id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
c3128ba5-195e-461e-a422-dc9ceecb6887 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Enterococcus The bacteria in this question is showing growth in 6.5% NaC1, non bile senstive (ie growing in the presence of bile) and showing 3 hemolysis, Enterococci have all these features. | Microbiology | null | A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to vancomycin shows growth in 6.5% NaCI, is non bile sensitive. It is likely to be -
A. Strep agalactiae
B. Strep pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep bovis
| Enterococcus |
a09ccfd1-a60e-40e8-9e3b-a03e30883782 | Kaposi’s sarcoma has four major clinical presentations: classic (chronic), endemic (lymph-adenopathic; African), immunosuppression-associated (transplant), and AIDS-related. The early lesion (patch stage) is characterized by proliferation of small veins and capillaries around one or more preexisting dilated vessel.
More advanced lesions (plaque stage) are nodular and show increased numbers of small capillaries or dilated vascular channels interspersed with proliferating sheets of sarcomatous or atypical spindle cells, often with large numbers of extravasated erythrocytes and abundant hemosiderin deposition.
Infiltration by chronic inflammatory cells is also variable. In the nodular stage, all the histologic features are more prominent than plaque stage. | Pathology | null | The palate of an HIV +ve patient shows the following lesion, the probable diagnosis is:
A. Kaposi’s sarcoma
B. Lymphangioma
C. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
| Kaposi’s sarcoma |
00fbc03c-202e-4401-9887-44517b2cdac0 | Multiple sclerosis :- - is m/c immune mediated inflammatory demyelinating disease of CNS - autoimmune destruction of myelin formed - Dawson fingers - are radiological feature of Multiple sclerosis - are periventricular white matter hyperintensities perpendicular to ventricles - involvement of calloso-septal interface - open ring/ horseshoe enhancement is suggestive of demyelination | Radiology | Neuroradiology | Dawson Fingers are feature of
A. Parkinsonism
B. Multiple Sclerosis
C. Progressive supra nuclear palsy
D. CJD
| Multiple Sclerosis |
f26b3e4d-831f-4366-87ab-2436ad8d71f9 | Peritonsillar abscess ( Quinsy) is the collection of pus in the peritonsillar space which lies between the capsule of tonsil and superior constrictor muscle. A peritonsillar abscess usually follows acute tonsillitis. First crystal Magna is infected and sealed off. Culture of pus from the abscess May reveal beta-hemolytic streptococci, S.aureus, or anaerobic organisms. (Ref: Diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no.298) | ENT | Pharynx | Peritonsillar abscess is most commonly caused by
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
D. Hemophilus influenza
| Beta hemolytic streptococcus |
e1dca27f-ebec-4358-be6b-5fccabc7c5b3 | Ans. B: Psoriasis Plaque psoriasis is the most common presentation of psoriasis and of all the patterns is the most likely to affect the typical areas of the elbows, knees, umbilicus and lower back. It tends to be a relatively persistent or chronic pattern of psoriasis that can be improved with treatment but is difficult to clear completely with topical treatments alone. It is characterised by large flat areas (plaques) of psoriasis with typical silvery scale. These plaques may join together to involve very extensive areas of the skin paicularly on the trunk and limbs. It is often accompanied by scalp and nail psoriasis. | Skin | null | Silver plaques are a feature of: September 2006
A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Vitiligo
D. Albinism
| Psoriasis |
094a7e73-c047-4ff0-8c51-6da21f523e49 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Complete bacteriological cure o Chemotherapy is indicated in every' case of active tuberculosis.o The objective of treatment is cure-that is, the elimination of both the fast and slowly multiplying bacilli from the patient's body.o The effects of chemotherapy are judged not by the anatomic healing of lesions, but maily by the elimination of bacilli from the patient's sputum. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Tuberculosis | Main aim for treatment of TB -
A. Prevention of complication
B. Prevention of disease transmission
C. Complete clinical cure
D. Complete bacteriological cure
| Complete bacteriological cure |
40a26a04-2f6a-4dad-ac46-2d977394f16b | Weber`s test lateralizes to the affected ear in a conductive hearing loss and to the normal ear in a sensorineural hearing loss. In case of a middle ear pathology, there is conductive hearing loss and hence weber`s test lateralizes to the affected ear.Weber`s is the most sensitive test, lateralizes even at 5 dB of hearing difference between the two ears.Ref: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 53 | ENT | Ear | In right middle ear pathology, weber test will be
A. Normal
B. Centralised
C. Deted to right
D. Deted to left
| Deted to right |
bb4fb72b-8488-40b6-97d1-b2cbb551e5bb | Red Cells 42 days with the appropriate additives( SAG-M) 2-6 oC Platelets 5 days 20-24 oC Cryoprecipitate 2yrs At - 30degC It is a supernatant precipitate of FFP and is rich in factor VIII and fibrinogen. Ref: Bailey and love. 27th edition. Pg no:21 | Surgery | General surgery | Which one of the following blood fractions is stored at - 40oC
A. Cryoprecipitate
B. human albumin
C. Platelet concentrate
D. Packed red cells
| Cryoprecipitate |
675eef71-e05c-4d4c-aaa7-31bca3b46681 | The next step in the process of leukocyte recruitment is migration of the leukocytes through the endothelium, called transmigration or diapedesis. Transmigration of leukocytes occurs mainly in post-capillary venules. Chemokines act on the adherent leukocytes and stimulate the cells to migrate through interendothelial spaces toward the chemical concentration gradient, that is, toward the site of injury or infection where the chemokines are being produced. REF: ROBBINS pathology 10th edition | Pathology | All India exam | Process of migration of leukocytes through the endothelium is through
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diapedesis
D. Apoptosis
| Diapedesis |
923f811b-cc57-45e4-9134-8c50221a63be | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Major life treatening events Stressors for stress disorders* Stress disorders occur after an extreme traumatic events involving the threat of personal death or injury. They can arise from experiences in war, torture, natural catastroph (earthquake, volcano, floods), assault, rape, and serious accidents (e.g., in car) in burning building.* Symptoms of PTSD develop within 6 months of stressor, However 10% patients have delayed onset.Risk factors for Stress disorders1) Vulnerability factors: - Low education, Lower social class, female gender, low self esteem/neurotic traits, previous traumatic events (including childhood trauma), previous self or family history of psychiatric problems (mood/ anxiety disorders).2) Protective factors: - High IQ, higher social class, male gender, psychopathic traits, chance to view body of dead relative / friend.3) Biological factors: - Following systems are hyperactive in PTSD : -a) Noradrenergic systemb) Opioid systemc) Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HDA) axis* Recently, the role of Hippocampus in PTSD has received increased attention. Animal studies have shown that stress is associated with structural changes in the hippocampus, and studies of combat veterans with PTSD have revealed a lower average volume in the hippocampal region of the brain. Structural changes in the amygadala, an area of the brain associated with fear, have also been demonstrated. | Psychiatry | Anxiety & Stress | Post traumatic stress disorder is due to?
A. Head injury
B. CVD
C. Minor stress
D. Major life threatening events
| Major life threatening events |
87e3e6a6-7e30-4a05-baa7-f9bb1113a442 | *Traumatic spine injuries most commonly affect cervical spine (50-60%)followed by dorsolumbar junction. Ref: Clinical Ohopaedics maheswari 9th p.786 | Anatomy | null | Most common site for trauma of spine is-
A. Cervical veebrae
B. Thoracic veebrae
C. Lumbar veebrae
D. Sacrum veebrae
| Cervical veebrae |
d309d1a8-a5b6-43a2-9d39-1478296a3b2d | The amount of ORS solution she should give is 50-100 ml ( 1/4 - 1/2 cup) of ORS solution for a child less than 2 years old. 100-200 ml for older children. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Gastrointestinal tract | A 5-year-old with loose stools was treated with plan A, how much ORS should be given per stool for the kid
A. 0-50ml
B. 50-100ml
C. 100-200ml
D. 200-300ml
| 100-200ml |
66c85368-5da8-418c-b2bb-d1ddcc87cfd7 | Ans. (a) Obstetric complications(Ref: Harrison 18th ed/pg 1390)The most common causes are bacterial sepsis, malignant disorders such as solid tumors or acute promyelocytic leukemia, and obstetric causes. DIC is diagnosed in almost one-half of pregnant women with abruptio placentae, or with amniotic fluid embolism | Pathology | Bleeding Disorders | Most common cause of DIC
A. Obstetric complications
B. Cyanotic heart disease
C. Malignancies
D. Extensive bums
| Obstetric complications |
3757d845-e48b-47f1-8970-cc47827826c6 | Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells are involved in myelin formation around axons in the CNS and peripheral nervous system respectively. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg: 80. | Physiology | Nervous system | Myelin sheath in CNS is produced by
A. Oligodendrocyte
B. Schwann cell
C. Microglia
D. Macroglia
| Oligodendrocyte |
cf6eff8b-4691-4286-9886-d329aed5e8cd | A i.e. Microglia Gitter or Hoega cell is a lipid laden microglial cello commonly seen at the edge of healing brain infarcts. It phagocytize lipid from necrotic or degenerating brain cells. It is also known as compound granule cell, gitterzelle (lattice or wire-net), mesoglia or pefivesicular glial cell. | Anatomy | null | Gitter cells are -
A. Microglia
B. Modified macrophages
C. Astrocytes
D. Neutrophils
| Microglia |
09a96ea5-619e-47e6-961d-805ddd6c0f4e | Friends, direct quote from Robbins….’HER2/neu overexpression is associated with poorer survival but its main importance is as a predictor of response to agents that target this transmembrane protein (examples trastuzumab or lapatinib).’
• The overexpression is due to amplification of the gene HER2/neu located on 17q21. Ackerman writes…. HER2/new encodes a transmembrane glycoprotein with tyrosine kinase activity and its overexpression is a good predictor of response to herceptin (trastuzumab) but not a good predictor of response to chemotherapy or overall survival. | Pathology | null | HER2/neu receptor plays a role in
A. Predicting therapeutic response
B. Diagnosis of breast cancer
C. Screening of breast cancer
D. Recurrence of tumor
| Predicting therapeutic response |
221657a0-71b8-4e1d-980b-9f70539e7295 | Pattern of calcification in Breast Diseases Carcinoma - Microcalcification, punctuate, branching Fibroadenoma - Popcorn (coarse, granular, crushed Stone) Fibrocystic disease - powdery Fat necrosis - Curvilinear Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :870 | Anatomy | Endocrinology and breast | A young female came to surgery OPD with bilateral breast mass. On examination, mass was firm and mobile. What is the diagnosis on the basis of findings
A. Breast cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. DCIS
D. LCIS
| Fibroadenoma |
fdfbe5ca-1d5b-4492-a126-5beb70d352c6 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Toxin produced by gram positive anaerobic bacillus o Food poisoning due to ingestion of honey is caused by clostridium botulinum. o Clostridium is a gram positive spore forming anaerobic bacilli. | Pediatrics | null | 12.6 m old baby was brought c/o difficulty in feeding. The child was found to be hypotonic with a weak gag. The child is on breast mild and mother also gives honey to the child during periods of excessive crying. The causative agent is -
A. Gram positive aerobic coccus
B. Gram positive anaerobic spre-suffering bacillus
C. Toxin produced by gram positive anaerobic bacillus
D. Echovirus
| Toxin produced by gram positive anaerobic bacillus |
909db03b-ff60-45ad-8d6f-712d5c830451 | Ans. c. Sporothrix schenkii (Ref: Ananthnarayan 8/e p609; Harrison 19/e p1353 18/e p1664; Journal of Neglected Tropical Diseases: vol 6.6; June 2012: 'Sporotrichosisin sub-himalayan India (PLOS NQeg Trop Dis. 2012 June 6 (6): 1673)Presence of multiple ulcers in the leg, along the lymphatic channels, in a farmer (outdoor worker) from the sub-himalayan region suggests the diagnosis of Sporotrichosis, caused by Sporothrix schenkii.SporotrichosisSporotrichosis is a subacute or chronic granulomatous mycotic infection involving primarily the skin and subcutaneous tissue with neighboring lymphatics.Subcutaneous mycosis, caused by Sporothrix schenkii (dimorphic fungi)Q, colonies are blackish (variation in pigmentation) and shiny but becomes wrinkled and fuzzy with age.Epidemiology: Sporotrichosis is worldwide in distribution, but more common among people living in temperate and subtropical regions with high humidityQ.In India, Sporotrichosis is known to be endemic in the sub-himalayan regionsQ, ranging from Himachal Pradesh in the north-west to Assam and West Bengal in the East.Sporotrichosis most commonly infects persons involved in outdoor activity such as landscaping, gardening, farming, nursery workers and green house workersQ.Sporotrichosis is the most frequently encountered subcutaneous mycosis in the sub-himalayan beltQ.Source of Infection: Acquired from thorn pricksQ of rose, sphagnum moss, etc. into subcutaneous tissue through minor trauma.Clinical features: Most cases occur in upper limbQ, usual site of infection is extremityQ (facial lesion in case of children) A papule or nodule develops at the site of inoculation after days or weeks. The papule or nodule the softens and breaks down forming an indolent ulcer. Sporotrichosis is characterized by an asymptomatic nodule, which over a period of time becomes ulcerated nodules, lesions are usually arranged In 'linear fashion' along the lymphatic drainageQ. Pulmonary Sporotrichosis, extra-cutaneous Sporotrichosis, is usually present as single chronic cavitary upper lobe lesion, portal is probably lung.Diagnosis: Culture (most reliable)Q of pus, joint fluid, sputum or skin biopsy in which septate hyphae carrying flower like cluster of small conidia is seen. In tissues, fungus is seen as 'cigar shaped yeast'Q (yeast cell without mycelia) Sometimes 'Asteroid bodies'Q can be seen which is formed due to antigen-antibody reaction.Treatment:Cutaneous Sporotrichosis: DOC is ItraconazoleQAlternative Potassium IodideQExtra-cutaneous Sporotrichosis: DOC is IV Amphotericin BQAlternative itraconazole | Microbiology | Mycology | A former from the sub-Himalayan region presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely causative agent is:
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Cladosporium species
C. Sporothrix schenkii
D. Aspergillus
| Sporothrix schenkii |
c7a891dc-aa92-4496-be61-5dae69f748e9 | Knee extension is carried out by L-2, 3 and 4 (Femoral nerve). Injury at the level of L- 5, doesn't affect knee extension. Knee flexion is carried out by the root value: L -5 and S-1 (Tibial nerve). Toe extension requires L-5 (deep peroneal nerve) Ref - BDC 6th e p140 lowerlimb | Anatomy | Lower limb | Which of the following movements will not be affected by involvement of the L5 Nerve root?
A. Thigh abduction
B. Knee Flexion
C. Knee Extension
D. Toe Extension
| Knee Extension |
e432bcc7-b6b1-48a3-bf6c-a28264a4289c | Ans. With apex towards the direction of phoria in glasses for treatment | Ophthalmology | null | In heterophoria prism is used:
A. With apex towards the direction of phoria in glasses for treatment
B. With apex towards the direction of phoria for exercises only
C. For exercises mainly in hyperphoria
D. To detect grade III of binocular vision
| With apex towards the direction of phoria in glasses for treatment |
2d871ee2-06aa-4794-9380-2897e3d0dde1 | This patient has :-
False but firm belief → Delusion.
Hand passing through the body & gripping his lungs → delusion is bizarre (belief that is impossible):
Bizarre delusions are seen in schizophrenia. | Psychiatry | null | In a young male, history of firm unshakable belief of hands passing through the body & gripping his lungs indicates
A. Schizophrenia
B. Depression
C. Somatization
D. Asthma
| Schizophrenia |
7592d65c-0b0c-43cc-9f9a-43c5a2e2e701 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., >90% Erythroderma (generalized exfoliative dermatitis) Erythroderma is the term used when the majority of the skin is erythmatous red color and usually associated with crusts, there may be associated erosions, pustules, shedding of nails or hair. "Exfoliative dermatitis (erythroderma) refers to a scaling erythematous dermatitis involving 90% or more of the cutaneous surface". Exfoliative dermatitis is characterized by : - Erythema Scaling This often obscures the primary lesions, For example in psoriasis teh characteristic lesion is erythmatous plaque with silvery scale, on extensors. When erytherma occurs as a complication, most of the cutaneous surface is involved by erythma which obscures the primary lesions of psoriasis. Causes of Erythroderma (exfoliative dermatitis) 1. Skin disorders Psoriasis Dermatitis/Eczema (atopic, stasis, contact, seborrheic) Pityriasis rubra pilaris Lichen planus 2. Systemic diseases --> Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma 3. Drugs --> Gold, Allopurinol, Phenytoin, penicillin, Sulfonamides. 4. Idiopathic (secondary to solid tumors of lung, liver, prostate, thyroid, colon). Treatment of erythroderma (exfoliative dermatitis) Topical coicosteroids are the primary category of medication used to treat exfoliative dermatitis. A sedative antihistaminic may be a useful adjunct for pruritic patients. Systemic antibiotics may be used if infection is suspected. Systemic coicosteroids may be useful in severe disease for remission induction, but not for maintenance. Systemic coicosteroids should not be used in psoriasis (psoriatic erythroderma); Acitretin or methotrexate are preferred. | Skin | null | Erythroderma % of skin involved is ?
A. >90%
B. <30%
C. 30-60%
D. 60-70%
| >90% |
bb751308-606f-44d6-a271-77c5e2aa495e | MEDULLARY CARCINOMA breast : * High nuclear grade, aneuploidy, hormone receptors - nt, HER2/neu overexpression -nt. * Lymph node metastases -infrequent. * Syncytial growth pattern and pushing borders - d/t overexpression of adhesion molecules -> intercellular cell adhesion molecule and E-cadherin -) limit metastatic potential. HISTOLOGY : Solid, syncytium-like sheets of large cells with vesicular, pleomorphic nuclei, prominent nucleoli 4 > 75% of the tumor Frequent mitotic figures; Moderate to marked lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate surrounding and within the tumor. Pushing (noninfiltrative) border. * Poorly differentiated. ref : bailey and love 27th ed | Surgery | All India exam | tripple negative ductal invasive carcinoma of breast is ?
A. medullary carcinoma
B. colloidal
C. basal like invasive
D. lobular
| colloidal |
5b855ffe-25f5-4a6b-b565-ca9f5bb5f4bd | Giant papillary conjunctivitis is a complication of contact lens use. Reference : Donshik, P.C. (2003). Contact lens chemistry and giant papillary onjunctivitis. | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | Giant papillary Conjunctivitis is seen in -
A. Contact lens user
B. Trachoma
C. Spring Cattarh
D. Mycotic corneal ulcer
| Contact lens user |
336276a6-99d1-475d-8e79-ef2167176072 | Major duodenal papilla → Hepatopancreatic ampulla (opening of the biliary-pancreatic duct).
Minor duodenal papilla → Accessory pancreatic duct opening. | Anatomy | null | The minor duodenal papilla is opening of -
A. Hepatic duct
B. Hepatopancreatic ampulla
C. Accessory pancreatic duct
D. Bile duct
| Accessory pancreatic duct |
39894ab0-dba6-47d6-ad45-f15928bc5ca7 | Neoadjuvant chemotherapyNeoadjuvant chemotherapy is the administration of therapeutic agents before the main treatment.Neoadjuvant therapy aims to:Reduce the size or extent of cancer.Makes procedures easier and more likely to succeed.Reduces the consequences of a more extensive treatment.Single-agent chemotherapyCombination chemotherapyBleomycin5-fluorouracil (5-FU)CisplatinMitomycinCarboplatinVindesine and vinorelbinePaclitaxelDocetaxelEtoposideCisplatin and 5-FU - Most widely used.Epirubicin/Cisplatin/5-FUPaclitaxel/Cisplatin/5-FUDocetaxel/Cisplatin/5-FUIrinotecan Plus 5-FUOxaliplatin/Capecitabine | Anatomy | All India exam | Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy used in esophageal carcinoma
A. Doxorubicin
B. Cisplatin
C. 5-fluorouracil
D. Mitomycin C
| Cisplatin |
3bcef5f3-c21a-4426-a9cb-7081dc599b3c | Ans. B. LiverFetal Hematopoiesisi. Begins in the yolk sac (2 -8 weeks) - progenitor cells migrate from the yolk sac to the liver at 5-8 weeks' gestationii. Only terminal differentiation of red cells occurs in the yolk saciii. Liver active from 5-8 weeks' gestation - mainly red cells. Spleen also involved before 20 weeksiv. Begins in the medullary cavity of the clavicle at about 10-12 weeks and in the medullary cavity of long of bones at 20 weeksv. gestationvi. Some lymphocytes are produced in lymph nodesvii. At term, all red cell production is in bones unless there is a reason for increased hematopoiesis | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Obs) | Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before mid-pregnancy?
A. Bone
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lung
| Liver |
b2aeb74b-3fb1-452a-8149-74ac3c050a6e | A i.e. Desire to be identified with opposite sex | Forensic Medicine | null | Eonism is :
A. Desire to identify with the opposite sex
B. Intercourse with a lower animal
C. Female homosexualism
D. Oral sex
| Desire to identify with the opposite sex |
a9842e15-f85b-497e-bac5-71067f1a2b47 | Answer is C (Increased LDL and Decreased total cholesterol) The major effect of Omega -3-polyunsaturated Fatty Acids on plasma lipids is to decrease serum triglyceride levels. They do not have a consistent effect on total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol however most studies have repoed a rise in LDL cholesterol and a decreased in total cholesterol. | Medicine | null | A patient with hyperiglycerdemia is treated with Omega -3- polyunsaturated fatty acids. Treatment with omega-3- polyunsaturated fatty acids, will have the following effect on lipid profile:
A. Increased LDL and Increased total cholesterol
B. Decreased LDL and Decreased total cholesterol
C. Increased LDL and Decreased total cholesterol
D. Decreased LDL and Increased total cholesterol
| Increased LDL and Decreased total cholesterol |
ea4a2284-b126-4018-97ba-6798f0c32069 | Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is an autosomal dominant condition with onset during adolescence. It involves face, shoulder and upper arm. The speed of progression of the disease is variable. Ref: O P Ghai, 5th Edition, Page 424. | Pediatrics | null | Which among the following is Autosomal dominant with an expression during adolescence?
A. Duchenne's dystrophy
B. Becker's dystrophy
C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
D. Congenital muscular dystrophy
| Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy |
75b77316-f05e-43f7-9ee6-fe6e3b5299d7 | Sturge-weber's syndrome
Sturge-weber's syndrome results from anomalous development of the primordial vascular bed in the early stages of cerebral vascularization.
At this stage, the blood supply to the brain, meninges, and face is undergoing reorgnization, while the primitive ectoderm in the region differentiates into the skin of the upper face and the occipital lobe of the cerebrum.
The overlying leptomeninges are richly vascularized and the brain beneath becomes atrophic and calcified, particularly in the molecular layer of the cortex.
There is intracranial calcification in the occipitoparietal region → Serpentine or rail road track appearance.
There is unilateral cortical atrophy and ipsilateral dilatation of the lateral ventricle. | Pathology | null | Sturge Weber's syndrome is not associated with -
A. Seizures
B. Hemiatrophy of cerebral cortex
C. Gyriform calcification in brain
D. Empty sella
| Empty sella |
740089b1-e185-4d6c-83c4-b1b3134feae5 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., TGA * Egg on side appearance is characteristic radiographic feature of transposition of great vessels (TGA).Cardiac configration* "Boot-shaped" heart (cour en sabot)Fallot's tetralogy* "Egg on side" heart ("egg in cup" heart)Transposition of great arteries* "Egg in cup" HeartConstrictive pericarditis* "Snowman" sign ("figure of 8, or cottage loaf" sign)Supracardiac TAPVC* "Ground - glass" appearance of lungObstructive TAPVC* "Sitting-duck" heartPersistent truncus arteriosus* "Water-bottle" or flasked shaped or money bag heartPericardial effusion, hypothyroidism* "Box-shaped" heartTricuspid atresia, Ebstein's anomaly* Tubular heartAddison's disease, emphysema* "Tear -drop" heartChronic emphysema* "Cor-triatum"Pulmonary vein obstruction* "Jug handle" appearancePrimary pulmonary hypertension* "Pentagon-shaped" heartMitral incompetence* "Triangular-shaped" heartConstrictive pericarditis | Radiology | C.V.S. | Egg on side appearance on chest X-ray is associated with?
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TGA
D. PDA
| TGA |
33e5cdce-93a3-4fa3-a493-d33f6924ca46 | Ref. Robbins Pathology. 9th edition. Page. 1209
Rheumatoid Arthritis
CD4+ T helper (TH) cells may initiate the autoimmune response in RA by reacting with an arthritogenic agent, perhaps microbial or a self-antigen
IFN-γ from TH1 cells activates macrophages and resident synovial cells.
IL-17 from TH17 cells recruits neutrophils and monocytes.
TNF and IL-1 from macrophages stimulates resident synovial cells to secrete proteases that destroy hyaline cartilage.
RANKL expressed on activated T cells stimulates bone resorption.
Microscopy:
The characteristic histologic features include
Synovial cell hyperplasia and proliferation
Dense inflammatory infiltrates (frequently forming lymphoid follicles) of cd4+ helper t cells, b cells, plasma cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages
Increased vascularity due to angiogenesis
Fibrinopurulent exudate on the synovial and joint surfaces;
Osteoclastic activity in under- lying bone | Unknown | null | Which of the following is a major cell infiltrate in rheumatoid arthritis?
A. CD4+helper cell
B. Macrophage
C. Lymphocyte
D. Dendritics cells
| Lymphocyte |
09453adb-731d-4437-952b-46049a4a82c7 | Inhibins are produced by Seoli cells in males and by granulosa cells in females. Serum inhibin levels vary widely across the menstrual cycle. During the early follicular phase, FSH stimulates the secretion of inhibin B by the granulosa cells. However, increasing levels of circulating inhibin B blunt FSH secretion later in the follicular phase. A low level of inhibin B on day 3 may indicate a declining ovarian reserve which is helpful for assessing reproductive ageing and ovarian reserve. During the luteal phase, regulation of inhibin production comes under the control of LH and switches from inhibin B to inhibin A. Inhibin B levels peak during the midluteal phase, decrease with the loss of luteal function, and remain low during the luteal-follicular transition and early follicular phase. The inverse relationship between circulating inhibin levels and FSH secretion is consistent with a negative-feedback role for inhibin in regulating FSH secretion. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 15. Reproductive Endocrinology. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 38 year old nullipara is on treatment for infeility. Inhibin B levels are tested to assess ovarian reserve. Inhibin B level is best measured which day of menstruation:
A. Day 2 of menstruation
B. Day 3 of menstruation
C. Day 4 of menstruation
D. Day 5 of menstruation
| Day 3 of menstruation |
24d81bb3-e0f3-4dd8-bad8-26e77df0ae28 | Hypernatremic dehydration
In about 5% of diarrhoea cases (especially if the child has been given fluids with more salt), serum sodium level may be elevated to more than 150 mEq/L. In this patient, the osmotic pressure of ECF is relatively higher. Therefore water comes from inside the cells to the extracellular fluids and therefore partially masks the loss of skin turgor.
The skin may appear soggy, doughy or leathery.
Such patient is in severe hypernatremic dehydration and is underestimated as mild dehydration.
Severe hypernatremia may result in cerebral haemorrhage, thrombosis and subdural effusion. The cerebral injury (due to cerebral cellular dehydration) leads to the permanent neurological deficit, if not corrected timely.
Thus hypernatremic dehydration is more dangerous than hyponatremic dehydration. | Pediatrics | null | Hypernatremic dehydration is characterised by –a) Serum sodium > 150 mmol/Lb) Signs of dehydration are minimalc) ECF volume ↓edd) Rapid carrection is requirede) Shift of water from ECF to ICF
A. ac
B. a
C. ad
D. ab
| ab |
65a81439-8ea2-4a60-af13-04425a2e44c8 | Ascending aoa REF: Cardiac surgery in adults 3' ed by lawrence H.Cohn chapter 46 Seventy-five to eighty-five percent of patients with Marfan syndrome have dilation of the aoic sinuses and annulus in addition to the ascending aoa. This morphology, referred to as annuloaoic ectasia, is the classic presentation of Marfan syndrome, but can occur in the absence of a known connective tissue disorder. Because of the frequent aoic root involvement, aoic insufficiency is common. One third of patients with Marfan syndrome also have mitral regurgitation. | Surgery | null | Marfan's syndrome most commonly involves?
A. Ascending aoa
B. Descending aoa
C. Arch of aoa
D. Aoic valves
| Ascending aoa |
374fbcc2-a4d1-4ed7-a331-87e428052497 | The major clinical categories of symptomatic neurosyphilis include meningeal, meningovascular, and parenchymatous syphilis. The last category includes general paresisand tabes dorsalis. The onset of symptoms usually occurs <1 year after infection for meningeal syphilis, up to 10 years after infection for meningovascular syphilis, at ~20 years for general paresis, and at 25-30 years for tabes dorsalis. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 1389) | Medicine | Infection | Generalized paresis of Insane is seen in-
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Neuro syphilis
D. Congenital syphilis
| Neuro syphilis |
946b2dae-7fa5-447c-a7a8-f03de4b69b50 | Answer is b and c That is MgSO4 and Labetalol Patient has severe pre-eclampsia and gestational age is 36 weeks : If gestational age is above 34 weeks, the best approach is to treat with magnesium sulphate for the prevention of seizures.,give antihypeensive to control the BP and delivery after stabilization. Ref Fernando Arias 4 /e p 210 Betamethasone to hasten lung maturity is not required at 36 weeks as lungs are already mature by this time Ref.. Williams obs 23/e p729 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | 30 year old primi with 36 weeks of pregnancy with blood pressure 160/110 and urinary albumin is 3+ & platelet count 80000/mm3. What will be the management?
A. Betamethasone
B. MgSO4
C. Labetalol
D. Urgent LSCS
| MgSO4 |
659b53d2-65c1-4237-985e-32fee478c240 | Ans: a (Trunk)Ref: IADVL, Vol. 1, 3rd ed. pg. 244Tuberculous gumma is a skin condition that results from haematogenous dissemination of mycobacteria from a primary focus, resulting in firm, nontender erythematous nodules that soften, ulcerate, and form sinuses.We could not find out a reference as to the commonest site of the TB gumma, but most texts show pictures of tuberculous gumma over the back of trunk. So we think that might be the answer.Scrofuloderma is a skin condition caused by tuberculous involvement of the skin by direct extension, usually from underlying tuberculous lymphadenitis.The most common site is the neck region. Tuberculids develop as a hypersensitivity response to a tuberculous foci in the body.Types of cutaneous TB1. Exogenous source Tuberculous chancre Lupus vulgaris2. Endogenous source Hematogenous/ lymphatic spreadLupus vulgarisAcute military tuberculosis of the skinTuberculous gummaContiguous spread/ auto inoculationScrofulodermaOrificial tuberculosis3. TuberculidsProbable tuberculidsLichen scrofulosorumPossible tuberculidsErythema induratumErythema nodosumFormer tuberculidsLichenoid tuberculidRosacea like tuberculidLupus miliaris disseminates facei | Skin | Bacterial Infection of Skin | Tuberculous gumma (scrofuloderma) seen mostly on:
A. Trunk
B. Any part of body
C. Extremities
D. Face
| Trunk |
7491734c-12e8-4e5d-8b67-f4e25921a26e | Ans-B6-phospho-D-gluconate + NADP+ = {\display style \rightleftharpoons } D -ribulose 5-phosphate + CO2 + NADPH | Unknown | null | 6-phospho Gluconate dehydrogenase need - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
A. NAD
B. NADP
C. FAD
D. FMN
| NADP |
f84db6a4-02dd-4ae0-80ea-e9aa6a657c43 | The overall anatomy of the liver is divided into a functional right and left 'unit' along the line between the gallbladder fossa and the middle hepatic vein ( Cantlie's line ). The falciform ligament divides the left lateral section from the left medial section. Clinical significance : The falciform ligament, along with the round, triangular, and coronary ligaments may be divided in a bloodless plane during liver resection. Couinaud liver segments RESECTIONS can be performed of individual segments or of the whole of the left or right hemiliver. | Surgery | Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Sx | With regard to hepatic anatomy, the falciform ligament divides the___from the ___.
A. Right unit, left unit
B. Left medial section, left lateral section
C. Caudate lobe, quadrate lobe
D. Left medial section, right lobe
| Left medial section, left lateral section |
0ea3febf-e8d3-44d9-978c-ff4474229427 | Rugoscopy or palatoprints are study of structural details such as rugae in anterior pa of palate which is individualistic and specific as fingerprints ref :.Dr.K.S.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 48. | Forensic Medicine | Identification | Rugoscopy is -
A. Study of finger prints
B. Study of foot prints
C. Study of lip prints
D. Study of palate prints
| Study of palate prints |
2baa0379-8b30-4a0c-afe6-d3348f0ba71c | Ci esterase inhibitor Angioedema without uicaria suggests hereditary angioneurotic edema. Hereditary angioneurotic edema is caused due to deficiency of plasma protein Ci esterase inhibitor. It is an autosomal dominant disorder. It is clinically characterized by:- Episodic edema (nonpitting) in the skin and extremities as well as in the laryngeal and intestinal mucosa provoked by emotional stress or trauma or extreme changes in temperature. Pathophysiology The mediators of edema formation in these patients are proteolytic fragments of complement C2, kinin and bradykinin. - Normally these mediators are kept in check by C1 inhibitor (CIINH) Hereditary angioneurotic edema is caused due to deficiency of the enzyme C1 inhibitor (CIINH). - (CIINH) blocks the first step in the complement pathway i.e. activation of C1. C1 complement is activated by its binding to immune complex. - CIINH prevents this activation. Thus, in the absence of CIINH there is excess of activated C1 which leads to increase in the level of activated C2. - Activated C2 mediates edema formation. Besides being inhibitor of CI,CIINH is also an inhibitor of kinin ReneratinR system. -Kining generating system includes, Hageman.factor and prekallikrein. - Activated hageman factor and prekallikrein leads to the generation of bradykinin which mediates edema formation. Normally the activation of kinin generating system is prevented by (CIINH). - In the absence of (CIINH) there is increased activation of kallikrein and .factor XII which in turn leads to increased .formation of bradykinin which produces edema. Another impoant point about hereditary angioneurotic edema is :? - It presents with angioedema without uicaria. - All patients with angioedema without uicaria should be screened with C4 level which is reduced during and between the attacks of Hereditary angioneurotic edema. One more impoant point Angioneurotic edema can also be precipitated by angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, - It occurs due to increased level of bradykinin in the serum. - Bradykinin is degraded by an angiotensin conveing enzyme present in the lung. - ACE inhibitors blocks this enzyme leading to decreased degradation of Bradykinin. | Surgery | null | A child presents with recurrent episodes of lip and laryngeal edema and abdominal pain associated with stress levels of which of the following are reduced.
A. C3
B. C5a
C. CI estease inhibitor
D. C9
| CI estease inhibitor |
bc4156c9-3d92-4045-b96c-98429a1c4a49 | Tyrosinemia is an autosomal recessive disease induced by a deficiency of cytoplasmic tyrosine aminotransferase related to a defect on chromosome bands 16q22.1-22.3. One of the symptoms of Tyrosinaemia type 1 is a odor like cabbage or rancid butter. Diet restriction of phenylalanine and tyrosine leads to amelioration of cutaneous symptoms and eye lesions. Prenatal diagnosis is possible by amniocentesis with tyrosine aminotransferase assay and DNA analysis. The skin is not involved in tyrosinemia types I and III, but it is involved in tyrosinemia II, which is also called the oculocutaneous tyrosinemia and Richner-Hanha syndrome. The blood and urine tyrosine levels of affected patients are markedly elevated. Levels of other amino acids are not increased. Urinary tyrosine metabolite levels are elevated; these include p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid, p-hydroxyphenyllactic acid, p-hydroxyphenylacetic acid, and N-acetyltyrosine. Body Odour Questions ConditionOdour Oast-House Syndrome The urine has an odour similar to that of dried celery, yeast or malt, or an oasthouse Hypermethioninemia May experience a fishy, sweety and fruity, rancid butter or boiled cabbage odor Tyrosinaemia Cabbage or Rancid butter. Cystinuria Because cystine is one of the sulfur-containing amino acids, the urine may have a characteristic "rotten egg" odor. Diabetic Ketoacidosis The patient may have a fruity breath, a sweet taste on the skin, or emanate a distinctive, chemical smell. Isovaleric Acidaemia A symptom of isovaleric acidemia is an odour of cheesy, acrid, sweaty feet. Phenylketunuria The person may present with a musty, mousy, wolflike, barny, horsey or stale smell. Trimethylaminuria The odour produced is similar to decaying fish. Maple Syrup Urine Disease Patients smell like caramel, maple syrup or have a malty odor. Ref: Itin P.H. (2012). Chapter 131. Cutaneous Changes in Errors of Amino Acid Metabolism. In L.A. Goldsmith, S.I. Katz, B.A. Gilchrest, A.S. Paller, D.J. Leffell, N.A. Dallas (Eds), Fitzpatrick's Dermatology in General Medicine, 8e. | Biochemistry | null | Rancid butter or cabbage-like smell in urine is seen in which of the following condition?
A. Maple Syrup Urine Disease
B. Isovaleric Acidaemia
C. 3-Methylcrotonylglycinuria
D. Tyrosinaemia
| Tyrosinaemia |
a205901b-b7a1-4a5e-b3f1-5340cdd826dc | Ventral posterolateral :- Spinal lemniscus (rostral continuation of spinothalamic tract) and medial lemniscus.
Ventral posteromedial :- Trigeminal lemniscus, and solitariothalamic tract. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is/are the ventral posterior neucleus of thalamus -a) Medial lemniscusb) Lateral lemniscusc) Corticospinald) Spinothalamice) Trigeminal lemniscus
A. acd
B. ade
C. abd
D. ad
| ade |
d332d684-50c4-48d9-ada9-edb3a320cdde | Atrial depolarization only - P- Wave Ventricular depolarization and ventricular repolarization - QT interval | Medicine | FMGE 2017 | The PR interval in ECG denotes?
A. Atrial depolarization only
B. Atrial depolarization with A - V conduction
C. Ventricular depolarization and ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial depolarization with atrial repolarization
| Atrial depolarization with A - V conduction |
1ede52f9-4206-4a2b-b6de-3a1ee6d340d4 | Ref Robbins 8/e p188;9/e p192 NK cells (belonging to the group of innate lymphoid cells) are defined as large granular lymphocytes (LGL) and constitute the third kind of cells differentiated from the common lymphoid progenitor-generating B and T lymphocytes. NK cells are known to differentiate and mature in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, and thymus, where they then enter into the circulation. NK cells differ from natural killer T cells (NKTs) phenotypically, by origin and by respective effector functions; often, NKT cell activity promotes NK cell activity by secreting interferon gamma. In contrast to NKT cells, NK cells do not express T-cell antigen receptors(TCR) or pan T marker CD3 or surface immunoglobulins (Ig) B cell receptors, but they usually express the surface markers CD16 (FcgRIII) and CD56 in humans | Anatomy | General anatomy | NK cells CD marker is
A. 16
B. 60
C. 32
D. 25
| 16 |
fe5c1945-5dc8-4cf2-a86a-947a6e3a3e4f | <p> IPV /salk polio vaccine. Strains - Mahoney( salk type 1) MEF1( salk type 2) saukett( salk type 3) Inactivated in formaldehyde. Final vaccine mixture contains 40 units of type1, 8 units of type 2, and 32 units of type3. Administration- intramuscular injection or subcutaneous. Should be refrigerated to ensure no loss of potency. Freezing avoided. Either administered alone or in combination with other vaccine antigens including diphtheria,tetanus,whole cell or acellular peussis,Hepatitis B, or Haemophilus influenza type b. Primary/initial course consists of 4 inoculation: first 3doses given at an interval of 1-2 months and 4 th dose 6-12 months after 3 rd dose. First dose given when the infant is 6 weeks old. Additional doses recommended prior to school entry and then every 5 yrs until the age of 18. Alternatively one/two doses of OPV can be safely given as boosters after an initial course of immunisation with inactivated vaccine. Immunity:- induces circulating humoral antibodies(IgM,IgG,IgA). Doesn&;t induce intestinal or local immunity. The circulating antibodies protect the individual against paralytic polio,but do not prevent reinfection of gut by wild viruses. In case of epidemic, IPV is unsustainable because immunity is not rapidly achieved as more than one dose required to induce immunity and injections are to be avoided during epidemic as they are likely to precipitate paralysis. Advantages:- it doesn&;t contain living virus ,so safe to administer : 1. To persons with immunodeficiency diseases. 2. To persons undergoing coicosteroid and radiation therapy. 3. To those over 50 years who are receiving vaccine for first time. 4. During pregnancy. 5. IPV is an alternative to OPV for immunisation of children with HIV infection. No serious adverse effects noticed {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.206 }</p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Salk vaccine is a -
A. Live vaccine
B. Live attenuated vaccine
C. Killed vaccine
D. Toxoid
| Killed vaccine |
3e4f1008-ac01-49aa-921a-9faeaecada16 | Active immunization by vaccination with diphtheria toxoid is the key in preventing diphtheria. . Serum antitoxin concentration of 0.01 IU/mL is usually accepted as the minimum protective level. 0.01 IU/mL is considered to provide basic protection and 0.1 IU/ml is considered to provide complete or total protection. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli) | The protective titre of antitoxin to diphtheria following vaccination is
A. 0.01 IU/ml
B. 0.05 IU/ml
C. 0.1 IU/ml
D. 0.5 IU/ml
| 0.01 IU/ml |
edd41e40-0e97-412f-b84f-7a5f756b46cd | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymph node mass Mediastinal masses 1. Anterior mediastinum : - The anterior mediastinum contains the following structures : thymus, lymph nodes, ascending aoa, pulmonary aery, phrenic nerve and thyroid. Thymoma is the most common anterior mediastinal mass. Anterior mediastinal masses include : ? o Thymoma o Aneurysm of ascending aoa o Retrosternal thyroid o Lymphoma o Pericardial cyst o Morgagni hernia o Teratoma germ cell 2. Middle mediastinum : - The middle mediastinum contains the following structures: lymph nodes, trachea, esophagus, azygos vein, Vena cavae, posterior hea and aoic arch. The most common middle mediastinal mass is enlarged lymph nodes (Lymphadenopathy). Middle mediasinal mass include. o Lymph node enlargement o Pericardial cyst o Coronary/pulmonary aneurysm o Bronchogenic cyst o Aoic arch aneurysm o Azygous vein enlargement Note : Though most common middle mediastinal mass is enlarged lymph nodes, In children the most common middle mediastinal mass is duplication cysts (Bronchogenia cyst or esophageal duplication cysts or neuroenteric cysts). 3.Posterior mediastinum : - The posterior mediastinum contains the following structures : Sympathetic ganglic, nerve roots, lymph nodes, parasympathetic chain, thoracic duct, descending thoracic aoa, Small vessels and the veebrae, Most common masses in posterior mediastinum are neurogenic in nature. These can arise from the sympathetic ganglia (e.g., neuroblastoma) or from nerve roots (e.g., Schwannoma or neurofibroma). Posterior mediastinal masses include. o Neurogenic tumor (neuroblastoma, o Lymph node enlargement o Anterior meningocele Schwannoma, neurofibroma) o Neurenteric cyst o Bochdalek hernia o Aneurysm of descending aoa o Overall most common mediastinal masses are neurogenic tumors (20%) followed by thymomas (19%), primary cysts (18%), lymphomas (13%) and germ cell tumors (10%). o Most of the mediastinal masses are located in the anterior mediastinum followed by the posterior (25%) and middle (19%). | Pathology | null | Commonest mass in the middle mediastinum is ?
A. Lipoma
B. Aneurysm
C. Lymph node mass
D. Congenital cysts
| Lymph node mass |
e669e96a-faf4-4a2f-b1c7-818f7a914201 | Ans: B (Inferior tibiofibular joint) Ref: Grays Anatomy 40th Ed Pg 101Explanation:SyndesmosisIt is a type of fibrous joint.It may be represented by an interosseous ligament.Such ligament persist throughout lifeSlight movement is possibleExample:Inferior tibio fibular jointInterosseous membranes of the forearm and legLigament flavaFunctionResponsible for integrity of ankle mortisPhysical ExamTest to identify a syndesmosis injury includeExternal rotation testSqueeze testImagingAP and mortise ankle radiographsUsed to evaluate the tibiofibular clear space and tibiofibular overlapTibiofibular clear space shoulde be < 5 mmTibiofibular overlap for AP view >10 mmWeight bearing mortise view is most accurate for diagnosisClinical conditionsHigh ankle sprain & syndesmosis injuryAnkle fracture | Anatomy | Joints | Which of the following joint is a syndesmosis? (Repeat)
A. Superior Tibiofibular joint
B. Inferior tibiofibular joint
C. Talocalcaneal joint
D. Calcaneocuboid joint
| Inferior tibiofibular joint |
58545ed3-b19a-4bde-b285-91044d553fe7 | Principle of: CT :Linear attenuation ofXrays Xray:Xrays (Fluoroscopy also works on the principal of Xrays) MRI: Gyromagnetic propey of H+ USG: Pulse-Echo Principle with Piezoelectric effect PET scan: Annihilation and coincidence imagine, gamma rays -511 key HIDA Scan: Radioisotope scintigraphy, gamma rays. | Radiology | FMGE 2018 | Which of the following investigation work on the same principle?
A. CT and MRI
B. CT and X-ray
C. USG and HIDA Scan
D. MRI and PET Scan
| CT and X-ray |
e82c8f20-f28e-4f31-9d82-52139baa2ab8 | Root value of Ulnar Nerve - Ventral rami of C8 and T1. It also get fibres of C7 from the ventral root of median nerve. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 1 , pg. no, 181 Fig Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 1 , pg. no,57 (FIG. 4.14 ) | Anatomy | Upper limb | Ulnar nerve root is
A. C4 C5
B. C5 C6
C. C7 C8
D. C8 T1
| C8 T1 |
15280761-db8a-4d04-8ac0-8b0fc77652cd | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 11 * Eye opens to pain-2* Confused-4* Localizes pain-5 11Glasgow coma scale:Eye opening (E)Best motor response (M)Verbal response (V)Spontaneous - 4To loud voice - 3To pain - 2Nil- 1Obeys - 6Localize - 5Withdraws (flexion) - 4Abnormal flexion - 3PosturingExtension posturing - 2Nil - 1Oriented - 5Confused disoriented - 4Inappropriate words - 3Incomprehensible sounds - 2Nil - 1Score of our patientPrognosis of the patient in coma score 3-4 - 85% chance of dying or remaining vegetativeAbove - Only 5-10 percent likelihood of death or vegetative state and 85% chance of moderate disability | Medicine | Miscellaneous (C.N.S.) | A head injured patient, who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused and localizes to pain. What is his Glassgow coma Score -
A. 7
B. 9
C. 11
D. 13
| 11 |
5f95d694-4679-452d-be0d-9263f81cfc3b | <img src=" /> Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 567 | Medicine | Oncology | Which of the following tests is not used in the diagnosis of insulinoma -
A. Fasting blood glucose
B. Xylose test
C. C- peptide levels
D. Insulin/Glucose Ratio
| Xylose test |
940e9689-9351-42b2-bc79-c0d0778b411f | Ans. (a) Pantaloon HerniaRef: Long case Surgery by RRM* Pantaloon hernia is hernia which has two sacs- One direct and one indirect resembling a Pantaloon. | Surgery | Hernia | 40 year old patient was being operated for direct hernia. During surgery two sacs were seen. The diagnosis is?
A. Pantaloons hernia
B. Ritcher hernia
C. Spigelian hernia
D. Littre hernia
| Pantaloons hernia |
ec6cbb6c-b396-47eb-89a2-66beb72bacd8 | 1. Complete obstruction of ear canal: 30 dB 2. Perforation of tympanic membrane (It varies and is directly propoional to the size of perforation): 10-40 dB 3. Ossicular interruption with intact drum: 54 dB 4. Ossicular interruption with perforation: 38 dB 5. Malleus fixation: 10-25 dB 6. Closure of oval window: 60 dB Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 31. | ENT | Ear | Female with stapedectomy done, has a conductive hearing loss at 60 dB. Diagnosis is
A. Implant failure
B. Fistula
C. Closure of oval window
D. Tympanic membrane perforation
| Closure of oval window |
ca46205c-334c-4d50-b551-76eabbcdc58c | All toxigenic strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are lysogenic for b-phage carrying the Tox gene, which codes for the toxin molecule. The expression of this gene is controlled by the metabolism of the host bacteria. The greatest amount of toxin is produced by bacteria grown on media containing very low amounts of iron. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Diphtheria toxin is produced only by those strains of C. diphtheriae that are
A. Glucose fermenters
B. Sucrose fermenters
C. Lysogenic for b-prophage
D. Of the mitis strain
| Lysogenic for b-prophage |
3bfe515d-98c4-43fb-b112-124b2134f658 | Ans. c. Anococcygeal raphe (Ref: BDC 5/e Vot-III/p428; Maingot 11/e p 663)Anorectal ring is a muscular ring present at the anorectal junction. It is formed by the fusion of the Puborectalis, uppermost fibers of external sphincter and the internal sphincter.BDC says 'Anorectal ring is a muscular ring present at the anorectal junction. It is formed by the fusion of the Puborectalis, uppermost fibers of external sphincter and the internal sphincter. It is easily felt by a finger in anal canal. Surgical division of this ring results in rectal incontinence. The ring is less marked anteriorly where the fibers of Puborectalis are absent.'Anorectal ring is formed by fusion of:1. PuborectalisQ (a part of pubococcygeus, which in turn is a part of levator ani)2. Deep (uppermost fibers) external anal sphincterQ3. Internal anal sphincterQAnorectal RingRectal continence depends solely on the anorectal ringQ, and any damage to this ring results in rectal incontinence.The anorectal ring is muscular ring present at the anorectal junctionQ.Anorectal ring is formed by fusion ofPuborectalisQDeep external anal sphincterQInternal anal sphincterQThe Puborectalis muscle appears to be most important muscle for maintaining fecal continenceQ. | Anatomy | Large Intestine, Rectum, and Anal canal | Which of the following does not contribute to the formation of anorectal ring in human beings?
A. External anal sphincter
B. Puborectalis
C. Anococcygeal raphe
D. Internal anal sphincter
| Anococcygeal raphe |
3506d896-6191-485a-8d74-870a80a09b8c | Ans. is b' i.e., Safety "Therapeutic index is the ratio between the toxic dose and the therapeutic dose of a drug, and is used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for a paicular treatment." | Pharmacology | null | Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of its-
A. Potency
B. Safety
C. Toxicity
D. Efficacy
| Safety |
ad635494-8800-46a0-929e-5d3ae239fc4b | Infertility implies apparent failure of a couple to conceive.
If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after 1 year of unprotected and regular intercourse,
it is an indication to investigate the couple. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modern society, the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabitation resulting in no offspring for a couple to be declared infertile is:
A. One year
B. One and a half
C. Two years
D. Three years
| One year |
a2891693-1ec8-4246-9de0-a84e06e216d9 | Ans. (b) Ductus venosusRef: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 36; William's Obstetrics 23rded, Ch: 4* Ductus venosus carries oxygenated blood from placenta and drains into IVC.* Ductus arteriosus is a connection between aorta and pulmonary arteries, thereby bypassing lung. Persistence of ductus arteriosus leads to a congenital heart condition called Patent Ductus Arteriosus.* Foramen ovale is connection between right atrium and left atrium.* Umbilical artery carries deoxygenated blood from fetus to mother.Also KnowImportant vessles and their remnantsDUCTUSVENOSUSLigamentum VenosumDUCTUS ARTERIOSUSLigamentum arteriousmUmbilical ArteriesMedial umbilical arteryLeft umbilical veinLigamentum Teres of Liver | Unknown | null | Oxygenated blood from placenta goes to fetal heart via:
A. Ductus arteriosus
B. Ductus venosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Umbilical artery
| Ductus venosus |
51ad9999-ddd0-4d93-98eb-f3ba71b9702c | Classification of Lupus Nephritis (International Society of Nephrology and Renal Pathology Society) Class I: Minimal Mesangial Lupus Nephritis Class II: Mesangial Proliferative Lupus Nephritis Class III: Focal Lupus Nephritis Class IV: Diffuse Lupus Nephritis Class V: Membranous Lupus Nephritis Class VI: Advanced Sclerotic Lupus Nephritis Ref:Harrison,E-18,P-2733. | Medicine | null | Focal lupus nephritis in renal biopsy specimen belong to which class of SLE nephritis according to the international society of nephrology and renal pathology lassification:
A. Class III
B. Class IV
C. Class IV B
D. Class V
| Class III |
a8b1765b-31c2-4eed-91c4-c0dbe8ff68ca | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phenobarbitone Lignocaine toxicity Lignocaine toxicity occurs with unintended intravascular administration or with administration of excessive dose Toxicity may be observed at 6 ug/ml, but more commonly occur once levels exceed 10 tg/ml. Clinical manifestations 1. CNS manifestations These are the most common manifestations of toxicity. CNS lidocaine toxicity is biphasic Earlier manifestations-are due to CNS excitation e.g. convulsions Subsequent manifestations -are due to CNS depression drowsiness, disorientation, respiratory depression. The cause of biphasic response is Local anaesthetic action first blocks inhibitary CNS pathways-resulting in stimulation Eventually blocks both inhibitory and excitatory pathways- overall CNS depression 2. Cardiovascular manifestations These occur at higher serum concentrations There may be cardiac depression, hypotension, coma, respiratory arrest. Note: lignocaine can precipitate malignant hypehermia Management of toxicity If lignocaine toxicity is suspected, stop the injection immediately. Ensure adequate oxygenation, whether by face mask or by intubation. Anticonvulsants such as benzodiazepines and barbiturates are the drug of choice for seizure control. Succinykholine is sometimes also used to terminate the neuromuscular effects of seizures. If CVS symptoms occur (cardiac depression and hypotension), IVfluid and vasopressor agents may be required. If metabolic acidosis develops, use of sodium bicarbonate can be considered, although, as in other instances of acute metabolic acidosis, this is controversial | Anaesthesia | null | Drug of choice for lignocaine toxicity ?
A. Phenytoin
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Beta-blockers
D. Amiodarone
| Phenobarbitone |
f05ed9e7-9409-42ee-aeb0-b78a36892ff7 | .An "O" often is used to represent responses for the right ear and an "X" is used to represent responses for the left ear. A key on the audiogram, similar to one found on a map, identifies what the different symbols mean Hence, indicates air conduction test for left year Ref physiology textbook A. K Jain.. 3e | Physiology | All India exam | Symbol 'X' denotes
A. Air conduction threshold for right ear
B. Bone conduction threshold for right ear
C. Air conduction threshold for left ear
D. Bone conduction threshold for left ear
| Air conduction threshold for left ear |
ddef805b-b80a-4076-ac36-11c565020e31 | Ans. is'c'i.e., Increased secretion in DCT[Ref: Guyton & hall p. 201Potassium transpo:Potassium is one of the few substances that are both reabsorbed as well as secreted by the renal tubules.The reabsorption of about two-thirds of the filtered K+ occurs in the proximal tubulesK+ reabsorption as weII as secretion takes place.Here also, reabsorption of K+ occurs independent of K+ status of the body.It is the secretory process that K+ regulated by aldosterone in response to the K+ and Na+ status of body. | Physiology | null | In high potassium serum levels, kidney compensation occurs by?
A. Decreased reabsorption in PCT
B. Increased secretion in PCT
C. Increased secretion in DCT
D. Decreased reabsorption in loop of Henle
| Increased secretion in DCT |
dd40d190-cec7-402d-9349-941d211daf6c | SECONDARY PREVENTION of RHEUMATIC FEVER (with and without carditis) Secondary prevention (i.e., the prevention of recurrences of RF) is a more practicable approach, especially in developing countries. It consists in identifying those who have had RF and giving them one intramuscular injection of benzathine benzyl penicillin (1.2 million units in adults and 600,000 units in children) at intervals of 3 weeks. This must be continued for at least 5 years or until the child reaches 18 years whichever is later. For patients with carditis (mild mitral regurgitation or healed carditis) the treatment should continue for 10 years after the last attack, or at least until 25 years of age, which ever is longer. More severe valvular disease or post-valve surgery cases need life-long Treatment. This prevents streptococcal sore throat and therefore recurrence of RF and RHD. However, the crucial problem is one of patient compliance as penicillin prophylaxis is a long-term affair. Studies have shown that secondary prevention is feasible, inexpensive and cost-effective, when implemented through primary health care systems Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 381 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | A patient has rheumatic fever with carditis without any residual damage to the value. What will be the duration of penicillin prophylaxis in him
A. 20 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 5 years
| 10 years |
fd370542-2143-4874-a4fe-0ce64327db4b | In DNA and RNA, Pyrimidine bases form hydrogen bonds with their complementary purines. Thus, in DNA, the purines adenine (A) and guanine (G) pair up with the pyrimidines thymine (T) and cytosine (C), respectively. In RNA, the complement of adenine (A) is uracil (U) instead of thymine (T), so the pairs that form are adenine: uracil and guanine: cytosine. Ref: Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 32. Nucleotides. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following are Pyrimidine bases?
A. Adenine and Guanine
B. Guanine and Cytosine
C. Cytosine and Adenine
D. Thymine and Cytosine
| Thymine and Cytosine |
7002ca8a-97c4-454b-b6a3-b5c9b6ca587e | SUMATRIPTAN *Selective agonist of the 5-HT1B/1D receptor *No interaction with adrenergic, dopaminergic and cholinergic receptors, GABA MOA: *Blockade of 5-HT1D/1B mediated constriction of dilated extracerebral blood vessel *Constriction of the aeriovenous shunt of carotid aery *Inhibition of release of 5-HT and inflammatory neuropeptides around the affected vessels - suppression of neurogenic inflammation *Suppression of impulse transmission in the trigeminovascular system Kinetics: *Poorly absorbed from GIT, bioavailability - 10 - 15% only *Complete absorption after subcutaneous administration *Metabolized by MAO-A and excreted in the urine, t1/2 is 2-3 Hrs *Administration & Doses: -The onset of an acute attack of migraine -Better tolerated than ergotamine -50 to 100 mg as initial dose and repeated after 24 Hrs if required -Should not be given is the first dose fails -SC dose - 12 mg (1 ml) stat and repeated if required *Adverse effects: Dose-related - Tightness of chest, feeling of heat, paresthesia of limbs, dizziness, and weakness (sho lasting) - common with SC route -Risk of MI and seizure and death Contraindications: IHD, epilepsy, hypeension, pregnancy, hepatic and renal impairment | Pharmacology | Autacoids | Sumatriptan is a?
A. 5HT 1D antagonist
B. 5HT 1 agonist
C. 5HT 1D agonist
D. 5HT 1A antagonist
| 5HT 1D agonist |
9222b876-4f18-4c0e-af98-c6a6e5dce2b5 | In general vision problems present with difficulty in learning at school. These children with eye sight problems undergo screening by their school teachers. These children if they tend to have refractive errors, are then referred to the health assistants and ophthalmologists. The National Programme for Control of Blindness was staed in the year 1986 - 1989 in collaboration with WHO with the main aim of reducing the prevalence of blindness from 1.4% to 0.3% of population by 2000 AD. By this programme it was facilitated to provide comprehensive health care facilities for primary, secondary and teiary levels of eye health care. According to the NPCB, the major causes of blindness in India are cataract, trachoma, smallpox, infections, injuries, vitamin A deficiency, glaucoma, aphakia, refractive errors, central corneal opacification and posterior segment disorders. The objectives of National Programme for Control of Blindness are as follows: 1. Through mass communication and extensive education programmes, people were to be educated about eye health care. 2. Ceain units of eye care facilities were established in order to restore sight and allete eye ailments. 3. As a pa of general health services, at peripheral, central and intermediate levels various permanent eye health care centres were established. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 76 - 78; Postgraduate Ophthalmology, Zia Chaudhari, Pages 2 - 17; Concise Textbook Of Ophthalmology By Sharma, Pages 208 - 211. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | According to the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who are supposed to screen the school students for vision problems?
A. Health assistants
B. School teachers
C. Medical officers of health centers
D. Ophthalmologists
| School teachers |
550933f7-6766-4e38-abde-3290df244fc8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Organophosphorous For organophosphorous (pesticides/insecticides) poisoning fatty tissue from abdominal wall, perinephric fat and brain are preserved. The viscera should be preserved in cases of suspected poisoning and must be send for toxicological examination. The viscera are preserved according to suspected poison : Brain (100 gm of cerebrum or cerebellun) : Carbon monoxide, cyanide, organophosphates, organic volatile poisons, opiates, barbiturates, alkaloids, strychnine (nux vomica). Spinal cord (entire length) : Strychnine. Hea : Strychnine, digitalis. Lung (one) : Gaseous poison (e.g. CO), alcohol, chloroform, cyanide. Bone (10 cm shaft femur) : Subacute and chronic poisoning by heavy metals, e.g. arsenic, antimony, radium, thallium. Hair (20-30 in number or 5 gm) and nails (all finger and toe) : Subacute and chronic poisoing by heavy metals, e.g. arsenic, antimony, radium, thallium. Uterus, its appendages and upper pa of vagina : Criminal aboion. Fat (10 gm from abdomen or perinephric region) : Pesticides and insectisides. Vitreous humor : Alcohol, chloroform. Bile : Glutathione, cocaine, barbiturates, methadone, narcotics. Skin : Injection of insulin, morphin, heroin, cocain etc. Urine : Alcohol, barbiturate and opium. | Forensic Medicine | null | Fat mesentry is sent for investigation in which poisoning-
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Organophosphorous
C. Arsenic
D. Lead
| Organophosphorous |
53d1ef14-f650-40b1-b157-f471a550ac83 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Oxprenolol Selective Px blockers are (cardioselective):1. Atenolol3. Bisoprolol5. Celiprolol7. Metoprolol2. Acebutalol4. Betoxolol6. Esmolol8.Nebivolol o These agents are preferred in DM, hyperlipidemia, PVD, asthma.Selective(b2)Butoxamine (has been removed from 6th/e of KDT)Beta-blockers with intrinsic svmpatheomimetic (partial agonist! Activity:-1. Acebutolol3. Pindolol5. Penbutolol7. Alprenolol9. Celiprolol2. Carteolol4. Bipindolol6. Oxprenolol8. Labetalol o These drugs are partial agonists at pj receptors (apart from having (^-blocking property). These are preferred in patients prone to develop severe bradycardia with fi-blockers therapy as they are P, agonists (Heart receptor) --> stimulating action on heart -> No bradycardia. However, In angina patient, they might precipitate MI due to stimulation of heart should be avoided in angina patients,o Pindolol has maximum intrinsic symathomimetic activity (most potent partial agonist).b-blockers with membrane stabilizing activity1. Pindolol3.Acebutolol5.Carvedilol7. Betaxolol2. Propranolol4. Metoprolol6. Labetalol Lipid insoluble P-blockers1. Acebutolol4. Betoxalol7. Esmolol10. Labetalol2. Atenolol5.Carteolol8.Nodalol11. Pindolol3. Bisoprolol6. Celiprolol9. Sotalol b-blocker with a-blocking activity (Both a + b blocker)1. Carvedilol3.Bucindolol5.Niprodiol7. Medroxalol2. Labetolol4. Bevantolol6. Dilevalol | Pharmacology | Anti Adrenergic System | Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker -
A. Nebivolol
B. Atenolol
C. Betaxolol
D. Oxprenolol
| Oxprenolol |
a4403fae-8ddf-4c93-8140-6c9329ad39fc | Ans. (b) 5-10mmHgRef: Ganong, 25th ed/p.574Mean Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)=9mmHg (Range - 4 to 12 mm Hg)PCWP is usually measured using a balloon-tipped, multilumen catheter called Swan-Ganz catheter | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | Normal capillary wedge pressure
A. 0-2 mm Hg
B. 5-10 mm Hg
C. 15-20 mm Hg
D. 20-30 mm Hg
| 5-10 mm Hg |
d494ae65-40bd-4391-823a-ac8033b88bd0 | Contrast-enhanced MRA is sufficiently sensitive to be used as a screening test for stenosis of the main renal aery. MRA has lower spatial resolution compared with conventional film-based angiography, and therefore the detection of small-vessel abnormalities, such as vasculitis and distal vasospasm, is problematic. | Radiology | Genitourinary radiology | MRI is the Investigation of choice for which of the following?
A. Renal stones
B. Renal aery stenosis
C. High grade VUR
D. Renal transplant rejection
| Renal aery stenosis |
aaf9528f-f754-4068-bcce-e30a587ebe8e | Ans. is 'c' is Right lateral decubitus chest X-ray Most dependent recess of the pleura is the posterior costophrenic angle*.So in pleural effusion this recess would be filled earliest. But at least 100-200 ml of fluid would be required to fill this recess before it can be detected on a PA view.Therefore in cases of minimal pleural effusion the best method to detect it would be- Decubitus view with a horizontal beam. | Radiology | Imaging of Pleural Disease | A boy presented in the OPD with minimal pleural effusion on the right side. The best method to detect this would be :
A. Left side chest X-ray
B. Right side chest X-ray
C. Right lateral decubitus chest X-ray
D. Left lateral decubitus chest X-ray
| Right lateral decubitus chest X-ray |
2c6412a9-2fea-47b7-b761-8db45e872262 | Ans. C i.e. Insulin resistance Acanthosis nigricans Characteristic of acanthosis nigricans: - Dark, - Thick, - Velvetty skin (in body folds and creases) MC cause of acanthosis nigricans: Type 2 DM Internal malignancies associated with acanthosis nigricans: - Adenocarcinoma lungs, - Carcinoma GIT etc. | Skin | null | Acanthosis nigricans is associated with malignancies and: March 2013
A. Hypeension
B. MI
C. Insulin resistance
D. Leprosy
| Insulin resistance |
42d6390f-2c22-40fc-b328-91ce816c247c | Gynecoid is the most common type of female pelvis. In this type of pelvis the inlet is oval or round. In the midpelvis, sides of the pelvis are straight and the spines are not prominent. At the outlet the pubic arch is wide and the sacrum is neither inclined anteriorly nor posteriorly. The configuration of this type of pelvis suits well for the delivery of the fetus. According to Caldwell and Moloy's classification, pelvic shapes are classified as: Gynecoid Android Anthropoid Platypelloid Ref: Clinical Obstretics (10Th Edn.) By S. Gopalan page 7, Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 2. Maternal Anatomy. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is the MOST common type of female pelvis?
A. Gynecoid
B. Anthropoid
C. Android
D. Platypelloid
| Gynecoid |
b916466a-82ec-4624-bc00-b922b20ce6a0 | OBLIQUE POPLITEAL LIGAMENT:- Expansion from the tendon of semimembranosus.Runs upwards and laterally, blends with the posterior surface of the capsule, and is attached to the intercondylar line and lateral condyle of femur.Related to politeal aery.Structures piercing the ligament:-1. Middle Genicular vessels.2. Posterior division of obturator nerve. {Reference BDC 6E vol2 pg145 } | Anatomy | Lower limb | Which of the following ligaments is derived from the tendon of semimembranosus?
A. Oblique popliteal ligament
B. Fibular ligament
C. Medial collateral ligament
D. Ligamentum patellae
| Oblique popliteal ligament |
ed8671f6-042e-465d-9138-7ef224393cd5 | Narcissistic PD. This question best describes Histrionic PD, which is not given in the option. Hence, Narcissistic PD would be the best option as question describes egocentricity.It is a type of Cluster B PD in which person gives excessive self impoance and believes that he is special and talented and has fantasies of unlimited success and power. Attention seeking pattern totally goes against schizoid, schizotypal and anxious PD as all three avoid social activities. | Psychiatry | Personality Disorders | Egocentric and magical thinking, excessive emotionality and attention seeking pattern is associated with which type of personality?
A. Schizoid
B. Schizotypal
C. Avoidant
D. Narcissistic
| Narcissistic |
e881bbcb-7b5f-466f-a682-6f3961ef5d26 | For the first time in India,the Consumer Protection Act 1986 provided consumers a forum of speedy redressal of their grievances against medical services.In the entire health care delivery system the most vital sector is the medical profession (refer pgno:694 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | Consumer protection act was passed in -
A. 1977
B. 1986
C. 1993
D. 1998
| 1986 |
1f5fff17-54f7-4ba1-819b-9b21634441b0 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Autosomal recessive Consanguinity* Increases risk of - autosomal recessive disease* No change in risk of - autosomal dominant, X linked recessive (if neither parent affected)* Not Proven - complex late onset diseases like diabetes, schizophrenia, cardiovascular diseases | Pathology | Genetics | Most common type of inheritance associated with consanguinity is?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
| Autosomal recessive |
00751a72-9531-4ae5-b95f-d175a78b05c1 | Mackler’s triad consists of chest pain, vomiting and subcutaneous emphysema. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is not a component of mackler's triad for esophageal perforation
A. Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Subcutaneous emphysema
D. Aspirational pneumonitis
| Aspirational pneumonitis |
78d020db-d1b7-407d-a263-78e1c5065973 | The optic nerve is about 47- 50 mm in length and can be divided into 4 pas : intraocular (1mm), intraorbital (30mm), intracanalicular (6-9mm)and intracranial (10mm). Refer comprehensive ophthalmology 6th edition , A K Khurana , page no. 310 | Ophthalmology | Neuro-ophthalmology | Longest pa of optic nerve -
A. Intraocular
B. Intracranial
C. Intraorbital
D. Intracranial
| Intraorbital |
85ebd77c-b829-4b7c-a961-2b68c22af136 | - IgA is selectivity concentrated in secretions and on mucus surfaces forming an antibody paste and is believed to play an impoant role in local immunity against respiratory and intestinal pathogens. - inhibits the adherence of micro organisms to the surface of mucosal cells by covering the organisms and thereby preventing their entry into body tissues. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 97 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | Antibodies acting predominantly on the mucosal cells belong to -
A. IgG class
B. IgM class
C. IgE class
D. IgA class
| IgA class |
8956d8cb-991b-4b2d-a08a-2ffbd67dc7a5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pemphigus o Repeat from previous sessions. | Skin | Bacterial Infection of Skin | "Row of tomb stones" appearance is a feature of -
A. Pemphigus
B. Pemphigoid
C. Irritant dermatitis
D. Herpes
| Pemphigus |
c204c738-ba2f-479f-8b6e-96794db8b459 | TAMOXIFEN - It is SERM - Actions Bone - | formation of bone; decrease risk of osteoporosis Blood - | HDL Breast -Decrease risk of breast cancer Liver - | clotting factor leading to thromboembolism Endometrium - | risk of endometrial cancer | Pharmacology | Osteoporosis, Sex Hormones and OCPs | Long term adverse effect of tamoxifen is
A. Weight gain
B. Osteoporosis
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Breast cancer
| Venous thrombosis |
30a3a2ff-b30c-4f1b-a466-64e128026d01 | Lenticulostriate arteries form a rich collateral network around occlusive lesion - puff of smoke.
Anterior circulation > posterior. | Radiology | null | Puff of smoke appearance in cerebral angiography is a feature of
A. Carotid artery thrombosis
B. Alexander disease
C. Moya moya disease
D. Krabbe's disease
| Moya moya disease |
de1da054-9b97-46e6-bf52-388ae6088af4 | Gd DTPA is non iodine containing contrast agent | Radiology | Fundamentals in Radiology | Non-Iodine containing contrast is -
A. Gd DTPA
B. Visipaque
C. Iohexanol
D. Diatrozoate
| Gd DTPA |
8116a95c-929b-416d-93ce-766e2e6b6508 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Albert* The diphtheria bacillus was first observed and described by Klebs (1883) but was first cultivated by Loeffler (1884).* Therefore, it is known as Klebs - Loeffler bacillus (KLB).* Corynebacterium diphtheria is gram positive slender rod (bacilli) which is noncapsulated and non-motile.* The bacilli are arranged in a characteristic fashion in smears, being at various angles to each other, resembling the letter V or L - Chinese letter or cuneiform arrangement. There is chracteristic 'Clubbed appearance'.* Characteristic feature is irregular staining due to presence of granules, called Babes Ernest or volutin granules. These granules are also called metachromatic granules or polar bodies. These granules are composed of polymetaphosphate. Volutin granules are usually stained with Loeffler's methylene blue or toluidine blue and appear reddish violet. Special stains for volutin granules are Ponder's stain, Albert's stain and Neisser's stain. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Which stain is used for Corynebacterium diphtheriae -
A. Geimsa
B. Albert
C. PAS
D. India ink
| Albert |
eb207fd0-de3e-4122-89f1-e2b15b87d132 | Malignant mesothelioma is a rare form of cancer that affects the thin lining of the body's internal organs, known as the mesothelium. As the word malignant implies, it is a deadly disease that often has a poor prognosis. There are three primary types of mesothelioma: Malignant pleural mesothelioma - occurs in the lining of the lungs (pleura) Malignant peritoneal mesothelioma - occurs in the lining of the abdomen (peritoneum) Malignant pericardial mesothelioma - occurs in the lining of the hea (pericardium)Asbestosis is a chronic inflammatory and scarring disease affecting the tissue of the lungs. People with the condition may experience severe shoness of breath and are at an increased risk for ceain cancers, including lung cancer and, less commonly, mesothelioma. Asbestosis specifically refers to fibrosis within the lung tissue from asbestos, and not scarring around the outside of the lungs. It is caused by the breathing in and retention of asbestos fibers. It usually occurs after high intensity and/or long-term exposure to asbestos (paicularly in those individuals working on the production or end-use of products containing asbestos) and is therefore regarded as an occupational lung disease. People with extensive occupational exposure to the mining, manufacturing, handling, or removal of asbestos are at risk of developing asbestosis. | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following causes malignant mesothelioma?-
A. Smoking
B. Asbestosis
C. Pneumoconiosis
D. Silicosis
| Asbestosis |
75681002-6716-4a12-b4de-7fde452bb23f | Membranous Glomerulopathy is seen in- Malignancy | Medicine | Nephrotic and Nephritic syndrome | Membranous Glomerulopathy is seen in?
A. Diabetes
B. HTN
C. Renal failure
D. Malignancy
| Malignancy |
ece33c68-c3fa-4ed1-95d0-1292799a2280 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CobalamineVitamin B12 (cobalamin or cynocobalmin) is present only in food of animal origin. Other three vitamins can be taken from plant source. | Biochemistry | null | Not obtained from plant source ?
A. Cobalamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Thiamine
D. Vitamin A
| Cobalamine |
6787a2d4-1968-4087-955b-62b8961f71a7 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Celiac disease Diagnosis of Celiac disease* The definitive diagnosis is based on histopathologicalfindings which show :i) Villous atrophy and Crypt hyperplasia with decrease in villus : crypt ratio.ii) Loss of microvilli brush border.iii) Inflammatory cells are present in lamina propria : plasma cells, macrophages, lymphocytes, eosinophils and mast cells.iv) One of the characteristic feature is that overall mucosal thickness remains same (as villous atrophy is compensated by crypt hyperplasia).v) Mainly proximal intestine is involved.* Other characteristic diagnostic finding is symptom resolution on gluten free diet.* The most sensitive non-invasive serological tests are the presence of IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminase or IgA/ IgG antibodies to deaminatedgliadin. Anti-endomysial antibodies are highly specific but less sensitive. | Pathology | G.I.T. | Antiglaidin antibodies are seen in?
A. Tropica sprue
B. Whipple's disease
C. Celiac disease
D. Intestinal lymphoma
| Celiac disease |
9e5deceb-a538-476e-a5e4-dfb9fbe4e61e | Embryological development of kidneys and adrenal is different, hence even in renal agenesis, adrenal glands will be in normal position | Physiology | All India exam | In renal agenesis, the adrenal gland is
A. Absent
B. Present on contralateral side
C. Ectopic in the iliac fossa
D. Present at the usual location
| Present at the usual location |
d92f15cc-ab62-4afe-9e34-16ac2a7b7180 | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. it has been shown that infection with human herpes virus 8 or kaposi's sarcoma associated herpes virus is associated with kaposi's sarcoma, a vascular neoplasm common in AIDS patients.. | Pathology | General pathology | Kaposi sarcoma is related to which virus ?
A. HPV 16
B. HHV-8
C. EBV
D. CMV
| HHV-8 |
a95a2b53-8529-4636-b6ca-73641ad6a29e | Scratching scale in psoriasis makes the scale appear more silver in color by introducing air-keratin interfaces More vigorous scratching or picking off the scale produces small bleeding points (Auspitz's sign in plaque type) Plaque-type psoriasis MC variety of psoriasis. Patients will have stable, slowly enlarging plaques, which remain basically unchanged for long periods of time. MC areas are elbows, knees, gluteal cleft, and scalp. Involvement is symmetric. | Dental | Psoriasis | Auspitz sign is seen in?
A. Pustular psoriasis
B. Guttate psoriasis
C. Plaque psoriasis
D. Erythrodermic psoriasis
| Plaque psoriasis |
a926077b-f898-4ab7-8e66-48c37d915e44 | Acute rheumatic fever occurs most often in children the principal manifestation is carditis Neveheless about 20% of first attack in adults with ahritis The diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever is made based on serologic evidence of previous streptococcal infection in conjugation with two or more of Jones criteria Carditis Migratory poly ahritis of large joint Subcutaneous nodules Erythmea marginatum skin rashes Sydenham chorea Robbins 9 th edition page no. 392 | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | Which is not major rheumatic fever?
A. Carditis
B. Subcutaneous nodules
C. Increased ASLO
D. Ahritis
| Increased ASLO |
41879c62-1e75-4173-8db9-22a3fcf80b02 | Under sickness benefit of ESI the benefit is payable for a maximum period of 91 days, in any continous period of 365 days, the Daily rate being about 50% of average daily wage . (REF. PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 757) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health | What is the propoion of daily rate wages payable as periodic cash payment under sickness Benefit of ESI Act -
A. 5-12 of the average monthly wages
B. 7\/12 of the basic monthly wages
C. 8\/12 of the average daily wages
D. 10\/12 of the average daily wages
| 7\/12 of the basic monthly wages |
3a46a836-7a8b-4d3b-9e7b-ad566102a43f | Brachial pulse is used normally for palpating aerial pulses. In rare cases, femoral pulses are seen. Because femoral pulses are week Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | In new born, the aery used for palpation of pulse is ___________
A. Carotid
B. Brachial
C. Radial
D. Femoral
| Brachial |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.