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eb2cc3e9-4eaa-437a-94e5-bb8edbe5b6f6 | Bone marrow examination is most likely to show increased erythroid-to-myeloid ratio. Erythroid hyperplasia is common to all hemolytic anemias, and megaloblastic features only develop if they become folate deficient. A left shift only occurs if the bone marrow is under stress, like during a severe infection, and giant metamyelocytes or increased lymphocytes are not feature of an autoimmune hemolytic anemia. | Medicine | Blood | A 45-year-old woman develops symptoms of shortness of breath on exertion, easy fatigue, and jaundice. On examination she is pale, and there is a palpable spleen, but no lymphadenopathy. Her hemoglobin is 9.0 g/dL, the reticulocyte count 9%, and the direct antibody test (Coombs) is positive. Which of the following bone marrow findings is most likely to be seen in this patient?
A. megaloblastic changes
B. giant metamyelocytes
C. increased erythroid-to-myeloid ratio
D. increased lymphocytes
| increased erythroid-to-myeloid ratio |
e75145f7-aeb1-454c-a4a7-1120f6f16178 | McCracken quotes that use of lingual plate in place of lingual bar, while patient is having tongue tie condition. | Dental | null | In patient with tongue tie condition, which major connector is used?
A. Lingual bar
B. Cingulum bar
C. Lingual plate
D. Cingulum plate
| Lingual plate |
3eacef73-1cc7-4e37-965b-629ecc5335a5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Posterior end of inferior turbinateWoodruffs area: -o It is situated under the posterior end of inferior turbinateo Sphenopalatine artery anastomoses with posterior pharyngeal artery hereo Posterior epistaxis occurs in this area. | ENT | Epistaxis | Woodruffs area is situated in-
A. Posterior end of inferior turbinate
B. Anterior end of middle turbinate
C. Near hiatus semilunatis
D. Below superior turbinate
| Posterior end of inferior turbinate |
12d66b22-ef6d-4fda-a860-31ede4382819 | Ref : harrisons-manual-of-medicine-16th-edition pg no: 622-624 TREATMENT Initial Therapy Initial goals are to: (1) quickly identify if patient is candidate for reperfusion therapy, (2) relieve pain, and (3) prevent/treat arrhythmias and mechanical complications. * Aspirin should be administered immediately (162-325 mg chewed at presentation, then 162-325 mg PO qd), unless pt is aspirin-intolerant. * Perform targeted history, exam, and ECG to identify STEMI (1 mmST elevation in two contiguous leads or new LBBB) and appropriateness of reperfusion therapy , which reduces infarct size, LV dysfunction, and moality. * Primary PCI is generally more effective than fibrinolysis and is preferred at experienced centers capable of performing procedure rapidly , especially when diagnosis is in doubt, cardiogenic shock is present, bleeding risk is increased, or if symptoms have been present for 3 h. * Proceed with IV fibrinolysis if PCI is not available or if logistics would delay PCI 1 h longer than fibrinolysis could be initiated (Fig. 123-1). Dooo- needle time should be 30 min for maximum benefit. Ensure absence of contraindications before administering fibrinolytic agent. Those treated within 1-3 h benefit most; can still be useful up to 12 h if chest pain is persistent or ST remains elevated in leads that have not developed new Q waves. Complications include bleeding, reperfusion arrhythmias, and, in case of streptokinase (SK), allergic reactions. Heparin should be initiated with fibrinolytic agents other than SK ; maintain aPTTT at 1.5-2.0 control (50-70 s). * If chest pain or ST elevation persists 90 min after fibrinolysis, consider referral for rescue PCI. Later coronary angiography after fibrinolysis generally reserved for pts with recurrent angina or positive stress test. The initial management of NSTEMI (non-Q MI) is different . In paicular, fibrinolytic therapy should not be Additional Standard Treatment (Whether or not reperfusion therapy is undeaken): * Hospitalize in CCU with continuous ECG monitoring. * IV line for emergency arrhythmia treatment. * Pain control: (1) Morphine sulfate 2-4 mg IV q5-10min until pain is relieved or side effects develop ; (2) nitroglycerin 0.3 mg SL if systolic bp 100 mmHg; for refractory pain: IV nitroglycerin (begin at 10 g/min, titrate upward to maximum of 200 g/min, monitoring bp closely); do not administer nitrates within 24 h of sildenafil or within 48 h of tadalafil (used for erectile dysfunction); (3) -adrenergic antagonists * Oxygen 2-4 L/min by nasal cannula (maintain O2 saturation 90%). * Mild sedation (e.g., diazepam 5 mg PO qid). * Soft diet and stool softeners (e.g., docusate sodium 100-200 mg/d). * -Adrenergic blockers reduce myocardial O2 consumption, limit infarct size, and reduce moality. Especially useful in pts with hypeension, tachycardia, or persistent ischemic pain; contraindications include active CHF, systolic bp 95 mmHg, hea rate 50 beats/min, AV block,or history of bronchospasm. Administer IV (e.g., metoprolol 5 mg q5-10min to total dose of 15 mg), followed by PO regimen (e.g., metoprolol 25-100 mg bid). * Anticoagulation/antiplatelet agents: Pts who receive fibrinolytic therapy are begun on heparin and aspirin as indicated above. In absence of fibrinolytic therapy, administer aspirin, 160-325 mg qd, and low-dose heparin (5000 U SC q12h for DVT prevention). Full-dose IV heparin (PTT 2 control) or low-molecular-weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin 1 mg/kg SC q12h) followed by oral anticoagulants is recommended for pts with severe CHF, presence of ventricular thrombus by echocardiogram, or large dyskinetic region in anterior MI. Oral anticoagulants are continued for 3 to 6 months, then replaced by aspirin. * ACE inhibitors reduce moality in pts following acute MI and should be prescribed within 24 h of hospitalization for pts with STEMI--e.g., captopril (6.25 mg PO test dose) advanced to 50 mg PO tid. ACE inhibitors should be continued indefinitely after discharge in pts with CHF or those with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ; if ACE inhibitor intolerant, use angiotensin receptor blocker (e.g., valsaan or candesaan). * Serum magnesium level should be measured and repleted if necessary to reduce risk of arrhythmias. | Medicine | C.V.S | The best possible intervention for acute myocardial infarction is-
A. Streptokinase
B. Streptokinase and aspirin
C. Early primary coronary intervention
D. Streptokinase and heparin
| Early primary coronary intervention |
7b5e1e49-9498-4e35-992c-9b6055c4165b | The major source of blood supply to the nasal mucosa is the sphenopalatine aery, which is the terminal branch of the maxillary aery. The sphenopalatine aery enters the nasal cavity from the pterygopalatine fossa by passing through the sphenopalatine foramen in the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. The facial aery is a direct branch of the external carotid aery. It provides most of the blood supply to the superficial face. The superficial temporal aery is a terminal branch of the external carotid aery. The other terminal branch is the maxillary aery. The superficial temporal aery provides blood supply to the temporal region and the lateral poion of the scalp. The superior labial aery is a branch of the facial aery. The superior labial aery provides blood supply to the upper lip. It has a septal branch that provides some of the blood supply to the anterior poion of the septal mucosa of the nasal cavity. However, this is not the major blood supply to the nasal cavity. | Anatomy | null | A 64 year old man, Chandu has had recurring nasal hemorrhages following surgery to remove nasal polyps. To control the bleeding, the surgeon is considering ligating the primary aerial supply to the nasal mucosa. This aery is a direct branch of which of the following aeries?
A. Facial aery
B. Maxillary aery
C. Superficial temporal aery
D. Superior labial aery
| Maxillary aery |
b3ce931e-2fd5-410f-9bc7-2d4ddbdbcc0f | rota virus vaccines have been developed by genetic reassoment,but are still not in wide use REF:ANANTHANARYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.561 | Microbiology | Virology | Best vaccine for rotavirus infection is -
A. Asymptomatic neonatal vaccine
B. DNA vaccine
C. Genetic reassoment
D. Capsular component vaccine
| Genetic reassoment |
d388376c-d3cd-4444-a004-ed20cb01223c | An indirect inguinal hernia leaves the abdominal cavity by entering the dilated internal inguinal ring and passing along the anteromedial aspect of the spermatic cord. The internal inguinal ring is an opening in the transversalis fascia for the passage of the spermatic cord; an indirect inguinal hernia, therefore, lies within the fibers of the cremaster muscle. Repair consists of removing the hernia sac and tightening the internal inguinal ring. A femoral hernia passes directly beneath the inguinal ligament at a point medial to the femoral vessels, and a direct inguinal hernia passes through a weakness in the floor of the inguinal canal medial to the inferior epigastric artery. Each is dependent on defects in Hesselbach's triangle of transversalis fascia and neither lies within the cremaster muscle fibers. Repair consists of reconstructing the floor of the inguinal canal. Spigelian hernias, which are rare, protrude through an anatomic defect that can occur along the lateral border of the rectus muscle at its junction with the linea semilunaris. An interparietal hernia is one in which the hernia sac, instead of protruding in the usual fashion, makes its way between the fascial layers of the abdominal wall. These unusual hernias may be preperitoneal (between the peritoneum and transversalis fascia), interstitial (between muscle layers), or superficial (between the external oblique aponeurosis and the skin). | Surgery | Liver | Which of the following hernias follows the path of the spermatic cord within the cremaster muscle?
A. Femoral
B. Direct inguinal
C. Indirect inguinal
D. Spigelian
| Indirect inguinal |
1cb022eb-8157-409b-a935-8e95377548d8 | Hyperparathyroidism is an increase in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels in the blood.This occurs from a disorder either within the parathyroid glands (primary hyperparathyroidism) or outside the parathyroid glands (secondary hyperparathyroidism).Most people with primary disease have no symptoms at the time of diagnosis.When symptoms occur, they are due to elevated blood calcium.With long-standing elevation, the most common symptom is kidney stones. Other symptoms may include bone pain, weakness, depression, confusion, and increased urination.Both primary and secondary may result in osteoporosis (weakening of the bones) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 631 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | A 25-year-old hypeensive man with a history of recurrent calcium-containing renal calculi presents to the emergency depament with excruciating flank pain and blood in the urine, This patient is likely to have which one of the following underlying disorders?
A. Chronic proteus infection
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Hyperaldosteronism
D. Hyperparathyroid ism
| Hyperparathyroid ism |
537f9fb6-2a3f-432f-a2ba-5be9263dc4dc | ANSWER: (A) LH surgeREF: Ganong WF: Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed (chapter 23) Figure 6-10, William's obstetrics 22nd edition Figure 3-1."The onset of the gonadotropin surge resulting from increased secretion of estrogen by preovulatory follicles is a relatively precise predictor of the time of ovulation, occurring some 34 to 36 hours before the release of the ovum from the follicle. The peak of LH secretion occurs 10 to 12 hours before ovulation and stimulates the resumption of the meiosis process in the ovum with the release of the first polar body" | Unknown | null | Ovulation associated most commonly with?
A. LH surge
B. Increase in progesterone
C. Increase in FSH
D. Increase in basal body temperature
| LH surge |
dfc4b748-12cb-41bc-8651-dd36f3f84500 | HELLP is an acronym derived from the first letters of the terms that describe the following laboratory findings: Hemolytic anemia, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. HELLP syndrome is seen in severe pre-eclampsia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Pregnancy induced Hypeension | Not a feature of HELLP syndrome:
A. Raised liver enzymes
B. Eosinophilia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Hemolytic anemia
| Eosinophilia |
7e975492-db03-47b5-b8d3-ee02f53b330a | Modified biophysical score consists of NST or vibroacoustic non stress test and estimation of amniotic fluid volume using AFI. It takes 10 minutes to perform the score and is used as screening test. Ref: Williams Obs 24e pg 342-344. | Anatomy | General obstetrics | Modified BPS consists of :
A. NST with AFI
B. NST with fetal breathing
C. NST with fetal movement
D. NST with fetal tone
| NST with AFI |
b0c4e609-c2e3-4aa6-aa00-d79a48cd8b96 | In submucosal resection there is removal of the entire septum except for a 1cm wide dorsal and caudal stua that remains for nasal suppo. An alternative to this procedure is septoplasty in which the surgeon resects only the deted poion of the nasal septum allowing maximal preservation of this structure. Clinical indications of septoplasty: Detion of the nasal septum with paial or complete unilateral or bilateral obstruction of airflow Persistent or recurrent epistaxis Evidence of sinusitis secondary to septal detion Headaches secondary to septal detion and contact points Anatomic obstruction that makes indicated sinus procedure difficult to perform efficiently Obstructive sleep apnea As an approach to transseptal transsphenoidal approach to pituitary fossa | ENT | null | Which of the following surgical procedure can be used as an alternative for SMR (Submucosal Resection)?
A. Tympanoplasty
B. Septoplasty
C. Caldwell Luc operation
D. Tuboplasty
| Septoplasty |
8d63ebeb-8fdc-41a3-948e-6c21cee76ac2 | Ans. (c) Auriculotemporal nerveRef Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition Page 191* Injury of Post Ganglionic Parasympathetic nerve fibres (Auriculotemporal Nerve) causes Frey's syndrome | Surgery | Salivary Gland | Which of the following nerve is damaged in Frey's syndrome?
A. Facial Nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve
| Auriculotemporal nerve |
832ae9b2-e25b-4789-8b68-56458eb11c94 | Destruction and dumping in a secure landfill [Ref: Park 20/e p6981 CATEGORIES OF BIO-MEDICAL WASTE, TREATMENT & DISPOSAL Category Biomedical waste Treatment & Disposal 1 Human Anatomical Waste (Human tissues, organs, body pas) Incineration/deep burial 2 Animal Waste (Animal tissues, organs, body pas carcasses, bleeding pas, fluid, blood and experimental animals used in research, waste generated by veterinary hospitals colleges, discharge from hospitals, animals houses). Incineration/deep burial 3 Microbiology & Biotechnology Waste (Wastes from lab. cultures, stocks of specimens of micro-organisms, live or attenuated vaccines, human and animal cell culture used in research and infectious agents from research and industrial laboratories, wastes from production of biologicals, toxins, dishes and devices used for transfer of cultures) Autoclaving/ micro- waving/ incineration. 4 Waste Sharps (Needles, syringes, scalpels, blades, glass etc. that may cause puncture and cuts. This includes both used and unused sharps) Chemical/ disinfection autoclave/ micro? waving and mutilation/shredding 5 Discarded Medicines & Cytotoxic drugs (Wastes comprising of outdated contaminated and discarded medicines) Incineration / destruction & drugs disposal in secured landfills Soiled Waste (Items contaminated with blood, and body fluids Incineration/ autoclave 6 including cotton, dressing, soiled plaster casts, lines, beddings, other material contaminated with blood) . micro-waving Chemical disinfection 7 Solid Waste (Waste generated from disposable items other than sharps such as tubings catheters, intravenous sets, etc.) autoclave/micro- waving and mutilation/shredding 8 Liquid Waste (Waste generated from laboratory and washing, cleaning house-keeping and disinfecting activities) Disinfect-chemically & discharge into drains 9 Incineration Ash (Ash from incineration of any bio-medical waste) Disposal in municipal landfill Chemically treatment 10 Chemical Waste (Chemical used in production of biologicals, chemicals used in insecticides etc.) dis infect rge ion discha into and drains for liquid and secured landfill for solids. Color Coding & Type of Container for disposal of BioMedical Waste Colour Coding Type of Container Waste Category Treatment options Yellow Plastic Bag Categories 1, 2, 3 & 6. Incineration /deep burial Red Disinfected container/Plastic Bag Categories 3, 6, 7 Autoclaving/Micro-waving Chemical Treatment Blue/White Translucent Plastic Bag /punctre proof containers Cat. 4, Cat. 7 Autoclaving/Micro-waving/ Chemical Treatment & Destruction / shredding Black Plastic Bag Categories 5, 9, 10 Disposal in secured landfill. Notes: Colour coding of waste categories with multiple treatment options as defined in schedule 1, shall be selected depending on treatment option chosen, which shall be as specified in Schedule I. Waste collection bags for waste types needing incineration shall not be made of chlorinated plastics. Categories 8 and 10 (liquid) do not require containers/bags. Category 3, if disinfected locally need not be put in containers/bags. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Disposal method of outdated cytotoxic drugs is:
A. Autoclave
B. Destruction and dumping in a secure landfill
C. Disposal in municipal waste
D. Preserve for 10 years and landfill
| Destruction and dumping in a secure landfill |
bc3847d2-7217-4076-b0e5-82a07619cc80 | (A) 3rd week > Notochord develops in 3rd week. | Anatomy | Misc. | Notochord develops in
A. 3rd week
B. 3rd month
C. 6 months
D. 10th week
| 3rd week |
734b23a6-eb8a-4af5-96a8-7fc8bb2e871e | Ans. B. 2Line 1: Not reabsorbed or actively secreted in PCT e.g. PAH, Creatinine, Inulin.Line 2: Freely filtered and poorly reabsorbed like UreaLine 3: no change in concentration along PCTLine 4: Bicarbonate: 90% is reabsorbed in PCT decreasing its tubular fluid concentration Line5: Solute fully reabsorbed in PCT like glucose. | Physiology | Kidneys and Body Fluids | TF/P ratio for PCT for many substances are shown in diagram below. Which of them represents urea?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| 2 |
29dc10a7-585a-42ef-8f29-40654f97e73c | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 In order to find out whether there is significant association or not between the two variables , coefficient or Corelation is calculated . r lies between -1 and +1 r near -1 : indicates strong negative correlation . r = 0 : indicates no association r near +1: indicates strong positive correlation. Note: correlation does not necessarily prove causation . | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | correlation coefficient tends to lie between -
A. Zero to - 1.0
B. 0
C. +1.0 to zero
D. +2.0 to -2.0
| 0 |
e8b14154-ea61-4ef7-94b3-85e3b4857596 | Temporary contraceptive methods are Hormonal contraception Intrauterine devices Barrier contraception Natural family planning methods Ref: TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN; SECOND EDITION; PAGE NO 364 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraception | Temporary method of contraception among the following is :
A. Vasectomy
B. OCP
C. Tubectomy
D. Postpaum sterilisation
| OCP |
6900f977-3b02-4346-8080-a182f5c77802 | First degree burns involve only epidermis
Superficial second degree involve upper layer of dermis
Deep second degree involves reticular layers of dermis
Third degree involves all layers of skin
Fourth degree burns involve not only skin but also subcutaneous fat and deeper structures | Surgery | null | Burns involving skin superficial part of dermis is categorized as
A. First degree burns
B. Superficial 2nd degree burn
C. Deep 2nd degree burn
D. Third degree burns
| Superficial 2nd degree burn |
267d08f9-1749-4b43-92a6-d6c2b93cc167 | Presence of respiratory symptoms point towards pathological GERD.
Stricture esophagus and upper GI bleed are complications due to severe GERD. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is earliest indicator of pathological gastroesophageal reflux in infants?
A. Postprandial regugitation
B. Respiratory symptoms
C. Upper GI bleed
D. Stricture esophagus
| Respiratory symptoms |
7347bc04-651f-40a5-b823-54189d5246a0 | Ans. is a i.e. Carcinoma Endometrium Pyometra is collection of pus or mixture of pus and blood within the uterus Causes : Most common cause 2"d most common cause : Other causes : Congenital atresia of the vagina/cervix. Stenosis of cervix / vagina following : - Operations - Burns Radiotherapy Endometritis : Senile Tuberculous Puerperal Carcinoma : - Ca endometrium (most common)deg Ca cervix - Ca corporis | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Pyometra commonly occurs following :
A. Carcinoma endometrium
B. Carcinoma cervix
C. Carcinoma urethra
D. Senile endometritis
| Carcinoma endometrium |
233442cf-0443-45c0-9845-7ff213634c6d | Staphylococcus infection - human patients and carriers are the commonest sources of infection. About 10- 30% healthy person carry bacterial in the nose, skin, axilla, perineum and throat. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's 10th edition; Pg:205 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Infection occurring after man&;s bite is
A. Spirochetes
B. Staphylococcus
C. Anaerobic streptococci
D. Candida
| Staphylococcus |
a1ca7234-1be9-4e78-887f-e5217efe77f8 | Endometriosis: The presence of endometrial tissue (glands & stroma) outside of the uterine cavity Endometriosis is an estrogen dependent condition Estrogen is not given in its treatment Drugs used for medical management of endometriosis are: Oral contraceptive pills Mirena: LNG IUCD progesterones: Dienogest, Medroxyprogesterone, dydrogesterone Androgens: danazol GnRH analogues Mifepristone | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Endometriosis, Adenomyosis | In endometriosis which of the following is not given:-
A. Gonadotropin analogue
B. Aromatase inhibitor
C. Mifepristone
D. Estradiol
| Estradiol |
a209c1b8-84e4-4aec-9a05-4af4f350569b | A PET scan uses a small amount of a radioactive drug, or tracer, to show differences between healthy tissue and diseased tissue. The most commonly used tracer is called FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose), so the test is sometimes called an FDG-PET scan. Before the PET scan, a small amount of FDG is injected into the patient. Because cancer grows at a faster rate than healthy tissue, cancer cells absorb more of the FDG. The PET scanner detects the radiation given off by the FDG and produces color-coded images of the body that show both normal and cancerous tissue. | Radiology | null | A PET scan uses which of the following tracer materials?
A. FDG
B. CDF
C. ADP
D. MIBG
| FDG |
1d6f7fb1-0dbd-40f3-98f7-1c4a4c4a58cd | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Laryngomalacia Of the given options ;Vocal nodules and hypertrophy of turbinates do not cause stridor.Foreign body cause stridor in children and adults.Only Laryngomalacia is the congenital cause of stridor.Laryngomalacia:It is the most common congenital abnormality of the Larynx.It is characterised by excessive flaccidity of the supraglottic larynx which is sucked in during inspiration producing stridor and sometimes cyanosis.Stridor increases on crying but is relieved on placing the child in prone positionThis condition manifests at birth or soon after, and usually disappears by 2 yrs. of ageTreatment is mostly conservative*. Tracheostomy may be required for some cases of severe respiratory obstruction. | ENT | Larynx | MC cause of intermittent stridor in a 10 days old child is :
A. Laryngomalacia
B. Foreign body
C. Vocal nodule
D. Hypertrophy of turbinate
| Laryngomalacia |
6e3847de-d9c2-4d30-98b7-e952106441f1 | Lithium has been found to decrease both suicide attempts and completed suicides in a patient with bipolar disorder. Extra edge : Only antipsychotic with antisuicide propey : Clozapine | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | A bipolar disorder patient is kept on lithium therapy. As a doctor when are you going to ask the nurse to get serum lithium levels checked ?
A. Immediatly as soon as the last dose given
B. 12 hours after the last dose
C. 24 hours after the last dose
D. 8 hrs after the last dose
| 12 hours after the last dose |
8345df12-38e6-4d15-b10c-2ffac88eed2d | There are four different causes of an infected aneurysm. (1) Mycotic aneurysms involve a septic embolus from the hea infecting an aery. (2) Microbial aeritis involves bacteria infecting an athero- sclerotic aery to cause aneurysmal degeneration (80% of infected aneurysms). (4) Traumatic pseudoaneurysm that has concomitant bacterial inoculation. Salmonella causes 40% of all aneurysmal infections, with most others being caused by Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Bacteroides, E. coli, and P. aeruginosa. Blood cultures are positive in only 50% of cases. | Surgery | Aerial disorders | What is the most common organism that causes infected abdominal aoic aneurysms (AAAs)?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Bacteroides
C. Salmonella
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
| Salmonella |
75c38d51-732e-4f70-be76-d8df10cfa44f | Ehrlichia are small gram negative bacteria,obligate intracellular bacteria which have affinity towards bloodcells,In cytoplasm of infected phagocytic cells,they grow within phagosomes as mulberry like clusters called morula(meaning mulberry).they are tick borne. Ref: ananthnarayan an paniker's microbiology 10th edition | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Morula in RBC is seen in
A. Babesia
B. Ehrlichia
C. Spirochete
D. Entamoeba
| Ehrlichia |
8cfc7020-8634-454d-b710-16262dd1dd00 | Ans. is 'a' Case fatality rate Case Fatality raterepresents the killing power of the disease, it is closely related to virulence.It is simply a ratio* of death to cases.Total no. of deaths due to particular disease x 100Case Fatality rate = Total no. of cases due to same disease.Case fatality rate is typically used in acute infectious diseases e.g. (food poisoning, cholera, measles) Its usefulness for chronic disease is limited because the period from onset to death is long & variable.The case fatality rate for the same disease may vary in different epidemics because of changes in agent, host & environment factors. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Severity of disease is assessed by-
A. Casefatility rate
B. Standardised mortality rate
C. Incidence rate
D. Prevalence rate
| Casefatility rate |
eb63b610-214d-427c-8c4a-7a1b4b4e01a2 | Lymph Drainage of ovary The lymph vessels of the ovary follow the ovarian aery and drain into the pre aoic and para-aoic nodes at the level of the first lumbar veebra. Aerial Supply The ovarian aery arises from the abdominal aoa at the level of the first lumbar veebra. Venous drainage. The ovarian vein drains into the inferior vena cava on the right side and into the left renal vein on the left side. Nerve Supply The nerve supply to the ovary is derived from the aoic plexus and accompanies the ovarian aery. | Anatomy | null | Lymphatic drainage of ovary is through:
A. Preaoic and para-aoic lymph nodes
B. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
C. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
D. Internal iliac lymph nodes
| Preaoic and para-aoic lymph nodes |
a4e0fe62-d879-48ab-9dcd-f8d97535fe43 | The auditory coex (areas 41 & 42) is located in the superior temporal gyrus in temporal lobe Postcentral gyrus: In the parietal lobe there is somatosensory coex (S I) - areas 3, 1, and 2 Posterior parietal coex (PPC): Posterior to the S I, this area harbors S II (areas 5 & 7). It receives inputs from S I, and visual & auditory coices. The area is concerned with visuo-spatial orientation and performance of a planned movement. | Physiology | Special Senses | Primary auditory coex in human beings is located in:
A. Postcentral gyrus
B. Posterior pa of parietal lobe
C. Limbic system
D. Superior pa of temporal lobe
| Superior pa of temporal lobe |
3f0f1a95-48c2-4f95-8fdb-d16b4aa67785 | Ans is 'c' ie CEA Paget's ds is a chronic eczematous disease on the skin of the nipple and the areola , with an associated intraductal carcinoma of the underlying mammary gland. Pathophysiology: The pathogenesis of mammary PD and the origin of Paget cells were once controversial. It is now widely accepted as an underlying intraductal carcinoma of the breast with retrograde extension into the overlying epidermis through mammary duct epithelium. Malignant epithelial (Paget) cells infiltrate and proliferate in the epidermis, causing thickening of the nipple and the areolar skin. Paget cells often express cell markers that mimic those of the underlying breast carcinoma, including glandular epithelial cell markers (ie, low-molecular-weight cytokeratins, or CAM 5.2). They also express tumor markers, including carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA); Ca 15-3 (milk fat globule protein); some oncogenes (TP53, c-erb B-2); and other cell markers, such as epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) and gross cystic disease fluid protein (GCDFP-15) that are found in tumor cells of ductal carcinoma of the breast. | Surgery | null | The following is a marker of Paget's disease of the mammary gland
A. S-100
B. HMB 45
C. CEA
D. Neuron specific enolase
| CEA |
d0177bdb-4400-437b-84db-3b31ffa078d6 | Image shows Patella tendon bearing brace. Designed to un-weight foot & ankle. It decreases the amount of a person's weight being placed on their bones, joints, and tissue and can also immobilize painful joints of the foot. | Orthopaedics | FMGE 2019 | The shown apparatus is used for
A. Ankle knee stabilizer
B. Patella tendon bearing brace
C. Thomas splint
D. Knee brace
| Patella tendon bearing brace |
55958872-dc26-4d84-8f61-9eb4ee1f686b | here there is no thirst and polydipsia due to psychosis ( Harrison 17 pg 2219) | Medicine | Endocrinology | A 33 year old lady present! with polydipsia and polyuria. Har symptoms staed soon after a road traffic accident 6 months ago. The blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg with no postural drop. The daily urinary output Is 6-8 liters. Investigation showed, Na 130 mEq/L, KJ.5 mEq/L, urea 15mg/dL, sugar-65 mg/dL. The plasma osmolality is 268 mosmol/L and urine osmolatity 45 mosmol/L. The most likely diagnosis is-
A. Central diabetes insipidus
B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
C. Resolving acute tubular necrosis
D. Psychogenic polydipsia
| Psychogenic polydipsia |
43ed2e54-8313-482e-998a-2fea707544be | The diagnosis of a viral infection is made easier by the creation of a greater number of diagnostic virology laboratories during the past few decades. In order for viral diagnosis to be successful, the most appropriate specimen must be collected for the disease in question.Many viruses can be isolated from feces. Of the viral groups in these questions, adenovirus 40/41 is the most common stool isolate. Norwalk agent and other caliciviruses may also be isolated or detected from stools, but usually only in specialized laboratories. | Microbiology | Virology | Adenovirus 40/41
A. Cervical tissue
B. Synovial fluid
C. Blood
D. Stool
| Stool |
1c4e5496-8d9d-4fc0-b1c3-87cc8a8c1a12 | Ans. D. UracilBoth DNA and RNA contain same type of purines namely Adenine (A) and Guanine (G). The pyrimidine, in DNA are Thymine (T) and Cytosine(C). The pyrimidines in RNA are Uracil (U) and Cytosine(C). | Biochemistry | Chemistry of Nucleotides | Which base is not found in DNA:
A. Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Cytosine
D. Uracil
| Uracil |
7ffc3725-c3f1-4927-a5f5-c0c51f96d266 | Treatment of choice for severe impetigo: systemic antibiotic for 7 to 10 days to prevent glomerulonephritis, a dangerous complication. Topical antibiotics are less effective than systemic antibiotics in treating impetigo. | Dental | Bacterial infections | Treatment of choice for severe impetigo?
A. Incision and drainage of severe lesions
B. Systemic antibiotics
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Anti-septic dressing
| Systemic antibiotics |
4b49f33c-e591-4e7d-81dc-d27cb4a5364b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., C.N. 3, 4, 5, 6 The superior orbital fissure is a cleft between the lesser and greater wing of sphenoid.The structures passed through superior orbital fissure are 3rd, 4th, 6th nerve, ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, superior & inferior division of ophthalmic vein and sympathetic fibres. | Ophthalmology | null | Superior orbital fissure syndrome - following nerves are affected ?
A. C.N. 1, 2, 4, 6
B. C.N. 2, 3, 4, 6
C. C.N. 3, 4, 5, 6
D. C.N. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
| C.N. 3, 4, 5, 6 |
e12aa35f-0b5b-4cbc-9b81-f949fe8cbb22 | (C) FSH # Pituitary gland divided into anterior and posterior:> From Anterior lobe: TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, GH, Prolactin, B-Lipotropin> From Intermediate lobe: Melanocyte stimulating hormone> From Posterior Lobe: Vasopressin, Oxytocin | Physiology | Misc. | Anterior pituitary secretes
A. ADH
B. Oxytocin
C. FSH
D. GnRH
| FSH |
74fef54a-4565-4846-a968-4796b38f8f87 | At the conference held in 1978, the Alma-Ata Declaration has defined public health care as "Primary Health Care" is essential healthcare made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them, through their full paicipation and at a cost the community and country can afford. Bhore Committee Comprehensive Health Care Alma - Ata Declaration Primary Health Care Shrivastav Committee Health Planning - Group on Medical Education and Suppo Manpower National Health Policy Health For All by the year 2000z | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is associated with the provision of Primary Health care?
A. Bhore Committee
B. Alma - Ata Declaration
C. Shrivastav Committee
D. National Health Policy
| Alma - Ata Declaration |
dd3b9968-789f-4ee2-9388-214a6ac97e86 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD4 Helper cells The receptor for the virus is the CD4 antigen on surface. The cells affected are:- CD4 T Cells (major target).- B lymphocytes.- Monocytes and macrophages.- Langerhans cells in dermis.- Glial cells and microglia in the CNS.- Follicular dendritic cells from tonsils can be infected by HIV without the involvement of CD4. | Microbiology | Human Immunodeficiency Virus | HIV infects most commonly:
A. CD4+helper cells
B. CD8+cells
C. Macrophage
D. Neutrophil
| CD4+helper cells |
58059b0e-afc8-4950-81e2-49983e3d94e9 | Ext. anal sphincteris present just posterior to perineal body. Therefore, Ext. anal sphincter can be injured when episiotomy incision given posteriorly beyond perineal body. | Anatomy | NEET Jan 2020 | Episiotomy incision was extended posteriorly beyond perineal body injuring the structure immediately posterior to it. Which structure has been injured
A. External anal sphincter
B. Ischiocavernosus
C. Bulbospongiosus
D. Urethral sphincter
| External anal sphincter |
cbf0a6e8-4677-4e18-8fd0-fa102e931e1d | Ans. A: R-L shunt Shunting of blood from the right side to the left side of the circulation (right-to-left shunt) is a powerful cause of hypoxemia. The shunt may be intracardiac or may be intrapulmonary. It has been traditionally thought that this cause could be readily distinguished from the others as the only cause that cannot be corrected by the administration of 100% oxygen. | Physiology | null | Less O2 saturation in blood is seen in: September 2006
A. R-L shunt
B. LV obstruction
C. RV obstruction
D. L-V shunt
| R-L shunt |
43a76be5-6312-4a2c-a339-3a4d07f23e7a | Ans. b. Piperacillin-Tazobactam (Ref: Katzung 11/e p599)Piperacillin-Tazobactam is the treatment of choice for extended spectrum beta-lactamase producing enterococci.Extended Spectrum Beta-LactamaseDefinition: 3rd generation cephalosporin resistanceESBL ClassificationAmblerBusch-Joyce* A, B, C, D (based upon their amino add sequence)* Drug of Choice:- A: Carbapenam (serine beta- lactamase)- B: Monobactam (require Zn2+ for its activity)- C: 4th generation cephalosporin- D: No DOC (chelating agent/NaCI)* Resistance sensitivity testing into 1, 2, 3, 4 with subgroupsExtended spectrum beta lactamases (ESBLs)ESBLs are beta-lactamases that hydrolyze extended-spectrum cephalosporins with an oxyimino side chainQ.These cephalosporins include cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, and ceftazidime, as well as oxyimino-monbactam AztreonamQ.The clinical relevance of ESBLs has been well documented by numerous published case reports describing clinical failures with the use of third- generation cephalosporins such as these oxyimino-cephalosporins (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, ceftazidime) as well as with the use of cefoxitin and the fourth generation cephalosporin, cefipime.Most ESBLs are inhibited by beta-lactamases inhibitors such as clavulanate, sulbactam, or tazobactam in vitro; but the clinical effectiveness of beta- lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations cannot be relied on consistently for therapy. In fact, the therapy of choice for infections caused by ESBL- producing members of the Enterobacteriaceae is a carbapenam. | Pharmacology | D.O.C | Treatment of choice for extended spectrum beta- lactamase producing enterococci:
A. Amoxicillin-clavalunic acid
B. Piperacillin-Tazobactam
C. Ampicillin only
D. Ampicillin + Sulbactam
| Piperacillin-Tazobactam |
05e6f17d-a0ca-4ec0-8f51-c46868f8882d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 400 m o Airpos and seapos are kept free from the breading of insect vectors over an area extending at least 400 meters around their peripeters. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Vector control for yellow fever around an airpo is done upto a distance of-
A. 400m
B. 200m
C. 500m
D. 100m
| 400m |
3f8df8a1-2624-4149-996f-8b25e655a6b6 | Ref-KDT 6/e p729 Diagnosis is atypical pneumonia in the DOC is Erythromycin. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | A 14 year old boy present with headache fever and cough for 2 days. Sputum is scant and non purulent and gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. The treatment should be initiated with
A. Cefazolin
B. Erythromycin
C. Amikacin
D. Trovafloxacin
| Erythromycin |
f2bc6d0c-22b5-4c84-a07c-6bd7a0f43e5e | When crude death rate is substracted from crude bih rate , the net residual is current annual growth rate, exclusive of migration. Population growth rates like railway trains are subject to momentum. They sta slowly and gains momentum, once in motion, it takes time to bring momentum under control. Reference: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 481 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Annual growth rate is
A. Crude bih rate-Crude death rate
B. Crude death rate-Crude bih rate
C. Crude bih rate-Crude death rate x 100\/Crude bih rate
D. Crude bih rate-crude death rate x 100\/Mid bih rate population
| Crude bih rate-Crude death rate |
2f17f1b7-ca39-4a56-af39-0ce64a5d371b | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Major depression and hypomania o Bipolar mood disorder include mania (recurrent episodes of mania alone), and episodes of mania & depression (manic - depressive illness). Bipolar disorder can be categorized into : - Bipolar I: - Episodes of mania and major depression with euthymic (normal mood) in between. Bipolar II: - Episodes of hypomania (rather than mania) and major depression. o Cyclothymic disorder It is a more subdued version of bipolar disorder, characterized by depressive spells and hypomanic times that never have sufficient intesity or duration to meet full diagnostic measure. It has to be chronic (2 years or more). Note: As the duration is > 2 years, cyclothymia is also considered as persistent mood disorder, o Bipolar NOS (not otherwise specified): - Episodes of mania and depression that can't fit into any other bipolar categories. o Some genes play an important role in bipolar mood disorder. Genes on long arm of chromosome 18 fpGt94> may plav a role in some families. Other chromosome involved are 22 and 21. The current episode in bipolar mood disorder is specified as one of the following 1. Hypomania 2. Mania without psychotic features 3. Mania with psychotic fetures 4. Mild or Moderate depression 5. Severe depression with psychotic symptoms 6. Severe depression without psychotic symptoms 7. Mixed, or 8. In remission | Psychiatry | Bipolar Disorder | Bipolar II disorder includes -
A. Cyclothymic disorder
B. Dysthymia
C. Single maniac episode
D. Major depression and hypomania
| Major depression and hypomania |
1fbef1f2-23f9-4d48-9a29-d2620eb4166b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Retinal Vitamin A (Retinol)The retinoids are a family of molecules that are related to retinol (Vitamin A) and are essential for :VisionReproductionGrowthMaintenance of epithelial tissues Structure of vitamin AVitamin A is often used as a collective term for several related biologically active molecules.Vitamin A is essential for vision reproduction, growth and maintenance of epithelial tissues.Vitamin A can exist in several formsRetinol -Retinol is found in animal tissues as a retinyl ester with long chain fatty acids.Retinal (component of the visual pigment rhodopsin)The aldehyde derived from the oxidation of retinol.Retinal and retinol can readily be interconverted.Retinoic acidIt is the acid derived from oxidation of retinal.Retinoic acid cannot be reduced in the body and therefore cannot give rise to either retinal or retinol.b carotenePlant foods contain b carotene, which can be oxidatively cleaved in the intestine to yield two molecules of retinal.Now, the functions associated with each form of vitamin Retinoic acid, derived from oxidation of dietary retinol, mediates most of the actions of the retinoids, except for vision which depends on retinal, the aldehyde derivative of retinol.Note : Retinol acts on the nucleus of the target cells where the vitamin acts in a manner analogous to steroid hormones. | Biochemistry | Vitamins | , Which of the following is a component of the visual pigment rhodopsin -
A. b-Carotene
B. Retinal
C. Retinol
D. Retinoic acid
| Retinal |
86b907cf-f53f-4d91-ab38-0c187c07298f | The benefits of kangaroo mother care studies have found that skin-to-skin holding stabilizes hea and respiratory rates, improves oxygen saturation rates, better regulates an infant's body temperature, and conserves a baby's calories. Ref essentials of paediatrics op ghai 9e Pg110 | Physiology | All India exam | Which of the following is best for transpo of the newborn with maintenance of warm temperature?
A. Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)
B. Transpo incubator
C. ThermaCool box
D. Hot bo le
| Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) |
000fd5de-d72f-4fde-8272-b0a063352c97 | The hemoglobin tetramer binds one molecule of BPG in the central cavity formed by its four subunits. However, the space between the H helices of the chains lining the cavity is sufficiently wide to accommodate BPG only when hemoglobin is in the T state. BPG forms salt bridges with the terminal amino groups of both chains Val NA1 and with Lys EF6 and His H21. BPG therefore stabilizes deoxygenated (T-state) hemoglobin by forming additional salt bridges that must be broken prior to conversion to the R state. Residue H21 of the subunit of HbF is Ser rather than His. Since Ser cannot form a salt bridge, BPG binds more weakly to HbF than to HbA. The lower stabilization afforded to the T state by BPG accounts for HbF having a higher affinity for O2 than HbA. Ref: Kennelly P.J., Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 6. Proteins: Myoglobin & Hemoglobin. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Which moiety of haemoglobin molecule binds 2,3 BPG at pH 7.0?
A. Amino terminal
B. Carboxyl terminal
C. Sulfhydryl terminal
D. Alcoholic terminal
| Amino terminal |
e31e0f01-201c-4e14-af4a-b933bc8b2d7e | Diagnosis of pheochromocytoma :-
The diagnosis is typically confirmed by measurement of urinary and plasma fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines.
However there are major regional institutional and international differences in the approach to the biochemical diagnosis of pheochromocytoma and there is still no consensus as to the 'best test'.
Historically, many institutions relied upon measurement of 24 hour urinary excretion of catecholamines and total metanephrines.
- Move recently plasma fractionated metanephrines has been proposed by some investigators as superior test.
- Now days the diagnostic test is based upon the patients clinical presentation. | Medicine | null | Investigation of choice in pheochromocytoma is -
A. CT scan
B. Urinary catecholamines
C. MIBG scan
D. Urinary calcium measurement
| Urinary catecholamines |
853f331e-692b-447c-9a06-bd4d042ceb94 | Ans. B: Monochorionic/diamniotic Approximately 70% of monozygotic twins are monochorionic /diamniotic. If splitting occurs later (ie, 9-12 d after feilization), monochorionic/ monoamniotic placentation occurs. Monochorionic/monoamniotic twins are rare; only 1% of monozygotic twins have this form of placentation. twins have a common placenta, with vascular communications between the 2 circulations. These twins can develop twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS). If twinning occurs more than 12 days after feilization, then the monozygotic feilized ovum only paially splits resulting in conjoined twins. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | If division of feilized egg takes place in between 5-8 days. It would give rise to which kind of twin pregnancy: March 2009, March 2013 (c)
A. Monochorionic/monoamniotic
B. Monochorionic/diamniotic
C. Dichorionic/ monoamniotic
D. Siamese twins
| Monochorionic/diamniotic |
92fe44f8-4dad-4d36-9bc8-ed4022615fea | Acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia can often be diagnosed only by expression of the platelet-specific antigens CD41 and/or CD61.It is classified under the AML-M7 category of the FAB classificationRef: Harrison 19th edition pg: 678 | Medicine | Haematology | Flowcytometry of an AML patient showed CD41 and CD61 positivity, it belongs to which FAB classification?
A. M0
B. M3
C. M5
D. M7
| M7 |
a7950679-82a7-44e8-968d-4538a9deff9b | Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a rare and often fatal viral disease characterized by progressive damage (-pathy) or inflammation of the white matter (leuko-) of the brain (-encephalo-) at multiple locations (multifocal). It is caused by the JC virus, which is normally present and kept under control by the immune system. The JC virus is harmless except in cases of weakened immune systems. In general, PML has a moality rate of 30-50% in the first few months, and those who survive can be left with varying degrees of neurological disabilities PML is a demyelinating disease, in which the myelinsheath covering the axons of nerve cells is gradually destroyed, impairing the transmission of nerve impulses. It affects the subcoical white matter, paicularly that of the parietal and occipital lobes. PML destroys oligodendrocytes and produces intranuclear inclusions. It is similar to another demyelinating disease, MS, but progresses much more quickly. The breakdown of myelin is commensurate with the degree of immunocompromised ref internet | Pathology | General pathology | Inclusion body in oligodendroglia is a feature of which of the following
A. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
B. Japanese encephalitis
C. Polio
D. CJD
| Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy |
86cbd8f1-e6da-4550-96de-f20385d34f54 | Risk for Postnatal Urinary Abnormality According to Degree of Renal Pelvis DilatationDilatationSecond trimesterThird trimesterPostnatal abnormalityMild4 to < 7mm7 to < 9mm12%Moderate7 to <= 10mm9 to <= 15mm45%Severe> 10mm> 15mm88%(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | Risk for postnatal urinary abnormality is severe if Renal pelvic dilatation is ----- in third trimester?
A. 4 to < 7mm
B. 7 to < 9mm
C. 9 to <= 15mm
D. > 15mm
| > 15mm |
0c89a3bd-5213-4f60-909c-4ca66e7dadae | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CAHFemale pseudo hermaphroditismo Have internal genitalia female typeo Karyo type XXo Masculinisation of external genitaliao Most common - CAHCongenital adrenal hyperplasiaM-C. 21 hydroxylase deficiencyo Other cause excess maternal androgen due to -Maternal ovarian tumor.Maternal drug intake,o TreatmentHormonal therapy.Surgical correction. | Pediatrics | Gonads | Female pseudohermaph rod itis m cause - MC.
A. CAH
B. Maternal ovarian tumour
C. Maternal drug intake
D. Chromosomal abnormalities
| CAH |
7d517a3a-6410-4a75-a591-1061e04c3687 | Ans. C: Phycomycetes Phycomycetes are lower fungi which have non-septate hyphae and form endogenous asexual spores (sporangiospores) contained within sporangia Systematic classification of fungi, based on their sexual spore formation, recognizes 4 classes: Phycomycetes: Non-septate hyphae, produces sporangiospores (asexual spores), oospores and zygospores (sexual spores) Ascomycetes: Septate hyphae, Produces conidia (asexual spores) and ascospores (sexual spores) Basidiomycetes: Septate hyphae, Produces conidia (asexual spores) and basidioapores (sexual spores) Fungi imperfectii: Septate hyphae, Produces conidia (asexual spores) and Whose sexual phase has not been identified Phycomycetes It is an taxon for ceain fungi with nonseptate hyphae. These fungi are classified under Zygomycota Zygomycota/ zygote fungi, term is derived from zygosporangia, where resistant spherical spores are formed during sexual reproduction. They are mostly terrestrial in habitat, living in soil or on decaying plant or animal material. Zygomycete hyphae may be coenocytic, forming septa only where gametes are formed or to wall off dead hyphae The common example of a zygomycete is black bread mold (Rhizopus stolonifer), a member of the Mucorales. It spreads over the surface of bread and other food sources, sending hyphae inward to absorb nutrients. In its asexual phase it develops bulbous black sporangia at the tips of upright hyphae, each containing hundreds of haploid spores.As in most zygomycetes, asexual reproduction is the most common form of reproduction. Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus stolonifera, as in other zygomycetes, occurs when haploid hyphae of different mating types are in close proximity to each other. Growth of the gametangia commences after gametangia come in contact, and plasmogamy, or the fusion of the cytoplasm, occurs. Karyogamy, which is the fusion of the nuclei, follows closely after. The zygosporangia are then diploid. Zygosporangia are typically thick-walled, highly resilient to environmental hardships, and metabolically ine. When conditions improve, however, they germinate to produce a sporangium or vegetative hyphae. Meiosis occurs during germination of the zygosporagium so the resulting spores or hyphae are haploid. Grows in warm and damp conditions. | Microbiology | null | Fungus having non-septate hyphae and producing sporangiospores is: March 2011
A. Ascomycetes
B. Basidiomycetes
C. Phycomycetes
D. Fungi imperfectii
| Phycomycetes |
dae33a58-b04e-4e4e-8307-271095e87cbc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Within 1 weekEarly granulation tissue is seen between 6-10 days.o Within one month mature granulation tissue is seen. | Pathology | null | A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occured -
A. Less than 1 hours
B. Within 24 hrs
C. Within 1 week
D. Within I month
| Within 1 week |
dc824aa2-258e-46da-8cf9-27d717d13ce8 | CYSTIC HYGROMA (Cavernous Lymphangioma)
It is a cystic swelling due to sequestration of a portion of jugular lymph sac from the lymphatic system, during the developmental period in utero.
Present at birth and so may cause obstructed labour. Occasionally present in early infancy.
Lymphatics fail to communicate to venous system; abnormal budding of lymphatics is seen.
Often it is associated with Turner’s, Down’s, Klinefelter syndromes and trisomy 18 and 13.
It is also called as hydrocoele of the neck.
Lymphatic malformation (LM) type can be microcystic (lymphangioma) or macrocystic (cystic hygroma). It can cause lymphoedema, soft tissue and bony hypertrophy, asymmetry (face), macrochelia, macroglossia, macrotia, cellulitis.
Key Concept:
It is a type of congenital lymphangioma and the common victims are infants and children.
Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 5th ed, page no 86, 216, 435 | Surgery | null | Cystic hygroma is
A. A form of hydrocele
B. A branchial cleft cyst
C. Salivary gland enlargement
D. Lymphangioma
| Lymphangioma |
cd637f59-03b3-4e28-8722-58467930dbae | Adenosine is used for acute termination of PSVT Verapamil and esmolol are used as an alternate 2nd choice of drugsRef: Katzung 11th ed pg 243 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Drug of choice for acute PSVT
A. Esmolol
B. Adenosine
C. Digoxin
D. Verapamil
| Adenosine |
10a33a43-0eb3-4da5-aae4-8ac7fbf373e1 | SLOW SAND OR BIOLOGICAL FILTERS Slow sand filters were first used for water treatment in 1804 in Scotland and subsequently in London. During the 19th century their use spread throughout the world. Even today, they are generally accepted as the standard method of water purification. Elements of a slow sand filter Essentially these consists of : (1) supernatant (raw) water (2) a bed of graded sand (3) an under-drainage system; and (4) a system of filter control valves. Vital layer : When the filter is newly laid, it acts merely as a mechanical strainer, and cannot truly be considered as "biological". But very soon, the surface of the sand bed gets covered with a slimy growth known as "Schmutzdecke", vital layer, zoogleal layer or biological layer. This layer is slimy and gelatinous and consists of threadlike algae and numerous forms of life including plankton, diatoms and bacteria. The formation of vital layer is known as "ripening" of the filter. It may take several days for the vital layer to form fully, and when fully formed it extends for 2 to 3 cm into the top poion of the sand bed. The vital layer is the "hea" of the slow sand filter. It removes organic matter, holds back bacteria and oxidizes ammoniacal nitrogen into nitrates and helps in yielding a bacteria-free water. Until the vital layer is fully formed, the first few days filtrate is usually run to waste. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 751 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | In a slow sand filter ,the element responsible for yielding bacteria freewater is the
A. Valve
B. Vital layer
C. Supernatant water
D. Under drainage system
| Vital layer |
114bc4d9-ca6c-4a72-8256-86594abc75af | Propanolol is a b-blocker. Verapamil should not be given with b blockers because additive sinus depression, conduction defects or asystole may occur. | Pharmacology | CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction | Propanolol is contraindicated in a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving:
A. Nifedipine
B. Aspirin
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
| Verapamil |
230bc396-e03a-4374-a3c4-a88c500dfa05 | Hea failure cells: Hemosiderin-laden macrophages Found in lung affected by CVC lung and not in the hea. Hemosiderin pigment in these cells stains blue with Prussian blue stain (Perl's stain). | Pathology | miscellaneous | Hea failure cells are stained by?
A. Alcian blue
B. Silver stains
C. Prussian blue
D. PAS
| Prussian blue |
afe4bd79-2776-406e-82d1-90537854c812 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., PA factor positive Seronegative spondvloahropathies The seronegative spondyloahropathies are a group of disorders that share ceain clinical features and genetic associations. The word seronegative referes to the absence of rheumatoid factor in this group of disorders. The seronegative spondyloahropathies include ? Ankylosing spondylitis Reactive ahritis --> Reiter syndrome and enteritis associated ahritis Psoriatic ahritis Ahritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease, i.e. enteropathic ahritis Features of seronegative spondyloahropathies o Onset usually before 40 years Absence of RA factor HLA - B27 positive Presence of uveitis | Surgery | null | Radiological sign in case of Pehe's disease ?
A. Epiphyseal calcification
B. Organized calcification
C. Lateral subluxation femur head
D. Restriction of abduction
| Organized calcification |
3b2a974d-ceb7-4bfe-88f8-5bb579de6e8e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Preservation of nutrition o Parboiling (partial cooking in steam) is technique of preserving the nutritive value of rice. In parboiling, greater parts of vitamins and minerals present in outer layer of the rice grain are driven into the deepar layers. With subsequent milling the nutrient are not removed. | Social & Preventive Medicine | General | Parboiling is done for-
A. Milling process
B. Polishing of rice
C. Preservation of nutrition
D. Storage of rice
| Preservation of nutrition |
a43a97f7-25ef-4719-9645-02998c399e78 | BEHAVIOUR THERAPY : Systematic Desensitization, Therapeutic-Graded Exposure, flooding, Paicipant, Modeling, Asseiveness Training, Social Skills Training, Aversion Therapy, Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing(EMDR)* Systematic Desensitization (Wolpe) based on counterconditioning, therapy for all types of phobia is exposure it can be done by several means systemic sensitization works on the mechanism of graded exposure along with relaxation flooding is a technique involved sudden and reapid exposure and extinction of phobia in systemic desensitization, the main steps that are invoved are mainly introducing a step ladder and combining it with relaxation and hence helps them to overcome that paicular phobia this method of systemic desensitization was given by Joseph Wolpe a person overcomes maladaptive anxiety elicited by a situation or an object by approaching the feared situation gradually in a state of complete relaxation and are then exposed to the stimulus that elicits the anxiety response. The negative reaction of anxiety is inhibited by the relaxed state, a process called reciprocal inhibition. Indications: Phobias, obsessions, compulsions, and ceain sexual disorders Reference: P.2789 30.3 Behavior Therapy(Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition) | Psychiatry | All India exam | Desensitization is a type of
A. Psychotherapy
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Behavioural therapy
D. Psycodynamic therapy
| Behavioural therapy |
c280ed44-f8bf-4d79-a712-e737165a8042 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Osteosarcoma o Bone-forming tumours are a sub-set of bone tumours that are characterised by their propensity to form excess osteoid. They can be further subdivided into benign and malignant tumours.Benign tumours# Osteoid osteoma# Osteoblastoma# Bone island (enostosis)# Osteopoikilosis# OsteomaMalignant tumourso Malignant bone-forming tumours are all osteosarcomas.# Osteosarcoma (conventional)# Telangiectatic osteosarcoma# Low-grade central osteosarcoma | Orthopaedics | Osteogenic Sarcoma | Which of the following is bone forming malignant tumour?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. Giant cell tumour
| Osteosarcoma |
aea05576-02c1-4748-a7a3-2ed929d00d33 | Varicose veins are due to the touosity of the long saphenous vein and occur mostly due to prolonged standing.The long saphenous vein is used to bypass the coronary aery after inveing the vein.Ref: Chaurasia; Volume 2; 6th edition; Page no: 135 | Anatomy | Lower limb | Vein used to bypass the coronary aery
A. Long saphenous vein
B. Sho saphenous vein
C. Soleal vein
D. Tibial vein
| Long saphenous vein |
764eb539-62b8-4057-b05f-98ebd0f79332 | Alkali can be lost from the gastrointestinal tract from diarrhea or from the kidneys (renal tubular acidosis, A). In these disorders, reciprocal changes in and result in a normal anion gap (AG). * In pure non-AG acidosis, therefore, the increase in above the normal value approximates the decrease in . | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | A normal-anion-gap metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with-
A. Diarrhoea
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Methyl alcohol poisoning
D. Acute renal failure
| Diarrhoea |
ddb1742f-db3f-4c14-83dd-c25fdb6d6287 | Ans. a (Sterilization standardization). (Ref. Ananthnarayan, Microbiology, 4th ed., 26, 29)# For determining the efficiency of moist-heat sterilization = Spores of bacillus stearothermophilus.# For determining the efficiency of dry-heat sterilization = Spores of non-toxigenic strains of C.tetani. | Microbiology | General | Thermatomyces is used in?
A. Sterilization standardization
B. Gram staining
C. Selective media preparation
D. Antibiotic sensitivity
| Sterilization standardization |
9572ab4b-2cc4-474c-a7ad-b975e5817fdf | Fat to Cell ratio - in bone marrow should be 1:1 so 1/2 hemopoietic cells and 1/2 are fat cells myeloid: erythroid ratio -in bone marrow -should be 3:1 -an increased ratio is found in infections, chronic myelogenous leukemia, or erythroid hypoplasia. | Pathology | miscellaneous | The ratio of fat cells and blood cells in bone marrow is-
A. 1:04
B. 1:02
C. 1:01
D. 2:01
| 1:01 |
86340e66-471e-4d96-81c8-2d24b5f00512 | Ans. (b) Trophic ulcer* Bedsore is a pressure ulcer. Most common in sacrum site due to persistent pressure in the back.* This is a type of trophic ulcer.* This can be prevented by frequent change of positioning of the bedridden patient and using Water/Aqua bed.* Once bedsore is formed it is difficult to treat.* Treatment extends from local wound debridement to flap procedures. | Surgery | Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery | Bedsore is an example of:
A. Tropical ulcer
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Venous ulcer
D. Post thrombotic ulcer
| Trophic ulcer |
41fc199d-a232-40e0-95e3-815ba10117a4 | Distant metastases blood stream are widespread and early.The sites affected,in descending order of involvement,are:the liver,adrenals,bones,pancreas,brain,opposite lung,kidneys & thyroid. Textbook of pathology-6th edition,Harsh Mohan,6th edition,page no:502 | Surgery | Cardio thoracic surgery | Most common sets of Metastases of carcinoma bronchi
A. Liver + Bones
B. Prostate
C. Kidney
D. Breast
| Liver + Bones |
bf39b6d2-0a60-41f6-b1e8-82bc3edb870a | (A) Orlistat # Anti Obesity Drugs:> Sibutramine: serotonin and nor-epinephrine reuptake inhibitor.> Orlistat: gastric and pancreatic lipase inhibitor.> Rimonabant: Selective cannabinoid receptors antagonist. Other Drugs> Leptin analogs: Under investigational study.> Orlistat is a synthetic hydrogenated derivative of a naturally occurring lipase inhibitor, lipostatin, produced by the mould Streptomyces toxytricini. Orlistat is a potent, slowly reversible inhibitor of pancreatic, gastric, and carboxylester lipases and phospholipase A2, which are required for the hydrolysis of dietary fat into fatty acids and monoacylglycerols. The drug acts in the lumen of the stomach and small intestine by forming a covalent bond with the active site of these lipases. Taken at a therapeutic dose of 120 mg tid, orlistat blocks the digestion and absorption of about 30% of dietary fat. After discontinuation of the drug, fecal fat usually returns to normal concentrations within 48-72 h.> No reference found regarding the drug named Rivastat. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Drug used for obesity:
A. Orlistat
B. Rivatat
C. Nitousoxide
D. Phenylepherine
| Orlistat |
8d666c0a-90bb-4560-b7ed-e2ccca67b62b | <p> caterogies of contact and post exposure prophylaxis in rabies:- Category 1: touching or feeding animals, licks on intact skin. PEP- none. Category 2: nibbling of uncovered skin, minor scratch/abrasions without bleeding. PEP- immediate vaccination and local treatment of wounds. Category 3: single/ multiple transdermal bites/scratches, licks on broken skin, contamination of mucous membrane with saliva from licks, contact with bats. PEP-immediate vaccination and administration of rabies immunoglobulin,local treatment of wounds. Wounds should not be sutured . This is to prevent additional trauma which may help spread virus into deeper tissues. Suturing if necessary has to be delayed for 24-48 hrs., applying minimal stiches under the cover of rabies immunoglobulin locally. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.279}</p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Which of the following will quality as a class III exposure to rabies?
A. Licks on intact skin a dog
B. Bites by wild animals
C. Bites on legs by a dog
D. Drinking unboiled milk of a suspect animal
| Bites on legs by a dog |
140e1ef2-28d0-48d3-8c43-148fdab7344b | Type I hypersensitivity reaction is IgE dependent. Cytotoxic IgE antibodies are fixed on the surface of tissue cells ( mast cells and basophils) in sensitized individuals. The antigen combines with the cell fixed antibody, leading to release of pharmacologically active substance that produces the clinical reaction. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg: 162 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
A. Ig A
B. Ig G
C. Ig M
D. Ig E
| Ig E |
a3ba4b69-8ca0-44d0-82bb-2ba12a338a7b | (A) Hyponatremia with sodium excretion > 20mEq/l # Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) secretion (SIADH) is defined by the hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality resulting from inappropriate, continued secretion or action of the hormone despite normal or increased plasma volume, which results in impaired water excretion.> Diagnosis:> In the absence of a single laboratory test to confirm the diagnosis, SIADH is best defined by the classic Bartter-Schwartz criteria, which can be summarized as follows: Hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality Continued renal excretion of sodium Urine less than maximally dilute Absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion Absence of other causes of hyponatremia Correction of hyponatremia by fluid restriction> Cardinal features of SIADH include: Hyponatermia (dilutional hyponetremia with Na+ < 135 mmol/l) Decreased plasma osmolality (<280 m osm/kg) with inappropriately increased urine osmolality > 150 m osm). Urine sodium over 20 meq/l Low Blood urea Nitrogen < Wmg/L Hypouricemia (<4mg/dL), Absence of cardiac, liver or renal disease, Normal thyroid and adrenal function> A high BUN suggests a volume contracted state and excludes a diagnosis of SIADH. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | SIADH feature
A. Hyponatremia with sodium excretion > 20 mEq/L
B. Hypernatremia with hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia with Na+ excretion < 20 mEq/L
D. Hyponatremia with hyperkalemia
| Hyponatremia with sodium excretion > 20 mEq/L |
1cc80d08-ee1c-4af3-a59f-02a140f9deab | Placental alkaline phosphatase is a marker of seminoma. Also know Gamma-glutamyl-transpeptidase is marker of - seminoma testis AFP is not produced by - seminomas and Choriocarcinomas | Anatomy | Urology | Placental alkaline phosphatase is marker of
A. Theca cell tumour
B. Teratoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Seminoma
| Seminoma |
65848bd9-4c61-4b86-b1ce-4cfaea76c1e4 | Ans: bRef: Park, 17th ed, p. 72 & 18th ed, p. 76 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Randomisation is useful to eliminate:(1994)
A. Observer bias
B. Confounding factors
C. Patient bias
D. Sampling bias
| Confounding factors |
0e6a007b-3609-4343-9732-a407c7d89cf2 | Siuins They are a family of NAD-dependent protein deacetylases. There are at least 7 types They have non-redundant functions designed to adapt bodily functions to various environmental stresses, including Food deprivation and DNA damage. Functions:- These include proteins that inhibit metabolic activity Reduce apoptosis Stimulate protein folding Inhibit the harmful effects of oxygen free radicals. Siuins also increase insulin sensitivity and glucose metabolism, and may be targets for the treatment of diabetes. | Pathology | Miscellaneous | Which of the following is not associated with actions of siuins?
A. Inhibit metabolic activity
B. Reduce apoptosis
C. Increased insulin sensitivity
D. Reduced by calorie restriction
| Reduced by calorie restriction |
f583e168-b3e4-48ba-9f66-f8f278ee490a | Lung: 40%
Breast : 10 - 30%
Melanoma : 5 - 15%
Unknown : 15% | Surgery | null | Which of the following is the most common origin of cerebral metastasis?
A. Lung cancer
B. Breast cancer
C. Melanoma
D. Colon cancer
| Lung cancer |
398be206-b6f1-4866-b075-25e53245910c | Ans. (d) Clara cells(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 670; 8th/pg 679)Club cells, also known as bronchiolar exocrine cells, originally known as Clara cells, are dome-shaped cells with short microvilli, found in the small airways (bronchioles) of the lungs, produce substances similar to surfactant. | Pathology | Respiration | Which cells produce surfactant in conducting part of the lung?
A. Goblet cells
B. Brush cells
C. Basal cells
D. Clara cells
| Clara cells |
dcab83bd-2163-4aef-a8bd-09215454872c | Experiments have shown that the cardiac output increases approximately in propoion to the surface area of the body. Therefore, cardiac output is frequently stated in terms of the cardiac index, which is the cardiac output per square meter of body surface area. The average human being who weighs 70 kilograms has a body surface area of about 1.7 square meters, which means that the normal average cardiac index for adults is about 3 L/min/m2 of body surface area. Ref: Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 13th edition. Page:245 clinical impoance useful marker of how well the hea is functioning as a pump by directly correlating the volume of blood pumped by hea with body suface area. Normal range is 2.6 to 4.2 L/min/m2 CI less than 2.2L/min/m2 is seen in cardiogenic shock. | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Normal cardiac index is
A. 3.2
B. 2.8
C. 2.4
D. 4.4
| 3.2 |
1f016c82-36d1-47e9-b392-c1b0be631b71 | Ans. B i.e. Pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx, pelvic abscess | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Sequence of events, after salpingitis, in gonorrhoeal pelvic infection is: March 2013
A. Hydrosalpinx, pyosalpinx, pelvic abscess
B. Pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx, pelvic abscess
C. Pelvic abscess, hydrosalpinx, pyosalpinx
D. Pelvic abscess, pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx
| Pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx, pelvic abscess |
423d5d29-5d8e-4a2d-b6ca-8dd41e27cd83 | Ans: a (Downs) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 175Down's syndrome is the most common of the chromosome disorders and a major cause of mental retardation.Cytogenetic abnormalityNon disjunction (MC) = 95%Translocation (robertsonian) = 4 %Mosaicism = 1%Increased maternal age is the main risk factor .Translocation carriers carry high recurrence risk.Clinical features:Cardiac - endocardial cushion defect (MC)HypotoniaGIT - duodenal atresia, TEF, IHPS, Hirschprung disease, annular pancreasMental retardationShort statureMusculoskeletal system - atlantoaxial dislocationMicrocephaly/ brachycephalyRespiratory - recurrent aspiration pneumoniaOpen AFEndocrine - primary gonadal defect, hypothyroidismOblique palpebral fissureHaematopoietic - increased ALL and AMLBmshfield spot. But AML has a betterprognosis than normal individualsDepressed nasal bridgesLow set earsCNS alzhiemers in patients older than 40 yearsShort neck Simian crease,clinodactyly Sandal gap between 1st and 2nd toes Kennedy crease | Pathology | Genetics | Most common chromosomal defect is:
A. Down's
B. Turner
C. Edward
D. Patau
| Down's |
088f821d-5105-4b68-85de-c55f21c199e8 | DiGeorge Syndrome (Thymic Hypoplasia) DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital defect in thymic development resulting in deficient T-cell maturation. The disorder is a consequence of a developmental malformation affecting the third and fouh pharyngeal pouches, structures that give rise to the thymus, parathyroid glands, and poions of the face and aoic arch. | Pathology | Miscellaneous | Thymic hypoplasia is:
A. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
B. Henoch Schonlein disease
C. Digeorge syndrome
D. Bloom syndrome
| Digeorge syndrome |
61a08891-b452-454e-90d1-e6160cad0ccf | (Phenylalanine hydroxylase) (470 - RS 7th) (366 - U.S)PHENYLKETONURIA - 5 types of hyperphenylalaminemiasHYPER PHENYLALANINEMIASTypeConditionProbable enzyme defectTreatmentIClassical phenyl ketonuriaPhenylalanine hydroxylaseLow phenylalanine dietIIPeristent hyperphenyl alaninaemiaDecreased phenylalanine hydroxylase enzymeNone but temporary dietery therapyIIITransient mild hyperphenyl alaninaemiaMaturational delay of phenyl alanine hydroxylase enzymesSame as Type IIIVDihydropteridine reductase deficiencyDeficient or absent dihydropteridine reductaseDOPA, 5- 0 H tryptophan, carbidopaVAbnormal dihydrobiopterin functionDihydrobiopterin synthesis defectSame as type IV* Alkaptonuria - homogentisate oxidase deficiency enzyme* Type I Tyrosinaemia - Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase enzyme deficiency* Type II Tyrosinaemia - Hepatic transaminase enzyme deficiency* Hereditary tyrosinaemia - pOH - phenyl pyruvate oxidase enzyme deficiency | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | "Classical phenyl ketonuria" is caused by deficiency of
A. Phenylalanine transaminase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Tyrosine transaminase
D. Tyrosine hydroxylase
| Phenylalanine hydroxylase |
d183646c-4650-4f37-9fac-b3142880a379 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Zona glomerulosa * The adrenal gland consists of an outer cortex and inner medulla. The hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex are called corticosteroid, which are classified into glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids and androgens. The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are epinephrine and some norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex is essential for life; the adrenal medulla is not.* Adrenal cortex has three layers zona glomerulosa, zonafasciculata, and zona reticularis. The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer and is the site of mineralocorticoid synthesis. The middle layer (zona fasciculata) and the innermost layer (zona reticularis) synthesize and secrete glucocorticoids and androgens. Though both layers (zona fasciculata & reticularis) secrete both hormones, zona fasciculata mainly secretes glucocorticoids and zona reticularis mainly secretes androgens.* Corticosteroids are classified as : i) Glucocorticoids; ii) Mineralocorticoids; and iii) Androgens.* Cortisol and cortisosterone are the chief natural glucocorticoids. They are so called because of their widespread effect on glucose (and protein) metabolism.* Aldosterone is the chief mineralocorticoid. It regulates K+ ions, sodium balance and ECF volume in the body.* Dehydroepindrosterone is the androgenic hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex.* All corticosteroid hormones act on intracellular cytoplasmic receptors. | Physiology | Endocrinology and Reproduction | Aldosterone is secreted by-
A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona fasiculata
C. Zona reticularis
D. Adrenal medulla
| Zona glomerulosa |
d074820d-1dfc-4c8f-b73f-804ec9a961b9 | The most common bacteria linked to ascending /acute cholangitis is Escherichia coli(25-50%),followed by other gram negative bacilli like Klebsiella(15-20%),proteus and pseudomonas.Among gram positive,enterococcus is common(10-20%)and anaerobes like Clostridium. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:643 | Surgery | G.I.T | A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. The most likely organism is
A. Escherichia colli
B. Bacillus fragilis
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
| Escherichia colli |
7aa5185e-64f7-4424-a486-a3f2d47002c8 | The winged scapula results from a lesion of the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. This muscle is responsible for rotating the scapula upward, which occurs during abduction of the arm above the horizontal. The long thoracic nerve comes off the C5 to C7 roots of the brachial plexus. The diaphragm is supplied by the phrenic nerve, which comes off the spinal nerve roots C3 to C5. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | A 55-year-old male firefighter is admitted to the hospital after blunt trauma to his right axilla. Examination reveals winging of the scapula and partial paralysis of the right side of the diaphragm. Which of the following parts of the brachial plexus have been injured?
A. Cords
B. Divisions
C. Roots
D. Terminal branches
| Roots |
9c2070ba-2308-4336-b697-fd45254035e8 | Calcitonin is a hypocalcemic peptide hormone that in several mammalian species acts as an indirect antagonist to the calcemic actions of PTH. Calcitonin is produced by the thyroid medullary C cells, derived from the neural crest derivatives from the ultimobranchial body. The C cells are interspersed throughout the thyroid gland, although their density is greatest in the juncture of the upper one-third and lower two-thirds of the gland. The C-cells are impoant because of their involvement in medullary thyroid cancer. Reference : page 2283 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | Medicine | Endocrinology | Calcitonin is secreted from -
A. Ancinar cells of thyroid
B. Chief cells of parathyroid
C. "C" cells of thyroid
D. Oxyphil cells of parathyroids
| "C" cells of thyroid |
19aa01af-f8ce-471f-8071-fd9d0f201500 | Stone formation is most common in submaxillary (submandibular) gland (80-90% cases) followed by parotid gland (10-20%). It can occur at any age with a predilection for men. Predisposing factors for stone formation are systemic disease (Hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia, gout, diabetes and hypeension) therefore submandibular calculi contain primarily calcium phosphate and hydroxyapatite and are radiopaque and visualized on X-ray Parotid gland calculi are less radiopaque M/C presentation - Recurrent swelling and pain in the submandibular gland exacerbated with eating. IOC to detect stones - CT scan Sialography is not done routinely and is contraindicated in a patient of sialadenitis. Management Depending on the size of stone and the site at which it is located, it can be removed by: Intraoral extraction Surgical excision Endoscopic removal | ENT | null | Calculus is most commonly seen in which salivary gland:
A. Sublingual
B. Palatal
C. Parotid
D. Submandibular
| Submandibular |
1871516b-e496-4a38-acad-7b9e5cbe8eb7 | Indications of Liver Transplantation MC indication of LT HCV induced cirrhosisQ 2nd MC indication of LT Alcoholic liver diseases MC indication of pediatric LT Biliary atresiaQ MC metabolic disorder requiring LT Alpha-1 antytrypsin deficiencyQ MC indication for LT following acute liver failure Acetaminophen toxicityQ | Surgery | NEET 2019 | Most common indication of liver transplantation in children:-
A. Biliary atresia
B. Wilson's disease
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
| Biliary atresia |
587e0987-cdac-410c-98eb-ac38d0cb682f | Apoptosis is characterized by the activation of endonucleases, which leads to DNA fragmentation. The chromatin of apoptotic nuclei appears clumped as inpyknosism, but karyolysis does not occur. Nuclei may become fragmented, but this fragmentation is distinct from the mitotic division. Apoptosis does not induce an influx of inflammatory cells, and the dead cell fragments are taken up by adjacent cells in the tissue itself. Similar to other forms of cell death, apoptosis is associated with an influx of calcium into the cytosol. | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following is typical of apoptosis?
A. Activation of DNA synthesis, as in the mitotic cycle
B. Activation of endogenous endonucleases
C. Reduced cytosolic free calcium
D. Karyolysis
| Activation of endogenous endonucleases |
c61e6b5c-a20d-4e9a-8530-2f94919a8919 | Indications of fine needle aspiration in liver abscess are - in case of large abscess (>10cm), infected abscess, failure of drug therapy, large left lobe abscess, seronegative, abscess in pregnancy where drug therapy cannot be used. Reference :SRB edition 5 ,page no.599 | Surgery | G.I.T | Indications for fine needle aspiration in liver abscess are
A. Recurrent
B. Left lobe
C. Refractory to treatment after 48-72 hrs
D. > 10 cms size
| > 10 cms size |
b15e6670-b733-424a-9a52-951ceca9aa72 | Option C: Corticosteroids suppress eosinophils, lymphocytes, and natural killer cells, inhibiting the natural inflammatory process in an infected or injured part of the body.
Option A: Excessive corticosteroid therapy can lead to Cushing’s syndrome.
Options B and D: Corticosteroids do not suppress the pain receptors and neural transmission. | Dental | null | Corticosteroids are potent suppressors of the body’s inflammatory response. Which of the following conditions or actions do they suppress?
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Pain receptors
C. Immune response
D. Neural transmission
| Immune response |
3afa0cc0-79b2-4f0e-ad1b-474f7bb231d2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CT o Procedure of choice for emergent evaluation of acute intracerebral hemorrhage - CT scan. | Radiology | Brain Imaging: Anatomy, Trauma, and Tumors | Investigation of choice to evaluate intracranial hemorrhage of less than 48 hours is -
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. PET
D. SPECT
| CT scan |
0e544944-bc73-4d74-90bd-3b9e6634b39e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Expanded trinucleotide repeat o Freidrich ataxia is an autosomal recessive disorder.o It is caused by loss of functional mutation in frataxin gene (FxN) gene.o Frataxin gene is located on chromosome 9ql 3.o Majority of patients have an expanded trinucleotide repeat in intron 1 of both alleles of frataxin gene. | Medicine | Ataxic Disorders | Fredrich's ataxia is caused by which type of mutation-
A. Point mutation
B. Expanded trinucleotide repeat
C. Missense mutation
D. Inversion
| Expanded trinucleotide repeat |
f6a4d100-3fa3-499d-9353-e90291ff1821 | Southampton wound grading system for healing and injection :
Grade 0 is normal healing.
Grade 1 is with bruising / mild erythema.
Grade 2 is severe erythema with other features of inflammation at or around wound.
Grade 3 is serous or bloody discharge.
Grade 4 is presence of pus or deep infection or tissue break - down or significant haematoma. | Surgery | null | Wound with bloody discharge belongs to which grade as per Southampton wound grading system
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
| Grade 3 |
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