id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
ea1c9b06-d30c-4a3e-ae3c-962309fe23cf | *The Photosensitive material used in Xray film is Silver bromide *Double coated emulsions of silver halides,mainly silver bromide is used in conventional radiography. Silver halide is the lightsensitive material in the emulsion. The halide in medical x-ray film is about 90 to 99% silver bromide and about 1 to 10% silver iodide (the presence of Agi produces an emulsion of much higher sensitivity than a pure AgBr emulsion). | Radiology | X-RAYS | Coventional X-ray film is made of?
A. Silver chloride
B. Silver bromide
C. Silver nitrate
D. Gold chloride
| Silver bromide |
5bb09cf7-acd0-4325-9710-9a92769e3333 | Ans. B: Subjective sense of imbalance In veigo, patient gets a feeling of rotation of himself or of his environment. Veigo ("a whirling or spinning movement") It is a type of dizziness, where there is a feeling of motion when one is stationary. The symptoms are due to a dysfunction of the vestibular system in the inner ear. It is often associated with nausea and vomiting as well as difficulties standing or walking. The most common causes are benign paroxysmal positional veigo, concussion and vestibular migraine while less common causes include Meniere's disease and vestibular neuritis. Excessive consumption of ethanol (alcoholic beverages) can also cause notorious symptoms of veigo. A number of conditions that involve the central nervous system may lead to veigo including: migraine headaches, lateral medullary syndrome, multiple sclerosis Veigo is a sensation of spinning while stationary. Repetitive spinning, as in familiar childhood games, can induce sho-lived veigo by disrupting the ineia of the fluid in the vestibular system Veigo is classified into either peripheral or central depending on the location of the dysfunction of the vestibular pathway Peripheral: Veigo caused by problems with the inner ear or vestibular system is called "peripheral", "otologic" or "vestibular". - The most common cause is benign paroxysmal positional veigo (BPPV) but other causes include Meniere's disease, superior canal dehiscence syndrome, labyrinthitis and visual veigo. - Any cause of inflammation such as common cold, influenza, and bacterial infections may cause transient veigo if they involve the inner ear, as may chemical insults (e.g., aminoglycosides) or physical trauma (e.g., skull fractures). - Motion sickness is sometimes classified as a cause of peripheral veigo. Central: If veigo arises from the balance centers of the brain, it is usually milder, and has accompanying neurologic deficits, such as slurred speech, double vision or pathologic nystagmus. - Brain pathology can cause a sensation of disequilibrium which is an off-balance sensation. | ENT | null | Which of '.he following defines veigo: September 2011
A. Ringing of ears
B. Subjective sense of imbalance
C. Sense of pressure in the ear
D. Infection of the inner ear
| Subjective sense of imbalance |
54695a87-4019-470a-822c-e37a738bc9ab | (B) Cerebellar haemorrhage # Cerebellar Hemorrhage:> Result from the same causes as other intracerebral hemorrhages. Long-standing hypertension with degenerative changes in the vessel walls and subsequent rupture is believed to be the most common cause of a typical cerebellar hemorrhage.> Hemorrhage into tumor, blood dyscrasias, amyloid angiopathy, arteriovenous malformations, trauma, and sympathomimetic abuse are less common causes of CH.> Onset of symptoms is generally abrupt.> Presentation varies greatly, depending on the size and location of the hemorrhage. Some patients are alert with headache and perhaps vomiting; others may be unresponsive with impaired or absent brainstem reflexes.> Following symptoms are roughly in descending order of incidence: Headache of abrupt onset Nausea and vomiting Inability to walk (reflecting truncal ataxia) Dizziness, vertigo Dysarthria Nuchal pain Loss or alteration of consciousness Pontine haemorrhage> Acute haemorrhage within the pons causing a characteristic clinical picture.> Patient complains of a severe headache and rapidly becomes unconscious, and then develops periodic respiration, pinpoint pupils, loss of "doll's head" ocular movements and tetraplegia. There is no flaccidity and the patient may rapidly go into decerebrate posturing.> Hypertension is the main cause of pontine haematoma. CT is the first examination of choice and shows the hyperintense haematoma usually occupying a large part of the pons, sometimes with intraventricular rupture within the first ventricle. There is usually no need for MR or angiography, unless a vascular malformation is suspected | Medicine | Miscellaneous | A 60-year-old man with previous episodes of ataxia, diplopia, and dizziness, now presents with sudden headache and altered sensorium. The diagnosis is
A. Pontine haemorrhage
B. Cerebellar haemorrhage
C. Subdural haemorrhage
D. Alcoholism
| Cerebellar haemorrhage |
dae26b38-65c3-4fc8-bad2-7f24aa61a47f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Extreme pruritus "Itching is severe and primary in atopic eczema, provoking a severe urge to scratch; atopic eczema is one of the most itchy disorders. It is an itch that rashes not just a rash that itches". -Venkatram | Unknown | null | A most characteristic feature of atopic dermatitis is -
A. Extreme pruritus
B. Denny Morgan folds
C. Lichenification
D. Rash
| Extreme pruritus |
8503721d-7a23-42b0-8d19-ac3f992d0bcf | TPP is the coenzyme for oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutaric acid.eg: pyruvate to acetyl CoAPolyneuritis: It is common in chronic alcoholics. Alcohol utilization needs large doses of thiamine. Alcohol inhibits intestinal absorption of thiamine, leading to thiamine deficiency. Polyneuritis may also be associated with pregnancy and old age. Such thiamine deficiency in alcoholism may cause impairment of conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA. This results in increased plasma concentration of pyruvate and lactate, leading to lactic acidosis.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 392 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Enzyme-deficient in lactic acidosis caused by thiamine deficiency is?
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Succinate thiokinase
C. Cis aconitase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
| Pyruvate dehydrogenase |
f5a7b7db-d6b8-486a-bf64-cefb66b662a0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e Diamox (Acetazolamide) As already explained in Nov 99, Acetazolamide is used even earlier than Pilocarpine. | Ophthalmology | Primary Angle-Closure Glaucoma | Earliest drug used in acute angle closure glaucoma
A. Diamox
B. Pilocarpine
C. Atropine
D. DFP
| Diamox |
0d4f0854-2c70-46ef-8373-293247284ffe | Flow cytometry:These include B- and T-cell lymphomas and leukemias, as well as myeloid neoplasms. An advantage of flow cytometry over immunohistochemistry is that multiple antigens (CD molecule) can be assessed. Also PNH is diagnosed by flow cytometry, which provides a sensitive means for detecting red cells that are deficient in GPI-linked proteins such as CD59. | Pathology | JIPMER 2017 | Flow cytometry is used to
A. Antibody response T lymphocytes
B. Separate blood cells from whole blood
C. Distinguish between leukocytes
D. To get differential leukocyte count
| Distinguish between leukocytes |
2e07c6c8-e0ca-481a-a8af-04ff732c7d55 | • Centrally located slow-growing endobronchial lesions that are generally carcinoid tumors (80%), adenocystic tumors (so called cylindromas, 10–15%), or mucoepidermoid tumors (2–3%).
• Mean age at presentation is 45 years (range 15–60).
Clinical Features
• MC symptom: Recurrent Hemoptysis
• History of chronic cough, intermittent hemoptysis, or repeated episodes of airway obstruction with atelectasis, or pneumonias with abscess formation due to endobronchial lesions obstructing the airway.
Diagnosis
• Usually visible at bronchoscopy but are highly vascular and may bleed profusely after a bronchoscopic biopsy.
Treatment
• They are largely curable by surgical resection (local excision), but they may recur locally or become invasive and metastasize.
• Five-year survival after resection is 95% for localized disease. | Surgery | null | Most common symptom of bronchial adenoma is -
A. Chest pain
B. Cough
C. Recurrent hemoptsis
D. Weight loss
| Recurrent hemoptsis |
559cd463-e311-46d3-86e9-0a0b9cf12202 | The minimum score that can be alloted to a person with head injury is 3 while the maximum is 15. | Surgery | null | A patient with an accident is presented in a casualty, what will be the least Glasgow Coma Index to measure his responsiveness:
A. 7
B. 11
C. 3
D. 15
| 3 |
826f7e32-cb46-4694-84a4-587c88133b93 | Telomerases are RNA dependent DNA polymerase. Telomerase enzyme is present in germ cells and stem cells. And because of the presence of telomerase these cells have infinite number of divisions as compared to somatic cells. Telomerase prevent Telomere shoening. Telomerase activity increases in cancer. Telomerase activity decreases ageing. | Biochemistry | Replication | Telomerases are:
A. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
B. RNA dependent DNA polymerase
C. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
D. RNA dependent RNA polymerase
| RNA dependent DNA polymerase |
7399d664-d6e8-4471-ba4d-0ff509d3ad90 | Proteins are stronger immunogens followed by carbohydrates, Lipids, Nucleic acids. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is weakest antigen
A. Nucleic acids
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Lipids
| Nucleic acids |
e3493666-aada-4823-9f54-224666dba2da | Ans. a (Prepatellar bursa). (Ref. Maheshwari, Orthopaedics, 2nd ed., 255)The 5 main bursae around the knee joint are - Prepatellar, Infrapatellar, Suprapatellar and Anserine bursa. Housemaid's knee is prepatellar bursitis (Irritation bursitis, or Infective bursitis). Named bursal diseaseMeans1Housemaid's kneePrepatellar superficial bursitis2Clergyman kneeInfrapatellar superficial bursitis3Student's elbowOlecranon bursitis4Weaver's bottomIschial bursitis5BunionBursitis at the first Metatarsophalangeal joint of foot causing swelling atmmedial aspect to the great toe base and lateral displacement of the toe.Bursae:# Sandwiched between tissues that slide past each other, bursae decrease the frictional forces present.# They are endothelialined cushions and normally contain little fluid.# If they are overloaded they can become inflamed, swollen and very painful.# Common sites for bursitis to develop are:- Olecranon;- Psoas tendon;- Greater trochanter; - Iliotibial band;- Prepatellar;- Infrapatellar;- Retro calcaneal.# Avoidance of the aggravating mechanical factors and a short course or anti-inflammatories is usually sufficient.# Intractable cases require aspiration and steroid injections and, more rarely, excision of the indurated bursal wall. | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around the Thigh & Knee | Housemaid's knee affects which of the following?(MH 2014)
A. Prepatellar bursa
B. Infrapatellar bursa
C. Suprapatellar bursa
D. Anserine bursa
| Prepatellar bursa |
ed4f36de-f672-4424-ba44-713a920f6877 | LN metastasis is most common in : CA tongue >Floor of mouth > Lower alvealus >Buccal mucosa > Upper Alveolus > Hard palate > lip Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 764-765, | Surgery | Head and neck | In which the following head and neck cancers, is lymph node metastasis least common
A. Tongue
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Hard palate
D. Lower alveolus
| Hard palate |
b5745b4d-8a49-4c1a-ad54-74d123ec5e20 | Ans. 'a' i.e., AS o The patients with Aortic stenosis are asymptomatic for a prolonged periods despite the obstruction and increased pressure load on the left ventricle.o The classic symptoms of Aortic stenosis areHeart failure, syncope andAnginaHowever, the classic symptoms reflect end stage diseaseo In general symptoms in patients with Aortic stenosis and normal left ventricualr systolic function rarely occur until the valve area is < 1.0 cm1, the jet velocity is over 4.0 m/s and the mean transvalvular gradient exceeds 40 mmHg.o In patients with known Aortic stenosis who are followed prospectively, the most common symptoms are decreased exercise tolerance and dyspnoea on exertion.o Once symptoms develop, even when mild, prompt surgical intervention is needed because average survivalwithout valve replacement is only two to three years with a high risk of sudden death.Sudden cardiac death in Aortic stenosiso Symptomatic severe Aortic stenosis is associated with a high risk of sudden cardiac death. Sudden cardiac death has been obser\>ed in 0-5% of adults with asymptomatic aortic stenosis and in 8-34% with symptomatic aortic stenosis.o The mechanism of sudden death has not been established.o Potential causes include an abnormal BezoldJariseh reflex with hypotension or bradyarryhthmia or malignant ventricular tachyarryhthmia.o However a relationship between NS IT and sudden death has not been established.o The risk of sudden death is reduced by valve replacement, so prompt valve replacement, is generally recommended for symptomatic Aortic stenosis. | Medicine | Valvular Heart Disease | Sudden death can be seen in-
A. AS
B. MS
C. MR
D. MR
| AS |
a5d85d4b-881d-4b6a-8b78-bc2a3164a874 | PROPHYLACTIC CRANIOSPINAL IRRADIATION Prophylactic craniospinal irradiation is useful in CNS malignancy which disseminate CSF or any malignancy with high risk of CNS spreadQ. Common Indications Less Common Indications MedulloblastomaQ GlioblastomaQ GerminomaQ Small cell Carcinoma of LungQ ALLQ Non-Hodgkin's LymphomaQ Leptomeningeal RhabdomyosarcomaQ | Surgery | CNS Tumors | Prophylactic craniospinal irradiation is recommended in:
A. Astrocytoma
B. Posterior fossa ependymoma
C. Meningioma
D. Medulloblastoma
| Medulloblastoma |
b313d175-c040-4e42-bd84-830d31e73bb2 | Potassium ferrocyanide is non-poisonous salt of cyanide. | Forensic Medicine | null | The non poisoning salt of cyanide is
A. Potassium cyanide
B. Hydrocyanic acid
C. Sodium cyanide
D. Potassium ferrocyanide
| Potassium ferrocyanide |
3dad0674-9e0e-46b9-a025-4eee71081b69 | Lipoproteins classes as per apoprotein contents Families: LP A Apolipoproteins: A-I and A-II Density class: HDL Mol. wt. range: 17000 to 28000 Function: LCAT activator, 'Scavenger'Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, Eighth Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, page no:445, Table 25.11 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | LCAT activates
A. Apo A1
B. Apo B100
C. Apo C-2
D. Apo C-3
| Apo A1 |
12353aa4-e763-49d0-9862-bbd3782714a7 | Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of gastroduodenal artery arising from the common hepatic artery. The common hepatic artery is a branch of the coeliac trunk. | Anatomy | null | Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of-
A. Hepatic artery
B. Splenic artery
C. Gastroduodenal artery
D. Inferior mesenteric artery
| Gastroduodenal artery |
ea4b7e3a-debe-4da6-842e-e7f5a49ff7db | An appendix of the epididymis is a developmental remnant of the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) which can be found in the head of the epididymis. In the female, in the absence of testosterone, the Wolffian duct regresses. However, inclusions may persist resulting in the epoophoron and Skene's glands. Where a remnant exists lateral to the wall of the vagina a Ganer's duct or Ganer's cyst may form. In males, the Wolffian duct develops into the rete testis, the efferent ducts, the epididymis, the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicles. The prostate is formed separately from the urogenital sinus. In both the male and the female the Wolffian duct develops into the trigone of the urinary bladder. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is derived from the Wolffian duct?
A. Appendix of testis
B. Uterus
C. Appendix of epididymis
D. Prostate
| Appendix of epididymis |
0ea0b145-2a87-4c83-89a6-af8d031828ff | Ans. (b) PtyalinRef: Guyton's physiology 11th ed./ 793* Saliva contains two major types of protein secretion:# Serous secretion- contains ptyalin, an enzyme for digesting starches.# Mucus secretionGlandSecretionContentFunctionParotid glandSerous typePtyalinDigest starchesSubmandibular glandSerous and mucous typeMucinLubricating and for surface pro- tective purposesBuccal glandOnly mucusMucinLubricating* Saliva has a pH between 6.0 and 7.0, a favorable range for the digestive action of ptyalin.* The activity of the salivary amylase is blocked by acid of the gastric secretions due to low pH.* But before food and its accompanying saliva become completely mixed with the gastric secretions, as much as 30 to 40% of the starches will have been hydrolyzed mainly to form maltose.* In small intestine the remaining starch Digestion takes place by Pancreatic Amylase. Pancreatic secretion is almost identical in its function with the a-amylase of saliva but is several times more powerful.* Hence, within 15 to 30 minutes after the chyme empties from the stomach into the duodenum and mixes with pancreatic juice, nearly all the carbohydrates will have become digested. | Physiology | Digestion and Absorption | Starch is hydrolyzed in the mouth by:
A. Mucin
B. Ptyalin
C. Pancreatic amylase
D. Lipase
| Ptyalin |
c1a5af9f-2410-40b6-8826-46a452ae75cc | Ans- B Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics 18th edition: page no 1865 Explanation: In a CXR PA view the Left border of Heart is formed by: "A.M.L" Aortic arch Main pulmonary artery Left pulmonary artery, Left atrial appendage, Left ventricle Right border of Heart is formed by: "S.I.R" SVC IVC Right Atrium Abnormal cardiac silhouettes "Boot-shaped" heart seen in cyanotic tetralogy of Fallot "Egg-shaped" heart seen in transposition of the great arteries. "Snowman" sign or Figure of '8' appearance seen in total anomalous pulmonary venous return (supracardiac TAPVC) | Radiology | Plain Film Radiography, Fluoroscopy, and Tomosynthesis | Which does not form the border of heart in PA view of a chest X-ray?
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Aortic arch
D. Left Ventricle
| Right ventricle |
421dc40b-1ef8-48a8-8ca6-0585bf2233fa | Postmoem staining occurs sholy after death and persists until putrefaction sets in which is also known as primary lividity. Dr.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 27th edition pg. 76. | Forensic Medicine | Death and postmortem changes | If a body is left undisturbed, for how long does post moem staining persists -
A. Few hours
B. Few days
C. Few months
D. Persists till merges with discolouration of putrefaction
| Persists till merges with discolouration of putrefaction |
c5aae702-027c-449e-bdec-07e3ebf296a1 | CITRIC ACID CYCLE Synonyms: TCA cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle), Krebs' cycle, Krebs' citric acid cycle. Points to Remember * It is a cyclic process. * The cycle involves a sequence of compounds interrelated by oxidation-reduction and other reactions which finally produces CO2 and H2O. * It is the final common pathway of break down/catabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. (Phase III of metabolism). * Acetyl-CoA derived mainly from the oxidation of either glucose or b-oxidation of FA and paly from ceain amino acids combines with oxaloacetic acid (OAA) to form citrate the first reaction of citric acid cycle. In this reaction acetyl-CoA transfers its 'acetyl-group' (2-C) to OAA. * By stepwise dehydrogenations and loss of two molecules of CO2, accompanied by internal re-arrangements, the citric acid is reconveed to OAA, which again stas the cycle by taking up another acetyl group from acetyl-CoA. * A very small catalytic amount of OAA can bring about the complete oxidation of active-acetate. * Enzymes are located in the mitochondrial matrix, either free or attached to the inner surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane, which facilitates the transfer of reducing equivalents to the adjacent enzymes of the respiratory chain. * The whole process is aerobic, requiring O2 as the final oxidant of the reducing equivalents. Absence of O2 (anoxia) or paial deficiency of O2 (hypoxia) causes total or paial inhibition of the cycle. * The H atoms removed in the successive dehydrogenations are accepted by corresponding coenzymes. Reduced coenzymes transfer the reducing equivalents to the electron-transpo system, where oxidative phosphorylation produces ATP moleculesRef: MN Chatterjea Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 336 | Biochemistry | Respiratory chain | Enzyme responsible for the complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 to water is present in
A. Cytosol
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
| Mitochondria |
c522ef02-ab6e-4bc0-8047-995ebe740a55 | Ans. A. Cerebral edema* The Major non metabolic complication of DKA therapy is cerebral edema, which most often develops in children as DKA is resolving.* Precipitating events leading to D.K.A:1. Infection2. Myocardial infarction3. Venous thrombosis4. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding5. Acute respiratory distress syndrome | Medicine | Endocrinology | Cause of death in diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Cerebral edema
B. Dehydration
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Central pontine myelinosis
| Cerebral edema |
faa3cb71-b79e-4b1d-a2d1-b868b33f806c | Amoebic liver abscess Entamoeba histolytica is endemic in many pas of the world. It exists in vegetative form outside the body and is spread by the faecal-oral route. The most common presentation is with dysentery, but it may also present with an amoebic abscess, the common sites being paracaecal and in the liver. The amoebic cyst is ingested and develops into the trophozoite form in the colon, and then passes through the bowel wall and to the liver the poal blood. Diagnosis is by isolation of the parasite from the liver lesion or the stool and confirming its nature by microscopy. Often patients with clinical signs of an amoebic abscess will be treated empirically with metronidazole (400- 800mg t.d.s. for 7-10 days) and investigated fuher only if they do not respond. Resolution of the abscess can be monitired using ultrasound. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pg no : 1169 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Anchovy sauce pus is a feature of
A. Amoebic liver abscess
B. Lung abscess
C. Splenic abscess
D. Pancreatic abscess
| Amoebic liver abscess |
37ff30f9-4e3f-4a92-8f35-b255bfb8e736 | From 3rd month of gestation liver and spleen become main site of hematopoiesis-Hepatic phaseSpleen makes smaller contribution compared to liverRef: Medical Physiology Indu Khurana 2015 edition page No:104 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | During 3rd month of gestation, hematopoiesis occurs in
A. Liver
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow
| Liver |
1e124010-990f-43cd-8a0d-5aaeaf2a2276 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Heat inactivation . Vaccines of nonsporing bacteria are heat inactivated in special vaccine bath at 60degC for one hour. | Microbiology | null | Vaccines are sterilised by -
A. Seitz filtration
B. Hot air oven
C. Autoclaving
D. Heat inactivation
| Heat inactivation |
894a58e9-d295-4aa2-aa82-7fc1332eba4a | A burst fracture is a descriptive term for an injury to the spine in which the vertebral body is severely compressed.
They typically occur from severe trauma, such as a motor vehicle accident or a fall from a height.
With a great deal of force vertically onto the spine, a vertebra may be crushed. | Orthopaedics | null | Burst Fracture of the spine is a-
A. Extension injury
B. Compression Fracture
C. Direct injury
D. Flexion - rotation
| Compression Fracture |
07569109-ba08-4da2-b4a9-8669d1ae2abc | The preferred fuel for the body in:- Fed state is mainly Carbohydrates i.e. Glucose. Fasting state is mainly Fats. Fats stored in adipose tissues are broken down to fatty acids to give energy during fasting and starvation. | Biochemistry | Fuel in Fed, Fasting and Starvation | Preferred fuel for body in fasting state:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Proteins
D. Amino acids
| Fats |
3639d123-7335-4cdf-b584-61f7f3dd449e | Ans. is d, i.e. Before marriageRef: Shaw 15th/ed, p96* Repair of vaginal agenesis (in testicular feminization syndrome and Mayer Rokitansky-Kuster Hauser syndrome) is done by vaginoplasty.* Vaginoplasty should only be performed when the girl is just married or about to be married.Techniques:* Construction of artificial vagina by McIndoe operation (procedure of choice).* Williams vaginoplasty - creates a pouch out of labia majora dissection.* Amnion vaginoplasty. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Malformation of the Female Generative Organs | Ideal age for repair of vaginal agenesis is:
A. 6 months
B. 3 years
C. At puberty
D. Before marriage
| Before marriage |
2bb5625e-d6dc-479e-8a84-29a05f69b24d | Centripetal rash (Primarily central/truncal) Mnemonic: "Red Rashes Scare Parents Very Much" Centrifugal rash (Primarily on extremities) Mnemonic: You drive CARS with your Hands and Feet Rubella CA - Coxsackie A Virus (Hand, Foot, Mouth disease) Roseola R-Rocky Mountain spotted fever Scarlet fever S-Secondary syphilis Parvovirus B19 (Erythema infectiosum) Varicella Measles | Dental | Viral infections | The rash which is not central in predisposition is:
A. Epidemic typhus
B. Measles
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Typhoid
| Secondary syphilis |
87399bd9-1403-4d02-8e3c-fc5dda4499ba | Takayasu arteritis
Takayasu arteritis is granulomatous vasculitis of large and medium arteries.
It is characterized principally by ocular disturbance and marked weakening of pulses in the upper extremities Pulseless disease.
It is also characterized by a strong predilection for aortic arch and its branches → Aortic arch syndrome.
It is more common in Adolescent girls and young women.
Morphological changes in vessel wall are same as in giant cell arteritis.
Clinical presentation
Symptoms are mainly according to the involved vessel -
C Subclavian artery :
Most commonly involved vessel
Symptoms are - Arm claudication, lower BP and weaker pulse in upper limb than in lower limb, Raynaud's phenomenon.
Common carotid → Visual disturbances, stroke, TIA, syncope.
Abdominal aorta or coeliac artery or superior mesenteric artery → Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting
Renal → Hypertension, Renal failure
Aortic root → Aortic regurgitation, CHF
Vertebral → Visual disturbances
Iliac → Leg claudication
Pulmonary → Pulmonary hypertension, dysnea, chest pain.
Coronary → Angina, MI
Constitutional symptoms → As with other vasculitis malaise, fatigue, anorexia and weight loss are common.
Elevated ESR and Anemia (as with other vasculitis) | Pathology | null | The pulseless disease is -
A. Giant cell arteritis
B. Takayasu arteritis
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
| Takayasu arteritis |
d0376200-04ae-4fd5-8963-06dff113b9e6 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., HTLV * Many viruses have been implicated in the causation of cancers :A) RNA viruses# All oncogenic RNA viruses belong to family retroviriadae (retroviruses).# Important examples are Avian leukosis virus, murine leukosis virus, murine mammary tumor virus, HIV (causing AIDS related malignancies) and Human-T-cell leukemia virus (causing Adult T-cell leukemia).B) DNA viruses# DNA viruses causing cancers are :-1) Papillomaviridae (HPV): Causes genital tumors, SCC and oropharyngeal carcinoma.2) Herpesviridae : These viruses are :i) HSV-2 : Causes cervical carcinoma.ii) EBV: Causes nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt's lymphoma.iii) HHV-8 : It causes Kaposis sarcoma.3) Hepadnaviridae (HBV) : It causes hepatocellular carcinoma.4) Flaviviridae (HCV): It causes hepatocellular carcinoma. | Microbiology | Virology | Not a DNA oncovirus -
A. HSV-2
B. HPV
C. HTLV
D. HBV
| HTLV |
8d632884-bc49-4397-bd96-21a442916e26 | Under normal circumstances albumin accounts for almost half of the total plasma protein. Therefore conditions in which albumin is either lost from the circulation or synthesized in inadequate amounts are common causes of reduced plasma osmotic pressure. In nephrotic syndrome , damaged glomerular capillaries become leaky, leading to the loss of albumin (and other plasma proteins) in the urine and the development of generalized edema. Reduced albumin synthesis occurs in the setting of severe liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis) and protein malnutrition . Regardless of cause, low albumin levels lead in a stepwise fashion to edema, reduced intravascular volume, renal hypoperfusion, and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Unfounately, increased salt and water retention by the kidney not only fails to correct the plasma volume deficit but also exacerbates the edema, since the primary defect--low serum protein--persists. Robbins 9 th edition page 77 | Pathology | General pathology | Odema occurs when plasma protein level is below-
A. 8 mg\/dl
B. 2 mg\/dl
C. 5 mg\/dl
D. 10 mg\/dl
| 5 mg\/dl |
13cb24db-ffd9-44d8-8248-92c0711f0595 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Juvenile polyps Hamartomatous polyps (juvenile polyp is also a hamartomatous polyp) by definition do not have malignant potential. They are characterized by overgrowth of normal components of colon, such as epithelium and connective tissue.These hamartomatous polyps are seen in following syndromes - Familial juvenile polyposis, Cronkhite - Canada and Peutz-Jeghers syndromes.Unlike solitary juvenile (hamartomatous) polyps, polyps associated with Familial juvenile polyposis and Peutz Jeghers syndrome may degenerate into adenomas and eventually into carcinomas. There is increased risk of gastrointestinal as well as extragastrointestinal malignancies in the syndromes.-Manigots 11/e chapter 23 for more detail on Familial polyposis and other related diseases refer to May 10 of "Surgery for PGMEE" | Surgery | Colon and Rectum - Polyps and Carcinoma | Which of the following colonic polyps is not premalignant -
A. Juvenile polyps
B. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz- Jegher's syndrome
C. Villous adenomas
D. Tubular adenomas
| Juvenile polyps |
29fa1e42-62ee-4a65-92d9-ef43245f7c96 | The risk of ovarian cancer in BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation carriers ranges from 20 to 40%, which is 10 times higher than that in the general population. Prophylactic oophorectomy is a reasonable prevention option in mutation carriers. The American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology recommends that women with a documented BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation consider prophylactic oophorectomy at the completion of childbearing or at the time of menopause Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 17. | Surgery | null | Risk of ovarian carcinoma with BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 mutation is:
A. <5%
B. 10%
C. 30%
D. 60%
| 30% |
223402e2-79e2-4eff-9a9f-8c3c24ea7ca8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nucleic acid amplificationRef: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1165 and Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 415NAAT (Nucleic acid amplification test) - PCR, LCR (Ligase Chain Reaction).Most sensitive test in cervical C. trachomatis. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Most sensitive test for diagnosing asymptomatic chlamydia infection is:
A. Tissue culture
B. Nucleic acid amplification
C. Serology
D. Serum electrophoresis
| Nucleic acid amplification |
1eac4f43-bdc9-4b27-89c1-823170357b49 | Von Gierke disease:DiseaseEnzyme deficiencyClinical featuresVon Gierke disease Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiencyGlycogen accumulation in liver and renal tubule cells; hypoglycemia; lactic acidemia; ketosis; hyperlipemiaReference: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 18; Metabolism of Glycogen | Biochemistry | Endocrinology | The enzyme defect in von Gierke&;s disease (type-1 glycogen storage disease) is
A. Glycogen phosphorylase
B. Debranching enzyme
C. Phosphoglucomutase
D. Glucose-6-phosphate
| Glucose-6-phosphate |
2ffed274-7f9a-4504-895f-850f3065a45e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Osteoclasts o The cells responsible for bone formation are osteoblasts and the cells responsible for bone resorption are osteoclasts. Cell in Boneo The cells of bone are :-OsteoblastsOsteoblasts form a cell layer over bone surfaces. The bone is essentially enveloped by the osteoblasts, since the cells are in close contact with one another and tight junctions and gap junctions have been observed. Thus, the osteoblastic layer controls the transport of materials from the extracellular space to the osteoid seam and mineralization in front. Osteoblasts are responsible for synthesis of major proteins of bone and for mineralization of bone.It plays a central role in osteoclastic function (i.e. involved in initiation & control of osteoclastic activity). Thus osteoblasts and not osteoclasts have specific surface receptors for agent, such as 1, 25-dihydroxy vitamin D and parathyroid hormone0 So osteoclasts in culture, w hich are therefore not in contact with osteoblasts, do not respond to these agents.OsteoclastsOsteoclasts are found in sites in which bone is being remodeled. These are multinucleatedgiant cells and formed by fusion of mononuclear cells (monocytes0 & macrophages). These cells are the principal mediator of bone resorption0 The characteristic feature is the area of infolded plasma membrane known as ruffled border wrhich is surrounded by an organelle free clear zone through which osteoclast attaches to bone & wrhich is the site of bone resorption.OsteocytesApproximately 10% of osteoblastic population become enclosed in the developing matrix and are then referred to as osteocytes. | Physiology | Calcium Metabolism | Bone removing cells -
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Stem cells
D. Cytotoxic T cells
| Osteoclasts |
c45b6d87-fdc3-4f29-a137-03624c1d9495 | NF2 is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas and hearing loss benign tumors usually originate from perineural fibroblasts. intracranial schwannomas originate from vestibular branch of eighth cranial nerve. Malignant schwannomas although rare, are treated with radiation therapy, if the curative resection is not possible. C/F :- SNHL (M/C) presentation Tinnitus Veigo/Dizziness MRI shows - ice cream cone appearance - depicting b/l vestibular schwannomas | Surgery | CNS Tumors | MRI done in a 28yrs old male suffering from Neurofibromatosis 2 showed ice cream cone appearance. On asking he fuher revealed that it began with ringing sensation in ears which progressed to balance problems and hearing loss. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
A. Meningioma
B. Ependymoma
C. Schwannoma
D. Gangioneuroma
| Schwannoma |
3e442fe7-a664-44d0-8cfe-ba5d6f8ba76c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., IVC opening in right atrium o Opening of IVC in right atrium is guarded by - Eustachian valve (rudimentary valve). o Opening of coronary sinus in right atrium is guarded by - Semilunar valve/Thebesian valve (functional valve) | Anatomy | Pericardium & Heart | Eustachian valve is seen in -
A. Eustachian tube opening at nasopharyngeal end
B. Eustachian tube opening in tympanic cavity
C. IVC opening in right atrium
D. Coronary sinus opening in right atrium
| IVC opening in right atrium |
178f5727-9e1c-4f8f-bc7a-c06cc4689bbd | Cofactor for PDH complex are:
Thiamine pyrophosphate (Vit B1), FAD (Vit B2), NAD (Vit B3), CoA (Vit B5), Lipoic acid. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not a co-factor for pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
A. Thiamine pyrophosphate
B. FAD
C. NAD
D. Biotin
| Biotin |
6d575ab1-0e65-4686-ae82-c63da550fca2 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Behavior therapy * Nail tic disorders are examples of body-focused repetitive behaviors (BFRBs). They are self-grooming behaviors that include pulling, picking, biting or scraping one's hair, skin or nails. They include -A) Hair pulling to the point of having seriously thinned hair or bald spots, missing eyebrows, or eyelashesB) Skin picking, resulting in scabs, sores that never heal, holes in the skin, and scarringC) Nail and/or cuticle biting, causing bleeding or infected fingertipsD) Blemish picking or squeezing, causing scarring and infectionsE) Biting the inside of the cheek* BFRBs most often begin in late childhood or in the early teens.Treatment* There are three main types of help. These are behavioral therapy, medication, and family therapy:1) Behavioral therapy is usually the preferred way. It consists of two approaches: Habit Reversal Therapy (HRT), which teaches the sufferer a set of alternative behaviors that can help them focus themselves, interrupt, and block the behavior, and Stimulus Control (SC), which teaches them how to identify, change, and control the different triggers present in their routines, environments, and moods that lead to the behaviors.2) Medication can be of help in some cases. It should be regarded as a tool to help with behavior therapy. Effective medications are Clomipramine, Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs),Other Antidepressants, Naltrexone, Neuroleptics, Lithium, Other Agents/ Supplements3) Family therapy can be extremely valuable in a number of ways, and can make important contributions in healing the family, and aiding the sufferers recovery. | Psychiatry | Treatment | Tics, hair pulling, nail biting behavior are best treated with?
A. Medications
B. Behavior therapy
C. ECT
D. Psychodynamic therapy
| Behavior therapy |
8d0950eb-c6d9-4ad6-a53c-1475ac47cbd8 | A light chain has two successive domains: one constant domain and one variable domain. Heavy chain with one variable (VH) domain followed by a constant domain (CH) Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:94 | Microbiology | Immunology | Number of variable regions on each light and heavy chain of an antibody -
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| 1 |
640a5a90-5372-45f5-ba62-82d608cef2e1 | Among the options given in the question hamaomatous polyps in Peutz Jegher's syndrome has only a small chance of being malignant (39%). Juvenile Polyps given in this question are not solitary polyps, but pa of juvenile polyposis syndrome, which has a risk of about 30 to 60 % to develop into a carcinoma. In HNPCC, there 80% lifetime risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. Adenomatous polyps in Familial adenomatous polyposis, if left untreated has a 100% relative risk of turning into malignancy. Ref: Current Surgical Diagnosis& Treatment, 12th Edition, Page 696, 697, 709, 710; Cancer Epidemiology and Prevention By David Schottenfeld, 3rd Edition Page 568; Principles and Practice of Clinical Medicine in Asia: Treating the Asian Patient By Joseph Jao Yiu Sung, page 276; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition, Chapter 91. | Surgery | null | Which of the following has the least malignant potential?
A. Adenomatous polyps in HNPCC
B. Juvenile polyps in Juvenile Polyposis Syndrome
C. Adenomatous Polyps in Familial colonic Polyposis
D. Hamaomatous Polyps in Peutz Jegher's Syndrome
| Hamaomatous Polyps in Peutz Jegher's Syndrome |
e3be0417-827a-4496-b54d-25a2272e44f9 | Pacemaker potential is due to slow Na+ >> Rapid Ca++ >> decrease K+ permeability. So, with the provided options, best answer is decrease K+ permeability. | Physiology | null | The pacemaker potential is due to:
A. Fast Na+ channel
B. Decrease in K+ permeability
C. Slow Ca++ channel
D. Rapid repolarization
| Decrease in K+ permeability |
f384a65e-5e6d-4f13-b24f-b0f4decf6fc8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., lst pa Peptic ulcer Ulcers are defined histologically as a breach in the mucosa of the alimentry tract that extends through the mucularis mucasea into the submucosa or deep. Peptic ulcers are chronic , most often solitary lesions that occur in any protion of the gastrointestinal tract exposed to the aggressive action of acid / peptic juice . Peptic ulcers located in the following sits, in order of decreasing frequency : Duodenum, ls`poion Stomach ,usally antrum At the gastro - esophageal junction in the setting of gastroesphageal reflux or Barrett's esophagus. Within the margins of a gastrojejunostomy. In the duodenum, stomach or jeunum of patients with Zollinger -Ellison Syndrome. Within or adiacent to Meckels diveiculum that contains ectopic gastric mucosa. | Pathology | null | Most common site of peptic ulcer in duodenum ?
A. Pt pa
B. 2nd pa
C. 3rd pa
D. 41h pa
| Pt pa |
5e72fa22-530d-45a1-bc4b-b73c7cc1353e | The nerve resting membrane potential is little affected by local anesthetics. As the concentration of local anesthetic applied to the nerve is increased, a decrease in the rate of depolarization and in the peak amplitude of the action potential occurs until the impulse is abolished. It is not possible, however, to derive data on the binding of local anesthetics to Na+ channels from measurement of the changes in nerve impulses. By using a "voltage-clamp" procedure, Na+ currents and their inhibition by local anesthetics can be directly assayed. When the membrane of isolated neurons is rapidly depolarized to a constant value, the time course of ionic currents is observed. Sodium currents during one initial depolarization are reduced by subclinical doses of local anesthetic (e.g., 0.2mM lidocaine) and totally abolished by clinical doses (e.g., 1% lidocaine, [?]40mM). If the test depolarization is applied repeatedly, for example, at frequencies higher than 5Hz (five pulses per second), the paially depressed (tonically inhibited) Na+ current is fuher reduced incrementally for each pulse until a new steady-state level of inhibition is reached. This frequency-dependent inhibition, also called phasic inhibition. Local anesthetics bind in the inner vestibule of the closed Na+ channel. Amino acid mutations in the S6 segments of D-1, D-3, and D-4 all modify local anesthetic action, thus suggesting either that these regions form a pharmacophore small enough to simultaneously contact the drug at three surfaces or that the local anesthetic molecule moves rapidly among these three segments. X - binding site of LA. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e | Anaesthesia | Fundamental concepts | Local anaesthetic acts by inhibition of
A. Na channels
B. Mg channels
C. Ca channels
D. K channels
| Na channels |
d65e60c8-7a9e-475a-a354-54ced724f6d2 | The more serious neurological complications of measles include febrile convulsions, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis (SSPE) SSPE characterized by progressive mental deterioration leading to paralysis, involuntary movements, muscle rigidity and coma. Frequency of SSPE is about 1:300,000 cases of natural measles. Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , Page:148. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Subacute sclerosing pan- encephalitis is associated with-
A. Mumps
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Typhoid
| Measles |
7734a9a6-b022-4804-b177-5d2e289e8998 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Transketolase level in blood THIAMINE (VITAMIN B1)o Thiamine is also called aneurine. Thiamine has a central role in energy-yielding metabolism and especially the metabolism of carbohydrates. The active form of thiamine is thiamine pyrophosphate (TTP) also called thiamine diphosphate (TDP).o Thiamine diphosphate (TDP) or TPP is the coenzyme for three multienzyme complexes that catalyze oxidative decarboxylation :Pyruvate dehydrogenase in carbohydrate metabolism, which catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle, which catalyzes the conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA.Branched-chain keto acid dehy drogenase which catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of branched chain keto amino acids, i.e. leucine, isoleucine and valine.o Thiamine diphosphate is also the coenzume for transketolase, in the pentose phosphate pathway. There- fore, thiamine nutritional status is best assessed by erythrocyte (preferred) or whole blood transketolase activity.o Deficiency of thiamine causes :BeriberiWernicke's encephalopathy, with korsakoff psychosisLactic acidosis | Unknown | null | Thiamine deficiency is best diagnosed the -
A. Thiamine level in blood
B. The transketolase level in the blood
C. Aldolase level in the blood
D. Thiamine level in urine
| The transketolase level in the blood |
0b96f02b-e477-4f2f-83e5-2d81b9bcdcdb | Hypehermia. Hypehermia (HT) is the use of elevated temperature for the treatment of cancer, in this case, typically using temperatures in the range of 41deg C to 45deg C for 1 hour or more Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1145b | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Hypehermia-
A. Temperature >41.5
B. > 40 with autonomic dysfunctuion
C. No change in hypothalamic thermostat
D. One which normalises with anti pyretic
| Temperature >41.5 |
0f55f2b8-9163-45fd-b8ba-58d4bc017cc8 | Option a - Brain does not depend on insulin for glucose uptake Glucose uptake occurs in muscles (cardiac & skeletal) & adipose tissue GLUT-4 , which is insulin dependent. Only GLUT-4 is dependent on Insulin. In brain, GLUT-1 & GLUT-3 are present which are active during fasting state. Insulin always acts in a fed state. So, there is no relation between them Hence GLUT1 and 3 are not dependent on insulin. | Biochemistry | Glucose Transpo | Which of the following DOES NOT depend on insulin for glucose uptake :
A. Brain
B. Cardiac muscles
C. Skeletal muscles
D. Adipose tissue
| Brain |
aabc42db-32b4-4e4f-8b41-5a48cdd2911c | Structure - Major histocompatibility complex, (HLA) complex MHC class III genes encode Complement components C2 and C4 Properdin factor B of alternate pathway TNF - alpha and beta Heat shock proteins Also known as "complement region" | Pathology | General pathology | MHC class - III genes encode
A. Complement component C3
B. Tumor necrosis factor
C. Interleukin-2
D. Beta-2 microglobulin
| Tumor necrosis factor |
9fd308d2-0a43-4bef-a757-b2fd22368cbb | Answer- (C) NorepinephrinePheochromocytoma can be localized using radioactive tracers including 131 I-or 123 l- metaiodobenzyl guanithidine (MIBG), 111 ln-somatostatin analogues, or 18 F-dopa (or dopamine) Positron-emission tomography (PET). | Medicine | null | MIBG (metaiodobenzyl guanithidine) is analogue to:
A. Epinephrine
B. Adenine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Guanine
| Norepinephrine |
8d21485c-a7a3-4bce-9c40-e8dd1453cb5d | Cardiogenic shock (CS) is characterized by systemic hypoperfusion due to severe depression of the cardiac index and sustained systolic aerial hypotension (<90 mmHg) despite an elevated filling pressure . It is associated with in-hospital moality rates >50%. . Circulatory failure based on cardiac dysfunction may be caused by primary myocardial failure, most commonly secondary to acute myocardial infarction(MI) , and less frequently by cardiomyopathy or myocarditis , cardiac tamponade, or critical valvular hea disease Systolic and diastolic myocardial dysfunction results in a reduction in cardiac output and often pulmonary congestion. Systemic and coronary hypoperfusion occur, resulting in progressive ischemia. Although a number of compensatory mechanisms are activated in an attempt to suppo the circulation, these compensatory mechanisms may become maladaptive and produce a worsening of hemodynamics. *Release of inflammatory cytokines after myocardial infarction may lead to inducible nitric oxide expression, excess nitric oxide, and inappropriate vasodilation. This causes fuher reduction in systemic and coronary perfusion. A vicious spiral of progressive myocardial dysfunction occurs that ultimately results in death if it is not interrupted. LVEDP, left ventricular end-diastolic pressure ref:harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 2232 | Medicine | C.V.S | . In cardiac shock
A. SBP<90mmof Hg
B. DBP<80mmof Hg
C. Urine output < 20 ml\/hr
D. Cardiac index < 3.5
| SBP<90mmof Hg |
e86b0418-5731-4a88-a4e9-62f17c3bc834 | In contrast with familial Mediterranean fever, a group of autosomal dominant familial disorders is characterized by deposition of amyloid predominantly in the peripheral and autonomic nerves. These familial amyloidotic polyneuropathies have been described in kindreds in different pas of the world--for example, in Pougal, Japan, Sweden, and the United States. As mentioned previously, the fibrils in these familial polyneuropathies are made up of mutant forms of transthyretin (ATTRs). Robbins 9 th edition page no. 156 | Pathology | General pathology | Which type of Amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein ?-
A. Familial Mediterranean fever
B. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy
C. Dialysis associated amyloidosis
D. Prion protein associated amyloidosis
| Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy |
eba9da38-0698-4825-baa8-3d9a833f1ae4 | B i.e. Paranoid schizophreniaDiagnostic criteria of scizophreniaDiagnostic criteria of Paranoid subtypeA. 2Q of these for > 6 months1. None of the following is prominent1. DelusionsQ- Disorganized speech, Disorganized behaviour,2. HallucinationsQFlat or inappropriate affectQ (these are3. Disorganized speechQprominent in Disorganized subtype)4. Disorganized behaviourQ- Catatonic behaviour (prominent in Catatonic5. Blunt affectQ or negative symptomssubtype)B: Social/ Occupational dysfunctions2 Preoccupation with one or more Delusions orfrequently HallucinationsQ. | Psychiatry | null | Delusions of control, persecution and self reference are seen in:
A. Paranoia
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Mania
D. OCD
| Paranoid schizophrenia |
7103dc5c-8e2f-407b-9c60-23218a4902b5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ploucquet's Test Ploucquet's test : Weight of lung is measured in relation to body weight. Before bih weight of lung is 1/70 of body weight and after respiration it becomes 1/35 of body weight due to increased blood flow in lung beds. | Forensic Medicine | null | Test performed to compare weight of lung to body weight is ?
A. Ploucquet test
B. Fodere's test
C. Gettler's test
D. Raygat's test
| Ploucquet test |
8076ef22-ab29-4876-9f09-2c07b5496b48 | The HIDA scan is most accurate in estab-lishing a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis. After injection, the technetium-labeled imminodi-acetic acid radioisotopes are taken up by the liver and excreted into the biliary tree. If the cystic duct is obstructed (as in patients with acute cholecystitis) the gallbladder will not be visualized. Ultrasound may show ductal dilation, the presence of wall thickening (<3 mm), or pericholecystic fluid, which is highly suggestive of acute cholecystitis | Surgery | Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Sx | A 38-year-old male lawyer develops abdominal pain after having a fatty meal. Examination reveals tenderness in the right hypochondrium and a positive Murphy's sign. Which test is most likely to reveal acute cholecystitis?
A. HIDA scan
B. Oral cholecystogram
C. Intravenous cholangiogram
D. CT scan of the abdomen
| HIDA scan |
14f284bf-ba04-4d92-829a-82e897c3171e | Ellipsoid(functionally) / condylar joints(structurally): 1. Wrist (radio-carpal joints) 2. Knuckle (metacarpophalangeal joint) 3. Atlanto - occipital joint Ellipsoid > condylar joints | Anatomy | Osteology | Metacarpophalangeal joint is
A. Condylar
B. Ellipsoid
C. Saddle
D. Hinge
| Ellipsoid |
3ec5b9b7-cfdd-44d9-b5a3-5d0714bd60dd | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Estrogen Ref: Principles and practice of maternal healthThe plasma erythropoietin activity increases steadily during pregnancy.Estrogen antagonizes the erythropoietin-augmenting effect of placental lactogen.It inhibit utilization of erythropoietin by the marrow stem cells, and also impairs its production. | Physiology | null | Fetal erythropoietin production is inhibited by?
A. Testosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Coisol
D. Hypoxia
| Estrogen |
2529a2e6-b7b3-459c-8bf5-bdff6ed84674 | Liver glycogen is the first-line of defence against hypoglycemia. The liver concentration of glycogen is about 450 mmol /L glucose equivalents after a meal, falling to about 200 mmol /L after an overnight fast. After 12 to 18 hours of fasting, liver glycogen is almost totally depleted. | Biochemistry | Fuel in Fed, Fasting and Starvation | In case of fasting, glycogen stores in the body can last up to:
A. 7 days
B. 72-96 hours
C. 6-8 hours
D. 12-18 hours
| 12-18 hours |
9c68aa37-978e-4390-a88c-439c43311e39 | Antigenic shift,is an brupt drastic discontinuation variation in the antigenic structure resulting in a novel virus strain unrelated antigenically to predecessor strains. Such chamges may involve hemagglutinin , neuraminidase or both. Antibodies to predecessor viruses do not neutralise the new variants and can therefore spreads widely in the population causing major epidemics or pandemics. The changes involved in antigenic shifts are too extensive to be accounted for by mutation REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th edition pg no:496 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Secular trend in influenza is due to -
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Endemicity
D. Virulence
| Antigenic shift |
7dda7f47-e459-4ec5-afda-1359c08b45f8 | Bulge REF: Gray's anatomy, 39th edition, page 159Stem cells are thought to reside mainly in the troughs of rete pegs, and in the outer root sheath bulge of the hair follicleStem Cell NichesStem cellOrganNicheEpidermal stem cellHair follicle, EpidermisHair follicle bulgeIntestinal stem cellIntestineBase of colonic crypt above paneth cellOval cell (liver stem cell)LiverCanal of herringCorneal stem cellCorneaLimbusNeural stem cellBrainOlfactory bulb, Dentate gyrus of hippocampusSatellite cellsSkeletal/Cardiac musclesBeneath the myocyte basal lamina | Anatomy | null | Stem cells are located in which region of hair follicle:
A. Bulb
B. Root
C. Bulge
D. Papilla
| Bulge |
739f87db-0fad-42cb-9ee0-78ae6e4e60d4 | - P450 inducers
Phenobarbitone
Rifampicin
Phenytoin
Chloral hydrate
Griseofulvin
Phenylbutazone
DDT
Chronic alcohol ingestion
- Cimetidine and Ketoconazole inhibits metabolizing enzymes. | Pharmacology | null | CYP–450 inducers are:
A. Cimetidine
B. Ketoconazole
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Theophylline
| Phenobarbitone |
19a1f608-772a-4ee1-b78d-39f85c677c65 | ARIPIPRAZOLE * Paial agonist action * Selectively blocks dopamine in mesolimibic pathway, hence improves positive symptoms without worsening negative symptoms * Used in risperidone induced hyoperprolactinemia Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 925 | Anatomy | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | which is the antipsychotic which selectively acts on the mesolimbic pathway and does not inhibit dopamin in mesocoical pathaway
A. aripiprazole
B. haloperidol
C. flupenthixol
D. pimozide
| aripiprazole |
731eeeea-ca8c-4f60-b914-2285a78cf458 | Ans) a (21- alpha ) Ref Nelson 18'h ed p 2360More than 90% of CAH cases are caused by 21 -hydroxylase deficiency. | Pediatrics | Endocrinology | In congenital adrenal hyperplasia most common deficiency
A. 21- alpha hydroxylase deficiency
B. 11- beta hydroxylase deficiency
C. 17 - hydroxylase deficiency
D. 3 beta hydroxylase deficiency
| 21- alpha hydroxylase deficiency |
afd5ce7d-6fe8-4851-8c0b-28e78f43a6e5 | Specificity is the propoion of persons without the disease who are correctly identified by the test as being disease-free. It is given by TN/(FP + TN), where TN stands for true negatives (people who do not have the disease and test negative on the test) and FP stands for false positives (people who do not have the disease but test positive on the test). In this case, 95/(5 + 95) = 95/100=0.95. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The data presented below compares the results of a diagnostic test in the presence and absence of a disease.\r\n\r\n \r\n\r\n\r\nTest Result\r\nDisease Present\r\nDisease Absent\r\n\r\n\r\nPositive Test\r\n40\r\n5\r\n\r\n\r\nNegative Test\r\n10\r\n95\r\n\r\n\r\nTotal\r\n50\r\n100\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n \r\nThe specificity of the test is?
A. 0.05
B. 0.4
C. 0.8
D. 0.95
| 0.95 |
b2b096db-9035-4586-9b73-8de378e5b8a3 | Refer CMDT 2010/266 Coicosteroids are contraindicated in psychosis and herpes simplex Treatment of choice for Subacute thyroiditis is aspirin Thyrotoxic symptoms are treated with Propanolol Prednisolone produve6 dramatic relief bin Eosinophilic pulmonary syndromes like loeffler syndrome | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which of the following is an indication for the use of coicosteroids
A. Psychosis
B. Herpes simplex
C. Loeffler syndrome
D. Subacute thyroiditis
| Loeffler syndrome |
ae702070-e612-42d9-b5e8-9e800f9c3902 | Trimethaphan is a ganglionic blocker that is sometimes administered during surgery to maintain controlled hypotension and to minimize blood loss. The trick to determining the effect of a ganglionic blocker is to first know the predominant tone of the end organ in question. The blocker will produce the opposite effect of the predominant tone. The vessels, aerioles and veins, are predominantly under sympathetic tone. Most everything else is under parasympathetic tone. The hea is under predominantly parasympathetic control. Parasympathetic stimulation of the hea causes bradycardia. Removal of this tone with trimethaphan would result in tachycardia. The eye is predominantly under parasympathetic control. Parasympathetic stimulation causes the eye to accommodate (focus for near vision). Removal of this tone with trimethaphan would produce focusing for far vision. Aerioles are predominantly under sympathetic control. Sympathetic stimulation produces vasoconstriction and possibly hypeension. Removal of this tone with trimethaphan would produce vasodilatation and hypotension. The gut is predominantly under parasympathetic control, which increases gut motility. Removal of parasympathetic tone with trimethaphan would diminish gut motility. Ref: Pappano A.J. (2012). Chapter 8. Cholinoceptor-Blocking Drugs. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e | Pharmacology | null | A patient was administered trimethaphan during surgery. This drug will cause which of the following responses?
A. Accommodation
B. Hypeension
C. Peristalsis
D. Tachycardia
| Tachycardia |
bc8971df-3899-45c6-b77a-5656911e6c53 | Ans. (a) Early morning(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.366)ACTH and cortisol secretion is pulsatile with a characteristic circadian rhythm. It is high in the early morning and low in the evening75% of the daily production of ACTH & cortisol occurs between 4:00 AM and 10:00 AM | Physiology | Endocrinology and Reproduction | ACTH level is higher during:
A. Early morning
B. Evening
C. Afternoon
D. Night
| Early morning |
cad247d9-42d1-45f9-b48b-d0821aa53599 | Iodine metabolism within the thyroid can be regulated independently of TSH. This mechanism is impoant when plasma iodide levels are elevated (15-20-fold above normal) because this elevation inhibits the organic binding of iodine within the thyroid. This autoregulatory phenomenon consisting of inhibition of the organification of iodine by elevated circulating levels of iodide is known as the Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This effect lasts for a few days and is followed by the so-called escape phenomenon, at which point the organification of intra-thyroidal iodine resumes and the normal synthesis of T4 and T3 returns. Ref: Molina P.E. (2013). Chapter 4. Thyroid Gland. In P.E. Molina (Ed), Endocrine Physiology, 4e. | Physiology | null | During the metabolism of iodine in thyroid synthesis, Wolff-Chaikoff effect is seen due to:
A. Inhibition of cAMP response of TSH
B. Inhibition of proteolysis of Thyroglobulin
C. Inhibition of organic binding of iodide
D. Inhibition of iodide trapping mechanism
| Inhibition of organic binding of iodide |
ae9506e2-a389-494e-8695-b3c033465c60 | Development of Diaphragm
Diaphragm develops from
Septum transversum: it is a mass of mesodermal tissue arising from coelomic wall at the 4rd week of gestation. It forms the central tendon of diaphragm.
Dorsal mesooesophagus forms the median portion of diaphragm & the crurae.
Cervical myotomes (from C3-C5 somites) of lateral body wall form the peripheral parts of diaphragm.
Pleuro-peritoneal membranes.
Chromosome 15q plays a major role in diaphragm development
- During the initial period of development, it lies at a higher level (cervical) and then migrates caudally and hence the nerve supply is from C3, C4, C5 (Phrenic nerve). | Unknown | null | Development of diaphragmbegins at 4 weeks of gestation. Diaphragm has contributions from different structures. Central tendon of diaphragm develops from?
A. Dorsal mesooesophagus
B. Septum transversum
C. Pleuro peritoneal membrane
D. Cervical myotomes
| Septum transversum |
490ac217-572d-466e-a99f-f0aee988cc70 | Thiopentone is an ultra sho acting barbiturate which she administered IV rapidly induces hypnosis and anesthesia without analgesia. Onset of action is quick,induction smooth rapid and unpleasant. Methohexitone is similar to thiopentone but is not preferred due to its toxicity . Etomidate is used in cardiovascular patients. From Padmaja 4th edition Page no 194,195 | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Which of the following agents is most commonly used to induce anaesthesia
A. Thiopentone sodium
B. Methohexitone sodium
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate
| Thiopentone sodium |
570599ff-a0e4-488e-8b43-2cb1ecb4559c | On USG Thickened sinus, interrupted mucosal folds (earliest sign) Toous radiolucencies of variable size The "worm-eaten" smooth lobulated filling defects Ref: Wolfgang Radiology 2nd edition Pg no : 509 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Worm like filling defect is seen In
A. Erosive gastritis
B. Esophageal varices
C. CA esophagus
D. Schatzki's ring
| Esophageal varices |
212e7287-917f-4df9-bf89-1b10dfd7d0bb | Hemoglobin REF: Ganong 22nd edition chapter 39 Repeat from June 2008 In the blood, proteins paicularly the plasma proteins are effective buffers because both their free carboxyl and their free amino groups dissociate: Another impoant buffer system is provided by the dissociation of the imidazole groups of the histidine residues in hemoglobin. In the pH 7.0-7.7 range, the free carboxyl and amino groups of hemoglobin contribute relatively little to its buffering capacity. However, the hemoglobin molecule contains 38 histidine residues, and on this basis plus the fact that hemoglobin is present in large amounts the hemoglobin in blood has six times the buffering capacity of the plasma proteins. The third major buffer system in blood is the carbonic acid bicarbonate system | Physiology | null | Most abundant extracellular buffer is?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Plasma proteins
C. Bicarbonate
D. Phosphate
| Hemoglobin |
f99afa5f-e722-438c-8c2a-23ccc6d51c1c | Nissl bodies are basophilic bodies or granules composed of many thin, parallelly arranged, membrane-bounded cavities or cisternae which are covered by many minute paicles consisting of Ribose nucleoproteins i.e. RNA with proteins. Granule&;s size and number vary with physiological condition of the cell. For example, fatigue, ceain poisons, and sectioning of axon cause Nissl granules to disintegrate into fine dust and which finally disappears.Ref: Textbook of physiology, Dir. Prof. AK Jain, 5th edition. | Physiology | Nervous system | Nissl bodies in neurons are
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosome
| Endoplasmic reticulum |
6136bae8-ee8c-4474-8652-587ffbd57bf4 | Ans. B. Acetyl-CoA + Propionyl-CoA(Ref: Harper 31/e page 209)Oxidation of Odd Chain Fatty AcidTakes place in the mitochondria.Oxidation of a fatty acid with an odd number of carbon atoms yields acetyl-CoA and a molecule of propionyl-CoA.The propionyl residue from an odd-chain fatty acid is the only part of a fatty acid that is glucogenic | Biochemistry | Lipids | One of the following is obtained in the by beta oxidation of odd chain fatty acids:
A. Acetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA
B. Acetyl-CoA + Propionyl-CoA
C. Propionyl CoA + Propionyl-CoA
D. Acetyl-CoA alone
| Acetyl-CoA + Propionyl-CoA |
3285ea80-7062-4303-adc8-5f8438a7e9a8 | SERONEGATIVE SPONDYLOAHROPATHIES Feature HLA B-27 positive/presence of uveitis Onset usually before 45 years age Inflammatory ahritis of spine/large peripheral joints Absence of autoantibodies (e.g. rheumatoid factor) in serum so known as seronegative -Other diseases associated with HLA-B27 positivity Mnemonic: PEARS (HLA-B27 Positive) P- Psoriatic ahritis E- Enteropathic ahritis A- Ankylosing spondylitis(>90%) R- Reiter's syndrome/ Reactive ahritis S- SAPHO Syndrome OTHER OPTIONS: HLA-DW4/DR4- A/W rheumatoid ahritis. HLA-DR3 - A/W Type 1 diabetes mellitus HLA-B47- A/W 21 hydroxylase deficiency | Orthopaedics | Joint disorders | Ankylosing spondylitis in associated with:
A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-B47
C. HLA-DW4/DR4
D. HLA-DR3
| HLA-B27 |
917f9982-716e-4c16-8611-87873f22877f | - Atropine is obtained from atropa belladonna. - It is non selective muscarinic receptor antagonist Physostigmine is the specific antidote for poisoning with belladonna . It crosses blood-brain barrier and antagonises both central and peripheral actions. Physostigmine sometimes itself induces hypotension, arrhythmias and undesirable central effects. It is therefore employed only as a last reso. Neostigmine does not block the central effect, but is less risky. | Pharmacology | ANS | You are being asked to give your expe opinion as a toxicologist regarding an effective antidote for belladonna poisoning. Which of the following agents would you suggest?
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Atropine
| Physostigmine |
0aba0b2d-787f-46fe-938c-d5290da0f9fa | (D) The tension developed by the muscle being moved # The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) is located in the tendon of skeletal muscles & therefore is in series with the muscle.> Each time the muscle contracts, the tension developed by the muscle causes the GTO to be stretched. It helps to control the tension developed in the muscle.> The 1b afferent fibers, which innervate the GTO, fire in proportion to the amount of GTO stretch, and therefore their firing rate provides the CNS with information about the amount of tension developed by the muscle.> The muscle length and speed of shortening are sent to the CNS by la afferents that innervate the intrafusal fibers within muscle spindles. | Physiology | Nervous System | During a voluntary movement, the Golgi tendon organ provides the central nervous system with information about
A. The length of the muscle being moved
B. The velocity of the movement
C. The blood flow to the muscle being moved
D. The tension developed by the muscle being moved
| The tension developed by the muscle being moved |
26d5f7a1-425e-4ce0-b9d7-34c2b0f2fa57 | Ans. C. Appearance of Secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years* Precocious puberty: This is defined as the appearance of any of the secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 years or the occurrence of menarche before the age of 10 years* Precocious puberty in females is pubertal changes before the age of 8 years.* In males it is onset of puberty before the age of 9 years | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Obs) | Precocious puberty in females is defined as
A. Occurrence of menarche before age of 8 years
B. Occurrence of menarche before age of 12 years
C. Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years
D. Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics before 10 years
| Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years |
4b347ef3-ff00-4149-b091-9d5de6ab46d4 | Drugs causing extrapyramidal effects
Butyrophenones (Haloperidol)*
Levodopa* Methyldopa* Metoclopramide*
OCP’S Phenothiazines* Reserpine*
Tricyclic Antidepressants | Pharmacology | null | Extrapyramidal syndrome like side effects are seen in:
A. Clozapine
B. Tetracycline
C. Haloperidol
D. Ketoconazole
| Haloperidol |
a9684810-4166-418d-b1a1-574f81543fd8 | ANSWER: (C) IgGREF: BRS 4th ed page 222See APPENDIX-20 below IMMUNOGLOBULINSThe anamnestic response refers to the immune response of the body to a pathogen it recognize i.e. Secondary response.Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response (anamnesis). APPENDIX - 20Immunoglobulins IgGIgAIgMIgDIgEHeavy chaingaudePercentage75-85 (max)7-155-100.30.019 (min)Carbohydrate %41010.71212serum half-life (days)21 (max)6532 (min)Concentration12 mg/ml2 mg/ml1.2 mg/ml0.03 mg/ml0.00004 mg/mlMolecular formmonomerSerum IgA = monomerPentamerMonomerMonomer Secretory IgA = Dimer Molecular weight150,000(lightest)Serum IgA = 160,000950,000(heaviest)175,000190,000Secretory IgA = 400,000SubclassesIgGl > IgG2 > IgG3 > IgG4IgAl = circulatory, IgA2 = secretoryMl, M2nonenoneComplimentactivationClassical ++ G4 subclass= alternateAlternate (only IgAl fixes complement)Classical +++AlternateAlternate or NoneSedimentationcoefficient7SMonomer = 7S7S7S8SDimer = 15SPlacental crossingYesNoNoNoNoPresence in milkPresentPresentAbsentAbsentAbsentCompartmentEqual in intravascular (45%) and extravascular(55%)compartmentMostly extravascular (Minimum intravascular distribution)mostlyintravascular MostlyextravascularHeat stabilityStableStableStableStableHeat labileAlso know- Producessecondaryresponse - First to appear in fetus (20 wk)- Producesprimaryresponse Homocytotropic | Microbiology | Anitibody | Which of the following antibodies shows anamnestic response?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
| IgG |
b6f45c18-3c2f-4932-8000-1f809f29bfb6 | Liquefactive necrosis/Colliquative Necrosis Liquefactive necrosis, is characterized by digestion of the dead cells, resulting in transformation of the tissue into a liquid viscous mass. Hydrolytic enzymes activation results in damage to tissue architecture The necrotic material is frequently creamy yellow because of the presence of dead leukocytes and is called pus. Hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system often manifests as liquefactive necrosis. It is also seen in focal bacterial or occasionally, fungal infections because microbes stimulate the accumulation of leukocytes and the liberation of enzymes from these cells. | Pathology | FMGE 2019 | Which type of necrosis is seen in brain?
A. Coagulative
B. Liquefactive
C. Fat
D. Fibrinoid
| Liquefactive |
d8c51a41-548c-49e0-b3ba-89a4266e8f2c | The hormone that causes uterine contraction is OT. OT (and VP) are produced in the hypothalamus, then stored in the posterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary produces PRL, LH, FSH, ACTH, GH, and TSH. The ovary produces progesterone and estrogen. The adrenal cortex produces cortisol. | Biochemistry | Endocrinology | During labor and delivery, a specific hormone causes uterine contractions. This hormone is produced in which one of the following anatomical locations?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Adrenal cortex
| Hypothalamus |
c1367fc0-5dbe-41ab-8c1f-aa57b44699fb | Answer is C (Aneurysm): The most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is rupture of a saccular aneurysm (Saccular aneurysms are synonymous with Berry Aneurysms or 'Circle of Willi's aneurysms' and most commonly occur in the anterior circulation on the Circle of Willis). | Medicine | null | The most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
A. Aeriovenous malformation
B. Cavernous angioma
C. Aneurysm
D. Aneurysm
| Aneurysm |
81efd7a4-2910-4c09-8a5d-5e99afed9b0c | Ans. C. 3 out of 8. (Ref. Park's Textbook of PSM 22nd/834-835).In Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)These (MDG) goals were set in Millennium Summit, New York in September 2000Target year -2015Total Goals - 8Health related are- Goal No. 4, 5, 6.Target - 18Indicators - 48 (18 health related)Priority areas-# Peace, security & disarmament# Development & poverty eradication# Protecting common environment, human right, democracy & good governance# Protecting the vulnerable# Meeting the special needs of Africa# Strengthen UNMillennium Development GoalsThe eight MDGs break down into 21 quantifiable targets that are measured by 60 indicators.Among various indicators few are accepted by Govt, of India few deleted and few modified.Accepted are-Indicator No. 18- HIV prevalence among pregnant women aged 15-24 years.Indicator No. 24- proportion of TB cases detected and cured under DOTS.Deleted are-Indicator No. 19(c) - contraceptive prevalence rateIndicator No. 20- ratio of school attendance of orphans to school attendance of non orphans aged 10-14 years.Rest Indicators are modified. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Miscellaneous | In Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), how many goals are health related?
A. 1 out of 8
B. 2 out of 8
C. 3 out of 8
D. 4 out of 8
| 3 out of 8 |
4a5964f6-5aab-4a82-8d43-92a58ee6882c | Answer is A (Pituitary adenoma): Pituitary adenomas produce excess prolactin which causes hypogonadism, decreased levels of testosterone and explains loss of erection. Pituitary adenomas (Prolactinomas) lead to an excess of prolactin. This inhibits hypothalamic release of LHRII resulting in defective LH & FSH secretion. Defective LH & FSH secretion in turn result in decreased levels of estrogen in females & testosterone in males. This is how prolactin excess can cause hypogaonadism In men prolactin excess can cause In females prolactin excess can cause Decreased Libido, impotence Irregular mensus (amenorrhea) Infeility. Infeility despite regular mensus. This explains this 30 year old male's complaints of loss of erection & his low testosterone & high prolactin levels. Testicular failure explains both loss of erection and low testosterone levels but not the high prolactin levels | Medicine | null | A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection; he has low testosterone and high prolactin level in blood; What is the likely diagnosis:
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Testicular failure
C. Cranio pharyngioma
D. Cushing's syndrome
| Pituitary adenoma |
96a723da-7fe3-49eb-b427-9d6d7f8a095d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Selenium o Selenium prevents lipid peroxidation and offers protection against free radicals,o Vitamin E also has the same effect (antioxidant) though by a different mechanism,o Thus selenium and vitamin E supplement each other.o Availability of vitamin E reduces the selenium requirment and conversely, in selenium-deficient tissue, vitamin E is depleted. | Biochemistry | Nutrition & Digestion | Which of the following trace element has Vitamin E sparing effect -
A. Copper
B. Iron
C. Magnesium
D. Selenium
| Selenium |
8f119578-75b9-42d2-91e2-f6b723556123 | ANSWER: (B) LysineREF: Park 20th edition page 542Cereals are deficient in essential amino acid lysine, maize also being deficient in tryptophan. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Proteins | Cereals are deficient in?
A. Alanine
B. Lysine
C. Methionine
D. Cysteine
| Lysine |
81d663a3-0438-4ec4-aa76-f5aba1d2a9c0 | Micro Wick and Microcatheter are methods of delivery of medications directly to the inner ear. | ENT | null | What is the indication of using Micro Wick and Microcatheter sustained release devices?
A. Drooling of saliva
B. Frey's syndrome
C. Conrol of epistaxis
D. Deliver drug to the round membrane
| Deliver drug to the round membrane |
436867d8-0cf5-44b8-9dd4-32104d25d094 | In a 70 kg normal manThe intracellular compament contains on average about 28 litres of fluid.The extracellular compament contains on average about 14 litres of fluid, of which the interstitial space has approximately 10.5 litres of fluid and intravascular is approximately 3.5 litres.(Ref. Textbook of physiology AK Jain 5th edition page no.24 table 1.3.1) | Physiology | General physiology | ICF is
A. 14 L
B. 20 % of body weight
C. 28 L
D. 33% of body weight
| 28 L |
3f74f6e5-154f-46bf-ba13-7d2c0b8067cb | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Albumino Normally the glomerular filtration layer does not allow any plasma protein to pass through it. But when some renal pathology occurs it allows protein molecules to pass through it, and albumin is the first protein to appear in the urine. So proteinuria is also sometimes called Albuminuria. | Pathology | null | In glomerular disease which of the following is mainly excreted in Urine -
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Light chain
D. Heavy chain
| Albumin |
e151ae47-18b6-41f8-a55b-7868df1a9c59 | Definition of polycythemia: a. Venous haematocrit of over 65%. b. Venous haematocrit of over 64% at 2 hours age. c. An umbilical venous or aerial haematocrit over 63% or more. The mean venous haematocrit of term infants is 53 in cord blood, 60 at 2 hours of age, 57 at 6 hours of age and 52 at 12-18 hours of age. As the haematocrit increases, there is increased viscosity and decreased blood flow. When haematocrit increases to more than 60% there is a fall in O2 transpo. Definition of hyperviscosity: Viscosity greater than 14.6 centipose at a shear rate of 11.55 as measured by a viscometer. (normal is 1.4-1.8 centipoise). | Surgery | null | What is the venous hematocrit level at which you will diagnose polycythemia in a newborn?
A. 55%
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 70%
| 65% |
1a5d04ee-0174-40b8-8438-93d913052436 | THIS IS THE IMAGE OF TRAUGHTMANNS TRIAGNLE REF : GRAYS ANATOMY | Anatomy | All India exam | in the aboove show triangle posteror border is formed by ?
A. bony labrynth
B. sigmoid sinus
C. superior petrosal sinus
D. CAVERNOUS SINUS
| sigmoid sinus |
559565be-e01d-4792-a70f-a3ec0c4c575f | Any fracture, dislocation of bone or dislocation of tooth are grievous injuries. | Forensic Medicine | null | Grievous injuries are -a) Severe bodily pain for 10 daysb) Not able to work for 17 daysc) Dislocation of toothd) Joint dislocatione) Bone fracture
A. cde
B. acd
C. bde
D. ade
| cde |
3334509e-acc1-4ae9-b186-780f42edcc16 | ANSWER: (A) RandomizationREF: Park 20th edition page 68, 69, 70Three key procedures are used to minimize bias in experimental studies: Randomization (against selection bias, blinding (against assessment bias) and a priori definition of the statistical analysis i.e before the results are known (against the analysis bias)(REF: Clinical Research Informatics by Rachel L. Richesson, James E. Andrews Page 68)Two strategies are used to reduce selection bias: allocation concealment and randomization,(REF: Textbook of Interventional Neurology byAdnan I. Qureshi, Alexandros L. Georgiadis 2011 edition Page 456) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiological Study | Selection bias can be eliminated by?
A. Randomization
B. Single blinding
C. Double blinding
D. Matching
| Randomization |
5c4e69f6-fa7a-483c-8dd7-2f8585a52c9d | The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th posterior intercostal veins on the right side of the body. It flows into the azygos vein. The left superior intercostal veins drains the 2nd and 3rd posterior intercostal veins on the left side of the body. It drains into the left brachiocephalic vein B D CHOURASIAS HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX VOLUME, 1 SIXTH EDITION, page no,221 | Anatomy | Thorax | Right superior intercostal vein drains into
A. Brachiocephalic vein
B. Azygos vein
C. Inferior venacava
D. Hemizygos vein
| Azygos vein |
2dcfda03-f526-44db-9b3a-3218c7ab1305 | Ans. D ThyroidRef: I.B. Singh, 9th ed. pg. 116-17* Superior parathyroid is derived from 4th branchial pouch* Inferior parathyroid and thymus develop from 3rd branchial pouch* Most of the thyroid gland develops from thyroglossal duct (endodermal duct at foramen cecum). | Anatomy | Embryology | Which of the following does not develop from branchial pouch?
A. Superior parathyroid
B. Inferior parathyroid
C. Thymus
D. Thyroid
| Thyroid |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.