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e8b34af9-6a4b-42cf-90ce-fb46a23db79d | The lungs are generally clear without rales or rhonchi and chest roentgenogram shows
Prominent pulmonary vascular markings ❑ Overaeration
Fluid lines in the fissure ❑ Flat diaphragms
Prominent inter lobar fissure ❑ Occasionally pleural fluid. | Pediatrics | null | Characteristics radiological feature of transient tachypnoea of newborn is –
A. Reticulogranular appearance
B. Low volume lungs
C. Prominent horizontal fissure
D. Air bronchogram
| Prominent horizontal fissure |
2166e021-8b96-47ad-9e4d-fa55a623938b | Ans: A. High percentage of immunized people(Ref Park 24/e p195-196, 23/e p186)High failure of tuberculin test:High percentage of immunized people - Due to higher BCG coverage producing tuberculin hypersensitivity.Exaggerated responses:In presence of atypical mycobacteria infection & 'boosting effect' of second tuberculin dose producing larger reaction than 1st.Tuberculin test lost its sensitivity as an indicator of true prevalence of infection. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Tuberculin test is a cheap and easily available test. In which of the following situations there is high failure in the interpretation of the test?
A. High percentage of immunized people
B. HIV cases are less
C. High prevalence of disease
D. Environmental mycobacterium infections are less
| High percentage of immunized people |
1acc9c45-12a8-4fd0-92e6-c7980c21348a | Ans: A. VVMRef: K Park, 23'd ed, pg. 110VVM (Vaccine Vial Monitor)VVM is a label containing a heat-sensitive material which is placed on a vaccine l to register cumulative heat exposure over time.It has outer blue circle and inner white square. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following parameters is used to determine the sensitivity of vaccine due to heat?
A. VVM
B. VMV
C. VCM
D. VMM
| VVM |
dd0e6433-1998-4d01-bd39-8c64bfa0dd4f | Rt. upper lobe Consolidation Ill-defined radio-opacity in the right upper lobe-Obscuration/Silhouetting the right hea border No tracheal detion NOTE:* Silhouetting of right hea border - Rt. Middle lobe pathology* Silhouetting of left hea border - Lingular pathology Normal CXR RML Consolidation Lung abscess: Hydatid cyst Presence of Air fluid levels Shows cystic lesion with multiple floating membranes | Radiology | AIIMS 2019 | A 8 year old child presented with cough and fever since 15 days. On auscultation, decreased air entry was found on right side. A CXR was done and shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Consolidation
B. Abscess
C. Hydatid Cyst
D. Congenital. AV Malformation
| Consolidation |
fff1837f-cb64-4f0a-9832-6d611b8e9f28 | - Disease control is determined by, 1. Reduction of Incidence 2. Reduction of duration of disease 3. Reduction of complications 4. Reduction of financial burden to the community. - Reducing incidence to zero Localized - Elimination Worldwide - Eradication - If the chain of transmission has been reasonably interrupted for minimum 3 years, ceificate of Elevation of malaria from world Health Organisation is given. | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Malaria control means
A. To reduce Malaria moality to Zero
B. To prevent local transmission for 3 years
C. To reduce Malaria disease so that its no longer a Public Health Problem
D. To reduce Incidence to Zero
| To reduce Malaria disease so that its no longer a Public Health Problem |
51bdbdd1-de3d-45e7-8bfb-dbd36e1ae434 | Ans. D. Inguinal approachCryptorchidism is the most common congenital abnormality of the genitourinary tract.Cryptorchidism means hidden testis.An absent testis may be due to agenesis or atrophy secondary to intrauterine vascular compromise also known as the "vanishing testis syndrome".Bilaterally absent testes is anorchia which is 10% cases.More common on Right Side.Complications of undescended testesTorsion can be seen in incomplete testicular descentSterility is seen in bilateral cases (especially intra-abdominal testes)Incomplete testicular descent predisposes to malignant disease; cancer is more common in an incompletely descended testes-orchidopexy may or may not diminish the risk.Atrophy of an inguinal testes before pubey may possibly be caused by recurrent minor trauma.In patients with a unilateral nonpalpable testis, a descended testis that is larger than expected suggests an atrophic undescended testis; confirmation requires surgical intervention typically diagnostic laparoscopy to seek an intra-abdominal testis or confirm testicular agenesis. However, scrotal or inguinal exploration is sometimes done if a testicular remnant distal to the internal inguinal ring is suspected. | Pediatrics | null | 4yr boy absence of right testes, diagnostic laparoscopy done, a blind end vessel seen what to do next?
A. Open laprotomy
B. Nothing to be done
C. Scrotal approach
D. Inguinal approach
| Inguinal approach |
a30f9a2b-52f0-4880-980d-d56de2a88910 | Ans: B. Increase in renal perfusion due to agonist action on DI receptors(Ref: Goodman Gilman 13Ie p1062, 12/e p355; KDT 71e p134, 6Ie p507)Dopamine at low concentrations (2 to 5 mug/kg per minute) primarily acts on vascular D, receptors, especially in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds.Increased renal perfusion caused by dopamine due to DI agonism (at low doses) doesn't improves survival in acute shock. | Pharmacology | null | Among the following propeies of dopamine, which of them is not helpful in acute shock?
A. Alpha-1 agonist action leading to peripheral vasoconstriction
B. Increase in renal perfusion due to agonist action on DI receptors
C. Releases noradrenaline and causes positive inotropic effect
D. Direct action on hea beta-1 receptors
| Increase in renal perfusion due to agonist action on DI receptors |
f1cbc766-a7ea-44ec-ba8b-997ffc3a028a | "Respiratory distress in an infant along with a positive family history of similarly affected newborn infants strongly suggests, pulmonary alveolar proteinosis".
Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis is a disorder characterized by the intraalveolar accumulation of pulmonary surfactant.
Two clinically distinct forms of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis are seen -
Fatal form --> Presenting shortly after birth (congenital PAP)
u Gradually progressive form --> Presenting in older infants and children
Pathology
Although the mechanisms that lead to alveolar proteinosis are undefined, histological findings suggests that they result in a disruption of pulmonary surfactant metabolism.
The main surface tension lowering agent in surfactant is phospholipids le. primary dipalmitol phosphatidyl choline.
However DPCC needs surfactant protein (in endogenous and natural surfactants) for efficient dispersion which enables the formation of a phospholipid monolayer on the alveolar surface.
There are two surfactant proteins present in the body i.e., protein A and protein B.
In pulmonary alveolar proteinosis, there is absence of protein B.
In the absence of protein B, the rapid spread and absorption of the phospholipid (DPCC) does not take place so they cannot form a phospholipid monolayer on the alveolar surface.
This in turn leads to failure of expansion of alveoli leading to poor cardiorespiratory adaptation at birth.
Clinical manifestation -
This disorder is immediately apparent in the newborn period and rapidly leads to respiratory failure.
Congenital pulmonary alveolar proteinosis is clinically and radiographically indistinguishable from more common disorders of the newborn that lead to respiratory failure including pneumonia, generalized bacterial infection, respiratory distress syndrome and total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction.
Diagnosis
Histopathological examination of lung biopsy specimen is the gold standard for diagnosis.
On histopathological examination distal air spaces are filled with a granular, eosinophillic material that stains
positively with periodic - acid schiff reagent and is diastase resistant.
Treatment
Untreated, alveolar proteinosis in newborns is rapidly fatal and no successful medical therapy has been developed.
Repeated bronchoalveolar lavage is a temporizing measure.
Lung transplantation is the only therapeutic option but its use is limited by concerns about disease recurrence. | Pediatrics | null | 3.5 kg term male baby, born of uncomplicated pregnancy, developed, respiratory distress at birth, not responded to surfactant, ECHO finding revealed nothing abnormal, X–ray showed ground glass appearance and culture negative. Apgars 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes. History of one month female sibling died before. What is the diagnosis ?
A. TAPVC
B. Meconium aspiration
C. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
D. Diffuse herpes simplex infection
| Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis |
c6f6754f-21ac-49d0-b8cd-8bf25049d813 | History is suggestive of blood filled bone tumor seen in Hyperparathyroidism. HYPERPARATHYROIDISM May be primary (due to adenoma or hyperplasia), secondary (due to persistent hypocalcemia) or tertiary (when secondary hyperplasia leads to autonomous overactivity). Fig. X-ray hand--hyperparathyroidism Fig. Brown tumor Figs. A and B: (A) Lamina dura and (B) Resorption of lamina dura Salt pepper skull Parathyroid adenoma Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism. Presents with subperiosteal resorption, and replacement of endosteal cavitation marrow by vascular granulation and fibrous tissue (osteitis fibrosa cystica). Classical and pathognomic feature of hyperparathyroidism is subperiosteal coical resorption of middle phalanges on radial aspect Clinical features- Abdominal groans (dyspepsia), psychic moans, renal stones and weak bones (Groans, moans, stones and Bones). Ix- Parathyroid hormone and S. alkaline phosphate are raised. Calcium is high, serum phosphate is low. | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2019 | Elderly female present with pain and swelling in the thigh. Xray shows multiple lytic lesions in distal femur with no periosteal reaction. Aspirate from the swelling shows homogenous serosanguinous fluid with RBCs. Which investigation can confirm the diagnosis?
A. S. Calcium levels
B. S. PTH levels
C. MRI
D. CD1a IHC
| S. PTH levels |
543b341f-7350-4a9b-9bc6-63a1a2cee1e8 | Answer- A. CRISPRA type of genetic engineering in which DNA is inseed, deleted or replaced in the genome of a living organism using engineered nucleases, or "molecular scissors.Four Families of Engineered Nucleases being usedMeganucleasesTranscription Activator-Like Effector-based Nucleases (TALEN)Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs)Clustered Regularly Interspaced Sho Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR)-Cas systemForm the basis of a genome editing technology known as CRISPR/Cas9 that allows permanent modification of genes within organisms. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is a tool used in gene editing?
A. CRISPR
B. Gene Xpe
C. Big Data
D. HealthCare App
| CRISPR |
93c4a1a4-7b8b-4d71-b246-3125604bc899 | The lateral pterygoid muscle has 2 heads, one arising from the outer part of the lateral pterygoid plate and other from the base of sphenoid bone. The two heads come together and are inserted into the neck of the condyle. The main function of this muscle is to draw both the head of the condyle and the disc forward during opening movement. Lateral pterygoid muscles cause the forward movement of the condyle into the glenoid fossa. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following muscles causes the forward movement of the condyle in the glenoid fossa?
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
| Lateral pterygoid |
796d7b5d-f79d-4c6a-860c-198e9404ea07 | Ans: D. HM 3 and 4(Ref The Eve 3/e p305-307: Biochemistry of Eve by David R/p28)High molecular weight proteins in cataractous lens only in humans = HM 3 & 4.HM3 & HM4:Insoluble high molecular weight proteins.Found in cataractous lens. | Ophthalmology | null | High molecular weight proteins in cataractous lens seen only in humans:
A. HM 1 and 2
B. HM 2 and 3
C. HM 2 and 4
D. HM 3 and 4
| HM 3 and 4 |
29d2e3e3-3b3c-4b84-af19-e8e98c5e104e | Ans: C. Bouin's solution(Ref: Surgical Pathology by 'Rosai and Ackerman 9Ie p27; Upper Urinary tract Urothelial Carcinoma by Michael Grasso (2015)1p11)Testicular biopsy specimen should be put into Boitin's solution."Bouin's is a noncoagulate picrate solution which is routinely utilized to fix testicular biopsies because it preserves nuclear detail." | Pathology | null | The surgical registrar successfully performs a testicu!lar biopsy and hands over the specimen to the attend!ing nurse. The sister asks you how to send the speci!men to the pathologist. What fluid will you tell the sister to put the specimen in?
A. 95% ethanol
B. Zenker's solution
C. Bouin's solution
D. 10% formalin
| Bouin's solution |
4ffc9c91-2230-44f7-826f-91b8d683ab20 | Zoophobia is found in children of age group 2-4 yrs and it disaapears by 10 yrs of age. | Dental | null | Most common phobia in chilhood:
A. Zoophobia
B. Nyclophobia
C. Xenophobia.
D. Claustrophobia
| Zoophobia |
a40a185a-f898-4978-a1aa-17ea136cacce | Ans. d. Marked microvesicular steatosisReye!s Syndrome (Fatty Liver with Encephalopathy):Acute illness, encountered exclusively in childrenOnset usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection, especially influenza or chickenpoxdegCharacterized clinically by: Vomitingdeg, signs of progressive CNS damagedeg, signs of hepatic injurydeg, hypoglycemiadegCause is unknown, although viral agents and salicylates have been implicate&Morphologically, extensive vacuolization of the liver and renal tubulesdeg.Extensive accumulation of fat droplets within hepatocytes (microvesicular steatosis) | Medicine | null | A 4-year old girl presents with severe vomiting after a viral fever of 5 days. She is hospitalized and develops cerebral edema. Liver biopsy is most likely to demonstrate w hich of the following?
A. Centrizonal hemorrhagic necrosis
B. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
C. Ring granulomas
D. Marked microvesicular steatosis
| Marked microvesicular steatosis |
dce755d7-6fd9-4ec6-b136-74ead349da24 | Direct filling gold, also called gold foil, is a metallic restorative material that relies on its ductility and malleability to adapt to a cavity preparation. The restorative process requires condensation that makes the final restoration practically a wrought metal.
KARAT
It refers to the parts of pure gold present in 24 parts of alloy, e.g.,
— 24 karat gold is pure gold.
— 22 karat gold is 22 parts pure gold and 2 parts of other metal. | Dental | null | The carat for Au foil used for restorations is:
A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24
| 24 |
75875e90-359b-410d-a777-4cd41003fe93 | Cytochrome c is released from mitochondria during apoptosis. Once released into the cytosol, cytochrome c binds to a protein called APAF-1 (apoptosis-activating factor-1), forming a multimeric structure called the apoptosome. This complex binds to caspase-9, the critical initiator caspase of the mitochondrial pathway, and promotes its autocatalytic cleavage, generating catalytically active forms of the enzyme. | Pathology | AIIMS 2020 | APAF-1 is involved in the activation of which of the following casapses?
A. Caspase 8
B. Caspase 9
C. Caspase 3
D. Caspase 10
| Caspase 9 |
745734e9-afe6-4098-bd64-66ee49c64dc0 | Ans: A. 416 CrPC(Ref Reddy 33/e p392; Textbook on the Indian Penal Code by Krishna Deo Gaur 4/e p594, the-indian-penal-code-pdf:d74214920)Section 416 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973:Postponement of capital sentence pregnant woman.Ie., The power of high cou to stay execution of a pregnant woman.Sometimes if fit, commutes the sentence to life imprisonment. | Forensic Medicine | null | The high cou has the power to stay the execution of a pregnant woman according to which section of Criminal Procedure Code?
A. 416 CrPC
B. 417 CrPC
C. 418 CrPC
D. 419 CrPC
| 416 CrPC |
a963bf66-e44e-445f-b3ba-26efcd836ad9 | The best measure of organ perfusion and the best monitor of the adequacy of shock therapy remains the urine output". Minimum urine output in ADULTS - 1ml/min Minimum urine output in CHILDRENS - (0.5 - 1) ml/min | Surgery | AIIMS 2017 | Best guide for the management of Resuscitation is:
A. CVP
B. Urine output
C. Blood pressure
D. Saturation of Oxygen
| Urine output |
5aeb3b7a-9012-4472-a233-740ba0f1dac5 | Answer-D. Methotrexate"Methotrexate is the DMARD of choicefor the treatment of RA and is the anchor drug for most combination therapies.At the dosages ased for lhe treatment of RA, methotrexale has been shown to stimulate adenosine release from cells, producing an anti-inflammatory effect.Methotrexate (MTX) is a folic acid analog that binds with high affinity to the active catalytic site of dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs acts by increasing extracellular adenosine?
A. Leflunomide
B. Hydroxychloroquine
C. Azathioprine
D. Methotrexate
| Methotrexate |
a02c508f-6cf6-4699-b134-e50fd2d84fee | {This is due to damage of lingual branch of mandibular nerve.} | Anatomy | null | Injury to the right mandibular nerve as it passes through foramen ovale produces the following effects:
A. Loss of taste from the anterior 2/3 of tongue
B. Deviation of the tongue to the left
C. Deviation of chin to left when mouth is opened
D. Loss of general sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue
| Loss of general sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue |
7bfc7fbd-3b3d-42a0-b444-5ed198020986 | One of the common anatomic features shared by teeth that typically develop VRFs is an oval cross section of the root, with a buccolingual diameter being larger than the mesiodistal diameter.These teeth include the maxillary and mandibular premolars, the mesial roots of the mandibular molars, and the mandibular incisors. Such anatomy is easily observed in the axial plane of a CBCT scan.The fracture in these teeth typically starts in the buccolingual plane, specifically at the highest convexity of the oval roots.
Cohen's Pathways of the pulp ed 11 pg 809 | Dental | null | The cross section of the root most prone to vertical root fracture is
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Kidney shape
D. Elliptical
| Oval |
fb4ea4bd-0f5f-40fa-b377-d0ae72b374a1 | Oral screen was first introduced by NEWELL. It works on the principles of both force application and force elimination. | Dental | null | In which of the following conditions oral screen should
not be used:
A. Nail biting habit
B. Tongue thrusting
C. Acute infection of tonsils and adenoids
D. Thumb sucking
| Acute infection of tonsils and adenoids |
586daa2f-3bc5-4a48-8da5-21374ee1bf07 | Caries susceptibility of primary teeth (in descending order)
2nd molar > 1st molar > canine > lateral incisor > central incisor
Caries susceptibility of permanent teeth (in descending order)
1st molar > 2nd molar > Max. 2nd PM > Max. 1st PM & Mand. 2nd PM > Max. central & lateral incisor > Max. canine & Mand. 1st PM > Mand. Central & lateral incisor > Mand. canine
Surfaces involved in descending order (in primary teeth)
Occlusal > molar interproximal > incisor interproximal. (Proximal surfaces were affected more in first than in second primary molars). | Dental | null | The order of caries susceptibility of primary teeth is:
A. 2nd molar>1st molar>canine
B. 1st molar>2st molar>canine
C. Canine>1st molar>2nd molar
D. Canine>2nd molar>1st molar
| 2nd molar>1st molar>canine |
0f2b4bd8-8032-44cf-bf8e-ff24900ded1e | - The given image shows * Absent of Bronchovascular markings on the left lung compared to right lung * Left lung shifted or pushed toward the hilum- Hence, the given image is a case of Pneumothorax- If patient has pneumothorax with mediastinal shift, it is Tension pneumothorax and should be immediately managed with needle inseion in 5th ICS in mid-axillary line. | Radiology | AIIMS 2017 | 26 year old, 6 feet 4 inch male presented to the emergency depament with complaints of acute onset dysnea. On examination, he was tachypneic, other vitals were stable. A chest xray was done which shown the following pathology:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hydropnemo thorax
C. Massive pleural effusion
D. Pulmonary embolism
| Pneumothorax |
fec4f95e-7c1c-4e3e-9245-18cc14fe84e9 | Blocking voltage gated K+ channels on presynaptic membrane | K+ exit stops | Membrane does not get hyperpolarized |Continued Ach release When an AP depolarizes the presynaptic membrane=Ca++ channel open=allow release of neurotransmitter=from terminal=into synaptic cleft=forming bridge for the vesicles and release sites of a depolarized membrane. Blocking voltage gated Na++ channels will block the AP propagation Chloride channels are present=on the post synaptic membrane. | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Acetyl choline release can be increased from presynaptic membrane by:
A. Blocking voltage gated Na+ channels on presynaptic membrane
B. Blocking voltage gated Ca+ channels on presynaptic membrane
C. Blocking voltage gated K+ channels on presynaptic membrane
D. Blocking voltage gated CI- channels on presynaptic membrane
| Blocking voltage gated K+ channels on presynaptic membrane |
1badc5bb-d61a-48ea-9288-3754612f74a5 | Ans. a. 60In a subcenter area with crude bih rate of 20, the expected number of ANC registrations should be approximately 55.Number of Expected Pregnancies per Year Expected no. of live-bihs (Y)/year= Bih rate (per 1000 population) x Population of the area/1000 Number of Expected Pregnancies per YearAs some pregnancies may not result in a live bih (i.e., aboions & stillbih may occur), the expected number of live bihs would be an under-estimation of the total number of pregnancies. Hence, a correction factor of 10% is required, i.e., add 10% to the figure obtained above.Total number of Expected Pregnancies Z = Y + 10% of YPopulation under the subcentre = 5000Bih rate = 20Expected no. of live-bihs (Y)/year = 20 x 5000/1000 = 100Total number of Expected Pregnancies Z = Y + 10% of Y =100 + 10% of 100 = 110Expected number of ANC registrations will be half of yearly calculation = 55 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a JubLeitter arca pith crude bih rate of 211, what would be the expected number of ANC registrations?
A. 60
B. 80
C. 100
D. 120
| 60 |
b5135682-e700-4fda-a6b2-39b289c3cc41 | {All the muscles of soft palate are supplied by pharyngeal plexus derived from the cranial part of accessory nerve except tensor veli palatine which is supplied by the mandibular nerve. The action of musculus uvula is it pulls up the uvula. As the Right accessory is paralysed the uvula is drawn to the left side due to the normal action of left accessory.} | Anatomy | null | When a patient is asked to say 'ah' , if the uvula is drawn upwards to the left, the cranial nerve likely to be damaged is
A. Vagus
B. Rt accessory
C. Lt accessory
D. Hypoglossal
| Rt accessory |
a1726527-12af-47e3-82f1-b1ea871d2659 | Ans: D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1787, 1735; Ratting 13/e p202, 12/e p204).Nimodipine is approved for use in subarachnoid hemorrhage.Subarachnoid hemorrhage:Typically treated with the calcium channel blocker nimodipine, aggressive IV fluid administration, and therapy aimed at increasing blood pressure, typically with vasoactive drugs such as phenylephrine.The IV fluids and vasoactive drugs (hypeensive hypervolemic therapy) are used to overcome the cerebral vasospasm.Early surgical clipping or endovascular coiling of aneurysms is advocated to prevent complications related to re-bleeding.Hydrocephalus, typically heralded by a decreased level of consciousness, may require ventriculostomy drain. | Surgery | null | Nimodipine is approved for use in:
A. Subdural hemorrhage
B. Extradural hemorrhage
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
| Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
8b3e79da-c35a-4d0c-8bb1-ba5bb9f20949 | Ans: D. Titration with reducing sugar(Ref Harper 30/e p26)Titration with reducing sugar is not used for protein precipitation.Protein precipitation:Widely used to concentrate proteins & purify them from various contaminants.Used for isolating specific protein in quantities sufficient for analysis.Requires multiple successive purification techniques.Classic approaches:Based on,Isoelectric precipitation - Differences in relative solubility of individual proteins as pH function.Precipitation with ethanol or acetone - Polarity.Salting out with ammonium sulfate.Paper chromatography including TLCD. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not a technique for protein precipitation?
A. Trichloroacetic acid
B. Heat precipitation
C. Isoelectric point method
D. Titration with reducing sugar
| Titration with reducing sugar |
20c4de15-f187-4a56-941f-0aa7bc2702ba | Ans: B. Periampullary carcinoma(Ref Sabiston 201e p1544, 19/e p1535-1544; Schwaz 10/e p1408, 9/e p1220-1225 Bailey 27/e p1234, 26/e p1138, Blumga 5/e p919-925; Shackelford 7/e p1190-1196)Suggestive diagnosis is periampullary carcinoma.Since history of waxing and waning episode is seen.The waxing and waning nature of jaundice is due to sloughing of ampullaty cancer, resulting in transient resolution of the jaundice. | Surgery | null | A 60-year-old chronic smoker presented with progres-sive jaundice, pruritus and clay colored stools for 2 months. History of waxing and waning of jaundice was present. A CT scan revealed dilated main pancre-atic duct and common bile duct. What is the likely di-agnosis?
A. Carcinoma head of pancreas
B. Periampullary carcinoma
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. H lar cholangiocarcinoma
| Periampullary carcinoma |
dcf755f4-a047-4777-b656-544752fb83d7 | Ans: B. Superior pole of patella and impinging on femoral component during extension Patellar Clunk Syndrome is a painful condition associated with a mechanical catching or clunking during active extension following total knee ahroplasty (TKA).The syndrome is caused by growth of interposing soft tissue usually at the superior pole of the patella.This interposed soft tissue cannot be visualized on plain radiographs. | Surgery | null | Patellar cluck syndrome is interposition of soft tissue at or hyperophied scar:
A. Superior pole of patella and impinging on femoral component during flexion
B. Superior pole of patella and impinging on femoral component during extension
C. Inferior pole of patella and impinging on femoral component during flexion
D. Inferior pole of patella and impinging on femoral component during extension
| Superior pole of patella and impinging on femoral component during extension |
e4e65063-c1b6-43c7-9dbc-f18bffde95aa | Firing shrinkage occurs due to loss of water and densification through sintering. It is about 40% by volume. This can be reduced by proper condensation and firing technique. The higher the firing temperature the greater is the firing shrinkage. | Dental | null | Condensation shrinkage of porcelain during firing depends on:
A. Rate of arriving at firing temperature.
B. Uniformity of particle size.
C. Shape and size of particle.
D. Type of investment used
| Shape and size of particle. |
fc83df2a-e58c-4bb9-b4e8-d20541d3f9c4 | Answer- D (400)In this question, use Standard Error of propoions.The 95% confidence limits for a propoion are p +- 1.96 s.e.p, where s.e.p is the standard error of a propoion.p = sample propoion = propoion of diseased persons = 0.5 q = 1-p = 0.5 s.e.p .NI(p x q / n) Now here, the range of propoions with 95% confidence is mentioned as? 45-55%Hence, 2 s.e.p = 0.55-0.50 = 0.05 s.e.p = 0.0250.025= J(pxq/n)n = 400Thus, the sample size required will be 400. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The prevalence of disease in a population is expected to be 50%. An investigator is interested in the range of 45 to 55% with 95% confidence. The minimum sample size required for the study is:
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
| 400 |
4873ac63-79fe-4fdb-a63b-1c4064b80d15 | Ans: B. DMT-1Iron is brought into the cell through an active transpo processProtein DMT-1 (Divalent Metal Transpoer-1),Expressed on the apical surface of enterocytes in initial pa of duodenum.DMT-1 is not specific to iron & transpos other substances like zinc, copper, cobalt & manganese. | Pathology | null | Iron is taken up into enterocytes through which of the following?
A. DMT-2
B. DMT-1
C. Ferroprotein 1
D. GLUT1
| DMT-1 |
14a9e3be-384f-4b56-99c5-dfd851243951 | Answer- C. HypeensionA previous diagnosis of gestational diabetes or prediabetes, impaired glucose tolerance, or impaired fasting glycaemia.Being overweight, obeseA previous pregnancy which resulted in a child with a macrosomia. | Surgery | null | Which is not associated with GDM (Gestational DM)?
A. Past history of fetal abnormality
B. Obesity
C. Hypeension
D. Macrosomia
| Hypeension |
0cd0e1c4-aabe-4ac3-ae2b-83b0633cb376 | As VLDL is the main transporter of endogenous triglycerides; all the conditions causing increased endogenous triglyceride synthesis will also increase VLDL secretion. And these are:-
Well fed state (not starved).
High level of circulating free fatty acids.
Carbohydrate rich diet (especially sucrose and fructose)
Present of high level of insulin and low level of glycogen.
Ethanol (alcohol) ingestion.
Key Concept: | Biochemistry | null | A person on fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
A. Chylomicron
B. VLDL
C. HDL
D. LDL
| VLDL |
07549da1-d7ff-4fc2-85a0-a27023bbb810 | Ans. c. X-ray lumbar spine- AP view (Ref Tureks 6/e p503; Maheshwarl 3e/p 237; Wolfgang 7/e p 228-29, 206; Sutton 7/e p/66'Although for imaging of spondylolisthesis usually all are done, AP view appears to be least useful of these choices. On AP view, spondylolisthesis can show a sign called Napolean Hat sign. The lateral view is useful in detecting spondylolisthesis; it may demonstrate the pars defect.Spondylolisthesis is forward slip of one veebrae upon another; so it is best viewed (or seen earliest) in sagittal images of spine i.e. lateral and oblique X-ray of spine and saggital and axial views of CT and MRIQ | Radiology | null | Which of the following is the least useful for diagnosis of Spondylolisthesis?
A. CT
B. MR
C. X-ray lumbar spine- AP view
D. X-ray lumbar spine- Lateral view
| X-ray lumbar spine- AP view |
87c9ed45-4f13-4ec7-9af1-571dc39c84a9 | Ans. a. Henoch-Shonlein purpura (Ref Harrison 19/e p2100, 18/e p2797)Presence of non-blanching palpable purpura (vasculitis of skin) and colicky abdominal pain (vasculitis of gastrointestinal tract) in a five-year-old child together with evidence of IgA deposition in immune complexes suggests the diagnosis of Henoch Scholein Purpura | Pediatrics | null | A 5 year-old child presents with non-utatiening macules and pappules on the skin. Skin biopsy revealed a perivascular IgA deposition. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Henoch Shonlein purpura
B. Wegener's granulomatosis
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Drug-induced vasculitis
| Henoch Shonlein purpura |
16b0d12a-6521-4f27-a70f-2726a7a3f6a3 | Most pediatric endocrinologists recommend initial medical therapy using antithyroid drugs rather than radioiodine or subtotal thyroidectomy.
The 2 antithyroid drugs in widest use are methimazole and propylthiouracil. | Pediatrics | null | Treatment of choice in childhood thyrotoxicosis :
A. Radio Iodine
B. Lugols Iodine
C. Carbimazole
D. Surgery
| Carbimazole |
423b742c-8580-47ff-a3db-eafd9de39d41 | In the given picture the egg contains polar filaments and hooklets and the egg is non bile stained so this is the egg of H.nanan D.O.C- praziquintal | Microbiology | AIIMS 2018 | A child with 10 days abdominal pain presented to OPD. Stool microscopy was done which showed the given findings. What is the DOC for the disease caused by the given organism?
A. Albendazole
B. Mebandazole
C. Praziquintal
D. Pyrantelpamoate
| Praziquintal |
71905d50-bffe-468f-ada2-77d845d55daf | Indications for performing GCT: All those conditions in which there is risk of having diabetes.
On the basis of risk factors females are categorised into 3 category:
Low risk
All of the folowing:
Member of an ethnic group with a low prevalence of GDM
No known diabetes in first degree relatives
Age <25 years
Weight normal before pregnancy
Weight of previous baby normal at birth
No history of abnormal glucose metabolism
No H/o poor obstetrical outcome
Average risk
One or more of the following:
Member of an ethnic group with a high prevalence of GDM
Diabetes in a first degree relative
Age > 25 years
Overweight before pregnancy
Weight high at birth (previous baby)
High risk
Marked obesity
Strong family history of type II DM
Previous history of GDM impaired glucose metabolism or glucosouria
Unexplained stillbirth
H/o previous congenitally malformed baby | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following histories is not an indication to perform oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus?
A. Previous Eclampsia
B. Previous Congenital anomalies in the fetus
C. Previous Unexplained fetal loss
D. Polyhydramnios
| Previous Eclampsia |
d78f3997-44bd-4b80-acd5-ac1b36c33cf2 | Intrusion
Most severe form of luxation injuries.
Displacement is seen.
TOP is positive.
Mobility is not seen.
High pitched metallic sound on percussion is heard.
Splinting should be done for 4 weeks. | Dental | null | For intrusive luxation injuries, fixation period is about:
A. 2 weeks only
B. 4 weeks
C. 4 weeks with semi rigid and 2 week with rigid
D. 6 to 8 weeks
| 4 weeks |
d12e4d46-e1d9-4320-860c-184a735d9027 | Answer- A. Bitemporal hemianopiaInterruption of the optic chiasma will lead to bitemporal homonymous hemianopia because optic chiasma contains crossed over meclial fibers from both optic nerves, which are responsible for temporal Jield of vision."Hemianopia denotes loss of half of the field of vision. The commonest clinical form is homonymous hemianopia, in which the right or left half of the binocular field of vision is lost, owing to loss of the temporal half of one field and lhe nasal half of the other. This condition is due to a lesion situated in any pa of the visual paths from the chiasma to the occipital lobe. | Ophthalmology | null | Interruption of the optic chiasm will lead to:
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Homonymous hemianopia
D. Normal vision
| Bitemporal hemianopia |
8a82f9e4-b38f-43f6-9d8d-4ef8a6a4bcbf | Ans: B. AntiHAV, HBsAg, IgM antiHBc, AntiHCVRef: Harrison, I8't' ed., pg. 328, 2549-2552, 2550t, 2551tHB- sAgIgM Anti- HAVIgM Anti- HBcAnti-HCVDiagnostic Interpretation+ + Acute hepatitis B Chronic hepatitis B++ Acute hepatitis A superim? posed on chronic hepatitis B+++ Acute hepatitis A and B--+ Acute hepatitis A--++ Acute hepatitis A and B (HBsAg below detection threshold) + Acute hepatitis B (HBsAg below detection threshold) Acute hepatitis C | Medicine | null | 40-year male patient who was a known smoker presents in AIIMS OPD with fever, latigue, jaundice, yellow colored urine with clay colored stools. For the past few days he had developed aversion to cigarette smoking. On examination scleral icterus was present. LFT are:Total Bill18.5Direct Bill7.5SGOT723SGPT812What investigations will you send for ruling out acute viral hepatitis?
A. HBsAg, IgM antiHBC, AntiHCV AntiHEV
B. AntiHAV, HBsAg, IgM antiHBc, AntiHCV
C. HBsAg, IgM antiHBC,AntiHDV AntiHCV AntiHEV
D. AntiHAV IgMantiHBC, AntiHCV, AntiHEV.
| AntiHAV, HBsAg, IgM antiHBc, AntiHCV |
e96fadd5-fac8-4cde-9957-d69ed40b3364 | Ans: A. Akathisia(Ref Kaplan and Sadock 11/e p329, 871; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p59).Akathisia:Not a pa of catatonia.Characterized by a subjective & objective sense of restlessness, anxiety & agitation.Ambitendency:Example of negativism.Considered an ambivalence form.Ambivalence:Sign of Schizophrenia. | Radiology | null | Which of these is not a pa of catatonia?
A. Akathisia
B. Ambivalence
C. Ambitendency
D. Akinesia
| Akathisia |
c8d2885b-1529-4575-abcd-b8afdfb64512 | Answer- C. MetronidazoleHistory of vaginal itching and green frothy genital discharge in a young female with strawberry vagina on examinstion ishighly suggestive of Trichomoniasis. The drag of choice for Trichomoniasis is metronidazole.Treatment:DOC: Metronidazolea (tinidazole is also effective)All sexual paners must be treated concurently to prevent reinfection | Skin | null | A young female presented with vaginal itching and green frothy genital discharge. Strawberry vagina is seen on examination. What w ill be the drug of choice?
A. Doxycycline
B. Oral fluconazole
C. Metronidazole
D. Amoxicillin
| Metronidazole |
dd835fff-6a22-4d99-8d97-6d3524548997 | Colloidal systems such as agar and alginate retard the setting of gypsum products. If these materials are in contact with CaSO4·½H2O during setting, a soft, easily abraded surface is obtained. Accelerators such as potassium sulfate are added to improve the surface quality of the set CaSO4·2H2O against agar or alginate.
These colloids do not retard the setting by altering the solubility ratio of the hemihydrate and dihydrate forms, but rather by being adsorbed on the hemihydrate and dihydrate nucleation sites, thus interfering in the hydration reaction. The adsorption of these materials on the nucleating sites retards the setting reaction more effectively than adsorption on the calcium sulfate hemihydrate.
Craig’s RESTORATIVE DENTAL MATERIALS E 14th P: 255 | Dental | null | Hardness of stone surface is affected by?
A. Impression wax
B. Impression compound
C. Hydrocolloid impression material
D. Rubber based material
| Hydrocolloid impression material |
34d20a1d-da67-4205-b8c7-981dc313289f | Ans: A. Universal system(Ref: Reddy 341e p96-97, 33/e p99-100).The given system of depiction of the 32 teeth is in accordance with Universal system.Universal system:Teeth are numbered 1 to 16 from upper right to upper left, and 17 to 32 from lower left to lower right.This follows the plan advocated by American and International Society of Forensic Odontology. | Forensic Medicine | null | The following system of depiction of 32 teeth is in accordance with which system?Permanent TeethUpper RightUpper Left1234567891011121314151632313029282726252423222120191817Lower RightLower Left
A. Universal system
B. Palmer's system
C. Haderup system
D. Diagrammatic depiction
| Universal system |
789aa0f7-2666-4950-be7e-42b03b1b1a44 | Answer- D. ThyroxineClassic hormones that use intracellular receptors include thyroid and steroid hormones. | Medicine | null | Which of the following has intracellular receptor -
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Epinephrine
D. Thyroxine
| Thyroxine |
a432db53-67f5-4865-af52-18edf81d1225 | Ans: A. Trophozoites(Ref: Paniker's 7/e p77, 6/e p69; Harrison 19/e p1374)Transfusion associated malaria has a shoer incubation period because of presence of trophozoites in blood.Malaria can be transmitted by blood transfusion, needle-stick injury, sharing of needles by infected injection drug users, or organ transplantation.The incubation period in these settings is often sho because there is no pre-erythrocytic stage of development.Parasites may remain ble in blood bank for 1-2 weeks.As this condition is induced by direct infection of red cells by the merozoites, pre-erythrocytic schizogony and hypnozoits are absent.Relapse does not occur and incubation period is sho. | Microbiology | null | Transfusion-associated malaria has a shoer incubation period because of the presence in blood of:
A. Trophozoites
B. Sporozoites
C. Female gametocyte
D. Merozoites
| Trophozoites |
36dd849c-4867-4ca6-8f5e-c8419e4634bb | Ans. a. Pyogenic meningitis (ReJ: Harrison l9/e p887, 891, llll, l8/e p1029, 1692, 3414)The classic CSF abnormalities in bacterial meningitis are:Elevated opening pressure (> 180 mm H2O in 90%)Polymorphonuclear leakocytosis (>100 cells/ul in 90%)Decreased glucose concentration (<2.2 mmol/L or <40 mg/dl and or CSF/serum glucose ration <0.4 in 60%)Elevated protein concentration (>45 mg/dl) | Medicine | null | A boy presented with a history of fever, headache and vomiting since 3 days and disorientation since I day. On examination, neck rigidity was positive. He also had 1 episode of generalized tonic clonic seizures (GTC) and then he became unconscious. CECT was found to be normal. CSF examination reveals a cell count of 300 cells/mm3 (polymorphs: 50-70%), protein 70 mg/dL, sugar 50 mg/dL (blood: 95 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pyogenic meningitis
B. Tubercular meningitis
C. Herpes encephalitis
D. Cerebral malaria
| Pyogenic meningitis |
c740e921-43fe-426e-848b-1d918f8424a7 | The most common tooth to be affected is mandibular first molar.
Teeth most frequently requiring RCT is mandibular first molar. | Dental | null | Tooth most frequently requiring RCT is:
A. Mandibular 1st molar
B. Maxillary 1st molar
C. Mandibular 2nd premolar
D. Maxillary 2nd premolar
| Mandibular 1st molar |
0113aaf1-61d3-4d61-a9c7-b5b46e51e7e8 | Ans: B. Type II error(Ref: High Yield Biostatistics/p46)Type I ErrorType II ErrorThe null hypothesis is true but rejected (False positive)degProbability of type I error is given by p valuedegSignificance (alpha) level is the maximum tolerable probability of type I errorsdegKeep type I error to be minimum; then results are declared to be statistically significantNull hypothesis is not false but is not rejected/accepted (false negative)degProbability of type II error is given by betadeg | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A study finds no significant association between two variables but truly there exists a difference. What type of error is this?
A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C. Random error
D. Systematic error
| Type II error |
9631d6de-2f89-43ce-a707-508f76977a7f | Ans. a. CMVControlled Mechanical Ventilation (CMV)The ventilator delivers a present number of breathes/min of a preset volume. | Anaesthesia | null | A patient of head injury is intubated and ventilated. The ideal mode of ventilation in him would be:
A. CMV
B. CPAP
C. AMV
D. SIMV
| CMV |
b467f831-a659-457d-9132-1f205935bee8 | Diabetes insipidus can be caused by:
Deficiency of antiduretic hormone Resistance of ADH action
↓ ↓
Central diabetes insipidus Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
A transient form of DI occurs during pregnancy due to:
– Excessive placental production of vasopressinase
– Decreased hepatic clearance due to abnormal liver function there in case of:
Preeclampsia
Fatty liver
Hepatitis.
Approximately 60% of women with previously known DI worsen, 20% improve and 20% do not change during pregnancy.
Worsening is attributed to excessive placental vasopressinase production.
Some females with DI who develop placental insufficiency show DI improvement, which is attributed to decreased vasopressinase production by the damaged placenta.
Symptoms:
Polyuria (4-15 liters/day)
Intense thirst particularly for ice cold fluids.
Diagnosis: is confirmed by water deprivation test.
Treatment: of choice intranasal L-deamino 8D arginine vasopressin (DDAVP) which is a synthetic analogue of ADH and is resistant to vasopressinase. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In pregnancy, the most common cause of transient- diabetes insipidus is:
A. Severe preeclampsia
B. Hydramnios
C. Multiple pregnancy
D. IUGR
| Severe preeclampsia |
a4ae6ca7-78a0-48fd-956c-4259c141d158 | Ans: D. Conduction aphasia(Ref Harrison 19/e p 1 76, 18/e p302)Typical case of conduction aphasia with normal comprehension & fluency, but impaired naming & repetition.Conduction aphasia:Due to damaged arcuate fasciculus.Arcuate fasciculus:Connection between Wernicke's (language comprehension) & Broca's (Language production) areas.Hence, connection lost.Clinical features:Hallmark finding - Inability to repeat words.Comprehension & language expression intact.Inability to transfer understood word to Broca 's area to be expressed.Results in meaningful fluent speech & relatively good comprehension but very poor repetition. | Medicine | null | A man comes with aphasia. He is unable to name things and repetition is poor. However comprehension, fluency and understanding written words is unaffected. He is probably suffering from:
A. Anomic aphasia
B. Broca's aphasia
C. Transcoical sensory aphasia
D. Conduction aphasia
| Conduction aphasia |
1f253e11-f50e-40f8-a36a-16101d47d319 | Answer- B. MelanomaABCDE rule: Asymmetry (one half of the mole doesn't match the other), Border irregularity, Color that is not uniform, Diameter greater than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser), and Evolving size, shape or color | Surgery | null | ABCDE mnemonic is used for which disease?
A. SCC
B. Melanoma
C. Basal Cell carcinoma
D. Verrucous carcinoma
| Melanoma |
38ced20b-e4ee-4ea8-ae1a-c311cb177f24 | 1st to resorb is Mandibular central incisor start resorbing at 5 years of age | Dental | null | At what age root resorption start
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 6.5 years
D. 7 years
| 5 years |
efbacdd9-1c25-4697-8ad9-377c7a8105b8 | Ans: A. Boric acid(Ref: Principles of Clinical Toxicology 3/e p221).Boiled lobster syndrome is seen in poisoning of Boric acid.Features:Major symptom is erythema, desquamation and exfoliation.The skin of the patient looks like a 'boiled lobster'. | Forensic Medicine | null | Boiled lobster syndrome is seen in poisoning of:
A. Boric acid
B. HNO,
C. H,SO4
D. Phenol
| Boric acid |
9d2bff20-7d45-402d-af8f-3eb0c1e1e404 | Ans: A. Pituitary gland Sodium iodide sympoer - Not present in the pituitary gland.Sodium-Iodide Sympoer (NIS) is present inThyroiddegSalivary glandsdegGastric mucosadegPlacentaoCiliary body of the eyedegChoroid plexusdegMammary glandsdegCeain cancers derived from these | Physiology | null | Sodium iodide sympoer is not present in
A. Pituitary gland
B. Placenta
C. Parotid
D. Thyroid
| Pituitary gland |
f2bb0a0b-b19d-41d8-9435-36d7eab51d07 | Answer- A (Multiple myeloma)Malignant proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow results in the production of large number of complete and incomplete immunoglobulins. | Medicine | null | A 55-year-old male presents with renal failure. He gives a history of mild bone pains for the last 7 years. X-ray pelvis shows osteolytic lesions. Serum electrophoresis reveals a M spike. Peripheral blood evaluation showed rouleaux formation of RBCs with 35% plasma cells. Bone marrow examination showed a increase in plasma cells with aberrant antigen expression. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy with unknown significance
C. Smouldering myeloma
D. Plasma cell leukemia
| Multiple myeloma |
e803c024-5cd2-48f7-a3d1-c72f5e1563a6 | Structure Function Glomerulus PCA Descending limb of loop of henle Ascending limb of loop of henle DCT Collecting duct Isotonic ultrafiltration Reabsorption of Na+ H2O, amino acids, HCO3,K+, Ca2+, Cl- Reabsorbs H2O into interstitium, impermeable to solute. Impermeable to H2O,loop diuretics acts here. Resorption of Na, K, Cl, k/a the diluting segment. Thiazide diuretics act here, removes 10% of Na+& Cl-, some H2O also removed. Aka concentrating segment, absorbs 10 - 12% of H2O under ADH, principle cells reabsorbs Na+& secretes K+ , intercalated cells reabsorbs K+ & secretes HCO-3. | Physiology | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following is the diluting segment of kidney?
A. PCT
B. Collecting duct
C. Ascending thick loop Henle
D. Descending loop of Henle
| Ascending thick loop Henle |
dde225f7-adf4-41e8-afe5-f12ab7801578 | Although an x-ray beam consists of a continuous spectrum of x-ray photon energies, only photons with sufficient energy to penetrate through anatomic structures and reach the image receptor (digital or film) are useful for diagnostic radiology. Low-energy photons that cannot reach the receptor contribute to patient risk but do no offer any benefit. Consequently, it is desirable to remove these low-energy photons from the beam. This removal can be accomplished in part by placing a metallic disk (filter) in the beam path.
A filter preferentially removes low-energy photons from the beam, while allowing high energy photons that are able to contribute to making an image to pass through.
Ref: Oral Radiology, Principles and Interpretation / Stuart C. White, Michael J. Pharoah - 7th ed - pg - 10 | Radiology | null | The principal reason for placing an aluminium filter in
the primary beam of radiation is to:
A. Reduce exposure time
B. Decrease development time of the films
C. Reduce radiation to the skin of the patient
D. Obtain greater definition of the images of teeth
| Reduce radiation to the skin of the patient |
3ec2a130-23a9-4750-ac4f-a9390c2930ef | Primary sensory nerve fiber belongs to type Iα (Aα) nerve fiber. Each sensory (afferent) nerve fiber has two branches. One of the branches supplies the central portion of nuclear bag fiber. The other branch ends in central portion of the nuclear chain fiber. These branches end in the form of rings around central portion of nuclear bag and nuclear chain fibers.
Therefore, these nerve endings are called annulospiral endings. | Physiology | null | Central wrapping is done by:
A. Golgi tendon
B. Type 2 fibre
C. Flower spray ending
D. Annulospiral ending
| Annulospiral ending |
c6da06a8-62d4-49b1-9bce-e4584bbadc62 | Clinical manifestations of VUR
In primary reflux the average age ofpresentation is 2-3 years.
Reflux is more common in females and it is usually detected earlier in females so we can say that reflux is present from birth but it is usually detected at 2-3 years of age but in feinales the age of detection is earlier.
Features are -
In primary reflux the patient usually presents with symptoms of pyelonephritis or cystitis.
In secondary reflux manifestation of primary diseases are usually the presenting symptoms
Reflux is the most common cause of pyelonephritis. It is seen in 30-50% of patients with pyelonephritis.
It is present in over 75% of patients with radiological evidence of chronic pyelonephritis Diagnosis of Vesicoureteric reflux -
The most useful process for conclusive diagnosis of reflux is micturating cystourethrogram.
This will demonstrate the grade of reflux as well as urethral anatomy.
The other useful technique for detecting vesicoureteric reflux is radionuclide imaging.
It is extremaly sensitive at detecting reflux but do not demonstrate the anatomic detail seen with voiding cystourethro gram.
So they are used for follow up after micturating cystourethrogram because they offer less radiation exposure. | Pediatrics | null | Vesicoureteric reflux is more common in –
A. Newborn females
B. Older girls
C. Older boys
D. Only during pregnancy
| Newborn females |
bd5b9ca9-7065-4c91-8a54-26c8d3a34501 | Ans- c- Pyruvate Carboxylase.When gluconeogenesis is elevated due to low blood glucose levels, the activation by acetyl-CoA of pyruvate carboxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, paially alletes this problem, but in conditions such as starvation and untreated diabetes mellitus, ketone bodies are overproduced and cause ketosis. | Biochemistry | null | A young man was on high protein diet and raw eggs. After 3 days he developed weakness. Blood investigation revealed hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is due to inhibition of which of the following enzymes
A. Glucose 6 phosphatase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Pyruvate Carboxylase
D. Glucokinase
| Pyruvate Carboxylase |
91ef49a3-d73b-408b-abf1-0fbfe43805dd | Ans: A. Basal cell carcinoma(Ref: Harrison 19/c p500; Robbins 9/e p1157)Lesion on the cheek with raised, pearly borders and with telangiectasia on surface of the lesion is highly suggestive of basal cell carcinoma.Basal cell carcinomas:Present as pearly papules containing prominent dilated subepidermal blood vessels (telangiectasias).Arises from epidermal basal cells.Present as a small, slowly growing pearly nodule, often with touous telangiectatic vessels on its surface, rolled borders, and a central crust (nodular BCC).The occasional presence of melanin in this variant of nodular BCC (pigmented BCC) may lead to confusion with melanoma.Morpheaform (fibrosing), infiltrative, and micronodular BCC, the most invasive and potentially aggressive subtypes, manifest as solitary flat or slightly depressed, indurated whitish, yellowish, or pink scar-like plaques. | Surgery | null | A 70 years old patient presents with a lesion on the cheek with raised, pearly borders and with telangiectasias on surface of the lesion. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Was
D. Actinic keratosis
| Basal cell carcinoma |
23d97589-5dbe-4c51-b3ff-3d102f13d781 | Population of a sub-centre =5000 Crude bih rate= 20 per 1000 mid-year population Therefore, no. of bihs= 20/1000 x 5000=100 Pregnancy wastage factor = 10% (i.e. not all pregnancies result in a live bih, and roughly 10% ANC women have a "wastage" of their pregnancy. Therefore, total ANC= 100+ =110 As a thumb rule, Minimum number of ANC that should be registered at a time= 50%. - Min. No. registered in the sub-centre= 110 x 50/100=55 ~ ~60 | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | Crude Bih rate for a sub-center is 20. What the number of pregnant woman registered in sub-center?
A. 80
B. 100
C. 110
D. 60
| 60 |
c0bf19ac-df23-4d2b-8a88-0b2f256fed66 | In wound healing, granulation tissue formation takes place 2 weeks - Predominantly, it is collagen type 3 >2 weeks - Collagen type 1 | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | A 12 - year - old boy had a cut in his forearm 4 days ago. Now the bleeding has been stopped due to granulation tissue formation. While taking a skin biopsy a pa of the granulation tissue was also included in the specimen. The histology of granulation tissue is shown below. Which type of collagen is found in this granulation tissue?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
| Type 3 |
641830d8-81c8-4a90-abaf-1d0fc4de838d | Answer-D. Check CA-125 levels and advise regular follow-up if normalThis is a post-menopausal patient with a simple (smooth) qtst in the ovary. Such a cyst doesn't needfuher investigations,but this patient has two risk factors for malignancy: Family history of ovarian tamor and history of Hormonal therapy.Hence, CA-125 levels should be evaluated and the RMI-I score (Risk of Malignancy index) calcalated before proceedingfor regular follow up. If RMI score exceeds 200,fuher imaging laparoscopic surgery will be needed in this patient. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 61 years old post-menopausal woman with a family history of ovarian cancer presents with pain abdomen. She is on hormone replacement therapy. An abdominal ultrasound revealed a smooth cyst in the right ovary. What should be done next?
A. Observe and reassure the patient
B. Laparoscopic surgery to visualize the nature of the cyst
C. Drilling of cysts
D. Check CA-125 levels and advise regular follow-up if normal
| Check CA-125 levels and advise regular follow-up if normal |
5fecb77f-66cc-4650-8201-3759bda2a213 | Answer- A. 0.002 mg/mLCpss is directly propoional to the dose rate & inversely propoional to the clearance of drug.Cpss = Dose rate/clearanceDose rate= 1.6 mgiml; Clearance= 640 ml/minCpss = 1.61640 = 0.0025 mg/ml = 0.002 mg/ml | Pharmacology | null | A drug X was given continuous intravenous infusion at 1.6 mg/min. The clearance of the drug is 640 mL/min. With a half-life of 1.8 hours, what would be the steady state plasma concentration of drug?
A. 0.002 mg/mL
B. 0.004 trig/mL
C. 2.88 mg/mL
D. 3.55 mg/mL
| 0.002 mg/mL |
05c55694-331d-4f11-a9b4-a5efbc32de79 | Ans: B. Hypomenorrhea(Ref: Shaw's 16/e p250; Novaks 13/e p351)Hypomenorrhea:Seen in Asherman syndromeAsherman's syndrome:More common with secondary amenorrhea or hypomenorrhea.Causes:In patients with risk factors for endometrial or cervical scarring (history of uterine or cervical surgery), infections related to IUD use & severe pelvic inflammatory disease.Found in 39% patients undergoing hysterosalpingography with previous postpaum curettage.Rare cause: Infections (tuberculosis & schistosomiasis). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of these is seen in Asherman syndrome?
A. Oligomenorrhea
B. Hypomenorrhea
C. Metromenorrhagia
D. Polymenorrhea
| Hypomenorrhea |
251499f8-5ddb-4d75-9acb-71fa169e64dc | "Previous surgery, mostly thyroid surgery, is the most common cause of laryngeal nerve paralysis. Revision thyroidectomy bears a paicularly high risk for inferior and superior laryngeal nerve trauma." - Surgery of Larynx and Trachea by Marc Remacle (2015)/ p271 | Surgery | AIIMS 2017 | Most common cause of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is:
A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
B. Thyroid surgery
C. Mediastinal tumors
D. Pancoast tumor
| Thyroid surgery |
ff070552-6e90-4e3b-ad82-918bed4d632c | The most common time of IUD in a diabetic patient is last two weeks of pregnancy, since in this patient there is history of a full term demise as well, so logically speaking we should terminate her pregnancy at 38 weeks.This is what logic says, now let us see what references have to say-
High risk gestational diabetes:
History of stillbirth
History of neonatal death
History of fetal macrosomia
Concomitant obesity and/or hypertension
Development of oligohydramnios, polyhydramnios preeclampsia or fetal macrosomia
Inadequate metabolic control with diet alone.
“High risk gestational diabetic patients should have their labor induced when they reach 38 weeks with exception of those with a macrosomia fetus (Efw > 4000 g) who should be delivered by cesarean section because of the increased risk of shoulder dystocia”.
Fernando Arias 3/e, p 449
Induction of labor: The indications are
Diabetic women controlled on insulin (GDM or class B diabetes) are considered for induction of labor after 38 completed weeks
Women with vascular complications (pre-eclampsia, IUGR) often require induction after 37 weeks. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A G2 P1+0+0 diabetic mother present at 32 weeks pregnancy, there is history of full term fetal demise in last pregnancy. Her vitals are stable, sugar is controlled and fetus is stable. Which among the following will be the most appropriate management?
A. To induce at 38 weeks
B. To induce at 40 weeks
C. Cesarean section at 38 weeks
D. To wait for spontaneous delivery
| To induce at 38 weeks |
e60f51ab-3827-4ddd-9649-a6d601b9682c | In Men, Cremaster muscle & cremaster fascia form middle/2nd covering of spermatic cord. This muscle & Its associated fascia are supplied by genital branch of GENITOFEMORAL NERVE(L1 L2) Contraction of this muscle & resulting elevation of testis can be stimulated by reflex arc Gently touching the skin at & around the anterior aspect of superior pa of thigh stimulates sensory fibers in femoral branch of genito-femoral N/ Ilio-Inguinal N. These fibers enter spinal cord at L1 At L1, Sensory fibers stimulate motor fibers carried in genital branch of genito-femoral N, which results in contraction of cremaster muscle & elevation of testis. Cremasteric reflex is more active in children, tending to diminish with age. As with many reflexes, it may be absent in ceain neurological disorders. Although, it can be used for testing spinal cord function at level L1 in men, Its clinical use is limited. | Anatomy | AIIMS 2017 | Root value of cremaster reflex is
A. L1, L2
B. L2, L3
C. S1, S2
D. S3, S4
| L1, L2 |
dea9021b-e874-4096-9195-ac758f2de19d | As the ET tube was removed by the patient by himself, it indicates adequate spontaneous breathing and muscle power. Hence assess the patient first, give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathing | Anaesthesia | AIIMS 2017 | A Patient in medical intensive care unit who is intubated ,suddenly removes the endotracheal tube. What should be done next?
A. Sedate and reintubate
B. Make him sit and do physiotherapy
C. Assess the patient and give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathing
D. Give bag and mask ventilation and intubate
| Assess the patient and give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathing |
2b110e57-8338-4189-86e2-cbea7d761c30 | Linaglutide(-ide) is a peptide, so not given orally. It is a GLP 1(incretin) analogue and it can cause pancreatitis.Sitagliptin is a DPP 4(dipeptidyl peptidase 4) inhibitor; can cause pancreatitis.Pioglitazone(PPAR- gamma agonist) can cause urinary bladder carcinoma; so can't be given.So, canagliflozin (SGLT 2 inhibitor) can be added. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2017 | A diabetic patient presented with uncontrolled blood sugar level. He has history of pancreatitis and family history of urinary bladder carcinoma. He does not want to take injectable drugs. Which of the following drug can be added to control his blood sugar?
A. Liraglutide
B. Sitagliptin
C. Canagliflozin
D. Pioglitazone
| Canagliflozin |
dfb6dc4a-a4ac-4270-8bf2-807e6efead3a | Ans. B. Replace warfarin with heparin in First trimesterRef: Williams Obstetrics, 24'h ed.Warf'arin has a low molecular weight and readily crosses the placenta.Exposure between the 6th and 9th weeks may result in warfarin embryopathy characterized by stippling of the veebrae and femoral epiphyses and by nasal hypoplasia with depression ofthe nasal bone. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant female with known cardiac disease presents to you in the first trimester with history of warfarin embryopathy what should be advised now?
A. Continue warfarin throughout the pregnancy
B. Replace warfarin with heparin in First trimester
C. Give acicoumarin
D. Use LMW heparin
| Replace warfarin with heparin in First trimester |
31579687-1448-4606-9db6-52f9d0cc8a7f | Normal urine output- 1.5 l/day For discharge patient should become afebrile 24 hrs from shock recovery would not be enough should be kept a little longer to know general well being of patient. Therefore, option a, b, d ruled out. Patients with dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome may be discharged from the hospital when they meet the following criteria: Afebrile for 24 hours without antipyretics Good appetite, clinically improved condition Adequate urine output Stable hematrocit level Atleast 48 hours since recovery from shock No respiratory distress Platelet count greater than 50,000 cells. | Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following is NOT the criteria to discharge a patient of dengue haemorrhagic fever?
A. Afebrile for 24 hours without antipyretics
B. Platelet count greater than 50,000 cells
C. Return of appetite
D. Atleast 24 hours since recovery from shock
| Atleast 24 hours since recovery from shock |
062bbde6-1097-4f2f-a08e-1b055158bbc1 | LEUCO J ITS TROPHY
Leucodystrophy refers to progressive degeneration of the white matter of the brain clue to imperfect growth or development of the myelin sheath, the fatty covering that acts as an insulator around nerve fibre.
Myelin which lends its color to the white matter of the brain, is a complex substance made up of at least ten different chemicals.
The leucodystrophy are a group of disorders that are caused by genetic defects in hoW myelin produces or metabolizes these chemicals.
Each of the leucodystrophies in the result of a defect in the gene that controls one (and only one) of the chemicals. Specific leusodystrophies include -
Metachroinatic leucodystrophy ❑ Adrenoleucodystrophy
❑ Canavan disease
Krabbe's disease ❑ Pelizaeus-Merzhacher disease ❑ Alexander disease
Symptoms vary according to the specific type of leucodystrophy and may be difficult to recognize in the early stages of the disease.
Canavan's disease
Autosomal recessive disorder
Caused due to deficiency of the enzyme N-Aspertoacylase.
This leads to accumulation of N-Acetyl aspartic acid in brain and urine.
It is characterized by the clinical traid of --> Hypotonia, Head lag, Macrocephaly
Adrenoleucodvstrophy
X-linked recessive disorder
Caused due to deficiency of AcyI-C'oA synthetase.
Onset is about 5-10 years
Main symptoms are ataxia, spasticity, motor deficits, cortical blindness.
Marocephaly is not a key feature
Metachromatic leucodystrophy
Autosomal recessive disorder
Caused due to Arylsulfatase A deficiency
Onset is in the 2nd year.
Symptoms are into-ordination, especially gait disturbance, then general regression, optic atrophy, combined upper and lower motor neuron signs.
Marocephaly usually late.
Krabbe leucodvstrophy
Autosomal recessive
Caused due to deficiency of Beta-galactosidase deficiency
Onset is in the first 6 months of life
Optic atrophy, spasticity
Head often small | Pediatrics | null | Macrocephaly is seen in which of the following syndromes ?
A. Metachromatic leucodystrophy
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
C. Canavan's disease
D. Krabbe's disease
| Canavan's disease |
eb41d147-19ed-4497-906a-8997f8979545 | All three embryonic germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm) are derived from the epiblast only. The hypoblast contributes to the development of the extraembryonic mesoderm and yolk sac and plays a key role in signaling to establish axial patterning in the embryo itself | Anatomy | null | The 3 embryonic germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are derived from:
A. Epiblast only
B. Ectoderm from epiblast; mesoderm and endoderm from hypoblast
C. Ectoderm and mesoderm from epiblast; endoderm from hypoblast
D. Hypoblast only
| Epiblast only |
8788091c-a8ef-4155-a7a3-8e85d643f856 | Ans. b. They increase bronchial responsiveness to salbutamol Coicosteroids has a dual effect in acute asthma with an early facilitator effect on airway beta-2 adrenoreceptor sensitivity and a later effect on airway inflammation, which fuher emphasizes the need fir coicosteroids to he administered as early as possible during an acute asthma attack."he molecular mechanism of action of coicosteroids involves several effects on the inflammatory process. The major effect of coicosteroids is to switch off the transcription of multiple activated genes that encode inflammatory proteins such as cytokines, chemokines, adhesion molecules, and inflammatory enzymes. This effect involves several mechanisms, including inhibition of the transcription factor NF-KB, but an impoant mechanism is recruitment of HDAC2 to the inflammatory gene complex, which reverses the histone acetylation associated with increased gene transcription. Coicosteroids also activate anti-inflammatory genes, such as mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase phosphatase-1, and increase the expression of IQ-receptors. Most of the metabolic and endocrine side effects of coicosteroids are also mediated through transcriptional activation. | Pharmacology | null | A patient presented with acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma. Salbutamol inhalation didn't improve the condition of the patient. So, intravenous coicosteroids and aminophylline were added and the condition improved. What is the mechanism of action of coicosteroids in this condition?
A. They cause bronchodilatation when given with xanthines
B. They increase bronchial responsiveness to salbutamol
C. They increase the action of aminophylline on adenosine receptors
D. They increase the mucociliary clearance
| They increase bronchial responsiveness to salbutamol |
09a9c89f-3985-4790-9278-aee1710c59eb | Ans: C. Respiratory acidosis with renal compensationpH-7.12 so its acidosis.PCO2 is 5o mmHg (normal range 35-45 mmHg) which is higher than the normal s/o respiratory acidosis.HCO3- is 28 mmol/L (18-24 mmol/L) which is higher than the normal range s/o metabolic compensated alkalosis. | Medicine | null | A Patient is having Ph- 7.12, HCO3- 28 and PCO2- S0mmhg. What is the acid base disorder in this patient?
A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
B. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
C. Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation
D. Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation
| Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation |
ad3f328f-72a0-4539-be89-1c9b6cce07f6 | Ans. c. Autoimmune hepatitisMany of the clinicalfeatures of autoimmune hepatitis are similar to those described for chronic viral hepatitiso.. Fatigue, malaise, anorexia, amenorrhea, acne, ahralgias, and jaundice are commono.. Occasionally ahritis, maculopapular eruptions (including cutaneous vasculitis), erythema nodosum' colitis'pleurisy pericarditis, anemia, azotemiao and sicca syndromeType I autoimmune hepatitis- Associated with marked hyperglobulinemia, lupoid features, circulating ANAsa' andHLA-DR3 or HLA-DR4 (especially BB-DRB1-03).Associated autoantibodies: Autoantibodies against actin as well as atypical pANCAType ll autoimmune hepatitis- Linked to HLA-DRB1 and HLA-DQBI haplotypesAssociated with anti-LKMIType lll autoimmune hepatitis- These patients lack ANA and anti-LKMI but have circulating antibodies to solubleliver antigen/liver pancreas antigen | Medicine | null | A young female patient presents with jaundice and elevated liver enzymes. She has a history of two smilar episodes in the past. Her serum ANA was 1:40 and IgG was 2400 IU. Her serum copper levels were normal and viral markers were negative. A liver biopsy was carried out and based on the pathology repo, you treated her with immunosuppressants and the patient's condition improved. What was the most likely finding on pathology repo to suggest the treatment?
A. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
B. Hemosiderosis
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
| Autoimmune hepatitis |
2dead4a7-7dc8-4527-9779-170a5174143e | GLOBOCAN 2012
Main aim was providing world wise estimate separately for sex- and age-specific on incidence, prevalence and mortality from major types of cancer, at national level | Dental | null | For data of "GLOBOCAN 2012" screening examination for carcinoma of lip incidence was measured. Which of the following is measured for data collection worldwide:
A. Age specific only
B. Age specific with demographics
C. Age specific with gender
D. Age specific with growth rate
| Age specific with gender |
d42801fb-0724-4137-b72a-3eb0d50fc9f1 | Ans. C. Ketamine* The following are the Schedule X drugs mentioned in the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945: Amobarbital, Amphetamine, Barbital, Cyclobarbital, Dexamphetamine, Ethchlorvynol, Glutethimide, Meprobamate, Methamphetamine, Methylphenidate, Methylphenobarbital, Phencyclidine, Phenmetrazine, Secobarbital. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is a schedule X drug?
A. Thalidomide
B. Colistin
C. Ketamine
D. Halothane
| Ketamine |
21618a55-4eaf-457c-a8fa-a1a2149c566a | “Smoking is the single most preventable cause of IUGR in infants born in the united states—women who quit smoking at 7 months gestation have newborns with higher mean birthweights than do women who smoke throughout the pregnancy. Women who quit smoking before 16 weeks of gestation are not at any increased risk for an IUGR infant.”
COGDT 10/e, p 293
The answer is further supported by Williams 24/e, p 882
“In prevention of fetal growth restriction – smoking cessation is critical”
Williams 24/e, p 882 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Birth weight of a baby can be increased by:
A. Cessation of smoking
B. Aspirin
C. Ca++ and vitamin D supplement
D. Bed rest
| Cessation of smoking |
7c9b4d7b-6290-430f-a097-96d88c65ecd8 | Z track technique Used for giving i.m. injections. In this technique, the skin and tissue are pulled and held firmly while injection is given, and after removing the needle, skin and tissue are released. This prevents tracking (leakage) of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue (underneath the skin) as the track that needle forms is zig zag and drug can't come out. | Psychiatry | AIIMS 2019 | Z tracking technique is used in?
A. Administering long acting antipsychotic
B. Lithium monitoring
C. Carbamazepine monitoring
D. Nicotine patch
| Administering long acting antipsychotic |
eaa184bf-53c5-4755-bee8-a9153e587ff0 | Ans. d. Stainless steelIt is made of made of surgical-grade stainless steel, nonvalved filtration device designed to shunt aqueous humor from the anterior chamber to a subconjunctival filtration bleb.The EX-PRESS Glaucoma Filtration Device is intended to reduce IOP in glaucoma patients when medication and conventional surgical treatments have failed.The device channels aqueous humor through a secure lumen (of either 50 mm or 200 mm) to a half-thickness scleral flap, creating a subconjunctival filtration bleb.It is a minimally invasive glaucoma surgery (MIGS) to increase aqueous drainage.It has lower complications of ocular hypotony.The commonly used devices are as follows: Shunts using episcleral explants:* Ahmed glaucoma valve: Silicone* Molteno implant: Polypropelene plate and silicone plate* Baerveldt implant: Silicone Mini-shunts:* Ex-Press(tm) Mini-Shunt: Stainless steel * iStent(r): Titanium | Ophthalmology | null | Ex-Press glaucoma implant is made up of?
A. Silicone
B. Titanium
C. Gold
D. Stainless steel
| Stainless steel |
eaa33fd8-64a3-47a0-b13c-2b49a1f0e37f | Ans: A. In the test, volume of tears is measured as it changes color on contact with tears(Ref: Yanoff & Duker 4/e p277)Phenol red dye test measures the production of tears without topical anesthesia, as the dye changes its color to red on contact with tears.It doesn't require pH ureter for reading the result.Phenol red is a pH indicator used in cell biopsy as it changes colour from yellow to red on pH range from 6.8 to 8.2.Used to measure residual tears in inferior conjunctival sac, especially in dry eye patients. | Ophthalmology | null | Phenol red thread test is used for dry eye:
A. In the test, volume of tears is measured as it changes color on contact with tears
B. If the color changes to blue, it depicts surface mucin deficiency
C. Requires pH meter for reading the result
D. Requires topical anesthetic agent
| In the test, volume of tears is measured as it changes color on contact with tears |
176fbf9b-b17d-4a54-9e1e-e3a312424349 | Hand foot and mouth disease can be caused by Coxsackie virus A16, Coxsackie virus B and Enterovirus 71. It is characterized by oral and pharyngeal ulcerations and vesicular rashes of the palms and soles which heal without crusting. | Microbiology | AIIMS 2017 | An infant presented with the following lesions on his face and limbs. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A. HSV
B. HPV
C. Coxsackie
D. CMV
| Coxsackie |
bccac3f6-359f-4795-93a7-1b32d014bce0 | Repeated negative testing for ANA indicates least chances of having SLE. ANA is positive in 98% of patients with SLE Limited form of scleroderma known as CREST has anti centromere antibody positive and generalized form has anti topoisomerase positive antibody Anti histone antibodies are positive in drug induced lupus Anti SS-A (RO) antibodies and anti SS-B(LA) antibodies are positive in Sjogren's Syndrome | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following cannot be diagnosed without positive ANA?
A. Drug induced lupus
B. SLE
C. Sjogren syndrome
D. Scleroderma
| SLE |
1e9be6b2-83f1-44ff-8491-077a14501d6e | Answer- D. Relaxed tension lines in skinKraissl's lines are essentially exaggerated wrinkle lines obtained by studying the loose skin of elderly faces whilst contracting the muscles of facial expression These lines for the most pa correspond to Relaxed skin tension lines (RSTLs), but slight variation exists on the face, especially on the lateral side of the nose, the lateral aspect of the orbit, and the chin. | Surgery | null | Kraissl's lines arc:
A. Collagen and elastin lines in stab wounds
B. Point of maximum tension in a fracture
C. Point of tension in hanging
D. Relaxed tension lines in skin
| Relaxed tension lines in skin |
36b43626-f928-486f-b724-abecea127f62 | Ans: A. Clean and drape from the level of nipple to mid-thighArea of Cleaning & Draping in SurgeriesCranial surgeryDepends upon surgeonThyroid or neck surgeryChin to nipple with shoulder & axilladegEye surgeryCut eyelashes of affected eyeNasal surgeryNo shaving unless with mustacheEar surgeryTwo & half inches around eardegChest surgeryBase of neck to waist, axilla & inner armdegAbdominal & pelvic surgeryBase of neck to waist, axilla & inner armdegKidney-anteriorNipple to perineum, side to side; supra scapular region to buttocksVaginal, scrotal, rectal surgeryWaist to perineum plus anterior & inner aspect of thigh & 6 inches from groin; posterior?entire buttocks & anusdegLower extremitiesDigits 2 inches above knee, entire extremity and groindegUpper extremitiesDistal arm 2 inches above elbow, elbow up to axilladeg | Surgery | null | A surgeon decides to operate a patient of carcinoma cecum and perform a right hemicolectomy through a midline laparotomy approach. You have been instructed to prepare the pas of the patient for surgery. What will you do?
A. Clean and drape from the level of nipple to mid-thigh
B. Clean and drape from chin to knee
C. Clean and drape from umbilicus to mid-thigh
D. Clean and drape from rib cage to inguinal regions
| Clean and drape from the level of nipple to mid-thigh |
bbb8ca0b-54ed-4f08-a87d-8eef087e37f1 | Ans: D. Life expectancy at bih, knowledge and decent standard of living.(Ref Park 24/e p17, 23/e p17)Human Development Index (HDI):Published on 4 November 2010.Updated on 10 June 2011.Composite statistic of life expectancy, education & income indices.Used to rank countries into 4 tiers of human development. 2010 HDI Repo:Combines three dimensions:A long & healthy life: Life expectancy at bih.Education index: Mean years of schooling and Expected years of schooling.A decent standard of living: GNI per capita (PPP US$). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Human Developmental Index is a composite measure, which uses?
A. Life expectancy at age one, literacy and infant moality
B. Freedom, spice and right to express oneself
C. Life expectancy at bih, infant moality and quality of life
D. Life expectancy at bih, knowledge and decent standard of living.
| Life expectancy at bih, knowledge and decent standard of living. |
0c4f5b5b-25ec-459f-9872-a01bc925f211 | NESTROFT ( Naked Eye Single Tube Red Cell Osmotic Fragility Test) is a screening test for detection of beta thalassemia trait.
Thalassemia screening
Widespead prevlence of thalessemia has led to a pressing demand for community, screening.
Various methods for screening of thalassemia trait are available which include peripheral smear examination, RBC indices, 1VIeintzer's fraction, discriminant functions, NESTROFT etc.
NESTROFT TEST is used in many centres in India for screening of thalassemia trait.
If mother is NESTROFT positive, the confirmatory test for HbA2 is done for mother and the father is subjected to screening by NESTROFT. If father is also NESTROFT positive, confirmatory test for HbA2 is done for father.
If both the parents have thalessemia trait, there is 1:4 chance of fetus having thalassemia major.
Therefore, prenatal diagnosis is done by chorionic villus sampling (CVS) in first trimester.
If CVS confirms the fetus to be having thalasemia major, termination of pregnancy is indicated after counseling the parents.
If the fetus has thalassemia minor (trait) pregnancy is continued as such and baby will have normal lifespan.
It is worth noting here that a positive NESTROFT test is seen in other conditions beside beta thalassemia trait. These are iron deficiency anemia, alpha thalassemia trait, homozygous and heterozygous HbE, HbS as well as hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin.
Therefore, a positive NESTROFT test should always be followed by a confirmatory test for HBA2 ( eg. serum electrophoresis). | Pediatrics | null | NESTROFT test is a screening test for –
A. β–thalassemia
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
| β–thalassemia |
b69b1f70-e671-41d6-9f11-a788d34498db | Selenocysteine (21st amino acid) & Pyrrolysine (22nd amino acid) Formed by co-translational modification Not by post-translational modifications. Selenocysteine and Pyrrolysine 21st amino acid-Selenocysteine- UGA 22nd amino acid - Pyrrolysine - UAG Both UGA, UAG are stop codon but co-translational modification can give rise to amino acid selenocysteine and pyrrolysine. co-translational modification. Enzymes that use selenocysteine as their active sites are called Seleno Proteins. Selenocysteine containing proteins: Glutathione peroxidase Thioredoxin reductase selenoprotein P 5' deiodinases | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2017 | Which amino acid does not include post translational modification?
A. Selenocystiene
B. Triiodothyronine
C. Hydroxy-proline
D. Hydroxy-lysine
| Selenocystiene |
17ca6005-346f-4f14-b1a3-430d3667d7f0 | Ans: C. Epinephrine(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p286, 326; Katzung 13/e p161, 12/e p160; The Cornea by Smolin and Thoft's/p504)Black deposits on conjunctiva in a patient with glaucoma are seen with use of epinephrine. Latanoprost is associated with iris hyperpigmentation.Epinephrine is unstable in alkaline solution; when exposed to air or light, it turns pink from oxidation to adrenochrome and then brown from formation of polymers. | Pharmacology | null | Black deposits on conjunctiva in a patient with glaucoma are seen with the use of:
A. Prostaglandins
B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
C. Epinephrine
D. Beta blocker
| Epinephrine |
13ea1b71-7d4f-4dec-babf-485274305ed8 | Ans. c. Inferior mesenteric aeryInjury to inferior mesenteric aery is least likely to result in significant damage among the given options.Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric aery does not always result in irreversible ischaemia of the descending and sigmoid colon, because the marginal aery of the colon usually receives an adequate supply from the left branch of the middle colic aery. | Surgery | null | Injury to which of the following vessels is least likely to result in significant damage:
A. Renal aery
B. Superior mesenteric aery
C. Inferior mesenteric aery
D. Celiac trunk
| Inferior mesenteric aery |
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