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4d3b9a0e-f8b2-47c1-9d97-9cf697b8e905 | Ans. (b) 16-25Ref: K. Park 23rd ed. / 690MODIFIED KUPPUSWAMI SCALE: Scale of socio- economic status of urban families, includes Education status of head, occupation status of head, Income per capita.Total score of 3 componentsSocioeconomic class* 26-29* 16-25* 11-15* 05-10* 03-04UpperUpper-middleLower-middleUpper-lowerLower | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography | Range of kuppu swami scale for upper middle class:
A. 26-29
B. 16-25
C. 16-26
D. 26-30
| 16-25 |
19cc43e1-c332-4b45-b0a0-0f7c1c5726e0 | Ans. D: Low PaO2 and high PaCO2 Type II Respiratory Failure (Ventilatory Failure: Aerial Hypercapnia): Paial pressure of CO2 in the aerial blood reflects the efficiency of ventilatory mechanism that clears (washes out) CO2 produced during tissue metabolism. Type II failure can be caused by any disorder that decreases central respiratory drive, interferes with the transmission of signals from the central nervous system, or impedes the ability of respiratory muscles to expand the lungs and chest wall. Type II failure is characterized by an abnormal increase in the paial pressure of CO2 in the aerial blood (PaCO2 > 46 mm Hg), and is accompanied by simultaneous fall in PAO2 and Pa02, therefore PAO2 - Pa02 difference remains unchanged. | Medicine | null | Characteristic of type-II respiratory failure is: September 2010
A. Low PaO2 and low PaCO2
B. Low PaO2 and normal PaCO2
C. Normal PaO2 and high PaCO2
D. Low PaO2 and high PaCO2
| Low PaO2 and high PaCO2 |
07546120-8aba-482d-b1bb-9055c8cbd65d | National population policy 2000 The National Socio-Demographic Goals to be achieved by the year 2010 were as follows: (1) Address the unmet needs for basic reproductive and child health services, supplies and infrastructure. (2) Make school education upto the age 14 free and compulsory, and reduce drop-outs at primary and secondary school levels to below 20 per cent for both boys and girls. (3) Reduce infant moality rate to below 30 per 1000 live bihs. (4) Reduce maternal moality ratio to below 100 per 100,000 live bihs. (5) Achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases. (6) Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age. (7) Achieve 80 per cent institutional deliveries and 100 per cent deliveries by trained persons. (8) Achieve universal access to information/counselling, and services for feility regulation and contraception with a wide basket of choices. (9) Achieve 100 per cent registration of bihs, deaths, marriage and pregnancy. (10) Contain the spread of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and promote greater integration between the management of reproductive tract infections (I) and sexually transmitted infections (ST!) and the National AIDS Control Organization. (11) Prevent and control communicable diseases. (12) Integrate Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) in the provision of reproductive and child health services, and in reaching out to households. (13) Promote vigorously the small family norm to achieve replacement levels of TFR. (14) Bring about convergence in implementation of related social sector programmes so that family welfare becomes a people centred programme The NPP 2000 anticipates that proper implementation of this policy will help limit the population to 1,107 million (110 crores) in 2010, instead of 1,162 million (116 crores) as projected by the Technical Group on Population Projections. It is hoped that the TFR will reach the replacement level of 2.1 by 2010. The long-term objective of achieving a stable population by 2045, at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth, social development, and environment protection will also require considerable effo and efficient implementation of the NPP. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 549 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non communicable diseases | As per our National Population Policy 2000, the long-term objective is to achive the population stability by which one of the following years?
A. 2025
B. 2035
C. 2045
D. 2055
| 2045 |
af6499ea-b612-4431-ab87-4cfea40127e2 | HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal * More cognitive side effects==bi fronto temporal * Less cognitive side effect======bi frontal * SIDE EFFECTS * RETROGRADE AMNESIA * BODY ACHE * MEDICATIONS USED IN THE PROCEDURE * ANAESTHETIC======Thiopentone / ethosuximide * MUSCLE RELAXANT====Succynyl choline CURARE IN PSEUDOCHOLINEESTERASE DEFICIENCY * ANTICHOLINERGIC=====Atropine CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication * RELATIVE -----------------Brain tumour / arrythmia Ref. kaplon and saock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1065 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | which of the following is a absolute contra indication for ECT
A. pediatric
B. pregnacy
C. geriatric
D. nil
| nil |
f7cc3b7e-dc74-4ed7-8b7e-c5cc9d0510db | Features of collecting duct cells :
No brush border
No carbonic anhydrase in lumimal membrane
Has 'tight' tight junction
Para cellular transport not possible | Physiology | null | Characteristic feature of cells of collecting duct are
A. Pressure of brush border
B. Pressure of carbonic anhydrase in lumimal membrane
C. It has leaky tight junction
D. Para cellular transport not possible
| Para cellular transport not possible |
7aafab3b-e656-4d2e-995e-569b99171086 | hea : strychinine , digoxin Skin- Hypodermic injections, snake bite, Corrosives. Hair, Nails- Heavy Metal Poisoning. Spinal Cord- Strychnine Poisoning CSF- Alcohol intoxication (in 1.0 mg NaF/ml of fluid) Urine- Narcotics Body Fat- Endrin , DDT(Organo Chlorines). Muscle- When internal organs are badly putrefied. ref : narayana reddy 9th ed | Forensic Medicine | All India exam | which organ is preserved in strychinine poisoning ?
A. hea
B. brain
C. liver
D. csf
| hea |
56c65fb2-6004-4278-a843-a2852a7a0d08 | CO2 diffuses through tissue to enter plasma
↓
Inside RBC, CO2 rects with H2O to form Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
↓
H2CO3 Splits to form H+ and HCO3– with the help of enzyme Carbonic anhydrase. | Physiology | null | Shift of HCO3– out of RBC in exchange for Cl– is known as
A. Bohr effect
B. Hamberger shift
C. Haldane shift
D. Ondine's shift
| Hamberger shift |
4b94bce0-c120-4ffe-bc80-cc8d78744938 | Porphyrins are normal pigment present in haemoglobin, myoglobin and cytochrome. Porphyria refers to an uncommon disorder of inborn abnormality of porphyrin metabolism. It results from a genetic deficiency of one of the enzymes required for the synthesis of haem, resulting in excessive production of porphyrins. Often, the genetic deficiency is precipitated by the intake of some drugs. Porphyrias are associated with excretion of intermediate products in the urine--delta-aminolaevulinic acid, porphobilinogen, uroporphyrin, coproporphyrin, and protoporphyrin. Porphyrias are broadly of 2 types--erythropoietic and hepatic. (a) Erythropoietic porphyrias: These have a defective synthesis of haem in the red cell precursors in the bone marrow. These may be fuher of 2 subtypes: Congenital erythropoietic porphyria, in which the urine is red due to the presence of uroporphyrin and coproporphyrin. The skin of these infants is highly photosensitive. Bones and skin show red-brown discolouration. Erythropoietic protoporphyria, in which there is an excess of protoporphyrin but no excess of porphyrin in the urine. (b) Hepatic porphyrias. These are more common and have a normal erythroid precursor but have a defect in the synthesis of haem in the liver. Its fuher subtypes include the following: Acute intermittent porphyria is characterised by acute episodes of 3 patterns: abdominal, neurological, and psychotic. These patients do not have photosensitivity. There is excessive delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen in the urine. Porphyria cutanea tarda is the most common of all porphyrias. Porphyrins collect in the liver and a small quantity is excreted in the urine. Skin lesions are similar to those of invariegate porphyria. Most of the patients have associated haemosiderosis with cirrhosis which may eventually develop into hepatocellular carcinoma. Mixed (Variegate) porphyrias. It is rare and combines skin photosensitivity with acute abdominal and neurological manifestations. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION - HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:42-43 | Pathology | miscellaneous | Which of the following porphyrias is not inherited as an Autosomal Dominant disorder -
A. Acute Intermittent Porphyria
B. Congenital Erythropoietic Porphyria
C. Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
D. Hereditary Coproporphyria
| Congenital Erythropoietic Porphyria |
694f8980-3d23-48ec-adae-67d6924f38c1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Intradermal o In tuberculin test, injection is given intradermally on flexor (ventral) surface of left forearm, mid-wav between elbow & wrist.Intradermal injection of PPDon flexor aspect of forearm | Examined at 48-72 hours |||Induration > 10 mmInduration < 5 mmInduration 6-9 mm|||PositiveNegativeEquivocal | Repeat tuberculin test (two step testing) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Tuberculosis | Tuberculin test is -
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intradermal
C. Intramuscular
D. Subdermal
| Intradermal |
9d764167-17f3-47b2-abfa-c511cc7f7e9a | Both cisapride and tegaserod are selective 5HT4 agonists useful in the treatment of GERD. Cisapride possesses cardiac K+ channel blocking activity and can lead to torsades de pointes. Tegaserod is devoid of this adverse effect. However, tegaserod has recently been withdrawn due to an increased risk of MI and stroke. | Pharmacology | null | Selective 5–HT4 agonist useful in gastroesophageal reflux disease and lacking arrhythmogenic property is :
A. Buspirone
B. Sumatriptan
C. Cisapride
D. Tegaserod
| Tegaserod |
31bac2b0-bc21-4e7e-bf70-ca0a2ae8a051 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Post Splenectomy Patient In table 138-1 p 884 a list of conditions commonly predisposing to pneumococcal infection is given.The list is very long and its not possible to memorize it so I will pick out some important ones for you.Conditions predisposing to pneumococcal infectionsLymphomaMultiple myeloma*Common variable hypogammaglobulinemiaCLLSickle cell disease,* hypersplenia, Asplenia, Splenectomy*Renal insufficiency*Diabetes mellitus*Glucocorticoids administration*Infection with HIVCirrhosis* | Microbiology | Bacteria | Risk of Pneumococcal meningitis is seen in :
A. Post splenectomy Patient
B. Patient undergone neurosurgical intervention
C. Patient following cardiac surgery
D. Patient with hypoplasia of lung
| Post splenectomy Patient |
e3e4b228-600e-468d-80fb-e900900cedcd | Ans. (a) Stomach* Primary gastric lymphoma is an uncommon condition, accounting for less than 15% of gastric malignancies and about 2% of all lymphomas. However, the stomach is a very common extranodal site for lymphomas (lymphomas originating somewhere else with metastasis to stomach).It is also the most common source of lymphomas in the gastrointestinal tract. | Surgery | Benign Gastric Disease | Most common location of lymphoma in the G.I.T?
A. Stomach
B. Ileum
C. Mesentery
D. Colon
| Stomach |
e04109fb-2424-4fb1-92e6-eb716232c938 | (HYPOSTASIS, POST MORTEM LIVIDITY, POSTMORTEM SUGGILLATIONS)
Lividity is a dark purple discolouration of the skin resulting from the gravitational pooling of blood in the veins and capillary beds of the dependent parts of the body following cessation of the circulation.
The process begins immediately after the circulation stops, and in a person dying slowly with circulatory failure, it may be pronounced very shortly after death.
This is due to the release of fibrinolysins, especially from small calibre vessels, e.g. capillaries, and from serous surfaces, e.g. the pleura. Clots may persist when the mass of clot is too large to be liquified by the fibrinolysin available at the site of clot formation.
In some deaths associated with infection and cachexia, this fibrinolytic effect may fail to develop, explaining the presence of abundant clot in the bean and large calibre vessels.
Thus, in cases of sudden death the blood remains spontaneously coagulable only during a brief period immediately following death; it then becomes completely free from fibrinogen and will never again clot. This incoagulability of the blood is a commonplace observation at autopsy.
The normal colour of areas of post mortem lividity is a cyanotic hue, but this description should not be used since it is misleading. The development of lividity is too variable to serve as a useful indicator of the time of death. | Unknown | null | Chocolate" colored post-mortem staining is seen in?
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. KCN poisoning
C. Phosphorus poisoning
D. Potassium chlorate poisoning
| Potassium chlorate poisoning |
76e913a7-8ce4-4066-8955-69fac6718a96 | Buccal branch of the mandibular nerve is purely sensory and is the only purely sensory branch of the anterior division of mandibular nerve. | Anatomy | null | Only sensory branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve is:
A. Auriculotemporal nerve
B. Lingual
C. Long buccal
D. Inferior alveolar
| Long buccal |
7ededa24-06ec-406d-9448-fa194e32b139 | .Bupivacaine (Marcaine): It has got prolonged action. It is a vasodilator also. Dose: 3 mg/kg. Epidural block: 0.5% Spinal 0.5% 3 ml.* An epidural catheter is placed in the space and fixed. 2% xylocaine with adrenaline or 0.5% bupivacaine is injected into the space to achieve anaesthesia up to the desired level. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 1105 | Surgery | Urology | The long acting analgesic used in post operative pain is
A. Bupivacane
B. Dubivacine
C. Morphine
D. Tramadol
| Bupivacane |
b5e1917e-9671-46f0-bbaa-56a980640c7d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metaphyseal translucencies | Pediatrics | null | The most characteristic radiographic sign in a child with leukemia is -
A. Osteosclerosis of the metaphysic
B. Metaphyseal translucencies
C. Periosteal reaction
D. Osteolytic lesion
| Metaphyseal translucencies |
62900f3f-ded0-431e-8ba7-1f43ba582310 | Ans. C. Paragonimus with 2 layersa. Paragonimus westermani is the major species of lung fluke to infects humans, causing paragonimiasis,b. The species sometimes is called the Japanese Lung fluke or Oriental Lung fluke.c. Unembryonated eggs are passed in the sputum of a human or feline. Two weeks later, miracidia develop in the egg and hatches.d. The miracidia penetrate its first intermediate host (snail). Within the snail mother sporocyst form and produce many mother rediae, which subsequently produce many daughter rediae which shed crawling cercariae into fresh water.e. The crawling cercariae penetrate fresh water crabs and encyst in its muscles becoming metacercaria. Humans or felines then eat the infected crabs raw. Once eaten, the metacercaria excyst and penetrates the gut, diaphragm and lung where it becomes an adult worm in pairs,f. The first intermediate hosts of the Paragonimus westermani are freshwater snails.g. Transmission of the parasite P. westermani to humans and mammals primarily occurs through the consumption of raw or undercooked seafoodh. Animals such as pigs, dogs, and a variety of feline species can also harbour P. westermani.i. Diagnosis is based on microscopic demonstration of eggs in stool or sputum, but these are not present until 2 to 3 months after infection. However, eggs are also occasionally encountered in effusion fluid or biopsy material. Furthermore, you can use morphologic comparisons with other intestinal parasites to diagnose potential causative agents. Finally, antibody detection is useful in light infections and in the diagnosis of extrapulmonary paragonimiasis.j. According to the CDC, praziquantel is the drug of choice to treat paragonimiasis. | Microbiology | Parasitology | Cavitary lesion in the right lower lung with dyspnea with following histopathological appearance. Most likely diagnosis:-
A. Echinococcus with 2 layers
B. Strongyloides with 2 layers
C. Paragonimus with 2 layers
D. Cysticercosis with 3 layers
| Paragonimus with 2 layers |
aa123fd2-4d27-447e-a278-b21cb28c7efe | - Blood volume = 8% of body weight So, in 60kg adult blood volume is about 4.8 liters. * Out of this 4.8 liters - 45% is hematocrit (cell volume)- 55% is plasma volume- Therefore, plasma volume = 55% of 4.8 liter - 2640 ml. | Physiology | JIPMER 2019 | A man weighing 60 kg has 45 % hematocrit. What will be his plasma volume?
A. 2640
B. 3080
C. 3850
D. 3300
| 2640 |
7b4489ff-406f-4513-84ca-65a02f87b6d1 | Syncope and sudden death following competitive spos in young individuals is characteristic of Hyperophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM). The presence of interventricular septal hyperophy in postmoem confirms the diagnosis of HOCM. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1410-11; Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 19th Edition, Page 476 | Medicine | null | A young athlete died of sudden cardiac arrest after atheletic activity. Postmoem finding revealed interventricular septal hyperophy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)
B. Hyperophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
C. Aoic Stenosis (AS)
D. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
| Hyperophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM) |
2c736762-d564-4d6d-b840-d246b6657555 | INGUINAL LIGAMENT:- Extends from anterior superior iliac spine to pubic tubercle. Forms boundaries of femoral triangle and Hesselbach&;s triangle. FEMORAL TRIANGLE:- Triangular depression on front of the upper one third of the thigh immediately below the inguinal ligament. BOUNDARIES :- 1. Laterally: medial border of saorius. 2. Medially: medial border of adductor longus. 3. Base: inguinal ligament. 4. Apex:directed downwards.formed by the point where the medial and lateral boundaries cross.apex is continuous with the adductor canal. 5. Roof: skin,superficial fascia and deep fascia.Superficial fascia contains superficial inguinal lymph nodes,femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve,branches of ilioinguinal nerve,superficial branches of the femoral aery with accompanying veins and the upper pa of the great saphenous vein. 6. Floor: medially by adductor longus and pectineus,and laterally by the psoas major and iliacus. CONTENTS:- 1. Femoral aery and its branches.- Superficial branches-superficial external pudendal Superficial epigastric Superficial circumflex iliac Deep branches-profunda femoris, muscular branches and deep external pudendal 2. Femoral vein and its tributaries 3. Femoral sheath 4. Femoral nerve 5. Nerve to pectineus 6. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve. 7. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh. 8. Deep inguinal lymph nodes. Vein is medial to aery (base) Vein posteromedial to aery (apex) HESEELBACH&;S TRIANGLE:- Boundaries- 1. Medially-Lateral border of rectus abdominis 2. Laterally- inferior epigastric aery. 3. Base - inguinal ligament. {Reference:BDC 6E pg no. 45} | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Inguinal ligament forms the boundaries of
A. Calots triangle
B. Hesselbach's triangle
C. Triangle of doom
D. Triangle of pain
| Hesselbach's triangle |
5b332a93-297b-4f51-96e6-62a5cc36d31f | Ans. A: Pitting Edema Early signs of kwashiorkor present as general symptoms of malnutrition and include fatigue, irritability and lethargy. As protein deprivation continues the following abnormalities become apparent. Failure to thrive (failure to put on height and weight) Loss of muscle mass Pitting oedema- This is the main sign Large protuberant belly (pot belly) Fatty liver Failing immune system so prone to infections and increased severity of normally mild infections Skin and hair changes Characteristic skin and hair changes occur in kwashiorkor and develop over a few days. Skin lesions are at first erythematous before turning purple and reddish-brown in colour with marked exfoliation (skin peeling and sloughing) Where the skin becomes dark and dry, it splits open when stretched to reveal pale areas between the cracks ("lacquered flaky paint", "crazy pavement dermatosis") Irregular or patchy discolouration of the skin caused by pigmentary changes Hair becomes dry and lustreless and may turn reddish yellow to white in colour. It becomes sparse and brittle and can be pulled out easily. A 'flag sign is alternate bands of hypopigmented and normally pigmented hair pattern and is seen when growth of child occurs in spus. Nail plates are thin and soft and may be fissured or ridged. | Pediatrics | null | Specific sign of kwashiorkor is: September 2007
A. Pitting edema
B. Weight loss
C. Flag sign
D. Muscle wasting
| Pitting edema |
7d3ee4fc-9b65-4e6d-8a80-05fcbdb39192 | Ans. D. Macleod's syndrome is synonymous with itCongenital lobar emphysemaa. Progressive over inflation of one or multiple lobes, usually of the upper lobes or right middle lobe.b. Left upper lobe is most commonly affected (43%).c. The word emphysema is misnomer as me-e is no alveolar wall destructiond. The etiology is unknown in many cases but is related to obstruction of the bronchus by a ball valve mechanisme. Present with respiratory distress (90%) with progressive cyanosis within 6 months of life.f. Associated congenital anomalies (cardiovascular) are seen in 50% casesg. Treatment is by lung resection | Radiology | Respiratory System | Which of the following is not a feature of congenital lobar emphysema is:
A. Left upper lobe involvement is most commonly involved
B. Severe respiratory distress in childhood itself
C. Childhood shift
D. Macleod's syndrome is synonymous with it
| Macleod's syndrome is synonymous with it |
8101aac7-e2d9-4453-b878-943f71cce2be | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Air HEPA (High-efficiency paiculate air) filter is used to remove microorganisms from air. HEPA filter traps airborne paicles and microbes. It can remove > 95% of all paicles including microorganisms with a diameter > 0.3 p.m. | Microbiology | null | HEPA filter is used to disinfect ?
A. Water
B. Air
C. Culture
D. Blood
| Air |
2a48e3cd-98d6-4a74-a0c7-0f2b1d32b382 | Pilocarpine is a muscarinic receptor agonist so it doesn't have effects on skeletal muscle (NM). Neostigmine, on the other hand, has indirect actions on both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.Ref: Katzung Pharmacology; 13th edition | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Neostigmine differs from Pilocarpine in having effects on
A. Bowel motility
B. Hea rate
C. Salivary glands
D. Skeletal muscle
| Skeletal muscle |
053232e4-95d6-4a05-9f65-3ed0d26ea4fb | In the question, patient is presenting with overt diabetes mellitus i.e. she had diabetes before pregnancy also. The question says, in which the following conditions the risk of developing the condition is same in diabetic as well as nondiabetic patients in other words, which of the options is not a complication of diabetes during pregnancy.
Option ‘a’ – asymptomatic bacteriuvea – Diabetes during pregnancy, increases the chances of infections including asymptomatic bacteriuria Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 283
Option ‘b’ – preeclampsia – In all diabetic patients, there are increased chances of preeclampsia (25%) Dutta Obs. 7/e p 283
Option ‘c’ – Congenital adrenal hyperplasia – It does not have any relation whatsoever with diabetes.
Option ‘d’ – PPH after delivery – Diabetic pregnancy leads to polyhydramnios which can lead to PPH after delivery.
Option ‘e’ – Shoulder dystocia is a result of macrosomia during pregnancy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 30-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus presents to her physician at 19 weeks' gestation. She is obese and did not realize that she was pregnant until recently. She also has not been "watching her sugar" lately, but is now motivated to improve her regimen. A dilated ophthalmologic examination shows no retinopathy. An ECG is normal. Urinalysis is negative for proteinuria. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin A 1c: 10.8% , Glucose: 222 mg/dL , Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 1.0 μU/mL, Free thyroxine: 1.7 ng/dL ,Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL.
In which of the following condition the risk of developing it is same in diabetics as the general population.
A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. Preeclampsia
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. PPH after delivery
| Congenital adrenal hyperplasia |
053acb4a-80f8-47b8-9fce-5051a1c28bed | (Refer: OP Ghai’s Essential pediatrics, 7th edition, pg no: 694) | Unknown | null | What is the does of adrenaline given to a child with cardiac arrest?
A. ml/kg of 1:1000 solution
B. ml/kg of 1:1000 solution
C. ml/kg of 1:10000 solution
D. ml/kg of 1:10000 solution
| ml/kg of 1:1000 solution |
29cc245e-766f-4660-abcd-2c72d615ba4c | A i.e. Glucagon excessGlucagon lit hyperglycemia as it inhibits glycolysis and stimulates gluconeogenesis.Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency (Type Ia/Von Gierke's disease), glycogen synthase deficiency (Type 0 glycogen storage diseae), liver & muscle debranching enzyme deficiency (limit dextrinosis), liver & muscle phosphorylase deficiency and liver phosphorylase kinase deficiency - cause fasting hypoglycemia.Hypoglycemia in uremia suggest multiorgan involvement. | Biochemistry | null | Which among the following is not a cause of fasting hypoglycemia?
A. Glucagon excess
B. Glucose 6 phospatase deficiency
C. Uremia
D. Glycogen synthase deficiency
| Glucagon excess |
8e098f50-d2ed-4c3f-98df-b2b3698abdb3 | Unusual crying following DPT is most likely to be Persistent Inconsolable Screaming. Similarly, convulsions are most likely to be d/t DPT. Hence, DPT should not be given subsequently. It can be replaced by DT. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Contraindications, AEFIs | Eight months old child had history of unusual crying and convulsions following previous vaccination after BCG, DPT & OPV (first dose) and Hepatitis B. Now parents have brought child for next doses of vaccination. Which vaccine is contraindicated in this situation?
A. Measles
B. DPT
C. Hepatitis B
D. DT
| DPT |
38bc273e-ac44-44d7-b4fb-a52dff30ee15 | MITOCHONDRIAL DNA: Present in eukaryotes Circular, double stranded High rate of mutations because of : no introns (prevent mutations) no repair enzymes no proof reading 1% of total cellular DNA Maternally inherited Total 67 proteins of respiratory chain, out of which 13 are from mitochondrial DNA. Multiple copies are present in the same cell Contains: 4 stop codons. 16,000 base pairs(which is around 1% of total cell DNA) 37 genes encoding for: 2 r RNA, 22 t RNA 13 protein sub-units Contains own ribosome (55 S) and circular dsDNA. | Biochemistry | Mendalian Inheritance | Human Mitochondrial Genome encodes:
A. 37 genes
B. 47 genes
C. 57 genes
D. 67 genes
| 37 genes |
f54f9a92-324a-4d09-afbd-3f4945858642 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fibrous dysplasia Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia is associated with endocrine abnormalities. | Pathology | null | Bone tumour which is hormone dependent ?
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Fibrous dysplasia
| Fibrous dysplasia |
5e7de0c7-d073-4f2a-a267-e58755f5dd1a | Globe thermometer is used for Radiant temperature Kata Thermometer is also used for temperature measurement and is less sensitive to air velocity Anemometer is used to measure the velocity of the wind Psychrometer is used to measure humidity Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 810 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Which of the following used for recording very low air velocity
A. Globe thermometer
B. Kata thermometer
C. Anemometer
D. Sling psychrometer
| Kata thermometer |
ea4279f3-7135-430e-969b-d8dbeec37c93 | Ans. (a) Streptococcus pneumonia* Pneumatocoele often occur as a sequela to acute pneumonia, commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Pulmonary pneumatoceles are thin-walled, air- filled cysts that develop within the lung parenchyma. They can be single emphysematous lesions but are more often multiple. Also occur with other agents, including Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli, group Astreptococci, Serratia marcescens, Klebsiella pneumoniae, adenovirus, and tuberculosis" Pneumatocele formation is associated with hyperimmunoglobulin E (IgE) syndrome (Buckley- Job syndrome). | Medicine | Pneumonia, Bronchiectasis, and Lung Abscess | Pneumatocele is commonly caused by:
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
| Streptococcus pneumonia |
7c0771d1-f201-4186-b65f-e357e44805a5 | Larynx has total 9 cartilages : 3 paired and 3 unpaired. | Anatomy | null | Laryngeal skeleton has -cartilages-
A. 3 paired, 2 unpaired
B. 3 paired, 3 unpaired
C. 2 paired, 3 unpaired
D. 2 paired, 2 unpaired
| 3 paired, 3 unpaired |
13419315-6e5a-4338-bd6a-5a276f2e36f0 | The total fetal cardiac output is approximately 450 mL/Kg/min. Approximately 65% of descending aoic blood flow returns to the placenta, and hence, only the remaining 35% perfuses the fetal organs and tissues. Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 9260 | Pediatrics | C.V.S | The total fetal cardiac output at term is estimated to be ______?
A. 150 mL/Kg body weight
B. 250 mL/Kg body weight
C. 350 mL/Kg body weight
D. 450 mL/Kg body weight
| 450 mL/Kg body weight |
b61c7961-3100-4f19-95a4-3c81104f84a0 | The daily requirement of iodine is 150 mcg supplied normally by well balanced diets and drinking water. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Daily requirement of Iodine in adults is
A. 50 mcg
B. 100 mcg
C. 150 mcg
D. 200 mcg
| 150 mcg |
ea16f024-05df-4504-a062-e2451245a3ad | Ans. (c) P.C.O.DRef : Harrison 19th ed. /331, 332* Testosterone is the most important androgen in both men and women.* In women, testosterone is produced primarily through peripheral conversion of androstenedione (50 percent) with the remainder of production concentrated in the ovary (25 percent) and adrenal cortex (25 percent).* In women, abnormally high levels of testosterone have been associated with hirsutism and polycystic ovary syndrome.* Granulosa-theca cell tumors, more commonly known as granulosa cell tumors, belong to the sex cord-stromal category and include tumors composed of granulose cells, theca cells, and fibroblasts in varying degrees and combinations.* Both subtypes commonly produce estrogen, and estrogen production often is the reason for early diagnosis. | Medicine | Disorders of Female Reproductive System | Lady 45 years of age with decreased oestrogen level, increased testosterone and temporal hair recession. Diagnosis is?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. P.C.O.D
D. Granulosa theca cell tumour
| P.C.O.D |
8e158cb8-da59-45fd-a99d-f3f036002649 | Ans: b (Urinary retention) Ref: Bailey, p. 1256Degrees of hemorrhoidectomy (Ref: Bailey 1256)Ist - Bleed only; no prolapseIInd - Prolapse, but can be reduced digitally and will remain reduced.IIIrd - Continously remain prolapsedTreatment: Injection therapy -Ist degreeIInd degreeBanding -IInd degree too large for injection treatmentPhoto coagulation -Ist degreeIInd degreeHemorrhoidectomy -IIIrd degreeIInd degree not curable with other methodsFibrosed hemorrhoidsIntero-extemal hemorrhoid when external is well defined.Now the complications of hemorrhoidectomy:Eady:PainUrinary retentionReactionary haemorrhageLate:2o haemorrhage-usually 7-8 post op dayAnal strictureAnal fissure, sub mucosal abscessBridge:An arterial pile is a hemangiomatous condition of superior rectal artery | Surgery | Disorders of the Anal Canal | Following hemorrhoidectomy the most common complication is:
A. Bleeding
B. Urinary retention
C. Infection
D. Fecal impaction
| Urinary retention |
bff43fa1-5184-48e7-93d1-c24bc3aea149 | Acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is an immunologic response of the kidney to infection, characterized by the sudden appearance of edema, hematuria, proteinuria and hypeension . It is essentially a disease of childhood that accounts for approximately 90% of renal disorders in children. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 278 | Medicine | Kidney | A 60 year old woman presents with generalized edema, Skin Ulceration and hypeension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic haematuria. serum complement levels are decreased and she is positive for anti-hepatitis c antibodies. The likely diagnosis is -
A. PSGN
B. Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia
C. Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
| Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia |
e6d972b8-ce52-4a21-9f2b-35383acf102e | 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency REF: Nelson's 18th ed p. 2366 See APPENDIX-58 for details of "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia" | Pediatrics | null | A female child presents with hypeension, hyperpigmentation and virilization, she is most likely to be suffering from deficiency of?
A. 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency
B. 21 alpha hydroxylase
C. 17 alpha hydroxylase
D. 3 beta hydroxylase
| 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency |
1410c599-b620-4a72-bf42-5cdcd67c7a8f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cotrimoxazole o Fluoroquinolones are not used in the t/t of pneumocystosis infection."Trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole (TMP - SMX), which acts by inhibiting folic acid synthesis, is considered the drug of choice for all forms ofpneumocystosisTREATMENT OF PNEUMOCYSTOSISFirst choiceo Trimethoprim-SulphamethoxazoleQOther agentso Trimethoprim + Dapsoneo Atovaquoneo Clindamycin + Primaquine or Pentamidineo Trimetrexate + leucovorinAdjunctive agent o PrednisonePROPHYLAXIS OFPNEUMOCYSTIC CARINHPNEUMONIAPrimary prophylaxis is indicated foro Patients with CD4+ cell counts of < 200/ Lo History of oropharyngeal candidiasisSecondary prophylaxis is indicated foro Both HIV infected and non HIV infected patients,o Who have recovered from pneumocystosis.Primary and secondary prophylaxis may be discontinued in HIV infected persons once.o CD4+ counts have risen to > 200/ L and remained at that level for > 3 months.Also knowFirst choice agent for prophylaxiso Trimethoprim, sulphamethoxazole.Other agents used in prophylaxis.Dapsone, pentamidine. | Medicine | Drugs | DOC in P. jeroveci -
A. Fluoroquinolone
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Penicillin
D. Erythromycin
| Cotrimoxazole |
163175d8-6522-4a20-80bc-e87d61348fbf | Water and electrolyte homeostasis Total body water (TBW) is approximately 60% of body weight in an adult male, although the propoion is somewhat more for infants and less for women. In a 70 kg man TBW is therefore about 40 L. Approximately 25 L is located inside cells (the intracellular fluid or ICF), while the remaining 15 L is in the extracellular fluid (ECF) compament (Fig. 14.1). Most of the ECF (approximately 12 L) is interstitial fluid, which is within the tissues but outside cells, whereas the remainder (about 3 L) is in the plasma compament. The ion composition between the main body fluid compaments intracellularly and extracellularly is illustrated in Figure 14.1. The dominant positively charged ion (cation) within cells is potassium, whereas phosphates and negatively charged proteins constitute the major intracellular negatively charged ions (anions). In the ECF the dominant cation is sodium, while chloride and, to a lesser extent, bicarbonate are the most impoant ECF anions. An impoant difference between the intravascular (plasma) and interstitial compaments of the ECF is that only plasma contains significant concentrations of protein. The major force maintaining the difference in cation concentrations between the ICF and ECF is the sodium-potassium pump (Na,K-activated adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)), which is present in all cell membranes. Maintenance of these gradients is essential for many cell processes, including the excitability of conducting tissues such as nerve and muscle. The difference in protein content between the plasma and the interstitial fluid compament is maintained by the impermeability of the capillary wall to protein. This protein concentration gradient (the colloid osmotic, or oncotic, pressure of the plasma) contributes to the balance of forces across the capillary wall that our fluid retention within the plasma compament. The concentration of sodium in the ECF plays a pivotal role in determining plasma osmolality and thereby controlling intracellular volume through changes in water balance between the intracellular and extracellular space. In contrast, plasma volume is largely controlled by total body sodium, which determines volume change. Therefore, disturbances in water homeostasis typically present with biochemical abnormalities such as hyponatraemia or hypernatraemia, whereas disturbances in sodium homeostasis present with hypervolaemia or hypovolaemia as the result of expansion or contraction of ECF volume, respectively. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 349 | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Water-fluid balance is characterized by -
A. Maintained by endogenous water loss
B. Maintained by endogenous water loss
C. Daily fecal loss is 500 ml.
D. Daily respiratory loss is 500 ml.
| Maintained by endogenous water loss |
012c7f85-e987-43d1-af80-af6c97d74663 | Stainless steel crown is a semi-permanent restoration used in the primary and young permanent teeth.
It was introduced as chrome-steel crown by Humphrey in 1950, which proved to be a favour to clinical pediatric dental practice.
Now, it is commonly called stainless steel crown.
Stainless steel crown is an efficient and reliable method of restoration of deciduous dentition. It is also the most advantageous system of restoration because of its retention and resistance.
Shobha Tandon 2nd Ed P:315 | Dental | null | The ideal restoration following pulpotomy in a primary tooth is:
A. Amalgam
B. Glass ionomer
C. Composite
D. Stainless steel crown
| Stainless steel crown |
116004d7-1f7e-499a-899a-3c719648dc6b | Image shows chocolate agar an enrichment mediumSimple medium: nutrient agar and Mueller-Hinton agarEnriched medium: Blood agar, chocolate agar, egg, and serum-based medium Enrichment medium: Selenite F and alkaline peptone waterDifferential medium: MacConkey agar and blood agarSelective medium: Lowenstein-Jensen medium, Thayer-Main medium, Wilson and Blair medium Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p28-33 | Microbiology | general microbiology | The bacterial growth medium shown below belongs to
A. Enriched medium
B. Enrichment medium
C. Selective medium
D. Indicator medium
| Enrichment medium |
0492097e-4cc6-4533-a486-e76768fa8419 | In isometric contractions, muscle tension is generated but the length of the muscle does not change. Concentric contractions are a type of isotonic contraction in which the muscle shoens during the contraction. Eccentric contractions are also a type of isotonic contraction in which the muscle lengthens during the contraction. In isokinetic contractions, muscle tension is generated as the muscle contracts at a constant velocity over a full range of motion. Ref: Medical Physiology: Principles for Clinical Medicine Page 249. | Surgery | null | Many different types of muscle contractions exist. In which type of contraction is muscle tension is generated, but the length of the muscle does not change?
A. Concentric
B. Eccentric
C. Isokinetic
D. Isometric
| Isometric |
dcc1e57e-8079-43f4-8236-f2961755ae33 | Refer katzung 12e p161 KDT 6/e p 145 Miotics like pilocarpine act by increasing the trabecular outflow Drugs for glaucoma -mechanism of action Brimonidine- reducing access production increasing uveoscleral outflow lantonoprost- increase the uveoscleral outflow pilocarpine - increases trabecular outflow Betaxolo- reduces aqueous secretion by ciliary body | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the trabecular meshwork and effect the aqueous outflow
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Brimonidine
D. Brinzolamide
| Pilocarpine |
418cb3a7-a0f8-41b4-923c-b63a7f223aeb | (Colo.rectal carcioma) (1310-CSDT 12th) (1160-B &L 25th)* Although diverticulitis, cancer and / angiodysplasia are the most common cause of lower GI bleeding in adults (1310-CSDT 12th)* Diverticular diseases (Very common in western countries, though it is quite rare in this country (1104. S.Das 5th)Diverticulitis (1161-B&L)Symptoms and signs of colorectal cancer (1178-B & L)Complications1. Recurrent periodic abscess2. Perforation leading to general peritonitis3. Intestinal obstruction4. Haemorrhage - profuse colonic haemorrhage5. Fistula formation Diverticulitis is not a precancerous conditions but cancer may coexist* Right sided tumour - Iron deficiency anemia, abdominal mass* Left sided tumours - rectal bleeding alteration in bowel habit, tenesmus obstruction* Metastatic disease - Jaundice, ascitis, hepatomegaly, other symptoms and sign from rarer sites of metastasis.* In Infants - anal fissures continue to be the most common cause of rectal bleeding.* Juvenile polyps - are the single most common cause of lower GI bleeding in children (20-30%) | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | Most common cause of lower gastro intestinal bleeding is;
A. Diverticulitis
B. Colorectal carcinoma
C. Angiodysplasia
D. Anal fissure
| Colorectal carcinoma |
d065d48b-fffe-4e26-b6a7-b7f984a3cb4f | Mini-laparotomy Vs Laparoscopic sterilization FeaturesMinilaparotomyLaparoscopic sterilizationAdvantages Safe, effective and convenient methodDone as the outpatient procedureDone with minimal trainingDone in peripheral setting (PHCs and Camps)Used for mass sterilization for population controlDoes not need special training.Does not need special equipmentCan be performed during puerperium, after aboionCan be done for interval sterilizationEffective method of contraception (as effective as minilap).Very low complication rate.Can be done as the outpatient procedure.Can be done in peripheral setting (PHCs and Camps).Very small scar.Postoperative pain and discomfo minimal.Daycare procedure (Patient can be discharged on the same day).Shoer convalescence.Highly reversible (when done with clips).Disadvantages High chances of wound and pelvic infectionsLonger duration and severity of postoperative painLonger convalescenceLonger incisional scarComplication rate is low, but if occurs, can be life-threatening.Costly equipment.Requires specially trained expes.(Refer: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynaecology, 15th edition, pg no: 240) | Pathology | All India exam | Advantage of lap sterilization over mini-laparotomy sterilization is
A. Less failure rate
B. Less blood loss
C. Less post operative stay
D. Easy procedure
| Less post operative stay |
6ac72bac-25ee-4fcc-a10a-af5d5b610be8 | Classification Based on Electrophoretic Mobility (Frederickson and colleagues, 1967): The most widely used and simplest classification for lipoproteins is based on the separation of major four classes by electrophoresis. The most frequently employed electrophoretic media are "paper" and 'agarose'. Plasma lipoproteins separated by this technique are classified in relation to the comparable migration of serum proteins.On electrophoresis, the different fractions according to mobility appear at:The origin is chylomicrons,Migrating into b-globulin region is called b-lipoproteins (LDL)Migrating into Pre-b-globulin region, called as pre-b-lipoproteins (VLDL)Migrating to "a1-globulin region called a-lipoproteins (HDL)Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry 8th Edition Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, Rana Shinde, page no; 444, 445 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Lipid with highest mobility is
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. Chylomicrons
| HDL |
1980e5e1-cee4-4dbd-a201-e65d8cb3bcaa | (Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24thedition, pg no: 63) | Anatomy | All India exam | In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 population, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case fatality rate is
A. 1%
B. 0.25%
C. 5%
D. 25%
| 25% |
1ae0f9d7-5ebe-4e19-830b-6be193d139a5 | The freezing point of normal human plasma averages _0.54degC which corresponds to osmolar concentration in plasma of 290 mOsm/L The term tonicity is used to describe the osmolality of a solution relative to plasma A 0.9% saline solution and 4% glucose solution is isotonic when initially infused intravenously osmolarity= 2(Na+)(mEq/L)+0.055(glucose)(mg/dL)+0.36(BUN)(mg/dL) Red Robbins 9/e p420 and ananthanaraya | Anatomy | Haematology | Freezing point of normal human plasma is
A. 4degC
B. 0degC
C. _0.54degC
D. _1.54degC
| _0.54degC |
7108df07-31be-41a9-ad88-30872370dc9a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Middle meningeal artery * Middle meningeal artery passes through foramen spinosumSkull foraminaFORAMENSTRUCTURES PASSING THROUGH ITForamen ovaleMandibular nerveAccessory meningeal arteryLesser petrosal nerveEmissary vein(MALE)Foramen spinosumMiddle meningeal arteryEmissary veinNervus spinosus(MEN)Foramen lacerumMeningeal branch of ascending pharyngeal arteryGreater petrosal nerve unites with deep petrosal nerve to form the nerve of the pterygoid canalCarotid canalInternal carotid artery and the sympathetic plexus around itForamen rotundumMaxillary nervePterygoid canalVidian nerve (nerve of pterygoid canal)Vidian arteryStylomastoid foramenFacial nerveJugular foramenInternal jugular veinEmissary veinOccipital arteryInferior petrosal sinus9th, 10th, 11th nervesHypoglossal canal12th nerveMeningeal branch of ascending pharyngeal arteryGreater palatine foramenGreater palatine vesselsAnterior palatine nervesIncisive foramenGreater palatine vessels nasopalatine nervesLesser palatine foramenMiddle and posterior palatine nerves.Internal accoustic meatusFacial N.Auditory N.Nervus intermedius (wrisberg)Labyrynthine vessels | Anatomy | Head & Neck | Which structure doesn't pass through foramen ovale?
A. Middle meningeal artery
B. Lesser petrosal nerve
C. Mandibular nerve
D. Accessory meningeal artery
| Middle meningeal artery |
91b97153-0faa-40fa-86c0-2c4ff10c6210 | Ans: B (Thiamine) Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry. Kaplan & Sadock, 10th editionExplanation:See 2010 Psychiatry question explanation. | Psychiatry | Alcohol-Related Disorders | Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the following (Repeat):
A. Pyridoxine
B. Thiamine
C. Vitamin B12
D. Riboflavin
| Thiamine |
ba383e15-8abf-42a1-8896-75e273e63250 | Answer is A (Pulmonary tuberculosis): All features mentioned in this question are in our of pulmonary tuberculosis and the only feature that troubles is a 'negative sputum cytology'. A negative sputum cytology however does not rule out pulmonary tuberculosis. 'A negative sputum cytology does not rule out pulmonary tuberculosis'- CMDT `There is a definite set for patients of 'suspected TB with negative sputum smears'. These patients are usually investigated by bronchoscopy as the next diagnostic step. Bronchial washings and transbronchial lung biopsies are specially helpful and increase the diagnostic yield'. - CMDT Definitive diagnosis of TB : Does not depend on sputum cytology but, it depends on recovery of Mycobacterium TB in cultures or identification of organism by DNA probe. Remember: "demonstration of acid fast bacilli on sputum smears does not confirm a diagnosis of TB". Since saphrophytic and non tuberculous mycobacteria make colonize the airways or cause pulmonary disease. It is sputum culture with demonstration of M. TB that is diagnostic. | Medicine | null | A man presents with fever, wt loss and cough; Mantoux reads an induration of 17 x 19 mm: Sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pulm tuberculosis
B. Fungal infection
C. Viral infection
D. Pneumonia
| Pulm tuberculosis |
5a8585f6-b497-4ade-9af3-ef7abf5be706 | Since we know that Enzyme is more impoant than substrate, so enzyme concentration we have to see first if that is reduced then it doesn't matter whether we increase substrate concentration or not time will increase only. So, since enzyme is decreased to 1/3 time will increase by 3 times irrespective of increase in substrate concentration By using Michaelis-Menten equation, that is, V0 = Vmax x / Km + and by definition Vmax = Kcat x Where is enzyme concentration, Kcat is turnover number So, Similarly, As velocity is 3 times slower than first velocity so same amount of product formation will require 3x more time. Hence, Time taken will be = 3 x t = 3 x 9 = 27 minutes | Biochemistry | Enzyme kinetics | An enzyme-catalyzed reaction was carried out with the initial substrate concentration 1,000 times greater than the Km for that substrate. After 9 minutes, 1% of the substrate had been conveed to the product, and the amount of product was 12 mmol. If, in a separate experiment, one-third as much enzyme and twice as much of the substrate is combined, how long it would to take for the same amount (12 mmol) of product to be formed?
A. 13.5 mins
B. 27 mins
C. 8 mins
D. 9 mins
| 27 mins |
a2d49d79-064a-45a1-9cea-2854efa52ebe | Ans: A (Microcytic anemia) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition & Harrison, 18th ed.Explanation:The anemia in H.pylori infection is due to chronic blood loss due to Gastritis or Gastric ulcer.Chronic blood loss typically causes Iron deficiency anemia, which presents with microcytic & hypochromic anemia | Unknown | null | Type of anemia seen in H.pylori infection :
A. Microcytic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Normocytic anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
| Microcytic anemia |
4b8ef663-15aa-4c74-bbfb-b873ec311996 | Scalded skin syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It is an exfoliative disease in which the outer layer of epidermis gets separated from the underlying tissues. The severe form of SSSS is known as Ritter's disease in newborn and toxic epidermal necrolysis in older patients. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition; pg:204 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | The most frequent cause of scalded skin syndrome is
A. Staphylococci
B. Pneumococci
C. Enterococci
D. Meningococci
| Staphylococci |
b726adbb-26e1-4b8c-b277-6bce5e642ff9 | Infrared rays affect primarily the retina, because of the transparency of the ocular media.When directly viewing a point source or laser beam, the focusing propeies in the IRA region additionally render the retina much more susceptible to damage than any other pa of the body.For sho exposure periods, heating of the iris from the absorption of visible or near infrared is considered to play a role in the development of opacities in the lens. | Microbiology | All India exam | Infrared rays causes
A. Cataract
B. Keratitis
C. Optic neuritis
D. Glaucoma
| Cataract |
79a164e2-8756-4c2d-a275-36e2b33bd4fd | Normally, childhood voice has a higher pitch. When the larynx matures at pubey, vocal cords lengthen and the voice changes to one of lower pitch. This is a feature exclusive to males. Failure of this change leads to persistence of childhood high-pitched voice and is called puberophonia. Type III Thyroplasty- It is used to shoen (relax) the vocal cord. Relaxation of vocal cord lowers the pitch. This procedure is done in mutational falsetto or in those who have undergone gender transformation from female to male. Ref: PL Dhingra Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Edition 6, page - 302 | ENT | Larynx | Treatment of Puberphonia is
A. Thyroplasty type I
B. Thyroplasty type II
C. Thyroplasty type III
D. Thyroplasty type IV
| Thyroplasty type III |
60ebcf4c-d014-4d87-b598-b1e11d7aff9c | Mirror box therapy is used to decrease phantom limb pain in which patient feel like having a limb even after it is amputated. | Psychiatry | null | Mirror box therapy is used in the treatment of :
A. Hypochondriasis
B. Claustrophobia
C. ADHD
D. Phantom limb
| Phantom limb |
ef1a0d6f-03d0-43da-b39a-b9526056abc9 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Avoid observer and subject bias Double blinding ensures that both the observer and subject are unaware of the group allocation and treatment. It there by eliminates both subject bias and the observer bias. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to?
A. Achieve comparability between study and control groups
B. Avoid observer bias
C. Avoid subject bias
D. Avoid observer and subject bias
| Avoid observer and subject bias |
f6cf02ea-7e9d-4843-8518-f5c6ec25cd79 | Processing films at either higher or lower temperatures and for longer or shorter times than recommended by the manufacturer reduces the contrast of the processed film. | Radiology | null | A 25 year old male patient complains of pain in the lower back tooth region. History of similar complaint 6 months ago.
Intra-oral examination reveals pericoronitis with 36. An IOPA is taken with the same tooth. During film processing, the thermometer in the manual processing tank reads 68◦F. The approximate time to keep the x-ray film in the developer solution is?
A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 minutes
| 5 minutes |
f9850195-f54a-48ea-93fc-b509ca5c298a | FTA-ABS: FTA-absorption test in which the test serum is preabsorbed with sonicate of the Reiter treponemes to eliminate group-specific reactions. FTA-ABS is as specific as the TPI test and is now accepted as a standard reference test. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg:382 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Best confirmatory test for syphilis is
A. RPR
B. Gram stain
C. VDRL
D. FTA-ABS
| FTA-ABS |
90ae5e0b-b093-4cfd-bbc4-7610a8c4d048 | (C) Coma # rtPA (Alteplase) is indicated in pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, and stroke.> rtPA therapy in patients with stroke is contraindicated in certain situations like suspicion of subarachnoid hemorrhage on pretreatment evaluation, recent (within 3 months) intracranial or intraspinal surgery, history of intracranial hemorrhage, uncontrolled hypertension at time of treatment, active internal bleeding, known bleeding diathesis (eg, current use of oral anticoagulants, administration of heparin within 48 hours of onset of stroke), platelet count <100,000/mm3. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | rtPA is NOT a contraindication in stroke with
A. BP >185/110 mm Hg
B. Heparin in the past 24 hrs
C. Coma
D. Lesion occupying >1/3 of middle cerebral artery territory
| Coma |
8338beeb-1fa2-4567-92db-b159682bc8d2 | Ans. B: 2-18 fluoro-2-deoxy D-glucose (18 FDG) The majority of clinical PET imaging is now performed with the glucose analogue 2-18 fluoro-2-deoxy D-glucose (18 FDG) which has a half life of 110 min. PET scan: Differentiates radiation necrosis from active neoplasm following therapy Recent role is in investigation of recurrent GIST tumours | Radiology | null | Positron emission tomography imaging is commonly performed using: September 2011
A. Barium sulphate
B. 2-18 fluoro-2-deoxy D-glucose (18 FDG)
C. Myodil
D. Oxygen 15
| 2-18 fluoro-2-deoxy D-glucose (18 FDG) |
25d06211-5d61-439a-8e56-803cc496fcfe | Abnormalities of ventilation-perfusion ratio result from the shunting of blood to a hypo ventilated lung or from the ventilation of hypo perfused regions of lung tissue. When this imbalance is extreme, as following massive pulmonary thromboembolism, the effect is life-threatening hypoxemia. Other common predisposing factors in the postoperative patient that contribute to this maldistribution include the assumption of a supine position, thoracic and upper abdominal incisions, obesity, atelectasis, and reduced cardiac output. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | An abnormal ventilation-perfusion ratio (Qs/Qr) in the postoperative patient has been associated with
A. Pulmonary thromboembolism
B. Lower abdominal surgery
C. Starvation
D. The upright position
| Pulmonary thromboembolism |
438d39c8-be3c-416a-bc90-0488d701aa67 | Ans is'c' i.e.,2/3 of blood sugarCSF / plasma glucose ratio is 0.64. | Physiology | null | CSF sugar is -
A. Half of blood sugar
B. 1/3 of blood sugar
C. 2/3 of blood sugar
D. Same as blood sugar
| 2/3 of blood sugar |
f3b04b09-f7c1-442b-84d9-a445f5771b8e | <p> Typhoid fever:- Typical continuous fever for 3-4 weeks,relative bradycardia with involvement of lymphoid tissue. Without effective treatment, typhoid kills over 10% of those infected. Causative agent- Salmonella typhi. S.paraA and S.paraB are infrequent. Reservoir- man Case - a case is infectious as long as bacilli appear in stools /urine. Carriers:- 1. Convalescent carriers-excrete bacilli for 6-8 weeks,after which their number dimnishes rapidly. 2. Chronic carriers- persons who excrete bacilli for more than a year after a clinical attack. In most chronic carriers,the organism persists in gall bladder and in biliary tract. Source of infection- faeces and urine of cases/carriers. Age group involved mostly is 5-19 yrs old. Males affected more than females. Incubation period- 10-14 days. Mode of transmission: faecal oral route/ urine oral routes. Treatment of carriers:- Intensive course of ampicillin/ amoxycillin (4-6g/day) together with probenecid for 6 weeks. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.235}</p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Incubation period of typhoid-
A. 3-20 days
B. 14-45 days
C. 5-10 d ays
D. 15-60 days
| 3-20 days |
9de10979-fe0e-4057-8778-3161b31025a6 | Muscles attached to greater tuberosity are.
Supraspinatus: - Helps in the initial range of abduction.
Infraspinatous, Teres minor : - External (lateral) rotation.
Therefore, these movements are affected in fracture greater tuberosity.
Muscle attached to lesser tuberosity is subscapularis (an internal or medial rotator of shoulder joint). So, movement affected in lesser tuberosity fracture is an internal rotation. | Orthopaedics | null | Which of the following movements will be affected if the greater tubercle of the humerus is lost -
A. Abduction and lateral rotation
B. Adduction and flexion
C. Adduction and medial rotation
D. Flexion and medial rotation
| Abduction and lateral rotation |
05f0b9e2-7ab6-406b-a510-111677c9d202 | SANITATION MEASURES FOR SWIMMING POOL SANITATION: Recommended area: Recommended area is = 2.2 sq.meter (24 sq.ft) per swimmer Surveillance: Rules and regulation to be posted in appropriate place Filtration of water: Water to be refiltered in less than 6 hours (rapid sand filters); 15% water to be replaced by fresh water everyday Chlorination of water: Residual level of free chlorine to be >1.0 ppm to protect against bacterial and viral agents pH of water: 7.4-7.8 Bacteriological quality of water: To be as close to standards prescribed for drinking water. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 765 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Which of the following is not a recommended sanitation measure for swimming pool sanitation?
A. Recommended area per swimmer = 2.2 per sq. meter
B. water to be refiltered in less than 6 hours (rapid sand filters)
C. Residual level of free chlorine to be >0.5ppm
D. 15% water to be replaced by fresh water every day
| Residual level of free chlorine to be >0.5ppm |
10809eb6-5dca-4c63-b4a3-769ceea45698 | ABRAHAM MASLOW Gave the hierarchy of needs It is also called as hierarchy of motivation According to Maslow the basic needs should be met to move on to the next stage Once the basic step is attained, we work on to the higher stage The final stage is self-actualization, that is acceptance of your positives, negatives, sho comings, doing things that you are good at and working with satisfaction. Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | who gave the concept of self esteem as the heirachy of motivation
A. maslow
B. lorenz
C. freud
D. seligman
| maslow |
cdb18a51-55eb-463d-aa9f-67626e6fa640 | Extra intestinal manifestations of IBD: The most commonly extraintestinal manifestations of IBD involve the skin, joints, eyes, and liver in up to one-third of patients. Extraintestinal manifestations of IBD:Nonintestinal manifestations are similar for both CD and UC. Dermatologic manifestationsinclude the relatively common erythema nodosum that often correlate with acute flares. The more problematic pyoderma gangrenosum is much more common in UC than CD, and its course is independent of IBD activity. Joint manifestationsinclude peripheral ahritis that correlates with exacerbations of bowel disease, and central ahritis (ankylosing spondylitis or sacroiliitis) that does not correlate with bowel activity. Ocular complicationsinclude conjunctivitis, episcleritis, and uveitis and may occur independent of bowel activity. Hepatobiliary complicationsinclude nonalcoholic fatty liver disease, cholestasis, gallstones (CD>UC, paicularly with ileal disease due to decreased bile acid reabsorption), and primary sclerosing cholangitis (UC>>CD), a fibrotic disorder of intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts that does not correlate with bowel disease activity. Renal complicationsinclude kidney stones that are more common in CD than in UC. Oxalate absorption is increased in bowel inflammation leading to calcium oxalate stones. Uric acid stones also occur with increased frequency in CD. | Medicine | Inflammatory Bowel Disease | Which among the following extra intestinal manifestations of IBD correlate with bowel disease activity?
A. Pyoderma gangrenosum
B. Erythema Nodosum
C. Peripheral ahritis
D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
| Peripheral ahritis |
1502da2a-2207-4963-a9cb-2982dc2ff36b | In obstructive sleep apnea, airway obstruction results in snoring as well as failure to breathe during the night. The resulting anoxia causes frequent awakenings during the night so that the patient feels tired in the morning. Decreased oxygen availability may result in leg edema, hypeension, morning headaches, cardiac arrhythmias, and stroke in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. myocardial infarction by 50% to 75% within 5 years of cessation. The reduced risk for the other therapies are as follows: *Postmenopausal estrogen replacement has a 44% decreased risk * Mild to moderate alcohol consumption has a 25% to 45% decreased risk * Exercise has a 45% decreased risk. *Prophylactic low dose aspirin has a 33% decreased risk, paicularly in the incidenc of the first acute myocardial infarction in middle aged men and women; however, there is no reduction in overall total cardiovascular moality. Patients over 50 years of age with risk factors for coronary aery disease are the group most likely to benefit, it is not good for prophylaxis if the patient has poorly controlled hypeension, because there is a danger for a hemorrhagic stroke. | Surgery | null | A 45 year old male patient complains that he is often tired and has a headache almost every morning His wife says that her sleep is disturbed because of the patient's loud snoring. Physical examination reveals leg edema. Hypeension, and cardiac arrhythmia. From which disorder is this patient most likely suffering?
A. Sleep wake schedule disorder
B. Obstructive sleep apnea
C. Narcolepsy
D. Delayed sleep phase syndrome
| Obstructive sleep apnea |
34ce0e0b-e350-4943-8547-cefb1dbd621a | Sulfonamides were the first antimicrobial agents (AMAs) effective against pyogenic bacterial infections. Sulfonamido-chrysoidine (Prontosil Red) was one of the dyes included by Domagk to treat experimental streptococcal infection in mice and found it to be highly effective. Sulfonarnides are rapidly and nearly completely absorbed from g.i.t. Extent of plasma protein binding differs considerably (10-95%) among different members. The highly protein bound members are longer acting. Sulfonamides are widely distributed in the body | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Ampicillin
D. Sulfonamide
| Sulfonamide |
a71f70ba-5500-4a7d-aad7-edede1dd8832 | Contracture. A mechanical reduction in the size of a wound depends on the presence of myofibroblasts and sustained cell contraction. An exaggeration of these processes is termed contracture and results in severe deformity of the wound and surrounding tissues. Contractures are particularly conspicuous in the healing of serious burns and can be severe enough to compromise the movement of joints.Diagnosis: Contracture | Pathology | Inflammation & Repair | A 30-year-old firefighter suffers extensive third-degree burns over his arms and hands. This patient is at high risk for developing which of the following complications of wound healing?
A. Contracture
B. Dehiscence
C. Incisional hernia
D. Keloid
| Contracture |
9f4edd48-42e7-4209-bf31-c11aa636fe47 | Ans. is 'b' is Contractile protein Thrombosthenin is a contractile protein found within platelets. It helps the platelets to contract during clot formation.Other contractile proteins found within platelets are-Actin andMyosin molecules | Physiology | Blood: Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation | Thrombosthenin is a/an
A. Thrombosis preventing protein
B. Contractile protein
C. Coagulation protein
D. Protein for regulating platelets production
| Contractile protein |
af840ce3-97d2-4f51-87c7-dbf6fc6cae0d | Refractory glaucoma (refractory glaucoma), the drug is difficult to control intraocular pressure, and poor prognosis for conventional surgery glaucoma, the past filtration surgery failed glaucoma, juvenile glaucoma, aphakic eye glaucoma, there are more long-term glaucoma medication history, neovascular glaucoma, secondary glaucoma. Symptoms of Refractory Glaucoma The treatment of refractory glaucoma: multiple surgeries fail the means that may belong to the super healing reaction; teenagers the more hyperophy Tenon and active wound healing response; no lens ocular vitreous can release a trauma fibroblasts stimulating hormone to promote scarring; neovascular glaucoma surgery Road often neovascularization and vascular connective tissue growth, blocking it; yet fully calm inflammation secondary glaucoma, uveitis refractory glaucoma surgery organization strong reaction to the destruction of blood - aqueous barrier, fibronectin and growth factor release, can activate fibroblast proliferation, scarring of the filtration channel. | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Drug used in refractory glaucoma -
A. Systemic glucocoicoid
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Alpha agonist
D. Beta blocker
| Alpha agonist |
e07d2a99-7f36-4c42-a41a-b99a37d6a0fc | CA Bronchus * M/C symptom - Cough > Dyspnea > chest pain > hemoptysis * MC aery responsible for hemoptysis in CA bronchus- bronchial aeries | Surgery | Oncology | Most common symptom of carcinoma bronchus is:
A. Hemoptysis
B. Dyspnoea
C. Cough
D. Wheezing
| Cough |
0396f659-ec93-4a81-9a5d-229bf509caf2 | Giant v waves are seen in tricuspid regurgitation and VSD. v wave in a JVP represents atrial filling and occur during ventricular systole. In tricuspid regurgitation there is an accentuated v wave followed by a rapid y descend. In progressive TR, v wave merges with the c wave and the right atrial and juglar vein waveforms become ventricularised. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition chapter 227. | Physiology | null | Which of the following condition is associated with giant 'v' waves in a JVP?
A. VSD
B. TR
C. Complete hea block
D. AF
| TR |
f34f0009-2417-4efc-83be-211907e46d81 | Cardiac cycle: - 72 beats occur in - 60sec. 1 beat would occur in - 60/72 1 beat - 0.833 sec (~ 833 ms) (0.0139 minute per beat). | Physiology | JIPMER 2018 | When the HR is 72 beats per min, what would be the duration of cardiac cycle?
A. 445 ms
B. 1450 ms
C. 700 ms
D. 833 ms
| 833 ms |
27866074-f99e-41c6-b899-9fa64bb840e7 | Ans. (b) Cysteine* -SH group of 2 cysteine in proteins can be oxidized to form a covalent disulfide bond.* It significantly stabilizes tertiary structures of protein* This bond plays crucial role in structures of many proteins by forming covalent links.* Amino acid that decreases ageing process: Cysteine and Taurine* Amino acid that accelerate ageing: Homocysteine | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Disulfide bonds are formed in which amino acid:
A. Glycine
B. Cysteine
C. Proline
D. Isoleucine
| Cysteine |
eea5e445-4129-4f3b-b0e0-6c7010b87762 | Ans. (b) Zenker's diverticulumRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Pages 1020 -1022* Most common complication of Zenker's Diverticulum - Lung abscess due to aspiration* Most common symptom: Dysphagia (Not Halitosis) | Surgery | Oesophagus | An elderly male present with history of dysphagia, regurgitation, foul breath and cough. Bilateral lung crepitations are noted on examination. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Schatzki's ring
B. Zenker's diverticulum
C. Corkscrew esophagus
D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
| Zenker's diverticulum |
dec5bf39-22c4-45de-9a03-ace17ac8fdc2 | To differentiate color coding is given to the cylinders . Blue - N20 Black - N2 Orange - Cyclopropane Grey - Co2 Black body with white shoulder - O2 Black body with brown shoulder - Heliox ( Helium + 02 ) | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | As per ISO, color of N20 cylinder is
A. Blue
B. Black
C. White
D. Red
| Blue |
d804f14f-bd69-4dd6-ae13-00fb36431e9b | Renal osteodystrophy may produce a 'rugger jersy' (striped) appearance in lateral X-rays of the spine, due to alternating bonds of increased and decreased bone density. Ref: Apley's System of Ohopedics and Fractures, 8th Edition, Page 124; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1225-29. | Surgery | null | "Rugger Jersey Spine" is seen in:
A. Fluorosis
B. Archondoplasia
C. Renal osteodystrophy
D. Marfan s syndrome
| Renal osteodystrophy |
cb578e6d-db67-4224-9d21-1d501b25321b | Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 25 mmHg (Link; Documenis/guidelines-PH-FTpdf)o PH has been defined as an increase in mean pulmonary arterial pressure (PAP) > 25 mmHg at rest as assessed by right heart catheterization (RHC').DefinitionCharacteristicsClinical group(s)Pulmonary- hypertension (PH)o Mean PAP > 25mmHgo AllPre-capillary PHo Mean PAP > 25mmHgo PWP < ISmmHgo CO normal or reducedo Pulmonary arterial hypertensiono PH due to lung diseaseso Chronic thromboembolic PHo PH with under andfar multifactorial mechanismsPost-capillary PHo Mean PAP > ISmmHgo PWP >ISmmHgo CO normal or reducedo PH due to left heart diseaseNote; High CO can be present in cases of hyperkinetic conditions such as systemic to-pulmonarv shunts (only in the pulmonary circulation). Anaemia, Hyperthyroidism, etc.CO = cardiac output; PAP = pulmonary arterial pressure; PH = pulmonary hypertension; PWP = pulmonary wedge pressure. | Medicine | Hypertension | Pulmonary Hypertension is defined as Pulmonary Artery Pressure-
A. > 15mm Hg
B. > 18mm Hg
C. > 20mm Hg
D. > 25mm Hg
| > 25mm Hg |
a1f2a8eb-2505-41ca-a0b3-113016a25fb4 | High voltage current may cause burns over a large area of skin (around entery wound) → Crocodile skin lesion. | Forensic Medicine | null | Crocodile skin apppearance is seen in-
A. High voltage burns
B. Electric shocks
C. Drowning
D. Mummifications
| High voltage burns |
dc88705f-0d82-4db1-82f9-cbb2d708cc08 | The terminal poion of Mesonephric duct gets absorbed into the posterior wall of urogenital sinus and forms the trigone of the urinary bladder. Urinary bladder develops from endodermal vesicourethral canal. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Trigone of urinary bladder develops from
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Vesicourethral canal
C. Mesonephric duct
D. Endoderm
| Mesonephric duct |
555cce77-1627-4030-9930-1b4cea2c4fa6 | Casper dictum is useful for a rough assessment of the rate of decomposition of the dead body. It is 8 times slower under soil, and 2 times slower under water compared to air. Conditions that accelerate decomposition are: Septicemia Rhabdomyolysis Cocaine overdose Edematous area Conditions that retards decomposition are: Dehydration Massive blood loss Cold environment Embalming Ref: Principles of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Rajesh Bardale, page 158. | Forensic Medicine | null | What does Casper Dictum indicate?
A. Identification of dead body
B. Calculation of time since death
C. Detection of child abuse
D. Rate of putrefaction
| Rate of putrefaction |
d8da2252-e697-4c7a-81fb-e13e2a9d62c0 | Thiazide diuretics and beta blockers produce unourable lipid profile.Hence prazosin which is an alpha blocker is prefered as it has no effect on lipid profile. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Drug of choice for hypeension with hyperlipidemia is
A. Prazosin
B. Atenolol
C. Thiazide
D. Propranolol
| Prazosin |
949bdd6b-7cdd-4ca5-89d7-0b0a0225ebe1 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Infection within 30 days after discharge * The term hospital infection, hospital-acquired infection or nosocomial infection are applied to infections developing in hospitalized patients, not present or in incubation at the time of their admission.* Such infections may become evident during their stay in hospital or, sometimes, only after their discharge.* Infections are considered nosocomial if they first appear 48 hours or more after hospital admission or within 30 days after discharge. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Definition of Nosocomial infection includes -
A. Infection within 24 hours of admission
B. Infection within 48 hours of admission
C. Infection 40 days after discharge
D. Infection within 30 days after discharge
| Infection within 30 days after discharge |
67982c11-4a71-4bf7-bbfd-eacbe392524e | Tinea incognito is atypical tinea caused by incorrect treatment of lesions with topical corticosteroids, where the lesions are asymptomatic, extensive and does not have scales. | Dental | null | Tinea Incognito is
A. Itchy skin lesion whose causative organism is not known
B. Tinea infection on back
C. Tinea infection seen after corticosteroid treatment
D. Tinea infection of nailbed.
| Tinea infection seen after corticosteroid treatment |
6dd0c3e4-b223-4be4-b393-4c32fa585228 | This patient is likely to have proliferative diabetic retinopathy in which neovascularization is the hallmark.
Neovessels along with fibrous tissue may lie flat on the retina or attach itself to the posterior vitreous face leading later to vitreous face leading later to vitreous traction, retinal separation and the tearing of blood vessels.
This is the commonest cause of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage in adults. | Ophthalmology | null | A 40 year old male with diabetes presents with vitreous hemorrhage. What is the cause ?
A. Posterior retinal detachment
B. Neovascularization at disc
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. Trauma to central retinal artery
| Neovascularization at disc |
c2a173bb-43e8-4947-8b34-44a0944206ef | Human parasite may complete their life cycle in a single host or more than one host.Some parasites require two or three host to complete their life cycle (refer pgno:6 baveja 3 rd edition) | Microbiology | parasitology | Simple life cycle requires -
A. One host
B. Two host
C. Three host
D. Four host
| One host |
99099a71-0be5-4c70-ba8a-0ba668797532 | Dragcompetes with acetylcholine at the motor end plate causes muscle relaxation Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:65,66,67 | Physiology | Nervous system | How would a drug that competes with Ach for receptors at the motor end plate effect skeletal muscle? It would
A. Produce uncontrolled muscle spasma
B. Cause the muscles to contract and be unable to relax
C. Cause muscles to relax and be unable to contract
D. Make the muscles more excitable
| Cause muscles to relax and be unable to contract |
738002b3-b974-47d1-a9e5-71d85f25b4aa | The disease of leprosy is divided into two basic types: lepromatous and tuberculoid. The lepromatous form is an aggressive disease, whereas the tuberculoid form tends to be self-limiting. Individuals with lepromatous leprosy have an inflammatory skin infiltrate, which consists largely of macrophages that have a characteristic vacuolated or "foamy" appearance (caused by the accumulation of lipids within phagocytes) and intracellular acid-fast bacilli. In the lepromatous form, presence of organisms indicates impaired cellular immunity, unlike the tuberculoid type, which can effectively kill the bacteria. | Unknown | null | Which feature would most likely be found in a patient with lepromatous leprosy?
A. No bacteremia
B. Macrophages with a foamy appearance in the dermis
C. A positive lepromin reaction
D. A high cell-mediated response against Mycobacterium leprae
| Macrophages with a foamy appearance in the dermis |
f42d3e03-700f-450a-bc48-fd4525b5e529 | Base of the pons includes coicospinal (pyramidal), coicobulbar, coicopontine tracts, pontine nuclei, and transverse pontine fibers. so in paramedian infarction of base of pons coicospinal (pyramidal ) tract is affected. | Anatomy | Brainstem lesions and blood supply of CNS | Which of the following structures is involved in the paramedian infarction of the base of the pons?
A. Anterior spinocerebellar tract
B. Descending trigeminal tract
C. Pyramidal tract
D. Rubrospinal tract
| Pyramidal tract |
a5df6ce6-8aea-41f2-98ab-c3ab970c331c | Waxy flexibility is a sign of catatonia. In waxy flexibility, when examiner makes a passive movement on patient, there is a feeling of plastic resistance which resembles bending of a soft wax candle. It is seen in stupors catatonia more commonly. In excitatory catatonia, instead of stupor, patient shows increased levels of goal less activity. | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders | Waxy flexibility is a characteristic sign of:
A. Excitatory catatonia
B. Stuporous catatonia
C. Obsessive compulsive disorder
D. Paranoid schizophrenia
| Stuporous catatonia |
b4c0529d-c166-49fb-b2e6-ad5e9dd30744 | (125 mi/min) (706-GN) (646- Ganong 23rd)* The normal value of GFR is 125 ml/min or 180 L/day* A rate of 125 ml/min is 7.5 L/hour or 180 L/day, whereas the normal urine volume is about 1 L/d. Thus 99% or more of the filtrate is normally reabsorbed.* At the rate of 125 ml/min, the kidneys filter in 1 day an amount of fluid equal to 4 times the total body water, 15 times the ECF volume, and 60 times the plasma volume* The normal filtration fraction varies from 15 to 20% (251-SL)* Blood flow to the two kidney is normally about 22% of the cardiac output or 1100 ml/min (281 -Gyton 10th) | Physiology | Kidneys and Body Fluids | Normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in men is
A. 125ml/min
B. 200 ml/min
C. 7.5 L/min
D. 8 L/hour
| 125ml/min |
9258fc17-8dc5-460e-807b-64ae76b82b1c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Timolol Impoant acts Angle closure glaucoma Treatment of choice for acute congestive glaucoma Laser iridotomy (1" choice), Peripheral iridectency (2" choice) Drug of choice for acute congestive glaucoma Pilocarpine Initially IOP is controlled (first drug used)- Systemic mannitol or acetazolamide Open angle glaucoma Treatment of choice Topical antiglaucoma drugs Drug of choice /3 - blocker (Timolol, betaxolol, levobunalol) Surgery of choice Argon or diode laser trabeculoplasty | Ophthalmology | null | Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma -
A. Acetazolamide
B. Latanoprost
C. Timolol
D. Brimonidine
| Timolol |
3592d60d-232d-4ad1-a9eb-a4b350482dde | ANSWER: (D) TremorsREF: KDT 7th ed p. 217The most common dose related side effect of salbutamol is tremors, Palpitations, restlessness, nervousness and restlessness are also seen. | Pharmacology | Asthma | Most common dose related side effects of salbutamol?
A. Nervousness
B. Palpitations
C. Restlessness
D. Tremors
| Tremors |
389c5b31-da6f-4183-86d0-28ca2b478a19 | C i.e. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation - Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized from arginine (02, NADPH) by NO synthase (requiring FMN, FAD, herne & BH4) in nerves and vascular endothelial cells (hence called EDRF). It relaxes smooth muscles by increasing cyclic GMPQ. - Nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) are hormones that act through c-GMPQ. - NO (along with VIP and PACAP) are inhibitory neurotransmitter in enteric (gastrointestinal) neurons that primarily mediate gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation c-GMP pathwayQ. | Physiology | null | The primary action of Nitric oxide (NO) in the gastrointestinal tract is:
A. Vasodilatation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
D. Gastrointestinal slow smooth muscle contraction
| Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation |
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