socio-economic status scale education occupation family income per month (refer pgno:690 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | Kuppuswamy socioeconomic status scale comprises of -
A. Education, family size and housing
B. Education, occupation and housing
C. Income, family size and land holding
D. Education, occupation and income
| Education, occupation and income |
a3da19ac-1e6f-4c7a-9e90-2ed8b303c71a | A condition in which a child resists having bowel movements, causing impacted stool to collect in the colon and rectum and lead to leakage. Common causes of this symptom Encopresis can have causes that aren&;t due to underlying disease. Examples include sneezing, constipation, incontinence due to lack of potty training or incontinence due to misinterpretation of body signals. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Growth and development | Early strict toilet training can result in
A. Nocturnal enuresis
B. Encopresis
C. Night terror
D. Temper tantrauma
| Encopresis |
85688d21-c255-4a14-bc1d-a9cf6a20d632 | ref Robbins 7/e p69 lipoxins are a recent addition to the family of bioactive products generated from arachidonic acid.they have anti inflammatory activity | Anatomy | General anatomy | To which of the following family of chemical mediator of inflammation,the lipoxins belong
A. Kinin system
B. Cytokines
C. Chemokines
D. Arachidonic acid metabolites
| Arachidonic acid metabolites |
a8575d7f-8608-49b1-8237-96a6ab3c3bd6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Decreased transferrin saturation Sideroblastic anemia Sideroblastic anemia is a type of anemia in which the body has adequate amount of iron but is unable to corporate it into hemoglobin. Pathogensis o The basis defect is a failure to completely form heme molecules, whose biosynthesis takes place paly in the mitochondria. o The iron enters into the mitochondria, but cannot be utilized to synthesize heme. So iron, accumulates in mitochrondria giving a ringed appearance --> Ringed sideroblast. o Because these ringed sideroblastis can develop poorly or not at all into mature RBCs, anemia is a consequence. | Pathology | null | Not present in Sideroblastic anaemia is ?
A. Microcytic anaemia
B. Decreased transferrin saturation
C. Sideroblast cells in blood smear film
D. Ineffective erythropoesis
| Decreased transferrin saturation |
9f7047ce-7627-4620-844a-400a258f17c0 | Karyotyping is best to differentiate between MRKH and testicular feminization syndrome. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following tests can differentiate MRKH from testicular feminizing syndrome
A. 3D USG
B. MRI
C. Karyotyping
D. Serum testosterone levels.
| Karyotyping |
508eeccc-697a-4759-aa03-0572166f30b7 | Voiding cystourethrography is the best method to visualize posterior urethra. Remember, Urethra can be imaged radiographically in two ways. Anterograde techniques --> Best for visualization of posterior urethra. (This is done along with voiding cystourethrography or with voiding following excretory urography) Retrograde technique --> Best for examining the anterior (penile) urethra (Contrast is injected through tip of urethra). Ref: Sabiston 20th Ed. ; Schwaz 11th Ed. | Surgery | All India exam | The posterior urethra is best visualized by ?
A. Static cystogram
B. Retrograde urethrogram
C. Voiding cystogram
D. CT cystogram
| Voiding cystogram |
6d349161-54d4-4332-b74c-1ed5b72173a3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Axillary Complications of fracture surgical neck humeruso Shoulder stiffness.o Axillary nerve is particularly vulnerable, both from the injury and from surgeryo Axillary artery injury o Malunion o Nonunion o Myositis ossificans | Orthopaedics | Fracture of the Humerus | Which nerve is damaged in fracture surgical neck humerus -
A. Axillary
B. Radial
C. Ulnar
D. Median
| Axillary |
a1a358e5-39f9-49b0-bf22-4770f726d40a | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 70% o A herd immunity of over 70% is considered necessary to prevent epidemic spread, but some believe that the critical level may be as high as 90%.Diphtheriao Diphtheria is an acute infectious disease caused by toxigenic strains of corynebacterium diphtheriae.o Source of infection - cases or carriers; carriers are common sources of infection, their ratio is estimated to be 95 carriers for 5 clinical cases.o Infective period-14-28 days from the onset of disease,o Age group-1 to 5 yearso Sex-Both sexeso Incubation period-2-6 dayso The period of infectivity may vary from 14 to 28 days from the onset of the disease, but carriers may remain infective for much longer period.o A case or carrier may be considered non-communicable when at least 2 cultures properly obtained from nose and throat, 24 hours apart, are negative for diphtheria bacilli.Control of diphtheriao Control diphtheria requiresControl in cases and carrierControl for contacts (prophylaxis for contact)Prophylaxis for community ->> by vaccinationControl in cases and carrier1) Early diagnosis-By nose & throat examination and culture.2) Isolation-For at least 14 days or until proved free of infection, i.e. at least 2 consecutive nose and throat swabs, taken 24 hours apart, should be negative before terminating isolation.Treatmenti) Cases-Diphtheria antitoxin plus penicillin or erythromycin.ii) Carrier-Erythromycin | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | A herd immunity of over - % is considered necessary to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria-
A. 50%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 70%
| 70% |
bf1f425b-d7e1-4ccf-98db-cc0fdd8237b2 | Clozapine REF: Kaplan and sadock's synopsis in psychiatry 10th ed p. 489-490 Antipsychotics can be categorized into two main groups: the older conventional antipsychotics, which have also been called first-generation antipsychotics or dopamine receptor antagonists (DRA), and the newer drugs, which have been called second-generation antipsychotics or serotonin dopamine antagonists (SDAs) Strategies for Poor Responders of Antipsychotic: It may suggest that the patient is a rapid metabolizer of the antipsychotic or that the drug is not being adequately absorbed. Changing to another drug is preferable to changing to a high dose. If a patient has responded poorly to a conventional DRA, it is unlikely that this individual will do well on another DRA. Changing to an SDA is more likely to be helpful. Clozapine is effective for patients who respond poorly to DRAs. Double-blind studies comparing clozapine to other antipsychotics indicated that clozapine had the clearest advantage over conventional drugs in patients with the most severe psychotic symptoms, as well as in those who had previously responded poorly to other antipsychotics. | Psychiatry | null | Drug of choice for schizophrenic patient with poor oral absorption is?
A. Haloperidol
B. Fluphenazine
C. Clozapine
D. Olanzapine
| Clozapine |
e2a08164-9683-4e7e-b860-771e1e6cda66 | Oppounist post-splenectomy infection is caused by capsulated bacteria.Post-splenectomy septicaemia may result from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitides, Haemophilus influenzae and Escherichia coli.Bailey and love 26th edition pg: 1096 | Surgery | G.I.T | Most common infections after splenectomy are
A. Capsulated bacteria
B. Uncapsulated bacteria
C. Gram positive sepsis
D. Gram negative bacteria
| Capsulated bacteria |
f47a9c8e-38a5-456b-a8a4-8ebc5a4c8de1 | Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes - abbreted to MELAS - is one of the family of mitochondrial cytopathies, which also include MERRF, and Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy. It was first characterized under this name in 1984. A feature of these diseases is that they are caused by defects in the mitochondrial genome which is inherited purely from the female parent. However, it is impoant to know that some of the proteins essential to normal mitochondrial function are produced by the nuclear genome, and are subsequently transpoed to the mitochondria for use. As such, mutations in these proteins can result in mitochondrial disorders, but can be inherited from both male and female parent in the typical fashion. The disease can manifest in both sexes.This condition is inherited in a mitochondrial pattern, which is also known as maternal inheritance and heteroplasmy. This pattern of inheritance applies to genes contained in mitochondrial DNA. Because egg cells, but not sperm cells, contribute mitochondria to the developing embryo, only females pass mitochondrial conditions to their children. Mitochondrial disorders can appear in every generation of a family and can affect both males and females, but fathers do not pass mitochondrial traits to their children. In most cases, people with MELAS inherit an altered mitochondrial gene from their mother. Less commonly, the disorder results from a new mutation in a mitochondrial gene and occurs in people with no family history of MELAS. | Pathology | General pathology | Type of inheritance in MELAS -
A. AD
B. AR
C. Mitochondrial
D. X-linked
| Mitochondrial |
b23cb368-34ab-4441-b125-186e0b213d25 | Ans. (a) A(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.202)Spiral ganglionContains cell bodies of the auditory nerve whose peripheral axons innervate hair cells on the organ of Corti90% to 95% of these sensory neurons innervate the inner hair cells (point A)Only 5-10% innervate the more numerous outer hair cells | Physiology | Nervous System | Spiral ganglion innervates which cells in the following diagram
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| A |
c5634663-0a07-470b-a5e1-4022ad8fd119 | The history suggests that the patient is suffering from Buerger disease. There is increased prevalence of HLA-A9 and HLA-B5 in these patients. HLA DISEASE HLA-B8 Myasthenia gravis, Graves Disease HLA-DR2 Narcolepsy HLA-DR3 Myasthenia gravis, Celiac sprue HLA-DR4/DW4 Rheumatoid ahritis | Surgery | null | A 30 year old male presented with pain in lower extremities, aggravated by walking. He gives the history of cigarette smoking. In this patient prevalence of which histocompatibility antigen is increased?
A. HLA-B5
B. HLA-B8
C. HLA-DR2
D. HLA-DR3
| HLA-B5 |
e7676b9b-385d-410a-b0d7-e19d90550d7d | Additional studies using immunohistochemical techniques revealed that malignant glomus tumors are characterized by the presence of MIB-1, p53, Bcl-2, and CD34. Up to 4% of the tumors are functional and produce clinically significant levels of catecholamines, norepinephrine, or dopamine with symptoms mimicking a pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma, parathyroid adenoma, and thyroid carcinoma have been repoed in association with glomus jugulare tumors. Ref: Medscape | Pathology | miscellaneous | Marker of glomus tumor -
A. CD-57
B. Cytokeratin
C. S-100
D. CD-34
| CD-34 |
c0315b82-a9be-498e-8995-008c2c59d508 | Ans. A: IPC-375 IPC-375 defines rape. A man is said to commit "rape" who, except in the case hereinafter excepted, has sexual intercourse with a woman under circumstances falling under any of the six following descriptions: ? First: - Against her will. Secondly: - Without her consent. Thirdly: - With her consent, when her consent has been obtained by putting her or any person in whom she is interested in fear of death or of hu. Fouhly: - With her consent, when the man knows that he is not her husband, and that her consent is given because she believes that he is another man to whom she is or believes herself to be lawfully married. Fifthly: - With her consent, when at the time of giving such consent, by reason of unsoundness of mind or intoxication or the administration by him personally or through another of any stupefying or unwholesome substance, she is unable to understand the nature and consequences of that to which she gives consent. Sixthly: - With or without her consent, when she is under sixteen years of age. Explanation: - Penetration is sufficient to constitute the sexual intercourse necessary to the offence of rape. Exception: - Sexual intercourse by a man with his wife, the wife not being under fifteen years of age, is not rape. | Forensic Medicine | null | Rape is defined under: September 2010
A. IPC 375
B. IPC 376
C. IPC 377
D. IPC 378
| IPC 375 |
02f85815-c2d9-40a3-82a7-bd1d8e9ab556 | Ans. C. Fetal steroid sulphatase deficiencyRef: Sperojf, 9th/ed, pll9ExplanationPlacental sulfatase deficiency# There is an X-linked metabolic disease characterized by a placental sulfatase deficiency in the syncytiotrophoblast, and postnatally, ichthyosis, occurring in about 1 in 2000-3000 newborn males.# Patients with the placental sulphatase disorder are unable to hydrolyze DHAS or 16a-hydroxy- DHAS, and, therefore, the placenta cannot form normal amounts of estrogen.# A deficiency in placental sulphatase is usually discovered when patients go beyond term and are found to have extremely low estriol levels and no evidence of fetal distress.# All newborn children, with a few exceptions, have been male.# The steroid sulfatase X-linked recessive ichthyosis locus (the steroid sulphatase gene) has been mapped to the distal short arm portion of the X chromosome.# Family history of scaling in males (as well as repeated postdate pregnancies) should prompt a consideration for prenatal diagnosis.WT1 gene# The VVT2 gene is named after the Wilms' tumor nephroblastoma because it is one of the genes on chromosome 11 deleted in patients with this tumor. Mutant mice lacking WT2 fail to develop kidneys and gonads.# WT1 mutations, however, could not be detected in 25 patients with a congenital absence of the uterus and vagina, indicating that WT1 may be necessary for normal renal and gonadal development, but not for early Mullerian duct development. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Sex Intersexuality | Least common cause of ambiguous genitalia in female genotype:
A. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
B. 11 hydroxylase deficiency
C. Fetal steroid sulphatase deficiency
D. WT1 gene
| Fetal steroid sulphatase deficiency |
9502bc3d-5d29-46ba-bbd2-4660be9eed1f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., SCC o Malignancy arising in burn scar is k-'a Marjolin s ulcer. It is most commonly squamous cell ca, although basal cell carcinoma may also be seen. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Neoplasia) | Most common malignancy found in Marjolins ulcer is -
A. BCC
B. SCC
C. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
D. Malignant melanoma
| SCC |
2d4f3259-c591-4b5d-8c05-b8739d580587 | Here, two options are there which are included in the differential diagnosis of the lytic lesion in the proximal humerus, i.e., unicameral bone cyst and aneurysmal bone cyst.
We cannot differentiate between two on the basis of information provided in the question.
However, the best option here is a unicameral bone cyst because : -
A pathological fracture is more common in the unicameral bone cyst.
In unicameral bone, cyst patient is asymptomatic and presents only after the occurrence of pathological fracture.
Most common site of unicameral bone cyst is proximal humerus.
A unicameral bone cyst is more common in a male child.
So in this question, the best answer is a unicameral bone cyst. However, the exactly similar presentation may occur in aneurysmal bone cyst also. | Orthopaedics | null | Babloo a 10-year-old boy presents with # of the humerus. X-ray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. Likely condition is
A. Unicameral bone cyst
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
| Unicameral bone cyst |
05ab7dd3-4570-478c-a33e-77d3078e05ff | * Auriculo temporal nerve is the Post ganglionic parasympathetic nerve which on injury during parotidectomy, results in Gustatory sweating syndrome known as Frey's syndrome after 2-3 months. * Auriculotemporal nerve is the branch of Mandibular division of Trigeminal Nerve( 5th Cranial Nerve) Ref:- Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition; Pg num:- 191 | Surgery | Head and neck | Frey's Syndrome is due to injury of which of the following nerve branch
A. Facial Nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve
| Trigeminal nerve |
029017e9-a336-4b9a-bb6e-cb45a7153fd5 | Refer kDT 7/e p 108,113 The structure of teiary and quaternary amine is depicted in the picture As seen in the diagram, quaternary amine are ionized and thus water soluble. These drugs are not able to cross the blood brain barrier Atropine hyoscine and physostigmine are teiary amines (and thus lipid soluble) and can cross blood brain barrier whereas glycopyrrolate is quaternary amine and cannot cross the blood brain barrier | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the following is not a teiary amine
A. Atropine
B. Hyoscine
C. Glycopyrolate
D. Physostigmine
| Glycopyrolate |
f8f0f856-65d7-40e1-8363-90dcc8e391c5 | LH surge 36 hrs (24- 36 hrs) before ovulation. LH peak 12 hrs before ovulation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception | Onset of LH surge precedes ovulation by:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
| 36 hours |
54bdae92-1c11-40a3-a4d0-b8881d3ad372 | Rave drugs are ectasy (MDMA), gamma-hydroxybutyrate and rohypnol. | Forensic Medicine | null | Rave drug is ?
A. Cannabis
B. Cocaine
C. Heroin
D. Ecstasy
| Ecstasy |
67f82c76-9223-4a75-b1ea-7daccca87f5c | Paneth cells, located in the basal poion of the intestinal crypts below the stem cells, are exocrine cells with large, eosinophilic secretory granules in their apical cytoplasm. The granules contain the bactericidal enzyme lysozyme, an arginine-rich protein, and zinc. Paneth cell granules undergo exocytosis to release lysozyme, phospholipase A2, and hydrophobic peptides called defensins, all of which bind and breakdown membranes of microorganisms and bacterial walls. Paneth cells have an impoant role in innate immunity and in regulating the microenvironment of the intestinal crypts. Ref: Mescher A.L. (2010). Chapter 15. Digestive Tract. In A.L. Mescher (Ed), Junqueira's Basic Histology: Text & Atlas, 12e. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is present in Paneth cells?
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Molybdenum
D. Selenium
| Zinc |
d92d8aeb-d542-4f1d-88c4-5b7708c23b29 | Internal carotid aery is a terminal branch of common carotid aery. It first runs through the neck (cervical pa), then passes through the petrous bone(petrous pa), then courses through the sinuses(cavernous sinuses)and lastly lies in relation to the brain(cerebral pa). AREA OF DISTRIBUTION Cervical pa of the aery does not give any branch. Petrous pa gives branches for the middle ear. Cavernous pa supplies hypophysis cerebrospinal.The cerebral pa gives ophthalmic aery for orbit,anterior cerebral,middle cerebral,anterior choroidal and posterior communicating for the brain. Ref BDC volume 3,Sixth edition pg 312 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Which is not a branch of cavernous pa of internal carotid aery?
A. Cavernous branch
B. Inferior hypophyseal
C. Meningeal aery
D. Ophthalmic aery
| Ophthalmic aery |
afee4256-35a4-4ca1-97a1-328095e8fafd | Ans. C i.e. Site of crossing by the uterine aery | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | MC site of injury to the ureter during a hysterectomy is: March 2004
A. At the pelvic brim
B. In the ovarian fossa
C. Site of crossing by the uterine aery
D. As it enters the bladder
| Site of crossing by the uterine aery |
e261aba2-677c-4cfc-a4b3-a5df15378f09 | Ans. B: SLE Cutaneous LE may be pa of an uncommon disease called systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Only a few people with cutaneous LE also have SLE. The most common presentation is with a malar eruption or 'butterfly rash' (red patches across the cheeks). Other skin changes in SLE are photosensitivity (a rash on all sun exposed skin), mouth ulcers, uicaria (hives) and diffuse hair thinning. Rarely, it may cause blisters (bullous LE). SLE may also affect joints, kidneys, lungs, hea, liver, brain, blood vessels (vasculitis) and blood cells. It may be accompanied by antiphospholipid syndrome. | Skin | null | Butterfly rash is associated with: September 2006, September 2012
A. DLE
B. SLE
C. Rheumatoid ahritis
D. Reiter's syndrome
| SLE |
6c2bcf77-b767-488a-b3ba-5489cd889915 | Prospective nonrandomized evaluations of treatment duration of acute otitis media reveal no difference in outcome if given over 5-day, 7-day, or 10-day duration. However, 10-day treatment is indicated for children with history of acute otitis media within the preceding month. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | A 6-year-old girl complains of otalgia, fever, and irritability. Physical examination reveals a stiff, bulging, red tympanic membrane. Previous history of ear infections is denied. Clinical response to amoxicillin is maximized on which of the following durations?
A. 1 day
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
| 5 days |
16e3368e-eed2-4b5e-9340-19c1f918c73c | Ans. is'c'i.e., TrovafloxacinFouh generation quinolones/fluoroquinolones have broadest spectrum.These are trovafloxacin, fleroxacin, gemifloxacin, prulifloxacin, sitafloxacin and clinafloxacin. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following fluoroquinolone has broadest spectrum activity against bacteria ?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Norfloxacin
C. Trovafloxacin
D. Nalidixic acid
| Trovafloxacin |
3545e511-9b9d-46de-b547-b54e2fdeb4d6 | Granulomatosis With Polyangiitis Previously called Wegener granulomatosis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by a triad of the following: * Necrotizing granulomas of the upper-respiratory tract (ear, nose, sinuses, throat) or the lower-respiratory-tract (lung) or both * Necrotizing or granulomatous vasculitis affecting small- to medium-sized vessels (e.g., capillaries, venules, aerioles, and aeries), most prominently the lungs and upper airways but other sites as well * Focal necrotizing, often crescentic, glomerulonephritis Ref: ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th ed Pg no: 388 | Pathology | Urinary tract | RPGN(rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis) caused by-
A. FSGS
B. Wegener's granulomatosis
C. Good pasteur's syndrome
D. PAN
| Wegener's granulomatosis |
9e461fcb-281d-49fe-8dfe-2704b999fdc1 | Ans. (a) Left optic nerve + chiasmaRef: Kanski 7/e, p. 826-827This type of field defect is seen in meningiomas where the lesion is at the junction of optic nerve and the chiasma. This is called "junctional scotoma of Traquair". (VFD No. 3-Text) | Ophthalmology | Neuro-Ophthalmology | Right eye superotemporal quadrantopia, left eye centrocaecal scotoma with headache. Site of lesion is:
A. Left optic nerve + chiasma
B. Left optic tract + chiasma
C. Right optic nerve + chiasma
D. Right optic tract + chiasma
| Left optic nerve + chiasma |
a41910e6-e32d-4780-b42d-bdbf671d39ba | Genome much smaller than those of known virus. Agent is a protien free low molecular wt RNA REF:ANANTHANARYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PDNO.442 | Microbiology | Virology | Viroids are ?
A. ssRNA
B. DNA from matric proteins
C. Naked pathogenic human viruses
D. Fragments of viruses
| ssRNA |
92c4e03e-f5c3-4384-9f63-d2e62b7234e3 | Presence of carbon particles (soot) in respiratory passages and elevated level of carboxy-hemoglobin confirms that victim was alive when the burn occurred.
i.e. Ante-mortem burn. | Forensic Medicine | null | A 25 years female was found in the room with 100% burns on her body. The tongue was protruding out; the body was in pugilistic attitude with heat ruptures, peeling of skin, and heat haematoma and heat fractures of the skull. Carboxyhemoglobin was 25% and soot particles were present in the trachea. Which of the combinations of two findings will establish that the burns were antemortem in nature-
A. Heat haematoma & heat ruptures
B. Heat fracture of skull and peeling of skin
C. Heat haematoma and pugilistic attitude
D. Carboxy hemoglobin (25%) and soot particles in trachea
| Carboxy hemoglobin (25%) and soot particles in trachea |
02c3fd63-d433-49f5-b688-ad11479d4474 | Answer is A (Beta-Blockers) Beta Blockers are recommended as First Line Agents of choice for treatment of hypeension in hypeensive patients with Stable Ischemic Hea Disease. | Medicine | null | Q. Initial Antihypeensive agent of choice in a patient with stable ischemic hea disease is
A. Beta-Blockers
B. Alpha-Blockers
C. Calcium Channel Blockers
D. Ace Inhibitors
| Beta-Blockers |
a86f69ef-f5c5-4209-8c84-d9f7dee9b07c | The term stillborn refers to the death of a fetus after 28 weeks of gestation or death of a fetus weighing 1000gms. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | After which of the following gestational age is a dead baby said to be a still born ?
A. 20 days
B. 28 days
C. 20 weeks
D. 28 weeks
| 28 weeks |
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