id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
fa91f225-85c2-492e-a9dc-ebf08e98c0c5 | C i.e. Lower GI contrast study Lower GI contrast study confirms the diagnosis & indicate the type of involvement, in cases of lower intestinal obstruction causing failure to pass meconium timelyQ. | Radiology | null | A newborn baby has not passed meconium for 48 hours since bih. She has vomiting and distension of abdomen. The most appropriate investigation for evaluation would be
A. Anorectal manometry
B. Rectal biopsy
C. Lower G1 contrast study
D. Trypsin estimation
| Lower G1 contrast study |
ba71ac1d-ce9f-4da0-9c81-f5ab9ee5f130 | Ans. (b) Endoplasmic reticulumRef: Harper s Biochemistry 30,h ed. pg. 576-77* The surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with protein-manufacturing ribosomes giving it a "rough" appearance.* The ribosomes bound to ER are not a stable part of this organelle's structure as they are constantly being bound and released from the membrane.* A ribosome only binds to the RER once a specific protein-nucleic acid complex forms in the cytosol. This special complex forms when a free ribosome begins translating the mRNA of a protein destined for the secretory pathway.* Protein once produced from RER will go to golgi apparatus - secretory vesicles - which is further released. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Protein synthesis occurs in:
A. Golgi bodies
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Peroxisomes
| Endoplasmic reticulum |
5c667706-61ac-487c-8e57-115e74397e59 | The parotid gland receives parasympathetic secretomotor innervation from preganglionic fibers that arise in the inferior salivatory nucleus. They travel in the lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve. The lesser petrosal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa through the foramen ovale, where the preganglionic fibers synapse in the otic ganglion. Must know: The postganglionic fibers secretomotor fibres travel with the auriculotemporal nerve to supply the parotid gland. | Anatomy | null | Parasympathetic nerve supply to parotid salivary gland is by?
A. Otic ganglion
B. Lingual nerve
C. Inferior alveolar nerve
D. Deep temporal nerve
| Otic ganglion |
e8ed8c85-a3db-4f69-8cc3-b30d0980a39f | Ans. is'c'i.e., Ethionamide(Ref; Essentials in tuberculosis P. 468)Thioacetazone has cross-resistance with ethionamide/prothionamide."A cross resistance between ethionamide and thiacetazone is repoed.Perchlozone also shows cross resistance with thiacetazone. | Pharmacology | null | Thioacetazone has cross resistance with ?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethionamide
D. Ethambutol
| Ethionamide |
30deb379-e4b8-4851-8e34-f0b63c9925e4 | Serum ferritin levels is the most sensitive and specific test to diagnose iron deficiency anemia Under steady-state conditions, the serum ferritin level correlates with total body iron stores; thus, the serum ferritin level is the most convenient laboratory test to estimate iron stores. The normal value for ferritin varies according to the age and gender of the individual.As iron stores are depleted, the serum ferritin falls to <15 mg/L. Such levels are diagnostic of absent body iron stores. Adult males have serum ferritin levels that average ~100 mg/L, corresponding to iron stores of ~1 g. Adult females have lower serum ferritin levels averaging 30 mg/L, reflecting lower iron stores (~300 mg). Ferritin is also an acute-phase reactant and, in the presence of acute or chronic inflammation, may rise several-fold above baseline levels. | Medicine | Anemia | Most sensitive and specific test to diagnose iron deficiency anemia is:
A. Serum iron levels
B. Serum ferritin levels
C. Serum transferring receptor population
D. Transferring saturation
| Serum ferritin levels |
68dff815-8846-4d7b-b0b8-1345011dbfbb | CAMs bind to laminins, a family of large cross-shaped molecules with multiple receptor domains in the extracellular matrix. Laminin is a high molecular weight ECM protein. Many CAMs pass through the cell membrane and are anchored to the cytoskeleton inside the cell. Some bind to like molecules on other cells (homophilic binding), whereas others bind to nonself molecules (heterophilic binding). Actin is connected to the sarcolemma, from where integrin connects it to laminin in ECM. | Physiology | Cell Membrane and transpo protiens | Integrin connects actin to which macromolecule in ECM:
A. Laminin
B. Collagen
C. Fibronectin
D. Vitronectin
| Laminin |
b5c5a785-29e2-4624-a8c5-185c5dc37c14 | At the lower end of pharynx, at the level of lower border of cricoid cartilage, esophagus begins. | Anatomy | null | Esophagus starts at which level -
A. Upper border of cricoid cartilage
B. Lower border of cricoid cartilage
C. Thyroid cartilage
D. Hyoid cartilage
| Lower border of cricoid cartilage |
c620013f-e1c1-4605-8248-9014345f1392 | pediculosis corporals/body louse: causative organism: pediculus humanus var corporis. Body lice live in clothing and beds and feed on human blood seen in poor and in those of low intelligence infection is transmitted by clothes and beds. clinical features: itching, erythematous macules, uicaria wheals, excoriated papules parallel linear scratch marks. parellel liner scratch marks with post inflammatory hyperpigmentation over the upper back was called vagabonds disease treatment: proper washing and drying of clothes and bedding dusting garments with gamma benzene he a chloride r malathion body louse acts as a vector for the following diseases epidmic typhus-rickettsia prowazekii relapsing fever--baonella recurentis trench fever- baonella quintana iadvl textbook of dermatology page 412 | Dental | Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis | Vagabond&;s disease is also known as
A. Pediculosis pubis
B. Peduculosis capitis
C. Peduculosis corporis
D. Tinea capitis
| Peduculosis corporis |
c7ad1aa5-0b44-48fe-aa97-a5bfbc5b5244 | Babies establish a smile on social contact by 2 months. Also done at 2 months Head sustained in a plane of the body on ventral suspension Follows moving object by 180 degrees Smiles on social contact Listen to voices and coos Ref : Nelson 20th edition pg no : 67 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | This social milestone is established by age of ___________
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 4 months
| 2 months |
2c0796da-9ac3-412e-a48a-0a08adfa2ac1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 4 ATP, 2 NADH Enegetics of glvcolysis During glycolysis 2 ATP are utilized and 4 ATP are produced at substrate level. 2 reducing equalents NADH' are produced and reoxidized by electron transpo chain, to generata 5 ATP molecules (2.5 ATP per NADH' molecule). Thus total 9 ATP molecules are produced and 2 are utilized, i.e., There is net gain of 7 ATP molecules in aerobic glycolysis. In anaerobic conditions, the reoxidation of NADH by electron transpo chain is prevented and NADH gets reoxidized by conversion of pyruvate to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase. Thus, in anaerobic glycolysis only 4 ATP are produced at substrate level. Therefore, there is net gain of 2 ATP molecules in anaerobic glycolysis. Note : - Previous calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH2 generates 2 ATPs. This will amount to a net generation of 8ATPs per glucose molecule during glycolysis. Recent experiments show that these old values are overestimates and NADH produces 2.5 ATPs and FADH2 produces 1.5 ATPs. Thus, net generation is only 7ATPs during glycolysis. | Biochemistry | null | Number of ATP molecules and NADH formed in each cycle of glycolysis ?
A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH
B. 2 ATP, 2 NADH
C. 4 ATP, 4 NADH
D. 2 ATP, 4 NADH
| 4 ATP, 2 NADH |
f6f86b0a-d111-4f61-8069-f8e6d2e822d1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Na Glucose co transport * Oral rehydration is possible if glucose is added with salt. It capitalizes on the intactness of glucose coupled Na+ absorption (Na glucose co transport), even when other mechanisms have failed or when intestinal secretion is excessive, because the secreted fluid lacks glucose and cannot be reabsorbed. | Pharmacology | G.I.T | Oral rehydration therapy takes advantage of which transporter in GIT -
A. Na Glucose co transport
B. K glucose co transport
C. Na calcium co transport
D. Na channel
| Na Glucose co transport |
a6f8ca2c-0586-4ac3-b4eb-60beed2110e5 | (Ref: Katzung 14th ed. P 755)Insulin glargine is a soluble, "peakless" (i.e. having broad concentration plateau), long acting insulin analogue.Onset: 1-1.5 hours. Duration of action: 11-24 hours.Summary of bioavailability characteristics of the insulinsInsulin preparationsOnset of actionPeak actionEffective durationInsulins lispro, aspart, glulisine5-15 minutes1-1.5 hours3-4 hoursHuman regular30-60 minutes2 hours6-8 hoursTechnosphere inhaled insulin5-15 minutes1 hour3 hoursHuman NPH2-4 hoursFlat 24 hoursInsulin detemir0.5-1 hoursFlat17 hoursInsulin degludec0.5-1.5 hoursFlat>42 hours | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which of the following is a long acting insulin that never attains a peak concentration in plasma?
A. Insulin lispro
B. Insulin aspart
C. Insulin glulisine
D. Insulin glargine
| Insulin glargine |
7d3fa508-66f1-4f7f-8728-aaf2cac23a12 | The patient in question is presenting with features of bronchiolitis obliterans. Bronchiolitis obliterans is a small airway disease that is histologically charecterised by proliferation of fibrous tissue in the bronchiolar walls. It produce irreversible airway obstruction. Clinical features: wax and wane in between. Most common symptoms are fever, cough with sputum, dyspnea with wheeze. Investigation: Xray shows hyperlucent lung, Pulmonary function testing shows obstructive pattern. Ref: Severe asthma: pathogenesis and clinical management By S. J. Szefler, Donald Y. M. Leung page 288; Imaging in Pediatric Pulmonology By Robe Cleveland page 237. 3. Pediatric Chest Imaging: Chest Imaging in Infants and Children By Javier Lucaya page 108; Imaging of the newborn, infant, and young child By Leonard E. Swischuk page 122. | Pediatrics | null | A child presents to the emergency depament with fever and mild respiratory distress. He was staed on oral antibiotics and showed initial improvement, but later deteriorated again with fever, wheeze and exaggerated breathlessness. Radiographs of chest showed hyperluscency and Pulmonary Function Tests showed an obstructive pattern. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Bronchiolitis Obliterans
B. Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis
C. Follicular Bronchitis
D. Bronchial Asthma
| Bronchiolitis Obliterans |
86927fde-9729-43b5-995d-12b1794ce6b6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Body of offence The Corpus Delicti: (the body of offencet the essence of crime)o It stands for the facts of any criminal offence.o Eg : corpus delicti of murder is the fact that the person died from unlawful violence.o It includes the body of the victim and the other facts which are conclusive of death by foul play, such as bullet or a broken knife blade found in the body and responsible for death. | Forensic Medicine | Identification - Medicolegal aspects | Corpus deliciti stands for -
A. Body of court proceedings
B. Body of offence
C. Body of proof
D. Body of evidence
| Body of offence |
6ce49a02-fa84-441e-8e5f-a5d1f23078ef | Body weight in grams and internal diameter of ET tube :-
< 1000 gm = 2.5 mm, 1000-2000 gm = 3 mm, 2000-3000 = 3.5 mm, > 3000 = 3.5-4.0 mm. | Anaesthesia | null | What should be the internal diameter of the endotracheal tube in a child weighing 1500 gm ?
A. 2 mm
B. 2.5 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 3.5 mm
| 3 mm |
1e07d7cf-6f81-4f00-83c3-b6ac45513741 | Ans. (b) EpididymisRef: Smith urology page 219, Textbook of Pathology By V. Krishna / 347 | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Testis & Scrotum) | In tuberculosis of scrotal contents, first to get affected is?
A. Testis
B. Epididymis
C. Rete testis
D. Vas deferens
| Epididymis |
adcf6ff0-9daf-4717-a8ed-50e17eaae029 | Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to qualitatively or quantitatively abnormal type I collagen. | Pathology | null | Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to defect in?
A. Type I collagen
B. Type II collagen
C. Type II collagen
D. Type IV collagen
| Type I collagen |
292a103b-d6cc-4c2a-9f40-706e7cc203fb | Ans: B (Chi square test) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, K Park,20th edition, page no:755.Explanation:CHI-SQUARE TESTChi-square (x2) Test is the best method for testing the significance of difference between two proportions.It has the advantage that it can also be used when more than two groups are to be compared. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Statistical Tests | Significance of difference between two proportions is best studied by:
A. 't' test
B. Chi square test
C. ANOVA
D. Regression coefficient
| Chi square test |
7ce2dcb0-8de4-47b7-9d96-e9bbfb0fc3ce | Renal colic The main pharmacological action of Nitrates Nitroglycerine relaxes all types of smooth muscle irrespective of the state of the preexisting muscle tone. The most prominent action is exeed on the vascular smooth muscle. - Apa .from vascular smooth muscle nitrates also cause relaxation of the smooth muscles of the bronchi, gastrointestinal tract (including biliary system) and genitourinary tract. Nitrates are rapidly denitrated in the smooth muscle to release nitric oxide which activates cytosolic guanyl cyclase which in turn increases CGMP that leads to vasodilation Effect of nitrate on cardiovascular system Enzymes activates Nitrates --4 NO --> Gyanylcyclase 1' CGMP Vasodilation Nitrates cause relaxation of all the components of vascular system from large aeries to veins, aerioles and capillaries. Veins respond at the lowest concentrations and aeries at slightly higher one (Veins express greater amount of the enzyme that generates NO )from organic nitrates). The primary direct result of an effective dose of nitroglycerine is marked relaxation of veins with increased venous capacitance and decreased ventricular preload. This leads to reduction in pulmonary vascular pressure and hea size. Effect of nitrates on coronary circulation '* In normal subjects without coronary disease - Nitroglycerine can induce a significant if transient increase in total coronary blood flow. In patients with angina due to atherosclerosis - There is no evidence that total coronary .flow is increased in patients with angina due to atherosclerotic obstructive coronary aery disease. However, in these patients - Nitrates cause redistribution of coronary blood flow from normal to ischemic regions which may play role in therapeutic effect. There are two types of vessels in coronary circulation :Larger conducting aeries They run epicardially and send perforating branches to deeper tissue. Smaller resistance vessels These are the perforating branches of larger conducting aeries. These aerioles supply blood to endocardium. If there is ischemia in any region of endocardium the perforating vessels of those region are dilated due to autoregulation (hypoxia causes vasodilation). Nitrates preferentially dilates larger conducting vessels. This pattern of action ours more blood flow towards the ischaemic zone as the smaller endocardial vessels are already dilated as a result of hypoxia / ischaemia. Nitrates in hea failure Nitrates afford relief by causing venous pooling of blood. - Nitrates reduce venous return (preload) decreases end diastolic volume -4 improvement in left ventricular function by Laplace law regression of pulmonary congestion. Nitrates are used in cyanide poisoning Cyanide poisoning results from complexing of cytochrome iron by the CV ion. - Methemoglobin has a very affinity for CN ion. - Methemoglobin combines with CN to form cyamnethemoglobin which is rapidly excreted by the body. It is a well known fact that Nitrates generate generate Methemoglobin when they combine with Hb. - Thus administration of nitrates will generate large amount of methemoglobin. - Due to its high offinity.for cyanide, methemoglobin combines with cyanide .forming cyanmethemoglobin. - This will regenerate active cytochrome. - However this may again dissociate to release cyanide. - The cynamethemoglobin can be fuher detoxified by the intravenous administration of sodium thiosulfate. This results in formation of thiocyanate ion a less toxic ion that is readily excreted. Biliary colic Esophageal spasm Sublingual GIN promptly relieves pain. Nitrates taken before a meal facilitate feeding in esophageal achalasia by reducing esophageal tone. Also remember these impoant propeies of Nitrates. Oral availability of Nitrates is low The liver contains a high capacity organic nitrate reductase that removes nitrate groups in a stepwise _fashion from the parent molecule and ultimately inactivates the drug. Therefore oral bioavailability of the traditional organic nitrates e.g. nitroglycerine and isosorbidedinitrate is very low. For this reason sublingual route is preferred for nitrates. Nitroglycerine and isosorbide dintrate are both absorbed effectively by this route and reach therapeutic blood levels within a few minutes. Nitrates develop tolerance With continued exposure smooth muscles develop tolerance to nitrates. The mechanism by which tolerance develops are not completely understood. As noted above diminished release of nitric oxide resulting from depletion of tissue thiol compounds may be paly responsible ,for tolerance to nitrates. Some student argue that cyanide poisoning should be the answer because nitrites not nitrates are used in cyanide poisoning but we are not convinced. All the standard books group them together and do not differentiate between nitrates or nitrites. More so Nitrates have'nt found wide clinical use in Renal colic - None of the standard text books mention use of nitrates in renal colic. - Both Goodman Gilman and KDT says that unlike its consistent effect on muscles of biliary tract, the action of nitrates on ureteric muscles is variable therefore it has not found application in renal colic. - None of the studies and research papers convincingly state that nitrates should be used in renal colic. Nitrates have been anecdotally used only in uruguay to treat renal colic. A trial was conducted based on this but it did'nt come out with conclusive results. - It states that large trials and studies should be undeaken before nitrates before nitrates use is begun clinically. | Pharmacology | null | Nitrates are not used in
A. CCF
B. Esophageal spasm
C. Renal Colic
D. Cyanide poisoning
| Renal Colic |
9ece0d91-3450-4e54-8da5-358fe0e65a4b | Clomiphene citrate is drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOD patients. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Drug of choice of ovulation induction in PCOD patients
A. Tamoxifen
B. Clomiphene
C. Raloxifene
D. Metformin
| Clomiphene |
67c315df-f1e0-4d4a-825e-4e6334114a8f | C.difficile causes acute colitis with bloody and watery diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis. C.difficle is the most common cause of healthcare-associated diarrhea in many developed countries following the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like clindamycin, ampicillin, or fluoroquinolones to which the organism is resistant. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Edition; Pg: 270 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Most common drug causing peudomembranous enterocolitis is
A. Cephalosporin
B. Doxycycline
C. Ampicillin
D. Amoxicillin
| Ampicillin |
be57c4b3-75bb-4cf3-a97c-20f4c1e93556 | (C) Growth hormone # Endocrine dysfunction frequently follows exposure of the hypothalamus or pituitary gland to therapeutic radiation. Growth hormone is the pituitary hormone most sensitive to radiation therapy, and thyroid- stimulating hormone is the least sensitive; ACTH, prolactin, and the gonadotropins have an intermediate sensitivity. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Which one of the folloiwng hormonal level is decreased after Intracranial irradiation?
A. Prolactin
B. ACTH
C. Growth hormone
D. Gonadotropin
| Growth hormone |
55ffaf68-15a6-4816-9cb8-1fad981a48ea | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bagassosis Bagassosiso Bagassosis is the name given to an occupational disease of the lung caused by inhalation of bagasse or sugar- cane dust.o Bagassosis has been shown to be due to a termophilic actinomycete - Thermoactinomyces sacchari.Anthracosis-Coal dustSilicosis-SilicaSiderosis-ironByssinosis-Cotton dustFarmer's lung-Hay or grain dustSequousis-Moldy red wood saw dustSuberosis-Moldy cork dustDetergent worker's lung-Enzyme additivesBaggassosis-Sugarcane dust | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste, disaster management and occupational health | Thermo philus sachari causes ?
A. Bagassosis
B. Siderosis
C. Byssinosis
D. Anthracosis
| Bagassosis |
3e621a3d-ecbc-4daf-aefd-6101506f0508 | Astereognosis- Loss of ability to recognize size and shape of an object.
Seen in- lesion of somatosensory cortex, lesion of tractus cuneatus, lesion of tractus gracilis.
Somatosensory cortex lesion- proprioception and tactile sensations are lost while pain and temperature sensations are preserved.
Tractus cuneatus- formed by fasciculus cuneatus (spinal cord) and nucleus cuneatus (medulla). Pass through lateral portion of dorsal column. Carries sensations of dorsal column- proprioception and tactile sensations from upper part of the body.
Tractus gracilis- formed by fasciculus gracilis (spinal cord) and nucleus gracilis (medulla). Pass through medial portion of dorsal column. Carries sensations of dorsal column- proprioception and tactile sensations from lower part of the body. | Physiology | null | Loss of feel of size & shape of a object is seen in lesion ofa) Tractus solitariusb) Tractus cuneatusc) Lateral spinothalamic tract d) Cerebral cortex
A. bc
B. ad
C. ab
D. bd
| bd |
995e5fae-6291-4cc2-afd6-16c179e541ae | First disability census was taken in 1981 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non communicable diseases | First disability census was done in the year?
A. 1881
B. 1951
C. 1981
D. 2001
| 1981 |
1b82f4c1-2935-4e89-a221-bfd82f28c4d3 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Type II DMo The two best examples of localized amyloidosis are Alzheimer's disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus.o Localized amyloid deposition results from the production of a unique polypeptide, which contains an amyloidogenicsequence and is capable of forming a beta-pleated sheet structure necessary for these deposits to aggregate. o In type 2 diabetes it is the islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP) also known as amylin.o In Alzheimer's the unique peptide is the beta-amyloid protein (A beta). | Pathology | null | Amyloidosis is most commonly seen in ?
A. Maturity onset DM
B. Type I DM
C. Type H DM
D. HTN
| Type H DM |
c0c50ed9-efdb-415e-b1ce-fb175b5b4eed | The impulse coming from the S-A node to the A-V node arrives at 0.03 second. Then there is a total delay of 0.13 second in the A-V node and bundle system, allowing the impulse to arrive at the ventricular septum at 0.16 second | Physiology | Conducting System of Hea | What is the delay between the S-A node discharge and arrival of the action potential at the ventricular septum?
A. 0.80 second
B. 0.16 second
C. 0.12 second
D. 0.09 second
| 0.16 second |
76fe179d-4014-479f-b880-893b7a11e0dd | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tay-Sach's disease Ion channels provide pores for the passive diffusion of ions across biological membranes.They are often highly selective for a particular ionic species, leading to a classification into sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), calcium (Ca2+), chloride (Cl)and unspecific cation channels. Ion channels serve many functions apart from electrical signal transduction: chem ical signalling (Ca2+as a second messenger), transepithelial transport, regulation of cytoplasmic or vesicular ion concentration and pH, and regulation of cell volume. Therefore, ion channel dysfunction can cause diseases in many tissues.The list of human diseases known to be associated with defects in ion channels has grown considerably during the past years. This review gives a short overview of known channelopathies, and focuses in particular on recent findings and on channelopathies that have significantly advanced our physiological insight.Known ion channel diseasesChannelGene |DiseaseCation channels:CHRNA1 /ACHRACHRNA1* Myasthenia congenitaCHRNA4CHRNA4* Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsyCHRNB2CHRNB2* Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsyPolycystin-2PKD2* Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)CNGA3CNGA3* Achromatopsia 2 (color blindness)CNGB1CNGB1* Autosomal recessive retinitis pigmentosaCNGB3CNGB3* Achromatopsia 3Sodium channels:Navl.lSCN1A* Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures (GEFSp))Navl.2SCN2A* Generalized epilepsy with febrile and afebrile seizuresNavl.4 paralysisQSCN4A* Paramyotonia congenitaQ potassium aggressive myotonia, hyperkalemic periodicNavl.5SCN5A* Long-QT syndrome, progressive familial heart block type I, Brugada syndrome (idiopathic ventricular arrhythmia)SCN1BSCN1B* Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures (GEFSp))ENaCaSCNN1A* Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 1 (PHA1)ENaCbSCNN1B* PHAI, Liddle syndrome'2 (dominant hypertension)ENaCgSCNN1G* PHAI, Liddle syndromeQPotassium channels:Kvl.lKCNA1* Episodic ataxia with myokymiaKCNQl/KvLQTlKCNQ1Autosomal dominant long-QT syndrome (Romano-Ward)Autosomal recessive long-QT syndrome with deafness (Jervell-Lange-Nielsen)KCNQ2KCNQ2* BFNC (epilepsy), also with myokymiaKCNQ3KCNQ3* BFNC (epilepsy)KCNQ4KCNQ4* DFNA2 (dominant hearing loss)HERG/KCNH2KCNH2* Long-QT syndromeKirl.l/ROMKKCNJ1* Bartter syndromeQ (renal salt loss, hypokalemic alkalosis)Kir2.1/IRK/KCNJ2KCNJ2* Long-QT syndrome with dysmorphic features (Andersen syndrome)Kir6.2/KATpKCNJ11* Persistent hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia of infancy (PHHI)SUR1SUR1* PHHIKCNE1 /MinK/ISKKCNE1* Autosomal dominant long-QT syndrome (Romano-Ward) Autosomal recessive long-QT syndrome with deafness (Jervell-Lange-Nielsen)KCNE2/MiRPlKCNE2* Long-QT syndromeKCNE3/MiRP2KCNE3* Periodic paralysisCalcium channels:Cavl.lCACNA1S* Hypokalemic periodic paralysisQ, malignant hyperthermiaCavl.4CACNA1F* X-linked congenital stationary night blindnessCav2.1CACNA1A* Familial hemiplegic migraineQ, episodic ataxiaQ, spinocerebellar ataxia type 6QRyRlRYR1* Malignant hyperthermia, central core diseaseRyR2RYR2Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia type 2 Chloride channels:CFTRABCC7* Cystic fibrosisQ, congenital bilateral aplasia of vas deferensClC-1 CLCNl* Autosomal recessive (Becker) orC1C-5 CLCN5dominant (Thomsen) myotonia * Dent's diseaseQ (X-linkedC1C-7 CLCN7proteinuria and kidney stones) * Osteopetrosis (recessive orCIC-Kbdominant)CLCNKB* Bartter syndromeQ type IIIBarttin BSNDBartter syndrome typeQ IVGLRA1 (associated with sensorineural deafness)GLRA1 * Hyperekplexia (startle disease)GABAal GABRA1* Juvenile myoclonus epilepsyQGABAg2 GABRG2* EpilepsyGap junction channels:Cx26GJB2* DFNA3 (autosomal dominantCx30 GJB4hearing loss)DFNB1 (autosomal recessive hearing loss)DFNA3Cx31 GJB3* DFNA2Cx32 GJB1* CMTX (X-linked Charcot- Marie-Tooth neuropathy) | Pathology | Miscellaneous (Blood Vessels) | Which of the is not a channelopathy -
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Liddles syndrome
C. Tay-sach's disease
D. Hypokaelemic periodic paralysis
| Tay-sach's disease |
3aead569-8842-4abd-8a9a-7dba55c52d6b | Ans: c (Faucial) Ref: Ananthanarayan, 7th ed, p. 234Types of diphtheria are: NasalLaryngealFaucialOtiticConjunctivalGenitalCutaneousMost common variety is faucialMost dangerous variety is laryngeal | Microbiology | Corynebacterium | Most common variety of diphtheria is:
A. Nasal
B. Laryngeal
C. Faucial
D. Otitic
| Faucial |
f8f9517c-7549-4f55-8494-091b3f168943 | Ref. Robbins Pathology. 9th edition. Page. 1099
Medullary carcinoma thyroid
Gross
Single or multiple
Typically nonencapsulated
Solid, gray / tan / yellow, firm, may be infiltrative
Microscopy
Round, polygonal or spindle cells in nests, cords or follicles, defined by sharply outlined fibrous bands
Tumor cells have granular cytoplasm and uniform round / oval nuclei with punctate chromatin
Stroma has amyloid deposits from calcitonin, prominent vascularity with glomeruloid configuration or long cords of vessels, coarse calcifications
IHC – Calcitonin | Unknown | null | 40-year old female presented with neck swelling. Gross and histology is shown below. What is your diagnosis?
A. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
B. Hashimotos thyroiditis
C. Anaplastic carcinoma
D. Follicular carcinoma
| Medullary carcinoma thyroid |
43264ec4-9a45-43cd-a22f-2a24b90a57c9 | Screening is the search for unrecognized disease by means of rapidly applied tests or examinations in apprently healthy individuals. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The active search for unrecognized disease or defect in apparently health people using rapidly applied tests or procedures is -
A. Case finding
B. Monitoring
C. Screening
D. Active surveillance
| Screening |
dc2517ce-59a3-4d47-8eed-9419242a1038 | Fir tree pattern of distribution of lesions is characteristic of pityriasis rosea also called Christmas tree pattern. This typical pattern occur due to long axis of lesions developing along the tension lines running parallel to ribs on the trunk. Psoriasis lesions are distributed over the extensor aspects of body pityriasis versicolor lesions are distributed over the seborrheic areas as the malassezia yeast is lipophilic. pemphigoid lesions are mainly distributed over trunk and extremities. iadvl textbook of dermatology page 376 | Dental | Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis | Fir tree pattern lesion is seen in
A. Psoriasis
B. Pityriasis rosacea
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Pemphigoid
| Pityriasis rosacea |
253536f2-739c-4eb5-9c37-04c0827db6ee | In a clinical study using the primer of the original Gluma adhesive system, an aqueous solution of 5% glutaraldehyde and 35% HEMA, currently marketed as Gluma Desensitizer; the desensitizing solution was applied to crown preparations. The authors concluded that Gluma primer reduced dentin sensitivity through a protein denaturation process with concomitant changes in dentin permeability. This theory recently has been supported by studies using confocal microscopy, which found the formation of transversal septa occluding the dentinal tubules following application of Gluma Desensitizer. | Dental | null | Which of the following can be used for dentinal hypersensitivity?
A. GLUMA desensitizer
B. GLUTA desensitizer
C. HEMA
D. Glutaraldehyde
| GLUMA desensitizer |
cbab0322-861a-43e6-b38f-5a0416a37b0d | Corduroy cloth appearance/ jail bar sign (veical striations in veebrae)-Hemangioma Hemangioma result of the replacement of normal cancellous by thickened veical trabeculae surrounded by fat marrow or vascular lacunae in veical intraosseous hemangiomas. It is a benign tumor and consists of vascular channels. It is seen commonly in middle-aged patients The spine is the commonest site Note: Polka Dot sign seen on CT scan | Orthopaedics | Ohopaedics Q Bank | Corduroy appearance on X-ray is seen in?
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Hemangioma
D. Ewing's sarcoma
| Hemangioma |
4ead73cf-c592-4dac-8943-7e28ffd34818 | Ans. D. Jamaican vomiting sickness* The fruit given in picture is Ackee apple fruit seen in Africa.* The fruit contains a toxin hypoglycin that inhibit acyl-CoA dehydrogenase.* Lack of beta oxidation results in lack of ATP and acetyl-Co A, which decreases gluconeogenesis.* This result in hypoglycaemia.* No ketone bodies due to lack of beta oxidation. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | A child few hours after ingestion of a fruit, vomiting started later developed convulsion. In the hospital his blood glucose was very low, but no ketone bodies. The fruit he ingested was identified as a fruit found in Africa. What is the diagnosis?
A. MCAD deficiency
B. Zellweger syndrome
C. Carnitine deficiency
D. Jamaican vomiting sickness
| Jamaican vomiting sickness |
c9c952fd-f066-47b5-bdc9-cd0ea7c28269 | Cephalic index (C.I.) or Index of Breadth is used for determination of race. C.I. = Maximum breadth of skull/Maximum length of skull 100 Three types are seen, Caucasian, Mongolian, and Negro. The skull of an Indian is Caucasian with a few Negroid characters. Racial difference in the skull: Type of skull Cephalic index Race Dolichocephalic (long headed) 70-75 Pure Aryans, Aborigines and Negroes Mesaticephalic (medium headed) 75-80 Europeans and Chinese Brachycephalic (sho headed) 80-85 Mongolian Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 53. | Forensic Medicine | null | Cephalic index helps in identification of the following feature:
A. Race
B. Stature
C. Sex
D. Weight
| Sex |
7798489d-c9e9-44e9-889c-93e6b4fd61fe | ACUTE BACTERIAL PROSTATITIS MC organism- E.coli Catheterization and prostatic massage is contraindicated. MC used antibiotics are: TMP-SMX and Ciprofloxacin (Both are having better concentration in Prostatic tissue) Complication which commonly accompanies acute prostatis is Seminal vesiculitis. | Surgery | Prostate and seminal vesicles | Complication which commonly accompanies acute prostatitis:
A. Epididymitis
B. Orchitis
C. Seminal vesiculitis
D. Sterility
| Seminal vesiculitis |
86850a22-2074-48a5-9bcd-51dd371173e7 | MAGISTRATE INQUEST: Is done in death in police custody death in police firing death in the police investigation dowry death death in a psychiatric hospital exhumation rape REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 3. | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | Magistrate inquest is done in case of -
A. Death by suicide
B. Death by accident
C. Death in psychiatry hospital
D. Death in suspicious circumstances
| Death in psychiatry hospital |
d69fc2a7-c51b-4823-8751-d2bd3cf21524 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bronchial asthma o Creola bodies are a histopathologic finding indicative of bronchial asthma.o Found in a patient's sputum, they are ciliated columnar cells sloughed from the bronchial mucosa of a patient with asthma.o Other common findings in the sputum of asthma patients include.Charcot-Leyden crystalsCurschmann's SpiralsEosinophils | Pathology | Obstructive Lung Diseases | Creola bodies are seen in -
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Chronicbronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Bronchiectatsis
| Bronchial asthma |
25b5ea03-8e46-44bc-bced-c8bf1e7c9650 | Apnea is defined as cessation of respiration for 20 seconds with or without bradycardia and cyanosis or for shoer periods if it is associated with cyanosis or bradycardia. It is usually seen in preterm neonates. Apnea could be of three types central, obstructive or mixed type: Central apnea is characterized by the absence of diaphragmatic activity. Obstructive apnea is characterized by upper airway obstruction with persistent diaphragmatic activity. Mixed apnea has features of both central and obstructive types. Central and mixed types are the most common types of apnea that occur in premature infants. Ref: Respiratory Control and Disorders in the Newborn By Oomen P. Mathew page 115. | Pediatrics | null | How long does apnoea in premature infants lasts for?
A. 10 sec
B. 15 sec
C. 20 sec
D. 30 sec
| 20 sec |
50bf582a-c3eb-4d33-8aff-8542cee53333 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inertization * The process of inertization involves mixing waste with cement and water substances before disposal to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the waste migrating into surface water or groundwater. It is especially suitable for pharmaceuticals and for incineration ashes with a high metal content (in this case, the process is also called "stabilization").* For the inertization of pharmaceutical waste, the packaging should be removed, the pharmaceuticals ground, and a mixture of water, lime and cement added. A homogeneous mass is formed, and cubes (e.g. of 1 m) or pellets are produced onsite, subsequently, these can be transported to a suitable storage site. Alternatively the homogeneous mixture can be transported in liquid state to a landfill and poured onto the surface of previously landfilled municipal waste, then covered with fresh municipal waste.* The following are typical proportions (by weight for the mixture):# 65% pharmaceutical waste# 5% lime# 15% cement# 5% water | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste, disaster management and occupational health | Process of mixing waste with cement before disposal is known as -
A. Inertization
B. Controlled tipping
C. Sanitary landfill
D. Burial
| Inertization |
6f99c1dd-4e75-45b9-9f2c-b7b7d00e0cf9 | Apixaban is an oral, direct, selective factor Xa inhibitor with a rapid onset of action. Parenteral direct thrombin Inhibitors Oral direct thrombin inhibitor Oral factor Xa inhibitor Lepirudin Desirudin Argatroban Bivalirudin Dabigatran Rivaroxaban Apixaban Edoxaban (Undergoing regulatory review) Ref: Goodman and Gilman 13th edition Pgno: 262 | Pharmacology | Hematology | Apixaban is classified as
A. Parenteral Direct Thrombinn Inhibitor
B. Oral Direct Thrombin Inhibitor
C. Oral factor Xa inhibitor
D. Parenteral factor Xa Inhibitor
| Oral factor Xa inhibitor |
52981524-bd9f-4c46-a94f-bd859e6cdb93 | Accommodation:refers to gradual increase in threshold caused by prolonged slowly rising sub-threshold stimulus resulting from the inactivation of sodium channels. Adaptation: Decrease in response with continued application of stimulus. Some receptors of sensory system show this propey. Refractoriness: Is for the second stimulus; if applied during the refractory period of the first stimulus, the second stimulus fails to excite the tissue for one more time. (In accommodation, the tissue fails to respond even for the first time). Electrotonus: refers to passive spread of charge inside a neuron. | Physiology | Nerve | Increase in threshold level on applying a sub-threshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as:
A. Adaptation
B. Accommodation
C. Refractoriness
D. Electrotonus
| Accommodation |
ceddf762-e410-4835-85f8-5319a40af431 | Here note that the serum peak oestradiol is very high and she had received an injection as a pa of her treatment for infeility which may have been human chorionic gonadotropin. This resulted in ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. In Budd Chiari syndrome or Meigs syndrome oestradiol need not be this high. Note that thromboembolic complication may ensue ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. Risk factors for ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome Age>35 years Asthenic habitus Pregnancy PCOS Serum oestradiol > 4000 pg/ml Luteal phase hcg stimulation >35 follicles Ref: Oxfords Handbook of clinical specialities, 8th Edition, Page 311 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 24 year old underweight woman presents to you with progressive abdominal discomfo, dyspnoea, nausea and vomiting. Abdominal examination revealed cystic enlargement of ovaries. Relevant investigations results are as follows: Hematocrit - 57% Total count - 25000 /mm3 RFT -Impaired LFT - Mildly impaired USG - Massive ascites Serum peak oestradiol- 9000 pg/ ml X ray chest - shows pulmonary oedema History revealed that she had polycystic ovarian disease (PCOD) and was on treatment for infeility. She had received an injection last week from her infeility specialist. What is your diagnosis?
A. Budd Chiari syndrome
B. Meigs syndrome
C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
D. Pseudomyxoma peritonei
| Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome |
47b59926-79ad-4567-856b-fea934371909 | The risk of aneuploidy is increased with multiple miscarriages not attributable to other causes such as endocrine abnormalities or cervical incompetence.A 45, X karyotype results from loss of chromosome material and does not involve increased risks for nondisjunction errors.Similarly, induced ovulation does not result in increased nondisjunction, and hyper model conceptions (triploidy) do not increase the risk for future pregnancies. | Microbiology | All India exam | The risk of having a baby with Down syndrome for a 30-year-old woman increases
A. If her pregnancy has been achieved by induction of ovulation by menotropins
B. If she has had a previous baby with Turner syndrome (45,X)
C. If she has had a previous baby with triploidy
D. If she has had three first-trimester spontaneous aboions
| If she has had three first-trimester spontaneous aboions |
157f9a3b-5bec-4a67-937f-8714af3a0929 | Oxidation of lipid and protein poion of LDL is deleterious Oxidised LDL is taken up by scavenger receptors of the macrophages and leads to foam cell formation. This promotes atherosclerosis. Thus, it is impoant to prevent the oxidation of LDL. Vitamin E is the chain-breaking antioxidant that acts on the lipid phase of LDL and prevents lipid peroxidation. Other chain breaking antioxidants are Vit A, C; SOD; Uric acid Preventive antioxidants are glutathione peroxidase, catalase | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals | Uncontrolled phagocytosis of oxidized LDL paicles is a major stimulus for the development of foam cells and fatty streaks in the vascular subendothelium. This process may be inhibited by increased dietary intake of
A. vitamin E
B. vitamin B6
C. vitamin D
D. vitamin B12
| vitamin E |
e9c0e6ba-009f-45cd-a366-a7b4916b0e19 | Ligature mark is a type of pressure /imprinted/ contact/patterned abrasion.
Some important facts:-
Patterned abrasions are any impact or pressure abrasions which reproduce the pattern of the object causing it.
Thus an impact abrasion may be a pattern abrasion if it reproduces the pattern of the object, e.g. a pattern of radiator grill (after hit by a car) is a type of impact abrasion and at the same time, it is a patterned abrasion as it is reproducing the pattern of radiator grill.
Similarly, a pressure abrasion may be a patterned abrasion if it reproduces the pattern of the object, e.g. ligature mark in hanging or strangulation is a pressure abrasion and at the same time it is also a patterned abrasion. | Forensic Medicine | null | In the case of Hanging neck ligature marks are an example of
A. Contusion
B. Pressure abrasion
C. Laceration
D. Bruise
| Pressure abrasion |
61c8bc33-8a32-40ff-88ed-cae95f871eed | Ans: a. Methylation[Ref Lippincott 6th/709; Harrison 19th/101e-4, 18th/668, 679; Robbins 9th/893; Satyanarayan 3rd/359, 572; Lippincott 4th/460-62; Chatterjea Shinde 7th/346, 426; en. wikipedia. org/wiki/DNA_methylationjCpG islands: Methylation of cytosine by a methyltransferase is associated with silencing of the activities of ceain gene"-Lippincott 6th/709Cytosine in the sequence CG of DNA gets methylated to form 5'-methylcytosine. A major poion of CG (about 20%) in human DNA exists in methylated form. In general, methylation leads to loss of transcriptional activity & thus inactivation of genes.The role of epigenetic control mechanisms in the development of human cancer is unclear. However, a general decrease in the level of DNA methylation has been noted as a common change in cancer. In addition, numerous genes, including some tumor-suppressor genes, appear to become hypermethylated and silenced during tumorigenesis. | Biochemistry | null | Genes in CpP island is inactivated by:
A. Methylation
B. Metrylation
C. Ubiquitisation
D. Acetylation
| Methylation |
190469b8-00e2-44a5-9230-38f0fd550d96 | The primary structure is the sequence of the amino acids in a polypeptide chain.Secondary structure is the folding of sho (3- to 30-residue), contiguous segments of the polypeptide into geometrically ordered units.Teiary structure is the assembly of secondary structural units into larger functional units such as the mature polypeptide and its component domains.The specific biological function of each immunoglobulin class is determined by the teiary structure of the constant domains (Fc region). | Microbiology | All India exam | Immune complex formation, which structure of a protein is involved?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Teiary
D. Quaternary
| Quaternary |
30589b9b-870b-48c2-9512-ad9fcf68bd28 | Transplant rejection reactions have been traditionally categorized into:- Hyperacute Acute Chronic rejection based on the clinical tempo of the response and on the mechanisms involved. Acute rejection is characterized by an abrupt onset of azotemia and oliguria, which may be associated with fever and graft tenderness. A needle biopsy would be expected to show Interstitial infiltrates of lymphocytes and macrophages Edema Lymphocytic tubulitis Tubular necrosis. Neutrophilic vasculitis and fibrinoid necrosis (choice D) are seen in hyperacute rejection. Diagnosis: Acute graft rejection | Pathology | Organ Transplant / Graft | A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and end-stage renal disease receives a kidney transplant. Three weeks later, the patient presents with azotemia and oliguria. If this patient has developed acute renal failure, which of the following pathologic findings would be expected on renal biopsy?
A. Aerial intimal thickening and vascular stenosis
B. Glomerulosclerosis
C. Interstitial infiltrates of lymphocytes and macrophages
D. Neutrophilic vasculitis and fibrinoid necrosis
| Interstitial infiltrates of lymphocytes and macrophages |
51c8ad7f-0238-4952-92df-9fac677c008f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Group 'A' p-hemolytic streptococcus o Acute rheumatic fever is caused by streptococcus pyogenes - group-A Beta hemolytic streptococcus. | Microbiology | Streptococci | Causative agent of acute rheumatic fever -
A. Group 'A' b-hemolytic streptococcus
B. Group-B b-hemolytic streptococcus
C. Group-C b-hemolytic streptococcus
D. Group-D b-hemolytic streptococcus
| Group 'A' b-hemolytic streptococcus |
9a1d55da-3aab-4efe-b8ea-96372197b16e | In de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, there are 10 steps. The 4th step (addition of N3) is catalysed by the enzyme Formyl glycinamide ribonucleotide amidotransferase. This enzyme is inhibited by azaserine, an anticancer drug. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Azaserine inhibits?
A. Glycinamide ribonucleotide synthetase
B. Glycinamide ribonucleotide transformylase
C. Formyl glycinamide ribonucleotide amidotransferase
D. Inosine monophosphate synthase
| Formyl glycinamide ribonucleotide amidotransferase |
b1acd325-c12f-4234-acaa-b46dfcbca459 | Total feility rate represents the average number of children a woman would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years bearing children at the same rate as the women now in each age group.This measure gives an approximate magnitude of &;completed family size&;(Ref:- Park. 23rd ed. Page no 489) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | The magnitude of completed family size can be obtained from
A. Pregnancy rate
B. General marital feility rate
C. Gross reproductive rate
D. Total feility rate
| Total feility rate |
ed111c08-2532-4e7c-ac67-d8cee9473352 | (Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's Gastrointestinal and Liver Disease, Volume 1; P 575)Diabetic diarrhea is seen in middle aged type 1 poorly controlled diabetic patients and is characterized by intermittent, brown, watery and voluminous stools which is occasionally accompanied by tenesmus.In these patients, GI adrenergic function is impaired in autonomic neuropathy. Therefore, any adrenergic agonist may further stimulate the intestinal absorption of fluid and electrolytes.Drugs used areAlpha 2 adrenergic agonist: Clonidine. Acts as adrenergic antagonist which acts by reversing the peripheral adrenergic resorptive abnormalities.# Because of autonomic neuropathies, these patients will not experience postural hypotension.# Moreover, clonidine doesn't alter diabetic control or renal function.Somatostatin analogue: Octreotide. Useful in refractory diabetic diarrheaCodeine, Diphenoxylate with atropine, Loperamide:Used for symptomatic treatment.Anti-diarrheal agentsDrugsMain uses ;Tryptophan hydroxylaseinhibitor: Telotristat ethylSevere diarrhea due tocarcinoid tumorsEnkephalinase inhibitor-RacecadotrilAcute diarrheaSafe in childrenOctreotide* Severe secretory diarrhea due to GI tumors* Postgastrectomy dumping syndromeCrofelemer (plant derived)HIV/AIDS diarrheaAlosetron* Diarrhea-predominant IBS in womenBile acid sequestrants:Cholestyramine, Colesevelam, ColestipiolBile salt induced diarrheaClonidineDiabetic diarrheaMOR agonists* Diphenoxylate, difenoxin, LoperamideAcute diarrheaChronic diarrheaTraveler's diarrheaAntibiotics--empiric therapy* Fluoroquinolone* Ciprofloxacin* Levofloxacin* Norfloxacin* OfloxacinAlternative antibiotics* Azithromycin* Rifaximin* Acute diarrhea* Traveler's diarrhea* Azithromycin: Preferred treatment for children with traveler's diarrhea* Rifaxamin: Preferred for diarrhea predominant IBS | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | Drug of choice for diabetic diarrhea:
A. Duloxetine
B. Clonidine
C. Domperidone
D. Alosetron
| Clonidine |
62ad7d30-2032-414f-b6ce-af7b4ec40bb8 | * 30-35% children with UTI have VUR Recurrent UTI are observed in 30-50% children, usually within 3 months of the first episode. Predisposing factors for recurrent UTI include female sex, age below 6 months, obstructive uropathy, severe vesicoureteric reflux (VUR), habitual postponement of voiding (voiding dysfunction), constipation and repeated catheterization, e.g. for neurogenic bladder. | Pediatrics | Renal Tubular And Obstructive Disorders | The most common underlying anomaly in a child with recurrent urinary tract infection is:
A. Posterior urethral valves
B. Vesicoureteric reflux
C. Neurogenic bladder
D. Renal calculi
| Vesicoureteric reflux |
aff16eab-f4f4-4767-ac14-f16ab8dcdafb | 37 weeks Ref : Dutta book of obstetrics 8th Ed | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | A 27-year old primigravida presented to the OPD with pregnancy induced hypeension at 32 weeks of gestation. She had no other complications. On examination she had a blood pressure of 150/100 mm of Hg. Her blood pressure was later controlled with treatment. lf there are no complications, the pregnancy should be terminated at?
A. 40 completed weeks
B. 37 completed weeks
C. 36 completed weeks
D. 34 completed weeks
| 37 completed weeks |
0f368c6a-a0a3-4edd-bbba-0ea2f45fafe5 | In Colles fracture, Stiffness of the fingers (commonest) and malunion are common complications. Other complications seen occasionally are - Sudeck&;s osteodystrophy, carpal tunnel syndrome, and rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon. Maheswari 5th edition Pg: 114 | Orthopaedics | Metabolic and endocrine disorders | Commonest complication of Colles fracture
A. Stiffness of fingers
B. Malunion
C. Sudeck's osteodystrophy
D. Rupture of EPL tendon
| Stiffness of fingers |
efc4943a-35ac-491e-a3d2-a2082e121338 | ANSWER: (C) Bithermal caloric testREF: Dhingra 4th ed page 43FITZGERALD-H ALLPIKE TEST (BITHERMAL CALORIC TEST).In this test, patient lies supine with head tilted 30" forward so that horizontal canal is vertical. Ears are irrigated for 40 seconds alternately with water at 30degC and at 44"C (i.e. 7deg below and above normal body temperature) and eyes observed for appearance of nystagmus till its end point. Time taken from the start of irrigation to the end point of nystagmus is recorded and charted on a calorigram. If no nystagmus is elicited from any ear, test is repeated with water at 20degC for 4 minutes for labelling the labyrinth dead. A gap of 5 minutes should be allowed between two ears . Cold water induces nystagmus to opposite side and warm water to the same side (remember mnemonic COWS: Cold- Opposite, Warm-Same). Depending on response to the caloric test, we can find canal paresis or dead labyrinth, directional preponderance, i.e. nystagmus is more in one particular direction than in the other, or both canal paresis and directional preponderance | ENT | Assessment of Vestibular Function | Acronym "COWS" is used for?
A. Fistula test
B. Kobrak test
C. Bithermal caloric test
D. Cold-air caloric test
| Bithermal caloric test |
f194a53c-3ed3-4061-97db-c9ad779f7939 | Ans. (c) Cystic hygromaRef : Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 701CYSTIC HYGROMA/LYM PH ANGIOMA* Cystic hygromas are multiloculated cystic swelling Filled with clear lymph lined by endothelial cells* It results due to sequestration of a portion of the jugular lymph sac from the lymphatic system.* It is associated with Turners syndrome* Most cystic hygromas involve the lymphatic jugular sacs* MC site: Posterior neck region* Other common sites: Axilla, mediastinum, inguinal and retroperitoneal regions* Approximately 50% of them are present at birth.* It may show spontaneous regression* The cysts are filled with clear lymph and lined by a single layer of endothelium epithelium.Clinical Features* Usually manifests in the neonates or in early infancy (50% present at birth).* Prone to infection and hemorrhage within the mass.* Usually present as soft masses that distort the surrounding anatomy, can result in acute airway obstruction.* Swelling is soft and partially compressible and invariably increases in size when the child coughs or cries.* Characteristic features: Brilliantly translucentDiagnosis: MRI plays a crucial role in preoperative planningTreatment: Complete surgical excision is the preferred treatment.Also Know* Usually manifests in the neonates or in early infancy presents in 5th decade with firm, rubbery, mobile mass.* Branchial cyst most commonly seen in older children or adolescents. However, all branchial remnants are present at the time of birth. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Neck) | A newborn has a swelling in neck due to soft cystic mass with trans-illumination test positive. Diagnosis is?
A. Potato tumor
B. Branchial cyst
C. Cystic hygroma
D. Carotid body tumor
| Cystic hygroma |
281cc37b-8b28-4cf3-8553-03faeabbccc7 | Ref:Parks 25th edition pg 153 Predictive value reflects the diagnostic power of a test. Positive predictive value indicates the probability that a patient with a positive test result has, in fact, the disease in question. The more prevalent disease in a given population, the more accurate will be the predictive value of a positive screening test. As prevalence decrease, positive predictive value decreases. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Screening | Diagnostic power of the test is reflected by-
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Reliability
D. Predictivity
| Predictivity |
28b8ce33-9e9c-49ad-b80d-d15244e78c55 | FROG EYE SIGN Anencephaly on ultrasound On coronal ultrasound, the absence of the calvaria coupled with prominent orbits gives the fetus the 'frog eye' sign | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Intra Uterine Growth Restriction, Intrapaum and Antepaum Fetal Surviellance | 'Frog eyes' appearance on USG is seen in :
A. Spina bifida
B. Anencephaly
C. Cleft lip & palate
D. Down syndrome
| Anencephaly |
e61a38c5-5aee-41f9-872b-83652669ffc0 | Ligament of berry connects thyroid lobe to cricoid cartilage. | Anatomy | null | Ligament of Berry in thyroid fixes -
A. Hyoid bone
B. Cricoid cartilage
C. Trachea
D. Thyroid
| Cricoid cartilage |
b79da74d-4777-4bf2-97e2-43b661ac59e8 | An adrenocoical disorder caused by excessive secretion of aldosterone. ; primary aldosteronismPrimary aldosteronism is an adrenocoical disorder caused by excessive secretion of aldosterone and characterized by headaches, nocturia, polyuria, fatigue, hypeension, potassium depletion, hypokalemic alkalosis, hypervolemia, and decreased plasma renin activity; may be associated with small benign adrenocoical adenomas.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-364 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Conn syndrome is seen due to increased production of
A. Coisol
B. ACTH
C. CRH
D. Aldosterone
| Aldosterone |
09488ff6-997c-46cf-8348-992b33cfab9e | Refer Katzung 10th/919 Thalidomide used for morning sickness but later withdrawn due to teratogenic effects It is not extensively metabolized by microsomal enzymes It is now used for multiple myeloma It can also result in constipation ,peripheral neuropathy | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Thalidomide used for multiple myeloma is
A. Assosciated with diarrhea
B. Characterised by enantiomeric interconvesions
C. Metabolized extensively by hepatic CYP system
D. Safe for use in pregnant female's
| Characterised by enantiomeric interconvesions |
870d69e0-c084-4be7-9a0a-4513802e0557 | Ans. C. Dichorionic Diamniotic TwinsThe given USG shows 'Lambda sign' or 'Twin peak sign' suggestive of Dichorionic diamniotic pregnancyNote - Monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy will show presence of' T - Sign' | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Multiple Pregnancy | Which of the following is the possible cause for the given USG finding?
A. Monochorionic Monoamniotic Twins
B. Monochorionic Diamniotic Twins
C. Dichorionic Diamniotic Twins
D. Conjoint Twins
| Dichorionic Diamniotic Twins |
1ae6e5a8-e751-470e-b877-6a00ec229d4c | Pilocarpine and not atropine cause sphincter pupillae contraction Use of atropine in uveitis - Relieve spasm - Prevents formation of posterior synechiae - Reduce exudation - Inc blood supply to uvea Rx UVEITIS * DOC: Steroids * Immunosuppressant are used in case of non responding case/ steroid sparing effect is needed | Ophthalmology | Diagnosis and Treatment of Retina | Atropine is used in uveitis because of which of the following features
A. Cause spasm of ciliary muscle
B. Contracts the sphincter pupillae
C. decrease blood supply to uveal tissue
D. Increase blood supply to uveal tissue
| Increase blood supply to uveal tissue |
7d112c9a-69cb-427c-a48c-4fbb20249593 | Ans. C: CT Scan High Resolution Computed Tomography (HRCT) is the investigation of choice for the diagnosis of bronchiectasis. It shows dilated bronchi adjacent to vascular structure forming a signet ring shape. The diameter of the lumen of the bronchi is characteristically larger than that of the vascular structure. The dilatation of proximal airways alone may indicate the possibility of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Dilated bronchi with multiple small parenchymal nodules point towards possible infection with Mycobacterium avium complex. | Radiology | null | Investigation of choice for bronchiectasis is: September 2009
A. Chest X-ray
B. MRI
C. CT scan
D. V-P scan
| CT scan |
f9afb509-e2ce-4927-91ef-61b612a602b1 | Oxygen, nitrogen, air and helium → Gaseous form
Nitrous oxide, carbon dioxide and cyclopropane → Liquid in equilibrium with saturated vapour. | Anaesthesia | null | Gas is filled as liquid in cylinder in – a) O2b) CO2 c) N2Od) Cyclopropanee) Halothane
A. bcd
B. d
C. ab
D. ac
| bcd |
da3feb84-73eb-4be9-af32-c9544424c5cd | Peritrichous - Flagella all over
Ex:-
E.Coli
Proteus
Listeria. | Microbiology | null | Which bacteria has peritrichous flagella
A. V. Cholerae
B. Pseudomonas
C. Alcaligenes faecalis
D. Listeria
| Listeria |
f1403de7-63f8-4601-8aea-f51648589aa8 | Imatinib - first line drug for chronic phase CML,in blast crisis and second line therapy for chronic phase CML that has progressed on prior IFN-a therapy Imatinib is also first line drug for metastatic c-kit positive GIST. Nilotinib, Bosutinib, Dasatinib - used in treatment of resistant CML Dasatinib is also used for treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive ALL. Sunitinib-approved for the treatment of Advanced RCC and for the treatment of GIST after disease progression on or with intolerance to Imatinib. Methotrexate- DOC of choriocarcinoma Cisplatin - DOC- esophageal or gastric cancer Tamoxifen - DOC for ER positive breast cancer | Pharmacology | Targeted Anticancer Drugs and Immunosuppressants | Drug of choice for treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia is
A. Imatinib
B. Cisplatin
C. Methotrexate
D. Tamoxifen
| Imatinib |
ea9ffee5-8a0e-49d1-8b97-df9863fd8ed8 | .Harlequin color change is a cutaneous condition seen in newborn babies characterized by momentary red color changes of half the child, sharply demarcated at the body&;s midline. This transient change occurs in approximately 10% of healthy newborns. It is seen usually between two and five days of bih. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | Skin change in newborn that disappear spontaneously
A. Harlequins skin change
B. Mangolian spots
C. Erytherma toxicum
D. Lymphoma
| Harlequins skin change |
648c7797-3c74-43d7-bc68-27e8d4b644e8 | The given clinical history and the stool microscopy showing the egg is suggestive of Ancylostoma duodenale. Eggs of both Ancylostoma Duodenale (old world hookworm) and Necator Americanus(new world hookworm) are identical. The characteristics of hookworm eggs are: Oval or elliptical, colorless non-bile stained Has a thin transparent hyaline shell membrane Segmented ovum - 4 to 8 blastomeres There is a clear space between segmented ovum and eggshell. Eggs float in the saturated salt solution. Humans are infected when filariform larvae in moist soil penetrate the skin or subcutaneous tissue. The average blood loss of the host per worm per day is 0.2 mL with Ancylostoma duodenale and 0.03 mL with Necator americanus. Reference: Paniker&;s Textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition | Microbiology | miscellaneous | A 20-year-old patient presents to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain, weakness since 2 months. The stool microscopy reveals the following. The most probable causative agent is
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
| Ancylostoma duodenale |
8714166c-7b0b-47c6-88a8-3c5aa53c9e47 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lungs o Heart failure cells are hemosiderin containing macrophages in alveoli that are seen in left ventricular failure and denotes previous episodes of pulmonary edema. | Pathology | Misc. | Heart failure cells are seen in -
A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Lungs
D. Brain
| Lungs |
48ed7128-2b0d-4cf5-861c-534a11bbc4c3 | Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease. 8flt editionExplanation:(See the following table) | Pathology | Hypersensitivity Reactions: Immune-Mediated Injury | Immune complex deposition is the basic underlying pathology in which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
| Type 3 |
4a9ce7e9-2bb8-4963-888d-5df043a436ac | (Ref: Katzung Pharmacology, 14th ed. pg. 127-28)Organophosphates are irreversible Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor which is well absorbed from the skin, lung, gut, and conjunctiva--thereby making them dangerous to humans and highly effective as insecticides.Due to inhibition of acetylcholinesterase enzyme, acetylcholine levels are increased and the patient therefore presents with cholinergic symptoms: (Mn: SLUDGE-FB)Salivation, Lacrimation, increased urination, Diarreha, GI distress, Emesis, Faciculation, BradycardiaDOC for this poisoning: ATROPINEOXIMES (Pralidoximes, Di-Acetyl monoxime) are known as AchE enzyme reactivators. These are used only in organophosphate poisoning.Pin-point pupil is seen in poisoning with: (Mn: POMP)Pontine hemorrhage, Organophosphate, Morphine and Phenol poisoning | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | A 45 year male presents with delirium, increased body temperature, dryness, dilated pupils and HR 130/min. Possible diagnosis:
A. Carbamate poisoning
B. Organophosphate poisoning
C. Atropine poisoning
D. Cocaine poisoning
| Atropine poisoning |
0be62463-06de-4d8b-9a29-0bb720edf495 | NSAIDs inhibit Prostaglandin production including PGI2 which causes vasodilatation Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Autacoids | The therapeutic efficacy of antihypeensive drugs is blunted by NSAIDs because of :
A. Cause sodium excretion
B. Increase in the clearance of antihypeensive drugs
C. Decrease in the absorption of antihypeensive drugs
D. Decrease in the synthesis of vascular prostacyclin
| Decrease in the synthesis of vascular prostacyclin |
9b46dcf3-40a5-4a2c-8682-e37f321252af | The mitral valve corresponds to the S1 heart sound produced during systole. The aortic and pulmonary valves correspond to the S2 heart sound produced during diastole. The tricuspid valve also corresponds with the S1 heart sound. The aortic valve, however, corresponds with the S2 sound, so this answer would be incorrect. | Anatomy | Thorax | A 35-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with dyspnea. During physical examination her S1 heart sound is very loud. Which of the following valves is most likely defective?
A. Mitral valve
B. Aortic
C. Pulmonary
D. Aortic and pulmonary
| Mitral valve |
0cb12bca-066b-454a-80d8-a1a48ec209d3 | Styloid process divides the pharynx into anterior and posterior compament. Trismus occurs in infection of anterior compament whereas toicollis (due to spasm of paraveebral muscles) occurs in the infection of posterior compament. | ENT | null | Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess is due to spasm of:
A. Masseter muscle
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Temporalis
| Medial pterygoid |
3b31d8db-2955-4077-b8ec-0b9c8297c71d | (Refer: PL Dhingra, Textbook of Ear, Nose, Throat, 6th edition, pg no: 24)
Otosclerosis (Otospongiosis)
Disease of bony labyrinth where the normal dense enchondral bone is replaced by foci of irregularly laid spongy bone.
50% patients have positive family history, inherited as autosomal dominant
White races are affected more than negroes
Females are more common than males
Pregnancy aggravates otosclerosis
Age of onset is around puberty
Types of otosclerosis | Unknown | null | A 27 years pregnant female with flamingo pink color tympanic membrane comes with history of traumatic ossicular discontinuity. Type of curve expected on tympanometry:
A. As
B. Ad
C. B
D. C
| As |
4b70d1e5-f821-4003-a195-dfb751453c6e | Hypospadias is classified according to the position of the meatus into: * Glanular hypospadias. This is most common type and does not usually require treatment. The normal site of the external meatus is marked by a blind pit, although it occasionally connects by a channel to the ectopic opening on the underside of the glans.. * Coronal hypospadias. The meatus is placed at the junction of the underside of the glans and the body of the penis. * Penile and penoscrotal hypospadias. The opening is on the underside of the penile shaft. * Perineal hypospadias. This is the most severe abnormality. The scrotum is bifid and the urethra opens between its two halves. There may be testicular maldescent, which may make it difficult to determine the sex of the child.Reference : page1362-63 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 25th edition | Surgery | Urology | Most common type of hypospadias is ?
A. Glandular
B. Penile
C. Scrotal
D. Perineal
| Glandular |
74f2d3dd-5316-4589-a5e6-2a0c3abce9d1 | Acyclovir is the drug of choice for treatment of herpetic infection of eye, skin and genitals. It acts selectively against the herpes. It penetrates the intact corneal epithelium and stroma and produces therapeutic concentration in the aqueous humor. Vidarabine is active against a number of DNA viruses and is indicated in the treatment of herpes keratitis and viral keratoconjunctivitis. It is effective against herpes simplex superficial keratitis but ineffective in stromal disease. It acts by interfering with early steps in the synthesis of DNA. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology By H. V. Nema, page 100. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following is the drugs of choice for corneal herpes?
A. Idoxuridine
B. Acyclovir
C. Vidarabine
D. Amantadine
| Acyclovir |
fb8bdd12-fede-4ebe-a2fd-94bf8442d73c | Ans is 'a' i.e., CPK Investigations for Dermatomyositiso Muscle enzymes CPK Elevation (mostsensitive), aldolase elevation, myoglobin levation, 24 urinary creatine excretion.o Autoantibodies ANA antibodies, anti Jo-i (20% cases), anti- Mi-2 (5-10%)o Others ESR, RF factor, skin & muscle biopsy, EMG | Skin | Autoimmune Skin Disorders | Dermatomyositis test of choice -
A. CPK
B. 24hr urine creat
C. SGOT
D. SGPT
| CPK |
ff158414-2d6f-4eaf-976e-19c3a625484a | Ans. (a) HypoglycemiaRef: Sabiston 20th edition page 1459Paraneoplastic Syndrome:* Less than 1% cases present with paraneoplastic syndrome most commonly Hypercalcemia, Hypoglycemia, Erythrocytosis.* Hyper Cholesterolemia is the MC Paraneoplastic Syndrome > Hypoglycemia. | Surgery | Liver | Most common paraneoplastic syndrome in HCC
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypertension
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Erythrocytosis
| Hypoglycemia |
cdd7e1e5-fa37-4be6-b5b9-6d63e095c6e1 | Each amino acid have two ionizable group: (r) c-carboxyl group (-COOH), and (ii) c-amino group (-NHr). Beside these two groups, some amino acids have special ionizable groups. e.g. -SH of cysteine, imidazole of histidine. Dissociation constant (pka) is the value of pH at which any ionizable group of amino acid is in 50% ionized form and 50% non-ionized form. Thus, each amino acid has two pka values :- i) pk1 - pH at which 50% of amino acid molecules have a-carboryl group in ionized form (COO-) and 50% molecules have it in unionized form (COOH). ii) pk2 - pH at which 50% of amino acid molecules have a-amino group in ionized form (NH3+) and 50% molecules have it in unionized form (NH2). iii) The value of pk-l and pk-2 is different for different amino acids. But it ranges between 3.5-4.0 for pk-l (i.e. pka of a-carboxyl group is 3.5-4.0) and 8.0-9.0 for pk-2 (i.e. pka of a-amino group is 8.0-9.0). iv) Beside a-carboxyl and a-amino group, some amino acids contain special ionizable group, which will provide one more pka value (pk3). For example pka of imidazole group of histidine ranges between 6.5-7.4. That means somewhere between pH 6.5-7 .4 ,50% of histidine molecules in a solution will have imidazole group in ionized form and 50% molecules will have in unionized form. v) Thus, imidazole group of histidine has pka value closest to physiological pH. | Biochemistry | null | Amino acid with dissociation constant closest to physiological pH is -
A. Serine
B. Proline
C. Histidine
D. Threonine
| Histidine |
79ad239e-1109-4152-8a1c-b68f97a853b3 | Ophthalmic aery The internal carotid aery begins at the level of the upper border of the thyroid cailage as one of the terminal branches of the common carotid aeryIts course is divided into four pas:Pas of ICABranches(A) Cervical paNo branches(B) Petrous pa* Caroticotympanic a.* Pterygoid a.(C) Cavernous pa* Cavernous branches (to trigerninal ganglionwalls of cavernous and inferior petrosalsinuses and contained nerves) * Sup. Hypophyseal a. * Inf. Hypophyseal a. * Meningeal a.(D) Cerebral pa* Ophthalmic a. * Anterior cerebral a. * Middle cerebral a. * Post. communicating a. * Ant. choroidal a. | Anatomy | null | Which is not a branch of cavernous pa of internal carotid aery
A. Cavernous branch
B. Inferior hypophyseal
C. Meningeal aery
D. Ophthalmic aery
| Ophthalmic aery |
edfee157-a46e-4d7b-ae7a-af91cd58b662 | Delusion is psychotic symptom, can be associated with schizophrenia, depression with psychotic symptoms, mania with psychotic symptoms. anxiety disorder is a type of neurosis here the patients will have insight they will present with palpitations, breathlessness, ruminations, worries, distress and fear of impending doom. Diagnostic criteria for Severe Depression with psychotic symptoms: A severe depressive episode which meets the criteria given for severe depressive episode without psychotic symptoms and in which delusions, hallucinations, or depressive stupor are present. The delusions usually involve ideas of sin, povey, or imminent disasters, responsibility for which may be assumed by the patient. Reference: ICD-10 Classification of Mental and Behavioural Disorders, World Health Organization, Geneva, 1992 | Psychiatry | Symptoms and signs in psychiatry and classification | Delusion is not seen in
A. Depression
B. Anxiety
C. Schizophrenia
D. Mania
| Anxiety |
4570b371-9dd1-4cf7-a957-16b0d2ffc530 | HIV is an enveloped icosahedral sphere. It has 2 identical, non complementary strands of RNA and 3 enzymes (reverse transcriptase, integrase and protease) packed in a cone shaped protein core. This core is surrounded by a protein coat called capsid. This capsid along with the enclosed nucleic acid is called nucleocapsid. Capsid acts as a protective shell around the nucleic acid core and helps to introduce the viral genome into host cell by adsorbing readily to host cell surfaces. Most RNA viruses are single stranded except reoviridae which is double stranded. Most DNA virus are double stranded except poxviridae which is single stranded. Ref: HIV and AIDS: Basic Elements and Priorities By S. Kahikeyan, Pages 41-3 | Microbiology | null | The genome of HIV virus contains which of the following?
A. Single stranded DNA
B. Single stranded RNA
C. Double stranded DNA
D. Double stranded RNA
| Single stranded RNA |
f672c17d-1148-4312-b307-324d43a46e0d | (a) Source: GAS 970-971; GA 492-493 Pharyngeal (branchial) cleft cysts are the most common congenital cause of a neck mass. They are epithelial cysts that arise anterior to the superior third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle (1) from a failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft in embryonic development. The second arch grows caudally and, ultimately, covers the third and fourth arches. The buried clefts become ectoderm-lined cavities that normally involute. Occasionally this process is arrested and the entrapped remnant forms an epithelium-lined cyst, in some cases with a sinus tract to the overlying skin. (2) Many branchial cleft cysts are asymptomatic; others may become tender, enlarged, or inflamed, or they may develop abscesses that rupture, resulting in a purulent draining sinus to the skin or pharynx. Surgery is indicated in these cases. | Anatomy | Head & Neck | A 3-year-old boy is brought to the outpatient clinic with a swelling in the side of his neck. Physical examination reveals a congenital mass of tissue anterior to the superior third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is asymptomatic, non-painful, and soft. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Branchial cleft cyst
B. Ruptured sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Lymph node infl ammation
D. Torticollis
| Branchial cleft cyst |
04e30115-8312-4a36-a6d7-dbebc87bde2f | Ans is 'a' i.e., Autosomal dominant Summary of Renal cystic disease InheritancePathologic featuresClinical features of ComplicationsAdult polycystic kidney diseaseAutosomal dominantLarge multicystic kidneys, liver cysts, berry aneurysmsHematuria, flank, pain, urinary tract infection, renal stones, hypertensionChildhood polycystic kidney diseaseAutosomal recessiveEnlarged cystic kidneys at birthHepatic fibrosisMedullary sponge kidneyNoneMedullary cysts on excretory urographyHematuria, urinary tract infection, recurrent renal stonesFamilial juvenile nephronophthisisAutosomal recessiveCorticomedullary cysts, shrunken kidneysSalt wasting, polyuria, growth retardation, anemiaAdult-onset meduallry cystic diseaseAutosomal dominantCorticomedullary cysts, shrunken kidneysSalt wasting, polyuriaSimple cystsNoneSingle or multiple cysts in normal-sized kidneysMicroscopic hematuria | Pathology | Kidney | What is the mode of inheritance of APKD?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked recessive
D. Mitochondrial inheritance
| Autosomal dominant |
ed877b51-a8b0-49ac-8787-43c38f393eea | The ability of the stomach to relax as its volume increases is essential to its reservoir function. The process by which this occurs is referred to as receptive relaxation, and results in a drop in gastric pressure immediately after eating that persists until all solids have been emptied from the stomach. It has two phases: True receptive relaxation, which is a response that occurs coincident with swallowing. Accommodation, a relaxation of the stomach that is mediated by the activation of gastric mechanoreceptors that are activated as the wall of the stomach is stretched by the entry of the meal. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 27. Gastrointestinal Motility. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | Physiology | null | Receptive relaxation is a characteristic of the following pa of gastro intestinal tract:
A. Stomach
B. Colon
C. Jejunum
D. Rectum
| Stomach |
b8b955ab-4c2f-40b7-8128-d6c624d9f1ae | A i.e. Factor XIIIFactor XIII (13) also known as fibrin stabilizing factor, when gets activated (by thrombin) cause formation of covalent cross linkages and provide three dimensional strength to fibrin meshwork (stbilization)QFactor XIII (a) conves a loose mesh of interlacing fibrin strands to a tightly dense aggregate by formation of multiple covalent bonds between fibrin monomers and cross linkages between fibrin fibers. This also requires calcium. | Physiology | null | Which of the following coagulation factors causes cross linking and stabilization of clot.
A. Factor XIII
B. Thrombin
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
| Factor XIII |
e81871b7-1d9c-4836-832c-8031e85d5944 | Ether Day," Friday 16 October 1846 marks the first successful demonstration of the inhalation of ether vapour as a means of overcoming pain of surgery by the dentist William Thomas Green Moon Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e 561 | Physiology | All India exam | ETHER DAY is celebrated on
A. 20-Oct
B. 16-Oct
C. 20-Nov
D. 16-Nov
| 16-Oct |
3f03077b-38f7-477f-a44c-a5fef6f64b38 | Like almost all other portions of the visual cortex, the primary visual cortex has six distinct layers. Also, as is true for the other sensory systems, the geniculocalcarine fibres terminate mainly in layer 4. | Physiology | null | Most afferent fibers from the lateral nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex is
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2 & 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5 & 6
| Layer 4 |
fa172468-6b8e-4eea-b136-5e86b7ee5dcc | Hypokalemic periodic paralysis is due to calcium channel mutations. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis, in which serum potassium drops during a paralytic episode, is the most common of the inherited periodic paralyses. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 366 | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Which ion channel is effected in hypokalemic periodic paralysis?
A. K+
B. Na+
C. CI-
D. Ca2+
| Ca2+ |
c598384f-985a-4de5-971d-cf6ba7cb9df9 | For explaining the causation of such non-communicable diseases, in paicular, McMahon and Colleagues (McMahon and Pugh T. Epidemiology: Principle and methods 1st Ed, 1970) forwarded the theory of "epidemiological web of causation" Ref: McMahon and Colleagues. Text book on Public Health and Community Medicine pg: 19. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | The theory of "epidemiological web of causation" was forwarded by
A. Robe Koch and Louis Pasteur
B. McMahon and Colleagues
C. Henle-Koch
D. John Stua Mill
| McMahon and Colleagues |
1678c7e9-8148-4257-9d22-05bc7b8bb4a6 | This man has dermatomyositis, a paraneoplastic phenomenon of many cancers. The most common tumors associated with DM have been bronchogenic carcinomas, ovarian cancers, breast cancers, and melanoma but many others have occurred. The malignancy may antedate or postdate the myositis. Older age makes malignancy more likely. The extent of the workup for malignancy, if DM is the presentation, depends on clinical circumstances, but history and physical examination, not x-rays, are the cornerstones of evaluation. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | A 63-year-old man presents with weakness and hemoptysis, but no fever, cough, or sputum. He has a 60-pack-per-year history of smoking. The chest x-ray (CXR) reveals a lung mass with mediastinal widening. On examination, there is a blue purple discoloration of the upper eyelids and erythema on his knuckles. He has proximal muscle weakness rated 4+/5, normal reflexes, and sensation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his muscle weakness?
A. SLE
B. scleroderma
C. dermatomyositis (DM)
D. polyarteritis
| dermatomyositis (DM) |
75628e87-c633-4d6b-8c8e-68916fd44ff4 | It is d-isomer quinidine is used as an antiarrhythmic drug. Quinidine blocks myocardial Na channels. Class 1a group of drugs- quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide Ib: Lidocaine, phenytoin Ic-encainide, flecainide Ref: KD tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Quinidine exes its action on the hea by
A. Ca2+ channel blockade
B. Na+ channel blockade
C. K+ channel opening
D. Cl- channel opening
| Na+ channel blockade |
717e0ca6-1712-4e05-a3d4-452a3d9a4cb7 | Vitamin A Repeat from - May 08 & May 07 Antioxidant mechanisms within lens - Superoxide dismutase - Glutathione peroxidase - Catalase - Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) - Vitamin E | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following does NOT scavenge free radicals in the lens?
A. Vit A
B. Vit C
C. Vit E
D. Catalase
| Vit A |
196bd06c-f0f2-48c0-a38e-872d7239a8db | None of the ovarian reserve tests currently in use are accurate predictors for pregnancy With current methods, basal FSH concentration is simplest and most widely used to test ovarian reserve. Levels greater than 10 IU/L (10-20 IU/L) have high specificity (80-100%) for predicting poor ovarian response to ovulation. Serum FSH levels vary significantly across the cycle hence FSH is best measured during early follicular phase ( cycle day 2-4). Basal serum estradiol concentration has little value as ovarian reserve test. AMH: Antimullerian hormone is produced from preantral and small antral follicles hence AMH levels are gonadotropin independent and exhibit little variation within and between menstrual cycles. AMH threshold levels (0.2-0.7ng/ml) has 40-97% sensitivity, 70-92% specificity, 22-88% PPV and 97-100% NPV for predicting poor response to stimulation (<3 follicles or < 2-4oocytes). Reference: chapter 27; Female infeility; Clinical gynecologic endocrinology - eighth edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological diagnosis and operative surgery | Best indicator of Ovarian reserve :
A. AMH
B. Estradiol
C. LH
D. FSH/LH Ratio
| AMH |
abfcb3fd-ad28-4155-abd0-def8d2de879e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ia * The basis of mortality data is death certificate. For ensuring national and international comparability, it is necessary to have a uniform and standardized system of recording and classifying deaths. For this purpose WHO has recommended international death certificate.* Consist of four lines:-# Line Ia: Disease or condition directly leading to death# Line Ib: Antecedent/ underlying cause# Line Ic: Main antecedent / underlying cause# Line II: Other significant conditions contributing to death but not related to disease! condition causing it* Example of a death certificate:-# Line Ia: Renal failure# Line Ib: Diabetic nephropathy# Line Ic: Diabetes mellitus# Line II: Hypertension* Concept of underlying cause, Line Ic is the most important line in death certificate, thus also known as 'Essence of Death Certificate\ | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of Health and Disease | Which line represent the disease directly causing death, in death certificated -
A. Ia
B. Ib
C. Ic
D. II
| Ia |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.