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03d116b2-2ecc-4555-8aa4-44bec4882258 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mop up: Vaccinate kids left with routine vaccination o WHO's measles elimination strategy comprises a three part vaccination strateev. i.e.i) Catch-upOne-time, nationwide vaccination campaign targeting usually all children aged 9 months to 14 years regardless of history of measles disease or vaccination status.ii) Keep-up -Routine services aimed at vaccinating more than 95% of each successive birth cohort.in) Follow-up -Subsequent nationwide vaccination campaign conducted every' 2-4 years targeting usually all children bom after catch-up campaign.o The priorties of countries persuing measles control includeImprove routine vaccination coverage level to at least 90%.Active coverage of more than 90% in catch-up and follow-up campaigns or active coverage of more than 90% with routine second dose of measles vaccine.Establish case - based surveillance with laboratory confirmation of suspected cases and virus isolation from all chains of transmission.Conduct supplementary vaccination campaign together with administration of vitamin 'A' in high risk areas.o In India, measles is a major cause of morbidity' and a significant contributor to childhood mortality. Prior to the immunization programme, cyclical increase in the incidence of measles were recorded every' third year. With the increase in immunization coverage levels, the intervals between cyclic peaks has increased and the intensity' of the peak minimized.o Epidemic of measles occur ifproportion of susceptible children is > 40%o If measles is introduced in a virgin community, it infects > 90% of children,o Eradication of measles requires vaccine coverage >96% | Social & Preventive Medicine | Measles | Not a strategy for measles elimination -
A. Mop up: Vaccinate kids left with routine vaccination
B. Catch up: One time nation wide vaccination 9 month- 14 years old children
C. Keep up: Vaccinate > 95% successive birth
D. Follow up: Nationw ide vaccination every 2-4 years
| Mop up: Vaccinate kids left with routine vaccination |
a5a9d3ca-91dc-4d39-805d-ce37e90e3223 | Angiogenesis is a requirement for the continued growth of cancers, whether primary or metastatic. In the absence of new vessels to supply the nutrients and remove waste products, malignant tumors do not grow larger than 1 to 2 mm in diameter. In general, causes of tumor cell death in situ include (1) programmed cell death (apoptosis); (2) inadequate blood supply, with consequent ischemia; (3) a paucity of nutrients; and (4) vulnerability to specific and nonspecific host defenses. The CT scan shows central necrosis (umbilication) in most of the metastatic tumor nodules. None of the other choices are likely causes of tumor necrosis.Diagnosis: Metastatic cancer | Pathology | Neoplasia | A 65-year-old man dies after a protracted battle with meta- static colon carcinoma. At autopsy, the liver is filled with multiple nodules of cancer, many of which display central necrosis (umbilication). Which of the following best explains the pathogenesis of tumor umbilication in this patient?
A. Biphasic tumor
B. Chronic inflammation
C. Granulomatous inflammation
D. Ischemia and infarction
| Ischemia and infarction |
189909e3-3985-4ec3-bf79-ba17a0612d1b | High risk gestational trophoblastic disease.
FIGO in 2000 devised a staging system for categorisation of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia into good prognostic (low risk) and bad prognostic (high risk) disease.
Good prognosis (Low risk)
Short duration (< 4 months)
Serum β-hCG < 40,000 mIU/ml
Metastasis limited to lung and vagina
No significant prior chemotherapy
No preceding term pregnancy
Bad prognosis (Low risk)
Long duration (> 4 months)
Serum 6-hCG > 40,000 mIU/ml
Metastasis to brain or liver
Unsuccessful prior chemotherapy
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia following term pregnancy.
Also if we have a look at the WHO prognostic scoring system: GTN following a term pregnancy comes under high risk.
Remember:
High risk GIN occurs after term pregnancy .
GTN occurs most commonly after H mole. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A case of Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develops after:
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Full term pregnancy
C. Spontaneous abortion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
| Full term pregnancy |
dd66bfe0-b1de-424d-aad9-74b3cf36e75a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Humerus Cast/ Brace Used In Hanging cast & "Sugar tong" or Coaptation splintsCylinder castFracture shaft humerusFracture patellaMinnerva cast, Halo deviceCervical spineRisser's cast, Milwaukee braceBoston braceScoliosisPalvic harness, Von Rosen splint,Ilfeld or Craig splintCongenital (Developmental)Dysplasia of HipBroom stick (Petrie) cast, Snyder sling, Pattern - bottom brace, Toronto brace with universal joint, Birmingham brace, Tachdjian brace (trilateral hip abduction ohosis), Newington brace, Atlanta scottish Rite braceLegg Calve- PehesDisease | Surgery | null | Hanging cast is used for?
A. Femur
B. Radius
C. Humerus
D. Tibia
| Humerus |
4231f925-95a9-4303-807f-eed46b94d16a | IgA anti-endomysial antibodies are found in 90% coeliac patients. They are a very specific & sensitive marker for coeliac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis. The anti-endomysial antibody test has been suggested to be 98% sensitive and 98% specific for clinical or subclinical coeliac disease Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 805 | Medicine | G.I.T | Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and sepcificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease -
A. Anti-endomysial antibody
B. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody
C. Anti-gliadin antibody
D. Anti-reticulin antibody
| Anti-endomysial antibody |
059a8364-a8fd-4182-b64a-b15f216b0994 | ANSWER: (B) Sodium hypochloriteREF: Park 20th ed p. 118, Ananthnarayan 8th e p. 35Halogens (hypochlorides)Cheap, effective and act by release of free chlorine and effective against viruses.Chlorine-releasing agents are chemicals disinfectants which are effective against blood-borne viruses and are rapid in action.They are considered the disinfectant of choice in the event of a spillage of blood or body fluid.Rapidly inactivated by organic matter.Chlorine-releasing agents must never be mixed with acids or used on spills of urine as chlorine gas will be released.Dilutions should not be mixed with any other cleaning agents, or with hot water but only made up with cold or tepid waterCholrine concentrations:Strength Uses10,000 parts per million (ppm) Decontamination of spillages of blood and/or body fluids stained with blood1,000 parts per million (ppm) Disinfection of surfaces following contamination with other body fluids e.g commodes (to be used after cleaning) | Unknown | null | Sterilization and disinfection of blood spills is done by:
A. Formaldehyde
B. Sodium hypochlorite
C. Tincture iodin
D. Phenols
| Sodium hypochlorite |
77683f0a-bcfb-4551-86a7-1af1a33c577c | Osteosarcoma - New bone is laid down along the blood vessels within the tumor growing centrifugally giving rise to a 'Sun -ray appearance' on x -ray. Chondrosarcoma- "Speckled" calcification on x-ray Ewings sarcoma - Second most common malignant. Classic x-ray appearance is the "onion skin" | Radiology | Musculoskeletal Radiology | "Sunray appearance" on x-rays is suggestive of :
A. Chondrosarcoma
B. Metastatic tumor in the bone
C. Osteogenic sarcoma
D. Ewing's sarcoma
| Osteogenic sarcoma |
bfad2c71-8ce7-49ff-97c1-1d4c4351e160 | CMV retinitis is the most common ocular infection in AIDS patient.
CMV retinitis
Presentation :
Presents as a painless progressive loss of vision.
Patients may also complain of 'blurred vision', Floaters and scintillations.
Opthalmoscopic findings : (Bilateral)
Characteristic retinal appearance ofperivascular haemorrhages and retinal exudates - Harrison
Cotton wool spots appearing as a result of focal ischaemia of nerve fibre layer are characteristic
Risk factors :
The majority of cases of CMV retinitis occur in patients with CD4+ count < 50/ 1.
Patients with CD4+ count < 100 / 1 should undergo an ophthalmic examination every 3-6 months.
Treatment:
Therapy for CMV retinitis consists of intravenous ganciclovir
Forscarnet (cidofovir is an alternative). | Medicine | null | A HIV patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular haemorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis -
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human herpes virus 8
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Epstein-Barr (EB) virus
| Cytomegalovirus |
3307fa1f-e0ff-4ed9-abe4-690c7e26d3e0 | Ans. is b i.e. Subserous Ref. Dutta Gynae 4/e, p 256 Calcareous degeneration usually involves the subserous fibroids with small peduncle or myomas of postmenopausal women. It is usually preceded by fatty degeneration. There is precipitate of calcium carbonate or calcium phosphate within the tumour, when whole of the tumour is conveed into a calcified mass it is termed as 'womb stone'. Also Know : Most common type of fibroid * Interstitial (Intramural) To sta with all fibroids are * Interstitial (Intramural) Most common fibroid to undergo malignant change * Interstitial (Intramural ) Most common fibroid to cause Retention of urine * Anterior cervical fibroid & central cervical fibroid Torsion is most common in * Large pedunculated subserous fibroid Fibroid causing pseudo Meig's syndrome * Subserous fibroid Most common symptom of fibroid * Menorrhagia Inversion is seen in * Fundal fibroid M/C symptom of fundal fibroid * Menorrhagia Fibroid with maximum symptoms * Submucous fibroid. Wandering or parasitic fibroid * Subserous fibroid. Lantern on dome of St. Paul * Cervical fibroid. Pseudo cervical fibroid * Fibroid polyp. Most common fibroid to undergo calcerous degeneration * Subserous fibroid | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Calcareous degeneration occurs most commonly in which type of fibroids :
A. Submucous
B. Subserous
C. Interstitial
D. Cervical
| Subserous |
94945444-c185-48b1-b524-663e537484a9 | The history and the figure shows the characteristic 'Radiation recall syndrome'. It is caused by Doxorubicin (Anthracyclines). | Pharmacology | Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs | A patient was given radiotherapy for head and neck cancer. After 6 months chemotherapy was staed. The patient presented with the features shown in Figure after sta of chemotherapy. It is likely due to which drug?
A. Doxorubicin
B. Cisplatin
C. Imatinib
D. Methotrexate
| Doxorubicin |
46a34b21-5086-4adb-a3ae-00053ea40b43 | Ans. is `d' i.e., Direct injury to endothelial cellso Delayed prolonged leakage is caused either by the direct effect of injurious agent or by cytokine mediated endothelial retraction. | Pathology | null | Delayed prolonged bleeding is caused by -
A. Histamine
B. Leukocyte dependent injury
C. IL-1
D. Direct injury to endothelial cells
| Direct injury to endothelial cells |
a678d9e6-29df-4b8a-8823-13d88e92c7e7 | Ans. B. Skene's glandIn female human anatomy, Skene's glands or the Skene glands known as the lesser vestibular glands, paraurethral glands, or homologous femaleprostate are glands located on the anterior wall of thevagina, around the lower end of the urethra. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Gland homologous to prostate in females is?
A. Ganer's gland
B. Skene's gland
C. Baholin's gland
D. Cowper's gland
| Skene's gland |
0b24099d-27fc-47a8-80d9-c2c7e913514f | guttate or eruptive psoriasis: More commonly seen in children and young adults with a shower of small papules and plaques all over the trunk and limbs. Lesions occur as an abrupt eruption following upper respiratory tract infection or tonsillitis ,especially due to beta henolytic streptococci tiny rain drop like erythematous papules, eruted abruptly bilaterally symmetrical in a centripetal fashion associated wit HLA Cw6 prognosis - good resolve in 3-4 months. treating streptococcal infection does not alter the progress of disease IADVL textbook of dermatology , page 1032 | Dental | Papulosquamous disorders | This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and may follow a streptococcal sore throat -
A. Guttae
B. Stable plaque
C. Pustular
D. Ahropathic
| Guttae |
d0bdabf2-3861-4e45-9fbc-9d3393fa4acd | Ans. A: Lymphatics Filariasis due to Wucheria bancrofti is endemic to Southern Asia. While the laboratory diagnosis of filariasis have been conventionally made by demonstrating microfilariae in peripheral blood smear, these have also been occasionally diagnosed by cytological study of the material obtained by fine needle aspiration of various organs. Microfilariae occasionally may be found in variety of locations including thyroid, soft tissue, bone marrow, epididymis, lung, bronchoalveolar fluid, breast, gastric brushing, chylous urine and hydrocele fluid. Microfilaria is seen in blood only for all filarial infections except for Onchocerca volvulus and Mansonella streptocerca whose microfilaria area also found in skin. It's the adult parasite which resides in lymphatics (Wucheria and Brugya sp.) | Microbiology | null | Microfilaria is not seen in: September 2009
A. Lymphatics
B. Hydrocoele fluid
C. Chylous urine
D. Blood
| Lymphatics |
d7f53d50-6455-4c6d-9c34-5497efb468a9 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Supraglottic carcinoma Clinical features of supraglottic carcinoma Pain on swallowing is the most frequent initial symptom -- Devita 7th/e p. 698 Mass in neck may be the first sign. Hoarsness is a late symptom. Pain may be referred to ear by vagus nerve and auricular nerve of arnold. Late symptoms include foul breath, dysphagia and aspiration. Large tumors can cause "hot potato voice/muffled voice". Hemoptysis, sore throat, shoeness of breath, stridor, otalgia and aspiration pneumonia may also occur. | ENT | null | Hot potato voice is characteristic of ?
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Glottic carcinoma
C. Subglottic carcinoma
D. Supraglottic carcinoma
| Supraglottic carcinoma |
6b4f0681-8559-4b40-b702-21083db35b52 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cystic hygroma Cystic hygroma Usually present in neonate or early infancy. Filled with lymph Commonly present in posterior cervical area, axilla, mediastinum, parotid, floor of mouth. Soft & paially compressible Size increase during crying, coughing Brilliently transilluminant Sometimes size increase with age or during infection. Treatment is complete excision. | Pediatrics | null | 10 days old baby develops swelling left in posterior cervical area, bluish in appearance, increase in size on crying and brilliently transilluminant
A. Parotiditis
B. Hemangioma
C. Cystic hygroma
D. Lymph node
| Cystic hygroma |
90590d0a-d2b4-4e02-abe3-1e800421ad74 | Nucleus is the largest cellular organelle, surrounded by a double membrane nuclear envelope.
The outer membrane is continuous with the membranes of endoplasmic reticulum.
At certain intervals, the two nuclear membranes have nuclear pores with a diameter of about 90 nm.
These pores permit the free passage of the products synthesized in the nucleus into the surrounding cytoplasm.
Nucleus contains DNA, the repository of genetic information.
Eukaryotic DNA is associated with basic protein (histones) in the ratio of 1 : 1 to form nucleosomes.
An assembly of nucleosomes constitutes chromatin fibres of chromosomes.
Key Concept:
Nucleus contains DNA, the repository of genetic information.
Eukaryotic DNA is associated with basic protein (histones) in the ratio of 1 : 1, to form nucleosomes.
Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry, Satyanarayana | Biochemistry | null | Which of the organelles contain DNA?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosomes
| Nucleus |
088bc431-af69-42cd-8b03-8b7231621f00 | TARDY ULNAR NERVE PALSY : may develop after: malunited fractures of the lateral humeral condyle in children, - displaced fractures of the medial humeral epicondyle, -dislocations of the elbow, - - contusions of the nerve. - In malunion of the lateral humeral condyle, cubitus va develops; in this deformity the ulnar nerve is gradually str and can become incompletely paralyzed. -also may develop in patients who have a shallow ulnar groov the posterior aspect of the medial humeral epicondyle,. - hypoplasia of the humeral trochlea, . - an inadequate fibrous arch that normally keeps the nerve in the groove, resulting in recurrent subluxation or dislocation of the .nerve. ref : maheswari 9th ed | Orthopaedics | Peripheral nerve injuries | Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is associated with which of the following deformity ?
A. Cubitus varus
B. Cubitus valgus
C. Dislocation
D. Colles fracture
| Cubitus varus |
de9424da-a70f-42bb-bb16-4349692eb223 | Pressure on a nerve can cause loss of conduction in large diameter motor,touch& pressure fibre ( ie group A fibre) ,while pain sensation (group c fibre) remains relatively intact. Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology;25th edition; pg: 95. | Physiology | Nervous system | Group A nerve fibers are most susceptible to
A. Pressure
B. Hypoxia
C. Local anaesthetics
D. Temperature
| Pressure |
613c3423-5400-4636-b005-3b0a5060c8ea | Ans. is 'd' i.e., AS with ARo AS causes pressure overload and AR causes volume overload.o So, left ventricular stress will be maximum when there is combined AR with AS, that results in both volume and pressure overload. | Pathology | null | Left ventricular stress is maximum in-
A. MS with MR
B. MS with AR
C. MR with AR
D. AS with AR
| AS with AR |
031bac60-3713-4805-b928-3317c8b7557f | Each ligament begins at the lateral angle of the uterus, runs forwards and laterally, passes through the deep inguinal ring, traverses the inguinal canal and merges with the areolar tissue of the labium majus after breaking up into thin filaments. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , sevenh edition , volume 2 , pg .no., 425. | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Which of the following is a content of inguinal canal ?
A. round ligament of uterus
B. broad ligament
C. broad ligament
D. mackenrodt's ligament
| round ligament of uterus |
883dc6a3-9824-45f3-8730-31288865f522 | Contrast enhanced echocardiography is the preferred screening test for HPS. It uses agitated saline or indocyanine green to produce microbubbles at least 15 mm in diameter that are then injected intravenously. Under normal circumstances, these microbubbles are trapped in the pulmonary microvasculature and then absorbed. In patients with intracardiac or intrapulmonary shunting, microbubbles are seen in the left hea. Differentiation between intracardiac and intrapulmonary shunting is based on the timing of when these bubbles are found in the left hea. In intracardiac right-to-left shunts, these bubbles appear in the left hea in 3 heabeats after they appear in the right hea. In intrapulmonary shunts, these bubbles appear in 4-6 heabeats. Ref: Recent Advances in Hepatopulmonary Syndrome ; Ying-Wen, Page - 2 | Radiology | null | Contrast ECHO using agitated saline is used to diagnose:
A. Hepatopulmonary syndrome
B. Poopulmonary hypeension
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Acute myocardial infarction
| Hepatopulmonary syndrome |
29f72674-1f3c-45b3-8372-4ba28498a4dc | In non stressed, healthy cells, p53 has a sho half-life (20 minutes), because of its association with MDM2, a protein that targets it for destruction. When the cell is stressed, for example by an assault on its DNA, p53 undergoes post-transcriptional modifications that release it from MDM2 and increase its half-life. Unshackled from MDM2, p53 also becomes activated as a transcription factor. Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 7. | Pathology | null | What is the half-life of p53 protein in normal cells?
A. 20 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 12 hours
D. 1 day
| 20 minutes |
279d7da1-ec96-4296-b8ef-eea418edd41f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cervicofacial Actinomycosis* Most cases are due to A. israelii.* Young males (10-30 years) are most commonly affected* Actinomycosis is a chronic granulomatous infection. It is characterized by the development of indurated swellings, suppuration and the discharge of sulphur granules.* There are following types of actinomycosis1) Oro-cervicofacial# This is the most common type and the most commonly involved site is angle of jaw causing 'lumping jaw'.2) Other types# These are abdominal, thoracic, pelvic (associated with IUCD), CNS, musculoskeletal, actinomycetoma and disseminated. | Microbiology | Mycology | Most common type of actinomycosis -
A. Cervicofacial
B. Thoracis
C. Abdomen
D. Brain
| Cervicofacial |
6018e84c-11e9-41a7-b504-fcdc11c2a796 | Ans. (b)Blood culture is a less sensitive method for diagnosis of Leishmania. It is a slow method and takes a long time (about 1 month). About 1-2 ml of blood is taken aseptically from a vein and diluted in 10 ml of citrated saline solution. The cells are then either allowed to settle at 22degC in an incubator overnight or centrifuged. The cellular deposit is then inoculated into the water of condensation of NNN medium and incubated at 22degC for 1 to 4 weeks. At the end of each week, a drop of condensation fluid is examined for promastigote forms. | Microbiology | Parasitology | Leishmania is cultured in media:
A. Chocolate agar
B. NNN
C. Tellurite
D. Sabourauds
| NNN |
b0092639-59f4-4291-80a9-afbd55f3edef | Premature adrenarche is defined as growth of axillary and pubic hair prior to age of 8 years. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Premature adrenarche is growth of axillary and pubic hair prior to the age
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
| 8 years |
a6fe1f50-6aa2-402c-939f-2e9cc2d12ef2 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., GLUT 5* Fructose absorption along the apical side of enterocyte is by GLUT 5 transporter. It is an example for facilitated passive diffusion* Fructose absorption along the basolateral side of enterocyte is by GLUT 2 transporter. That is again an example of facilitated passive diffusionGlucose absorption* Glucose absorption along the apical side is by Sodium Glucose cotransporter 1 (SGLT1)* It is by secondary active transport mechanism* This is primarily why glucose is added to oral rehydration solution.* The purpose of giving oral rehydration solution is to replenish the sodium loss. But we don't just add salt to the solution, we also add glucose. The rationale is that when glucose gets reabsorbed, along with that sodium also gets reabsorbed.* Glucose absorption along the basolateral side is through GLUT 2 transporter* GLUT 2 transporter is an example of facilitated passive diffusion* Galactose absorption also follows the same route. (With the help of SGLT1 along the apical side and GLUT 2 along the basolateral side)Fructose absorption* Fructose absorption along the apical side is by GLUT 5 transporter.* GLUT 5 transporter is an example of facilitated passive diffusion* Fructose absorption along the basolateral side is by GLUT 5 transporter or through GLUT 2 transporter* Thus Fructose absorption along both apical side and basolateral side is by facilitated passive diffusion | Biochemistry | Carbohydrates | Which GLUT transporter facilitates Fructose absorption along the apical side of enterocyte?
A. GLUT 1
B. GLUT 2
C. GLUT 4
D. GLUT 5
| GLUT 5 |
20f97ff9-21be-42c8-aa11-2e5c4452917c | Dose Response Curve (DRC) - Hyperbola shape Log Dose Response Curve ( log DRC )- Sigmoid shape Three impoant Parameters a) Potency- Potency tells which drug produces more effect on lower dose. Left side graph is of more potent drug as compared to right side graph b) Efficacy- Efficacy tells maximum effect of a drug. It is seen from height of DRC. c) Slope- Slope tells the safety of the drug as more is the slope less is the safety. Quantal DRC - It tells about effect of drug in population Therapeutic index (TI) of a drug = LD50 / ED50 - TI is index of measure of safety. | Pharmacology | Pharmacodynamics | The presence of a drug on left side in the Log DRC tells about its
A. Potency
B. Safety
C. Efficacy
D. Therapeutic index
| Potency |
6d05def6-3194-4fed-8004-bd9daa5ae82c | Rideal - walker test / phenol coefficient test - abilty to sterilize the suspension of S.typhi. | Microbiology | null | Rideal - walker test is used to compare the efficiency of a disinfectant with that of phenol for the ability to kill
A. S typhi
B. S paratyphi
C. Pseudomonas
D. E.coli
| S typhi |
c5fbee8e-b3e6-4742-aad9-7b0a655d2397 | Ans. A i.e. Rickets Rickets Pathology: Defective mineralization of osteoid/ bones & cailage Features: - Craniotabes, - Wide open fontanelle, - Rachitic rosary (Enlargement of costochondral junction) X-ray appearances: - Widening & thickening of epiphysis, Cupping & fraying of metaphysis | Surgery | null | Rachitic rosary is a feature of: March 2013 (c)
A. Rickets
B. Scurvy
C. Osteomalacia
D. Osteoporosis
| Rickets |
423840aa-4bf6-4506-a631-28deb34def5c | d. X-linked dominant(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 593, Ghai 8/e p 641)It is an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance, all the female offsprings of a diseased male (XY) receive abnormal X chromosome & express the disease, whereas none of the male offsprings of diseased father have the disease. | Pediatrics | Genetics And Genetic Disorders | Which of the following is the most likely inheritance pattern in the pedigree given below?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Mitochondrial
C. Autosomal recessive
D. X-linked dominant
| X-linked dominant |
3137b45e-5038-4eeb-a7b6-0fbe5f5f2872 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chemotherapy induced emesis * Aprepitant is used for chemotherapy induced nausea & vomiting (CINV), and post- operative nausea & vomiting (PONV).* Aprepitant has been explained in previous sessions | Pharmacology | Anti-Cancer | Which of the following is aprepitant used for?
A. Chemotherapy induced emesis
B. Chemotherapy induced hair loss
C. Chemotherapy induced diarrhea
D. Chemotherapy induced weight loss
| Chemotherapy induced emesis |
c459fc7f-5ee2-4070-b7b6-1979223de8f4 | The most common seizures in late infancy and early childhood are febrile seizures.The overall prevalence is 3-5% and Patients often have a family history of febrile seizures or epilepsy.Febrile seizures usually occur between 3 months and 5 years of age and have a peak incidence between 18 and 24 months.The typical scenario is a child who has a generalized, tonic-clonic seizure during a febrile illness during the rising phase of the temperature curve (i.e., during the first day).A simple febrile seizure is a single, isolated event, brief, and symmetric in appearance.Complex febrile seizures are characterized by repeated seizure activity, duration >15 minutes, or by focal features.Complex febrile seizures have a risk of 2-5% of recurrence.Ref: Harrison; 19th edition | Medicine | All India exam | The commonest type of seizure in a newborn is
A. Clonic
B. Tonic
C. Febrile
D. Myoclonic
| Febrile |
4c752db2-a761-4983-9595-999709ac1e22 | Torus aoicus is a bulge in the right atrial wall anterosuperiorly above the membranous septum. It is superior to the coronary sinus and anterior to the fossa ovalis. It represents the deeper and anterior surface of the posterior sinus and cusp of the aoic valve. | Anatomy | null | Torus aoicus is an impression in the cavity of?
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
| Right atrium |
05616bfd-586a-40a6-a9e7-0267e9f0a270 | Ref Robbins 9/e p172 Angelman syndrome, as might be expected, also can result from uniparental disomy of parental chromosome 15. The Angelman syndrome gene (imprinted on the paternal chro- mosome) is now known to encode a ligase that has a role in the ubiquitin-proteasome proteolytic pathway (Chapter 1). This gene, called, somewhat laboriously, UBE3A, is expressed primarily from the maternal allele in specific regions of the normal brain. In Angelman syndrome, UBE3A is not expressed in these areas of the brain--hence the neurologic manifestations. Prader-Willi syndrome, unlike Angelman syndrome, probably is caused by the loss of function of several genes located on chromosome 15 between q11 and q13. These genes are still being fully characterized. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Genomic imprinting is seen in
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Down's syndrome
C. Angelman syndrome
D. Hydatidi form mole
| Angelman syndrome |
e0c51b6e-50ce-4928-913e-502ee9b03961 | Ans. B. Constructional praxisHalstead Reitan Battery Test:* Trail-Making Test, parts A and B (measures time to connect a sequence of numbers (Trail-Making, Part A) or alternating numbers and letters (Trail-Making, Part B).* Halstead Category Test (including seven subtests which form several factors: A Counting factor (subtests I and II), a Spatial Positional Reasoning factor (subtests III, IV, and VII), a Proportional Reasoning factor (subtests V, VI, and VII), and an Incidental Memory factor (subtest VII)- Tactual Performance Test- Seashore Rhythm Test- Speech Sounds Perception Test- Finger Oscillation Test- Sensory Perceptual Examination- Lateral Dominance Examination | Psychiatry | Child Psychiatry | In the halstead Reitan battery which of the following is not a component for assessment?
A. Rhythm
B. Constructional praxis
C. Finger oscillation
D. Tactual performance
| Constructional praxis |
eef38a9c-88b6-4e36-87d5-a834685f4372 | In vitro, hypokalemia not only prolongs the QT interval in the absence of drug but also potentiates drug block of ion channels that results in QT prolongation. Drugs (i.e., certain antiarrhythmics and erythromycin) and electrolyte disorders (i.e., hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia) can prolong the QT' interval and predispose to torsades de pointes.
Hypercalcemia can result in significant electrocardiographic changes, including bradycardia, AV block, and short QT interval; changes in serum calcium can be monitored by following the QT interval
Hyperkalemia, or drugs such as flecainide) tend to increase QRS duration. Conditions that prolong phase 2 (use of amiodarone, hypocalcemia) increase the QT interval.
Hypocalcemia typically prolongs the QT interval (ST portion), while hypercalcemia shortens it | Medicine | null | QT depression is seen in ?
A. Hypokalaemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Hypocalcaemia
D. Hypercalcaemia
| Hypokalaemia |
5147623d-107e-4958-8af9-d29577935432 | The skin lesion shown in the picture is shagreen patch, which has orange peel like appearance. skin manifestations of Tuberous sclerosis | Pediatrics | Neurocutaneous syndromes | What is the name of this skin lesion seen in Tuberous sclerosis?
A. Adenoma sebaceum
B. Ash leaf macules
C. Confetti skin lesions
D. Shagreen patches
| Shagreen patches |
5f7e7b92-4708-489d-ae9a-384b22ec7562 | Ans is A i.e. Veins SEPS or Subfascial Endoscopic Perforator Surgery is endoscopic technique for management of chronic venous insufficiency. In this technique the incompetent perforating veins are ligated using subfascial endoscopic method. Incompetence of the perforating veins connecting the superficial and deep venous systems of the lower extremities has been implicated in the development of venous ulcers. The classic open technique described by Linton in 1938 for perforator vein ligation has a high incidence of wound complications and has largely been abandoned. In SEPS endoscope is inseed through the skin and the superficial fascia after inflating the subfascial space with CO2. The perforators are then identified and doubly clipped and divided | Surgery | null | 'SEPS' is a procedure used for:
A. Veins
B. Aeries
C. Lymphatics
D. AV fistula
| Veins |
e93a0c9b-c9e0-4f33-a31e-d93db8a08029 | Ans. (b) Acute viral HepatitisUSG Abdomen shows presence of starry sky pattern of the liver, diagnostic of acute viral hepatitis | Radiology | Abdominal Radiography | 40 year old intravenous drug abuser presents with Vomiting, Jaundice and Right Hypochondrium pain. USG abdomen shows presence of?
A. Amoebic liver abscess
B. Acute viral hepatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
| Acute viral hepatitis |
9a31c822-80e6-4488-b132-554af9ef47f5 | The skeletal suppos of larynx is provided by Six cailages, 3 out of which are paired (so there are total 9 cailages). i) Unpaired :- Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis. ii) Paired :- Arytenoid, Corniculate, cuneiform. | Anatomy | null | Unpaired laryngeal cailage ?
A. Arytenoid
B. Corniculate
C. Cuneiform
D. Epiglottis
| Epiglottis |
41a3fb92-9b0d-4046-93c2-f21b42101e0e | ANSWER: (B) EthambutolREF: KDT 6th edition page 703Bacteriostatic anti tubercular drugs are:ThiacetazoneEthionamideEthambutolPASCycloserine | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Which of the following is a bacteriostatic Anti tubercular drug?
A. Streptomycin
B. Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampicin
| Ethambutol |
ee6d5f52-020e-4ba5-a0e6-4b97085d85a2 | - Drinking water, also known as potable water, is water that is safe to drink or to use for food preparation. - 'Potable water' is defined as: zero coliforms in any amount of drinking water. - Bacteriological indicators of water quality in India: Coliforms -Overall best indicator. Fecal streptococci - Indicate recent contamination of drinking water. Clostridium perfirenges - Indicate remote contamination of drinking water. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment | Potable water is defined as :-
A. Zero coliforms per 100 ml
B. One coliform per 100 ml
C. 10 coliforms per 100 ml
D. 100 coliforms per 100 ml
| Zero coliforms per 100 ml |
ec7b3fe8-5ac7-4a39-bd49-6fa652ef1cf1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Selenium* Selenium would be the mineral most specifically related to antioxidant function.* There are at least 35 antioxidant Se proteins and include selenoprotein P, five glutathione peroxidases and three thioredoxin reductases (TrXRl). Most recent research indicates TrXRl reduces harmful ROS and facilitates gene expression of other cytoprotective antioxidants* Selenium as part of glutathione peroxidase (GSH-Px) is the 2nd line of defense as the enzyme destroys peroxides and hydroperoxides.* Apart from selenium, Mn, Cu, Zn, Fe help to maintain the efficient levels of endogenous antioxidants in the tissues. | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals | Which element is present in Glutathione peroxidase?
A. Selenium
B. Zinc
C. Magnesium
D. Copper
| Selenium |
5a019db2-49be-4ff7-abd6-049c764f10d1 | Ans- A IOC for Meckel's Diverticulum is Technetium 99m pertechnate scan. Sensitivity is 90 %for pediatric population whereas for adults it is 50-55%only. If the Tech scan is normal,then go for enteroclysis | Unknown | null | Technetium - 99 scan is used for diagnosis of -
A. Meckel's diverticulum
B. Appendix
C. Berry aneurysm
D. Cold abscess
| Meckel's diverticulum |
dc067114-65d1-4d25-97f1-25214c11d493 | Capillary refill is a simple test that assesses how quickly blood returns to the skin after pressure is applied.
It is carried out by applying pressure to the pink part of the nail bed of the thumb or big toe in a child and over the sternum or forehead in a young infant for 3 seconds.
The capillary refill time is the time from release of pressure to complete return of the pink color.
It should be less than 3 seconds. | Pediatrics | null | Capillary refill time in child with shock is ?
A. >1 second
B. >2 second
C. >3 second
D. >4 second
| >3 second |
05426ef7-9d97-4907-b16f-f2f40cc5899a | Bupivacaine & levo-bupivacaine can be used for spinal, epidural, infiltration and peripheral nerve block. | Anaesthesia | null | Levo–bupivacaine is administered by which of the following route –
A. Nasogastric
B. Epidural
C. Intravenous
D. Intra-theccal
| Epidural |
d1bf8eec-cf7e-4e89-892a-c2eb1c8e0ba2 | Hypoparathyroidism
When the parathyroid glands do not secrete sufficient PTH, the osteocytic resorption of exchangeable calcium decreases and the osteoclasts become almost totally inactive. As a result, calcium release from the bones is so depressed that the level of calcium in the body fluids decreases.
When the parathyroid glands are suddenly removed, the calcium level in the blood falls from the normal of 9.4 mg/dl to 6 to 7 mg/dl within 2 to 3 days and the blood phosphate concentration may double. When this low calcium level is reached, the usual signs of tetany develop. Among the muscles of the body especially sensitive to tetanic spasm are the laryngeal muscles.
Trousseau sign
Trousseau sign is the spasm of the hand that is developed after 3 minutes of arresting the blood flow to lower arm and hand. The blood flow to lower arm and hand is arrested by inflating the blood pressure cuff 20 mm Hg above the patient’s systolic pressure.
Chvostek sign
Chvostek sign is the twitch of the facial muscles, caused by a gentle tap over the facial nerve in front of the ear. It is due to the hyperirritability of facial nerve.
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 1014 | Physiology | null | Trousseau's sign and chovstek's signs are positive in:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
| Hypoparathyroidism |
2c2e9f9b-b0ee-4988-aaea-e887ce486341 | ANSWER: (D) CalciumREF: Guyton's physiology 22nd edition page 459Conversion of Prothrombin to ThrombinFirst, prothrombin activator is formed as a result of rupture of a blood vessel or as a result of damage to special substances in the blood. Second, the Prothrombin activator, in the presence of sufficient amounts of ionic Ca++t causes conversion of Prothrombin to thrombin (Figure 36- 2). Third, the thrombin causes polymerization of fibrinogen molecules into fibrin fibers within another 10 to 15 seconds. | Physiology | Blood: Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation | Ion which is needed for conversion of Prothrombin to thrombin is?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
| Calcium |
6b02cc83-9347-4324-bc5c-c989816d7f22 | Haemophilia B or Christmas disease is due to the deficiency of factor 9. | Physiology | null | Christmas disease is due to the deficiency of the following clotting factor:
A. Factor 8
B. Factor 9
C. Factor 11
D. Factor 12
| Factor 9 |
a780a724-14e9-4acc-b139-b7fede5c545d | A i.e. Endothelium Nitric oxide is synthesized from arginine by the enzyme NO synthetase (NOS) in endothelial cellsQ. It causes vasodilation. | Physiology | null | Nitric Oxide is produced in:
A. Endothelium
B. Plasma
C. Platelets
D. Serum
| Endothelium |
9f1f65d3-e255-4e94-af7f-52a4fefc718e | Prematurity is the commonest cause of breech presentation. The chance for breech presentation gradually decrease towards term. Breech presentation is the commonest malpresentation. In this, lie is longitudinal and podalic pole is present at the pelvic brim. Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics by D.C Dutta, 6e page 374-5. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which among the following is the commonest cause for breech presentation?
A. Prematurity
B. Contracted pelvis
C. Oligohydromnios
D. Hydrocephalus
| Prematurity |
d63f2890-aaae-4fd2-a00c-fc7595d2b2b0 | Ans. (c) 3 yearsRef: Bailey and Love 27th Edition, Page 125* Congenital hydrocele may resolve spontaneously as the processus vaginalise continues to obliterate up to age of 3 years. If not resolves in 3 years - operate by herniotomy. | Surgery | Urethra & Penis | Surgical treatment of congenital hydrocele is done at the age of:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
| 3 years |
2bc49c31-710c-43a6-b460-14880171e109 | Spermicides
"Spermicides are contraceptive chemical agents. They comprise,of a chemical capable of destroying sperm, incorporated into an inert base. The commonly used spermicidal agents contain nonionic surfactants which alter sperm surface membrane permeability, causing osmotic changes resulting in killing of sperm. Most of the spermicides contain nonoxynol-9 which is the best for this purpose." Ref. Current Concepts in Contraception and Women Health by Jaypee Publication p 32
Spermicidal agents kill the sperms before it enters to the cervical canal. They are available as foam tablets, soluble pessaries, creams, jellies, or as films.
Contents are:
Nonoxynol - 9 (N - 9)
Menfegol
Benzalknonium chloride.
Octoxynol
Enzyme inhibiting agents
Failure rate is 20-25 WY 100 woman years when used alone. When used in conjunction with a mechanical barrier, they give a reliable contraceptive effect.
Note:
Recent evidences indicate spermicides are not effective in preventing cervical gonorrhoea, Chlamydia or HIV infection. In addition, frequent use of spermicides containing N-9 has been associated with an increased risk of HIV transmission.
Advantage 24 is a new contraceptive gel which contains nonoxynol. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Spermicidal agents are:a) Nonoxynolb) Menfegolc) Progestasertd) Mirena
A. ac
B. a
C. ab
D. bc
| ab |
f70b8604-f5b4-4016-8cfd-40b112351700 | Due to the presence of elastic fibers in the Windkessel vessels, there is an elastic recoil during the diastole (they are stretched during systole), which results in a forward flow and an aoic pressure wave called as diastolic pressure. Entry of blood in the aeries causes the walls of these aeries stretched., and pressure increases to 120mmHg. At the end of the systole when the left ventricle stops ejecting blood and aoic valve closes ,the elastic valves of the aery maintains a high pressure even during diastole. A so- called insisura occurs in aoic pressure curve when the aoic valve closes--caused by sho period of backward flow of blood,immediately before the closure of valve,followed by sudden cessation of backflow. | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | During diastole, the aerial pressure is maintained by
A. Elastic recoil of aoa
B. Musculature of aeries
C. C onstriction of capillaries
D. Contraction of left ventricle
| Elastic recoil of aoa |
03b02ed9-9bbc-4b48-b1c5-864f204d6ee1 | Breast milk is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids, necessary for myelination of nervous system. It also contains omega 2 and Omega 6 fatty acids which are necessary for formation of prostaglandin and cholesterol, required as base for steroid hormones. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | Which major nutrient is richly present in mothers hind milk ?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Carbohydrate
D. Water
| Fat |
df207110-7a41-44a3-9cfc-2be7b81f9e36 | Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia in which the red cell injury is brought about by auto-antibodies reacting with antigens present on red cell membrane.
Antiglobulin test (direct Coombs’ test) is employed to detect the antibody on red cell surface.
Key Point:
DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test) testing typically involves the use of a polyspecific reagent consisting of IgG and complement C3.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 60 | Pathology | null | Direct Coombs test is positive for:
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgG
| IgG |
98092b85-8cb3-4714-957c-f9bbeb3bfba6 | Of course If you focus on the Picture without reading the options you cannot guess the Structure…So
Whenever you are not sure about the HISTOLOGY Picture, read the options and almost 99% you can get to know the structure
Picture : Structure of Seminiferous tubule | Unknown | null | Which of the following is a function of cells Labelled A ?
A. Secretion of FSH into the tubular lumen
B. Secretion of testosterone into the tubular lumen
C. Maintenance of the blood-testis barrier
D. Synthesis of estrogen after puberty
| Maintenance of the blood-testis barrier |
77911d88-ccf7-4a23-acba-a887deaad4c6 | Most implants are made of stainless steel as it is comparatively cheap and can be easily cast into the desired shape. Titanium is expensive and difficult to fashion into the desired shape. Carbon and polyethylene implants are used only for some specific uses and methyl methacrylate is not made up into an implant as such. | Pathology | All India exam | Which of the following is commonest material used to make ohopedic implant
A. Titanium
B. Stainless steel
C. Polyethylene (UHMWPE)
D. Methyl-methacrylate
| Stainless steel |
f624f44b-04d0-443f-8850-a569e39d9aad | angelic look means eye to heaven appearance | Pathology | null | Angelic look refers to:
A. SLE
B. Cherubim.
C. Hurler syndrome.
D. Cushing syndrome.
| Cherubim. |
4a3daeaa-f4dc-4eda-b654-f9fb8146e4b9 | Tests used for testing reserves of hormones GH Insulin tolerance test GHRH test L-arginine test L-dopa test Prolactin TRH stimulation test Cosyntropin test ACTH effect on plasma coisol Metyrapone test ACTH effect on plasma coisol | Medicine | Disorders of pituitary gland | L- arginine test is used for testing reserve of?
A. Prolactin
B. Cosyntropin test
C. Metyrapone test
D. Growth hormone
| Growth hormone |
43bea194-9f93-448c-87b8-41c479599ca8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., C. parvumThe immunomodulator Corynebacterium parvum stimulates the reticuloendothelial system and causes splenic hypertrophy. The ability of C parvum to stimulate splenic regeneration in hemisplenectomized mice and decrease susceptibility to intranasal pneumococcal challenge was studied. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Which non-diphtheria corynebacterium is used as immunomodulator?
A. C. diphtheriae
B. C. parvum
C. C.hofmanni
D. C.pseudotuberculosis
| C. parvum |
f20bfd41-79d3-424a-97ff-eb93fa657184 | In humans, approximately 95% of cases are cutaneous anthrax, and 5% are inhalation. Gastrointestinal anthrax is very rareRef: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; Twenty-Seventh Edition; Chapter 11; Spore-Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli: Bacillus and Clostridium Species | Microbiology | Bacteriology | The most common form of anthrax in man is
A. Alimentary
B. Cutaneous
C. Pulmonary
D. Hepatic
| Cutaneous |
82aeb6d5-9c7a-4f24-b2de-610590854c78 | Transference - feeling that patient develop for doctor based on the real feelings towards that doctor combined with the feelings for other doctors in the past. Counter transference - feeling that doctor develop for patient based on the real feelings towards that patient combined with the feeling for other patients from the past. | Psychiatry | Basics of Psychiatry | Counter transference is:
A. A Type of defense mechanism
B. Psychic connection between patient and disease with transfer of psychic energy from body pas to brain
C. Implies doctor's feelings towards patient
D. Patient's feelings towards doctor during psychotherapy
| Implies doctor's feelings towards patient |
45d0271c-b6e6-4ccf-ae68-c9e5c1a90535 | Point A: RMP ( memebrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential of potassium ion) Point B: Threshold potential Point C: Due to Hodgkin cycle rapid Na+ influx from voltage gated channels Point D: Na+ permeability maximum Membrane potential is closest to Na+ equilibrium potential Ratio of (P Na+/ P K +) maximum Point E: Potassium permeability maximum Point F: Only K+ permeability, no Na+ permeability Ratio of ( P K + / P Na+) is maximum | Physiology | Excitation and Action Potiential | Point at which the ratio of K+ permeability to Na+ permeability (PK/PNa) is the greatest.
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. F
| F |
12daa30f-b88d-4c27-9076-9a6a4d6a52e9 | Peripoal hemorrhagic necrosis (characteristic hepatic lesion in pre eclampsia)in the liver periphery with some degree of hepatic infarction accompanied with hemorrhage Clinical presentation: moderate to severe right-upper quadrant or midepigastric pain hepatic region tenderness. raised liver enzymes, hemolysis and thrombocytopenia( HELLP Syndrome) hemorrhagic infarct may form a subcapsular hematoma which may rupture leading to sudden hypotension, breathlessness, hemoperitoneum. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Pregnancy induced Hypeension | A pregnant woman admitted with pre eclampsia complicated with HELLP syndrome. She suddenly developed hypotension, breathlessness and right hypochondriac pain. USG showed hemoperitoneum. Most probable diagnosis is?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. DIC
C. Rupture of hepatic hematoma
D. Pa of pre-eclamptic toxemia
| Rupture of hepatic hematoma |
6f51e294-ce1a-487b-a18b-17e104211eb9 | The findings here are typical of Coarctation of aoa (anterior notching). Neurofibromatosis causes posterior notching of ribs. | Radiology | null | 17 year old boy presented to the outpatient with giddiness and hypeension. X-ray chast revealed anterior notching of 4th to the 8th ribs. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Coarctation of aoa
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Collagen vascular disease
D. Pneumonia
| Coarctation of aoa |
9a27a538-2696-4a74-a32f-63a52d29ad08 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cataracto Amongst the given options cataract and glaucoma are complications of cortisosteroids.o Cataract occurs after systemic administration, while glaucoma occurs after topical therapy. | Ophthalmology | Acquired Cataract | Systemic corticosteroid causes -
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Iridocyclitis
D. Retinitis
| Cataract |
d188a2ce-b47f-42e1-8780-b343861980b4 | Laser welding in an argon gas atmosphere is a method of choice for joining titanium components of dental prostheses, because the coherent, high-intensity laser pulse of light can be focused in a small region and melt the substrate without extensive microstructural damage to the surrounding areas. An advantage of welding is that the joint will be composed of the same pure titanium as the substrate components, thereby preserving the excellent biocompatibility potential of CP Ti.
Phillip’s 12th edition page 392 | Dental | null | Best way to join cast titanium components
A. Laser Welding
B. Oven Soldering
C. Torch Soldering
D. Infrared Soldering
| Laser Welding |
be877a5c-4cb8-44a4-a1ba-f38bb5fa4dae | The supraspinatus initiates abduction of the arm during the first 15deg of abduction; palpation of the tendon during this phase would result in pain from a tendinopathy of the supraspinatus. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | A 43-year-old man visits the outpatient clinic with a painful shoulder. Physical examination reveals a painful arc syndrome due to supraspinatus tendinopathy. Which of the following conditions will be present during physical examination?
A. Painful abduction 0deg to 15deg
B. Painful abduction 0deg to 140deg
C. Painful abduction 70deg to 140deg
D. Painful abduction 15deg to 140deg
| Painful abduction 0deg to 15deg |
d7e83616-6a7e-473d-8d19-76070a31cb5d | A network analysis is a graphic plan of all events and activities to be completed in order to reach an end objective. Two common types are a) PE (Programme Evaluation and Review Technique)It aids in planning, scheduling and monitoring the project. It allows better communication between the various levels of management.b) Critical path method (CPM)Longest path of the network. If any activity along the critical path is delayed, the entire project will be delayed.Park 23e pg: 872 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | Time taken for any project is estimated by
A. Work sampling
B. Input Output analysis
C. Network analysis
D. System analysis
| Network analysis |
89ccb2d1-aab4-48d5-804f-e8ddeb075595 | Ans. b. CMVSerological testing for primary maternal cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection during pregnancy is not routine, but ultrasound studies are routine. Therefore, we evaluate placental thickening in women with primary CMV infection during pregnancy.Most are asymptomatic; however, some women have mononucleosis like syndrome. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Physiology & Histology | Which of the following agent's infection causes heavy placenta?
A. HSV
B. CMV
C. Syphilis
D. HIV
| CMV |
20c73805-0171-4e9d-8ac1-a07390f487ce | Ans- C Lower third of sternum Ref- Ref- Seek out your local CPR training center to get a hands on class to better learn CPR and watch for changes in CPR within the next year or two. Adult Child Infant Hand Position 2 hands center of chest, lower half of breast bone 2 hands center of chest, lower half of breast bone 2-3 fingers in the center of the chest, lower half of the breast bone Compression Depth At least 2" About 2" About 1 1/2 " Breathing Look for Chest RiseDeliver breaths over 1 second Look for Chest RiseDeliver breaths over 1 second Look for Chest RiseDeliver breaths over 1 second Compressions to Breaths 30:2 30:2 30:2 Compression Rate 100/minute 100/minute 100/minute GENERAL CONCEPTS Main Components of CPR (C - A - B) - Compressions - Airway - Breathing High-Quality CPR: - Start compressions within 10 seconds of recognition of cardiac arrest - Chest compression rate of 100 - 120 per minute - Compression depth of 2 - 2.4 in. (5-6 cm.) for adults and children - Compression depth of 1.5 in. (4 cm.) for infants - Minimize interruptions in compressions - Do not over-ventilate the victim - Breathing rate is every 5 - 6 seconds (10 - 12 breaths per minute) - Allow complete chest recoil after each compression - Do not lean on chest wall between compressions Adult Chain of Survival - IHCA (In-Hospital Cardiac Arrest) Adult Chain of Survival - OHCA (Out-of-Hospital Cardiac Arrest) Pediatric Chain of Survival BLS FOR ADULTS One-Rescuer BLS Steps for Adults Two-Rescuer BLS Steps for Adults Steps for Performing CPR for Adults BLS / CPR FOR CHILDREN One-Rescuer BLS Steps for Children Two-Rescuer BLS Steps for Children Steps for Performing CPR for Children BLS / CPR FOR INFANTS One-Rescuer BLS Steps for Infants Two-Rescuer BLS Steps for Infants Steps for Performing CPR for Infants BLS ALGORITHMS AED USAGE Steps for Using an AED 1.) Open AED case and turn the device ON 2.) Expose the victim's chest 3.) Attach AED pads to victim's chest 4.) Do not touch the victim when AED is ANALYZING 5.) Before delivering SHOCK, make sure the victim's chest is clear, no one is touching the victim, and the area around the victim is clear. 6.) Press the SHOCK button 7.) Resume CPR for 2 minutes 8.) Repeat cycle of: CPR - analyzing - shock if indicated - CPR AED Usage Points of Emphasis - Do not place the pads over a pacemaker or an implantable cardioverter defibrillator - Remove the victim from water and dry the chest before applying pads - Excessive hair will impede pad contact. Quickly remove the pad and replace with a new set to ensure adequate contact with the chest wall - Remove any medication patches from the chest - Make sure the pads do not touch each other - If the device malfunctions, do not troubleshoot. Return immediately to high-quality CPR CPR WITH AN ADVANCED AIRWAY Airway Equipment Options - Supraglottic Devices - Laryngeal Mask Airway - Combitube - Endotracheal Tube MOUTH-TO-MOUTH BREATHING Steps For Adult and Child Mouth-to-Mouth Steps For Infant Mouth-to-Mouth CHOKING RELIEF Heimlich Maneuver Steps 1.) Stand behind the victim 2.) Wrap arms behind victim and place fist of one hand below victim's rib cage just above bellybutton 3.) Grasp fist with the other hand 4.) Quickly pull inward and upward 5.) Continue until choking is relieved or victim becomes unconscious Abdominal Thrust Steps 1.) Straddle knees on either side of the victim's hips 2.) Place heel of one hand above the navel, but below breast bone 3.) Quickly press inward and upward 4.) Continue until obstruction is relieved or victim becomes unconscious Back Blows and Chest Thrust Steps (for Infant Victims) 1.) Rest infant facedown on your forearm 2.) Support their head and face with your hand 3.) Deliver 5 back blows between the shoulder blades 4.) Turn the victim over and support the back of their head 5.) Use 2 fingers and deliver 5 chest thrusts over the sternum 6.) Repeat back blows, alternated with chest thrusts, until choking is relieved or the infant becomes unresponsive COMMON ABBREVIATIONS TO KNOW AED | Automated external defibrillator AHA | American Heart Association BLS | Basic life support BP | Blood pressure CAB | Circulation, airway, breathing CPR | Cardiopulmonary resuscitation EMS | Emergency medical services ET | Endotracheal ICU | Intensive care unit IHCA | In-hospital cardiac arrest IN | Intranasal IM | Intramuscular IO | Intraosseous IV | Intravenous LMA | Laryngeal Mask Airway LV | Left ventricle OHCA | Out-of-hospital cardiac arrest PAD | Public Access Defibrillation PEA | Pulseless electrical activity pVT | Pulseless ventricular tachycardia ROSC | Return of spontaneous circulation RV | Right ventricle VF / V-Fib | Ventricular fibrillation VT | Ventricular tachycardia | Unknown | null | During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, cardiac massage is given over:
A. Upper third of sternum
B. Mid third of sternum
C. Lower third of sternum
D. Precordium
| Lower third of sternum |
4ae453d5-1064-439d-9dc3-220896e177d2 | Ans. C: Mivacurium Mivacurium have fast onset and resolution of action Onset: 2-4 minutes and duration is 12-20 minutes It does not need reversal. Dose and speed of injection related transient cutaneous flushing can occur due to histamine release. It is metabolized rapidly by plasma cholinesterases; prolonged paralysis can occur in pseudocholinesterase deficiency. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is sho acting neuromuscular blocking agent: September 2007
A. Pancuronium
B. Doxacurium
C. Mivacurium
D. Vecuronium
| Mivacurium |
65272d4b-a43e-426a-ae7b-2102c3aa5f0c | Arlt line is a feature of trachoma. Ref: Kanski 8th/e Chap.5, p.138 | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | A 50 year old male presents with cicatricial entopion of uper and lower eyelid. On eversion of upper eyelid, linear conjunctival scars - Arlt line are seen. What is the diagnosis?
A. Trachoma
B. Sprisng catarrah
C. Ligneous conjunctivitis
D. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome
| Trachoma |
e652bd26-b1c8-49ba-80c9-e8901d1918ef | Sequestrated lung has no connection to airway, so this part does not fill on bronchography. Pulmonary sequestration
In this congenital anomaly, there is a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system.
It may be
Intrapulmonary (intralobar) —> More common
Extrapulmonary (extralobar)
Sequestrated tissue receives its arterial supply from the systemic arteries (most commonly aorta).
It returns blood to the right side of heart through IVC (extrapulmonary sequestration) or pulmonary veins (intrapuhnonary sequestration).
The sequestration functions as a space-occupying lesion within chest, it does not function in gas exchange, and does not contribute to a left to right shunt or dead space.
Gastric or pancreatic tissue may also be found in sequestrated segment.
Associated anomalies —> cystic adenomatoid malformation, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, esophageal cysts. | Pediatrics | null | A 4 years child presents with a history of chronic left lower lobe pneumonitis. On contrast bronchography, the area involved with the pneumonitis does not fill whereas the area around it does fill. The most likely diagnosis –
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary sequestration
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
| Pulmonary sequestration |
46748d2a-b916-440e-90ea-d31e00e74a84 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., DecarboxylationHistamine is synthesized from histidine by decarboxylation catalyzed by histidine decarboxylase.Reaction requires pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) as coenzyme. | Biochemistry | null | Histidine to histamine is ?
A. Carboxylation
B. Decarboxylation
C. Oxidation
D. Reduction
| Decarboxylation |
e949fb52-45e9-4e2c-9a9e-7be7fac2c437 | Unicollis bicornis:The two cornua of the uterus are seperate in the region of the body ,but there is a single cervix and vagina Bicornis bicollis:the vagina is single,but the two cornua of uterus remain seperate ,and two complete cervices project into vagina. SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:99,15th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Congenital malformations | Unicollisis bicornis means:
A. Two uterine cavity with one cervix
B. Single vagina with double uterus
C. Incomplete septum of uterus
D. Double uterus and double cervix
| Two uterine cavity with one cervix |
2c8bb6d1-5287-4a25-91ea-abb10f6027e9 | At bih, fetal hemoglobin comprises 50-95% of the infant&;s hemoglobin Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | The percentage of fetal haemoglobin at bih is
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 90%
| 70% |
21f91223-d65b-4b42-9cad-088f4574f40b | Melena (black stool) is a symptom of upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Blood from ruptured esophageal varices or a peptic ulcer is partially digested by hydrochloric acid. Hemoglobin is transformed into a black pigment (hematin), which imparts a typical "coffee-grounds" color to the stool. Hematemesis (choice A) is vomiting of blood. Hematobilia (choice B) is bleeding into the biliary passages, as a complication of trauma or neoplasia. Hematochezia (choice C) is passage of bloody stools caused by lower gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Steatorrhea (choice E) is passage of fatty stools caused by pancreatic disease and malabsorption.Diagnosis: Peptic ulcer disease | Pathology | Hemodynamics | A 33-year-old woman presents with black stools. Laboratory studies demonstrate a hypochromic, microcytic anemia. Upper GI endoscopy reveals a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following best describes the stools in this patient with peptic ulcer disease?
A. Hematemesis
B. Hematobilia
C. Hematochezia
D. Melena
| Melena |
3a2e6207-78e1-4dce-aa8b-e0940cf2bdc0 | “Incidence of dermoid cyst increases two times in pregnancy and it becomes the most commonly diagnosed ovarian tumour during pregnancy.”
Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 310
“A benign cystic teratoma is the most common neoplasm to undergo torsion.”
Novak 14/e, p 510 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following ovarian tumour is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
A. Serous cystadenoma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Theca lutein cyst
| Dermoid cyst |
d5ead9a0-6700-40ea-bf1f-1bc190ce3199 | Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes, tongue, lips, or nail beds and is due to an increased concentration of reduced hemoglobin (Hb) in the circulation. Clinically evident cyanosis typically occurs at an oxygen saturation of 85% or less. Mild cyanosis may be difficult to detect Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition | Physiology | Respiratory system | Cyanosis in trauma is interpreted as
A. Early sign of hypoxia
B. Late sign of hypoxia
C. Absence of cyanosis means adequate tissue ventilation
D. Absence of cyanosis means adequate tissue oxygenation
| Late sign of hypoxia |
76793a7d-3491-4f35-a8f8-a6bea62e27b3 | Ans: b) YellowWoods lamp generates 360nm ultraviolet (black light)Erythrasma - Coral pinkPseudomonas,- Pale blueMicrosporum canis / audonii - Yellow fluroscenceVitiligo-white | Microbiology | Mycology | In hair infections caused by Microsporum audonii, what will be the colour if examined under woods lamp?
A. Brown
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green
| Yellow |
95850afb-d498-45a3-a26f-dc6a3e25706d | Ans: D (Forehead) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010. Pg: 171Explanation:Incised- like or Incised- looking woundsLacerations produced without excessive skin crushing may have relatively sharp marginsBlunt force on areas where the skin is close to bone, and the subcutaneous tissues are scantyProduces a wound which by linear splitting of the tissues, may look like a incised woundThe sites are:Scalp & ForeheadEyebrowsCheek bonesLower jawIliac crestPerineumShin | Forensic Medicine | Death and Investigations | Incised looking lacerated wounds are seen in:
A. Hand
B. Thorax
C. Abdomen
D. Forehead
| Forehead |
40050432-3711-42bc-9b79-3ea7cb533557 | Wound contraction is initially caused by myofibroblasts and later by cross-linking of collagen fibers. | Pathology | Wound Healing | Wound contraction is mediated by?
A. Epithelial cell
B. Myofibroblasts
C. Collagen
D. Elastin
| Myofibroblasts |
6dbd29c2-84aa-4285-9d85-9f8226de8ea1 | Alzheimer's disease Coical atrophy Deposition of amyloid b plaque & tangles Cerebellar amyloid angiopathy Association with chromosome 14 and chr.1 Premature Alzheimer's - mutation in App gene (amyloid precursor protein)-on chr.21 3 copies of chr.21 -more amyloid precursor protein?premature Alzheimer's Downs syndrome patients have high risk of Alzheimer's disease Abnormal folding of Ab peptides causes aggregation within neurons and apoptosis Some degenerative diseases of the CNS are associated with neuronal intracytoplasmic inclusions, such as neurofibrillary tangles of Alzheimer disease and Lewy bodies of Parkinson disease Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) is the risk factor most commonly associated with lobar hemorrhages. In CAA, amyloidogenic peptides, usually the same ones found in Alzheimer disease are deposited in the walls of medium and small caliber meningeal and coical vessels. This deposition can weaken the vessel wall and lead to hemorrhage. Many individuals with CAA have evidence of numerous small hemorrhages within the brain ("microbleeds"), which can be visualized by various imaging methods. As with Alzheimer disease, in which there is a relationship between a polymorphism in the gene that encodes apolipoprotein E (ApoE) and risk of disease,there is an effect of the ApoE genotype on the risk of recurrence of hemorrhage from sporadic CAA. The presence of either an e2 or e4 allele increases the risk of repeat bleeding. While some mutations in the precursor protein for the Ab peptide (amyloid precursor protein, APP) cause familial Alzheimer disease, others result in autosomal dominant forms of CAA. | Pathology | NEET 2018 | Which of the pathognomic feature of Alzheimer's disease?
A. Lewy body
B. Plaques and tangles
C. Pick bodies
D. Red neuronal degeneration
| Plaques and tangles |
1a08cacb-6839-44a9-b3ff-26d58daf4807 | FATTY ACID SYNTHESIS Materials Required for the SynthesisEnzymes-Fatty acid synthase, a multienzyme complex-Acetyl-CoA carboxylase, also a multienzyme complexCoenzymes and cofactors: Biotin, NADPH, Mn++CO2: Source of CO2 is bicarbonateATP: For energyFirst reaction (reduction): The keto-acyl group is reduced to hydroxy group (-OH) to form "b-OH butyryl-ACP" catalyzed by the enzyme "keto-acyl reductase". Second reaction (dehydration): A molecule of H2O is removed from "b-OH-butyryl-ACP" to form "a, bunsaturated butyryl-ACP" (also called crotonyl-ACP), catalyzed by the enzyme "b-OH-acyl dehydratase". Third reaction (reduction): The third and final reduction is catalyzed by "enoyl-reductase" using NADPH + H+, as a result, the double bond is saturated to form "butyryl-ACP" (4 carbon). All the above three reactions occur on "Pan-SH" of monomer II.Ref: MN Chatterjea Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 8th Edition, Page no: 417 | Biochemistry | Respiratory chain | NADPH is used in
A. Fatty acid synthesis
B. Ketone synthesis
C. Glucogenesis
D. Glycolysis
| Fatty acid synthesis |
d2f0e706-47e4-49f2-9315-5c3f3317eb92 | Flexion injury is the commonest spinal injury , e.g: 1.heavy blow across the shoulder by a heavy object 2.fall from height on heels / buttocks * results : in cervical spine fkexion force results in 1. A sprain of ligaments & muscles of the back of the neck . 2.compression fracture of veebral body c5- c7 .& 3. Dislocation of one veebra over another ( commonest c5 over c6 ). In dorso- lumbar spine , this force can result in the wedge compression of a veebra ( L1 commonest ,followed by L2 & T12).It is a stable injury if compression of the veebra is less than 50% of its posterior height. * flexion - rotation injury is associated with high incidence of neurological damage, as it leaves a highly unstable spine * extension injury is commonly seen in cervical spine .It results in a chip fracture of the anterior rim of a veebra. Sometimes these injury may be unstable. * compression injury is also common .it results in burst fracture in cervical spine. REF : essential ohopedics , Maheshwari, 9th edition ,pg.no.257 | Orthopaedics | Spinal injuries | Most common type of injury to spinal cord is -
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Compression
D. Flexion - rotation
| Flexion |
a566c984-018d-4957-9660-63a427446370 | Ans. (B) Prednisolone(Ref: KDT 8/e p318)* Etidronate and phenytoin cause osteomalacia whereas calcitriol is used in treatment of osteoporosis. | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which of the following drugs causes osteoporosis on long term use:
A. Etidronate
B. Prednisolone
C. Phenytoin
D. Calcitriol
| Prednisolone |
c9dcc77a-adad-43da-af3f-9ec7c31205b8 | * Continuous Epidural Anesthesia is the first choice for patients with preeclampsia during labour, Vaginal delivery and cesarean section. * Preeclampsia patient have a risk of severe airway edema , which makes intubation difficult * Continuous Epidural Anesthesia can improve uteroplacental perfusion and also decrease catecholamine secretions. REF : DUTTA BOOK OF OBESTETRICS | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | Anesthesia of choice for cesarean section in severe pre-eclampsia :
A. Spinal
B. GA
C. Epidural
D. Spinal+epidural
| Epidural |
3819387b-2735-4fa2-bef1-c01bf29b961c | ANSWER: (A) Air embolismREF: Official gazette of the Council of Europe by Council of Europe Page 6Indirect repeat in December 2010Indirect repeat in December 2010If there is suspicion of air embolism, pre-autopsy radiology ofthorax must be performed. The first stage of autopsy in such cases is careful partial opening of thorax and dislocation of lower three quarter of sternum with subsequent opening of heart under water allowing the measurement and sampling of escaping gas. | Forensic Medicine | Medicolegal Autopsy | Underwater autopsy of the heart is done in?
A. Air embolism
B. Myocardial Infarction
C. Pulmonary thromboembolism
D. CVA
| Air embolism |
50292aed-e62f-4ba1-a56c-719766fb11d7 | Ans. B i.e. Acetaminophen Acetylcysteine It is a derivative of cysteine; an acetyl group is attached to the nitrogen atom. This compound is sold as a dietary supplement commonly claiming antioxidant and liver protecting effects. It is used as a cough medicine because it breaks disulfide bonds in mucus and liquefies it, making it easier to cough up. It is also this action of breaking disulfide bonds that makes it useful in thinning the abnormally thick mucus in cystic and pulmonary fibrosis patients. | Pharmacology | null | N-acetyl-cysteine is antidote for: September 2012
A. Heparin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Morphine
D. Benzodiazepine
| Acetaminophen |
d9b8b57e-19be-441f-9c88-4689002a6eea | Acyclovir is the drug of choice for herpes simplex viral infections. Viral infection Drug of choice Herpes simplex Acyclovir Herpes zoster Valacyclovir CMV Ganciclovir Influenza Oseltamivir RSV Ribavirin Hepatitis B Tenofovir Hepatitis C Combination of oral drugs* HIV Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Eirenz *HCV protease inhibitors (previrs), NS5A inhibitors (asvirs) and NS5B inhibitors (buvirs) are used in different combinations for different genotypes MC resistance mechanism in HSV-1 for acyclovir is absent or deficient viral thymidine kinase activity. Viral thymidine kinase is required for the initial phosphorylation of acyclovir to acyclovir monophosphate which conves to active acyclovir triphosphate by cellular kinases. | Pharmacology | Anti-Viral Drugs | Drug of choice for herpes simplex viral infections is:-
A. Acyclovir
B. Tenofovir
C. Ganciclovir
D. Abacavir
| Acyclovir |
59408f3a-9944-4352-8e35-ac927b383464 | Hinge/Transverse fracture: Transverse fracture of the base of the skull occurs on middle that completely splits it into two halves, creating hinge (nodding face sign) .This may result from an impact on either side of head or side to side compression of head as in run over by vehicle. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 165 | Anatomy | Special topics | 'Nodding face sign' is seen in
A. Fracture of anterior cranial fossa
B. Fracture of middle cranial fossa
C. Hinge fracture
D. Orbital blow out fractures
| Hinge fracture |
a6543bd1-a542-484a-92b6-c6ba61c62f20 | Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) was developed by Dr Torabinejad.
Setting time is 2 hours and 45 minutes.
Ref : Textbook of endodontics, Nisha Garg and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, pg no:551 | Dental | null | Setting time of MTA is:
A. 60 + - 5 minutes
B. 120 + - 5 minutes
C. 165 + - 5 minutes
D. 30 + - 5 minutes
| 165 + - 5 minutes |
95bf91f5-09b6-4f61-acaf-0de0636bd274 | Serotonin is a vasoconstricting hormone, produced in the brain and GI tract. In the GI tract it is produced normally by enterochromaffin cells (argentaffin cells). The principal function is to regulate smooth muscle contraction and peristalsis. Serotonin: also called 5-hydroxytryptamine, is a chemical substance that is derived from the amino acid tryptophan. Principally found stored in three main cell types; (a) Serotonergic neurons in the CNS and in the intestinal myenteric plexus, (b) Enterochromaffin cells in the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract and (c) Blood platelets Synthesis: Serotonergic neurons and enterochromaffin cells can synthesize serotonin from its precursor amino acid L-tryptophan, whereas platelets rely upon uptake of serotonin for their stores. The biochemical pathway for serotonin synthesis initially involves the conversion of L-tryptophan to 5-hydroxytryptophan by the enzyme L-tryptophan hydroxylase. This enzyme provides the rate limiting step for serotonin synthesis. Metabolism of serotonin is carried out primarily by the enzyme monoamine oxidase (MAO), The action of MAO conves serotonin to 5-hydroxyindole acetaldehyde which in turn is readily metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase to produce 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid as the major excreted metabolite of serotonin. Carcinoid syndrome: are neuroendocrine tumours (NETs) of predominantly enterochromaffin cell origin (Kulchitsky cells).Carcinoid syndrome is made up of a constellation of symptoms which are caused by the release of a variety of substances (serotonin, histamine, and substance P, among others) by the carcinoid tumor. It may cause trytophan deficiency and causes decrease in niacin synthesis leading to pellagra. Ref: Principles of medical physiology, By Sabyasachi Sicar, Page 641. | Physiology | null | Serotonin is secreted by:
A. Thyroid
B. Adrenal coex
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Argentaffin cells
| Argentaffin cells |
412e9618-2111-48e8-9262-d8493d198128 | (Ref: KDT 6/e p347, 372) The symptoms of the patient (muscle rigidity, hypeension, hypehermia, hyperkalemia and acidosis) suggests the diagnosis of malignant hypehermia. Halothane can precipitate malignant hypehermia is susceptible individuals. SCh increases this incidence. Malignant hypehermia is due to excessive release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Drug of choice for malignant hypehermia is dantrolene that inhibits the release of Ca2+ (by blocking ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum). | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | A patient, Tina was anesthetized with halothane and nitrous oxide and tubocurarine was used for skeletal muscle relaxation. She became hypeensive along with marked muscle rigidity and hypehermia. Lab repos showed that she has developed hyperkalemia and acidosis. This complication was caused by:
A. Block of autonomic ganglia by tubocurarine
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Activation of brain dopamine receptors by halothane
D. Excessive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
| Excessive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum |
aee4ce75-5859-4444-8330-397c5c6c92a6 | Muscles forming perineal body
Bulbospongiosus
Levator Ani
Superficial transverse perineal muscle
Deep transverse perineal muscle
External anal sphincter
Longitudinal muscle of Anal canal | Anatomy | null | Which of the following muscle do not take part in formation of perineal body?
A. Bulbospongiosus
B. External anal sphincter
C. Ischiocavernosus
D. Levator Ani
| Ischiocavernosus |
da74e061-6100-4b85-abbf-5991fa6a374f | Ans. (a) WheatRef.: Harrison 19th ed. /1940* Coeliac disease is caused by a reaction to gliadin found in wheat, oats, rye and Barley. Upon exposure to gliadin, there is production of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody which cross-reacts with small-bowel tissue, causing an inflammatory reaction.* This leads to villous atrophy and leads to osmotic diarrhea. | Medicine | Disorder of Absorption | Which cereal is not to be given in celiac sprue?
A. Wheat
B. Maize
C. Corn
D. Rice
| Wheat |
4d6016f0-1a93-4094-a543-626c519a41e7 | Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome It is an iatrogenic complication of ovulation induction with exogenous gonadotropins and clomiphene-induced cycles Charecteristic feature of OHSS is an increase in capillary permeability resulting in fluid shift from intravascular to extravascular spaces Mechanism of Action Probably mediated by increased ovarian secretion of vasoactive substances including Vascular endothelial growth factor , elements of Renin-Angiotensin system and other cytokines Risk factors Young age, low body weight, PCOS, higher doses of gonadotropins and previous episodes of hyperstimulation Mild illness Charecterised by Ovarian enlargement, lower abdominal discomfo, mild nausea and vomitting, diarrhea and abdominal discomfo. Managed by outpatient basis with analgesics and bedrest; monitored by daily weight checkup, urinary frequency, clinical examination to detect ascites, lab tests of hematocrit, electrolytes and serum creatinine Serious illness Charecterised by severe pain, rapid weight gain, tense ascites, hemodynamic instability, respiratory difficulty, progressive oliguria leading to renal failure, ovarian rupture and thromboembolic phenomenon Hospitalization and treated according to symptoms Ref: Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinology and Infeility; Eighth Edition; Chapter 31 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Reproductive physiology and hormones in females | The most serious complication of clomiphene citrate therapy in ovulation induction is :
A. Bone marrow depression
B. Hyperstimulation syndrome
C. Secondary amenorrhea
D. Multiple pregnancy
| Hyperstimulation syndrome |
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