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d0ee7a65-1cc3-430f-a153-d60282795ada | • This may occur during lactation and be the forerunner of acute infective mastitis.
• If the nipple becomes cracked during lactation, it should be rested for 24–48 hours and the breast should be emptied with a breast pump.
• Feeding should be resumed as soon as possible. | Surgery | null | Cracked nipple may be-
A. Due to syphilitic chancre
B. Cause of retention cyst
C. Pagets disease of nipple
D. Forerunner of breast abscess
| Forerunner of breast abscess |
28699c9a-dfdd-43af-9655-4d049f5e9373 | "Recurrence is common, even though adequate excision of the track is carried out." - Bailey & Love "Once an acute episode has resolved, recurrence is common"- Schwartz 9/e p1067
Pilonidal disease
Pilonidal disease consists of a hair-containing abscess or chronic sinus, occurring in the intergluteal cleft.
It is an acquired disease
Although earlier it was thought to be a congenital disease, it is now considered to be an acquired infection of natal cleft hair follicles. The hair follicles become infected and rupture into the subcutaneous tissues to form a pilonidal abscess. Hair from surrounding skin is pulled into the abscess cavity by the friction generated by the gluteal muscles during walking.
More common in males
The incidence of pilonidal disease is more common in males (3:1 male: female ratio) between ages 15 & 40 with peak incidence between 16 & 20 yrs.
Pilonidal ds is more common in people with more body hair (hirsute). The ds. is almost rare in persons with less body hair.
Treatment of choice is surgery
Pilonidal sinus should be excised along with the secondary openings. (But only after controlling acute infection).
Acute pilonidal abscesses and sinus ds can be managed by simple incision and drainage (under local anesthesia). | Surgery | null | Which is not a feature of pilonidal sinus:
A. Branching tracts are common
B. Recurrence is uncommon
C. Bony involvement is uncommon
D. Seen in Drivers
| Recurrence is uncommon |
5f3ee709-7649-4acf-9ca7-80649551c08e | Barr body, or X chromatin Inactive X can be seen in the interphase nucleus as a darkly staining small mass in contact with the nuclear membrane known as the. Number of Barr bodies = number of X chromosome -1 , Turner syndrome patients, number of Barr body = 1-1=0. | Pathology | Specific Cytogenetic Disorders | Barr body is not seen in:
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Normal female
D. XXX syndrome
| Turner syndrome |
19868e50-1865-4c2f-b246-175a7ce6bda8 | bilateral upper limb pulseless disease is caused by aooaeritis Takayasu's aeritis (also known as, "aoic arch syndrome," "nonspecific aooaeritis," and "pulseless disease) is a form of large vessel granulomatous vasculitis with massive intimal fibrosis and vascular narrowing, most commonly affecting often young or middle-age women of Asian descent, though anyone can be affected. It mainly affects the aoa (the main blood vessel leaving the hea) and its branches, as well as the pulmonary aeries. Females are about 8-9 times more likely to be affected than males. Those with the disease often notice symptoms between 15 and 30 years of age. In the Western world, atherosclerosis is a more frequent cause of obstruction of the aoic arch vessels than Takayasu's aeritis. Takayasu's aeritis is similar to other forms of vasculitis, including giant cell aeritis which typically affects older individuals. Due to obstruction of the main branches of the aoa, including the left common carotid aery, the brachiocephalic aery, and the left subclan aery, Takayasu's aeritis can present as pulseless upper extremities (arms, hands, and wrists with weak or absent pulses on the physical examination) which may be why it is also commonly referred to as the "pulseless disease." Involvement of renal aeries may lead to a presentation of renovascular hypeension. Ref Davidson 23rd edtion pg 467 | Medicine | C.V.S | Bilateral upper limb pulse less disease is?
A. Giant Cell Aeritis
B. Polyaeritis Nodosa
C. Aooaeritis
D. HSP
| Aooaeritis |
9672d1af-bde0-4019-9aa8-b366b4b7c862 | Synovial cell sarcoma can have dual lining of differentiation consisting of epithelial and spindle tumor cells. | Pathology | null | Biphasic pattern on histology is seen in?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Osteoclastoma
C. Synovial cell sarcoma
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
| Synovial cell sarcoma |
5c94af56-0a5e-4cb4-960f-ed2d7fda4f8d | Ans. (b) Cardiac tamponadeRef.: Harrison 19th ed. /1573JVP FindingsJVP WavesFindingsConstrictive pericarditisFindingsCardiac tamponadeX waveProminentProminentY waveProminentAbsent | Medicine | C.V.S. | In JVP y descent is absent and X wave is prominent? Thiscsuggests:
A. Restictive cardiomyopathy
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Right Ventricular Failure
| Cardiac tamponade |
f45fead1-36e2-4aac-833d-ff1ca0408595 | • Vascular complications after renal transplantation are low, presents during the first week after transplantation with sudden pain and swelling at the site of the graft.
• Diagnosis is confirmed by Doppler ultrasonography.
• Urgent surgical exploration is indicated and, in most cases, transplant nephrectomy is required. | Surgery | null | Investigation of choice in the early phase of renal transplant
A. IVP
B. Retrograde cystourethrogram
C. Ultrasonogram
D. CT scan
| Ultrasonogram |
bd655a34-39dd-4907-a1ea-81e4c9cd38e6 | "Culture of nasopharyngeal secretion remains the gold standard for diagnosis of whooping cough" - Harrison | Pediatrics | null | A child with complaints of cough. Characteristic 'inspiratory whoop. Sample for investigation is –
A. Nasopharyngeal swab
B. Tracheal aspiration
C. Cough plate culture
D. Sputum culture
| Nasopharyngeal swab |
c4e44980-8d57-4cd7-aabe-cd2b78cbbedf | IgA nephroapthy is also known as Berger nephropathy Gross Hematuria in IgA nephropathy occurs within 1-2 days of onset of an upper respiratory or GI infection (skin infection leads to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)and not IgA nephropathy). Mild to moderate hypeension can be seen May be associated with loin pain Normal serum levels of C3 in IgA nephropathy help to distinguish this disorder from poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) where serum C3 levels are low. Serum IgA levels have no diagnostic value in IgA nephropathy because they are elevated in only 15% of pediatric patients. Note: Most Common GN overall - IgA nephropathy/Berger disease (M.C Clinical Feature -Recurrent gross hematuria) | Pediatrics | Nephritic & Nephrotic Syndrome | IgA nephropathy is characterised by:-
A. Hematuria occur after skin infection
B. Severe Hypeension
C. Normal serum levels of C3
D. Serum IgA levels have a diagnostic value
| Normal serum levels of C3 |
53a04775-54ca-415c-a1c4-0a44b9a1cfc7 | ANSWER: (C) > 40REF: OP Ghai 7th ed p. 356According to WHO fast respiratory rate:>60/ min< 2 months> 50/min2-12 months>40/min12-60 months | Pediatrics | Disorders of the Respiratory Tract | Fast breathing in a 3 year old child is?
A. > 60
B. >50
C. >40
D. >30
| >40 |
19e0e53b-7d97-40c2-8a62-2ba59cfc8751 | Ans. (b) Optic disc* Optic disc is not involved in papillary light reflex.* Pathway of papillary light reflex:Retina - Optic Nerve - Optic Chiasma - Optic Tract - Prerectal Nucleus - Edinger Westphal Nucleus - Inferior Division of 3rd Nerve - Ciliary Ganglion - Short Ciliary Nerves - Sphincter Pupillae | Ophthalmology | Diseases of the Optic Nerve | Pupillary reaction to light is still normal in lesion/injury to
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic disc
C. Optic tract
D. Optic chiasm
| Optic disc |
1efb898b-d249-4170-b3ad-003dfd0ea8df | Centrosome duplication is heavily regulated by cell cycle controls. This link between the cell cycle and the centrosome cycle is mediated by cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (Cdk2). There has been ample evidence that Cdk2 is necessary for both DNA replication and centrosome duplication, which are both key events in S phase. It has also been shown that Cdk2 complexes with both cyclin A and cyclin E and this complex is critical for centrosome duplication. Three Cdk2 substrates have been proposed to be responsible for regulation of centriole duplication. These include: nucleophosmin (NPM/B23), CP110, and MPS1. Nucleophosmin is only found in unreplicated centrosomes and it's phosphorylation by Cdk2/cyclin E removes NPM from the centrosomes, initiating procentriole formation. CP110 is an impoant centrosomal protein that is phosphorylated by both mitotic and interphase Cdk/cyclin complexes and is thought to influence centrosome duplication in S phase. MPS1 is a protein kinase that is essential to the spindle assembly checkpoint, and may remodel an SAS6-cored intermediate between severed mother and daughter centrioles into a pair of cawheel protein complexes onto which procentrioles assembleS-phase (synthesis phase) is the pa of the cell cycle in which DNA is replicated, occurring between G1 phase and G2 phase. Precise and accurate DNA replication is necessary to prevent genetic abnormalities which often lead to cell death or disease. Due to the impoance, the regulatory pathways that govern this event in eukaryotes are highly conserved. | Pathology | General pathology | Centrosome duplication takes place in -
A. M phase
B. GO phase
C. S phase
D. G2 phase
| S phase |
b9dbbdf1-89d8-4948-aac5-8b0b6993437c | Drugs increasing the excretion of uric acid (Uricosuric agents) Probenecid Sulfinpyrazone Benzbromarone Lesinurad | Pharmacology | Kidney | Which of the following drug is not a uricosuric agent?
A. Probenecid
B. Sulfinpyrazone
C. Benzbromarone
D. Febuxostat
| Febuxostat |
446f9a49-7e0c-4230-bff4-6a8e221bebb7 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Homeobox gene Homeobox geneis associated with normal morphogenesis.Their expression results in the production of localized cellular condensation of primitive mesenchyme in the sites of future bones.They play an important role in patterning of limbs, vertebrae and craniofacial structures.Mutations in Homeobox gene produces an extra digit between 3rd and fourth fingers as well as some degree of syndactyly.About other optionsFMR geneIt is familial mental retardation gene mutation in this gene causes Fragile-X- syndromePTENIt is phosphatase and tensin homologue.It is frequently deleted in many human cancers such as Glioblastomas, Prostate cancers, endometrial cancers and Breast cancer.P-16It is a tumour suppressor gene. | Pathology | Cytogenetic Disorders | The gene that regulates normal morphogenesis during development is :
A. FMR-1 gene
B. Homeobox gene.
C. P-16
D. FTEN.
| Homeobox gene. |
97201a22-8d56-4687-8e1f-64e5f06e1ba0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Plamar interossei * Card Test: This is for palmar interossei (adductors) of the fingers. In this test, the examiner inserts a card between two extended fingers and the patient is asked to hold it as tightly as possible while the examiner tries to pull the card out. The power of adductors can thus be judged. In case of weak palmar interossei, it is easy to pull out the card. First dorsal interosseous muscle can be separately examinated by asking the patient to abduct the index finger against resistance. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Card test is done for-
A. Plamar interossei
B. Dorsal interossei
C. Abductor pollicis brevis
D. Palmaris longus
| Plamar interossei |
5b6cc3d2-b4c8-4e92-9a10-e6d4f2f0d330 | (a) Ludwig angina(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 3; 628; Stell & Maran, 5th ed., 229)Ludwig angina is infection of the submandibular space, i.e. floor of mouth.Vincent angina is ulcerative gingivitis along with involvement of the tonsils.Prinzmetal angina and unstable angina are the acute coronary syndromes. | ENT | Pharynx | Infection of submandibular space is seen in:
A. Ludwig angina
B. Vincent angina
C. Prinzmetal angina
D. Unstable angina
| Ludwig angina |
2680a2dc-cf95-4ef3-a3fb-f6a7d1e073aa | High impact resin = Butadiene rubber (5 to 10%) in powder | Dental | null | High impact resin has?
A. Polysterene
B. Butadine-Styrene rubber
C. Polyehtyl methacrylate
D. Polyamides
| Butadine-Styrene rubber |
78d4a208-75ed-4834-82dc-8fdd5252d060 | Choroid plexus Repeat from Al 2009Choroid plexus is pain insensitive structure.Harrison writes-"Relatively .few cranial structures are pain-producing; these include the scalp, middle meningeal aery, dural sinuses, .falx cereberi, and proximal segments of the large pial aeries. The ventricular ependyma, Choroid plexus, pial veins, and much of the brain parenchyma are not pain-producing."Pain SensitivePain InsensitiveScalpPia-arachnoidPeriostiumPial veinsDural sinusesBrain parenchymaMiddle meningeal aeryVentricular ependymaFalx cereberiChoroid plexusProximal segments of the large pial aeries | Anatomy | null | Pain insensitive structure in brain is:
A. Falx cerebri
B. Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
C. Middle meningeal aery
D. Choroid plexus
| Choroid plexus |
dee042f1-9be4-474a-8b55-f4b8c702b136 | Bruxism occurs in both stage I and stage II. But more common in stage II.
Note: OSA is not associated with a reduction in total sleep time, but individuals with OSA experience a much greater time in stage 1 NREM sleep (from an average of 10% of total sleep to 30–50%) and a marked reduction in slow-wave sleep (stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep). The pathophysiology of OSA includes both a reduction in neuromuscular tone at the onset of sleep and a change in the central respiratory drive.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology T W E N T Y - F I F T H E D I T I O N page no 276 | Physiology | null | In which phase of sleep, does the bruxism occur?
A. NREM 2
B. NREM 3
C. REM sleep
D. NREM 4
| NREM 2 |
a2ab3b4c-82f8-4f10-a71d-f44e696c692e | Answer is C (CLL) : Incidental finding of Lymphocytosis (80,000/mcL) in an elderly and' asymptomatic patient suggests the diagnosis of CLL. Why is CLL the single best answer of choice here ? 'CLL is a disease of older patients wth 90% of cases occurring after the age of 50 years and median age of presentation is 65 years'. - CMDT The patient in question is aged 80 years and hence falls in the bracket of CLL. 'Typical B cell CLL is often, lbund incidentally when a complete blood count is done for another reason'. The patient in question is asymptomatic and the findings represent incidental observation on a full blood count done for an obscure reason. 'The hallmark of CLL is absolute lymphocytosis. White cell count is usually greater than 20,000/mcL may be markedly elevated to several 100,000/ma,. Usually 75-80% of circulating cells are lymphocytes'. - CMDT The patient in question is presenting with a white cell count of 100,000/mcL and 80% of circulating cells are lymphocytes. This finding is consistent | Medicine | null | 80 year old, asymptomatic man present with a Total Leucocyte Count of 1 lakh, with 80% lymphocytes and 20% PMC's. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. HIV
B. CML
C. CLL
D. TB
| HIV |
4c6441a6-4d7f-4ff6-a1f2-01daa8c9db2a | Ans-B lets revise some imp points:- 1-morula=16 cell stage 2-blastocyst hatching/ZP removal/implantation=5-12 days after fertiization(5-7 days) 3-sequence of reactions is alphabetical=acrosome rxn f/b cortical rxn f/b zona reaction. 4-conceptus reaches uterine cavity in 32cell stage. 5-transvaginal insertion of coceptus 8 cell stage. 6- spermatogenesis is completed in 74 days 7-trophoblast differentiates into cyto and syncytio day 6. 8- ovulation occurs 10-12 hrs before LH PEAK. 9-LH SURRGE occurs 34-36 hrs before ovulation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Internal Generative Organs | Zygote with zona pellucida reaches uterine cavity by-
A. 2 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days
| 4 days |
01f1b9ea-0d71-41ff-805f-35dca9309898 | In case of any protein, Primary & secondary structures -NO function. Function stas from Teiary structure. | Biochemistry | Proteins bonds and structure | Which structure of Hb can do function?
A. Primary, secondary , teiary
B. Primary & secondary
C. Primary, secondary , teiary, quaernary
D. Teiary & quaernary
| Teiary & quaernary |
40e6a323-b491-468f-86ec-e8e342b22fea | Ans. is `b' i.e., Herpesviridae DNA viruses Poxviridae :- Variola, vaccinia, cowpox, monkeypox, tanapox, molluscum contagiosum Herpesviridae :- HSV-1, HSV-2, varicella-zoster, EBV, CMV, HTLV- 1, RK-virus Adenoviride Adenovirus Parvoviridae Parvovirus, Adenosatellovirus, Densovirus Papovaviridae Papilloma virus (HPV), Polyomavirus Hepadnaviridae Hepatitis-B virus | Microbiology | null | Varicella zoster virus belongs to which family of DNA viruses ?
A. Poxviridae
B. Herpesviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Papovaviridae
| Herpesviridae |
fb7ec0c3-1a1d-4ecd-8409-3d15a7ac9bec | Kinky hair disease /Menkes syndrome is: X- linked Recessive disorder. Mutations is genes encoding for copper- transpoing protein ATP7A , leading to copper deficiency. Characteristic findings include kinky hair, growth failure, & nervous system deterioration. Manifested only in males. Females are not affected, so they must be carriers. | Pathology | Genetics | Mrs. A is hesitant about children having kinky hair disease because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother's brother also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the possible mode of inheritance in her family? (AI 2004)
A. X-linked recessive
B. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal dominant
| X-linked recessive |
3ef30e8e-3b06-4ab0-b1a7-50a6af74c33f | Risk of malignancy in hot nodule is 4%.
Risk of malignancy in cold nodule is 20%. | Surgery | null | Risk of malignancy in cold nodule of thyroid is
A. 0.10%
B. 2%
C. 20%
D. 30%
| 20% |
77a5a3db-692a-4b63-b349-aceec02bfb77 | Lucio phenomenon Lucio phenomenon is a cutaneous vasculitis in patients with lepromatous leprosy and tends to affect people who have not taken their medication regularly. Lucio phenomenon presents as odd-shaped red patches and ulcers on hands, wrists, ankles and feet. It is associated with fever, ahritis, liver and kidney disease. | Dental | Mycobacterial Infections | Which of the following presents as a cutaneous vasculitis in patients with lepromatous leprosy?
A. Lepra type I reaction
B. Lepra type II reaction
C. Lucio phenomenon
D. Reversal phenomenon
| Lucio phenomenon |
44c865b9-141a-4630-8534-b92aab6a59d1 | The surfaces of the ameloblasts facing the developing enamel are not smooth. There is an interdigitation of the cells and the enamel rods that they produce.
This interdigitation is partly a result of the fact that the long axes of the ameloblasts are not parallel to the long axes of the rods.
The projections of the ameloblasts into the enamel matrix have been named Tomes’ processes | Dental | null | The projection of ameloblast into the enamel matrix, is known as
A. Tomes fibers
B. Tomes process
C. Tomes fibrils
D. Tomes network
| Tomes process |
338c0291-ec76-4172-b17f-f944ae06d228 | B i.e. Lead poisoning Remember : Lead poisoningQ (Bismuth, Arsenic, P, mercury fluride, radium also), Radiation & Hypervitaminosis D leads to solitary dense metaphyseal band not cupping & fraying. Causes of Cupping & Fraying of metaphysis Metaphyseal Cupping Metaphyseal Fraying RicketsQ (with widening & fraying of growth plate) 1. RicketsQ HypophosphatemiaQ 2. HypophosphatemiaQ Dysplasias of bone - (eg achondroplasia, pseudochondroplasia, metatropic dwarfism, diastrophic dwarfism, chondrodysplasias) 3. 4. Copper deficiency Chronic stress in the wrist of young gymnasts (with asymmetrical widening of distal radial Scurvy growth plate & metaphyseal sclerosis) Trauma Normal (distal ulna of proximal fibula) | Radiology | null | Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in a child does not occur in:
A. Rickets
B. Lead poisoning
C. Metaphyseal dysplasia
D. Hypophosphatasia
| Lead poisoning |
a5144c61-22ab-4b10-b7e7-248d96189b18 | Amendments of the Registration of Bihs and Deaths Act, 1969 - PIB Sections of the act | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Bih and death registration act came into force on 1st april,------
A. 1968
B. 1969
C. 1970
D. 1971
| 1969 |
e1db8da4-88e4-4078-bd23-fda9c3503acb | Reinforcement is used in operant conditioning. | Psychiatry | null | Behaviour therapy to change maladaptive behaviour using the response as reinforcer uses the principles of-
A. Classical conditioning
B. Modeling
C. Social learing
D. Operant conditioning
| Operant conditioning |
58ad6717-f4ce-4186-b40b-e17540281d4e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 6/10 Secondary attack rate (SAR)o SAR is defined as "the number ofexposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period, following exposure to primary caseSAR=No of exposed persons developing disease withinthe range of the incubation period-----------------------Total number of exposed/susceptible contactx 100 SAR =610x 100 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Measurement of Mortality and Morbidity | Out of 10 relatives exposed to a primary case, of measles, 6 developed measles. Secondary attack rate of measles-
A. 10-Apr
B. 10-Jun
C. 6-Apr
D. 4-Jun
| 10-Jun |
63aa0ce0-cde9-4726-9e4a-4063966a5891 | The risk of being diagnosed with prostate cancer increases by a factor of two if one first-degree relative is affected and by four if two or more are affected. The American Cancer Society (ACS) recommends that physicians offer PSA testing and a digital rectal examination (DRE) on an annual basis for men older than age 50 years for screening. In general, a biopsy is recommended if the DRE or PSA is abnormal. Ref: Scher H.I. (2012). Chapter 95. Benign and Malignant Diseases of the Prostate. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Surgery | null | A 50 year old male with positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. The MOST sensitive screening test to pickup prostate cancer is:
A. DRE
B. PSA
C. DRE + PSA
D. Endorectal Coil MRI with TtW and T2W images
| DRE + PSA |
ddb9fe18-4e25-42dc-9bc8-c7a2003c7258 | Hardness of water is expressed in meq/L. 1 meq/L of hardness producing ion is equal to 5o mg of calcium bicarbonate in 1 litre of water. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 671. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 1 meq/ L of hardness of water is equivalent to presence of:
A. 25 mg calcium bicarbonate in 1 litre of water
B. 50 mg calcium bicarbonate in 1 litre of water
C. 100 mg calcium bicarbonate in 1 litre of water
D. 150 mg calcium bicarbonate in 1 litre of water
| 50 mg calcium bicarbonate in 1 litre of water |
02e7d609-30d8-4004-86d0-d5e40a32e8ee | Ash - grey slough is typical of carbuncle. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is characterised by typical ash - grey slough
A. Furuncle
B. Carbuncle
C. Erysipeals
D. Cellulitis
| Carbuncle |
00d7bc8f-14ab-4e60-ad3e-4df7c955bbff | The above clinical scenario describes that the patient is suffering from Right ventricular hyperophy. The most common aetiology of right ventricular hyperophy is severe lung disease. The disorders that induce pulmonary hypeension and secondary right ventricular hyperophy include the following: Pulmonary aerial hypeension (PAH) Pulmonary hypeension owing to left hea disease Pulmonary hypeension from lung disease and/or hypoxia On Examination: Jugular Veins- Distended and prominent jugular veins are apparent and reflect right atrial pressure elevation. Palpation of the chest may reveal a dynamic right ventricular heave due to the dilated right ventricle. On JVP: prominent "a" wave. Hea sounds: S3 and S4 can be heard. Ascites and peripheral oedema of variable severity may be present. Liver is often enlarged and tender. | Anatomy | FMGE 2019 | A 40-year-old male complained of tachypnea. On examination his respiratory rate is 32/min with pulmonary hypeension and BP 132/90 mmHg. JVP was raised. What is your diagnosis?
A. Aoic dissection and rupture
B. Esophageal rupture
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Right ventricular hyperophy
| Right ventricular hyperophy |
d058a9a0-96cd-443a-84cc-99d097abed78 | Nimodipine is a cerbroselective calcium channel blocker used in SAH.Ref: KD Tripathi 6th ed pg 532 | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Calcium channel blocker used in subarachnoid hemorrhage
A. Nefidipine
B. Nicardipine
C. Nimodipine
D. Nitrendepine
| Nimodipine |
24876de2-e604-4932-9965-65f811d42f2d | In pregnancy, CSF volume is decreased, thereby decreasing dose requirement of local anaesthetic. This facilitates spread of local anaesthetic when spinal anaesthesia is given.
Option D would have been correct, if question mentioned Epidural anaesthesia. | Anaesthesia | null | A 25 year old G2P, at 39 weeks gestation is electing to have spinal anaesthesia for a repeat cesarean section. 5 minutes after bupivacaine spinal injection, the patient becomes hypotensive and is complaining of tingling in her fingers with subjective difficulty breathing. Her oxygen saturation remains 100% and blood pressure in 90/60 mmHg The most likely etiology is.
A. Severe patient anxiety
B. Increased peripheral nerve sensitization to local anaesthetics
C. Decrease in volume of CSF in subarachnoid space facilitated higher spread of local anaesthetics
D. Engorgement of epidural veins contributed to inadvertent intravascular injection of local anaesthetic
| Decrease in volume of CSF in subarachnoid space facilitated higher spread of local anaesthetics |
345a7cb3-3ea6-4536-99cc-1ae3f37eea2d | autosomal recessive, or X-linked. Autosomal Dominant Inheritance Familial hypercholesterolemia Huntington disease Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Hereditary spherocytosis Neurofibromatosis, type 1 Adult polycystic kidney disease Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Tay-Sachs disease Severe combined immunodeficiency a- and b-Thalassemias Sickle cell anemia Mucopolysaccharidoses--all types Glycogen storage diseases--all types Galactosemia X-linked Recessive Inheritance Hemophilia A Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy Fragile X syndrome (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no. 219) | Pathology | General pathology | Which is autosomal recessive?
A. Achondraplasia
B. Beta thalassemia
C. Marfans syndrome
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
| Beta thalassemia |
b39d99f9-36da-4423-b622-1750910619dc | The schistosome life cycle begins after mating in the hepato-poal circulation when the conjoined couple uses their suckers to ascend the mesenteric vessels against the flow of blood. Guided by unknown stimuli, S japonicum enters the superior mesenteric vein, eventually reaching the venous radicals of the small intestine and ascending colon; S mansoni and S haematobium are directed to the inferior mesenteric system. The destination of the former is the descending colon and rectum; the latter, however, passes through the hemorrhoidal plexus to the systemic venous system, ultimately coming to rest in the venous plexus of the bladder and other pelvic organs.Ref: Sherris microbiology; 6th edition; Page no: 904 | Microbiology | parasitology | Which of the following Schistosoma is seen in the veins of the bladder and Pelvic Organs?
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma intercalatum
| Schistosoma haematobium |
f7dc4a0b-b554-4d48-ba49-5cb1ced137c1 | SCC is a malignant tumour of keratinising cells of the epidermis or its appendagesSCC is the second most common form of skin cancer (after BCC)It is strongly-related to cumulative sun exposure and damage SCC is also associated with chronic inflammation (chronic sinus tracts, pre-existing scars, osteomyelitis, burns, vaccination points) and immunosuppression. When an SCC appears in a scar it is known as a Marjolin's ulcer.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 605 | Surgery | General surgery | A tumour arising in a burns scar is likely to be
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Fibrosarcoma
| Squamous cell carcinoma |
1e40fe2d-2b30-4e7c-b4d6-6332509362bc | Ans. is 'd' i.e. IL 13 T helper -1 (TH1) secretes - 1L-2 and interferon - gT helper - 2 (TH2) secretes - IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-13. | Unknown | null | Which of the follow ing interleukin is secreted by T helper 2 cells -
A. IL 11
B. IL7
C. IL l
D. IL13
| IL13 |
b40f3eac-fe5c-4e4b-a8bd-eae89f8e4ec3 | ECT shortens the duration of depressive episode. It doesn’t prevent the recurrence unless given as a maintenance treatment. | Psychiatry | null | ECT in depressive phase of MDP is useful because it-
A. Produces recurrence
B. Reduces recurrence
C. Shortens duration
D. Increases drug effects
| Shortens duration |
c7813f49-158b-4aec-8e1e-2073090ffa45 | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Fungal colonies o Granules are microcolonies of the etiological agents. o Colour of the discharging granules (grains) vary with the different agents causing the disease. | Microbiology | Mycology | The granules discharged in mycetoma contains -
A. Bone specules
B. Fungal colonies
C. Pus cells
D. Inflammatory cells
| Fungal colonies |
b20d4530-aa18-4fc2-8a44-256e1ac2e30c | The Rinne tuning fork test is sensitive in detecting conductive hearing losses. A Rinne test compares the ability to hear by air conduction with the ability to hear by bone conduction. Normally and in the presence of sensorineural hearing loss, a tone is heard louder by air conduction than by bone conduction. This is the positive Rinne test. A negative Rinne test indicates a minimum air-bone gap of 15-20 dB. | ENT | null | A 36 year old man shows positive Rinne test. His condition is:
A. Wax in ear
B. Chronic suppurative otitis media
C. Otomycosis
D. Normal
| Normal |
b9f144a2-54f9-42f3-96ca-28649366a45d | (D) Diarrhea # PHAECHROMOCYTOMA Clinical Features:> Skin sensations, flank pain, elevated heart rate, elevated Blood pressure, palpitations, anxiety, diaphoresis, headache, pallor, weight loss, localized amyloid deposits found microscopically, and elevated blood glucose level. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Which one of the following clinical features is NOT seen in Phaeochromocytoma?
A. Hypertension
B. Episodic palpitations
C. Weight loss
D. Diarrhea
| Diarrhea |
e5cfef0a-8c31-4428-97e7-de42068a917d | Ames test is a simple test developed by Bruce Ames that measures the potential of a given chemical compound to promote mutations in a specialized bacterial strain (mutagenic carcinogenesis) | Biochemistry | null | A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is -
A. Ames test
B. Redox test
C. Bacteriophage
D. Gene splicing
| Ames test |
3e93103d-a8cc-47c0-9b7a-a6ac2b7c756d | The above case scenario is indicative of testicular torsion as there is presence of acute onset of testicular pain and no history of injury. There are two types of testicular torsion. Neonatal torsion Adult torsion occurs either in utero or sholy after bih not associated anatomic defect typically is seen in adolescence manifests with the sudden onset of testicular pain bell clapper abnormality Intense congestion, widespread hemorrhage, and areas of infarction are seen on biopsy of testis. If the testis is explored surgically and the cord is manually untwisted within approximately 6 hours, the testis willlikely remain ble. To prevent the catastrophic occurrence of torsion in the contralateral testis, the unaffected testis typically is surgically fixed within the scrotum (orchiopexy). | Pathology | Male Genital Tract | An 16 year old boy was brought in emergency with acute testicular pain, awakening him from sleep. On examination,the right testis is enlarged and tender. There is no history of any injury. what is the likely diagnosis?
A. Testicular vasculitis
B. Testicular torsion
C. Testicular neoplasm
D. Acute orchitis
| Testicular torsion |
ca6bbb70-bdb8-4106-984a-39c129c6d0f7 | "The floor of the nasal cavities, which also form the roof of the mouth, is made up by the bones of the hard palate: the horizontal plate of the palatine bone posteriorly and the palatine process of the maxilla anteriorly".(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2007) | Pediatrics | All India exam | The floor of the nasal cavity in children is made of
A. Palatine bone and vomer
B. Sphenoid and ethmoid
C. Nasal bone and maxilla
D. Palatine bone and maxilla
| Palatine bone and maxilla |
b8cbde6e-b2fe-4a50-bb31-22a996958052 | Blood or aspiration material from various organs can. E used for NNN (novy,macneal,nicolle)culture incubated at 22-24 degree Celsius promastigote form can be demonstrated contains rabbit blood with added antibiotics (refer pgno:41 baveja 3 rd edition). | Microbiology | parasitology | Leishmania is cultures in.....media-
A. Chocolate agar
B. NNN
C. Tellurite
D. Sabourauds
| NNN |
2a748a3f-4c25-4994-92a0-ab8c701775b8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rancidity Peroxidation (auto-oxidation) of lipids exposed to oxygen is responsible not only for deterioration of foods (rancidity) but also for damage to tissues in vivo. Lipid peroxidation is a chain of reaction generating free radicals that initiate fuher peroxidation. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following reaction is due to lipid peroxidation ?
A. Saponification
B. Rancidity
C. Hydrogenation
D. Soap formation
| Rancidity |
c4d743fe-a50b-4728-b624-295798411538 | Pyrazinamide is not known to cause gynecomastia. Adverse effects associated with its use are hepatic damage, hyperuricemia, nausea, vomiting, ahralgia, dysuria, malaise and fever. Some drugs cause gynecomastia by 1) synergetic action with estrogen due to intrinsic estrogen like propeies of the drug 2) the production of increased endogenous estrogen and 3) by providing excess supply of estrogen precursor that can be aromatized to estrogen. Drugs causing Gynecomastia includes: Estrogen Spironolactone Cimetidine Digitalis Phenothiazines TCA Methyldopa Reserpine Isoniazid Ref: Male Reproductive Dysfunction: Pathophysiology and Treatment edited by Fouad R. Kandeel page 523. NMS Medicine edited by Susan Wolfstha page 473. Gumbo T. (2011). Chapter 56. Chemotherapy of Tuberculosis,Mycobacterium Avium Complex Disease, and Leprosy. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug does NOT cause Gynaecomastia?
A. INH
B. Cimetidine
C. Digitalis
D. Pyrazinamide
| Pyrazinamide |
9cffa9e1-4a07-4a4e-b31a-47a250158c9c | Methoxyflurane has minimum MAC and is most potent. Order of potency in decreasing order (MAC in increasing order) :-
Methoxyflurone (MAC= 0.16%)> Trilene (0.2%) > Halothane (0.74%) > Chloroform (0.8%) > Isoflurane (1.15%) > Enflurane (1.68%) > Ether (1.92%) > Sevoflurane (2.0%) > Desflurane (6.0%) > Cyclopropane (9.2%) > N20 (104%). | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following has minimum MAC ?
A. Methoxyflurane
B. N2O
C. Halothane
D. Desflurane
| Methoxyflurane |
ed6279fd-3858-442f-af37-5e46d90f4f39 | In Sendeafness deafness: Lateralised to better ear. In conductive deafness: Lateralised to worse ear. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 22 | ENT | Ear | In sensorineural hearing loss, weber's test is lateralized to
A. Normal ear
B. Defective ear
C. Not lateralized
D. May alternate
| Normal ear |
7878a0db-3303-47c0-8182-947884cffb2f | Several pathologic conditions are associated with the formation of white plaques on the vulva, which are clinically referred to as leukoplakia. Lichen sclerosis is seen histologically as atrophy of the epidermis with underlying dermal fibrosis. This abnormality is seen in postmenopausal women, who develop pruritic white plaques of the vulva. It is not thought to be premalignant. Loss of pigment in the epidermis (vitiligo) can also produce leukoplakia. Inflammatory skin diseases, such as chronic dermal inflammation, squamous hyperplasia (characterized by epithelial hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis), and vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (characterized by epithelial atypia or dysplasia), can also present with leukoplakia. A term related to leukoplakia is vulvar dystrophy, but this refers specifically to either lichen sclerosis or squamous hyperplasia. Because the latter is sometimes associated with epithelial dysplasia, it is also referred to as hyperplastic dystrophy. It is most commonly seen in postmenopausal women. The male counterpa of lichen sclerosis, called balanitis xerotica obliterans, is found on the penis. Paget's disease is a malignant tumor that can be found in the breast or the vulva. The latter is seen clinically as pruritic, red, crusted, sharply demarcated maplike areas. Histologically, these malignant lesions reveal single anaplastic tumor cells surrounded by clear spaces ("halos") infiltrating the epidermis. These malignant cells stain positively with PAS and mucicarmine stains. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | Pathology | miscellaneous | A 75-year-old woman presents with a pruritic vulvar lesion. Physical examination reveals an irregular white, rough area involving her vulva. If this area of leukoplakia is due to lichen sclerosis, then biopsies from this area will most likely reveal
A. Atrophy of epidermis with dermal fibrosis
B. Epidermal atypia with dysplasia
C. Epithelial hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis
D. Individual malignant cells invading the epidermis
| Atrophy of epidermis with dermal fibrosis |
20f99b5a-b105-4e47-a132-3c0ef4529919 | Ans:C i.e. Streptococcus viridans Subacute bacterial endocarditis/Endocarditis lenta It can be considered a form of Type III hypersensitivity. It is usually caused by a form of streptococci viridians bacteria that normally live in the mouth and throat (Streptococcus mutans, mitis, sanguis or milleri). Osler's nodes can indicate this condition. Nail clubbing is also often seen in subacute endocarditis. In cases of subacute bacterial endocarditis, the causative organism (streptococcus viridans) needs a previous hea valve disease to colonize and cause such disease. On the other hand, in cases of acute bacterial endocarditis, the organism can colonize on the healthy hea valve, causing the disease. | Pathology | null | SABE is most commonly due to: March 2013
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. HACEK group bacteria
| Streptococcus viridans |
e05e8a5d-e2bd-4f09-a015-9e579ffea949 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Methoxyflurane Inhalational agents and renal diseaseo Methoxyflurane is contraindicated. Enflurane and sevoflurane should also be avoided.o Desflurane is the inhalational agent of choice. Isoflurane is an alternative. Halothane is also safe.o Anaesthesia is maintained with desflurane (or isoflurane) in N2O : O2 mixture.Methoxyfluraneo It was most potent inhalation agent (least MAC), but not used not (now Halothane is most potent).o It should not be used in closed circuit (reacts with rubber tubing of the closed circuit).o It has slowest onset & recovery (however now ether has slowest onset & recovery as methoxyflurane is not used).o Boiling point is more than water (104degC).o Intrarenal metabolism of methoxyflurane and subsequent intrarenal production of fluoride ion is the significant cause of methoxyflurane renal toxicity.o It can cause high output renal failure and hepatotoxicity. | Anaesthesia | Anesthesia for Kidney Disease | Which of the following inhalational agent is contraindicated in renal disease -
A. Desflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Halothane
| Methoxyflurane |
7a332021-ff62-4478-b302-586f094206ec | The patient has tension pneumothorax, as evidenced by distended neck veins and absent breath sounds. Increased intrathoracic pressure interferes with venous return to the heart, resulting in shock. Immediate management should be insertion of a large-bore needle in the left second intercostal space, followed by insertion of a chest tube. In a trauma patient, venous access should be achieved by inserting two large-bore (16-gauge) angiocatheters in the cubital veins. Insertion of a central venous line on the right side should not be done, because it carries the risk of producing pneumothorax in the opposite side. | Surgery | Wounds, Tissue Repair & Scars | A 55-year-old man involved in an automobile accident is unresponsive and is intubated at the scene. On arrival in the emergency department, he responds to painful stimulation. His systolic BP is 60 mm Hg, his HR is 140 bpm, his neck veins are distended, and his breath sounds are absent on the left side. Immediate management should involve which of the following?
A. Insertion of a central venous line on the right side
B. Insertion of an 18-gauge needle in the left second intercostal space
C. Pericardiocentesis
D. Peritoneal lavage
| Insertion of an 18-gauge needle in the left second intercostal space |
0608809c-d4ab-48cd-bdc1-4529fa788192 | C i.e. Indifference to suffering- Flight of ideas & Pressure speech are features of Mania. Autism is found in Schizophrenia (Bleuler's 4-A)- La -Belle-Indifference : It is lack of concern towards the symptoms despite severe disability. It is found in Hysteria (Conversion Disorder)Q, Paial lobe lesion, Multiple Sclerosis, Dissociative DisorderQ, Physical illness. | Psychiatry | null | Hysteria is characterized by
A. Flight of ideas
B. Pressure on speech
C. Indifferene to suffering
D. Autistic Thinking
| Indifferene to suffering |
473c708d-f801-410f-b2e0-0a212fb19de0 | medical adrenelectomy or pharmacological adrenelectomy means- using medications or drugs to suppress the production of hormones from the adrenal gland Mitotane is highly effective in the long-term management of Cushing's syndrome but has a slow onset of action. Mitotane combined with fast-acting steroidogenesis inhibitors might avoid the need for emergency bilateral adrenalectomy in patients with severe hypercoisolism. KD Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which of the following is used for medical adrenalectomy?
A. Mitotane
B. Methotrerate
C. Doxorubicin
D. 5-Fluorouracil
| Mitotane |
8f1e28e3-93f6-4c48-b76e-ec6fef6d2ea4 | ANSWER: (C) HypothyroidismREF: Harrison's 18th ed ch: 344Endocrinopathies associated with Diabetes are:AcromegalyCushings syndromeGlucagonomaPheochromocytomaHyperthyroidismSomatostatinomaAldosteronoma | Medicine | Diabites & Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone | Which of the following is not associated with Diabetes mellitus?
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Acromegaly
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Pheochromocytoma
| Hypothyroidism |
7c913e4d-46fb-469c-858e-676273d1aaf6 | b. Wt for Ht <-3SD(Ref: Ghai 9/e p 97)Wt for Ht <-3SD on WHO growth standard is one of the diagnostic criteria for severe acute malnutrition. | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Definition of severe acute malnutrition includes which of the following?
A. Wt for Ht <- 2 SD
B. Wt for Ht <- 3 SD
C. Wt for age <-2 SD
D. Wt for age <-3 SD
| Wt for Ht <- 3 SD |
5ed2b6ff-9e0d-4382-a7c2-9e6f792955fd | Ans. A C5-C6Ref: Gray's Anatomy, 41st ed. pg. 792* Biceps jerk (C5, 6) The elbow is flexed to a right angle and slightly pronated. A finger is placed on the biceps tendon and struck with a percussion hammer; this should elicit flexion and slight supination of the forearm.Extra Mile* Triceps jerk (C6-8) The arm is supported at the wrist and flexed to a right angle. Triceps tendon is struck with a percussion hammer just proximal to the olecranon; this should elicit extension of the elbow.* Radial jerk (C7, 8) The radial jerk is a periosteal, not a tendon reflex. The elbow is flexed to a right angle and the forearm placed in the mid pronation/supination position. The radial styloid is struck with the percussion hammer. This elicits contraction of brachioradialis, which causes flexion of the elbow | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Which is the nerve root of Biceps jerk?
A. C5-C6
B. C6-C8
C. C7-C8
D. C8-T1
| C5-C6 |
451fb279-0912-4459-a1a8-46edec29a4a4 | Answer is D (Celiac sprue) A Positive d-xylose test suggests a diagnosis of celiac disease Decreased urinary excretion of d- xylose (<5.0 gm) 5 hours after administration of 25 gm D- xylose (positive test) suggests malabsorption due to intestinal mucosal disease in the proximal small bowel (duodenum and jejunum). Celiac disease is a charachteristic cause for positive d-xylose test and the single best answer amongst the options provided Modestly abnormal d-xylase test may also be seen in cases of bacterial overgrowth syndrome, however patients with bacterial overgrowth syndrome may also have normal d-xylose excretion, and hence this is not considered as the most likely diagnosis D-Xylose Test Schilling Test Duodenal Mucosal Biopsy Chronic pancreatitis Normal 50% abnormal; if abnormal, normal with pancreatic enzymes Normal Bacterial overgrowth syndrome Normal or only modestly abnormal Often abnormal; if abnormal, normal after antibiotics Usually normal Ileal disease Normal Abnormal Normal Celiac sprue Decreased Normal Abnormal: probably "flat" Intestinal lymphangiectasia Normal Normal Abnormal: "dilated lymphatics" | Medicine | null | A d-xylose test was requested on a patient with history of long standing steatorrhea '5' hour urine sample showed <4.0 gm excretion after giving 25 gm of d-xylose. The most likely diagnosis is :
A. Chronic Pancreatitis
B. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
C. Ileal disease
D. Celiac sprue
| Celiac sprue |
5014a223-b313-4cec-83b5-d5b524f0b9e9 | Adipocere has a offensive rancid or an unpleasant sweetish smell. It occurs as a result of hydrolysis and hydrogenation of preexisting fats into higher fatty acids which later combines with calcium and ammonium ions to form soluble soap which resists putrefaction. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, Edition 23, Page - 137, 138. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which among the following is NOT a feature of adipocere formation?
A. Develops in moist clay soil
B. Due to hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fat
C. Cheesy odour
D. First seen in subcutaneous fat deposit of cheek, buttocks etc
| Cheesy odour |
8c8425c8-d70f-4cfb-98db-80a6e01826c5 | Man who commits the offence of adultery shall be punished with imprisonment up to 5 years or with fine or both. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DR PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 308 | Anatomy | Sexual offences and infanticide | Punishment for adultery is
A. 2years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 10years
| 5 years |
30e40f08-c939-47dd-9ffe-ed317ec0c2a0 | Causes of secondary osteosarcomaPaget&;s DiseaseFibrous dysplasiaRadiationEnchondromatosisHereditary multiple exostosesChronic osteomyelitisBone infarction (Refer: Manish Kumar Varshney's Essential Ohopedics Principles & Practice, 1st edition, pg no. 191, 192) | Orthopaedics | All India exam | Secondary osteosarcoma is associated with
A. Paget's disease
B. Osteogenesis imperfect
C. Melhoreostosis
D. Anklyosing spondylitis
| Paget's disease |
d3a32ea7-c426-4552-bc8f-f19bdbce23d1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., G lamblia . Giardia lambia inhabits small intestine and cause malabsorption. . It is believed that symptoms of malabsorption are clinical signs of loss of brush border enzyme activities. | Microbiology | null | Digestion in intestinal mucosa is inhibited by ?
A. V cholera
B. G lamblia
C. Enterokinase
D. S haematobium
| G lamblia |
29eb4f9c-bb8d-4e69-9085-163869e58316 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Souvenir bullet o Projectile is an object propelled by force of rapidly burning gases. In shotgun these are lead shots and pellets (recently steel is also used instead of lead) and in rifled weapons (pistal, rifle, revolver), these are bullets. Tip of the bullet is knwon as nose. Varieties of bullets are :-Incendiary (igniting) bullet: The tip of bullet contains self igniting material e.g. barium nitrate and powdered aluminium and magnesium (in the past, phosphorus was used), so that it catches fire on hitting the target. It is used to cause fire in usually inflammable targets like fuel tanks (of air crafts etc).Explosive bullet: The tip contains a detonator or lead azide, so that the bullet explodes on hitting the target.Dum-dum bullet (expanding bullet) : It is a jacketed bullet with is nose tip chiseled or cut off. It is designed to increase in diameter and expand upon striking the target, thus producing larger diameter wounds of limited penetration.Tandem bullet (Piggey tail bullet) : It is called one-behind-other bullet because two bullets are ejected one after the other, when first bullet failed to leave the burrel and is ejected by subsequently fired bullet. Therefore, both enter body through same enterance wound (some times, they may enter through different entries), but the wounds of exit are always two.o Tandem (Duplex) cartridge is one in which two bullets are present in same cartridge. It is used in military rifles.Tracer bullet: It leaves a trace in atmosphere along the path so that a person (gunner) can observ e the strike. Burning of barium nitrate produces flame and powdered magnesium along with strontium nitrate are added to give red color to the flame.Tumbling bullet: One that rotates in end on end during its motion.Yawning bullet: One which travels in an irregular fashion and causes a key hole entery wound. Yaw means deviation between long axis of bullet and the axis of path of bullet.Souvenir bullet: A bullet left in body for long time and is surrounded by fibrous tissue.Frangite bullet: Designed to fragment upon impact.Mushrooming of bullet: A soft nose bullet, an hitting the target may get deformed to assume the shape of a mushroom. | Forensic Medicine | Death and Investigations | Bullet which is left inside the body for long is referred to as -
A. Souvenir bullet
B. Tracer bullet
C. Tumbling bullet
D. Tandem bullet
| Souvenir bullet |
f7e9f0fb-a248-447a-ad30-80b9c82b2c54 | Clinical presentation is suggestive of Gall stones. 1st investigation to be performed is abdominal ultrasound, as most of the gall stones are radiolucent. | Radiology | Gastrointestinal Radiology | A 43 - year - old lady presents with colicky right upper quadrant pain which radiates to right shoulder and is exacerbated by eating fatty foods. Which of the following radiological investigations should you request first ?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Abdominal CT
C. Abdominal X - ray
D. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
| Abdominal ultrasound |
1917711b-23ab-4f45-a258-0beeba161682 | Naked Eye Single Tube Red Cell Osmotic Fragility Test - NESTROFT (sensitive but less specific) Hemoglobin electrophoresis does not give quanititative results for different Hb fractions HPLC (High performance liquid chromatography), best among the options given HPLC gives HbA2 percentage. HbA2 > 4% (3.5-8%) is diagnostic of thalassemia trait, along with microcytic hypochromic red cells indices CBC findings - Thalassemia trait Microcytic hypochromic red cells Normal or mildly increased RDW Target cells Increased red cell count Normal Hb or mild anemia | Pathology | FMGE 2017 | Which of the following tests is most sensitive and specific test during antenatal check-up for a pregnant lady with family history of Thalassemia?
A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
B. NESTROFT
C. High performance liquid chromatography
D. P. smear and reticulocyte count
| High performance liquid chromatography |
530c7f0c-74b3-405e-bb2d-b9aa7bd78580 | Succinylcholine increase ICT, IOT and intra-abdominal (intragastric pressure). | Anaesthesia | null | Which muscle relaxant increases intracranial pressure ?
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium
C. Suxamethonium
D. Vecuronium
| Suxamethonium |
8304c15c-5f3a-4aa2-a541-c0324e2874c0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bestiality Section 377 IPC defines unnatural sexual offences as sexual intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal and lays down punishment for the same. These offences are sodomy, buccal coitus, tribadism (lesbianism), and bestiality. Sodomy Sodomy is sexual intercourse through anus. It is of two types : Homosexual and Heterosexual. In Homosexual, it is done by a male on another male. Heterosexual sodomy is anal intercourse with a women. The person who does the act is known as active agent and the person, on whom the act is done, is known as passive agent. if the passive agent is adult/elderly the act is known as Gerontophilia. If the passive agent in sodomy is a child, act is called Paederasty, the passive agent is labelled as catamite, and the active agent is known as Paedophile. Examination findings of sodomy are :- In active agent : (i) Peculiar smell of anal gland secretion on penis, (ii) Fecal soiling, lubricant (if used) and blood on penis, (iii) Penis shaft is elongated and constricted in habitual sodomites with consequent twisting/ angulation of urethra, (iv) Abrasions on prepuce and glans penis, tearing of frenulum, swelling and redness of penis. In passive agent : Passive agent may be :? 1) Habitual : (i) Funnel shaped anus with deeply situated anal opening, (ii) Dilatation and laxity of anal sphincter, (iii) Shaved anal skin, (iv) Anal fissures and piles, (v) Lateral buttock truction test positive: On applying lateral traction on anus in normal person, there will be reflex contraction of anus, but in habitual sodomine there is comple relaxation of sphincter with dilatation of opening. 2) Non-habitual (forcibly victimized) : (i) Presence of semen in anus is the only confirmatety evidence, (ii) Signs of violence around anus, i.e. abrasions, fisures, contusion or triangular bruised tear of posterior pa of anus (in sudden violence). Other unnatural sexual offences Bestiality : is the sexual intercourse by a human being with a lower animal. Tribadism (Lesbianism or female homosexuality) : Sexual gratification of a women is obtained by another woman by kissing, body contact, manipulation of breast and genitalia. Active paner is called dyke or butch and the passive agent is called femme. This is not an offence in India. o Buccal coitus (coitus per as/sin of gomorrah) : In this, the male organ is introduced into mouth, usually of a young child. Fellatio is oral stimulation of penis by male or female. Cunnilingus is oral stimulation of female genitals. | Forensic Medicine | null | Sexual intercourse by a human being with a lower animalis ?
A. Bestiality
B. Cunnilingus
C. Tribadism
D. Sin of gomorrah
| Bestiality |
34524ef4-95a0-49e2-9107-ab204ae1eab5 | *Mirror play is attained by 6 months *Crawling by 8 months *Creeps by 10 months and creeps well by 12 months *Immature pincer grasp by 10 months *Mature pincer grasp by 12 months Ref : OP GHAI - ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS - 8 TH edition page no 4 and 52 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | Which of the milestones develop first
A. Mirror play
B. Crawling
C. Creeping
D. Pincer grasp
| Mirror play |
bdc79862-7957-4e9a-881a-72693389e30d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Methylene blue * When blood films containing anthrax bacilli are stained with polychrome methylene blue for a few seconds and examined under microscope, an amorphous purplish material is noticed around bacilli. This represents the capsular material and is characteristic of the anthrax bacillus. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Capsule of Bacillus Anthracis is stained by -
A. Gram stained
B. PAS
C. Methylene blue
D. Calcoflour white
| Methylene blue |
a0758eee-aedc-47b9-8a07-c68169c2a6aa | Ans is 'b' i.e., Submandibular gland * Eighty per cent of all salivary stones occur in the submandibular glands because their secretions are highly viscous.* Eighty per cent of submandibular stones are radio-opaque and can be identified on plain radiography | Surgery | Salivary Gland | Salivary gland stone is most common in which salivary gland?
A. Parotid gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Sublingual gland
D. Minor salivary gland
| Submandibular gland |
977baa4b-2ad3-4463-9312-c83a45797578 | The Ahus reaction is a type of local type III hypersensitivity reaction. Type III hypersensitivity reactions are immune complex-mediated and involve the deposition of antigen/antibody complexes mainly in the vascular walls, serosa (pleura, pericardium, synovium) and glomeruli. Type 1 HSR- Production of IgE- immediate release of vasoactive amines; later recruitment of inflammatory cells. Ex: Anaphylaxis; Bronchial asthma, Atopic Dermatitis Type 2 HSR- Production of IgG, IgM which binds to antigen on target cell causing phagocytosis of target cell by activated complement; recruitment of leukocytes. eg-ITP Type 3 HSR- Deposition of antigen-antibody complexes -complement activation - recruitment of leukocytes by complement products and Fc receptors -release of enzymes and other toxic molecules Ex: SLE, Serum sickness (Generalized), Ahus reaction (localized) Type 4 HSR- Activated T lymphocytes - (1) release of cytokines, inflammation and macrophage activation; (2) T cell-mediated cytotoxicity Ex: Type 1 DM, Contact dermatitis | Medicine | Miscellaneous QBank | Which of the following is a local type III reaction?
A. Atopic dermatitis
B. DTH
C. Serum sickness
D. Ahus reaction
| Ahus reaction |
a7d19059-62bd-4d1f-aeee-998295e0eaab | Sec 191 IPC : Definition of perjury.
Sec 193 IPC : Punishment for perjury. | Forensic Medicine | null | Definition of perjury comes under ?
A. Sec 191 IPC
B. Sec 193 IPC
C. Sec 184 IPC
D. Sec 207 IPC
| Sec 191 IPC |
5793302f-b370-47b3-b879-6e3605975d50 | Vaginal sponge is a small polyurethane foam sponge saturated with spermicide, nonoxynol-9 It comes under barrier method of contraception Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 495 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Chemical used in vaginal sponge is
A. Ethynil estradiol
B. Progesterone
C. Mifepristone
D. Nonoxynol-9
| Nonoxynol-9 |
4c3409b5-580b-44a0-b5ad-1507798bc1c1 | Ans. C: 1000 live bihs IMR = Number of deaths of children less than 1 year of age in a year X 1000/number of live bihs in the same year IMR is universally regarded a s not only as a most impoant indicator of the health status of a community but also the level of living of people in general, and effectiveness of MCH services in paicular. It is expressed as a rate per 1000 live bihs. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Denominator for calculating infant moality rate is: September 2005
A. 1000 population
B. 1000 bihs
C. 1000 live bihs
D. 1000 pregnancies
| 1000 live bihs |
c2163ff3-5879-423d-b69b-388654dd7f42 | The genes for the synthesis of the entire heavy chain are present on human chromosome 14. Of the options given above, the only genes that are present on one chromosome are for the C (constant) regions of the heavy chains. Remember, the heavy chains determine the identity of the immunoglobulin isotypes: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE. The C gene for the gamma heavy chain is on chromosome 14 and the C gene for the kappa light chain gene is on chromosome 2. The V gene for the kappa light chain is on chromosome 2. The C gene for the epsilon heavy chain is on chromosome 14. The V gene for the lambda light chain gene is on chromosome 22. The C gene for the kappa light chain gene is on chromosome 2. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 58. Cellular Basis of the Immune Response. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following genes involved in the synthesis of immunoglobulins are linked on a single chromosome?
A. C gene for gamma chain and C gene for alpha chain
B. C gene for gamma chain and C gene for kappa chain
C. V gene for kappa chain and C gene for the epsilon chain
D. V gene for lambda chain and C gene for kappa chain
| C gene for gamma chain and C gene for alpha chain |
64bc88cf-bf29-4011-a4c9-5db290ca407f | Ans:D i.e. AmnesiaModified ECT-Both electricity and anesthetic agents and muscle relaxants are used to cause the convulsions. Methohexital is the most commonly used anesthetic.Common Complications:Memory disturbances-Retrograde amnesia(M/C)Headaches, muscle aches, fractures, tooth dislocationsProlonged seizures>180seconds | Psychiatry | null | The most common complication of modified ECT
A. Intracerebral bleed
B. Fracture spine
C. Body ache
D. Amnesia
| Amnesia |
17040da4-37dc-41a9-938e-7c631fd62682 | Refer KDT 6 /e p 267 Chlorpropamide is a first generation Sulfonylureas It increases the risk of hypoglycemia Other adverse effects of Chlorpropamide are ADH like action leading to dilutional Hyponatremia Cholestatic jaundice Disulfuram like reaction | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | If a diabetic patient being treated with an oral hypoglycemic agent develops dilutional Hyponatremia, which one of the following could be responsible for this effect
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Tolbutamide
C. Glyburide
D. Glimepride
| Chlorpropamide |
ac83893d-ca3f-4922-b018-77a3ed8ba888 | Nitrofurantoin poses high risk of hypoplastic left heart syndrome in fetus. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | High risk of hypoplastic left heart syndrome occurs with maternal intake of
A. Aminoglyocides
B. Chloramphenical
C. Nitrofurontoin
D. Sulfonamides
| Nitrofurontoin |
15668b8b-f538-4ca4-93bd-abb3ad6dcbdc | .in case of mass immunisation programmes implemented by WHO ,including the immunisation programmes ,evaluation of the aaccessibility of such programmes to the populations is usually done among children of age 12 to 23 months. ref:park&;s textbook,22 nd ed,pg 189 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | WHO recommend evaluation of child vaccination in age group?
A. 0-12m
B. 6-12 m
C. 12-23 m
D. 9-12 m
| 12-23 m |
2833d914-a5cb-469a-80f5-875d62ace1f0 | The required number of AWC's in rural/urban projects is given below 1 AWC's for 400 - 800 people 2 AWC's for 800 - 1600 people 3 AWC's for 1600 - 2400 people And then add 1 AWC's for every multiple of 800. In case of mini AWC the norm is 1 mini AWC for 150 - 400 population. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 544. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | As per the revised norms for Anganwadi centers, how many centers are needed for a population of 1950 people in a rural area?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| 3 |
83d7c453-1252-47aa-98db-5c1b965e863c | Answer (b) Multibacillary treatment X 12 month It is a pure neuritic type of leprosy.It is a case of Multibacillary leprosy for therapeutic purpose (according to WHO classification, more than one nerve trunk involvement is termed as multibacillary for treatment purpose.many consider that pure neuritic leprosy belongs to the paucibacillary group since all of them are acid-fast bacilli negative on skin smears by definition and are mostly lepromin positive.According to present NLEP guidelines in India, when one nerve trunk is involved in leprosy it is considered as paucibacillary, and when more than one nerve trunk is involved, it is considered as multibacillary for therapeutic purposes. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A leprosy person is presented with involvements of sural and radial nerve . Which type of regimen you will give:
A. Multibacillary treatment X 9 month
B. Multibacillary treatment X 12 month
C. Multibacillary treatment X 15 month
D. Paucibacillary treatment X 6 month
| Multibacillary treatment X 12 month |
058f28fc-af89-474a-82ad-c2f69e88ea51 | HSP is characterized by tetrad of palpable purpura, arthritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal pain.
Less common skin lesions are : nonpalpable macules & patches, urticaria, bullous lesions, vesicles, splinter hemorrhage and ulcerations.
Rarely epistaxis may occur. | Dental | null | Which of the following is/are not the features of henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) –
A. Abdominal pain
B. Splinter hemorrhage
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Epistaxis
| Thrombocytopenia |
6a788250-badb-4888-93b7-e02837940c07 | Ans. is 'c' ie Oromandibular limb defects " Chorionic villous sampling is usually performed at 10-13 weeks and is associated with several complications but studies suggests that limb reduction and oromandibular limb hypogenesis is more common if CVS is done before 9 weeks so CVS is done after 9 wks because it is more safe" - Williams, 21/e, p990NoteDon't get confused by what Harrison states on page 399, 15/e" There is an increased association of limb defects when the procedure in performed later (>=11 weeks of gestation)"Harrison is wrong here ! | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Antenatal Screening | Chorionic villous sampling done before 10 weeks may result in -
A. Foetal loss
B. Fetomatemal haemorrhage
C. Oromandibular limb defects
D. Sufficient material not obtained
| Oromandibular limb defects |
bc35b7c4-3565-4b2e-9e50-3b2d182a61d2 | Long-term tamoxifen therapy is a predisposing factor for endometrial hyperplasia and cancers.
Malignancies caused by Long-term tamoxifen therapy:
Carcinoma endometrium-it is the most common carcinoma associated with it.
Uterine sarcoma.
Rarely liver cancer with a long-term high dose.
Non-malignant effects of tamoxifen on uterus:
Endometrial hyperplasia
Endometriosis
Fibroid uterus
Ovarian cysts
Menstrual irregularities or amenorrhea. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Long-term tamoxifen therapy may cause:
A. Endometrium Ca
B. Ovary Ca
C. Cervix Ca
D. Vagina Ca
| Endometrium Ca |
17bf74c4-7570-4828-838b-375b7d5a16f8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Breath holding spell [Ref.: Nelson 20th/e p. 175)* The clues in the question are that the child was otherwise healthy and that the event might have occurred due to frustration during playing. Although such episodes are precipitated by scolding or upsetting the child, no such history is mentioned in this question.Breath holding spells* Breath holding spell is a paroxysmal event occuring in 0.1% - 5% of healthy children from the age of 6 months to 6 years.* The name for this behaviour may be misnomer in that it connotes prolonged inspiration. Infact, breath-holding occurs during expiration and is reflexive (not volitional) in nature.* There are two major types of breath holding spellsA) Cyanotic form (cyanotic spells)# This is more common and is provoked in response to frustration and anger precipitated by upsetting or scolding infant/child.# Cyanotic spells are due to central sympathetic overactivity.# Clinical features include generalized cyanosis, apnea, forced expiration, opisthotonus, shrill cry and bradycardia. Crying stops during forced expiration. Seizures may occur due to cerebral hypoxia, but antiepileptics are not required.# The only treatment is support and reassurance to parents.B) Pallid form (Pallid spells)# These are initiated by painful experience, e.g falling and striking the head.# Pallid spells are due to excessive central parasympethetic activity.# Clinical features include pallor, apnea, loss of consciousness, hypotonia, seizures and bradycarda.# Treatment includes support and reassurance of parents. Atropine may be used in refractory cases.* Iron supplementation may be useful in some children with breath holding spells. | Pediatrics | Growth, Development, and Behavior | Child while playing has sudden loss of consciousness and appears pale. There is no significant medical history and the child was otherwise healthy. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder
B. Breath holding spell
C. Autism
D. Rett's syndrome
| Breath holding spell |
0b86db79-943d-4699-8a53-0d5b8e396007 | Ans. a. 12 hoursRef: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 9th Ed; Page No. 233Hyperacute Graft RejectionOccurs within minutes to hoursDue to preformed antibodies due to transfusions, multiparity, or previous organ transplants (type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity)Antibodies bind to the grafted tissue and activate complement and the clotting cascade resulting in thrombosis and ischemic necrosisRare because of cross-matching blood, but common vignette.Acute Graft RejectionOccurs within days to weeks; the timing and mechanism are similar to a primary immune responseInduced by alloantigens (predominantly MHC) in the graftBoth CD4 and CD8 T cells play a role as well as antibodies (think normal immune response)Immunosuppressive therapy works to prevent this type of graft rejection mainly.Accelerated Acute Graft RejectionOccurs within days; the timing and mechanism are similar to a memory response.Chronic Graft RejectionOccurs within months to yearsPredominantly T cell mediatedDifficult to treat and usually results in graft rejectionEtiology not well understood, possibly triggered by viral infections | Pathology | Immunity | Hyperacute graft rejection occurs after how much time?
A. 12 hours
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 3 months
| 12 hours |
76025377-3b97-4f6f-816a-399b57a21c2f | SELECTIVE COX-2 INHIBITORS- Rofecoxib,etoricoxib,celecoxib They cause little gastric mucosal damage; the occurrence of peptic ulcer and ulcer bleeds is clearly lower than with traditional NSAIDs. They do not depress TXA2 Production by platelets (COX-I dependent); do not inhibit platelet aggregation or prolong bleeding time but reduce PGI2 production by vascular endothelium. They increase the risk of cardiovascular events ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION;KD TRIPATHI;PAGE NO 205 | Pharmacology | Autacoids | For pain control in a patient having history of G I bleeding, which of the following is given?
A. Nimesulide
B. Ibuprofen
C. Rofecoxib
D. Pentazocin
| Rofecoxib |
406baaec-899d-426a-94c7-a296a8c2740e | - Recurrent intractable peptic ulcer disease is suggestive of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome characterized by excess gastrin production, most often from a gastrinoma. - Cushing syndrome results from excess of coisol caused d/t adrenal/ pituitary adenoma. - Glucagonoma is rare neuroendocrine tumor of pancreatic alpha cells, that can cause hyperglycemia. - Whipple triad (episodic hyperinsulinemia + hypoglycemia causing CNS dysfunction, reversible by glucose administration) is seen with insulinoma. | Pathology | Adrenal Gland | A 28-year-old man is evaluated for recurrent peptic ulcer disease, apparently refractory to pharmacologic intervention. Serum gastrin is markedly elevated. These findings are most characteristic of which of the following?
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Glucagonoma
C. Whipple triad
D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
| Zollinger-Ellison syndrome |
50aa4778-83a7-43e9-ac47-3515aec7b874 | As collagen fibers and blood vessels run parallel to the root, In trapezoidal flap more number if collagen fibres and blood vessels are cut in turn it delays healing. | Dental | null | Which of the following full thickness flap is contraindicated for endodontic surgeries:
A. Triangular flap.
B. Rectangular flap.
C. Trapezoidal flap.
D. Envelope flap.
| Trapezoidal flap. |
85f3b292-fd73-4b91-861d-425c40153954 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Echinococcus . Upper abdominal mass and positive casoni's test suggest the diagnosis of hydatid cyst caused by Echinococcus. . Casoni test is an immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction. | Microbiology | null | A company executive, who travels world wide, presents with upper abdominal mass and + ye casoni's test. The organism is -
A. Echinococcus
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Hepatitis
D. Ascariasis
| Echinococcus |
e1b45ddb-a7e7-404b-b624-5a8ea8ec19d9 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Double left heart border Ref: Sutton 7th/ep. 280; 350]Sings of left atrial enlargementStraightening of left heart border (due to enlargement of left atrial appendage).Elevation of left main bronchus with widening (Splaying) of carina.Double density (atrial) sign.Posterior displacement of esophagus on barium swallow.Prominent posterosuperior part of cardiac shadow. | Radiology | Cardiac and Pericardiac Imaging | Which of the follow ing is not a chest radiographic feature of left atrial enlargement?
A. Double left heart border
B. Elevated left main bronchous
C. Splaying of carina
D. Enlargement of left atrila appendage
| Double left heart border |
37bc6250-0327-40e9-bd36-a2b27b9b6cb7 | Why body stores glucose as glycogen and not as glucose itself? Possible Reasons 1. Being insoluble it exes no osmotic pressure, and so does not disturb the intracellular fluid content and does not diffuse from its storage sites. 2. It has a higher energy level than a corresponding weight of glucose (though energy has to be expended to make it from glucose). 3. It is readily broken down under the influence of hormones and enzyme: * Into glucose in liver (to maintain blood glucose level). * Into lower intermediates in skeletal muscle and other tissues for energy. Role of Liver Glycogen * It is the only immediately available reserve store of blood glucose. * A high liver glycogen level protects the liver cells against the harmful effects of many poisons and chemicals, e.g. CCl4, ethyl alcohol, arsenic, various bacterial toxins. * Ceain forms of detoxication, e.g. conjugation with glucuronic acid; and acetylation reactions, are directly influenced by the liver glycogen level. * The rate of deamination of amino acids in the liver is depressed as the glycogen level rises so that amino acids are preserved longer in that form and so remain available for protein synthesis in the tissues. * Similarly, a high level of liver glycogen depresses the rate of ketone bodies formation. Biomedical Impoance * Liver glycogen is largely concerned with storage and supply of glucose-1-P, which is conveed to glucose, for maintenance of blood glucose, paicularly in between meals. * Muscle glycogen on the other hand, is to act as readily available source of intermediates of glycolysis for provision of energy within the muscle itself. Muscle glycogen cannot directly contribute to blood glucose level. * Inherited deficiency of enzymes in the pathway of glycogen metabolism produces ceain inherited disorders called as Glycogen storage diseases (GSD)Ref: MN Chatterjea Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 346 | Biochemistry | Respiratory chain | Main source of energy in 1min is
A. Glycogen
B. FFA
C. Phosphates
D. Glucose
| Glycogen |
3b13d408-bcf9-4bf7-b672-8e9059ebd42b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anovulation IUCD does't affect ovulation. Mechanism of actions of IUDs 1) Most accepted Induce a foreign - body reaction that results in chronic inflammatory reaction --> cellular and biochemical changes in the endometrium and uterine fluids. These changes impair the bility of the gamete and thus reduce its chances of feilization rather than its implantation. "IUDs prevent feilization primarily by interfering with the ability of sperm to survive and to ascend the fallopion tubes, where feilization curs". Reaserch aicles "Whatever the IUD's specific mechanism of action, it appears that the IUD effectively interrupts the reproductive process of implantation ". 2) In medicated IUDs, copper enchances the cellular response in the endometrium. By altering the biochemical composition of cervical mucus, copper ions may affect sperm motility, capaciation and survival. Hormone - releasing devices increase the viscosity of cervical mucus and thereby prevent sperm from entering the cervix. They also maintain high level of progesterone in the endometrium and thus, relatively low levels of estrogen, thereby sustaining an endometrium unourable to implantation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Mechanism of action of IUCD is A/E -
A. Chronic endometrial inflammation
B. Anovulation
C. Tubal motility alteration
D. Endometrial atrophy
| Anovulation |
f2a836f4-4590-4987-b8ad-924b9bbdbb07 | The current case definition of AIDS in a patient with HIV infection is done by symptoms and CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count. Any category C symptoms (e.g., cervical cancer, mycobacterium avium infection, CMV, retinitis, Kaposi sarcoma, etc.) indicates frank AIDS as does a CD4+ T-cell count <200/mL regardless of symptoms. Shingles and thrush are category B symptoms. | Medicine | Infection | A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has progressed to developing AIDS (clinical category C). Which of the following conditions is considered an AIDS-defining illness?
A. antibodies to HIV
B. palpable lymphadenopathy
C. Kaposi sarcoma
D. oral candidiasis (thrush)
| Kaposi sarcoma |
bfcbad0a-9642-4f7e-8f6e-7c8055babe53 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Herpes Simplex * Viruses associated with cancersFamilyVirusHuman Cancer* Papova viridae* Human Papilloma VirusGenital tumourssq.cell caoropharyngeal ca* Herpes viridae* E B virusNasopharyngeal CaAfrican Burkin's Lymphoma B cell lymphoma* Hepadnaviridae* Hepatitis B virushepatocellular carcinoma* Retroviridae* HTL virusAdult T cell leukemia* Flaviviridae* Hepatitis C VirusHepatocellular Carcinoma* But Herpes simplex viruses have also been mentioned to be oncogenic in Paniker, 6/e, p534."An association has been proposed between herpes simplex type 2 infection and Cancer of the uterine cervix, though not proved. It has also been suggested that herpes simplex type I infection may be associated with cancer of the lip *But still I would go with Herpes simplex as the answer because "only an association has been proposed" not confirmed. | Microbiology | Oncogenic Virus | Which is NOT an oncogenic virus :
A. HTLV-1
B. Herpes simplex
C. Papilloma virus
D. HBV
| Herpes simplex |
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