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Ans. a. Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostal space (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p1599; Schwartz 9/e p138; Bailey 25/e p342)First line of management in tension pneumothorax: Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostal space.'Treatment of tension pneumothorax consists of immediate decompression by rapid insertion of a large-bore needle into the 2nd intercostal space in the mid-clavicular lineQ of the affected hemithorax.'This case is a classical description of tension pneumothorax of right hemithorax with decreased breath sounds and shock. Since patient is shouting it means her airway is clear. Immediate decompression with large bore needle in mid clavicular line in 2nd intercostal space is the urgent treatment for this patient followed by insertion of IV line and fluid administration.Tension PneumothoraxA tension pneumothorax develops when a 'one-way valve' air leak occurs either from the lung or through the chest wallQ.Air is forced into thoracic cavity without any means of escape, completely collapsing the affected lungQ.Mediastinum is displaced to the opposite side, decreasing venous return and compressing the opposite lungQ.Common Causes of Tension Pneumothorax* Penetrating chest traumaQ* Blunt chest traumaQ (with parenchymal injury & air leak that did not spontaneously close)* Iatrogenic lung punctures (e.g. due to subclavian central venepuncture)* Mechanical positive pressure ventilationQClinical Features:Clinical presentation is dramatic.The patient is panicky with tachypnoea. dyspnoea and distended neck veins (similar to pericardial tamponade)Q.Clinical examination can reveal tracheal deviation (a late finding - not necessary' to clinically confirm diagnosis), hyperresonance and absent breath sounds over the affected hemithoraxQ.Diagnosis:Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and treatment should not he delayedQ by waiting for radiological confirmation.Treatment:Treatment consists of immediate decompression by rapid insertion of a large-bore needle into the 2nd intercostal space in the mid-clavicular lineQ of the affected hemithorax.This is immediately followed by insertion of a chest tube through the 5th intercostal space in the anterior axillary lineQ.If the tension in the pleural space is not relieved, the patient is likely to die from inadequate cardiac output or marked hypoxemiaQ.
Surgery
Thoracic Injury
A patient after road traffic accident presented with tension pneumothorax. What is the first line of management? A. Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostal space B. Immediate chest X-ray C. CT scan D. Emergency thoracotomy
Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostal space
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Glutamine o Ammonia is produced in most of the tissues. However, it should be transported to liver as urea cycle (formation of urea) occurs only in liver. Since free ammonia is highly toxic, it is never transported in free form in bloodo Two mechanisms are available for transport of ammonia from the peripheral tissues to the liver.1) In the form of glutamine# In many tissues like liver, kidney and brain, ammonia combines with glutamate to yield glutamine, by the action of glutamine synthase. The brain is a rich source of glutamine synthase and it predominantly detoxifies ammonia by this route.# Glutamine is a nontoxic major transport form of ammonia. The glutamine is transported by blood to liver where deamination (removal of amino group) of glutamine takes place. Glutaminase cleaves glutamine to yield glutamate and free ammonia (ammonium ion). The ammonia is converted by liver to urea.GlutamineH2O-------------GlutaminaseGlutamate + NH4# Formation and secretion ammonia by renal tubular cells maintain acid base balance. Ammonia is formed from glutamine by glutaminase. Excretion of ammonia increases in metabolic acidosis and decreases in metabolic alkalosis.2) In the form of alanine# Alanine transports ammonia from muscles to liver through 'glucose-alanine cycle'.# In muscle, glutamate is formed from ammonia and a-ketoglutarate by reversal of the glutamate dehydrogenase reaction. L-glutamate then transfers its a-amino group to pyruvate by transmination reaction to form alanine.# Alanine is transported to liver. In liver alanine is converted to pyruvate and glutamate by transamination reaction. Glutamate undergoes oxidative deamination to release free ammonia, which is converted to urea. Pyruvate is converted to glucose by gluconeogenesis.
Biochemistry
Urea Cycle and Disorders
Ammonia in brain is trapped by - A. Alanine B. Glutamine C. Ornithine D. Aspartate
Glutamine
00763b4b-5087-4811-8925-5c4e62d27c33
Ans. c. Vellow (Ref: lhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Toxicity_ label)Highly toxic insecticide, according to WHO classification, are coded as Yellow.Toxicity labelsToxicity labels viz: red label, yellow label, blue label and green label are mandatory labels employed on pesticide containers in India identifying the level of toxicity of the contained pesticide.The schemes follows from the Insecticides Act of 1968 and the Insecticides Rules of 1971.The labeling follows a general scheme as laid down in the Insecticides Rules, 1971, and contains information such as brand name, name of manufacturer, name of the antidote in case of accidental consumption etc.A major aspect of the label is a color mark, which represents the toxicity of the material by a color code.Thus the labelling scheme proposes four different colour labels: viz red. yellow, blue, and green.The toxicity classification applies only to pesticides, which are allowed to he sold in India.Some of the classified pesticides may be banned in some states of india, by decision of the state governments. Some of the red-label and yellow-label pesticides were banned in the state of Kerala following the Endosulfan protests of 2011. NameLevel of toxicityOral lethal dose mg/kg body weight of test animalListed chemicalsRed labelExtremely toxic1-50Monocrotophos, zinc phosphide, ethyl mercury acetate, and others.Yellow labelHighly toxic51-500Endosulfan. cartoaryt. quinalphos, and others.Blue labelModerately toxic501-5000Malathion, thiram, glyphosate, and others.Green labelSlightly toxicMore than 5000Mancozeb, oxyfluorfen, mosquito repellant oils and liquids, and most other household insecticides.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
Highly toxic insecticide, according to WHO classification, are coded as: A. Red B. Green C. Yellow D. Blue
Yellow
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Sho stature Defined as height below third centile or more than 2 standard detions below the median height for age and gender according to the population standard. Children whose stature is more than 3 SD below the population mean for age and gender are more likely to be suffering from pathological sho stature as compared to those with stature between -2 and -3SD , who are more likely to be affected by familial or constitutional sho stature. CAUSES:- 1. The most common cause is constitutional. 2. Familial 3. Pathological causes include: Undernutrition Chronic systemic illness Cerebral palsy Congenital hea disease Cystic fibrosis, asthma Malabsorption Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome 4. Endocrine causes include: Growth hormone deficiency Hypothyroidism Cushing syndrome Pseudohypoparathyroidism Precocious or delayed pubey 5. Psychosocial dwarfism 6. Children born small for gestational age. 7. Skeletal dysplasia; achondroplasia, rickets. 8. Genetic syndrome; Turner, Down syndrome. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 9th edition
Pediatrics
Growth and development
The most common etiology of sho stature is? A. Thyroxine deficiency B. Growth hormone deficiency C. Systemic diseases D. Constitutional growth delay
Constitutional growth delay
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dermatitis herpetiformis Immunopathological appearance of vesicobullous disorders* Bullous pemphigoid-Linear band of IgG or C3 in epidermal basement membrane* Pemphigus vulgaris-Cell surface deposits of IgG on keratinocytes* Pemphigus foliaceous-Cell surface deposits of IgG on keratinocytes* Pemphigoid gestationis-Linear band of C3 in epidermal basement membrane zone* Dermatitis herpetiformis-Granular deposits of IgA in dermal papillae* Chronic bullous disease of childhood-IgA deposits along the dermoepidermal junction* Linear IgA dermatosis of adults-Linear deposits of IgA at dermoepidermal junction
Unknown
null
Which of the following shows deposition of IgA in dermal papilla - A. Dermatitis herpetiformis B. IgA papillomatosis of childhood C. Bullous pemphigoid D. Gestational herpes
Dermatitis herpetiformis
a1201ff6-7397-443e-ab41-ef0eb36c0d6a
Ans. is 'a'- i.e., Cystic duct o The mucous membrane of the cystic duct forms a series of 5-12 crescentic folds, arranged spirally to form the so called spiral valve of Heister. This is not a true valve.o This question is a direct repeat from NBE based AI-2013
Anatomy
Hepatobiliary System
Valve of heister is seen in - A. Cystic duct B. Common bile duct C. Common hepatic duct D. Pancreatic duct
Cystic duct
66b82d7e-d09c-4a3e-b760-feca47a1ad17
Nitroprusside is a mixed dilator and is highly effective agent against ergot induced vasospasm. It is also the drug of choice for most of the hypeensive emergencies.
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
Which of the following is most useful for reversing severe ergot induced vasospasm? A. Ergotamine B. Methysergide C. Nitroprusside D. Phenoxybenzamine
Nitroprusside
0f7b3396-a3fa-42d7-92a7-21bb52a7ecc0
Ans. A i.e. Malaria Man is an intermediate host in Plasmodium Echinococcus Tinea solium Toxoplasma gondi
Microbiology
null
Man is an intermediate host in life cycle of: September 2004 A. Malaria B. Tuberculosis C. Filariasis D. Relapsing fever
Malaria
571bc1de-a01a-49dd-918f-3c9148d12cfb
MC common tumor of Middle Mediastinum: Lymphoma. MC common mass of Middle Mediastinum: Brachogenic cyst***.
Surgery
null
Most common tumor of middle mediastinum: A. Pericardial cyst B. Aneurysm C. Mesenchymal tumors D. Lymphoma
Lymphoma
d2639fbf-9bcb-4d81-8092-37625b3baa06
Commonest area of # causing CSF Rhinorrhea → cribriform plate of ethmoid bone as it is extremely thin. Other possible areas of # causing CSF Rhinorrhea Frontal sinus (Posterior wall) or of the anterior cranial fossa. Difference between CSF Rhinorrhea & allergic or vasomotor rhinitis CSF contains glucose which can be demonstrated by chemical tests. CSF when collected into a test tube and allowed to stand, it remains clear in contradistinction to nasal discharge that leaves a sediment because of mucus and other proteins. Nasal discharge stiffens the handkerchief and CSF dries soft in it. Treatment: Prophylactic antibiotics & X-ray * If more than 2 wks then correct it surgically.
ENT
null
CSF Rhinorrhea occurs d/t A. Roof of orbit B. Frontal sinus C. Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone D. Sphenoid bone
Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone
cdecebd7-fc63-4eee-8918-b89acb4c65f6
Refer kDT 6/e p 534 Angiotensin receptor blocker like losaan and Beta blocker like my temporal all are cardioprotective in congestive hea failure. This decrease the moality Nicorandil is a potassium channel openers used in angina. It is cardioprotective in causing ischaemic preconditioning Rofecoxib is a selective COX 2 inhibitors. That was withdrawn due to increased risk of myocardial infarction
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
Which of the following associated with the highest cardiac moality A. Rofecoxib B. Nicorandil C. Losaan D. Metaprolol
Rofecoxib
ff68eadb-a891-49c6-a990-70522e31c63d
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lead o Effective preventive measure for high risk group e.g., X-ray technician is to use lead shields and lead rubber aprons.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Radiation protection shields are made up of- A. Copper B. Silver C. Lead D. Tin
Lead
a2697d3c-6709-4924-a6a2-3cb896359544
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 50-80 mm of H20 CSF finding Pressure - 50-80 mm of H20 Leucocyte - < 5, . 75% lymphocyte Protein - 20-45 mg/dl Glucose - > 50 (2/3 of serum glucose
Pediatrics
null
Normal intracranial pressure in a child is ? A. 30-70 mm of H20 B. 50-80 mm of H20 C. 100-150 mm of H20 D. 50-150 mm of H20
50-80 mm of H20
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Placenta pre can be associated with several other conditions, including malpresentation, unstable lie, preterm premature rupture of membranes, and intrauterine growth restriction. There may also be an increased risk of congenital anomalies; however, there is no association with any specific anomaly. Ref: Wagner S.A. (2013). Chapter 18. Third-Trimester Vaginal Bleeding. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
At 34 weeks multigravida with previous 2 normal delivery has an unstable lie with the present pregnancy. It can be due to: A. Oligohydramnios B. Placenta pre C. Pelvic tumor D. Uterine anomalies
Placenta pre
da12f59e-3afb-44a4-8a1e-1107246d6fd3
The commonest cause of Acute otitis media is Streptococcus pneumoniae in all age groups.Other agents- H. Influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Pseudomonas.Ref: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg: 149
ENT
Ear
The commonest cause of acute otitis media in children is A. H influenza B. S pneumonia C. S aureus D. Pseudomonas
S pneumonia
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Most specific indicator of liver injury is: ALT: SGPT (product present in cytosol that come in blood due to injury) AST: SGOT, present in cardiac tissue/liver so it's not specific SAP: (Cholestasis marker) Do not indicate hepatocyte necrosis 5' nucleotidase: Cholestasis marker
Medicine
Hepatic encephalopathy & hepatic failure
Most specific indicator of liver injury? A. ALT B. AST C. SAP D. 5' nucleotidase
ALT
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Ans is 'b' i.e. Benzodiazepines Treatment of Panic disorders* Two most effective treatment are:-A. Pharmacotherapy : - The cornerstone of drug therapy is antidepressants. SSRIs (Fluoxetine or other) are the preferred agents. Because therapeutic effect of antidepressants takes some time to develop, initially Benzodiazepines are given along with antidepressants to provide immediate relief from anxiety and panic attack. So, DOC of acute panic attack is benzodiazepine.Drug used for Panic disordersi) SSRIs: - Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertaline, Fluvoxamine, Citalopram.ii) TCAs: - Clomipramine, imipramine.iii) BZDs: - Alprazolam, Clonazepam, Diazepam, Lorazepam.iv) MAOIs: - Tranylcypromine, Phenelzinev) RIMAs: - Moclobemide, Brofaraminevi) Atypical antidepressants: - Venalafaxinevii) Other: - Valproic acid, inositolB. Cognitive - Behavioral therapy: - Combination of cognitive or behavioral therapy with pharamacotherapy is more effective than either approach alone.* Other therapies include family therapy, insight-oriented psychotherapy (psychoanalysis and psychodynamic therapy).Remember* Drug of choice for panic disorders - SSRIs* Drug of choice for acute panic attack - Benzodiazepines
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
Treatment of choice for panic attack is? A. Beta blockers B. Benzodiazepines C. TCAs D. Neuroleptics
Benzodiazepines
b3d081d4-b51c-4563-9aae-f1324c0ce1a5
Carbetocin is a newer longer acting analogue of oxytocin . Now a days oxytocin use is reduced and this newer acting analogue is being used. Ref: katzung 12th ed, endocrinology.
Pharmacology
All India exam
One of the longer acting analogue among uterine stimulants A. Di hydro ergotamine B. Carbetocin C. Atosiban D. Magnesium salts
Carbetocin
a075c7cc-0efd-4b2d-a1d6-936e0e8f9a5c
Pethidine (Meperidine) is metabolized to form normeperidine (long half life) which is excreted by the kidney. Administration of pethidine to a patient with Chronic Renal Failure causes toxic accumulation of this metabo­lite and is hence contraindicated.
Anaesthesia
null
Which of the following anaesthetic drugs is contraindicated in chronic renal failure – A. Morphine B. Fentanyl C. Pethidine D. Atracurium
Pethidine
3efdbf8b-b01c-4d6c-8571-fa3a363f3996
Answer is A (SA Node) The rate of impulse generation/rate of discharge is highest in the SA node. Note: Highest Rate of impulse generation in seen in : SA NodeQ Highest Rate of conduction is seen in : Purkinje SystemQ
Medicine
null
Highest rate of impulse generation is given in: A. SA node B. AV node C. Bundle of HIS D. Purkinje system
SA node
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IMPOANT FETAL SKULL PARAMETERS Sub occpito brematic 9.5 cms : Sub mento bregmatic 9.5 cms Biparietal diameter 9.5 cms Mento veical 14 cms Submento veical 10cms Bi temporal diameter 8 cms Bimastoid: 7.5 cms
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Obstetrics
The shoest diameter in fetal head is: A. Biparietal diameter B. Bimastoid diameter C. Occipito frontal diameter D. Bitemporal Diameter
Bimastoid diameter
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Ans. B i.e. Fictitious child Supposititious children are fraudulent offspring. These arose when an heir was required and so a suitable baby might be procured and passed off as genuine.
Forensic Medicine
null
Supposititious child is: March 2013 (d, h) A. Illegitimate child B. Fictitious child C. Battered child D. Posthumous child
Fictitious child
f4d4c6cf-7952-4b8a-97e3-10cee2b5e8eb
Ans: (b) PTENRef: WHO, FGT, Page 29-34Going with PTEN because it's the most common one mutated (Ref: WHO - >50%). P53 mutation is seen only in type 2 carcinomas, incidence of which is less. PTEN is seen in both type 1 and type 2 carcinomas.FeaturesType 1Type 2Prototypic formEndometrioid carcinomaUterine (papillary) serous carcinomaTypical patientPerimenopausal or early postmenopausal womenElderly women Background of endometrial hyperplasiaBackground of atrophic endometrium Low-gradeHigh-grade Estrogen-dependentNot estrogen-dependentEstrogen receptorUsually positive; high grade cases may be negativeNegativeMIB1 proliferation index (ki-67)LowHighp53Negative; high grade cases may be positiveDiffuse positivity
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Carcinoma Endometrium
A 50-year-old woman who was obese and hypertensive, came with complaints of bleeding and abdomen pain, diagnosed to be endometrial cancer. Which of the following gene is mutated? A. P53 B. PTEN C. Beta catenin D. CHD4
PTEN
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Immunoglobulins constitute 20 to 25% of total serum proteins. Based on physiochemical and antigenic differences, five classes of immunoglobulins have been recognized: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE.(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p93)
Pathology
All India exam
What is the percentage of immunoglobulins present in proteins A. 5-10% B. 10-15% C. 15-20% D. 20-25%
15-20%
97c3257d-4e42-40d1-86bf-2f44c89ed699
Complication of recurrent packed RBC transformation - Acute lung injury (due to release of cytokines) - TRALI (transfusion related acute lung injury) (mainly due to donor antibodies) - G.V.H.D can be prevented by used of leucodepeleted blood or irradiated blood.
Medicine
Blood Bank & Transfusion Therapy
Which of these is not a complication of recurrent packed RBC transfusion? A. Circulatory overload B. Acute lung injury C. Jaundice D. Diarrhoea
Circulatory overload
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Ans. (a) Angioarcoma(Ref. Sabiston page 842,20th edition)* Angiosarcoma most commonly follows RT to the axilla.* Characterized by Bluish purple nodule clinically
Surgery
Breast
Most common type of sarcoma of breast A. Angiosarcoma B. Rhabdomyosarcoma C. Kaposi sarcoma D. Synovial
Angiosarcoma
ac85f7d0-73fe-497a-9bd8-0955136c060c
A i.e. Needling & aspiration Surgical techniques employed for removal of paediatric (congenital or developmental) cataract include - lens aspirationQ, lens aspiration with anterior vitrectomy, lensectomy ( limbal or pars plana route), and extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE) preferrably by phacoemulsificationQ. Presently the technique of intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE), discission (needling) and linear extraction (curette evacuation) are obsolete procedures and sparingly performed world wide. Surgery in pediatric patients involve anterior capsulorrhexis, aspiration of lens matter, capsulorrhexis of posterior capsule, limited anterior vitrectomy, and IOL implantationQ, if appropriate. Method Advantage Disadvantage Indication Lens Limbal route + either single Can implant IOL in Theoretical risk of Preferred method aspiration incision or two po bimanual bag and manoeuvre astigmatism & when intraocular technique + 5mm anterior capsulorrhexis with poorly dilated pupil endothelial loss lens implanted Q Lens Limbal route + 5mm anterior Reduces chances of Risk of cystoid Preferred method in aspiration and 4 mm planned posterior posterior capsular macular oedema infants less than 2 with anterior vitrectomy capsulorrhexis + anterior vitrectomy opacification years Lensectomy Limbal or Pars plana route. The No posterior - Incarceration of the In neonates & lens is completely eaten away capsular vitreous in the infants less than 2 with a vitrectomy instrument + opacification scleral incision years of age but is peripheral rim of capsule for - Risk of retinal not preferred by secondary lens implanation is left by some surgeon. detachment some surgeons - Surgery hindered if pupil constricted
Ophthalmology
null
Treatment of congenital cataract is: A. Needing and aspiration B. Intracapsular extraction C. Extracapsular extraction D. Cryotherapy
Needing and aspiration
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The most common mutation in hereditary hemochromatos is a homozygous G to A mutation resulting in a cysteine to tyrosine substitution at position 282 (C282Y). Another relatively common mutation (H63D) results in a substitution of histidine to aspaic acid at codon 63. Mutations like transferrin receptor 2 TFR2 mutation and ferropoin 1 gene, SLC11A3 mutation are rare. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 3162
Pathology
null
MOST common mutation seen in heriditary hemochromatosis is: A. C282Y B. H63D C. TFR2 D. SLC11A3
C282Y
7a23db2f-b032-482a-ae09-ee0bda97951a
Answer is A (Bacillus cereus) Bacillus cereus causes non invasive diarrhea secondary to small bowel hypersecretion, as a result of preformed bacterial toxins. Rotavirus, Aeromonas sp and Shigella are all invasive organism known to cause invasive diarrhea.
Medicine
null
Which of the following organism does not cause invasive diarrhea A. Bacillus cereus B. Aeromonassp C. Rota virus D. Shigella
Bacillus cereus
d9f7d981-a99b-4357-bcbe-8cc674d143b5
The superego develops at approximately the time a child starts first grade (6 years of age). The superego controls id (the sexual and aggressive aspects of the mind) impulses and represents moral values and con­science. The ego (the personality) and the id develop at earlier ages. The unconscious and the conscious minds also develop at earlier ages.
Unknown
null
Which of the following parts of the mind develops at approximately the time a child starts first grade? A. Ego B. Unconscious C. Superego D. Conscious
Superego
8bb39455-6d29-46b4-bda5-1ddb36c73cde
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rotor syndrome Breast milk jaundice -o Decrease bilirubin uptake across hepathocyte membrane.o Entero-hepatic recirculation,o Leads to indirect hyperbilirubinemia.Rotor syndrome & Dubin-Johnson syndrome - (Nelson 17th/e Chapter 354)o Defect in hepatocyte secretion of conjugated bilirubin,o Leads to direct hyperbilirubinemia.
Pediatrics
Liver and Biliary System
Causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is - A. Rotor syndrome B. Breast milk jaundice C. Crigler najjar syndrome D. Gilbert syndrome
Rotor syndrome
7cfc068a-0004-4f06-994f-748c0e50a3ce
2%, 4% and 8% buffered glutaraldehyde solutions can be used.  2% is used for pulpotomies in primary teeth. The recommended time for 4% is 4 min and 8% is 2 min.
Dental
null
Recommend time for using8% glulataraldehyde for pulpotomy: A. 30sec B. 1minute. C. 2minute. D. 4minute
2minute.
f0a5d913-403a-4e57-a8a1-7734e26eea28
Ans. B. ErythrasmaERYTHRASMA is caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum. It is a chronic superficial bacterial infection of skin involving the body folds and toe, webs, sometimes becoming generalized. It is characterized by presence of sharply demarcated, dry, brown slightly scaly and slowly spreading patches.SOME IMPORTANT NAMED DISEASES:DISEASECAUSATIVE AGENTPiroplasmosis/Texas feverBabesiaKatayama diseaseSchisto. JaponicumOmsk feverFlaviviridaeGaol feverRick. ProwazekiPink eyeH. aegyptiacusBaghdad sore/Delhi boil/Oriental soreLeishmania tropicaCarrions disease/Peruvian wartBartonella bacilliformisHebra noseKlebs. RhinoscleromatisMilker's nodeParavacciniaVagabonds diseasePediculosis corporisBuruli ulcerMycobact. ulceransCoconut cake rectumTrichuris trichiuraPseudohemoptysisSerratiaWalking pneumoniaMycoplasma pneumoniaPontiac feverLegionellaWeil's diseaseLeptospira interrogansCanicola feverLeptospira canicolaTinea imbricateTrichophyton concentricumPresternal edemaMumps virusPMLEJC virusDuncan's diseaseEBVCold soreHSVOrfParapox virusMedian rhomboid glossitisCandida albicansRed diaper syndromeSerratia marcesans
Skin
Bacterial Infection of Skin
Corynebacterium minutissimum causes? A. Erysipelas B. Erythrasma C. Erythema ab igne D. Erythroplasia
Erythrasma
9942c7f1-5c2b-4ec9-a218-8f4e38875cbe
Mechanism of action of antiemetic drugs are: Anticholinergic e.g hyoscine H1 antihistaminics e.g promethazine,diphenyhydramine,cyclizine. 5-HT3 antagonists e.g ondansetrone,granisetron Prokinetics. 5HT4 agonists e.g cisapride. Motilin agonist e.g erythromycin. CTZ contains histamine dopamine,cholinergic,opioid and serotonin receptors.antiemetic acts by inhibiting the receptors at CTZ.( ref KDT 6/e p643)
Pharmacology
Gastrointestinal tract
Antiemetic action is produced through: A. Decreased CTZ stimulation B. H1 agonistic action C. D1 antagonistic action D. Olfactory apparatus stimulation
Decreased CTZ stimulation
459a3562-0631-4c95-8a22-8ef2d2c447fc
Methemoglobinemia is seen with benzocaine, prilocaine and with EMLA.
Anaesthesia
null
Methemoglobinemia is seen with A. Tetracaine B. Prilocaine C. Bupivacaine D. Procaine
Prilocaine
3dfb4db7-65a3-4bfc-ac88-f1fd1310faf1
Fluoroquinolones:- * Gemifloxacin is a third generation fluoroquinolone having absolute oral bioavailability. * All third generation fluoroquinolones: Sparfloxacin, Gatifloxacin and Gemifloxacin have 100% oral biovailability. * Among the Fluoroquinolones, Norfloxacin has the least oral bioavailability. Ref:- HL & KK Sharma's Principles of Pharmacology 3rd Ed; Pg Num:- 724
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
Fluoroquinolone with highest oral bioavailability A. Gemifloxacin B. Norfloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Levofloxacin
Gemifloxacin
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Lithium is stopped 24- 48 hour prior to surgery. Lithium potentiates neuromuscular blockers thus stopped prior to surgery
Anaesthesia
Monitoring in Anesthesia
A patient on oral lithium therapy posted for surgery what is the recommendation. A. Continue till the day of Sx B. Stop 24 - 48 hours prior To Sx C. Stop 48-72 hours prior to Sx D. Stop 1 week prior to Sx
Stop 24 - 48 hours prior To Sx
e494c6ed-4ba0-4fbf-92d6-5d9977a67a19
Ans. D: 2 protons, 2 neutrons Alpha paicles are simple helium nuclei (i.e. consisting of 2 protons and 2 neutrons) Remember: Alpha rays: Most ionizing Gamma rays: Maximum penetration power Cesium-137, cobalt and radium emits predominantly: Gamma rays
Radiology
null
Alpha paicle has: September 2011 A. 1 proton, 2 neutrons B. 1 proton, 1 neutron C. 2 protons, 1 neutron D. 2 protons, 2 neutrons
2 protons, 2 neutrons
6830be79-cda3-4cc8-8b94-5f3a52bd2343
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Von Gierke disease Liver glycogenoses |Hypoglycemia| | |HepatomegalyCirrhosis|||| |RenomegalyHypoglycemia unresponsive to glucagon/epinephrineNo renomegaly Hypoglycemia corrected by glucagon/epinephrineType IV(Anderson) (Abnormal glycogen structure)||| | | Von Gierke's disease (Type I) (Normal glycogen structure)Abnormal glycogen structure Normalglycogen structure | | Type III (Cori/Forbe/limit dextrinosis)Type VI (Hers)
Biochemistry
Glycogen Metabolism and Glycogen Storage
Most common glycogen storage disease presenting with hypoglycemia and normal glycogen structure - A. Von Gierke disease B. Pompe's disease C. Me Ardle's disease D. Forbe's disease
Von Gierke disease
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Hydrolysis of sucrose (optical rotation +66.5deg) will produce one molecule of glucose (+52.5deg) and one molecule of fructose (-92deg). Therefore the products will change the dextrorotation to levorotation, or the plane of rotation is inveed. Equimolecular mixture of glucose and fructose thus formed is called inve sugar. The enzyme producing hydrolysis of sucrose is called sucrase or invease. Honey contains inve sugar. Inve sugar is sweeter than sucrose.Ref: DM Vasudevan, page no: 68
Biochemistry
nutrition and digestion
The brush border bound hydrolase linked with sucrase is A. Alpha dextrinase B. Glucose hydrolase C. Trehalase D. Alpha fructase
Alpha dextrinase
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parks textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *among the commonly used nuts ,cashewnut and almonds are good source of iron,but pistachio is the richest containing 14mg of iron per 100g .
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
Maximum iron is in which nut ? A. Pista B. Cashew C. Peanut D. Walnut
Pista
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Samster's triad : Nasal polyp Bronchial asthma Asprin sensitivity Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 510.
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
Samter's triad include sensitivity to which drug? A. Ibuprofen B. Indomethacin C. Aspirin D. Ketorolac
Aspirin
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*Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease or Albers- Schonberg disease. *Paget's disease is known as Osteitis deformans. *Osteogenesis imperfecta is known as Brittle bone disease. *Osteoporosis is known as Fragile bone disease. Ref: Maheshwari 9th/e p.307
Orthopaedics
Metabolic and endocrine disorders
which of the following is Marble bone disease ? A. Osteoporosis B. Paget's disease C. Osteopetrosis D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteopetrosis
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(B) Thermophilic actinomycetes # FARMER'S LUNG is due to the inhalation of mouldy hay or grain dust. In grain dust or hay with a moisture content of over 30 per cent bacteria and fungi grow rapidly, causing a rise of temperature to 40 to 50deg C.This heat encourages the growth of thermophilic actinomycetes, of which Micropolyspora faerti is the main cause of farmer's lung.# OTHER FORMS OF PNEUMOCONIOSIS: Coalworker's pneumoconiosis (also known as miner's lung, black lung or anthracosis) -- coal, carbon Asbestosis -- asbestos Silicosis (also known as "grinder's disease" or Potter's rot, or when related to silica inhaled from the ash of an erupting volcano, Pneu-mono ultramicroscopic silico-volcanoconiosis) -- crystalline silica dust Bauxite fibrosis -- Bauxite Berylliosis--Beryllium Siderosis--Iron Byssinosis -- Cotton Silicosiderosis -- mixed dust containing silica and iron Labrador lung (found in miners in Labrador, Canada) -- mixed dust containing iron, silica and anthophyllite, a type of asbestos Stannosis -- Tin oxide
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
Farmer's lung result from exposure to A. Aspergillus B. Thermophilic actinomycetes C. Cotton dust D. Silica
Thermophilic actinomycetes
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ORSThe aim of oral rehydration therapy is to prevent dehydration and reduce moality.Oral fluid therapy is based on the observation that glucose given orally enhances the intestinal absorption of salt and water and is capable of correcting electrolyte and water deficit.At first the composition of oral rehydration salt recommended by WHO was sodium bicarbonate based. The inclusion of trisodium citrate in place of sodium bicarbonate made the product more stable and it resulted in less stool output especially in high output diarrhoea, probably because of the direct effect of trisodium citrate in increasing intestinal absorption of sodium and water.More recently an improved ORS formulation has been developed which is safe and effective as the original in preventing and treating diarrhoeal dehydration. It is focussed on reducing the osmolarity of ORS solution to avoid adverse effects of hypeonicity on net fluid absorption by reducing the concentration of glucose and sodium chloride in the solution.A freshly prepared ORS should be used before 24hrs.Decreasing the sodium concentration of ORS solution to 75 mOsm/l improved the efficacy of ORS regimen for children with acute non-cholera diarrhoea.Reduced osmolarity ORS:-(g/L)Sodium chloride- 2.6Glucose,anhydrous- 13.5Potassium chloride- 1.5Trisodium citrate,dihydrate-2.9Total =20.5 g/LReduced osmolarity ORS:-(mmol/L)Sodium-75Chloride-65Glucose,anhydrous-75Potassium-20Citrate-10Total = 245 mmol/LGuidelines for oral rehydration therapy in first four hours(as per weight)1. Under 5 kg:200-400 ml2. 5-7.9 kg: 400-600 ml3. 8-10.9 kg : 600-800 ml4. 11-15.9 kg: 800-1200 ml5. 16-29.9 kg: 1200-2200 ml6. 30/ above: 2200-4000 ml{Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.224}
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
ORS required during 4 hours in a 20 kg child A. 200-400 ml B. 400-600 ml C. 600-800 ml D. 1200-2200 ml
1200-2200 ml
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Ans- is 'a' i.e., Bronchial Artery Schwartz writes -"Cavitary lesions are characteristic pathological lesion in pulmonary tuberculosis. Due to intense inflammatory process in the periphery of cavity, hypertrophy of bronchial arterial and pulmonary arterial branches occur. These hypertrophied arterial branches can be eroded by the necrotizing process occurring in the centre of the cavity. This causes Hemoptysis"Between these two the vessels, most frequently responsible for hemoptyses is a dilated bronchial arterial brancho Massive hemoptysis due to active T.B. can occur in the setting of cavitary or noncavitory lesions,o The cause of the bleeding is usually bronchial ulceration with necrosis of adjacent blood vessels and distal alveoli# This type of bleeding is from the bronchial arterial circulation.o Less often active T.B. may cause sudden rupture of Rasmussen s aneurusm.o This is an aneurysm ofpulmonary artery that slowly expands because of inflammatory erosion of external wall until it bursts.
Medicine
Blood
The artery most frequntly responsible for bleeding in massive hemoptysis is- A. Bronchial Artery B. Pulmonary Artery C. Interseginental .Artery D. Interostal Artry
Bronchial Artery
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Answer is B (Alpo's syndrome): Alpo's syndrome is an inherited disorder characterized by hereditary nephritis, sensorineural deafness and ocular abnormalities paicularly lenticonus.
Medicine
null
Association of deafness & nephritis is seen in A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Alpo's syndrome C. Fabry's disease D. Lawrence Moon Biedl syndrome
Alpo's syndrome
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Ans. is d i.e Disruption of cell membrane Spermicides : "Spermicides are contraceptive chemical agents. They comprise,of a chemical capable of destroying sperm, incororated into an ine base. The commonly used spermicidal agents contgain nonionic surfactants which alter sperm surface membrane permeability, causing osmotic changes resulting in killing of sperm. Most of the spermicides contain nonoxynol-9 which is the best for this purpose."
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Spermicidal jelly acts through : A. Acrosomal enzyme B. Cervical enzyme alteration C. Glucose uptake inhibition by sperms D. Disruption of cell membrane
Disruption of cell membrane
4aa9c145-99e7-4fd8-b45c-e0e1ede1f775
Answer is C (Proteins): Prions are infectious proteins devoid of any nucleic acid (RNA or DNA)
Medicine
null
Prions include: A. DNA and RNA B. Only RNA C. Proteins D. Only DNA
Proteins
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Hepatitis A virus belongs to Enterovirus (picomavirus family) and was originally designated as “enterovirus-72” Hepatitis ‘A' virus  HAV is a non enveloped RNA virus.  It is classified in genus Hepatovirus under family picomavirus.  Originally called as enterovirus 72.  It is the only human hepatitis virus which can be cultivated in vitro. It can be grown in some human and simian cell cultures.  Most common cause of acute hepatitis in children.  Transmission is by the fecal-oral route. The virus is shed in feces during the late incubation period and the prodromal phase of the illness. Maybe present occasionally in the saliva and urine of patients, but this is not relevant in the spread. Prophylaxis Both passive and active prophylaxis are available. Passive prophylaxis by pooled normal human immunoglobulin is given IM before exposure or in the early incubation period. Active prophylaxis is by a conjugate vaccine containing HAV (inactivated by formalin) grown in human diploid cell culture.
Microbiology
null
Enterovirus 72 is A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis E C. Hepatitis G D. Hepatitis C
Hepatitis A
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Multiple sclerosis It is a demyelinating disorder of unknown etiology, affecting women more often than men, usually in the 15-50 years age group. Pathologically, the condition is characterised by a patchy destruction of the myelin sheaths throughout the central nervous system. Clinical course of the condition: It is marked by remissions and relapses. In this condition, optic neuritis is usually unilateral. Other ocular lesions include bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia and vestibular or cerebellar nystagmus. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:- 310
Ophthalmology
Ocular motility and squint
The common cause of bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia is A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Lead toxicity D. Diphtheria
Multiple sclerosis
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Ans: a (Auditory pathway) Ref: IB Singh 6th ed/p. 107Trapezoid body is concerned with auditory pathway.Auditory Pathway:First order neurons start from the spiral ganglion and end in the dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei.From there, the second order neurons end in superior olivary nucleus of both sides. Some fibres do not relay in superior olivary nucleus, instead go through the Trapezoid body.From both the trapezoid body and superior olivary nuclei, the fibres pass through the lateral lemniscus, to reach the inferior colliculus.From there, it goes to the medial geniculate body and is projected to superior temporal gyrus. Note:-Fibres arising from the ventral cochlear nucleus pass through the trapezoid body.Some fibres arising from the dorsal cochlear nucleus does not pass through the trapezoid body and project directly into the superior colliculus.Superior olivary nucleus receives fibres from both cochlea (bilateral).Fibres from both dorsal and ventral cochlear nucleireach superior olivary nucleus.
Physiology
Nervous System
Trapezoid body is associated with A. Auditory pathway B. Visual pathway C. Touch pathway D. Pain pathway
Auditory pathway
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In this above case, the history raises the suspicion of dowry death. Such death under peculiar circumstances can be investigated by the orders of the Magistrate. Section 176 CrPc is concerned with Magistrate's Inquest. This section of the law deals with the inquiry of the Magistrate into the cause of the death. A magistrate's inquest is conducted by : a. District Magistrate - Collector / Deputy Commissioner b. Sub-divisional Magistrate (RDO) c. Tahsildar d. Any other Executive Magistrate - especially empowered by the State Government. The Magistrate's inquest is conducted for the following cases : 1. Death under police custody 2. Rape under police custody 3. Death during police interrogation 4. Death due to police firing 5. Death in prison 6. Death in Reformatories 7. Death in Borstal school 8. Death in a psychiatric hospital 9. Sudden disappearance of a person 10. Dowry death 11. Suicide of a woman within seven years of her marriage 12. Exhumation - to conduct examination of the buried body of the victim Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 5-6, 255, 258-259; Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Krishan Vij, 5th Edition, Pages 169, 206; Concise Textbook Of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Sharma, 2nd Edition, Page 102.
Forensic Medicine
null
The parents of a dead woman complained that their daughter's in-laws used to demand for dowry frequently. Their daughter had died within 5 years of marriageunder suspicious circumstances. The magistrate can authorize the autopsy of this case under which of the following sections: A. Section 302 IPC B. Section 174 CrPc C. Section 304 IPC D. Section 176 CrPc
Section 176 CrPc
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Ans. is 'd' Recurrent manic depressive attacks Lithium is used in prophylaxis of manic depressive illness.
Psychiatry
Bipolar Disorder
Lithium is used in prophylaxis of A. Recurrent phobia B. Alcohol dependence C. Paranoid Schizophrenia D. Recurrent manic depressive attacks
Recurrent manic depressive attacks
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Pubic symphysis - 12 week Umbilicus - 24 weeks Xiphoid process - 36 weeks 1-2 finger width below costal arch - 40 weeks Please note that these are rough estimates of fundal height and their correlation with the gestational age> These can vary significantly if the patient is very thin or very obese.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Physiological Changes of Pregnancy
At 24 Weeks the fundus height reaches to :- A. At level of umbilicus B. Midway between symphysis pubis to umbilicus C. Midway between umbilicus to xiphi sternum D. At Xiphi sternum
At level of umbilicus
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Amount of Protein present in 100ml of breast milk is: 1.1 g/dl
Pediatrics
JIPMER 2019
Amount of Protein present in 100ml of breast milk is A. 2.2 g B. 1.1 g C. 0.55g D. 3.3g
1.1 g
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kyasanur foerst disease a hemorrhagic fever found in karnataka. It is arboviral disease REF:ANANTHANARYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.524
Microbiology
Virology
Following are Arboviral diseases - A. KFD B. West Nile Fever C. Ganjam virus D. RSV
KFD
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The clinical picture is suggestive of leptospirosis. Hence, the drug to be prescribed in this case is penicillin. Following points are in or of leptospirosis: A sewer (an underground conduit for carrying off drainage water and waste matter) worker Signs of meningismus Laboratory diagnosis of renal failure and elevated liver enzymes (Weil's disease) Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
Microbiology
Bacteriology
A sewer worker presents with highgrade fever, neck rigidity, and signs of meningismus. Laboratory findings are suggestive of renal failure and elevated liver enzymes. The most appropriate drug to be prescribed in this case is ____ A. Ciprofloxacin B. Pencillin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Azithromycin
Pencillin
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Ans. B: Life expectancy excluding disability free period This index (expectation of life free of disability) is computed by subtracting from the the life expectancy the probable duration of bed disability and inability to perform major activities, according to cross-sectional data from the population surveys. It is one of the most advanced indicators of disability rates currently available.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Sullivan index denotes: September 2006 A. Life expectancy at bih B. Life expectancy excluding disability free period C. Contraceptive failure rate D. Hookworm density in stool
Life expectancy excluding disability free period
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Wound Strength Carefully sutured wounds have approximately 70% of the strength of normal skin When sutures are removed, usually at 1 week, wound strength is approximately 10% of that of unwounded skin this increases rapidly over the next 4 weeks Wound strength reaches approximately 70% to 80% of normal by 3 month never regain 100% strength ref:-basic pathology, Robbins 9th ed, page 72
Pathology
General pathology
Complete wound strength is gained by? A. Never regained B. 1 month C. 6 months D. 1 year
Never regained
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Disease under international surveillance Rabies Malaria Relapsing fever Human Influenza Salmonellosis Typhus fever (Louse borne) Poliomyelitis
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Disease not included under International surveillance A. Yellow fever B. Poliomyelitis C. Malaria D. Relapsing fever
Yellow fever
261fbdbc-cfd3-4027-9ce7-6dde7e791c47
Ans. (A) Cesarean section(Ref: DC Dutta's Text book of Obstertics 8th Ed; Page No 751)The given image is Doyen's Retractor.Material: Stainless steelSterilization: AutoclavingUses:#ObstetricCesarean sectionCesarean hysterectomyf Exploratory laparotomy for ruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy#GynecologicAbdominal hysterectomyWertheim's hysterectomyTuboplastySling operationPurandare's cervicopexyExploratory laparotomy for ovarian tumorsMyomectomy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Operative Obs
The given below instrument used in: A. Cesarean section B. Vaginal hysterectomy C. Fothergill surgery D. Suction evacuation
Cesarean section
5bd5d445-0715-4735-b4e7-21e1ee9f20a3
Bone conduction is a measure of cochlear function. This is tested either by Schwabach test or absolute bone conduction test or audiometrically by placing the vibrator on the mastoid bone. Decreased bone conduction or loss of it indicates hypoactive or non-functioning cochlea. All other conditions listed in (a), (b) and (c) cause conductive hearing loss with cochlear function remaining normal.
ENT
Ear
Decreased bone conduction in an audiogram indicates: A. Tympanic membrane perforation B. Ossicular dislocation C. Ossicular fixation D. Damage to cochlea
Damage to cochlea
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The ECG pattern in the left sided group has been more conspicuous and more striking, and has consisted of a lower voltage of QRS-1, flattening of T waves in Lead 1, a change in the contour of QRS complexes in the chest leads, and a definite inversion of T waves in the chest leads; these T wave inversions being the most constant and conspicuous of all changes. There will be right axis detion with Q waves in the anterior leads. It may mimic acute myocardial infarction. The ECG pattern in the right sided group has been mainly depression of QRS-1, and depression of P waves in the limb leads. T inversion has been notably absent.
Medicine
null
Which is not a finding in a massive left sided pneumothorax? A. Absent R wave B. T wave inversion C. ST segment change D. Left axis detion
Left axis detion
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Specific protection o Option 'c' is also correct because specific protection is a type of primary prevention. o But we will have to choose one option for All India enterance examination. o Option 'b' (specific protection) is the best answer (unlike previous question where more than one option can be correct for PGI).
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Iron and folic acid supplementation forms - A. Health promotion B. Specific protection C. Primordial prevention D. Primary prevention
Specific protection
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mumps virus o Mumps begins as a primary infection in the respiratory tract and spreads by viremia to glandular tissues including the salivary glands, pancreas, testes and ovaries.
Microbiology
Myxo Viruses
Which of the following can infect ovary - A. Mumps virus B. EBV C. CMV D. Measles virus
Mumps virus
2afa6e6b-6108-4be7-bbbb-dea4bd805ebc
MAP is the average blood pressure during one cardiac cycle and can be directly measured through invasive hemodynamic monitoring or can be calculated as the systolic blood pressure, plus two times the diastolic blood pressure, divided by three. The normal range of MAP is 70 to 100 mm Hg. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:813,814,815
Physiology
Nervous system
Brain perfusion means A. Mean aerial pressure - Intracranial pressure B. Mean aerial pressure + Intracranial pressure C. Mean aerial pressure - CVP D. Mean aerial pressure + CVP
Mean aerial pressure - Intracranial pressure
00f589fb-b987-446b-b1c7-3904d48b6bbd
sea snake Venom -- myotoxic Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that occurs due to the breakdown of muscle tissue. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO322
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
Rhabdomyolysis is caused by - A. Sea snake B. Cobra C. Viper D. Krait
Sea snake
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Musculocutaneous nerve arise from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Other nerves arising from the lateral cord are lateral root of median nerve and lateral pectoral nerve. Branches of the medial cord of the brachial plexus are:Medial root of median nerveMedial pectoralMedial cutaneous nerve of forearmMedial cutaneous nerve of armUlnar nerveBranches of the posterior cord are:Upper subscapularLower subscapularThoracodorsalAxillary nerveRadial nerveRef: Clinical Anatomy: (a Problem Solving Approach) By Kulkarni page 99
Anatomy
null
Which of the following nerve arise from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus? A. Ulnar nerve B. Musculocutaneous nerve C. Medial root of median nerve D. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
Musculocutaneous nerve
ab97ff74-558b-434c-be91-42383a27e319
Oily layer of tear film. Ref khurana 6th edition REF IMG
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
Meibomian glands secrete which component of sweat- A. Water {aqueous} B. Mucin C. Protein D. Lipid
Lipid
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Maple Syrup urine diseaseMAPLE SYRUP URINE DISEASE In this disorder, the branched-chain keto acids derived from isoleucine, leucine, and valine appear in the urine, giving it a maple syrup-like odor.This condition results from a deficiency in the branched-chain -keto acid dehydrogenase.It is a mitochondrial, enzyme complex consisting of a-ketoacid decarboxylase , Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase and Transacylase The early steps in the metabolism of these three amino-acids are similar. One of the steps - decarboxylation is accomplished by a complex enzyme system i.e. branched chain oc-keto acid dehydrogenase using thiamine pyrophosphate (vitamin B1) as a coenzyme.The elevated keto acids cause severe brain damage, with death in the first year of life.The disease is characterized by feeding problems,vomiting, dehydration, severe metabolic acidosis, and a characteristic maple syrup odor to the urine. If untreated, the disease leads to mental retardation, physical disabilities, and even death.Treatment. A few cases respond to megadoses of thiamine (vitamin B1). Otherwise, synthetic diets low in branched-chain amino acids are given.
Pediatrics
null
Deficiency of enzyme a-keto acid decarboxylase leading to a block in the metabolism of branch chain amino acids is observed in - A. Maple syrup urine disease B. Hanup's disease C. Alkaptonuria D. Phenylketonuria
Maple syrup urine disease
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions
Pathology
null
Alcoholic hyaline, in alcoholic liver disease is composed of- A. Lipofuscin B. Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions C. Basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions D. Hemozoin
Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions
650d2e32-c995-40d6-aa00-661fcdf46294
Goodpasture's syndrome is characterized by acute renal failure due to RPGN and pulmonary hemorrhages. The disease results from damage to the glomeruli by anti-GBM antibodies which cross-react with alveolar basement membrane and hence, produce renal as well as pulmonary lesions. The evidence in suppo is the characteristic linear deposits of anti-GBM antibodies consisting of IgG and complement along the GBM, detection of circulating anti-GBM antibodies and induction of glomerular lesions with an injection of anti-GBM antibodies experimentally in monkeys Ref: Textbook of pathology Harsh Mohan 6th edition page 667
Pathology
Urinary tract
Antiglomerular basement antibody is seen in- A. Membranous glomerulonephritis B. Goodpasture's syndrome C. Alpo's syndrome D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Goodpasture's syndrome
61e1f836-d2d2-405c-926f-6e1d258e5976
Ans: D i.e. 7th cranial nerve Exposure keratopathy is due to any cause which may produce exposure of the cornea due to incomplete closure of the eyelids (lagophthalmos), such as extreme proptosis as in exophthalmic ophthalmoplegia or orbital tumour, paralysis of the orbicularis (neuroparalytic keratopathy etc.) Keratopathy Neurotrophic keratopathy (desquamation of corneal epithelium) occurs in some cases in which trigeminal nerve is paralyzed Neuroparalytic keratopathy is seen in facial nerve palsy as occurs in Bell's palsy, leprosy or neurological disorders leading to ectropion, lagophthalmos & exposure keratopathy
Ophthalmology
null
Exposure keratopathy is due to involvement of which cranial nerve: March 2012 A. 4th cranial nerve B. 5th cranial nerve C. 6th cranial nerve D. 7th cranial nerve
7th cranial nerve
7c0c59c3-2035-4dc5-a3ea-74accff4c097
Ans. (A). T10 A dermatome is an area of skin that is mainly supplied by afferent nerve fibers from a single nerve which forms a part of a spinal nerve. There are 8 cervical nerves (C1 being an exception with no dermatome), 12 thoracic nerves, 5 lumbar nerves and 5 sacral nerves. Each of these nerves relays sensation (including pain) from a particular region of skin to the brain. Along the thorax and abdomen the dermatomes are like a stack of discs forming a human, each supplied by a different spinal nerve.
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
Dermatome of UMBILICUS is: A. T10 B. L2 C. L3 D. L4
T10
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Heme synthesis Urea cycle  Gluconeogenesis Mnemonic : These 3 pathways HUG cytoplasm and Mitochondria These 3 pathways take place partly in cytoplasm and partly in mitochondria
Biochemistry
null
Which pathway takes place partly in mitochondria and partly in cytoplasm A. Electron transport chain B. Link reaction C. Fatty acid synthesis D. Gluconeogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
41a64d9e-cd8b-4db8-b999-549a0197f6ac
Relationship between prevalence and incidence Prevalence depends upon 2 factors, the incidence and duration of illness. Given the assumption that the population is stable, and incidence and duration are unchanging, the relationship between incidence and prevalence can be expressed as : P= IxD = incidence x mean duration Ref:- park; pg num:- 69
Social & Preventive Medicine
All India exam
Prevalence is calculated by formula(2018) A. Incidence x Mean durationx100 B. Incidence/ Mean duration x 100 C. Incidence/Mean duration D. Incidence x Mean duration
Incidence x Mean duration
c67d2b7a-9b0b-4f9b-905c-9412fa192528
Many sputum specimens are cultured unnecessarily. Sputum is often contaminated with saliva or is almost totally made up of saliva. These specimens rarely reveal the cause of the patient's respiratory problem and may provide laboratory information that is harmful. The sputum in question appears to be a good specimen. The pleomorphic Gram-negative rods are suggestive of Haemophilus, but culture of the secretions is necessary.
Surgery
null
A sputum sample was brought to the laboratory for analysis. Gram stain revealed the following: rare epithelial cells, 8 to 10 polymorphonu-clear leukocytes per high-power field, and pleomorphic Gram-negative rods. As the laboratory consultant, which of the following interpretations should you make? A. The sputum specimen is too contaminated by saliva to be useful B. The patient has pneumococcal pneumonia C. The patient has Vincent's disease D. The appearance of the sputum is suggestive of Haemophilus pneumonia
The appearance of the sputum is suggestive of Haemophilus pneumonia
62623004-11a7-42f5-93f1-8bd05c01e547
MC virus leading to post transplantation lymphoma - EBV MC virus leading to Graft Failure in Post kidney transplantation - CMV
Medicine
viral infection
Most common virus leading to post transplantation lymphoma is? A. EBV B. CMV C. Herpes D. Aspergillus
EBV
60d1188c-b8b1-4d11-a454-ae0ceebabe82
Acoustic neuroma is surgically removed through translabyrinthine, middle cranial fossa, suboccipital or combined translabyrinthine- suboccipital approach. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 127
ENT
Ear
Treatment of choice for acoustic neuroma is A. Steroids B. Radiotherapy C. Anti-neoplastic drugs D. Surgery
Surgery
8160c48b-4811-4f16-ba36-e673abdf337d
Mirriz's syndrome(Functional hepatic syndrome) It is defined as obstruction of the common hepatic duct or CBD by external compression or by erosion of stone in the Hamann pouch or cystic duct. External compression has been classified as type I where as erosion as type II Mirriz's syndrome by McSherry Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1510
Anatomy
G.I.T
Mirizzi's Syndrome is A. GB stone compressing common hepatic duct B. GB carcinoma invading IVC. C. GB stone causing cholecystitis D. Pancreatic carcinoma
GB stone compressing common hepatic duct
c6bb5942-411e-4ae5-ac78-7e5f51280c62
Post menopausal bleeding with a visible cervical growth needs a tissue diagnosis, done by a punch biopsy of the lesion. Paps smear is a screening test, done in asymptomatic patients. Colposcopy + biopsy is a diagnostic test, indicated in symptomatic patients, like those with postmenopausal or post coital bleeding, or in asymptomatic patients where paps screening was done and turned out abnormal Endocervical curettage is indicated in patients with suspected endocervical lesion, or if entire transformation zone could not be evaluated at colposcopy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Cervical Carcinoma
A 55 year old lady presenting to OPD with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 x1cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix, The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is A. Pap smear B. Punch biopsy C. Endocervical currettage D. Colposcopy & biopsy
Punch biopsy
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tremor o Salmeterol is a beta - 2 agonist taken by inhalational route and a adverse effects are usually not a problem with beta-agonists when given by inhalation. The most common side effects are muscle tremor and palpitations, which are seen more commonly in elderly patients.o There is a small fall in plasma potassium due to increased uptake by skeletal muscle cells, but this effect does not usually cause any clinical problem.Adverse effects of inhalational b2 - agonistso Owing to their b-selectivity and topical delivery (inhalation), adverse effects are not usually a problem with b2 agonists.o At higher doses systemic absorption and side effects occur due to activation of b-adrenergic receptorsThe most common side effects are muscle tremor and palpitationHypokalemia - biochemical pump that shifts potassium into cells is activated by the b2-receptor agonists, i.e. there is increased intracellular uptake of potassium especially in skeletal muscles.Hyperglycemia - Due to b2 mediated gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.Toleranceo Tolerance is a potential problem with b2-agonists.o It is due to down regulation of b2-receptors caused by continous exposure of tissues to b-agonists.o This may cause tachyphylaxis (rapidly developing tolerance). (Note - other drugs showing tachyphylaxis are indirectly acting sympathomimetics, e.g. ephedrine, amphetamine, tyramine).o So, b2 agonists should not be used on any regular schedule - due to tolerance, bronchial hyperactivity not reduced on continous use.o It is advised that patients requiring regular medication should be treated with inhaled steroids and use of b2 agonist inhalers should be restricted to symptomatic relief of on acute attack.Throat irritationAnkle edema7.. Other side effects are anxiety, headache, muscle cramps, dry mouth, arrhythmia, flushing (due to vasodilatation), hypoxemia, MI, disturbance of sleep and behaviour.
Pharmacology
Asthma
Side effect of salmeterol is - A. Tremor B. Seizure C. Hypertension D. Hyperkalaemia
Tremor
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Refer KDT 6/e p 250 Half life of Carbimazole is around 8 hours Where'as propylthiouracil has t1/2 of 2hrs
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
Plasma half life of Carbimazole is A. 4 hrs B. 8 hrs C. 16 hrs D. 24 hrs
8 hrs
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Prolactin secretion from the pituitary is normally inhibited by hypothalamic inhibitory factors, one of which is dopamine. Histamine also inhibits prolactin secretion, whereas serotonin and thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) stimulate its release. Causes of Hyperprolactinemia Lesions obstructing the inhibitory influence from the hypothalamus (e.g. craniopharyngioma, sarcoidosis, surgical ablation) Increased stimulation (elevated TRH in primary hypothyroidism). Prolactin-secreting pituitary adenomas. Exogenous sex steroids, phenothiazines, ceain antidepressants, and antihypeensives may also cause hyperprolactinemia.
Medicine
Disorders of pituitary gland
Level of which hormone is likely to increase after hypothalamic ablation? A. Growth hormone B. Prolactin C. FSH D. ACTH
Prolactin
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The secretory rates of CRF, ACTH, and coisol are high in the early morning but low in the late evening. Addison's diseaseresults from an inability of the adrenal coices to produce sufficient adrenocoical hormones. Persons with Addison's disease havediminished secretion of both glucocoicoids (coisol) and mineralocoicoids (aldosterone). Cushing's syndrome- associated with elevated levels of coisol.
Physiology
NEET Jan 2020
In which of the following conditions would the Coisol level be highest? A. Addisons disease B. Normal person after giving dexamethasone C. Normal person after weakening in morning D. Late evening
Normal person after weakening in morning
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Answer is A (Iron deficiency anemia) Hypochromic microcytic anemia with decreased serum iron and an increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC) suggests a diagnosis of 'iron deficiency anemia' Parameter Normal index Patient in question Inference Hb Male 14-18 g/dl Female 12-16 g/dl 7.8 g/dl 4, Serum Iron 50-150 lig/di 15 mg/di .1, % Saturation 30-50% ? Serum Ferritin 50-200 !AWL - ? Total iron binding capacity 300-600 ug/dl 420iig/d1 1' HbA2 1.5 to 3.5% of total Hb. 2.4% N HbF <2% of total Hb. 1-3% N Remember: Hypochromic microcytic anemia with decreased serum iron and increased TIBC is iron deficiency anemiae Hypochromic microcytic anemia with decreased serum iron and decreased TIBC is anemia of chronic diseasee Differential diagnosis of Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia Parameters Iron deficiency Thalassemia Sideroblastic Chronic Inflammatory Smear Microcytic hypochromic + target cell Microcytic hypochromic Variable Normocytic Se Fe < 30 (,i,) N N ,l, (< 50) TIBC > 360 (T) N N ,l, (< 300) Saturation < 10 4) 1' (30-80) 1' (30-80) 1, (10-20) Ferritin < 15 (4.) 1' (50-300) 1.' (50-300) '1' (30-200)
Medicine
null
A 29 year old woman was found to have a hemoglobin of 7.8 g/dl. with a reticulocyte count of 0.8%. The peripherial blood smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia, Hemoglobin A2 and hemoglobin F levels were 2.4% and 1.3% respectively. The serum iron and the total iron binding capacity were 15 micro g/dl, and 420 micro g/dl, respectively. The most likely cause of anemia is: A. Iron deficiency anemia. B. Beta-thalassemia minor C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Anemia due to chronic infection
Iron deficiency anemia.
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(C) (Hyaline arteriosclerosis) (495, 96- Robbins 8th) (678- Harshmohan 7th)* Hyaline arteriosclerosis consists of homogenous pink hyaline thickening of the wall of the arterioles with loss of underlying structural detail.* Encountered frequently in elderly patients whether normotensive, or hypertensive hyaline arterioscleroses is more generalized and more severe in patents with hypertensionQ* It is also common in diabetesQ as a part of the characteristic microangiopathy.Pathogenesis* The lesion reflects leakage of plasma components across vascular endothelium and excessive extra cellular matrix production by smooth muscle cells secondary to the chronic hemodynamic stress of hypertension or a metabolic stress in diabetes that accentuates endothelial cell injury.Also knowHyperplastic arteriosclerosis* It is characteristic of malignant hypertensionQ.* There is concentric laminated thickening of arteriolar wall - onion thickening0.* There is mucinous intimal thickening and fibrous intimal thickening.* There may be accompanied fibrinoid deposite with necrosis of the vessel wall - fibrinoid necrosisThe characteristic histological finding in Benign Hypertension is Hyaline arteriosclerosisBenign NephrosclerosisMalignant NephrosclerosisThis term is used do describe the charges in kidney associated with benign phase of hypertensionThis term is used to describe the changes in kidney associated with malignant or accelerated hypertensionGrossGross* Kidney size is normal 0 or may be moderately reduced 0* Kidnev size is variable0 mav be smaller in size0 (when superimposed on benign nephrosclerosis) or Larger in size (enlarged)0 than normal (patents who develop malignant hypertension in pure form* Grain leather appearance0. The cortical surface has a fine even granularity* Flen bitten appearance0The cortical surface may show multiple small peticheal haemorrhages0 from rupture of arterioles or glomerular capillariesMicroscopic (vascular changes & parenchymal (changes)Microscopic (cascular changes & parenchymal changes)* Hvaline Arteriosclerosis0 Narrowing of the lumens of arterioles and small arteries caused by thickening and hyalinization of the walls* Fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles (Necrotizing arteriolitis0)The vessel wall showa fibrinoid necrosis.Represents an acute event and necrosis is usually not accompanied by intense inflammation* Fibroelastic Hyperplasia, In the intima (intimal thickenningQ). duplication of elastic lamina and hypertrophy of the 'media'* Hyperplastic intimal sclerosis /onion - Skinning Concentric laminae of proliferated smooth muscle cells collagen and basement membrane (producing intimal thickening)* Parenchymal chances (due to ischaemic) Variable degree of Atrophy of parenchyma & due to ischaemia* Parenchymal chances (due to ischaemia)Variable degree of atrophy of parenchyma due to ischaemia infarction necrosis distalQ abnormal vessels may be seen* Fibroid necrosis may be seen in- Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)- Aschoff's nodule- Malignant hypertension
Pathology
Blood Vessels
Commonest histological finding in benign hypertension is A. Proliferative endarteritis B. Necrotizing arteriolitis C. Hyaline arteriosclerosis D. Cystic medial necrosis
Hyaline arteriosclerosis
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bacillus String of pearl reactiono String of pearl reaction is used to differentiate B. anthracis from B. cereus and other aerobic spore forming bacteria,o When B. antharcis is grown on a solid medium containing penicillin, the cells become larger, spherical and occur in chains on the surface of the agar, resembling a string of pearls.Important characteristic feature of B. Anthraciso Gram positiveo Non-motile fall other members of genus Bacillus are motile)o Polypeptide capsuleo "Frosted glass appearance " of cultureo "Invertedfor tree appearance " of cultureo Medusa head colonieso String of pearl's reactiono "Cut glass appearance"o MTadyean's reactiono Selective media - PLET medium
Microbiology
Bacteria
The "String of pearl" colonies on Nutrient agar is produced by - A. Klebsiella B. Proteus C. Bacillus D. Salmonella
Bacillus
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Ans-A Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry,28th edition Explanation: Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen. Glycogen Phosphorylase catalyzes the phosphorolytic cleavage of the (l-4) glycosidic linkages of glycogen, releasing glucose-1- phosphate as the reaction product. Glycogen (n residues)+ Pi - glycogen (n-1 residues) + glucose-1-phosphate Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), a derivative of vitamin B6. serves as the prosthetic group for Glycogen Phosphorylase. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) is held at the active site with the e-amino group of a lysine residue.
Unknown
null
Pyridoxal phosphate is needed in: A. Glycogenolysis B. Fatty acid oxidation C. Glvcogenesis D. Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
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Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hand washing o As hand contact is the most common mode of transmission, the best preventive measure of nosocomial infection is proper hand hygiene.
Microbiology
Sterilization and Disinfection
Simplest and most effective method to prevent nosocomial infection- A. Use of antibiotics B. Use of laminar airflow C. Use of filters D. Hand washing
Hand washing
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D i.e. Hematocrit Hematocrit does not changes with ageQAge related physiological changes
Physiology
null
Which of the following does NOT changes A. FEVI B. Glomerular filtration rate C. Glucose tolerance test D. Hematocrit
Hematocrit
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Pudendal Nerve BlockIt is a peripheral nerve block that provides local anesthesia over S2-4 dermatomes (majority of perineum and inferior quaer of vagina)It does not block the superior bih canal so the mother is able to feel the uterine contractions(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no.847)
Anaesthesia
All India exam
Pudendal nerve block A. S1-3 B. S2-4 C. S3-5 D. S4,5
S2-4
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tasks in relation to other children of same age.
Pediatrics
null
IQ (Intelligence quotient) of a child means – A. The creative effciency of child B. The capability of the child to perfrom intellectual tasks in relation to other children of same age C. The efficiency of memory of child D. Quantification of the learning ability of child
The capability of the child to perfrom intellectual tasks in relation to other children of same age
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Endometrial ablation technique has high failure rate.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which of the following surgical therapies is least effective in treatment of myoma associated with heavy menstrual bleeding A. Myomectomy B. Hysteroscopic resection C. Endometrial ablation D. Hysterectomy
Endometrial ablation
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Ans. (b) HyperuricemiaRef.-.Harrison's 18/e, ch 333
Pharmacology
Hypolipidemic
Febuxostat is used for?(DNB 2012-section-1) A. HyperKalemia B. Hyperuricemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypercalemia
Hyperuricemia
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C i.e. Isoflurane Isoflurane has least & methoxyflurane has highest fluride contentQ. Methoxyflurane causes vasopressin resistant high output renal failure.Q.
Anaesthesia
null
Fluoride content is least: A. Methoxyflurane B. Enflurane C. Isoflurane D. Sevoflurane
Isoflurane
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<p> Leprosy Mode of transmission includes droplet infection,contact transmission,insect bite, breast feeding... Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:317. <\p>
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
One of the following diseases has more than one route of transmission - A. Influenza B. Leprosy C. Cholera D. Typhoid fever
Leprosy
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Splenic injury can be a subcapsular hematoma, laceration or hilar injury. It can be associated with other organ injuries It can cause torrential hemorrhage and shock. It is the most common organ injured in blunt injury abdomen (Ref; SRB,s Manual of Surgery,5th edition, pg no. 149)
Surgery
Trauma
Commonest injury in blunt abdominal trauma A. Kidney B. Liver C. Bladder D. Spleen
Spleen
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The occurrence of the psychotic symptoms depends on the dose, the duration of use, and the individual user's sensitivity to the substance. Paranoid delusions are the most frequent psychotic symptoms. Paranoid delusions and hallucinations can occur in up to 50 percent of all persons who use cocaine. Ref: Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical ... By Benjamin J. Sadock, Virginia A. Sadock, 2007, Page 426
Psychiatry
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Paranoid psychosis with cocaine is due to: A. Tolerance B. Withdrawal C. Reverse tolerance D. Intoxication
Intoxication