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3913356f-0633-43da-9fe2-48b0550a2c13 | <p>MEASLES VACCINE:- Live attenuated vaccine Person to person transmission of measles vaccine strains has never been documented. Freeze dried product. Before use ,the lyophilised vaccine is reconstituted with sterile diluent. Diluent must be cooled before reconstitution but it should not be freezed.After reconstitution , vaccine must be stored in dark at 2-8 degree celcius and used within 4 hrs. Each dose if 0.5 ml contains > 1000 viral infective units of vaccine strain. Measles vaccine may also contain sorbitol and hydrolysed gelatin as stabilizers and neomycin but it doesn&;t have thiomersal. Age-before 9 months.The age can be lowered to 6 months if there is measles outbreak in community.For infants immunised between 6 and 9 months,second dose administered as soon as possible after the child reaches 9 months provided that at least 4 weeks have elapsed since the last dose. Route-subcutaneous/intramuscular. Immune response- both humoral and cellular. Contraindications- High fever,pregnancy, history of anaphylactic reaction to vaccine components, immunocompromised individuals, leukemia, lymphoma,severe HIV( early stage of HIV is not a contraindication), treatment with steroids, antimetabolites and serious malignancy. Adverse reactions:- TSS-toxic shock syndrome. Occurs when measles vaccine is contaminated or when the same l is used more than once on same day / next day. The vaccine should not be used after 4 hrs of reconstitution. Symptoms of TSS : severe watery diarrhoea, vomiting, high fever repoed within few hours after vaccination. TSS is totally preventable and reflects poor quality of immunisation. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.149}</p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Reconstituted measles vaccine should be used with in -
A. 1 hour
B. 3 hour
C. 6 hour
D. 12 hour
| 1 hour |
7b4375a3-ee31-47ef-9fad-8f0685c4046b | The third pa, or horizontal pa or inferior pa of the duodenum begins at the inferior duodenal flexure and passes transversely to the left, passing in front of the inferior vena cava, abdominal aoa, and the veebral column. The superior mesenteric aery and vein are anterior to the third pa of duodenum. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg262 | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Which of the following is related to third pa of duodenum anteriorly ?
A. Poal vein
B. Head of pancreas
C. Hepatic aery
D. Superior mesenteric vein
| Superior mesenteric vein |
d95672c9-cd89-450a-a2fd-5c97bfb5435f | B i.e. K+ potassium ion is most diffusible ion | Physiology | null | Most diffusable ion in excitable tissue is :
A. Na.
B. K.
C. PO4
D. Cl
| K. |
433ed83b-a23a-4fe3-9e75-4ec2823852fd | Extrapulmonary tuberculosis is tuberculosis (TB) within a location in the body other than the lungs. This occurs in 15-20% of active cases, causing other kinds of TB. These are collectively denoted as "extrapulmonary tuberculosis". Extrapulmonary TB occurs more commonly in immunosuppressed persons and young children . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1097 | Medicine | Infection | Which is the commonest site for extrapulmonary TB?
A. Pleura
B. Lymph node
C. Intestine
D. Meninges
| Lymph node |
0327d24d-87c1-40e9-9841-6368fe233c4c | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Elevated E.S.R. * The jones criteria for rheumatic fever:Major criteriaMinor criteria* Carditis0Clinical* Migratory polyarthritis0* Fever0* Sydenham's chorea0* Arthralgia0* Subcutaneous nodules0Laboratory* Erythema marginatum0Elevated acute phase reactants0Prolonged PR intervalPLUS Supporting evidence of a recent group A Streptococcal infection (e.g.positive throat culture or rapidantigen detection test; and or elevated or increasing streptococcal antibody test).To fulfill jones criteria either two major criteria or one major and two minor criteria plus evidence of antecedent streptococcal infection is required. | Medicine | Rheumatic | Which of the following is not included in major Jone's criteria -
A. Pancarditis
B. Chorea
C. Arthritis
D. Elevated ESR
| Elevated ESR |
81d61a2d-8dcc-4b3c-8c01-ad249160e09a | Ans: b (Incineration) Ref: Ananthanarayan, 7th ed, p. 25; Park, 18th ed, p. 599Incineration is an excellent method of safely destroying materials such as contaminated cloth, animal carcasses and pathological materials.Categorization of biomedical waste and its disposal:Cat IHuman anatomical wasteIncinerationCat IIAnimal wasteIncinerationCat IIIMicrobiology and biotech wasteAutoclaving / incinerationCat IVWaste sharps (needle, syringe etc)Disinfection (autoclaving)Cat VDiscarded medicines and cytotoxic drugsIncineration and disposal in secured land fillCat VISolid waste contaminated with blood and fluidIncinerationCat VIISolid waste (tubings, catheters, iv sets)AutoclavingCat VIIILiquid wasteDisinfection by chemical treatmentCat IXIncineration ashDisposal in land fillCat XChemicals used in biologicals and disinfectionDisposal in secured land fill Colour coding:Cat 1,2,3,6-Yellow -- IncinerationCat 3, 6, 7-Red- AutoclavingCat 4,7-Blue/ white- AutoclavingCat 5, 9, 10-Black- Secured land fill | Microbiology | General | Which method is used for destroying useless hospital waste products?
A. Hot air oven
B. Incineration
C. Autoclave
D. Heat sterilization
| Incineration |
3f4644f2-d471-4802-86d5-d576bb9ce3f0 | All babies weighing less than 1.5 kg at birth or having a gestation period of less than 32 weeks should be screened with indirect ophthalmoscopy for retinopathy of prenaturity, between 32 and 36 weeks post conception. | Ophthalmology | null | While working in a neonatal ICU. Your team delivers a preamature infant at 27 weeks of gestation and weighing 1500gm. How soon will you request fundus examination by an ophthalmologist?
A. Immediately
B. 3 – 4 weeks after delivery
C. At 34 weeks gestational age
D. At 40 weeks gestational age
| At 34 weeks gestational age |
00e47121-575c-4741-8b6c-3c6466a04103 | STANDARD ERROR OF MEAN (SEMEAN) SEmean is the measure of difference between sample and population mean values whatever be the sampling procedure or the care taken while selecting sample, the sample estimates (statistics) will differ from population values (parameters) * SE is a 'measure of chance variation', and IT DOES NOT mean an error or mistake. In the given question, n =25 kids, Standard detion (s) = 2, Mean incubation period (u) = 8 days, * Thus, standard error = 2/5 = 0.4 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Statistical Errors, p-value | While calculating the incubation period for measles in a group of 25 kids, standard detion is 2 and the mean incubation period is 8 days, calculate Standard error.
A. 0.4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0.5
| 0.4 |
0e16ddec-75d9-4eae-a034-06d35a2f13fe | Ans. (c) 2000 Hz* Carhart Notch is an audiogram finding and is an important feature in patients with Otosclerosis.* There is a sudden dip (notch) at 2000 Hz in bone conduction curve.* Carhart s notch disappears after stapedectomy. | ENT | Otosclerosis | Carhart's notch dips at:
A. 2 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 2000 Hz
D. 2000 MHz
| 2000 Hz |
6c46c13c-8943-41c8-93f6-222f36ac2f47 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HPV o Human papilloma virus (HPV) is the causative agent of all type of warts.Type of wartSite of involvementHPV types1. Verruca vulgaris (common wart)Most common type wart On Hands and fingers2 (most common), 4, 272. Verruca Plana (Flat wart)Face, hands3, 103. Verruca plantaris (Palmoplantar warts)Palms & soles1,2,4, 57i) Superficial palmoplantar wart (Mosaic wart) 2 (most common)ii) Deep palmoplantar wart (Myrmecia wart) 1 (most common)4. Condyloma acuminata (anogenital wart)Genital, perianal, perineum,Most common - 6,11, (low risk)Other - 16, 18, 31, 33, 45 (High risk)5. Laryngeal papillomatosisLarynx, respiratory tract6, 116. Bowenoid papulosisGenitalia167. Epidermodysplasia verruciformisExtensive5, 8 | Skin | S.T.D. | Infection by which of the following agents leads to wart formation-
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. HPV
C. Molluscum contagiousum virus
D. Varicella zoster virus
| HPV |
3db63b4b-b797-4122-9489-9cd3ed6894ef | A mucocele of a paranasal sinus is an accumulation of mucoid secretion and desquamated epithelium within the sinus with distension of its walls and is regarded as a cyst-like expansile and destructive lesion. The frontal sinus is most commonly involved whereas sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary mucoceles are rare. The sinuses commonly affected by mucocele in the order of frequency are the frontal, ethmoidal, maxillary and sphenoidal. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 223) | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Mucocele is commonly seen in which sinus?
A. Frontal
B. Maxillary
C. Ethmoid
D. Sphenoid
| Frontal |
74ae9001-8018-485e-9108-78425dd1836f | Etiologic Factors Believed to Be Associated with Esophageal Cancer: Excess alcohol consumption Cigarette smoking Other ingested carcinogens Nitrates (conveed to nitrites) Smoked opiates Fungal toxins in pickled vegetables Mucosal damage from physical agents Hot tea Lye ingestion Radiation-induced strictures Chronic achalasia Host susceptibility Human papillomavirus infection Esophageal web with glossitis and iron deficiency (i.e., Plummer-Vinson or Paterson-Kelly syndrome) Congenital hyperkeratosis and pitting of the palms and soles (i.e., tylosis palmaris et plantaris) Chronic gastric reflux (i.e., Barrett's esophagus) for adenocarcinoma Esophageal diveicula Ref: Phan A.T. (2011). Chapter 17. Gastric and Esophageal Cancer. In H.M. Kantarjian, R.A. Wolff, C.A. Koller (Eds), The MD Anderson Manual of Medical Oncology, 2e. | Surgery | null | A variety of causative factors have been implicated in the development of Ca esophagus. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor for Ca esophagus?
A. Diveicula
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Mediastinal fibrosis
D. Caustic ingestion
| Mediastinal fibrosis |
a789a338-692a-44a4-bd69-5aaa4fea6aea | Asteroid bodies are seen in association with Sporotrichosis. Sporotrichosis is an infection caused by Sporothrix schenckii a thermally dimorphic fungus. In H&E stained tissue, the asteroid body consists of a central basophilic yeast cell surrounded by radiating extensions of eosinophilic material, which are depositions of antigen antibody complexes and complement. Sporotrichosis occurs following traumatic inseion of S schenckii into the skin. The initial lesion is usually located on an extremity which later develops into a granulomatous nodule that may progress to form a necrotic or ulcerative lesion. The draining lymphatics becomes thickened and cor like. It can be seen when stained with Gomori methenamine silver or periodic acid-Schiff stain. It can be cultured on Sabouraud's agar containing antibacterial antibiotics and incubated at 25-30degC. Ref:Brooks G.F., Carroll K.C., Butel J.S., Morse S.A., Mietzner T.A. (2013). Chapter 45. Medical Mycology. In G.F. Brooks, K.C. Carroll, J.S. Butel, S.A. Morse, T.A. Mietzner (Eds), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e | Microbiology | null | Asteroid bodies are seen in histological examination in tissues infected with which of the following causative agent?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Nocardiosis
| Nocardiosis |
2ce43e71-5496-43da-acdd-41cf548dc8a3 | Persona It is a microcomputer attached to a micro-labaratory. It measures the level if oestrone-3-glucuronide and LH in the morning urine by dipping a test stick in the urine. Green light shows contraception unlikely Red light shows feile period and warns the probable ovulation and contraception. The failure rate with this technique is approximately 6 per 100 per women Ref : Shaw textbook of gynecology Pgno : 266 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | "Persona" is a method of -
A. Natural contraceptive
B. Hormonal contraceptive
C. Barrier contraceptive
D. IUCD
| Natural contraceptive |
61f9f3bc-5e58-4523-9885-f7e5bfcd7459 | Pyridoxine reduces the effect of Levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism. It is co-decarboxylase and by facilitating decarboxylation of levodopa reduces its blood level. It interacts with isoniazid and reduces the toxicity of isoniazid in slow acetylators. The hypotensive effect of hydralazine is reduced if pyridoxine is added along with it. Ref: John Parry Griffin, P. F. D'Arcy, Patrick Francis D'Arcy (1997), Elsevier Publications, In the book, "A Manual of Adverse Drug Interactions", 5th Edition, Page 367 ; KD Tripathy, 5th Edition, Pages 823 - 824 | Pharmacology | null | Which one of this drugs doesn't have interaction with pyridoxine?
A. Isoniazid
B. Cyclosporine
C. Levodopa
D. Hydralazine
| Cyclosporine |
a71fbbc9-e7a8-4e1c-8d79-eb817a27375c | BCG is given to all new born infants
INH therapy for newborns is considered 'essential' these days. It is so effective that separation of mother and infant is no longer considered mandatory. Ideally INH therapy should be continued for at least 3 months after the mother has been shown to be sputum negative. However, an initial course for 6 weeks, can be considered, if reevaluation is planned at the end of this period.
Breast feeding: can be continued in presence of INH therapy to the child. In the Indian context, Breast feeding is very important and definitely deserves a place in management of this child.
Rifampicin as a modality holds no place in the current situation as the child is not mentioned to be 'diseased'. Moreover, the mother is already on ATT. | Pediatrics | null | Management of a newborn when Mother has active Tuberculosis & is taking ATT –
A. BCG + Rifampicin + INH + Breast Feeding
B. BCG + Isolation of baby
C. BCG + INH for 6 week + Breast Feeding
D. BCG – F 1NH + with hold Breast Feeding
| BCG + INH for 6 week + Breast Feeding |
69501541-8943-4cd9-b5eb-3957f589d58b | Most common Primary for brain metastasis is - LUNG CANCER Paicular Lung cancer which is notorious for causing CNS metastasis - SMALL CELL LUNG CARCINOMA Most common Primary malignant CNS tumor seen in children - MEDULLOBLASTOMA Most common Primary malignant CNS tumor seen in adults - GLIOBLASTOMA Most common Primary benign CNS tumor seen in adults - MENINGIOMA | Pathology | FMGE 2019 | Most common primary for brain metastasis is which of the following?
A. Lung cancer
B. Head and neck cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Breast cancer
| Lung cancer |
30ba1199-89cb-40da-9371-5381563385f8 | (Inhibit cytochrome oxidase): (8.38- Parikh 6th edition)* Cyanide inhibits the action of cytochrome oxidase, carbonic anhydrase and probable of other enzyme system. It blocks the final step of oxidative phosphorylation and prevents the formation of ATP and its use as energy source.* Cyanide acts by reducing the oxygen carrying with the ferric iron atom of intracellular cytochrome oxidase preventing the uptake of oxygen for cellular respiration. There is an interference with the intracellular oxidative processes in the tissues and it kills by creating histotoxic or cytotoxic anoxia, although the blood may contain a normal oxygen content (588- Reddy 31st) | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology | Mechanism of action of cyanide poison is
A. Inhibit cytochrome oxidase
B. Inhibit cytochrome p450 enzyme
C. Inhibit phosphodiesterase
D. Inhibit DNA replication
| Inhibit cytochrome oxidase |
2e9cd23e-ba87-49ab-bf1c-4a0daba3c311 | Ideal ans is none. But renal cell carcinoma produce number of para neoplastic syndrome, ascribed to abnormal harmone production, including polycythemia, hypercalcemia, hypeension ,Cushing syndrome, eosinophillic ,amyloidosis etc | Anatomy | Urinary tract | Which of the following is not associated with renal cell carcinoma
A. A. Polycythemia
B. B. Amyloidosis
C. C. Cushing syndrome
D. D. Hypeension
| C. Cushing syndrome |
98f0374b-a364-470e-a283-c6fa2665d6a7 | Hepatopulmonary syndrome (portopulmonary hypertension) is described. The cause is obscure, but the result is pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatches that lead to hypoxemia. The remaining choices are conditions that do not cause portal hypertension. Chronic inflammation and steatosis may be seen with cirrhosis, but by themselves do not account for portopulmonary hypertension. Metastases tend to be focal, leaving residual functioning hepatic parenchyma. Biliary obstruction leads to jaundice. | Pathology | Liver & Biliary Tract | A 59-year-old man has had increasing dyspnea on exertion for the past year. His dyspnea is worse in the upright position and diminishes when he is recumbent. On physical examination, he has clubbing of the fingers. Exercise induces a decrease in his PO2 that improves when he stops and lies down. Which of the following liver abnormalities is he most likely to have?
A. Biliary obstruction
B. Chronic inflammation
C. Cirrhosis
D. Metastases
| Cirrhosis |
10cbecd0-d672-4740-8d9e-5b298db9cce2 | ANSWER: (D) BCGREF: APPENDIX-46 below for "TYPES OF VACCINE"Live vaccines can me memorized as "BOMBEY-VT"; BCG, OPV (sabin), MMR (mumps, measles & rubella), Bubonic plague, epidemic typhus, yellow fever (17D), vaccinia, Oral Typhoid vaccine (Ty21a) APPENDIX - 46Types of VaccineTypeContentExamplesKilled vaccineskilled, but previously virulent, microorganisms that have been destroyed with chemicals or heat.Avian Flu vaccine; developed by Reverse Genetics techniques. Reverse genetics' is an approach to discovering the function of a gene by analyzing the phenotypic effects of specific gene sequences obtained by DNA sequencing. This investigative process proceeds in the opposite direction of so- called forward genetic screens of classical genetics. Simply put, while forward genetics seeks to find the genetic basis of a phenotype or trait, reverse genetics seeks to find what phenotypes arise as a result of particular genes. | Pediatrics | Immunization | Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?
A. Tetanus
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Injectable polio vaccine
D. BCG
| BCG |
04363735-4e92-4722-be6b-628d1d11dac8 | Exotoxins produces by C. Perfringens *Alpha toxin(lecithinase) - detroys RBC& WBC *phi toxin- myocardial depression *kappa toxin-destruction of connective tissue and blood vessels Ref:Bailey and love 27th edition Pg no :420 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Kappa toxin released by clostridium perfringens is responsible for
A. RBC destruction
B. Myocardial depression
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Destruction of connective tissue and blood vessels
| Destruction of connective tissue and blood vessels |
a3d7eea0-0d25-4c48-b465-81acdb687514 | (58-D) (26-Khurana4rd)* The total dioptric power is +58 D, of which cornea contributes + 43 D and the lens + 15 DDimensions of an adult eyeballAnterior posterior diameter24 mmHorizontal diameter23.5 mmVertical diameter23 mmCircumference75 mmVolume6.5 mlWeight7 gm. | Ophthalmology | Errors of Refraction | The refractive power of emmatropic eye is
A. 50 D
B. 58D
C. 65 D
D. 68 D
| 58D |
604de3ae-1911-483e-b008-8cdd156ad80f | Rheumatic fever (RF) produces both acute and chronic manifestations. Acute RF produces a pancarditis of all three layers of the hea. It is manifested by myocarditis, which is characterized histologically by the Aschoff body; pericarditis, which is referred to as "bread-and-butter" pericarditis; and verrucous endocarditis. In contrast to acute RF, chronic RF produces damage to cardiac valves. The mitral valve is most commonly involved, followed by the aoic valve. The stenotic valve has the appearance of a "fish mouth" or "buttonhole." An additional finding in chronic RF is a rough poion of the endocardium of the left atrium, called a MacCallum's patch. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition. | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | The most characteristic and frequent feature of chronic rheumatic hea disease is the development of
A. Vegetations on the endocardium
B. Aschoff bodies within the myocardium
C. Incompetence of the pulmonic valve
D. Stenosis of the mitral valve
| Stenosis of the mitral valve |
ded88640-1570-45ee-b6d6-c47e42ac76f8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mitral Mitral valve is involved most commonly. o RHD is the most common cause of mitral stenosis. | Pathology | null | MC valve involved in Rheumatic fever ?
A. Mitral
B. Aoic
C. Pulmonary
D. Tricuspid
| Mitral |
6e9081cc-7b37-43a2-a64f-73be48d7100f | A dye laser is a laser which uses an organic dye as the lasing medium, usually as a liquid solution. Compared to gases and most solid state lasing media, a dye can usually be used for a much wider range of wavelengths, often spanning 50 to 100 nanometers or more. The wide bandwidth makes them paicularly suitable for tunable lasers and pulsed lasers. The dye rhodamine 6G, for example, can be tuned from 635 nm (orangish-red) to 560 nm (greenish-yellow), and produce pulses as sho as 16 femtoseconds.Moreover, the dye can be replaced by another type in order to generate an even broader range of wavelengths with the same laser, from the near-infrared to the near-ultraviolet, although this usually requires replacing other optical components in the laser as well, such as dielectric mirrors or pump lasers. uses: In laser medicine these lasers are applied in several areas, including dermatology where they are used to make skin tone more even. The wide range of wavelengths possible allows very close matching to the absorption lines of ceain tissues, such as melanin or hemoglobin, while the narrow bandwidth obtainable helps reduce the possibility of damage to the surrounding tissue. They are used to treat po-wine stains and other blood vessel disorders, scars and kidney stones. They can be matched to a variety of inks for tattoo removal, as well as a number of other applications Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1329 | Dental | miscellaneous | Child with erythematous non-blanching bosselated lesion on right side of face, Treatment is
A. Nd-YAG laser
B. Erbium laser
C. Q ruby laser
D. Flash light pumped dye laser
| Flash light pumped dye laser |
89767cab-d25d-4e6d-b6f0-ee9325ffbc09 | (A) Zero > Scribbling on paper with a crayon or pencil. The child scribbles spontaneously by 12-24 months, copies arid draws a horizontal or vertical line at 2 years; a circle by 3 years, a cross (plus sign) by 4 years and tilted cross (multiplication sign) by 5 years. He can draw a rectangle by the age of 4 years and a triangle by 5 years. | Pediatrics | Miscellaneous | In developmental milestones of children, first draws
A. Zero
B. Triangle
C. Quadrangle
D. Rectangle
| Zero |
a2646107-48de-427e-987a-a85c37e5586c | Overall 60% of all MDR-TB cases are in India, China, and the Russian Federation. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1341 | Medicine | null | Over 60% of the world's Multi Drug Resistant TB cases are seen in which of the following countries?
A. India, Brazil, Afghanisthan
B. India, China, Russian Federation
C. Africa, China, Brazil
D. India, Africa, Afghanistan
| India, China, Russian Federation |
c5064e39-a288-4156-8f3a-501744775945 | Ans. A. P. falciparumBlackwater fever (BWF) is a severe clinical syndrome, characterized by intravascular hemolysis, hemoglobinuria (with passage of black urine), and acute renal failure caused by a variety of factors in patients with P. falciparum infestation. | Microbiology | Parasitology | Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by;
A. P. falciparum
B. P. malariae
C. P. ovale
D. P. vivax
| P. falciparum |
2ead81ed-6e6e-469a-80a9-1e9f8150c766 | b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2508, Ghai 8/e p 492)Neurologic findings (due to microthrombi formed in vessels of CNS) are present in TTP in addition to the triad seen in HUS (Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, Thrombocytopenia and Renal failure). | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with thrombocytopenia and renal insufficiency is commonly seen in young children with:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C. Malaria
D. SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)
| Hemolytic uremic syndrome |
fc5da55a-75c7-4a54-b34e-853abf110d9c | DNA polymerase alpha also known as Pol a is an enzyme complex found in eukaryotes that is involved in initiation of DNA replication Comparison of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic DNA Polymerases (see treasure) | Biochemistry | Replication | Primase activity is present in
A. DNA polymerase II
B. DNA polymerase a
C. DNA polymerase b
D. DNA polymerase d
| DNA polymerase a |
c04b668f-ed48-4973-af91-bc70fc98301f | Stiripentol
Stiripentol increases GABA transmission. It is granted orphan drug status for the treatment of Dravet’s syndrome (Severe myoclonic epilepsy in infants).
Icatibant is a bradykinin B2 receptor antagonist. It is used for acute attacks of hereditary angioedema in adults with C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency.
Pitolisant (a/k/a Tiprolisant) is a inverse agonist of H3 receptor. It is under trial for schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease.
Tafamidis stabilizes the correctly folded tetrameric form of TTR. It is used in familial amyloid polyneuropathy. | Unknown | null | Which of the following is granted orphan drug status for the treatment of Dravet’s syndrome?
A. Stiripentol
B. Icatibant
C. Pitolisant
D. Tafamidis
| Stiripentol |
367c194e-b1d6-4d05-9950-b8d662835b67 | Ans. (a) Vitamin KRef: Harper's Biochemistry 30th edn. 1554* Menadione is the water soluble form of vitamin K.Forms of VITAMIN K Vitamin K1Vitamin K2Vitamin K3AkaPhylloquinoneMenaqui- noneMenadioneSourceSeveral green vegetables and prepared syntheticallySynthesized by Gl bacteria, supplies 50% human requirementSynthetic, Analog of 1,4-naphtho- quinineSolubilityFat solubleFat solubleDiphosphate salt is Water soluble* Vitamin K Is the Coenzyme for Carboxylation of Glutamate in Postsynthetic Modification of Calcium Binding Proteins. Vitamin K Is Also Important in Synthesis of Bone Calcium Binding Proteins.* Dicumarol is an anticoagulant that functions as a vitamin K antagonist. | Biochemistry | Vitamins | Menadione is analog of:
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin C
| Vitamin K |
bc8ebb8c-b459-4077-b0d4-73f1202f7726 | The genotypes and phenotypes resulting from the recombination of gametes during feilization can be easily visualized by constructing a Punnett Square, named after Reginald C. Punnett who first devised this approach. Ref: Concepts of Genetics, By William S. Klug, Michael R. Cummings, Seventh Edition, Page 82 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Punett square is used for which of the following functions?
A. Predict genotype of offspring
B. Statistical analysis
C. Test a hypothesis
D. Track family history and inheritance
| Predict genotype of offspring |
97d97f3b-a66b-408f-a3b9-ea605ee304e2 | Answer is B (Libman sach's Endocarditis) Flat vegetation in pockets of valves are charachteristic of Libman sach's endocarditis | Medicine | null | Flat vegetations in pockets of valves are due to :
A. Rheumatic hea disease
B. Libman sacks Endocarditis
C. NBTE
D. Infective endocarditis
| Libman sacks Endocarditis |
05816277-736e-47d8-9e60-c4b72f5badb0 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cytosine arabinosideo Cytarabine is phosphorylated in the body to the corresponding nucleotide which inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA polymerase. | Pharmacology | null | An antimetabolite which undergoes biotransformation to form an inhibitor of DNA polymerase is -
A. Vinablastine
B. Cytosine arabinoside
C. Methotrexate
D. Chlorambucil
| Cytosine arabinoside |
e85f2b59-5d0e-4e90-a0c3-6d4f5d8060a0 | The epulis fissuratum is a tumorlike hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue that develops in association with the flange of an ill-fitting complete or partial denture. Although, the simple term 'epulis' sometimes is used synonymously for epulis fissuratum, epulis is actually a generic term that can be applied to any tumor of the gingiva or alveolar mucosa. | Pathology | null | A patient who has been wearing denture for quite long time reported with flabby tissue behind the ridge. What will be the most likely diagnosis?
A. Trauma due to denture
B. Vitamin B2 deficiency
C. Epulis fissuratum
D. Neumann’s tumor
| Epulis fissuratum |
27354064-82b9-417c-86d8-e0c7542a21ec | Acetyl CoA Carboxylase It is the key enzyme; citrate activates this enzyme. The citrate level is high only when both acetyl CoA and ATP are abundant. Covalent modification is another regulatory mechanism. Phosphorylation inactivates acetyl CoA carboxylase (similar to glycogen synthase under the effect of glucagon). Hence fatty acid synthesis decreases when glucose level is low. The enzyme is inhibited by palmitoyl CoA, the end product.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 139 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Activator of acetyl CoA carboxylase is
A. Malonyl CoA
B. Acetoacetate
C. Citrate
D. Palmitoyl CoA
| Citrate |
d23d4f91-617f-4f10-b32d-192e8cf52507 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Down's syndrome * Single palmar crease (simian crease) is seen in Down's syndromeClinical features of Down's syndrome* Most striking feature in the neonate is hypotonia and although the diagnosis is usually evident at this time, it may sometimes be missed if the baby is very premature or his facial features are concealed by ventilatory apparatus.* Other clinical features include1) GeneralMental retardation, short stature2) Cranio-facialBrachycephaly, epicanthic fold, protruding tongue, small ears, upward sloping palpebral fissures (Mongoloid slant), strabismus, nystagmus, Brushfied spots in iris.3) LimbsFifth finger clinodactyly, single palmar crease (simian crease), wide gap between first and second toes (sandle gap).4) Congenital heart disease Common AV canal, ostium primum/endocardial cushion defect type ASD (most common), VSD, PDA, fallot tetralogy.5) GITAnal atresia, Duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung disease, annular pancreas .6) Increased incidence of leukemia (1%). Leukemias common are ALL (most common), AML (M7-AML) transient myeloproliferative disorders, and Juvenil CML.7) Others : Early onset of Alzheimer's disease, Decreased immunity with recurrent infections, obesity, DM, Hypothyroidism (most common endocrine abnormality). | Pediatrics | Genetics And Genetic Disorders | Simian crease is seen in which syndrome?
A. Reye's syndrome
B. Cat eye syndrome
C. Down's syndrome
D. Patau syndrome
| Down's syndrome |
814df6b7-b847-45af-98d9-dba35e20c1a0 | MAOI * IMPOANCE First class of antidepressant drugs that were introduced * MECHANISM There are three monoamines namely dopamine, adrenaline and serotonin. These mon amines are degraded by monoamine oxidase. MAOI inhibit this enzyme and acts increasing monoamines * DRUGS Phenelezine Tranylcipromine * USE ATYPICAL DEPRESSION, depression with reverse vegetative symptoms * SIDE EFFECTS Hypeensive crisis Cheese reaction When a patient on MAOI takes tyramine rich food like tyramine there will be increased release of monoamines. These excess monoamines cannot be degraded by MAO as it is blocked by MAOI. Thus, this may result in hypeensive crisis. Paresthesia's due to pyridoxine deficiency LIKE IPRONIAZID WEIGHT gain SEXUAL dysfunction Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 955 | Psychiatry | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | which of the following is not the side effect of phenelezine
A. peripheral neuropathy
B. sexual dysfunction
C. cheese reaction
D. hypotension
| hypotension |
3a64485a-fc7b-417b-9102-4c44cf486106 | Tension pneumothorax must be treated as a medical emergency. If the tension in the pleural space is not relieved, the patient is likely to die from the inadequate cardiac output or marked hypoxemia.
A large-bore needle should be inserted into the pleural space through the second anterior intercostal space.
If large amounts of gas escape from the needle after insertion, the diagnosis is confirmed. The needle should be left in place until a thoracostomy tube can be inserted. | Surgery | null | The best treatment of tension pneumothorax is -
A. Immediate letting out of air
B. Wait and watch
C. Rib resection
D. Underwater drainage
| Immediate letting out of air |
ef67f057-df6e-419d-a72f-90846d2c2d0a | Refer KDT 6/e p752 Anti inflammatory drugs are used in Lepra reaction Steroids ,Clofazimine and thalidomide can be used | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | In Lepra reaction, drug useful is
A. Penicillin
B. Clofazamine
C. Dapsone
D. Rifamipicin
| Clofazamine |
a9d08ed3-d7a4-41f5-85c5-4a5584babe09 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypothyroidism Causes of reversible dementiao Hypothyroidismo Normal pressure hydrocephaluso Depressiono Drugso Alcoholo Vitamin B12 deficiency | Medicine | Psychiatry | Reversible Dementia Is a feature of ?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Cushing's disease
| Hypothyroidism |
da90a72e-676a-47eb-b4db-c3b0f169ca83 | CONTENTS OF HERNIA: These can be: *Omentum = omentocele (synonym: epiplocele) *Intestine = enterocele; more commonly small bowel but may be large intestine or appendix *A poion of the circumference of the intestine = Richter's hernia *A poion of the bladder (or a diveiculum) may constitute pa of or be the sole content of a direct inguinal, a sliding inguinal or a femoral hernia *Ovary with or without the corresponding fallopian tube *A Meckel's diveiculum = a Littre's hernia *Fluid, as pa of ascites or as a residum thereof. | Surgery | null | What is the content of an epiplocele ?
A. Omentum
B. Intestine
C. Colon
D. Urinary bladder
| Omentum |
4d13bc0f-c5f0-415d-b7ce-3178bfe6144d | If a nephrotic syndrome presents in an adult patient, underlying malignancy should be considered. It may be found in 10- 22% of cases, being more prevalent in the older age group. Though both MGN and MPGN can be associated with lung malignancy, on a comparative basis the more commonly seen is MGN and is hence the answer in the question. | Medicine | Nephrotic and Nephritic syndrome | If the kidney biopsy is done in a bronchogenic carcinoma patient who presents as a case of nephrotic syndrome, which lesions will be seen most likely?
A. Membranous GN
B. Focal proliferative GN
C. Minimal change disease
D. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
| Membranous GN |
adc454a5-0dc8-4627-ab31-4c02e4b3bae2 | Probenecid decreases the biliary secretion of rifampin, leading to higher plasma concentrations. Probenecid inhibits the tubular secretion of drugs, such as: Methotrexate Active metabolite of clofibrate Inactive glucuronide metabolites of NSAIDs such as naproxen, ketoprofen, and indomethacin Penicillin Cephalosporins Ref: Grosser T., Smyth E. (2011). Chapter 34. Anti-inflammatory, Antipyretic, and Analgesic Agents; Pharmacotherapy of Gout. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | Probenecid does NOT decrease the renal excretion of the following drug:
A. Ketoprofen
B. Methotrexate
C. Rifampin
D. Penicillin
| Rifampin |
c97d531e-05fe-4ddd-b0dc-f811474fdd58 | Ans. D. Salmonella food poisoningFever is a predominant symptom in Food poisoning due to GN organism due to systemic effect of LPS. | Microbiology | Bacteria | In which of the following types of Food poisoning, fever is a predominant symptom?
A. Clostridium perfringens food poisoning
B. Clostridium botulinum food poisoning
C. Staphylococcal food poisoning
D. Salmonella food poisoning
| Salmonella food poisoning |
a7efa292-9e2c-4366-b637-2e4cb2856fc1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chenodeoxycholic acid The primary bile acids are produced from cholesterol in liver. These are cholic acid and chenodexycholic acid. These are conjugated with glycine or taurine. So primary bile acids are glycocholic acid, glycochenodeoxycholic acid, taurocholic acid, and taurochenodeoxycholic acid. The primary bile acids are secreted in bile and in the lower pas of small intestine, primary bile acids are conveed to secondary bile acids by bacterial enzymes. Secondary bile acids are deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid. | Biochemistry | null | Primary bile acid secreted by liver is ?
A. Chenodeoxycholic acid
B. Lithocholic acid
C. Deoxycholic acid
D. Lithodeoxycholate
| Chenodeoxycholic acid |
45521705-d58d-4315-a437-c2a40962d1c3 | Ans. c. Anterior chamber depth increasedREFRACTORY POWER DEPENDS ONRadii of curvatureDifference in refractive index between two media at interface of refraction. (Anterior surface of cornea has maximum refractive power due to maximum change (0.376) in refractive index from air to cornea.Axial length of eyeball | Ophthalmology | Errors of Refraction | Refraction in eye not affected by:
A. Removal of vitreous
B. Lens thickened
C. Anterior chamber depth increased
D. Axial length changed
| Anterior chamber depth increased |
54696904-52ab-439f-8c4a-f0267538879c | High altitudes : cause respiratory alkalosis, by stimulating respiratory centers. Ref: Harrison&;s 19thE | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Which is not a cause of metabolic acidosis-
A. Starvation
B. Alcoholism
C. Diabetic keto acidosis
D. Climbing to high altitudes
| Climbing to high altitudes |
c054ba2d-c3c1-475e-9b82-20b1aa74a929 | Apo B
Transport of dietary cholesterol from the intestine
In the intestine, cholesterol esters and some unesterified cholesterol are incorporated into chylomicrons, which transports cholesterol and other dietary lipids from the intestine.
When triacylglycerol of chylomicrons is hydrolyzed by lipoprotein lipase in the peripheral tissues, cholesterol is not lost. Which is taken up by the liver in chylomicron remnants.
Thus, dietary cholesterol from the intestine to the liver is transported by chylomicrons-chylomicron remnants system.
The most important apoprotein of chylomicrons and chylomicron remnants is apo-B (apo-B48). | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is used to transport cholesterol from intestine to liver
A. Apo E
B. Apo C
C. Apo A
D. Apo B
| Apo B |
1405b6e6-564f-4344-ae65-16e2ce44bad2 | Acinic Cell Carcinoma This is a rare tumor composed of acinic cells resembling serous cells of a normal salivary gland. These cells are arranged in sheets or acini and have characteristic basophilic granular cytoplasm. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION - HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:537 | Pathology | miscellaneous | Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the -
A. Parotid salivary gland
B. Minor salivary glands
C. Submandibular salivary gland
D. Sublingual salivary gland
| Parotid salivary gland |
9b433520-5a70-4cbf-ba38-83eb19b653ab | Ans. c (Dermatitis herpetiformis) (Ref. Robbin'S pathology 8th ed., 484; Harrison's 17th ed., Table 55-1)DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS# DH is cha by intensely pruritic, papulovesicular skin lesions symmetrically distributed over extensor surfaces.# All have asso gluten-sensitive enteropathy, and >90% express the HLA-B8/DRw3 and HLA-DQw2 haplotypes.# Biopsy of early lesional = neutrophil-rich infiltrates in dermal papillae. Older lesions = subepidermal bulla.# Studies demonstrate granular deposits of IgA in the papillary dermis and along the epidermal BM zone.# High-avidity IgA autoantibodies against epidermal transglutaminase 3.# Increased incidence of thyroid abnormalities, achlorhydria, atrophic gastritis, and anti gastric parietal cell autoantibodies.# Rx: The mainstay of treatment of DH is dapsone, a sulfone and Gluten free diet.Infectious/Autoimmune Associations with Lymphoma# Gluten enteropathy=# Intestinal T-cell lymphoma# Helicobacter pylori=# Primary gastric malt lymphoma or DLBCL# Chlamydia psittaci=# Ocular adnexal malt lymphoma# Borrelia burgdorferi=# Cutaneous malt lymphoma# Hepatitis C virus=# Splenic marginal zone lymphoma# Campylobacter jejuni=# Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease(IPSID or heavy chain disease)# Sjogren's syndrome=# Extranodal malt lymphoma or DLBCL# Hashimoto's thyroiditis=# Extranodal malt lymphoma or DLBCL | Pathology | Skin | A middle-aged woman is revealed to have subepithelial bullae with granular IgA deposits on basement membrane and she has some degree of gluten sensitivity. What is the diagnosis?
A. Pemphigus foliaceus
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Bullous pemphigoid
| Dermatitis herpetiformis |
ea1f2735-163f-4760-a82a-170c0c1f0d5e | ANSWER: (C) Codeine REF: KDT 5th ed p. 197ANTITUSSIVESOpioidsNon opioidsCodeinePholocodieneNoscapine or narcotineDextrpmethorphanOxeladin chlorphdianol | Pharmacology | Opioids | An opioid which is an anti tussive action is?
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Oxeladin
C. Codeine
D. Narcotine
| Codeine |
75cfc91c-23da-408c-a0a2-d11d79e2507e | Ans. B. zinc deficiencyZinc is a component of over 100 metal enzymes and participates in many biological processes. Zinc regulates gene transcription and participates in nucleic acid metabolism, protein synthesis and thereby cellular growth. Zinc deficiency is usually seen as a part of malnutrition or malabsorption syndromes, caused by low dietary intake or intestinal disease. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is an autosomal recessive syndrome of severe zinc deficiency, caused by defective intestinal absorption due to intestinal zinc transporter protein. Presentation in early infancy, with vesicobullous, dry, scaly or eczematous skin lesions chiefly involving the perioral, perineal and acral areas. Alopecia and eye changes such as conjunctivitis, blepharitis and photophobia may be present. | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Perioral rash and pigmentation of palmar area and eczematous skin lesions are seen in:
A. Selenium deficiency
B. Zinc deficiency
C. Chromium deficiency
D. Iodine deficiency
| Zinc deficiency |
f121fb3b-1c9f-4916-a8e4-3d10b53184e3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Crude death rate o The simplest measure of moality is the crude death rate. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Simplest measure of moality ?
A. Crude death rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Propoional moality rate
D. Specific death rate
| Crude death rate |
0390b3e4-a3ee-4af1-9005-280043bc8f49 | Cone bearing(prosthesis possible)End bearing(where limb fitting facilities are limited)Below knee (stump= 8cm preferably 10-12 cm below knee) Above knee (stump = 20 cm above knee) Gritti stokes (transcondylar at lower femur) Through kneeSyme's (tibia and fibula are sectioned above the ankle joint preserving blood supply to calcaneus) (Refer: Schwaz's Prinicples of Surgery, 9th edition, pg no: 3300-3303) | Pathology | All India exam | The procedure contraindicated in diabetics
A. Ray amputation
B. Forefoot amputation
C. Syme's amputation
D. Below knee amputation
| Syme's amputation |
2fb29278-c5a7-427e-b135-18c0b6a1476f | The atrial pressure changes are transmitted to the great veins, producing three characteristic waves in the record of jugular pressure. The A wave is due to atrial systole. C wave due to ventricular systole. It is caused paly by paial backflow of blood into atria during onset of ventricular contraction but mainly due to bulging of av valves backwards towards atria due to increasing pressure in ventricle. V wave is occurs towards end of ventricular contraction as a result of Slow flow of blood into atria frim the veins when the av valves are closed during ventricular contraction. Ref: Ganong's Review of medical physiology 25th edition. Page: 542, Gyton textbook of medical physiology, page 106 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | A wave in JVP is due to
A. Atrial systole
B. Atrial diastole
C. Ventricular systale
D. Ventricular diastole
| Atrial systole |
12e02b09-e2a1-425f-8796-6c5b96300221 | Refer kDT 7/e 556 Treatment depends on severity Treatment ranges from lifestyle changes and cardiac rehabilitation to medication, stents and bypass surgery. Suppoive care Defibrillation Using an electrical shock to correct a rapid, irregular heabeat and restore the hea's normal rhythm. Oxygen therapy Providing extra oxygen to the lungs of people with breathing problems. Medications Blood Thinners Helps prevent blood clots from forming or helps dissolve existing clots. Hea Medication Helps reduce chest pain or pressure caused by blockages in the aeries of the hea. Narcotic Relieves pain, dulls the senses and causes drowsiness. May become addictive. Beta blocker Slows hea rate and decreases blood pressure. When taken in eye-drop form, it reduces eye pressure. Statin Decreases the liver's production of harmful cholesterol. ACE inhibitor Relaxes blood vessels, lowers blood pressure and prevents diabetes-related kidney damage. Medical procedure Coronary stent and Coronary angioplasty Therapies Cardiac rehabilitation Surgery Coronary aery bypass surgery | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following drug is used in myocardial infarction
A. Cocaine
B. Pethidine
C. Morphine
D. Butarphanol
| Morphine |
53de6aa7-4c69-4dc1-a07c-bd126201fec0 | There are two known species of Pneumocystis - Pneumocystis carinii, commonly found in rats and Pneumocystis jirovecii seen in humans. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | Microbiology | mycology | Pneumocystis carinii causes primary infection in
A. Rats
B. Mice
C. Humans
D. Rabbits
| Rats |
f7548554-6a9d-4f85-9f0d-c10515bfd40b | Dying deposition is the statement of a person on oath, recorded by a magistrate.
In the presence of the accused or his lawyer.
The lawyer is allowed to cross-examine the witness.
This procedure is not followed in India.
Such a situation is so-called hypothetical as it is practically very difficult to achieve or virtually impossible. | Forensic Medicine | null | The hypothetical situation is-
A. Police inquest
B. Magistrate inquest
C. Dying declaration
D. Dying deposition
| Dying deposition |
28bfacf6-be34-4c87-8024-5aec41cc13d6 | Euthenics deals with the "improvement" through altering external factors and environment to enable adequate expression of genotype. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 767. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Environmental manipulation to enable BEST expression of genotype is known as:
A. Eugenics
B. Euthenics
C. Gene therapy
D. Euthanasia
| Euthenics |
9a3b141c-5523-4bd3-93e0-41f30c6a07d1 | Microphone, Speech-processor and Transmitter are the pa of external component of cochlear implant, which remain outside the body. Receiver/Stimulator (Implanted under the skin) and Electrode array (implanted in the scala tympani of the cochlea) are the pa of internal component of cochlear implant, which are fitted inside the body. | ENT | null | What is placed during surgery for cochlear implant?
A. Microphone
B. Speech processor
C. Transmitting coil
D. Receiver stimulator
| Receiver stimulator |
91dee4da-e0a9-42f5-afeb-c43ee4187cb1 | movement and muscle: 1. elevation of larynx: thyrohyoid, mylohyoid 2. Depression of larynx: sternothyroid, sternohyoid 3. Opening inlet of larynx: thyroepiglottic 4.abductor of vocal cords: posterior cricoarytenoid only 5. Adductor of vocal cords: lateral cricoarytenoid and transverse and oblique arytenoids Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 258 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Abductor muscle of vocal cord is
A. Cricothyroid
B. Interarytenoid
C. Lateral cricoarytenoid
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid
| Posterior cricoarytenoid |
c4252db8-a8d7-41b2-bcf0-e36e298e3bdf | Ref: Harrison's 17th/612 Drugs used for osteosarcoma are: Doxorubicin Ifosfamide Cisplatin High dose methotrexate with leucovorin | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | High dose methotrexate is used for the treatment of(REPEAT)
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Ewing's sarcoma
| Osteosarcoma |
1ce4c3ec-2928-425a-91af-59273259a671 | Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is associated with copper zinc superoxide dismutase gene mutation(SOD 1). | Pathology | null | Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is associated with?
A. ATM gene
B. SOD1 gene
C. NF2 gene
D. HIF - 1 gene
| SOD1 gene |
20d2413a-06b5-4de0-bea5-2e8afbab4df2 | Ans. B: Suicidal deaths Hesitation cuts derive their name from the hesitation with which these incisions are inflicted by a person intending to commit suicide by a cutting instrument. The preliminary cuts are known as tentative cuts Hesitation cuts are not found in homicidal assaults Hesitation/ tentative wounds They are defined either as: any cut or wound that is self-inflicted after a decision is made not to commit suicide, or any tentative cut or wound that is made before the final cut that causes death. Such wounds are usually superficial, sharp, forced skin cuts found on the body of victims. These less severe cutting marks are often caused by attempts to build up courage before attempting the final, fatal wound. Non-fatal, shallow hesitation wounds can also accompany the deeper, sometimes fatal incisions. Although hesitation cuts are not always present in cases of suicide, they are typical of suicidal injuries. However, the presence of hesitation marks alongside or near to the final fatal mark usually indicates a forensic diagnosis of suicide over other possible causes of death. Hesitation wounds are generally straight-line marks at the elbows, neck/throat, and wrists, although in a few cases they occur in the general area of the upper middle pa of the abdomen (near the hea). Wounds made by people attempting suicide are typically made at an angle related to the hand that holds the weapon. The angle of such hesitation wounds is usually in a downward flowing direction because of the natural motion of the arm as it sweeps across the body. Hesitation wounds are often made under clothing, with paicular pas of the clothing being paed to expose the target area of the body. Instruments used to inflict hesitation wounds are generally those found around the living quaers of the person attempting suicide. Such instruments include kitchen knives, single-edge and double-edge knifes, pocket knives, hatchets, razor blades, screwdrivers, and other sharp objects. People who have previously attempted suicide, but have not succeeded in their endeavor, will often carry visible scars from hesitation wounds. | Forensic Medicine | null | Tentative cuts are seen in: September 2011
A. Homicidal death
B. Suicidal death
C. Accidental death
D. Hanging
| Suicidal death |
7e3c6a40-b3d4-4df4-8767-13313aa376ae | Oxytocin has a half life of approximately 3-5 minutes. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Labour - II | Mean half life of oxytocin?
A. 3 min
B. 30 min
C. 2 min
D. 1 min
| 3 min |
8c65e2a3-682b-4268-a251-e21f2b59cc9b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pentazocine Its use is associated with tachycardia & rise in BP is due to sympathetic stimulation. This increases cardiac work and hence is better avoided in coronary ischemia and myocardial infarction. Note - Petnidine also causes tachycardia (anticholinergic action) --> contraindicated in MI. | Pharmacology | null | Which analgesic is not used in Acute myocardial infarction -
A. Morphine
B. Pentazocine
C. Pethidine
D. Buprenorphine
| Pentazocine |
e8830698-1918-4bc8-80ac-8c554ebd39f4 | This is a group of small gram-negative rods that have in common the following: slow growth in culture, the requirement for high CO2 levels to grow in culture, and the ability to cause endocarditis. They are members of the human oropharyngeal flora and can enter the bloodstream from that site. The name "HACEK" is an acronym of the first letters of the genera of the following bacteria: Haemophilus aphrophilus and Haemophilus paraphrophilus, Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 27. Minor Bacterial Pathogens. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | Microbiology | null | Which is not a pa of HACEK?
A. Haemophilus Aphrophilus
B. Acinetobacter Baumannii
C. Cardiobacterium Hominis
D. Kingella Kingae
| Acinetobacter Baumannii |
67658b1e-529e-40bc-9e7f-285212854088 | Convergent squint - Inward detion of the eye and is the most common type of squint in children Convergent squint is classified into following type I. Infantile squint Age of onset is usually 2-4 months of age but occur any time in first 6 months of life Angle of detion is usually constant and fairly large > 35' Amblyopia develop in 25-40 % cases Surgery should be done between 6 months to 2 years ( preferably before one year of age) II. Accommodative esotropia Develops around 2 - 3 years of age Associated with high hypermetropia Requires refractive correction III. Acquired non accommodative esotropia Amount of detion is not affect by the sate of accommodation IV. Sensory esotropia Result from monocular lesions in childhood V. Consecutive esotropia - Result from surgical overcorrection of exotropia | Ophthalmology | Squint | What is angle of detion in Infantile Esotropia
A. 10'
B. 35'
C. 20'
D. 15'
| 35' |
2842d4f5-974b-4255-944f-d4e66e589efe | MAOI * IMPOANCE First class of antidepressant drugs that were introduced * MECHANISM There are three monoamines namely dopamine, adrenaline and serotonin. These mon amines are degraded by monoamine oxidase. MAOI inhibit this enzyme and acts increasing monoamines * DRUGS Phenelezine Tranylcipromine * USE ATYPICAL DEPRESSION, depression with reverse vegetative symptoms * SIDE EFFECTS Hypeensive crisis Cheese reaction When a patient on MAOI takes tyramine rich food like tyramine there will be increased release of monoamines. These excess monoamines cannot be degraded by MAO as it is blocked by MAOI. Thus, this may result in hypeensive crisis. Paresthesia's due to pyridoxine deficiency LIKE IPRONIAZID WEIGHT gain SEXUAL dysfunction ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg. 935 | Anatomy | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | which is the drug which causes cheese reaction
A. NDRI
B. SSRI
C. MAOI
D. SNRI
| MAOI |
87cdd640-a461-46da-9970-f2e6bf17bb46 | The biosynthesis of PUFAs involves the introduction of double bonds (desaturation) in the aliphatic chain of a fatty acid and the extension (elongation) by two carbon units, of the acyl chain. So, the biosynthetic pathway involves the alternate action of enzymes currently named desaturases and elongases. Fatty acid substrates are always in the form of thioesters of acyl carrier proteins (ACP), Coenzyme A (CoA) or esterified to phospholipidsDesaturation is an aerobic process utilizing molecular oxygen and reducing equivalents obtained from an electron transpo chain.The electron donor depends only on the subcellular location of the desaturase, being cytochrome b5 in the endoplasmic reticulum and ferredoxin in plastids and bacteria.Desaturases represent a complex group of enzymes that could be classified in different ways, depending on the kind of esterification of the fatty acid used as substrate; the solubility of the enzyme; the electron donor; subcellular localization and the regioselectivity of the reaction. | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Enzymes involved in PUFA synthesis
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Acyl transferase
C. Acetyl transferase
D. Desaturase
| Desaturase |
be61cd14-5e1e-48d8-89e4-e791fd5b7e55 | There are four characteristics or determinants of proximal locks:
Position.
Translation.
Depth.
Occlusogingival orientation.
Position refers to the axiofacial and axiolingual line angles of initial tooth preparation (0.2 mm axial to DEJ). It is important to note that the retention locks should be placed 0.2 mm inside the DEJ, regardless of the depth of the axial walls and axial line angles.
Translation refers to the direction of movement of the axis of the bur.
Depth refers to the extent of translation (i.e., 0.5 mm at gingival floor level).
Occlusogingival orientation refers to the tilt of the No. 169L bur, which dictates the occlusal height of the lock, given a constant depth.
Reference: Sturdevant operative dentistry. 4th edition, Page No:705 | Dental | null | The “Position” of proximal locks refers to:
A. Direction of movement of the axis of the bur
B. The occlusal height of the lock, given a constant depth
C. The axiofacial and axiolingual line angles of initial tooth preparation
D. The extent of translation
| The axiofacial and axiolingual line angles of initial tooth preparation |
5fa5f38b-ecaa-4c92-adc0-36589b00a5c7 | Decreased visual acuity may occur as a result of macular involvement or severe vitreous inflammation. ... An active toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis is whitish and moderately exudative with ill-defined borders and involves the macula in a majority of patients. Ref khurana 6/e | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous | Macular involvement is common in
A. Toxoplasma
B. Malaria
C. CMV
D. Syphilis
| Toxoplasma |
4c38020d-bfa8-4ed5-af13-e0a165f75048 | Insiduous /gradual onset of fever over a duration of two weeks, with features of raised intracranial tension in the form of vomiting and altered sensorium with characteristic basal exudates and hydrocephalus on cranial CT scan are almost characteristic of tuberculous meningitis.
TUBERCULOUS MENINGITIS
Tuberculous meningitis usually arises from the formation of metastatic caseous lesions in the cerebral cortex or meningitis that develops during the lymphohaematogenous spread of primary infection. This initial lesion increases in size and discharges tubercle bacilli in the subarachnoid space.
This results in gelatinous basal exudate which interferes in the normal flow of CSF, in and out of the ventricular system at the level of basal cisterns leading to a communicating hydrocephalus.
Clinical manifestations of tuberculous meriins
The clinical course of TB meningitis has three stages -
Prodromal stage or stage of invasion
Insidious onset o Headache and vomiting
Low grade fever, loss of appetite o Photophobia
Disturbed sleep o Constipation
2. Stage of meningitis
Signs of meningeal irritation develops - Neck rigidity, Kernig's sign
3. Stage of coma
o Loss of consiousness o Bradycardia
Pupils are dilated & fixed ❑ Chyne-strokes or Biot type of respiration
Episodic decerebration
CT findings in TBM :
Basal cisterns are obliterated by isodense / hyperdense exudate
Post contrast there is a avid enhancement of the basal meninges extending into the ambient, sylvian, pontine and chiasmatic cisterns.
Meningeal enhancement may continue over the cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres.
3. Hydrocephalus is present in 45-87% of patients at time of diagnosis. | Pediatrics | null | A 10 month old child presents with two weeks history off fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus, the most likely etiological agent is –
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Listera monocytogenes
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
4391d466-96a4-47bc-a123-b3870da3bc9b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Clozapine o Antipsychotics with no extrapyramidal effects. 1. Clozapine 2. Aripiprazole 3. Quetiapine o Amongst typical antipsychotics, thioridazone has least extrapyramidal effects. | Pharmacology | null | Extrapyramidal side-effect least seen with ?
A. Clozapine
B. Haloperidol
C. Thioridazine
D. Fluphenozine
| Clozapine |
ff91f0c8-14bc-4f7c-9f31-991367575429 | CORNEAL DYSTROPHIES CLASSIFICATION Dystrophies are classified according to the anatomic site most severely (primarily) involved, as follows: I. Anterior dystrophies (superficial dystrophies) It primarily affecting epithelium and Bowman&;s layer. 1. Epithelial basement membrane dystrophy 2. Reis-Buckler&;s dystrophy. 3. Meesman&;s dystrophy. 4. Recurrent corneal erosion syndrome. 5. Stocker-Holt dystrophy. II. Stromal dystrophies 1. Granular (Groenouw&;s type I) dystrophy 2. Lattice dystrophy 3. Macular (Groenouw&;s type II) dystrophy 4. Crystalline (Schnyder&;s) dystrophy III. Posterior dystrophies affecting primarily the corneal endothelium and Descemet&;s membrane. 1. Cornea guttata 2. Fuchs&; epithelial-endothelial dystrophy (late hereditary endothelial dystrophy). 3. Posterior polymorphous dystrophy (of Schlichting). 4. Congenital hereditary endothelial dystrophy (CHED). STROMAL DYSTROPHIES Macular dystrophy (Groenouw type-II) It is an autosomal recessive dystrophy characterised by appearance of dense grey opacity in the central cornea. The condition results due to accumulation of mucopolysaccharides owing to a local enzyme deficiency. It occurs in childhood (5 to 10 years) and leads to marked defective vision in early life, which usually requires penetrating keratoplasty. Ref:-A K KHURANA; pg num:-117,118 | Ophthalmology | Cornea and sclera | Which of the following corneal dystrophies is an autosomal recessive condition
A. Macular dystrophy
B. Granular dystrophy
C. Fleck dystrophy
D. Lattice dystrophy
| Macular dystrophy |
321695df-0057-44b7-8783-92db95ae7d2b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., EBV Burkitts lymphomao Burkitt's lymphoma is a B-cell lymphoma arising from germinal center B-cells. As this a tumor of mature B-cells it expresses IgM, CD19, CD20, CD10 and BCL 6 a phenotype consistent with a B-cell origin. However, unlike other tumors of germinal center origin, Burkitt lymphoma almost always fails to express the anti-apoptotie protein BCL-2.o All forms of Burkitt lymphoma are associated with translocations of c-Myc gene on chromosome 8. The usual translocation is t (8:14). Other less common translocations are t (2 : 8) and t (8 : 22).o Most of the patients in United States with Burkitt's lymphoma present with peripheral lymphadenopathy or an intra abdominal mass. The disease is typically rapidly progressive and has a propensity to metastasize to CNS.o Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in Burkitt's Lymphoma. Burkitt's Lymphoma was one of the first cancers shown to be curable by chemotherapy.Morphologyo A high mitotic index is typical, as is apoptotic tumor cell death, accounting for the presence of numerous tissue macrophages writh ingested nuclear debris. These benign macrophages are diffusely distributed among the tumor cells and have abundant clear cytoplasm, creating a characteristic "starry sky" pattern.o "Starry sky" pattern may also be seen in lymphoblastic lymphoma (acute lymphoblastic leukemia/ lymphoma: ALL), but it is more characteristic of Burkitts lymphoma. | Pathology | Non Hodgkin Lymphoma | Burkitts lymphoma is caused by -
A. EBV
B. HPV
C. HSV
D. RSV
| EBV |
8c646a76-b6df-4bb8-a8b8-9bf651151f9c | A child hops on one foot by 4 years and skips by 5 years. As this child can not hop, the age of this child is less than 4 years. | Pediatrics | null | When a child is not able to perform the following motor functions such as skipping, walking on heels, hopping in place or going forwards in tandem gati, his motor development is considered to be below –
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
| 4 years |
6d3c1361-8929-4b0d-8b54-64842f2f7e47 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., MRIInvestigations in musculoskeletal systemo Investigation of choice for AVN Hip - MRIo Best initial test for osteomyelitis - Plain x-rayo Best second line test for osteomyelitis (if there is high clinical suspician and x-ray is negative) - MRIo Most accurate diagnostic test for osteomyelitis - Bone biopsy and culture,o Best view for scaphoid fracture - Oblique (scaphoid) view of wrist,o Best view for C1-C2 vertebrae & junction - Open mouth odontoid (Pegs) view,o Investigation of choice for ACL & PCL injury - MRIo Investigation of choice to detect calcification - CT scano Investigation of choice for prolapsed intervertebral disc - MRIo Investigation of choice for spinal tuberculosis - MRIo Investigation of choice for traumatic paraplagia -MRIo Gold standard and investigation of choice for osteoporosis - Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA). | Orthopaedics | TB of the Spine | Investigation of choice for spinal tuberculosis -
A. X-ray
B. CT-Scan
C. Open biopsy
D. MRI
| MRI |
7106875b-fd52-4618-849f-7f7de79e9a5a | Subhepatic space infection usually occurs after surgery or peritonitis in the supracolic compartment. It is an unlikely complication of biliary pancreatitis. Infections in the subhepatic space may extend to the infracolic compartment via the paracolic gutter (of Morrison). This implies a perforation of the stomach. | Surgery | Trauma | A 32-year-old man underwent laparotomy for trauma because of multiorgan injuries. He was discharged after 2 weeks in the hospital only to be readmitted after 3 days because of abdominal pain and sepsis. The CT scan showed an accumulation of fluid in the subhepatic space. This space is likely to be directly involved following an injury to which of the following?
A. Inferior pole of the right kidney
B. Stomach
C. Superior mesenteric artery
D. Inferior mesenteric vein
| Stomach |
47bde648-c58e-43d9-bbf0-2ae770ccddbb | Tissue diagnosis is always preferred over any radiological diagnosis hence CT guided biopsy to obtain tissue and then fuher investigations to grow the organisms is the preferred approach. MRI is best Radiological investigation But best investigation overall for infections or tumors is always biopsy. | Orthopaedics | Tuberculosis of Bone and Joints | Tuberculosis of spine best diagnostic modality is:
A. Clinical
B. X-ray
C. MRI
D. CT guided biopsy
| CT guided biopsy |
0f25b2ee-0593-4e20-a1f0-1da753373107 | Urge urinary incontinence is urinary leakage preceeded by strong desire to void. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Urge urinary incontinence is
A. Involuntary urinary leak with increase in abdominal pressure
B. Involuntary urinary leak preceeded by strong imminent need to void
C. Urinary urgency with increased daytime frequency and nocturia
D. Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia
| Involuntary urinary leak preceeded by strong imminent need to void |
a2c44c93-1743-441b-b356-343409035b2c | Blood Culture - For Adults ,the blood is inoculated into the bottle containing blood culture medium in a blood to broth ratio of 1:10 In case of children, where the amount of blood drawn is little , a ratio of 1:5 may be achieved. | Microbiology | General Microbiology Pa 1 (History, Microscopy, Stains and Structure and Physiology of Bacteria) | In adults , blood culture ratio of blood to reagent is -
A. 1:05
B. 1:20
C. 1:10
D. 0.111111111
| 1:10 |
58b3dc8f-9f0a-4014-805e-c5cf85a488a6 | Ans is 'c' i.e. Delusion of double Delusion of misidentificationA. Capgras syndrome (Delusion of double): - Belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an exact double i.e. an impostor.B. Fregoli syndrome: - Belief that a complete stranger is actually a familiar person already known to one.Also remember* Othello syndrome - delusion of jealousy (infidelity)* Declerambault's syndrome - delusion of love* Cotard's syndrome - Nihilistic delusions* Ekbom syndrome - Delusion of infestations. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Capgras syndrome is?
A. Delusion of infidelity
B. Delusion of love
C. Delusion of double
D. Delusion of grandiose
| Delusion of double |
c9429413-fa33-4f28-bf49-6f422bdc1ee0 | SKEWNESS: * Is measure of asymmetry of a probability distribution of a random variable * Measures of skewness: - - Pearson's mode or First Skewness coefficient = (Mean - Mode) /SD - - Pearson's median or second Skewness coefficient = 3 (Mean - Median) /SD - - Quaile skewness = ( Q3-2Q2 + Q1)/Q3 - Q1 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Normal Distribution, Skewed Distributions | Pearson's Skewness Coefficient is given BY
A. Mean-Mode /SD
B. Mode-Mean/SD
C. SD/Mean-Median
D. SD/Median-Mean
| Mean-Mode /SD |
d1891465-4d8e-47c2-8593-89728f5e93a4 | Ans. (b) Anemic hypoxia(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.646)Characterized by reduction in hemoglobin concentration and decline in the O2 -carrying capacity of the blood (reduced arterial O2 content)Anemic hypoxia is seen in Carbon monoxide poisoning and methemoglobinemia | Physiology | Respiratory System | Arterial O2 content is reduced in one of the following
A. Stagnant hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Ischemic hypoxia
| Anemic hypoxia |
4b3257f1-f780-43eb-9c4c-f2adde5a7b13 | Answer is C (Aoic incompetance) 195.Aoic regurgitation is associated with LV dilatation, LV hyperophy and LVfitilure AR The total volume ejected by the ventricle (forward stroke + volume of blood that regurgitates back into L.V.) is increased in A.R. Also, here, the entire L.V. stoke volume is ejected into a high pressure zone, the Aoa. This leads to dilatation of LV, followed by deterioration of LV function i.e. LVF; Considerable thickening of LV wall (LV hyperophy) also occurs with chronic AR. - Harrison 14th / 1321 M.S. The left ventricular diastolic pressure is normal in isolated Mitral Stenosis. Mitral stenosis leads to elevated left atrial pressure, elevated pulmonary venous and capillary pressures, with resultant increase in right ventricular after load and ultimately RV failure. - Harrison 14th / 1312 ASD An ASD allows shunting of blood from LA to RA and then to RV. It is Rt side of the hea that is primarily involved. No haemodynamic effects are seen on L.V. Carcinoid syndrome Carcinoid syndrome may cause valvular hea disease by causing endocardial fibrosis. However it is the right side of the hea that is usually involved. e Proximal side e of tricuspid and pulmonary valves are involved, leading to tricuspid insufficiency or pulmonary stenosis and thereby secondary 'Right sided hea failure'. Q-Harrison 14th /586, 15th/597 | Medicine | null | LVH is commonly seen with :
A. Pure mitral stenosis
B. ASD with fossa-ovalis
C. Aoic incompetance
D. Carcinoid syndrome
| Aoic incompetance |
aea7383e-19bb-40a5-b073-8fcfd0e11199 | The HDL paicles are referred to as scavengers because their primary role is to remove free (unesterified) cholesterol from the extrahepatic tissues. HDL paicles transpo cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues to liver (i.e. reverse cholesterol transpo) which is then excreted through bile. Reverse cholesterol transpo All nucleated cells in different tissues synthesize cholesterol, but the excretion of cholesterol is mainly by liver in the bile or by enterocytes in gut lumen. So, cholesterol must be transpoed from peripheral tissue to liver for excretion. This is facilitated by HDL and is called reverse cholesterol transpo because it transpos the cholesterol in reverse direction to that is transpoed from liver to peripheral tissues through VLDL - LDL cycle. Process HDL is synthesized in liver and small intestine. Nascent HDL contain phospholipids and unesterified cholesterol and Apo-A, C, E. This nascent HDL is secreted into circulation where it acquires additional unesterified cholesterol from peripheral tissues. Within the HDL paicle, the cholesterol is esterified by lecithin - cholesterol acetyltransferase (LCAT) to form cholesteryl ester and additional lipid are transpoed to HDL from VLDL and chylomicrons. Apo-A1 activates LCAT. | Biochemistry | null | Lipoprotein involved in reverse cholesterol transpo?
A. LDL
B. VLDL
C. IDL
D. HDL
| HDL |
35f573c0-4930-4c86-983c-78242988c211 | Trans fatty acids are isomers of cis fatty acids which are found in naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids. They are formed during hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the production of margarine. The configuration of groups in a trans fatty acid is such that the acyl chains are on the opposite side of the double bond. Trans fatty acids not only raise the level of triglycerides, total and LDL cholesterol but also lower the level of HDL. Hence their consumption is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The WHO recommends that the intake of trans fats should be less than 1% of the total energy intake. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition page 213 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Which of the following is a byproduct of hydrogenation of vegetable oils?
A. Cis fatty acids
B. Trans fatty acids
C. Eicosanoids
D. Glycerol
| Trans fatty acids |
48df8492-638d-466a-90ef-8586e14bbd2c | After neuroblastoma, Wilms tumor is the second most common abdominal tumor in children. Symptoms consist of abdominal enlargement in 60%; pain in 20%; hematuria in 15%; malaise, weakness, anorexia, and weight loss in 10%; and fever in 3%. Hypeension is noted in over half of patients. Ref: Albanese C.T., Sylvester K.G. (2010). Chapter 43. Pediatric Surgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | Surgery | null | Which among the following is the least common symptom of Wilms tumour?
A. Haematuria
B. Mass abdomen
C. Pain
D. Fever
| Fever |
f881fc31-cf7d-41d9-81dc-5c418b67e132 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Macrocytic anaemia "The most common adverse effect of zidovudine is myelosuppression, resulting in macrocytic anemia (1-4%) or neutropenia (2-8%)". So most common side effect of zidovudine is neutropenia (2-8%) followed by macrocytic anemia (1-4%). Other side effects are - nausea, anorexia, headache, insomnia, abdominal pain, myalgia, malaise, fatigue, myopathy, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly with steatosis, convulsions and encephalopathy. | Pharmacology | null | Azidothymidine (Zidovudine), commonest side effect is
A. Hyperuricemia
B. Pancreatitis
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Macrocytic anaemia
| Macrocytic anaemia |
303946ba-f130-4f5d-9a06-a28d566f1af1 | The most common presentation is hemarthrosis with pain in a weight-bearing joint such as the hip, knee, or ankle. Hematuria is also common. Bleeding can occur at almost any site without prior trauma. | Medicine | Blood | A 9-year-old boy presents to the clinic for evaluation of easy bruising. Investigations confirm the diagnosis of hemophilia A. Which of the following is the most common presentation of hemophilia A?
A. hematuria
B. melena
C. hemarthrosis
D. pressure neuropathy
| hemarthrosis |
c083ed98-4606-497f-b5ce-70701fc7af41 | Ref: HL sharma 3rd ed pg no: 545 Piracetam, aniracetam are nootropic agents(sma drugs) used in Alzheimer's remaining drugs increase cholinergic activity in Alzheimer's | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the following is not a cholinergic agent
A. Galantamine
B. Donepezil
C. Tacrine
D. Piracetam
| Piracetam |
89649a10-680a-4c38-9eb0-2fa15f3757b4 | In case of a foreign body in upper airway,
if visualised - Foreign body removal using Magill's forceps
If not visualised - Heimlich's maneuver. | Pediatrics | null | A 3 year old male baby presents to Casualty with complaints of sudden onset of stridor. A foreign body is visualised in the upper airway. Next line of management
A. Heimlich's maneuver
B. Foreign body removal using Magill's forceps
C. Foreign body removal using Rigid Bronchoscope
D. Foreign body removal using Fibreoptic Bronchoscope
| Foreign body removal using Magill's forceps |
25889f45-e0a6-4da5-8115-9f55a12d63a3 | Formation of bag of waters is almost a ceain sign of onset of labour. During dilatation of the cervical membrane the unsuppoed lower pole of the fetal membranes tends to bulge into the cervical canal. It is called bag of waters when this bulging membrane contains amniotic fluid. When uterine contractions occur this bag becomes tense and convex, and it disappears when the contraction passes off. Features of true labour pains: Occurrence of painful uterine contractions at regular intervals Contraction with increasing intensity and duration Show Progressive effacement and dilatation of cervix Formation of bag of waters Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C Dutta, 6th edn, page 117. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A primigravida female at term presents to the clinic with labor pains. Which of the following is a sure sign of labour?
A. Show
B. Bag of waters
C. Cervical effacement
D. Progressive dilatation of cervix
| Bag of waters |
e811901c-b55a-4eee-9710-a629a12d790c | The most common abnormalities of chromosome number are 'trisomies' -Nelson
The most frequent and best known trisomy in humans is trisomy 21 or Down's syndrome - Nelson | Medicine | null | Most common trisomy among following is -
A. 18
B. 21
C. 13
D. 5
| 21 |
97ca707e-42bd-4d8d-b2e9-91c50de7e4a6 | Ans: b (Hep A) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 99Routine investigations done during antenatal checkup1. Blood grouping. VDRL, RBS( only in selected cases)2. Urine routine-- protein, sugar and pus cells.3. Cervical cytology in selected cases.Special investigations in pregnancy1. Serological tests for rubella. Hep B and HIV (with consent).2. MSAFP or triple test for mothers at risk.3. USG - first trimester scan and anomaly scan at 20 wks.Though Hep D is also not mentioned, it can be taken as a part of Hep B virus because Hep D does not occur alone. It is always associated with Hep B. So the best answer here is Hep A- which is not transmitted by blood. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Which screening test is not done in pregnant women?
A. VDRL
B. Hep A
C. Hep B
D. Hep D
| Hep A |
988127c2-04f0-4ec4-a0d5-37bf80650182 | STATURE * The most common method used- linear regression. * With this technique, the known statures of adults in a given population are plotted against the lengths of skeletal elements and the best lines are fitted to the scatter plots * Various regression formulae for calculating height have been compiled, based on a number of different populations and sex. * Karl pearson&;s formula: a constant factor is to be added to the product of the length of the bone with the multiplying factor * femur- (Males) 81.306 +1.880 x length of femur, (072.884+1.945 x length * Tibia -- (M)78.664 + 2.376 x length, (F) 74.774 +2.352 X length * Humerus -- 70.641+2.891 x length, (F)71.745+ 2.754 x length Ref: P.C.Ignsitus Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology,3rd edition,Page 96. | Forensic Medicine | Identification | Pearson's formula is used for -
A. Cephalic index
B. Stature
C. Race
D. Age
| Stature |
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