id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
28e47981-c859-48ad-a4b9-14a13c5b3a34 | Radical cure - About 8-30% P.v. cases relapse due to persistance of exoerythrocytic stage. Drugs which attack this stage (hypnozoites) given together with a clinical curative achieve total eradication of the parasite from the patient's body. Drug of choice for radical cure of vivax and ovale malaria is: * Primaquine 15 mg daily for 14 days * Tafenoquine is a new long-acting exoerythrocytic schizontocide, has been developed as a single dose anti-relapse drug for vivax malaria. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following is clinical use of tafenoquine?
A. Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax
B. Prophylaxis of malaria in pregnancy
C. Treatment of severe falciparum malaria
D. Treatment of endemic malaria in children < 2 years
| Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax |
32911eb7-ec0f-4745-b62c-ce3ed4897eea | Ans. D. TubulinThe building block of a microtubule is the tubulin subunit, a heterodimer of a- and b-tubulin. | Physiology | null | Which of the following is not a monomeric intermediate filament?
A. Vimentin
B. Keratin
C. Desmin
D. Tubulin
| Tubulin |
8a63cb8d-20f8-40ea-ba34-12b9583c9224 | Ans.B i.e. Organophosphorus* These are characteristic features of anti-cholinesterase (organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning.* Features of Organophosphate poisoning: - Muscarinic symptoms: Pinpoint pupil, salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distress, vomiting, bronchospasm, bradycardia. - Nicotinic symptoms: Fasciculations and fibrillations of muscle, tachycardia, tachypnea. - CNS symptoms: Tremors, giddiness, ataxia, coma. - Red tears: Due to accumulation of porphyrin in the lacrimal glands | Forensic Medicine | null | A patient comes with pinpoint pupil, salivation, tremors, and red tears. Cholinesterase activity was 30% normal. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Opium
B. Organophosphate poisoning
C. Dhatura
D. Organochloride pesticide poisoning
| Organophosphate poisoning |
618b8199-05e4-41a6-b549-07eb307bec25 | Ans. a. HRCTPersistence of a productive cough, clubbing, wheeze, and crackles is suggestive of bronchiectasis. HRCT is the diagnostic procedure of choice (most specific).HRCT findings in bronchiectasis:Airway dilation (detected as parallel "tram tracks" or as the "signet-ring sign").Lack of bronchial taperingBronchial wall thickening in dilated airwaysInspissated secretions (e.g., the "tree-in-bud" pattern)Cysts emanating from the bronchial wall (especially pronounced in cystic bronchiectasis) | Medicine | null | 45-year-old presents with persistent productive cough and clubbing. On auscultation, wheeze and crackles are present. Which is the most specific investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
A. HRCT
B. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
C. Chest X-ray
D. MRI
| HRCT |
8a045017-cef4-4ca8-ad9b-52bf5a0bed63 | Ans: a. Growth at the site following trauma(Ref Parikh 6/e p4.89).Ewing's Postulates:Ceain criteria, known as `Ewing's postulates', must be satisfied before a relationship between trauma and new growth is accepted:The tumor must arise exactly at the site injuredDefinite and substantial trauma must be provedThe tumor must be confirmed pathologicallyThe tissue at the site must have been healthy before the traumaA reasonable interval-neither too long or too sho--must elapse between the time of the trauma and the appearance of the tumorThough not one of the Ewing's original postulates, there should be some good scientific reason for ascribing the tumor formation to the injury and this is rarely possible. | Forensic Medicine | null | Ewing's postulates concerns with which of the following:
A. Growth at the site following trauma
B. Growth after a neurological injury
C. Age related changes in the teeth
D. Old seminal stains
| Growth at the site following trauma |
5d0bb1e6-fa95-47e6-811e-abeb5a025ce6 | Ans: C. Telmisaan(Ref: Yamagishi S, Takeuchi M. Telmisaan is a promising cardiornetabolic saan due to its unique PPAR-gamma-inducing propey. Med Hypotheses. 2005;64(3):476-8)Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) with PPAR-gamma function as well is telmisaan.Telmisaan:Act as a paial agonist of peroxisome prolilerator-activated receptor-gamma (PPAR-gamma).Due to its unique PPAR-gamma-modulating activity, telmisaan is a promising `cardiontetabolic saan', that targets both diabetes and CVD in hypeensive patients.The binding affinity to PPAR-gamma is highest for telmisaan followed by lisinopril and valsaan. | Pharmacology | null | Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) with PPARgamma function as well is:
A. Olmesaan
B. Candesaan
C. Telmisaan
D. Eprosaan
| Telmisaan |
efa89b57-bec6-4dd6-a969-0a6f61ce5c8d | Answer- C (Mesentry)Most common organ injured in seat belt injury is Mesentery. | Surgery | null | A driver wearing seat belt applied brake suddenly to avoid a collision. Which of the following body pas is most likely to be injured?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Mesentery
D. Abdominal aoa
| Mesentery |
c5bc52bf-c316-48d2-9c03-ed4ac17338ab | Ans: B. Tamoxifen(Ref: Jeffcott 6/e p205; Shaws 16/e p431-434, 15/e p371, 14/331-332, 13/353-354; Novak 's 15/e pl 076. Duna Gvnae 6/e p470)Drug not given in 30-year-old PCOD lady with infeility - Tamoxifen.Treatment of PCOD:Dexamethasone 0.5 mg at bedtime - Reduces androgen production.In Clomiphene failed group - Ovulation induced with FSH or GnRH analogues.DOC - Metformin - Treats root cause of PCOS, rectifies endocrine & metabolic functions and improves feility.Surgery (laparoscopic multiple puncture of cyst) - Reserved for failed medical therapy, hyperstimulation cases & GnRH analogue usage. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Drug not given in PCOD in a 30-year-old lady with infeility?
A. Clomiphene
B. Tamoxifen
C. OCPs
D. Metformin
| Tamoxifen |
df4548bb-09a0-4e3c-bb29-843a92365e59 | Elastomeric impression materials:
They are supplied in two components, a base paste and a catalyst paste (or liquid) that are mixed before making impressions. They are often formulated in several consistencies, including extra low, low, medium, heavy, and putty, in increasing order of filler content. Extra-low and putty forms are available only for condensation and addition silicones.
Polysulfide is provided only in light-body and heavy-body consistencies. There is no heavy-body product for condensation silicone. Pigments are added to give each material a distinct color.
The base paste, is a polysulfide polymer that contains a multifunctional mercaptan (-SH) called a polysulfide polymer, a suitable filler (such as lithopone or titanium dioxide) to provide the required strength, a plasticizer (such as dibutyl phthalate) to confer the appropriate viscosity to the paste, and a small quantity of sulfur, approximately 0.5%, as an accelerator.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 153 | Dental | null | Heavy and light body impression materials are used with:
A. Mercaptan
B. Silicone
C. Reversible hydrocolloid
D. 1 and 2
| 1 and 2 |
d14e6c46-6260-4e50-b24e-19218c4c9587 | Tingling sensation in limb on ATT: ISONIAZID toxicity (Peripheral neuritis) which occurs due to deficiency of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) So pyridoxine supplementation is given in this case. | Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | A patient on Anti - tubercular therapy develops tingling sensation in the limbs. Which of the following when substituted can result in improvement of symptoms?
A. Thiamine
B. Pyridoxine
C. Folic acid
D. Methylcobalamine
| Pyridoxine |
61c39bd2-2c7b-4c23-8e2a-1cb85161670f | Ans: A. Inhibition of TNF alpha Gilman 12/e p182; KDT7/e p883, 6/ep205).Etanercept:Fusion protein produced by recombinant DNA.It fuses the TNF receptor to the constant end of the IgG1 antibody.It reduces the effect of naturally present TNF.Hence a TNF inhibitor, functioning as a decoy receptor that binds to TNF. | Pharmacology | null | Etanercept is a disease-modifying drug used in management of rheumatoid ahritis. What is its mechanism of action?
A. Inhibition of TNF alpha
B. COX-2 inhibition
C. IL-6 inhibition
D. Stabilization of mast cells
| Inhibition of TNF alpha |
520eac4c-4814-4538-984c-670900ddd93d | Glomerular Syndromes Nephrotic Syndrome Nephritic Syndrome Urinary albumin >3.0 - 3.5 gm/24 hours Hematuria/RBC casts Hypoalbuminemia Oliguria Edema Hypeension Hyperlipidemia Decreased GFR Lipiduria Proteinuria +/- Causes SGN (HIV), MGN (SLE, Hep B, Cancer - solid tumors), Mi minimal (children), MPGN (HepC)F Others : DM, Malignancy, vasculitis, amyloidosis Focal glomerulonephritis -IgA nephropathy - Focal SLE (Type III) Diffuse glomerulonephritis - Post infectious - Diffuse SLE (Type IV) IgA nephropathy: Most common presentation asymptomatic microhematuria with mild proteinuria | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2019 | A 5 year child is brought with brown coloured urine and oliguria since 3 days with mild facial puffiness and pedal edema with 3+ proteinuria, BP 126/90. Urine examination shows RBCs 100/hpf and granular casts. Which of the following doesn't present with this finding?
A. Minimal change disease
B. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. FSGS
D. IgA nephropathy
| Minimal change disease |
c2c17a3d-3302-481b-8550-6985d54126c7 | Hypovolemic shock in children may have following stages : -
Early compensated : - Immediately after hypovolemia, body tries to maintain the BP to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs through a compensatory mechanisms.
Late uncompensated : - If shock state continues or the compensatory mechanisms are not enough to maintain the metabolic needs of the tissue, the shock, goes into uncompensated phase. | Pediatrics | null | An alert 6 months old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR–45/min, HR–130/min, S P–85 mm of Hg. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is –
A. Early compensated hypovolemic shock
B. Early decompensated hypovolemic shock
C. Late compensated hypovolemic shock
D. Late decompensated shock due to SVT
| Early compensated hypovolemic shock |
725d9973-1082-4c9b-b4fb-9c63a4615e63 | Ans: D. 4 weeks(Ref Fitzpatrick 6/e p2302, 7/e p490-493, 1873-1898; Rooks 8/e p33.14-33.22; Roxburgh 18/e p52-54).Post-herpetic neuralgia (PHN):Most common & impoant neurologic complications of herpes zoster.Defined as pain after the rash has healed or pain 1 month or 3 months after rash onset.Best answer would be 4 weeks. | Skin | null | Postherpetic neuralgia is defined as pain lasting beyond how many weeks?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
| 4 weeks |
56a4d5b8-c2e7-4534-9511-a30ff0769814 | In acute gastroenteritis stool culture should be obtained as early as possible.
"Fecal specimens that cannot immediately be plated for culture can be transported to the laboratory in a non-nutrient holding medium such as Carry-Blair to prevent drying or overgrowth of specific organisms". | Pediatrics | null | A child is diagnosed to have acute gastroenteritis. The consulting pediatrician wants to send a stool sample to a lab which is 16-18 hours away. Which of the following mediums should he use to send this sample –
A. Charcol cotton bud
B. Carry Blair medium
C. Sterilized jar
D. A medium with high CO2 content
| Carry Blair medium |
af64e0dd-f66f-496a-8b0d-13daf729cf5f | Ans. C: EthambutolCauses of nutritional optic neuropathy include tobacco, ethanol, thiamine, and vitamin B-12.Causes of toxic optic neuropathy include chemicals and drugs, such as methanol, ethylene glycol, ethambutol, isoniazid, digitalis, cimetidine, vincristine, cyclosporine, toluene, and amiodarone.Chloroquine causes loss of vision due to retinal damage. Corneal deposits may also occur and affect vision, but are reversible on discontinuation. | Pharmacology | null | Drug causing toxic optic neuropathy is:March 2009
A. Pyrazinamide
B. Chloroquine
C. Ethambutol
D. Tetracycile
| Ethambutol |
24ee7b54-bd3e-4152-9a09-3fe73f3cfcfe | Patient is being brought to the casualty with - BP = 70/40mm, P/R = 120/min (i.e. she is in shock).
Her urine pregnancy test is positive i.e. she is a case of ruptured ectopic. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 20 years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Laparoscopy
C. Culdocentesis
D. Resuscitation and Medical management
| Immediate laparotomy |
0e84d442-cf46-4dde-a0dc-42f862dd171f | Aim for the treatment of classical angina is decrease in work of hea. It can be accomplished by decrease in preload, decrease in afterload or decrease in hea rate. Nitrates act by production of nitric oxide (NO). NO stimulates guanylate cyclase in smooth muscles which leads to formation of cGMP. Later acts on smooth muscles to cause vasodilation. Nitrates mainly produce NO in veins leading to its predominant action as venodilation. Dilation of veins results in decrease in pre-load. Therefore major mechanism of action of nitrates in angina is decrease in preload. However, in variant angina these drugs benefit by causing coronary vasodilation as variant angina occurs due to vasospasm of coronary aery. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 | Major mechanism of action of nitrates in acute attack of angina is:-
A. Coronary vasodilation
B. Decreases in preload
C. Decreases in afterload
D. Decreases in hea rate
| Decreases in preload |
aa9f6ffb-1c54-4556-b121-b0b5578f33e9 | Ans. a. X-ray (Ref Hurst s The Hea 13/e p1050)Hurst's says "Lead dislodgement maybe radiographically visible or it maybe a microdislodgement, where there is no radiographic change in position, but there is significant increase in pacing threshold and/or decline in electrogram amplitude.Lead dislodgement may result in an increasing pacing threshold, failure to capture, or failure to sense. Lead dislodgement maybe radiographically visible or it maybe a microdislodgement, where there is no radiographic change in position, but there is significant increase in pacing threshold and/or decline in electrogram amplitude. | Medicine | null | In a patient with implanted cardiac pacemaker (defibrillator),which of the following investigation is useful to know the position of the misplaced implant ?.
A. X-ray
B. CT scan
C. MR1
D. USG
| X-ray |
d4208506-5d94-4956-8af6-8dd7c471ae8b | Answer- C. IV fluidsSuppoive care with analgesics, fluid replacement, and bed rest is usually sufficient. | Medicine | null | What is the effective management of a dengue patient with warning signs without shock and haemorrhage-
A. Steroids
B. Platelet transfusion
C. IV fluids
D. Antiviral
| IV fluids |
6664aae4-2a0e-462e-a8c2-7f91ac2f24cd | Ans: A. Hepcidin(Ref Robbins 91e p650 848 8/e p660)Hepcidin:Main regulator protein for iron absorption.Encoded by HAMP gene.Small circulating peptide synthesized & released from liver in response to increased intrahepatic iron levels.Proteins Involved in Iron MetabolismCeruloplasmindeg (ferrioxidase activity)DMT1degFerrireductasedeg (cytochrome b reductase I)FerritindegFerropinHeme transpoerHemojuvelinHepcidindegHephaestindegHFEdegIron-responsive element-bindingproteindegTransferrindegTransferrin receptors 1 & 2 | Pathology | null | Most impoant but nonspecific regulator of iron metabolism is:
A. Hepcidin
B. DMT I
C. Ferropoin
D. Ferritin
| Hepcidin |
112a2f9e-e59f-4ae5-913f-9592aa573e18 | Ans. a. To monitor disease trendsAlthough the HIV sentinel surveillance data has been primarily used for monitoring the trends, i.e. to assess how rapidly HIV infection increases or decreases over the time in different groups and areas, it can also provide an estimate of the total burden of HIV infection in the counttyHIV Sentinel SurveillanceAfter the establishment of the fact that the HIV infection is present in wide geographic areas, the objective of the sentinel surveillance was redefined to monitor the trends of HIV infectionQThe objective of the surveillance is best achieved by annual cross-sectional survey of the risk group in the same place over a few years by unlinked anonymous serological testing procedures by two ERS (i.e. when HIV testing is carried out without identification of name of samples collected for other purposes such as VDRL in STD clinics.) The number of samples to be screened must represent the risk group under study and the sample size is determined accordingly.Although the HIV sentinel surveillance data has been primarily used for monitoring the trends, i.e. to assess how rapidly HIV infection increases or decreases over the time in different groups and areas, it can also provide an estimate of the total burden of HIV infection in the countryQ | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | HIV sentinel surveillance provides data:
A. To monitor disease trends
B. To identify high risk population
C. To estimate disease incidence
D. To assess the quality of related services
| To monitor disease trends |
2ff9fad7-263d-4611-a707-626809334f2c | 1. The reason for the development of allergy is the presence of plasma and the process of washing helps in the removal of residual plasma. if the Patient is having a history of allergy - Antihistaminic drugs -reduce the chances of development of allergic reactions during blood transfusion. 2. Irradiation - reduces the chance of development of Graft Versus Host Disease. Irradiation - causes - reduction in the number of the immunocompetent cells (lymphocytes mainly) Irradiation of cellular blood components (red blood cells, platelets, and granulocytes) is indicated to prevent the development of transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD). Patients at risk of TA-GVHD include immunocompromised patients who are receiving a bone marrow or stem cell transplant and fetuses undergoing an intrauterine transfusion. Irradiation is also indicated for recipients of components collected from a blood relative or HLA-matched donors. 3. Leukocyte reduction - Leukoreduction of whole blood and blood components has been shown to reduce recurrent febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions, reduce alloimmunization to leukocyte antigens that may complicate care of patients whoundergo transplantation or chronic transfusion therapy, and protect against transmission of cytomegalovirus (CMV) to patients at increased risk of CMV disease. antibodies in the recipient - react with donor leukocytes - release of cytokines - cause fever- known as Febrile Non-Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction. 4. Glycolisation - addition of glycol. useful in autologous blood transfusion - increases the life span of RBC. If the patient is having a history of development of anaphylaxis after blood transfusion, the patient is most likely to be suffering from IgA deficiency. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | What processing should be done of the blood before transfusion to reduce chances of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)?
A. Irradiation
B. Washing
C. Leucocyte reduction
D. Glycolisation
| Leucocyte reduction |
75804c47-d068-4944-a996-6fdb3d2379e5 | Saccharin and aspartame are two artificial sweeteners commonly available. Saccharin is 100 times sweeter than sucrose and contains no calories.
Aspartame, commonly known as nutra sweet, is a combination of the aminoacids, aspartic acid and phenylalanine. It is 200 times more sweeter than sucrose. | Dental | null | Nutra sweet is:
A. Saccharin.
B. Aspartame.
C. Xylitol.
D. Sorbitol.
| Aspartame. |
c4169d37-8378-47f0-a9e6-6ae62b6046fd | Ans: A. AmikacinRef: Sharma & Sharma's Principles of Pharmacologt, 3d ed., pg. 74t-749 and htrys://www.uplodate.com/contents/treatment-and-prevention-of-enteric-typhoid-und-paratyphoid-feverAmikacin is a commonly used aminoglycoside.Antimicrobial spectrum of aminoglycosides does not include salmonella.It is used in gentamycin and tobramycin resistant infections.It is used for organisms like Pseudomonas, Proteus, and Serratia. It is also effective in MDR-TB. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs is not used in typhoid fever?
A. Amikacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Cefixime
D. Azithromycin
| Amikacin |
6101f100-7f2c-4957-8862-e5abfc113729 | Kartagener's syndrome is a subgroup of primary ciliary dyskinesia.
Primary ciliary dyskinesia:
It is an autosomal recessive syndrome.
It is characterized by poorly functioning cilia. There is absence or shortening of Dynein arms that are responsible for the coordinated bending of cilia.
Approximately half of the patients with primary ciliary dyskinesia have kartagener's syndrome. | Pediatrics | null | A child present with recurrent sinusitis and recurrent chest infections. Chest X–ray reveals dextrocardia and situs invertus. The diagnosis is –
A. Kartagener's syndrome
B. Good–pasture's syndrome
C. Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
D. William Campbell syndrome
| Kartagener's syndrome |
68589d4c-ad15-4989-a235-a242d226503a | Answer. d. Polyangitis nodosa (ref- Wallach interpretation of diagnostic test 8/e pg 95-96)Peripheral eosinophilia with renal failure is least likely to be possible in polyangitis nodosa. | Medicine | null | Peripheral eosinophila with renal failure is least likely to be possible in:
A. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis
B. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis
C. Atheroembolic renal failure
D. Polyangitis nodosa
| Polyangitis nodosa |
d6f5cf46-9b31-4489-8989-beff9c456484 | Ans: B. t(11,22)Genetic exchange between chromosomes can cause cells to become cancerous. Most cases of Ewing's sarcoma (85%) are the result of a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22, which fuses the EWS gene of chromosome 22 to the FLI1 gene of chromosome 11. Other translocations are at t(21;22) and t(7;22). | Pathology | null | Translocation seen in Ewing's sarcoma is:
A. t(8,11)
B. t(11,22)
C. t(11,18)
D. t(14,18)
| t(11,22) |
ced0e6e7-048a-467e-aa7e-e10def9ebb5e | A 70% solution of alcohol takes more time in evaporation from the surface, increasing the contact time. Therefore, 70% isopropyl alcohol is suitable for disinfection.
100% isopropyl alcohol coagulates the protein instantly creating a protein layer that protects the remaining protein from further coagulation. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is not used as a disinfectant?
A. 1-2% Cetrimide
B. 100% Alcohol
C. 2% Lysol
D. 5% Chloroxylene
| 100% Alcohol |
744e4dce-b8f1-447f-a964-bea1bbe98edf | Segmental anatomy of liver. Liver is divided into 8 segments by DAV structures (bile duct, hepatic aery, poal vein) Poal vein is most impoant among them Left hepatic vein separates medial & lateral segments Right hepatic vein separates anterior & posterior segments Poal vein separates upper & lower segments From surgical perspective, right hepatectomy - involve division of liver in principle plane in which segment V, VI, VII, VIII would be removed leaving segments I, II, III, IV Hepatic vein is now removed from couinaud's classification | Anatomy | AIIMS 2019 | Liver is divided into eight segments according to Couinaud's classification based upon
A. Bile Duct
B. Poal vein
C. Hepatic Vein
D. Hepatic aery
| Poal vein |
9a704b1d-b36c-4f55-b1f1-89af27e8c346 | Ans: D. Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis E infection(Ref: Harrison 191e p2018, 18/e p2546)In the question, anti-HBc IgG is reactive but HbsAg is negative, the case is a recovered case from hepatitis B.Hepatitis A is rarely chronic, can he ruled out from the given options.Anti-HAV IgG suggests recovered case from HAV infections.Anti-HEV 1gM is an indicator of acute hepatitis E infection.History of pregnancy and high serum bilirubin with raised AST and ALT is suggestive of fulminant hepatitis E.Commonly Encountered Serologic Patterns of Hepatitis B InfectionHBsAgAnti-HBsAnti-HBcHBeAgAnti-HBeInterpretation+-IgM+-* Acute hepatitis B, high infectivity+-IgG+-* Chronic hepatitis B, high infectivitydeg+ IgG-+* Late acute or chronic hepatitis B, low infectivitydeg* HBeAg-negative (`precore-mutant) hepatitis B (chronic or rarely acute) | Medicine | null | A 27 years old pregnant lady comes with severe jaundice and altered sensorium. On examination, the patient is deeply icteric, not responding to commands and pelvic sonogram reveals intrauterine fetal death. Serum bilirubin levels are 28.8 mg/dL (direct = 18.6 mg/dL), AST levels are 1063 and ALT levels are 1191. The viral markers are as follows. What is the likely diagnosis?Anti-HAV IgGReactiveAnti-HAV IgMNonreactiveHbSAgNon reactiveAnti-HbSAgNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgMNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgGReactiveAnti-HCV IgGNonreactiveAnti-HEV IgMReactiveAnti-HEV IgGNon reactive
A. Acute hepatitis E superimposed on chronic liver failure due to hepatitis B
B. Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis B infection
C. Acute hepatitis E with chronic hepatitis A
D. Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis E infection
| Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis E infection |
37439d71-3558-4ceb-85af-8332c259afe1 | Ans. D. High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis Even though ABG looks completely normal - clinical history is the key here.CKD patients generally have high AG metabolic acidosis. On the background of that he has developed vomiting (which is an alkalotic state). Both opposing disorders have normalized the ABG. But the patient is actually having a double disorder. | Medicine | null | A patient who is a known case of CKD has complaints of vomiting. His ABG repos are as follows: pH - 7.40, pCO2 - 40, HCO3 - 25. Na -145, chloride-100.
A. Normal anion gap met acidosis
B. High anion gap met acidosis
C. No acid base abnormality
D. High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis
| High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis |
00b68a41-476c-4506-9961-35e03dd44243 | Ans: D.PhosphoglucomutasePhosphoglucomutase enzyme is common between glycogenesis & glycogenolysis.Reaction catalyzed by phosphoglucomutase is reversible.Hence, glucose 6-phosphate can be formed from glucose I-phosphate.In liver & kidney, (not in muscle) glucose 6-phosphatase hydrolyzes glucose 6-phosphate a glucose a Increases blood glucose concentration.(Ref Harper's 29/e p180; Harper 30/e p176, 177, 28/e p158, 333). | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following enzyme is common between glycogenesis and glycogenolysis?
A. Glycogen synthase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Glucan transferase
D. Phosphoglucomutase
| Phosphoglucomutase |
76419b60-8de5-4a78-b065-4382c8725441 | Answer- B. Neuraminidase inhibitionThe neuraminidase inhibitors oseltamivir and zanamivir, analogs of sialic ocid, interfere with release of progenyinfluenza vitus from infected host cells, thas halting the spread of infection within the respiratory tract. These agentscompetitively and reversibly interact with the active enzyme site to inhibit viral neuraminidase activity at low nanomolar concentrations. | Pharmacology | null | Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) as an antiviral agent is:
A. Inhibition of M2 receptor
B. Neuraminidase inhibition
C. Inhibition of RNA dependent DNA polymerase
D. Apoptosis of infected cells
| Neuraminidase inhibition |
46872392-e33f-464f-a194-93ea23830da9 | Ans. A. XIIXII nerve is a motor nerve; does not play role in olfaction and gustation.Cranial Nerves -- Components and FunctionsNumberNameFunctionIOlfactory nerve Smell sensationIIOptic nerve VisionIIIOculomotor Turns eyeball upward, downward,and medially; Raises upper eyelid, alsoconstricts pupil; accommodates eyeIVTrochlear nerve It helps in turning eyeball downwardand laterallyVTrigeminalMaxillarydivisionSupplies dura mater of anterior paof middle cranial fossa, conjunctiva ofinferior eyelid, skin of face over maxilla;teeth of upper jaw; mucous membrane NumberNameFunction OphthalmicdivisionSupplies cornea, superior conjunctiva,skin of dorsum of external nose,forehead, scalp, superior eyelids, andalso mucous nasal cavity, ethmoid,frontal and sphenoid sinuses MandibulardivisionSkin of lower lip, buccal, parotid andtemporal regions of face, external ear(Auricle, tympanic membrane andacoustic meatus), mucous membraneof mouth and anterior two-third paof tongue. Supplies 4 muscles of mastication,mylohyoid, anteriorbelly of digastric, tensor tympani andtensor veli palatini VI Abducent Lateral rectus muscle turns eyeballlaterally NumberName FunctionVIIFacial Taste from anterior two-thirdsof tongue, from floor of mouth andpalate Muscles of face and scalp,stapedius muscle, posterior belly ofdigastric and stylohyoid muscles Submandibular and sublingualsalivary glands,the lacrimal gland, andglands of nose and palate VIII VestibulocochlearCochlear Organ of Coi--hearing VestibularFrom utricle and saccule andsemicircular canals--positionand movement of headIXGlossopharyngeal General sensation and taste fromposterior one-third of tongue andpharynx; carotid sinus (baroreceptor);and carotid body (chemoreceptor) NumberName Function Stylopharyngeus muscle--assistsswallowingParasympathetic parotid salivary gland X Vagus Hea and great thoracic blood vessels;larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs;alimentary tract from pharynx tosplenic flexure ofcolon; liver, kidneys, and pancreas XI Spinal accessory Cranial rootSternocleidomastoid and trapeziusmuscles Cranial root Muscles of soft palate (excepttensor veli palatini), pharynx (exceptstylopharyngeal), and larynx (exceptcricothyroid) in branches of vagus XII Hypoglossal Muscles of tongue (exceptpalatoglossus) controlling its shape andmovement | Anatomy | null | Which of the following cranial nerve not associated with olfaction?
A. XII
B. IX
C. V
D. X
| XII |
8cc404b2-cdb1-4bea-be17-2dcd2edb48d8 | Answer- D. 250 microgramRecommended daily intake of iodine in pregnancy is 250 microgram. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Recommnended daily intake of iodine in pregnancy-
A. 90 microgram
B. 120 microgram
C. 150 microgram
D. 250 microgram
| 250 microgram |
5b53950b-3426-4836-9c2f-23735fecc6aa | Causes of Jaundice since birth are:
(i) Rh incompatibility (erythroblastosis fetalis)
ABO incompatibility
Congenital infections (TORCH)
Sepsis
Concealed hemorrhage
Red cell membrane defect (hereditary spherocytosis)
Red cell enzyme defect (G6PD deficiency)
So, option a & d can cause jaundice since birth.
In sickle cell anemia, affected infants do not develop symptoms in the first few months of life because the hemoglobin produced by the developing fetus (fetal hemoglobin) protects the red blood cells from sickling. This fetal hemoglobin disappears after 5 month of age so that by 5 months of age, the sickling of the red blood cells is prominent and symptoms begin.
PNH is manfested in adults.
So, both PNH and sickle cell anemia does not cause jaundice since birth.
But among these two I would prefer PNH as the answer because it is manifested in adulthood while the patient in question is a 5-years old child.
Sickle cell anemia symptoms develop at the age of 5 months and it is one of the cause of jaundice | Pediatrics | null | A 5–years old male child presents with episodic anaemia and jaundice since birth. He is least likely to have which of the following
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Siclde cell anemia
C. PNH
D. G–6–PD deficiency
| PNH |
c7f81422-57d3-4a31-ae96-83ca3f999334 | Ans. b. Inner nuclear layerMlcroaneurysms are the earliest clinical sign of diabetic retinopathy and occur secondary tocapillary wall outpouching due to pericyte loss.. Thev appear as small red dots' MicroaneurysStructural changes in the retinal microcirculation have been associated with a physiologic breakdown in the bloodretinalbarrier. ihus, the retinal microcirculation in diabetics may be exceptionally leaky, giving rise to macularedema, a common cause of visual loss in these patients.The vascular changes may also produce exudates that accumulate in the outer plexiform layerq | Ophthalmology | null | Microaneurysms are the earliest manifestation of diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following layer is involved in diabetic etinopathy?
A. Outer plexiform layer
B. Inner nuclear layer
C. Layer of rods and cones
D. Retinal pigment epithelium
| Inner nuclear layer |
2e0115a1-4971-407d-b5a1-ec1a70e6e066 | Option A- Explanation for carrier stage Option C- Refers to high infectivity of the virus so basically higher chances of infection but not cancer. Option D- This leads to inhibition of apoptosis so might cause cancer of liver (HCC) | Medicine | AIIMS 2017 | Asymptomatic hep B is common in 2-3% normal population, but there is increased risk of transmission into hepatocellular carcinoma. Why?
A. Inability to induce inflammation to remove the organism
B. High level of transaminases
C. High rate of proliferation of virus
D. Integration of viral DNA with host DNA
| Integration of viral DNA with host DNA |
42f5106c-e964-4e2c-b39d-b95f6246efae | PCR is Reverse Transcriptase PCR, where staing material is RNA. It is used to make cDNA, which is amplified. Thus RNA can be amplified by this method and quantification of mRNA can also be done (see fig). Here we use Tth polymerase enzyme which has both reverse transcriptase and polymerase activity WITH REGARD TO OTHER OPTIONS: Western blot is to detect protein. Next generation sequencing & Sanger's technique are for DNA sequencing. ADDITIONAL EDGE: Used to detect RNA expression Sample here is RNA. This RNA is conveed to cDNA by enzyme reverse transcriptase. Tth polymerase (Thermus thermophilus HB-8) has Polymerase as well as reverse transcriptase activity when mixed with manganese ions and can thus be used for the amplification of RNA to cDNA. This polymerase is thermostable but does not has proofreading activity. So it is usually combined with a proofreading enzyme. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following is a primarily RNA based technique?
A. Next generation sequencing
B. PCR
C. Sanger's technique
D. Western blotting
| PCR |
07cbc168-01c1-4cb2-8cec-de6c18b9d29d | Answer- B. Serum lipaseSerum amylase and lipases are the initial investigations done in patients with acute pancreatitis.CECT is the investigation of choice but the initial investigation in such patients. | Surgery | null | Chronic alcoholic comes with pain epigastrium and recurrent vomiting. On examination guarding in upper epigastrium. Chest X-ray normal. What to do next?
A. UGI endoscopy
B. Serum lipase
C. CECT
D. Alcohol breath test
| Serum lipase |
95567c10-0007-466a-8b8e-8f8891806716 | Dentate nucleus Information processed in the Purkinje cell layer of cerebellum sent to deep cerebellar nuclei (4 in total), which form the cerebellar output. Largest collection of fibers originates from the dentate nucleus, which then project to contralateral ventral nucleus of thalamus after decussating in superior cerebellar peduncle. | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 | Purkinje fibers project to which of the following
A. Caudate nucleus
B. Red nucleus
C. Dentate nucleus
D. Ventero lateral nucleus of thalamus
| Dentate nucleus |
8af82f86-f0fe-46f3-8e14-58a77ec931bb | Scurvy X-ray - pencil thin outline of coex Subperiosteal hemorrhage Wimberger sign Pelkan spur Trummerfeld zone | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2018 | A 4 - year - old child presented with painless genu valgum. X - ray bilateral knee was done and is shown below. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
A. Rickets
B. Scurvy
C. Congenital anomaly
D. Trauma to epiphysis
| Scurvy |
27eecec7-69c5-40bd-9d90-c19e43acc9a3 | Ans. A. Heroin* Insomnia, Agitation,Diarrhea and Altered sensorium* There may be white froth from mouth, in PM examination * Methadone is the drug of Choice | Forensic Medicine | null | A Patient is admitted with Insomnia, Agitation, Diarrhoea, Dilated pupils and Sweating, what is the type of poisoning?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Cannabis
D. Ecstasy
| Heroin |
10919dfe-e40f-43e4-8e85-0a7679238e21 | Ans. A. Chronic Gout* Pegloticase is a medication for the treatment of Severe, Treatment - Refractory, Chronic Gout.* It is a third line treatment in those in whom other treatments are not tolerated.* Drug is administered by infusion intravenously. | Pharmacology | null | Pegloticase used in which of the following conditions?
A. Chronic Gout
B. Psoriatic ahritis
C. RA
D. Paralytic Ileus
| Chronic Gout |
d947e9b8-6731-4b40-bbf5-9417c24dda50 | There are two proprioceptors in a muscle: - Muscle spindle Golgi tendon organ - Situated in belly or muscle - Formed by intra-fusal fibres - Detects the length of muscle when muscle is stationary - Detect rate of change of length - Present in tendon - Made up of tendon fibres - Detects the muscle tension. - Detects rate of change of tension. | Physiology | AIIMS 2019 | Golgi tendon organ function is?
A. Detects the dynamic change in muscle length
B. Detects the muscle tension
C. Detects the muscle stretch
D. Detects the muscle strength
| Detects the muscle tension |
4473f818-6954-484c-a9c9-48e5abd409df | Red cell precursors formed in the bone marrow from the erythroid (CFU–E) progenitor cells are called erythroblasts or normoblasts. These divide and acquire haemoglobin, which turns the cytoplasm pink; the nucleus condenses and is extruded from the cell. The first non-nucleated red cell is a reticulocyte, which still contains ribosomal material in the cytoplasm, giving these large cells a faint blue tinge (‘polychromasia’). Reticulocytes lose their ribosomal material and mature over 3 days, during which time they are released into the circulation. Increased numbers of circulating reticulocytes (reticulocytosis) reflect increased erythropoiesis.
Proliferation and differentiation of red cell precursors is stimulated by erythropoietin, a polypeptide hormone produced by renal interstitial peritubular cells in response to hypoxia. Failure of erythropoietin production in patients with renal failure causes anaemia, which can be treated with exogenous recombinant erythropoietin or similar pharmacological agents called erythropoiesis-stimulating agents, e.g. darbepoetin.
Reference: : Davidson P R I N C I P L E S and Practice O F M E D I C I N E 23rd edition page no 915 | Medicine | null | Reticulocytosis is seen in:
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
| Hemolytic anemia |
73b1ad96-1717-4bb2-930d-efa7e16bdc6f | Pure gold has been in use in dentistry in the United States for more than 100 years. Various techniques have been advanced for its use in the restoration of teeth.
Ref: Sturdevant operative dentistry 7 ed page no e69 | Dental | null | The material used in its pure form in dentistry is:
A. Composite
B. Silver
C. Gold
D. Amalgam
| Gold |
95367fc3-c4d1-48f6-bcf4-8da8be3cfa2d | Answer- A. OsteoporosisHaving osteoporosisHaving a history of other bone problems or fracturesHaving low bone density and low muscle mass | Surgery | null | Most common cause of interochanteric fracture in old is -
A. Osteoporosis
B. Paget's dis
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteomalacia
| Osteoporosis |
64be099e-1057-4cd8-b5f1-f2e521c9ba6e | Ans: C. cGMPRef.: Harper 30/e p290, 437)Second messenger for smooth muscle relaxation mediated by NO is cGMP."GTP serves as an allosteric regulator and as an energy source for protein synthesis, and cGMP serves as a second messenger in response to nitric oxide (NO) during relaxation of smooth muscle. | Biochemistry | null | Second messenger for smooth muscle relaxation mediated by NO is:
A. Ca'
B. cAMP
C. cGMP
D. Magnesium
| cGMP |
e4d56110-a077-483b-a4c3-8f6665e999c3 | History and clinical features of the child suggests that he is suffering from acute renal failure. From the given values we have to get the cause of this renal failure.
H/o diarrhea with low BP suggest dehydration —> a cause of prerenal ARE | Pediatrics | null | A child with 22-25 stool/day, 3 day old pneumonitis, no passage of urine from 36 hours. low B.P. Blood pH – 7.21. Urine Na+–18 meq/L, S. Urea 120, serum Creatinine 1.2 indicate –
A. Acute cortical necrosis
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Pre–renal Azotemia
D. Acute medullary necrosis
| Pre–renal Azotemia |
0138bb1a-4772-4450-9dc8-9b8a626df007 | 2 major fossa = Distal and Central
2 minor fossa also known as triangular fossa= Distal and Mesial | Dental | null | Number of fossa in upper 1st molar
A. 2 major 2 minor
B. 3 major 2 minor
C. 2 major 1 minor
D. 1 major 2 minor
| 2 major 2 minor |
464d4742-246a-425e-9acb-7705512f8f5a | Cancer is a hypercoagulable state, so there is clot formation in the leg of patient and that goes to brain and cause stroke like presentation. Rx= LMW heparin (enoxaparin 40 mg OD 4 weeks) | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | Which of the following drugs is used for treatment of cancer associated thromboembolism?
A. LMW heparin
B. Anti-thrombin III inhibitors
C. Direct factor Xa inhibitors
D. Warfarin
| LMW heparin |
a318b5cf-a25d-4860-878c-e1d0295fa46f | Ans: D: Debranching enzyme(Ref: Nelson 20/e p717-720; Harrison 19/e p433 e-2, 18Ie p3200, 3201)In this child, a combination of liver and muscle involvement with ketoacidosis and raised liver enzymes points towards Type III glycogen storage disease, i.e. Cori's disease caused by deficiency of debranching enzyme.Type IIIa Glycogen Storage Disease or Cori's Disease or Forbes Disease:Due to deficiency ofglycogen debranching enzyme activity.Debranching enzyme, together with phosphorylase, is responsible for complete degradation of glycogen. When debranching enzyme is defective, glycogen breakdown is incomplete and an abnormal glycogen with sho outer branch chains and resembling limit dextrin accumulates.Deficiency of glycogen debranching enzyme causes hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, sho stature, variable skeletal myopathy & variable eardiomyopathy. | Pediatrics | null | A child who was normal at bih develops chronic liver failure and muscle weakness at 3 months of age. On investigations, serum glucose is low, along with ketoacidosis and decreased pH. ALT and AST are raised. Blood lactate and uric acid levels are normal. Intravenous glucagon given after meals raises the blood glucose levels, but does not raise glucose when given after an overnight fast. Liver biopsy shows increased glycogen in liver. Which is the enzyme likely to be defective in this child?
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Muscle phosphorylase
C. Branching enzyme
D. Debranching enzyme
| Debranching enzyme |
74340a21-07b9-4e61-92a5-d4e4fb270de6 | Lead I = R wave taller than S = +ve Lead avF = R wave taller than S = +ve | Medicine | AIIMS 2018 | ECG shows a mean axis of 90 degrees. In which of the following would be present the maximum voltage of R wave?
A. III
B. I
C. aVF
D. aVL
| aVF |
751d9564-7804-41b2-a03d-210ffdcba7d6 | Vocal Sulcus/Laryngeal Sulcus
It is a groove along the mucosa and can be classified into three types:
Laryngeal sulcus | ENT | null | Pharyngeal Pseudosulcus is seen secondary to-
A. Vocal Abuse
B. Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
C. Tuberculosis
D. Corticosteroid usage
| Laryngopharyngeal Reflux |
3ed188d6-3605-4419-b71e-118167218468 | In rheumatic fever valvular abnormalities usually are associated with chronic disease but mitral regurgitation is seen in acute rheumatic fever.
Mitral regurgitation is the commonest manifestation of acute as well as previous rheumatic carditis. | Pediatrics | null | Earliest valvular lesion in a case of acute rheumatic fever is –
A. Mitral regurgitation (MR)
B. Aortic Regurgitation(AR)
C. Mitral stenosis (MS)
D. Aortic Stenosis (AS)
| Mitral regurgitation (MR) |
46653ca7-d61a-4d6a-a135-91309eff9b49 | Disability adjusted life years : Is a measure of the burden of disease in a defined population and the effectiveness of interventions; It expresses years lost to premature death and years lived with disability adjusted for its’ severity | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which is the best index for burden of disease?
A. Case fatality rate
B. Morbidity data
C. Dependency ratio
D. Disability adjusted life years
| Disability adjusted life years |
88a28a1e-51c4-4199-8bf4-683278258bd4 | Ans. B: Obstruction of lymphatic ductsInflammatory breast cancer (IBC) is a very aggressive type of breast cancer in which the cancer cells block the lymph vessels in the skin of the breast.This type of breast cancer is called "inflammatory" because the breast often looks swollen and red, or "inflamed", sometimes overnight, and can be misdiagnosed as mastitis.Invasion of the local lymphatic ducts impairs drainage and causes edematous swelling of the breast. Because the skin of the breast is tethered by the suspensory ligament of Cooper, the accumulation of fluid may cause the skin of the breast to assume a dimpled appearance similar to an orange peel (peau d'orange).IBC is sometimes misdiagnosed as an insect bite or breast infection. In the case of IBC, a lump is usually not present as in other forms of breast cancer. | Surgery | null | Peau d'Orange of breast is due to:September 2005, 2010, March 2007
A. Obstruction of Vein
B. Obstruction of lymphatic ducts.
C. Obstruction of glandular ducts
D. Obstruction of aeries
| Obstruction of lymphatic ducts. |
96134923-f73b-48f4-8361-c964c3ab16b2 | Ans. a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (Ref Harrison l9/e p1784, I8/e p2262-2263; Sobiston I9/e p1880-1882; Schwaz 9/e p1534-1536; Bailey 25/e p304)An elderly, hypeensive patient presented with sudden onset headache, vomiting, neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit, diagnosis in this case is subarachnoid hemorrhage. | Medicine | null | An elderly, hypeensive patient presented with sudden onset headache, vomiting, neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit. Diagnosis:
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Ischemic stroke
C. Subdural hemorrhage
D. Meningitis
| Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
65f3f017-4699-470d-baaa-0743a0a5d10a | Endocarditis tends to occur in :
High pressure areas (left side of heart)
Downstream from sites where blood flows at a high velocity through a narrow orifice from a high to low-pressure chamber (distal to constriction in Coarctation of aorta)
Endocarditis is unusual in sites with a small pressure gradient as ASD
Infective endocarditis is very rare in patients of ASD
Endocarditis occurs more frequently in patients with valvular incompetence than in those with pure stenosis.
Risk of endocarditis in various lesions are : | Pediatrics | null | Infective endocarditis is not seen in –
A. ASD
B. TOF
C. VSD
D. MR
| ASD |
b3aa72de-f85c-407f-892b-9dae7d953417 | Ans: B. Linezolid(Ref Goodman Gilman I3/e p796, 12/e p1537; Katzung 12/e p817; KDT 7/e p758, 817, 6/e p669)Linezolid inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the P site of the 50S ribosomal subunit and preventing formation of the larger ribosomal-fMet-tRNA complex that initiates protein synthesis.Nitrofurantoin - Works by damaging bacterial DNA.Metronidazole - Forms toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA.Rifampicin - Inhibit DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs does not affect DNA synthesis?
A. Rifampicin
B. Linezolid
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Metronidazole
| Linezolid |
114fa1dd-9f36-4b84-9f6a-68303bc63931 | Ans: A. USG for fetal cardiac activity (Ref Williams 24/e p196; Ultrasound Obstet Gynecol 2011; 37:625-628; Dutta 8/e p77-78, 7/e p68)Earliest diagnosis of pregnancy:Most accurate & safest method diagnose ble pregnancy at 6 weeks = USG for fetal cardiac activity.Transvaginal sonography:By 5 weeks:Reliably visualizes intrauterine gestational sac.Embryo visible transvaginally once mean sac diameter is 20 mm.Otherwise is anembryonic gestation.By 6 weeks:Embryo with cardiac activity.Cardiac motion visible when embryo length is 5 mm.If embryo <7 mm is unidentified with cardiac activity - Subsequent examination recommended in 1 week (American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine, 2013a).Doppler:Most sensitive but unsafe in early pregnancy.Doppler examination of fetal vessels in early pregnancy should not be performed without a clinical indication. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Earliest diagnosis of pregnancy can be established safely by:
A. USG for fetal cardiac activity
B. Fetal cardiac Doppler study
C. hCG levels
D. MRI pelvis
| USG for fetal cardiac activity |
d5a3e0d8-3ce2-455c-96c6-b5b9fec203a0 | In maxillary arch, border of major connector must be no closer than 6 mm to gingival crevices of teeth.
In mandibular arch, border of major connector must be no closer than 3 mm to gingival crevices of teeth. | Dental | null | Borders of major connectors adjacent to gingival crevices, should be no closer to the crevice
than?
A. 1-2 mm
B. 2-3 mm
C. 3-6 mm
D. 7-10 mm
| 3-6 mm |
d0b610ce-0221-413d-8d59-aca1b5a1a254 | Ans. a. ExtrinsicIn Prothrombin time (PT) estimation, addition of calcium and thromboplastin to platelet poor plasma activates extrinsic pathway.The prothrombin time (PT) assay assesses the function of the proteins in the extrinsic pathway (factors VII, X,and .fibrinogen). In brief tissue factor, phospholipids, and calcium are added to plasma and the time for a fibrin clot to form is recorded.Prothrombin time (PT): This test assesses the extrinsic and common coagulation pathways. The clotting of plasma after addition of an exogenous source of tissue thromboplastin (e.g., brain extract) and Ca" ions is measured in seconds. A prolonged PT can result from deficiency or dysfunction of factor V, factor VII, factor X, prothrombin. or fibrinogen | Pathology | null | In Prothrombin time (PT) estimation, on addition of calcium and thromboplastin to platelet poor plasma. which of the following pathway is activated?
A. Extrinsic
B. Intrinsic
C. Fibrinolysis
D. Common
| Extrinsic |
84b873f8-fb56-4767-8af8-8526e71bed62 | Ans. B. SulfonamideDrugs causing fixed drug eruptionParacetamol (Phenacetin)SulfonamidesNSAIDsAspirinBarbituratesDapsoneTetracyclinesPhenylbutazone | Pharmacology | null | Fixed drug eruptions are frequently seen with?
A. Penicillin
B. Sulfonamide
C. Cetirizine
D. Roxithromycin
| Sulfonamide |
7654b57a-4955-4f89-a828-a8c82995f619 | Ans: B. Puppe's rule (Ref. Reddy 34/e p213. 33/e p225, Forensic Pathology 3/e p241, 110)Puppe's rule:Used to determine that which fracture line has occurred before the second one. | Forensic Medicine | null | An autopsy was performed on a case of accidental death. It showed two linear fractures on petrous pa of temporal bone. Which of the following rules gives the sequence of fractures?
A. McNaughton's rule
B. Puppe's rule
C. Young's rule
D. Dunlop's rule
| Puppe's rule |
b874e4a2-0b9e-4333-b9b0-70a44664022a | Answer- A. Pyruvate to oxaloacetateCarboxylation of pyruvate to oxuloacetate is an example of anaplerotic reactions."Anaplerotic reactions are chemical reactions that form intermediates of a metabolic pathway. Examples of such are foundin the citric acid cycle (TCA cycle).Examples of Anaplerotic ReactionsCarboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetateTransamination of aspaate to oxaloacetate by aspaate amino transferaseaHydration of glutamate to alpha-ketoglutarate by glutamate-dehydrogenaseBeta-oxidation of fatty acids to succinyl-CoAIn purine synthesis & purine nucleotide cycle: Adenylosuccinate to fumarate catalyzed by adenylosuccinate lyase. | Biochemistry | null | Which of these is an example of anaplerotic reaction?
A. Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
B. Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
C. Pyruvate to lactic acid
D. Pyruvate to acetaldehyde
| Pyruvate to oxaloacetate |
c27e7c0b-7d26-4ca7-b537-c44b71114d55 | Ans: C. SeleniumBlind staggers are no longer believed to be caused by selenium but by sulfate toxicity due to the consumption of high-sulfate alkali water and/or high sulfur-containing forages.Since Sulfate is not mentioned in Question we will go for selenium.Excess sulfate (>1% of diet) leads to polioencephalomalacia and the classical signs of blind staggers.Blind StaggersThis syndrome may occur within a brief period (a few days to a few weeks) after the animal has begun to take in very high dietary levels of selenium. The symptoms of this condition are: impaired vision, a depressed appetite, and wandering in circlesProlonged oral exposure of cattle to elevated dietary selenium (Se) is associated historically with 2 clinical syndromes:Alkali disease."Blind staggers".These two syndromes are not necessarily independent of one another. An animal may have only symptoms of one or the other or a combination of the symptoms of both. Both are associated with cardiac and skeletal muscle damage as well as hepatic damage. | Forensic Medicine | null | Poisoning by which of these elements causes blind staggers alkali disease in livestock?
A. Magnesium
B. Manganese
C. Selenium
D. Molybdenum
| Selenium |
e5be7962-590f-4590-bb2b-84860a14a42a | Transfused blood contains chemical known as citrate and the liver conves this citrate into bicarbonate . High amount of bicarbonate in body leads to metabolic alkalosis | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 | Which of the following is the complication of massive blood transfusion?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
| Metabolic alkalosis |
f8c972d0-7aa8-45f7-a333-823c27dd5db8 | Ans: A. Pulmonary embolism (Ref: Ganong 25/e p634, 24/e p634)In pulmonary embolism gradient increases to very high level (I0 to 83 mm Hg from normal level of 5 mm Hg).But normal Pa02 level on aerial blood gas analysis does not exclude the diagnosis of acute pulmonary embolism.It is also increased in ILD. | Physiology | null | Maximum alveolar aerial oxygen difference is seen in:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Severe asthma
C. Interstitial lung disease
D. Foreign body in upper airway
| Pulmonary embolism |
fb47f171-c6d7-4871-8d28-92f2b97acc88 | National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) of India given the dengue discharge criteria as follows: 1. Absence of fever > 24 hours (without paracetamol) 2. Return of appetite 3. Good urine output 4. Platelet > 50,000 5. No Respiratory distress 6. > 2-3 days after recovery form shape 7. Visible clinical improvement | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 | Dengue discharge protocol includes
A. 24 hours after Recovery from shock
B. Urine volume > 200 ml
C. 24 hours after absence of fever with use of Paracetamol
D. Return of normal appetite
| Return of normal appetite |
c48fcdd2-948f-41e7-a457-56f42646cc60 | Lingual artery is a branch of external carotid artery. The root of tongue is also supplied by tonsillar and ascending pharyngeal arteries. Venous drainage is mainly by the deep lingual vein. | Anatomy | null | Arterial supply to floor of mouth & suprahyoid muscle is
A. Lingual artery
B. Maxillary artery
C. Inferior alveolar artery
D. Facial artery
| Lingual artery |
a8a11df7-227b-4010-9298-061ea082634d | Answer- D. RufinamideRecently approved drug by FDAfor treatment of Lennox-Gestaul syndrome is rufinamide.Rufinamide:Rufinamide was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration on November 14, 2008 as adjunctive treatment of seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome in children 4 years and older and adults. | Medicine | null | Recently approved drug by FDA for treatment of Lennox-Gestaut syndrome:
A. Lacosamide
B. Vigabatrin
C. Zonisamide
D. Rufinamide
| Rufinamide |
920be195-ff47-4a12-9968-c79a5615141f | Midline intracranial mass with bruit on ausculation and features of hydrocephalus and congestive heart failure All point towards Vein of Galen Malformation.
Vein of Galen Malformations(VGM)
The vein of Galen is a large deep vein at the base of the brain. It is located under the cerebral hemispheres and drains the anterior and central regions of the brain into the sinuses of the posterior cerebral fossa .
VGM results from an aneurysmal malformation with an arteriovenous shunting of blood.VGM usually causes high-output heart failure in the newborn resulting from the decreased resistance and high blood flow in the lesion.
Associated findings include cerebral ischemic changes such as strokes or steal phenomena that result in progressive hemiparesis.
The malformation may result in mass effects, causing progressive neurological impairment. Alternatively, the malformation may cause obstruction of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) outflow and result in hydrocephalus.
Loud intracranial bruit may be heard because of the blood turbulence in VGM.
The most effective treatment for the malformation has been embolization rather than surgery
The vein of Galen abnormality is the most frequent arteriovenous malformation in neonates. | Pediatrics | null | A newborn presents with congestive heart failure, on examination has bulging anterior fontanelle with a bruit on auscultation. Transfontanellar USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dilated lateral ventricles. Most likely diagnosis is –
A. Medulloblastoma
B. Encephalocele
C. Vein of Galen malformation
D. Arachnoid cyst
| Vein of Galen malformation |
eace9551-5aa2-446b-bb1d-5d4c8e1e21ff | The Medial or Labyrinthine Wall
The medial wall separates the middle ear from the internal ear. It presents the following features.
(a) The promontory is a rounded bulging produced by the first turn of the cochlea. It is grooved by the tympanic plexus.
(b) The fenestra vestibule is an oval opening posterosuperior to the promontory. It leads into the vestibule of the internal ear and is closed by the foot-plate of the stapes.
(c) The prominence of the facial canal runs backwards just above the fenestra vestibule, to reach the lower margin of the aditus. The canal then descends behind the posterior wall to end at the stylomastoid foramen.
(d) Above the prominence of facial canal lies the prominence produced due to the lateral semicircular canal. | Anatomy | null | Fenestri vestibuli is:
A. Rounded bulge produced by first turn of cochlea
B. Oval opening posterosuperior to the promontory
C. Prominence produced due to the lateral semicircular canal
D. It is grooved by tympanic plexus
| Oval opening posterosuperior to the promontory |
4506e30a-65c0-48a5-86db-595e5084787c | Ans. D. MetronidazoleMedication--Treatment should include both paners.Oral Metronidazole--500 mg orally twice daily after meals for 7 days. Or 2 g stat.Advisable to defer treatment during first trimester of pregnancy.Side effects: nausea, metallic taste, antabuse - like reaction to alcohol. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | DOC for bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy
A. Clindamycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Rovamycin
D. Metronidazole
| Metronidazole |
383be13b-3dbe-4db9-b1da-419c97fbfe83 | Answer- A. After return of appetitePatients who are resuscitated from shock rapidly recover. Patients with dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome may be discharged from the hospital when they meet the following criteria:* Afebrile for 24 hours without antipyretics* Good appetite, clinically improved condition* Adequate urine output* Stable hematocrit level* At least 48 hours since recovery from shock* No respiratory distress* Platelet count greater than 50,000 cells/mL | Medicine | null | After Dengue hemorrhagic shock, what is the criteria for the patient to be discharged from the hospital?
A. After return of appetite
B. After urine output more than 200ml
C. 24hrs after recovery from shock
D. Fever controlled by paracetamol for >24hrs
| After return of appetite |
85cb22b1-2b4f-4ee5-bdc0-75561bef3ac2 | Blade angle should be more than 50 degree. | Dental | null | According to the instrument formula given by G.V. Black, the primary cutting edge angle should be:
A. >50 degree
B. >90 degree
C. <50 degree
D. <90 degree
| >50 degree |
87d25aef-12d5-478d-b126-e98a1a76e9f0 | When certain forms of blood stage parasites (gametocytes, which occur in male and female forms) are ingested during blood feeding by a female Anopheles mosquito, they mate in the gut of the mosquito and begin a cycle of growth and multiplication in the mosquito.
After 10-18 days, a form of the parasite called a sporozoite migrates to the mosquito’s salivary glands.
When the Anopheles mosquito takes a blood meal on another human, anticoagulant saliva is injected together with the sporozoites, which migrate to the liver, thereby beginning a new cycle.
Ref :https://www.cdc.gov/malaria/about/biology/index.html | Microbiology | null | Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito?
A. Sporozoite
B. Gametocyte
C. Merozoite
D. Zygote
| Gametocyte |
50e28336-1c01-42f3-966f-81290355553c | Ans: A. Drug safety(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p79; .Katzung 13/e p12, 12/e p75; KDT 7/e p63-64, 6/e p77)Safety, pharmacodynamics & dosing - Tested in Phase 1 clinical trial.Drug safety - Most impoant primary end point. | Pharmacology | null | Phase 1 clinical trial is done for:
A. Drug safety
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Efficacy
D. Dosing
| Drug safety |
362c70ed-9bc0-4266-8462-4c8302d7ef52 | Ans: D. Masson trichrome(Ref: Kanski 7/e p212-224; Parson :s 22/e p212-214, 21/e p207-209; Yanoff and Duker 4/e p261).Masson trichrome stain - Used for granular corneal dystrophy diagnosis.Granular dystrophy:AD inheritance with gene locus on 5q31Onset: First decade with recurrent erosionsSigns (in chronological order):Small, white, sharply demarcated deposits resembling crumbs or snowflakes in central anterior stroma.Increasing number of lesions with deeper & outward spread but not reaching limbus.Gradual confluence causing visual acuity impairment.Histology:Shows amorphous hyaline deposits staining bright red with Masson trichrome. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following stain is used for diagnosis of Granular dystrophy of cornea?
A. Colloidal iron
B. Congo red
C. PAS
D. Masson trichrome
| Masson trichrome |
f6e3d46a-cc26-4eea-a659-5d1fa1c3b784 | Answer- A. Bilateral undilated pupilsAssessmentqSOFA scoreLow blood pressure (SBP <= 100 mmHg)1High respiratory rate (>= 22 breaths/min)1Altered mentation (GCS <= 14)1 | Surgery | null | Which of the following is not a component of quick SOFA (qSOFA) scoring?
A. Bilateral undilated pupils
B. Altered Mentation
C. Glasgow Coma Score
D. SBP <= 100 mm Hg
| Bilateral undilated pupils |
658ebcea-6f61-4281-a426-848ad0dcf8bf | Ans: B. Weight for ageRef: Park 241e p582, 23/e p547, 22/e p506)India has adopted the new WHO Child Growth Standards (2006) in February 2009 for monitoring the young child growth and development within the National Rural Health Mission and the ICDS.These are based on weight for age.Weight for age is used at anganwadi centers for growth monitoring in children. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of these indicators is used at anganwadi centers for growth monitoring in children?
A. Height for age
B. Weight for age
C. Weight for height
D. Mid-arm circumference
| Weight for age |
7f0dce8f-c95a-4776-aef1-fe8c6d257fb0 | 7 weeks - palate consists of the primary palate, formed by the fusion of the medial nasal processes. Behind the primary palate down growth of the nasal septum produces two communications between the oral and nasal cavities the primitive nasal choanae.
8 weeks - Formation of the secondary palate begins with downward growth of the medial parts of the maxillary processes (palatine processes) to a location on either side of the tongue.
As the mandible develops and the tongue drops down these palatine processes grow horizontally fusing with the nasal septum in the midline and with the primary palate along their anterior aspect. By 81/2 weeks - the palatal shelves appear above the tongue and in near contact with each other. At 8th & 9th week they come in contact and fusion begins
Key Concept -
Formation of the secondary palate begins at 8th week with downward growth of the medial parts of the maxillary processes (palatine processes) to a location on either side of the tongue. | Anatomy | null | Palatine process begins to fuse at:
A. 6th week of fertilization
B. 8th week of fertilization
C. 10th week of fertilization
D. 12th week of fertilization
| 8th week of fertilization |
ef300ffa-be04-4c72-b18c-8e584ad89b20 | Answer- B. ChromoblastomycosisMedlar bodies, also known as a sclerotic or muriform cell, When present in the skin or subcutaneous tissue, the cells are indicative of chromoblastomycosis.Chromoblastomycosis (CBM) is defined as a chronic cutaneous and subcutaneous fungal infection resulting from traumatic implantation of ceain dematiaceous fungi through the skin. In the infected tissue, characteristic dark-colored, thick-walled, muriform cells i.e. sclerotic cells (Medlar bodies) are seen. | Pathology | null | Medlar bodies are found in -
A. Sporotrichosis
B. Chromoblastomycosis
C. Mycetoma
D. Histoplasmosis
| Chromoblastomycosis |
ce25cfa6-0524-4cfc-889b-a17312f2642b | Ans: A. Polycystic ovarian syndrome Side-effects of Valproic AcidMC side effects are transient GI symptoms (anorexia, nausea & vomiting)Effects on the CNS: Sedation, ataxia & Rash, alopecia Stimulation of appetite & weight gain.Increase the chance of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) in women with epilepsy or bipolar disorders Elevation of hepatic transaminases, microvesicular steatosisAcute pancreatitisHyperammonemiaNeural tube defects | Pharmacology | null | Which one of the following is a gender-specific side-effect of valproate?
A. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
B. Alopecia
C. Weight loss
D. Tremor
| Polycystic ovarian syndrome |
6bc9b299-ba4b-403a-bb2b-274923352705 | The reaction of the periradicular tissues to noxious products of tissue necrosis, bacterial products and antigenic agents from the root canal has been described by Fish.
The four zones
Zone of infection
Zone of contamination
Zone of irritation
Zone of stimulation
Zone of Infection:
This is present in the center of the lesion.
It is characterized by PMNL's.
Zone of Contamination:
It is characterized by round cell infiltration.
It demonstrates cellular destruction due to toxins from the central zone or zone of infection. Because of autolysis and death of bone cells, the lacunae were empty.
Lymphocytes are prevalent everywhere.
Zone of Irritation:
This zone is characterized by macrophages and osteoclasts.
The collagen framework was digested by phagocytic cells, the macrophages, while osteoclasts attacked the bone tissue. This opens a gap in the bone all around the center of lesion. That space becomes filled with PMNL's. It contains cholesterol crystals.
This zone demonstrates much activity preparatory to repair.
Zone of Stimulation: (Peripheral zone)
This zone is characterized by fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
In this zone, the effects of toxins were mild enough to be stimulant which results in laying down of collagen fibers around the zone of irritation that acts both as a wall of defense and as a scaffolding on which the osteoblasts built new bone.
This new bone was built in an irregular fashion. | Dental | null | Cholesterol crystals are found in which zone?
A. Zone of infection
B. Zone of contamination
C. Zone of irritation
D. Zone of stimulation
| Zone of irritation |
37d6e02a-0f4d-44a5-bbe0-f8040e1522fa | Ans. A (Lymphocytosis, Low Glucose, High protein)Presence of significant basal exudates, together with dilated ventricles (hydrocephalus) in a young female with a prolonged history of fever and headache suggests a diagnosis of Tubercular Meningitis.Tubercular Meningitis is characterized by Lymphocytic Pleocytosis, Low Glucose and High Protein within the CSF.The pathological hallmark of Tubercular Meningitis is the predominant involvement of basal cisterns that are observed by the presence of basal inflammatory tissue exudate. | Medicine | null | A 25 years old lady with a history of fever for 1 month presents with headache and ataxia.Brain imaging shows dilated ventricles and significant basal exudates. Which of the following will be the most likely CSF finding?
A. Lymphocytosis, Low Glucose, High protein
B. Lymphocytosis, Normal Glucose, High protein
C. Lymphocytosis, Low Glucose, Normal protein
D. Neutrophilia, Low glucose, Low Protein
| Lymphocytosis, Low Glucose, High protein |
df493519-1b08-442e-853c-edd9ca4f6f57 | Answer- D. It stops metabolic and enzymatic activity of the cellTt is a type ofAcidic dye stains the basic components of cell & basic dye stains the acidic components of cell.Leishman's stain contains eosin & methylene blue in acetone free methyl alcohol.Methyl alcohol acts as a fixative.Acetone if present, will destroy the cell membraneMethylene blue ("polychromed"), the basic dye and eosin, the acidic dye exists as thiazine eosinate, which dissociates into the component dyes, when diluted with distilled water.Methyl blue stains the nucleus & basophilic granules of WBC, whereas eosin stains the eosinophilic granules.It is generally used to differentiate & identily leucocytes, malaria parasites & trypanosomas | Pathology | null | Acetone free methyl alcohol is present in Leishmann's stain for:
A. It fixes cells to the slide
B. It colors the red cells
C. It prevents the cells from sticking to the slide surface
D. It stops metabolic and enzymatic activity of the cell
| It stops metabolic and enzymatic activity of the cell |
aa677f5e-3b2c-4ec8-8b77-78610a8a38cf | Ans: A. Methotrexate (Ref Fitzpatrick 6/e p2676)Methotrexate or oral retinoids (Acitretin) - DOC for erythrodermic psoriasis management.Current use of methotrexate to treat psoriasis is most common in patients with severe or refractory plaque-type disease that requires systemic treatment.It is also very useful for erythrodermic and pustular psoriasis, as well as psoriatic ahritis. | Skin | null | Treatment of choice for erythrodermic psoriasis:
A. Methotrexate
B. Coicosteroids
C. Coal tar topical
D. Topical steroids
| Methotrexate |
fca6dd3f-4e3a-49fe-a893-e4c69ee343b3 | If the tooth has been out for 15 minutes to 60 minutes:
Tooth with closed apex
Clean the root surface with saline.
Do not touch a viable root with hands, forceps, gauze or anything, or try to scrub or clean it to avoid injury to
the periodontal ligament which makes it difficult to revascularize the reimplanted tooth.
Examine alveolar socket after cleaning it with saline. Do not overlook fracture of tooth and alveolar ridge.
Reimplant the tooth gently with firm finger pressure. Ask the patient to bite down firmly on a piece of gauze to help stabilize the tooth.
After evaluating the occlusion, stabilize the tooth if required. Ideal splint required for an avulsed tooth is a flexible splint. The commonly used flexible splints are made of Gortex, metallic mesh stripes, synthetic clothes or orthodontic wire. A thick strip of composite bonded to the avulsed and the adjacent teeth also act as a splint.
The splint should engage several teeth around the avulsed tooth and it should be kept in place for not more than 7 to 10 days.
Continue with the same treatment as above.
Tooth with open apex:
Clean the root surface with saline.
Examine the alveolar socket after cleaning it with saline.
Cover the root surface with minocycline hydrochloride microspheres before reimplanting to kill bacteria which could enter the immature apex and form an abscess.
Continue with the same treatment as above.
Ref: Textbook of endodontics, Nisha Garg and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, pg no:477 | Dental | null | An 8 year old child got trauma and got his central incisor avulsed 20 minutes back which got contaminated with debris. The child rushes to dental clinic with avulsed tooth, the treatment is:
A. Clean root surface with saline and reimplant
B. Clean and curette root surface and reimplant
C. Clean root surface, do RCT and reimplant
D. Scrubbing of root surface and reimplant
| Clean root surface with saline and reimplant |
cf8f9c7e-0fd4-4d09-8638-0b61f05a55a1 | "Scollosis is common, occuring in 15 to 25 percent of the total body CP (spastic quadriplegia cp)".
Cerebral palsy (CP)
Cerebral palsy is defined as a non progressive neuromotor disorder of cerebral origin.
It has following features -
Static (nonprogressive)
Disorder of movement/motor disorder (but sometimes sensory involvement may occur)
Cerebral in origin
Etiopathogenesis
CP is due to an insult of developing brain.
The insult results in maldevelopment and disorderly anatomic organization of the brain.
The insult may be prenatal (most of the cases), during delivery or in the postnatal period. Classification
CP may be classified into following types - | Pediatrics | null | Which type of cerebral palsy is commonly associated with scoliosis and other orthopedic problems –
A. Spastic quadriplegia
B. Anterior cerebral palsy
C. Spastic deplegia
D. Atonic cerebral palsy
| Spastic quadriplegia |
1cabf1e4-1586-4f15-98d8-001bdccbd3c2 | Bishydroxy coumarin (dicoumarol), a vitamin K antagonist may be considered as an oral anticoagulant.
This acts by reducing the synthesis of certain clotting factors (ll, Vll, lX and X).
Ref : Lippincott’s illustrated reviews for biochemistry , 7th edition. | Biochemistry | null | Vitamin K antagonizes
A. Corticosteroids
B. Thrombin formation
C. Bishydroxy coumarin
D. Production of clotting factors by liver
| Bishydroxy coumarin |
f4c75eb8-18d8-41bd-81fa-6a03e4519193 | Ans. A. Muscle Tension(Ref.: Ganong 25/e p232; Guyton 13/e p697, 701).Golgi tendon organ senses muscle tension.The Golgi organ (also called Golgi tendon organ, GTO, tendon organ, neurotendinous organ or neurotendinous spindle) senses changes in muscle tension.It is a proprioceptive sensory receptor organ that is at the origin and inseion of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle.It provides the sensory component of the Golgi tendon reflex. | Physiology | null | Which of the following does golgi tendon organ detect?
A. Muscle Tension
B. Dynamic muscle length
C. Static muscle length
D. Muscle action
| Muscle Tension |
d1872344-cb7a-4782-820e-6ea25a23ac9a | “Significant hemodynamic alterations are apparent early in pregnancy, women with severe cardiac dysfunction may experience worsening of heart failure before mid pregnancy. In others, heart failure develops after 28 weeks, when pregnancy induced hypervolemia is maximal (32 weeks). In the majority, however heart failure develops peripartum when the physiological capability for rapid changes in cardiac out put may be overwhelmed in presence of structural cardiac disease.”
Williams 22/e, p 1018, 23/e, p 958, 959
Reading the above text, from Williams Obs., it is clear that maximum chances of heart failure are in the peripartum period.
But it is not clear whether maximum chances are during labour or immediate postpartum.
Dutta Obs. 7/e, p53 provides answer to this:
“The cardiac output starts to increase from 5th week of pregnancy, reaches its peak 40-50% at about 30-34 weeks. Thereafter the cardiac output remains static till term”.
“Cardiac output increases further during labour (+50%) and immediately following delivery (+70%) over the pre labour values.”
So, maximum chances of heart failure are in immediate postpartum period when cardiac output is maximum. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Maximum strain of parturient heart occurs during:
A. At term
B. Immediate postpartum
C. Ist trimester
D. IInd trimester
| Immediate postpartum |
7095637c-81c9-42f8-8484-54c3eedf5623 | Ans: B. Due to adherence to the capillary endothelium, they are not seen in peripheral blood(Ref: Harrison 1y/e p1371, Jawetz 27/e p719)Plasmodium falciparum:Only ring stages or gametocytes are seen in infected peripheral blood.Schizonts & late trophozoite stages of Plasmodium falciparum are not seen in infected peripheral blood.Parasites make red cells sticky a Tend to be retained in deep capillary beds (except in overwhelming fatal infections). | Microbiology | null | Schizonts and late trophozoite stages of plasmodium falciparum not seen in peripheral blood smear because:
A. They are sequestered in the spleen
B. Due to adherence to the capillary endothelium, they are not seen in peripheral blood
C. Due to antigen-antibody reaction and removal
D. They are seen in mosquito blood
| Due to adherence to the capillary endothelium, they are not seen in peripheral blood |
b0f5d8eb-eda4-48a2-ad59-d158d8132c16 | Ans: A. Placenta succenturiataRef: DC Dutta's tubook of Obstetrics, gh ed.Placenta succenturiata has one (usual) or more small lobes of placenta placed at a varying margin from the main placental margin.A leash of vessels connects the small lobe with the main lobe.Many times, succenturiate is retained and it presents as postpaum hemorrhage which may be primary or secondary. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant female delivered a baby with normal expulsion of an intact placenta. After half hour she staed bleeding per vaginaly. On examination she was hypotensive and boggy mass is palpated per abdomen. USG showed retained placental tissues. what is the likely diagnosis?
A. Placenta succenturiata
B. Adenomyosis
C. Placenta accreta
D. Membranous placenta
| Placenta succenturiata |
d3610034-9a33-48ef-ac6e-5fb36e22f076 | Ans: C. Serum calciumRef Ghai Essential Pedistrics 8,h ed, pg. 181 und Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics 20h ed" pg. 897 Infants of a diabetic mother are ata higher risk of metabolic complications as compared to normal infants.These complications include:* Hypoglycemia* Hypocalcemia* Hypomagnesemia* Hence the infant needs to be checked for these as soon as possible. | Pediatrics | null | After the delivery of an infant of diabetic mother, blood glucose of the infant was 60 mg/dt. Which other investigation docs the sister expects that the physician would ask her to do?
A. Serum potassium
B. CBC
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum chloride
| Serum calcium |
a20626b3-8719-4847-a929-87a7c9727649 | If a patient provided history that a tooth has been avulsed and it can be determined that the injury is without other oral. neurologic, or higher-priority physical complications. it is best to replace it in the socket immediately and to hold it in place with light finger pressure.
If the avulsion occurred in a clean environment, nothing should be done to the tooth before replants it. If the tooth is dirty, an attempt should be made to clean the root surface, but it is very important to preserve any remnants of the periodontal ligament that are still attached to the root. 'therefore the parent would then be instructed to keep the tooth immersed in a suitable storage medium and bring the child and the tooth for immediate care.
The patient should receive immediate attention after arriving at the dental office; and if it seems any contamination than it should be rinse thoroughly with saline only do not attempt to scrub tooth by any means to prevent vitality of periodontal fibers and re-implant it in socket.
If patient or parent cannot or will not replant it than procedure to maintain vitality of tooth
Allowing the avulsed tooth to dehydrate before replantation is damaging to a favourable prognosis.
Hanks buffered saline, isotonic saline, and pasteurized bovine milk may be the most favourable known storage media. If none of these solutions is readily available, human saliva is acceptable short-term substitute storage liquid. Presumably, the patient's saliva (and perhaps blood) would be readily available.
Although tap water has been a commonly recommended storage solution (and its use would be preferable to allowing dehydration of the tooth), saliva is a better storage medium. Neither water nor saliva is as good as milk or saline, if the tooth must be stored for a long period (more than 30 minutes before replantation). Because water is hypotonic, its use leads to rapid cell lysis and increased inflammation on replantation. | Dental | null | A patient is giving; history of avulsed tooth 20 minutes back, comes to dentist what should be done?
A. Scrub the tooth and reimplant
B. Rinse with saline and reimplant
C. Sterilize tooth and reimplant
D. Scrub the tooth do RCT and reimplant
| Rinse with saline and reimplant |
Subsets and Splits