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2862b472-db8a-431d-a6ca-adb38f116e0f | Lactate dehydrogenase is comprised of two domains, an N-terminal NAD+ -binding domain and a C-terminal binding domain for the second substrate, pyruvate. Lactate dehydrogenase is one of the family of oxidoreductases that share a common N-terminal NAD(P)+ -binding domain known as the Rossmann fold. By fusing a segment of DNA coding for a Rossmann fold domain to that coding for a variety of C-terminal domains, a large family of oxidoreductases have evolved that utilize NAD(P)+ /NAD(P)H for the oxidation and reduction of a wide range of metabolites.
Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 40 | Biochemistry | null | Rossmann fold associated NADH domain is found in which enzyme?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Malate dehydrogenase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
| Lactate dehydrogenase |
47518a17-43b4-47bc-a2bb-2f224457060e | HYPERSENSITIVITY VASCULITISIn hypersensitivity vasculitis, postcapillary venules are the most commonly involved vessels, capillaries and aerioles are involved less frequently.It is primarily a disease of small vessels.It is characterized by leukocytosis, a term that refers to the nuclear debris remaining from the neutrophils that have infiltrated in and around the vessels during the acute stages. | Microbiology | All India exam | Hypersensitivity vasculitis is seen most commonly in
A. Postcapillary venules
B. Aerioles
C. Veins
D. Capillaries
| Postcapillary venules |
21db7565-ae1a-47f5-b631-0c922bd4d693 | Henoch schonlein purpura
This syndrome consists of
Pruritic skin lesions characteristically involving the extensor surfaces of arms and legs as well as buttocks.
Abdominal manifestations → Pain, vomiting, bleeding
Nonnzigratory arthralgia
Renal abnormalities
The disease most commonly affects children between 3 to 8 years.
Renal manifestations
Gross or microscopic hematuria
Proteinuria
Nephrotic syndrome
There is deposition of IgA, sometimes with IgG and C3, in the mesangial region.
IgA is deposited in the glomerular mesangium in a distribution similar to that of IgA nephropathy. This has led to the concept that IgA nephropathy and Henoch-Schonlein purpura are spectra of the same disease. | Pathology | null | Increased IgA deposits are seen in -
A. Henoch Schonlein Purpura
B. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis
C. Chronic Pyelonephritis
D. Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
| Henoch Schonlein Purpura |
92c94b50-f842-4a70-8634-7a7d3e104a9c | *A deficit of naming (anomia) is the single most common finding in aphasic patients. The persistent inability to find the correct word is known as anomia (literally, 'without names'). Anomia is actually a symptom of all forms of aphasia, but patients whose primary language problem is word retrieval are diagnosed as having anomic aphasia. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2234 | Medicine | C.N.S | Single most common finding in Aphasic Patients
A. Anomia
B. Apraxia
C. Alexia
D. Agraphia
| Anomia |
a7da3bb6-7525-45ee-a28a-b42c1761953c | Insulin preparations: Sho acting insulin - Aspa Glulisine Lispro Regular Intermediate acting -> Lente insulin Long acting insulin Detemir Degludec NPH Ultra long acting insulin: Glargine Inhaled insulin - Afrezza All insulin preparation are available at neutral pH. Insulin glargine has acidic pH<4, so insulin glargine should not be mixed with any other insulin. | Pharmacology | Pancreas | Which of the following insulin should not be mixed with other insulins?
A. Glargine
B. Aspa
C. Lispro
D. Regular
| Glargine |
9f08fb1f-67fb-46fa-8d12-7c97213fe2c1 | Ans. A. PCODa. PCOS/PCOD is a disorder of chronically abnormal ovarian function (oligo/anovulation) and hyperandrogenism frequently a/w hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance, resulting in menstrual irregularity, infertility, and hirsutism.b. Rotterdam 2003 criteria for diagnosis of PCOS/PCOD:c. At least 2 of 3 should be present:i. Oligo/anovulation (causes oligomenorrhea, amenorrhea, and infertility)ii. Hyperandrogenism: Biochemical or clinical (increased serum androgens or acne, hirsutism)iii. 12 or more than 12 follicles 2-9mm in size present within or both ovaries on USG and/or ovarian volume >10mL (necklace-of pearl pattern).* As the patient in the question satisfies first 2 criteria, she is a case of PCOS. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Obs) | A 20-year-old female presents with excess facial hair and oligomenorrhea, increased levels of free testosterone, and normal ovaries on USG. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. PCOD
B. Adrenal hyperplasia
C. Idiopathic hirsutism
D. Testosterone-secreting tumor
| PCOD |
d38fd8a2-75de-495f-aadd-4640dd125f1b | REF BD CHAURASIAS HUMAN ANATOMY SIXTH EDITION VOLUME 2 PAGE 53 Saorius is long narrow and ribbon like it run downwards and medially across the front of thigh .it is the longest muscle in the body. It orgin :anterior superior iliac spine Ipper half of notch below spine Inseion: medial surface of shaft of tibia upper pa | Anatomy | General anatomy | Longest muscle in the body
A. Biceps
B. Triceps
C. Saorius
D. Quadriceps
| Saorius |
2f7d2c73-c9bb-4d5b-b66c-cc0ad5920848 | Ans. (b) Contact lensGIANT PAPILLARY CONJUNCTIVITIS* It is the inflammation of conjunctiva with formation of very large sized papillae.* Cause: It is a localized allergic response to a physically rough or deposited surface (contact lens, prosthesis, left out nylon sutures).* Symptoms: Itching, stringy discharge and reduced wearing time of contact lens or prosthetic shell.* Treatment: The offending cause should be removed.# Disodium cromoglycate is known to relieve the symptoms and enhance the rate of resolution. GIANT PAPILLARY CONJUNCTIVITIS* It is the inflammation of conjunctiva with formation of very large sized papillae.* Cause: It is a localized allergic response to a physically rough or deposited surface (contact lens, prosthesis, left out nylon sutures).* Symptoms: Itching, stringy discharge and reduced wearing time of contact lens or prosthetic shell.* Treatment: The offending cause should be removed.# Disodium cromoglycate is known to relieve the symptoms and enhance the rate of resolution. | Ophthalmology | Inflammations of Conjunctiva - Allergic and Granulomatous | Giant papillary conjunctivitis can be secondary to:
A. Trachoma
B. Contact lens
C. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
D. Vernal kerato conjunctivitis
| Contact lens |
5651e7ac-30e4-4bd8-8e95-ea4605641362 | Potter sequence, or Potter syndrome, is a rare autosomal recessive trait and is associated with renal agenesis or hypoplasia. Altered facial characteristics include flattened nasal bridge, mandibular micrognathia, malformed low-set ears, etc. Absence or lack of proper development of the kidneys causes oligohydramnios, or possibly anhydramnios. Multicystic dysplastic kidney and polycystic kidney are usually secondary to Potter sequence and are therefore not the cause of Potter sequence or oligohydramnios. Wilms tumor is a relatively common renal tumor that presents in children; it is not associated with oligohydramnios and Potter sequence. Extrophy of the bladder is a congenital defect that exposes the posterior surface of the bladder on the exterior of the abdominal wall; there is no indication of this defect in the patient. | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | A 2-day-old male infant is hospitalized in the intensive care unit with acute respiratory distress. Radiographic examination reveals that the patient has anuria, oligohydramnios, and hypoplastic lungs. Facial characteristics are consistent with Potter syndrome. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these initial findings?
A. Multicystic dysplastic kidney
B. Polycystic kidney
C. Renal agenesis
D. Wilms tumor
| Renal agenesis |
29406f16-02f4-4a32-8cb5-d91d4361c9b5 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ganglioside Phospholipids are : Glycerophospholipids (glycerol containing) :- Phosphatidylcholine (lecithin), phosphatidylethanolamine (cephaline), phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylinositol, plasmalogens, lysophospholipids, cardiolipin. Sphingophospholipids (sphingosine containing) :- Sphingomyeline | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not a phospholipid ?
A. Lecithine
B. Plasmalogen
C. Cardiolipin
D. Ganglioside
| Ganglioside |
d20181aa-c211-4260-8bf2-94421a4ba74f | A. i.e. (Angiofibroma) (230 - Dhingra 4th) (296 - maqbool 11th)NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA* Benign but locally invasive lesion of the nasophagrynx* Exclusively in males 10 and 25 years of age* Lesions arise from the ventral periosteum of the skull as a result of hormonal (imbalance or persistence of embryonic tissue* Gradually increasing nasal obstruction and recurrent attacks of epistaxis are the common presenting symptoms* Probing or palpation of the nasopharynx should not be done (Biopsy is contraindicated)*** ** CT scan of head with contrast enhancement is now the investigation of choice* **Surgical excision - Transpalatine + sublabial (Sardanas approach) is now the treatment of choice* Concomitant RT and cisplatin, followed by adjuvant chemotherapy is currently considered the best treatment of naso pharyngeal carcinoma. | ENT | Nose and PNS | A 17 years male presented with swelling in the cheek with recurrent epistaxis. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Angiofibroma
B. Carcinoma nasopharynx
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Ethmyoid polyp
| Angiofibroma |
950a3125-aadc-44a0-92ba-8ca6fa3fe0da | Normal Lateral Chest Xrays: Normal Findings: - Sternum - Retrosternal space and retrocardiac space should be : clear spaces or lucent areas - Obliteration of Retrosternal space: Right Ventricular Hyperophy - Tracheal Lucency - Lucency of veebra should increase- more black- as we go from top to bottom . - Right dome of can be traced all the way anterior . - Left dome of diaphragm gets obscured by cardiac shadow . - Major fissure seen only in Right Lung - Minor fissure seen both in Right and left lung. | Radiology | FMGE 2019 | In the shown lateral view, the GIT structure marked with arrow head is?
A. Esophagus
B. Pulmonary aery
C. Trachea
D. Left atrium
| Trachea |
863f3954-5b30-4561-9567-13ac8202e346 | The Brown-Sequard syndrome is characterized by the loss of pain sensation on one side of the body coupled with a loss of discriminative sensations, such as proprioception, vibratory sensation, stereognosis & motor loss on the opposite side of the body. | Physiology | Sensory System | Which disorder involves a loss of pain sensation on one side of the body coupled with the loss of proprioception, precise tactile localization, and vibratory sensations on the contralateral side of the body?
A. Herpes zoster
B. Thalamic pain syndrome
C. Lateral medullary syndrome
D. Brown-Sequard syndrome
| Brown-Sequard syndrome |
ff397085-4835-4d74-933c-0c74862d7a77 | Sensations carried by posterior column
- Proprioception, Vibration, kinesthesia, fine touch.
Sensations carried by anterolateral column
- Temperature, pain (lateral) and crude touch (anterior) | Physiology | null | Conscious proprioception is carried by
A. Dorsal column fibres
B. Anterior spinothalamic tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Vestibular tract
| Dorsal column fibres |
d4e910d1-120d-403b-9b7f-ff59233ec76d | Superimposition technique determines whether the skull is that of a person in a photograph or not. | Forensic Medicine | null | Superimposition technique is used in -
A. Skull
B. Pelvis
C. Femur
D. Ribs
| Skull |
afc1ae3b-b91d-4e1e-807e-a12f62e08c8c | Neuroblastoma, a highly malignant tumor of children, occurs along the distribution of the sympathetic nervous system. It is derived from ganglion cell precursors and thus usually causes an increased excretion of catecholamines and their metabolites. Because of its propensity to metastasize to bone and its histological resemblance to Ewing's sarcoma, its association with elevated catecholamine levels is a major factor in differential diagnosis.Renal stones occur in about half the cases of hyperparathyroidism. Other disorders sometimes associated with hyperparathyroidism include peptic ulcers, pancreatitis, and bone disease; central nervous system symptoms may also arise in connection with hyperparathyroidism. Occasionally, parathyroid adenomas occur in conjunction with neoplasms of other endocrine organs, a condition known as multiple endocrine adenomatosis.Cystic teratomas, or dermoid cysts, include endodermal, ectodermal, and mesodermal elements. They are characteristically cystic and contain poorly pigmented hair, sebaceous material, and occasionally teeth. Dermoid cysts occur in the gonads and central nervous system, as well as in the mediastinum. With rare exceptions, these lesions are benign.Thymomas are associated with myasthenia gravis, agammaglobulinemia, and red blood cell aplasia. These tumors are typically cystic and occur in the anterior mediastinum. Most thymic lesions associated with myasthenia gravis are hyperplastic rather than neoplastic.Persons afflicted with Hodgkin's disease have impaired cell-mediated immunity and are particularly susceptible to mycotic infections and tuberculosis. The severity of the immune deficiency correlates with the extent of the disease. The nodular sclerosing variant of primary mediastinal Hodgkin's disease is the most common type. | Surgery | Heart & Pericardium | For the pathologic sign "Renal stones" select the mediastinal tumor with which it is most likely to be associated (SELECT 1 TUMOR)
A. Thymoma
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Parathyroid adenoma
| Parathyroid adenoma |
f4dd79af-5ce1-4262-b14d-ef7e55c77263 | The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score is a scoring system to measure the severity of chronic liver disease inclusive of cirrhosis.It employs the following: serum bilirubin, albumin, presence of ascitis, mental status ( hepatic encephalopathy ), nutrition and prothrombin time seconds prolonged(Pugh's modification ) Reference : page 622 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | Surgery | Urology | Child pugh criteria is used for prognosis of which disease
A. Terminal liver disease
B. COPD
C. CRF
D. DCM
| Terminal liver disease |
4a01325c-41f8-4146-b070-5454fea8b5d2 | Circumferance of the lens is known as equator. its diameter varies from 8.8mm-9.2mm and the anteroposterior diameter varies with accommodation. REF IMG | Ophthalmology | Lens | Equatorial diameter of the lens is -
A. 7 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 9 mm
D. 10 mm
| 9 mm |
7168b6df-20df-4911-b2cb-d158db33ec1e | Enzyme Inducers G Griseofulvin P Phenytoin R Rifampicin S Smoking Cell Carbamazepine Phone Phenobarbitone Rifampicin induces the following cytochrome enzymes: CYP3A4 CYP1A2 CYP2C9 CYP2C19 | Pharmacology | Pharmacokinetics | Which of the following drugs is an inducer of microsomal enzymes?
A. Erythromycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ketoconazole
D. Rifampicin
| Rifampicin |
0ea5ccbe-ca4a-4eb4-bc1c-c0bf3dc737e6 | Ans. B. AlkaptonuriaAlkaptonuriaAutosomal Recessive disorder is due to a deficiency of Homogentisic Acid Oxidase1st inborn error detectedBelongs to Garrod's Tetrad Biochemical DefectHomogentisate Oxidase deficiency leads to accumulation of Homogentisic Acid (Homogentisate) which polymerises to form Alkaptone bodies.Clinical PresentationNormal Life till 3rd or 4th decade.Urine Darkens on standing is the only manifestation in children.In adults Ochronosis-Alkaptone Bodies in Intervertebral Disc, cartilage of nose, pinna, etc.Laboratory DiagnosisAlkalanisation increase darkening of urine.Benedicts test positive in urine because homogentisic acid is reducing agent.Ferric Chloride test positiveSilver Nitrate Test positive.No Mental RetardationTreatmentNew Drug is Nitisinone which inhibit para Hydroxyl Phenyl Pyruvate hydroxylase which prevent the accumulation of homogentisic acid.Symptomatic Treatment. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | A 40-year-old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of IV disc. On adding benedicts reagent to urine, it gives greenish brown precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
A. Phenyl ketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Tyrosinemia type 2
D. Argininosuccinic aciduria
| Alkaptonuria |
f5a4dbfd-fcff-4518-8c8e-f73618778064 | Answer is A (t(11;14)) The most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma is 01;14). `The most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma is t(11;14)(q13;q32) involving the BCL1 locus on chromosome 11g13 and the immunoglobulin heavy (IgH) chain locus on chromosome 14q13 which leads to overexpression of Cyclin D1 '- The Washington Manual of Surgical Pathology `The two most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma are t(11;14)and t(4; 14). Both these translocations occur with almost similar frequencies, however the incidence of translocation 1(11; 14) appears to be marginally higher. Patients with t(4; 14) fall within a poor prognosis subgroup, while those with 1(11; 14) have a standard risk' - The Principles of Clinical Cytogenetics The two most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma t(11;14)(q13;q32) : Associated with standard prognosis t(4;14) (p16;q32) : Associated with aggressive behaviour and poor prognosis The most common translocation in multiple myeloma associated with a poor prognosis is translocation t(4;14) | Medicine | null | The most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma is
A. t(11;14)
B. t(4;14)
C. t(14;16)
D. t(14;20)
| t(11;14) |
173b8033-4e23-4972-8212-bf411fa3efa6 | Accessory pancreatic tissue found in stomach duodenum or mechel's diverticulam. | Anatomy | null | Most common site of ectopic pancreatic tissue
A. Stomach
B. Jejunam
C. Appendix
D. Hilum of spleen
| Stomach |
b83ee8db-e440-449e-aca1-1b7e1d231fde | Treatment plan to prevent dehydration - Plan A
The mother should be educated to use increased amount of culturally appropriate home available fluids. In addition, they should be given ORS packets for use at home.
Breast feeding should not be discontinued. | Pediatrics | null | Treatment in 6 month old child with acute watery diarrhoea without signs of dehydration is –a) Mothers milk and household fluidsb) ORS and antibioticsc) Mothers milk and antibioticsd) Mothers milk and ORS
A. b
B. c
C. ad
D. ab
| ad |
0a677770-1e1b-4046-a0fe-48156ee7fb24 | Ans. a. Mid pontine lesions The Blink Reflex Test (B) is a neurophysiological examination used for evaluation of brainstem reflex circuits.: In veebrate anatomy the brainstem (or brain stem) is the posterior pa of the brain, adjoining and structurally continuous with the spinal cord. It is usually described as including the medulla oblongata (myelencephalon), pons (pa of metencephalon), and midbrain (mesencephalon). Pons: The pons contains nuclei that relay signals from the forebrain to the cerebellum, along with nuclei that deal primarily with sleep, respiration, swallowing, bladder control, hearing, equilibrium, taste, eye movement, facial expressions, facial sensation, and posture A number of cranial nerve nuclei are present in the pons Mid-pons: the 'chief' or `pontine' nucleus of the trigeminal nerve sensory nucleus (V) Mid-pons: the motor nucleus for the trigeminal nerve (V) Lower down in the pons: abducens nucleus (VI) Lower down in the pons: facial nerve nucleus (VII) Lower down in the pons: vestibulocochlear nuclei (vestibular nuclei and cochlear nuclei) (VIII) The corneal eye blink reflex neural circuit consists of Trigeminal 1deg afferent (free nerve endings in the cornea, trigeminal nerve, ganglion, root, and spinal trigeminal tract), which end on --> Trigeminal 2deg afferent in the spinal trigeminal nucleus, some of which send their axons to --> Reticular formation interneurons, which send their axons bilaterally to --> Facial motor neurons in the facial nucleus, which send their axons in the facial nerve to --* Orbicularis oculi, which functions to lower the eyelid | Medicine | null | Blink reflex is used for
A. Mid pontine lesions
B. Neuromuscular transmission
C. Axonal neuropathy
D. Motor neuron disease
| Mid pontine lesions |
22931d74-30da-4055-ba51-1a20db1ec006 | Answer is B > C (Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia): The presence of skin ulceration on clinical examination in a female patient around the 6th decade ors a diagnosis of Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia over MPGN. Neveheless if Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia were not amongst the options MPGN would be the single best answer of choice. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is a responsible for 80% of all renal lesions in essential mixed cryoglobulinemia. | Medicine | null | A 60-year-old woman presents with generalized edema, skin ulceration and hypeension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria
A. Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
B. Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia
C. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
D. Focal SegmentalGlomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
| Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia |
f97d65db-0f06-48ec-b794-527bc08638da | Ans. A. AtropineSalivary secretion is inhibited by atropine. Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that competitively inhibits ACh at postganglionic sites, inhibiting parasympathetic activity. Pilocarpine actually stimulates salivation because of its muscarinic action. Cimetidine is an antagonist for the histamine H2 receptor. Aspirin is the most widely used analgesic (pain reducer), antipyretic (fever reducer), and anti-inflammatory drug. Omeprazole inhibits the H+/K+-ATPase and, thus, inhibits acid secretion. | Physiology | G.I.T. | Unlike other GI secretions, salivary secretion is controlled almost exclusively by the nervous system and is significantly inhibited by:
A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Cimetidine
D. Aspirin
| Atropine |
155a20af-f9ad-47b1-9b8c-6343c661f969 | In this position, action of the muscles that regulate mandibular position is equalized and mandible is free of any undue pull of any muscle. | Dental | null | While recording the rest position of the mandible, the patient’s head position should be
A. Head should be upright and unsupported
B. Head should be supported by the head rest
C. Patient should be lying in repose position
D. The neck should be extended
| Head should be upright and unsupported |
21c54a12-ea0d-4797-8b13-66d5c547194f | The stability of an alpha helix arises primarily from hydrogen bonds formed between the oxygen of the peptide bond carbonyl and the hydrogen atom of the peptide bond nitrogen of the fouh residue down the polypeptide chain. The ability to form the maximum number of hydrogen bonds, supplemented by van der Waals interactions in the core of this tightly packed structure, provides the thermodynamic driving force for the formation of an alpha helix. Since the peptide bond nitrogen of proline lacks a hydrogen atom to contribute to a hydrogen bond, proline can only be stably accommodated within the first turn of an alpha helix. When present elsewhere, proline disrupts the conformation of the helix, producing a bend. Because of its small size, glycine also often induces bends in alpha helices. Ref: Kennelly P.J., Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 5. Proteins: Higher Orders of Structure. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is suitably accommodated within the first turn of an alpha helix?
A. Alanine
B. Aspaic acid
C. Tyrosine
D. Glycine
| Glycine |
5f78badb-9b4f-4133-a90f-9a64edfcaada | In ion-exchange chromatography, proteins interact with the stationary phase by charge-charge interactions. Proteins with a net positive charge at a given pH will tightly adhere to beads with negatively charged functional groups such as carboxylates or sulfates (cation exchangers).
Harper, Ed 30, Pg 27 | Biochemistry | null | At physiological pH, carboxy terminal of peptide is
A. Positive charged
B. Negative charged
C. Neutral
D. Infinitely charged
| Negative charged |
dea51d02-67d6-408b-be23-8d806ec78037 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 20% Most of the inhaled anaesthetics are eliminated from lungu though some metabolism in liver may occur. In terms of extent of hepatic metabolism, the rank of order is methoxyflurane (> 50%) > Halothane (20%) > Ether (10-157o) > enflurane (3-5%) desflurane (< 0.1%) > NrO (0%). NrO does not have any metabolism in the body. | Anaesthesia | null | Percentage of Halothane metabolized ?
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
| 20% |
3cb5327a-2fb8-4c54-a113-70f4e8a15e3c | "Fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation, after Down syndrome". | Psychiatry | null | Second most common cause of chromosomal abnormality causing mental retardation -
A. Down's syndrome
B. Fragile X syndrome
C. Edward syndrome
D. Patau syndrome
| Fragile X syndrome |
eb22efce-f1bb-4e22-a7e0-3dc321d73f16 | Human leucocyte antigen A2 REF: Harper biochemistry 25th edition page 809, (American cancer society) http://www.cancer. org/acs/groups/cid/documents/webcontent/003189-pdf.pdf, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tumor_antigen, See APPENDIX-26 for list of "Tumor markers" A tumor marker is a substance found in the blood, urine, or body tissues that can be elevated in cancer, among other tissue types. An elevated level of a tumor marker can indicate cancer; however, there can also be other causes of the elevation. Tumor markers can be used in a number of ways. Screening and early detection of cancer Diagnosing cancer (CA 125 for ovarian cancer, AFP for liver cancer) Determining prognosis for ceain cancers Staging the extent Monitoring the treatment Detecting recurrence | Pathology | null | Which of the following is not a tumor marker:
A. CEA
B. Tyrosinase
C. Human leucocyte antigen A2
D. AFP
| Human leucocyte antigen A2 |
ad4a108c-b67f-479e-86b4-06546d408d76 | Pseudocysts are caused by pancreatitis in 90% of cases and by trauma in 10%. Approximately 85% are located in the body or tail of the pancreas. Some patients have two or more pseudocysts. Abdominal pain is the usual presenting complaint. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2642 | Medicine | null | Which of the following is the usual presenting symptom of pseudocyst in pancreatitis?
A. Abdominal swelling
B. Abdominal pain
C. Persistent vomiting
D. Early satiety and postprandial fullness
| Abdominal pain |
d04cb8f3-db33-4526-8ea4-ef9c6b3d8443 | ANSWER: (B) Extensor surfaceREF: Rook's textbook of dermatology 7th e p. 35.1"Most commonly involved areas in psoriasis is Extensor aspect of knees, elbows & Scalp" | Skin | Psoriasis | Most common site affected by psoriasis is?
A. Flexor surface
B. Extensor surface
C. Palms and soles
D. Oral mucosa
| Extensor surface |
fb6d00cb-0240-4d22-9c58-b67edfbc6863 | Ans. b. Tzanck smearHerpes labialis occurs due to HSV-I injection on Tzanck smear shows, multinucleated giant cells (MNGC). | Skin | Skin Lesions And Disorders Of Pigmentation | Twelve-year-old boy with vesicle over lip. Investigation to be done is:
A. KOH mount
B. Tzank smear
C. Diascopy
D. Woods lamp
| Tzank smear |
24d9ecab-9e02-44b0-806e-e3ee9f22fad7 | Ans. b (Herniation of synovium of knee joint) (Ref. Maheshwari orthopedics 3rd/pg. 276)Baker's cyst is formed when synovial fluid (fluid that is produced by the joint lining to lubricate and protect the joints) escapes from the knee joint capsule (also called the synovial sac or synovium) and forms a new sac outside the joint at the back of the knee.Common Lower Limb orthopedic injuries and lesionsInjuryDescriptionTreatmentLisfranc fracture# Fracture through base of second metatarsal# The second metatarsal is the stabilizing force of the tarsometatarsal joint# Surgical fixation (can be open or closed)Maisonneuve fracture# Malleolar (ankle) and proximal fibula fracture with disruption of the medial deltoid ligament# Long leg cast for 6-12 weeks# Surgical fixation for:# Medial malleolar fracture# Widened medial joint spaceBaker's cyst# cyst in the medial popliteal fossa# Associated with arthritis and joint trauma# Rupture of cyst can mimic symptoms of deep vein thrombosis# Treat underlying cause (adults)# Symptomatic relief with NSAIDsCalcaneal fracture# Most frequently injured foot bone# Usually occurs due to fall from a height with patient landing on his feet# posterior splint for nondisplaced fractures# Surgical repair for displaced fracturesJones fracture# Fracture of diaphysis of fifth metatarsal# Usually occurs due to force applied to ball of foot, as in pivoting or dancing# Often complicated by nonunion# Shkort leg cast for nondisplaced fractures# Surgical repair for displaced fractures | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around the Thigh & Knee | Baker's cyst is
A. Semimembranosus bursitis
B. Herniation of synovium of knee joint in popliteal fossa
C. Bone cyst arising from femur
D. Synovial degenerative disease
| Herniation of synovium of knee joint in popliteal fossa |
ab34a206-b0c6-4474-9937-430aa1d85595 | Cholecalciferol is first hydroxylated at 25th position to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (25-OH o3) bv a specific hydroxylase present in liver. 25-OH D3 is the major storage and circulatory form of vitamin D.
Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-125 | Biochemistry | null | The major storage and circulatory form of vitamin D is:-
A. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
B. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
C. Cholecalciferol
D. Calcitriol
| 25-hydroxycholecalciferol |
020a7178-d44c-4709-8445-116e0f64dbaa | Refer robbins 8/e p406 Lead poisoning is a type of metal poisoningcaused by lead in the body. The brain is the most sensitive. Symptoms may include abdominal pain, constipation, headaches, irritability, memory problems, inability to have children, and tingling in the hands and feet. It causes almost 10% of intellectual disability of otherwise unknown cause and can result in behavioral problems. Some of the effects are permanent. In severe cases anemia, seizures, coma, or death may occur Associated conditionsEdit Thalassemia (b-thalassemia Minor (i.e Trait) & Major, and a-thalassemia, only when 3 gene loci defective: (--/-a)) Severe megaloblastic anemia Hemolytic anemia Sickle-cell anemia Pyrimidine 5' nucleotidase deficiency Alcoholism Myelodysplastic syndromes Sideroblastic anemia Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia Primary myelofibrosis Leukemia Erythroleukemia Hemorrhage, e.g. from gastrointestinal tract CPD-choline phosphotransferase deficiency Unstable hemoglobins Altered hemoglobin biosynthesis Heavy metal poisoning Lead poisoning Zinc Arsenic Silver Mercury | Anatomy | miscellaneous | Bosophillic stippling is seen in
A. Cadmium Poisoning
B. Lead Poisoning
C. Chromium poisoning
D. Iron poisoning
| Lead Poisoning |
cdaa43d7-1239-4b57-8f57-6e8afb8be02d | BIRADS score - Breast Imaging Repoing and Data System Category 2- Negative, routine mammogram in 1 year is recommended | Anatomy | Endocrinology and breast | Risk of malignancy in BIRADS score 2 is
A. 0-2%
B. 2-4%
C. 10%
D. 50%
| 0-2% |
92308c6a-6e48-4018-bdf3-134410949b8b | rota virus is the mos common causevof diatrheal disease in infants&children REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.561 | Microbiology | Virology | Rota virus causes -
A. Acute nonbacterial gasteroenteritis in adult
B. Infantile diarrhea
C. Teratogenic effects
D. Respiratory infection in immunocompromised
| Infantile diarrhea |
beb7ad77-1b0d-48ff-b5a0-1518c008a650 | Retinal breaks are most frequently found in the periphery ( commonest in the upper temporal quadrant ) Ref : khurana 6 th edition , page no. 296 | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | Retinal holes are seen in which quadrant
A. Superior temporal
B. Inferior temporal
C. Superior nasal
D. Inferior nasal
| Superior temporal |
8fe35cef-c42e-447c-8a09-73225e78f53c | Ans. is a, i.e. ChlamydiaRef: Harrison 17th/ed, p823; Current diagnosis and treatment of STI p15Non gonococcal urethritis is caused by:* Chlamydia trachomatis (30-40%)* Ureaplasma urealyteum* Mycoplasma genitalium* E coli* Ureaplasma urealyticum* Trichomonas vaginalis* Herpes simplex virusRare Cases:* Anaerobic bacteria* AdenovirusManagement:Azithromycin 1g orally in a single dose or doxycycline 100mg orally twice a day x7 daysAlternative = Erythromycine 500mg four times a day x7 days | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Sexually Transmitted Disease in the Female | Nongonococcal urethritis is caused by:
A. Chlamydia
B. LGV
C. Syphilis
D. Gardnerella vaginalis
| Chlamydia |
f3b7347e-f705-4e26-8a31-9e6c3e8c4e3a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Spleen Most common abdominal organ to rupture following blunt trauma is spleen. | Surgery | null | Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of road traffic accident. He is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ is ?
A. Spleen
B. Mesentry
C. Kidney
D. Rectum
| Spleen |
58971299-18a6-4d50-bc64-36fa77ddd3bc | PQLI -Physical quality of life index. The value is the average statistics, literacy rate, infant moality, life expectancy at age 1 ,all equally weighted on a 0 to 100 scale | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | PQLI lies between
A. 0 and 1
B. 0 and 10
C. 0 and 100
D. 1 and 10
| 0 and 100 |
f78dcd59-5cd1-4f86-b2c6-52453820337a | Jackson's crosscylinder test : It is used to verify the strength and axis of the cylinder prescribed. The crosscylinder is a combination of two cylinders of equal strength but with opposite sign placed with their axes at right angles to each other and mounted in a handle . The commonly used crosscylinders are of +-0.25 D and +-0.5 D. Verification of strength of the cylinder. Image: Jackson's cross cylinder Reference : A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY,Edition 4,Page-555 | Ophthalmology | Optics and refraction | Jackson's cross cylinder test is used for -
A. Subjective verification
B. Subjective refining
C. Subjective balancing
D. Objective refining
| Subjective refining |
2b45ac13-561a-4df9-93be-ce6b2ef12ec5 | Parietal cells also known as oxyntic cells are found in Fundus and body of stomach which secretes HCL and intrinsic factor which helps in absorption of vitamin B12. Parietal cells are much more in Fundus so it is a better option. Mucus or goblet cells are seen in cardiac and pyloric pa. | Anatomy | Stomach and aerial supply of abdomen | Parietal cells are found in which area of stomach
A. Fundus
B. Cardia
C. Pylorus
D. Body
| Fundus |
73d3bfce-40af-4a7b-bd70-60dcced8d903 | Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)is characterized by a cytogenetic aberration consisting of a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 22 and 9 . The translocation results in a shoened chromosome 22. This translocation relocates an oncogene called ABL from the long arm of chromosome 9 to a specific breakpoint cluster region (BCR) in the long arm of chromosome 22. The ABL oncogene encodes a tyrosine protein kinase. The resulting BCR/ABL fusion gene encodes a chimeric protein with strong tyrosine kinase activity. The expression of this protein leads to the development of the CML phenotype. | Pathology | null | Chromosomal translocation seen in CML is:
A. 2:08
B. 8:14
C. 9:22
D. 15:17
| 9:22 |
b047675d-5633-45b0-88b9-445c052df742 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Plasma expander Plasma expanders o These are high molecular weight substances which exes colloidal osmotic (oncotic) pressure, and when infused i.v. retain fluid in the vascular compament. o Human plasma or reconstituted huma albumin are the best, However, the former carries the risk of transmitting serum hepatitis, AIDS, and latter is expensive. Therefore synthetic colloids are more often used. o Desirable propeies of plasma expander are : Should exe oncotic pressure comparable to plasma. Should remain in circulation and not leak out in tissues, or be too rapidly disposed. Should be pharmacodynamically ine. Should not be pyrogenic or antigenic. Should not interfere with grouping and cross-matching of blood. Should be stable, easily sterilizable and cheap. o Substances used are - Human albumin, Dextran, Degraded gelatin polymer, Hydroxy ethyl starch, polyvinyl pyrrolidone. o Albumin has all desirable propeies except it is expensive. o Uses of plasma expanders ---> to correct hypovolemia, e.g. in burns, hypovolemic and endotoxic shock, severe trauma. o Contraindications --3 Severe anaemia, cardiac failure, pulmonary edema, renal insufficiency. | Pharmacology | null | Hydroxyethyl starch is a-
A. Vasodilator
B. Inotrope
C. Plasma expander
D. Diuretic
| Plasma expander |
88deafd3-a02d-4d49-bdce-038aea930d7c | IUGR is classified as
1) Symmetric IUGR
Reduced growth is an asymmetric → head circumference, length and weight equally affected.
Has earlier onset.
Is associated with diseases that seriously affect fetal cell number, such as conditions with chromosomal, genetic malformation, teratogenic, infectious or severe maternal hypertensive etiologies.
2) Asymmetric IUGR
Reduced growth is asymmetric with relative sparing of head growth.
Has late onset.
Is associated with poor maternal nutrition or with late onset/exacerbation of maternal vascular disease (preeclampsia, chronic hypertension). | Pediatrics | null | In asymmetrical IUGR which organ is not affected –
A. Subcutaneous fat
B. Muscle
C. Liver
D. Brain
| Brain |
5306631e-77b8-4805-bc45-fd8471f94a62 | Ans. c (First metacarpal) (Ref. Maheshwari orthopedics 4th/99)Bennett's fracture-dislocation# Oblique intraarticular fracture of the base of first metacarpal with subluxation/dislocation of the metacarpal.# It is sustained due to longitudinal force applied to the joint, usually from forced abduction of thumb.# Rx:- Closed manipulation and POP: succesful in cases of mild displacement.- Closed reduction and percutaneous fixation under X-ray control using K-wire- ORIF# Complications: OA (for rx excision of trapezium may be required).Other fractures of the thumbRolando fractureComminuted intra-articular fracture-dislocation of the base of thumb [proximal first metacarpa). It can be thought of as a comminuted Bennett fracture. Rx: reduction and immobilization in thumb spica for 3 weeks.Epibasal thumb fracture (pseudo Bennett's fracture dislocation)are two piece fractures of the proximal first metacarpal bone. They are usually stable, depending on the degree of displacement, and often do not require surgery. It is important to distinguish them from intra-articular fractures (e.g. Bennett's fracture dislocation or Rolando fracture) which are usually unstable and require surgery.Gamekeeper's thumb (doesn't always include a fracture)Gamekeeper's thumb is essentially synonymous with Skier's thumb, although the latter has a more acute injury connotation. It is an avulsion or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the thumb. | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around the Fore Arm & Wrist | Bennett's fracture-dislocation is associated with fracture of
A. Phalanx
B. Carpal
C. First metacarpal
D. Ulna
| First metacarpal |
66b30f7d-8651-4c4a-91e7-c32a928295d1 | ANSWER: (B) ClopidogrelREF: Lippincott pharmacology 6th ed page 263"Tidopidine and clopidogrel are structurally related drugs that irreversibly inhibit platelet activation by blocking specific purinergic receptors for AD P on the platelet membrane"ANTIPLATELET DRUGSIrreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitors:Acetylsalicylic acid/Aspirin AloxiprinCarbasalate calciumIndobufenTriflusalAdenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor inhibitors:ClopidogrelPrasugrelTidopidineCangrelorElinogrelTicagrelorGlycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitors (intravenous use only)AbciximabEptifibatideTirofibanProstaglandin analogue (PGI2)BeraprostProstacyclinIloprostTreprostinilPhosphodiesterase inhibitorsCilostazolDipyridamoleTriflusalThromboxaneinhibitorsThromboxane synthase inhibitorsDipyridamolePicotamide Thromboxane receptor antagonistsTerutroban Aspirin Vs ADP receptor inhibitorsAspirinADP receptor inhibitorPolypharmacological effectsProduces both platelet and vascular effectsMultiple actions (analgesic, anti-inflammatory)Single receptor targeting agentOnly produces platelet mediated responseOnly produces inhibition of platelets | Pharmacology | Antiplatelets and Fibrinolytics | Which of the following drug is ADP receptor inhibitor?
A. Aspirin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Abdximab
D. Terutroban
| Clopidogrel |
accae189-97f7-4848-91ac-69c2aae4598c | Serum phosphate This young man most probably has tumoral calcinosis Tumoral calcinosis Tumoral calcinosis is a rare condition which primarily, but not exclusively affects black people in otherwise good health. This disease usually presents in the second decade of lifeand is characterised by deposition of painless calcific masses around the hips, knee, elbow, shoulders, and gluteal. The primary defect responsible for this metastatic calcification appears to be hyperphosphatemiaresulting from the increased capacity of renal tabula and intestines to absorb phosphate. The most common laboratory findings are hyperphosphate,nia and elevated serum 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin-D levels. Serum calcium, parathyroid hormone and alkaline phosphatase levels are usually normal. Surgical excision is the most successful form of t/t, although recurrances are common. Medical tit to control the hyperphosphatemia (eg. a low phosphate diet and oral estimation of phosphate binders) is an imp. adjunct to surgical excision. | Surgery | null | X-ray of a young man shows hetrotopic calcification around bilateral knee joints. Next investigation would be
A. Serum phosphate
B. Serum calcium
C. Serum PTH
D. Serum Alkaline phosphatase
| Serum phosphate |
55003707-6ec2-4dd7-b7cf-5f3d55fb848a | Dronabinol is an anti - emetic which acts by stimulating Cannabinoid -1 receptors which also can stimulate appetite. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following anti emetic acts by stimulating cannabinoid - 1 (CB1) receptors
A. Aprepitant
B. Dronabinol
C. Apomorphine
D. Prucalopride
| Dronabinol |
9e264bc4-3e57-47c1-ae9b-47cb1eb6cbfa | Robbins.. “Herpes virus, cytomegalovirus and Chlamydia pneumoniae have all been detected in atherosclerotic plaques but not in normal arteries, and seroepidemiologic studies find increased antibody titers to C. pneumoniae in patients with more severe atherosclerosis”. | Pathology | null | Atherosclerosis is seen with which bacteria
A. Staph aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
| Chlamydia pneumoniae |
80339778-0924-49b8-a2ff-0f2cba888699 | Ans. D. VibrationSENSE ENDINGS ACTIVATEDPain Cutaneous nociceptorsTemperature, heat Cutaneous thermoreceptors for hotTemperature, cold Cutaneous thermoreceptors for coldTouch Cutaneous mechanoreceptors, also naked endingsVIBRATION Mechanoreceptors, especially PACINIAN CORPUSCLES (Pressure also) QJoint position Joint capsule and tendon endings, muscle spindles | Physiology | Nervous System | Sensation transmitted by pacinian corpuscles is:
A. Cold
B. Warmth
C. Touch
D. Vibration
| Vibration |
66aed19b-a712-4fe5-9cf0-4a38e5d794f3 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Breaking of chain Novus Actus Interveniens:o A person is responsible for his actions and its consequences. This principle applies to cases of assault or accidental injuries. However, sometime such continuity of events is broken by an entirely new and unexpected happening, due to negligence of some other person, i.e. "novus actus intervenien " (an unrelated action intervening).o For example, If a person has been assaulted due to which he has sustained large liver laceration, for which he is operated by a surgeon. If the patient dies intraoperatively or postoperatively due to complications related to surgery or injury, the person who has assaulted the patient will be held responsible. But, if the doctor has done some negligent act during surgery, e.g. left the swab or instrument in abdomen during surgery; and patient dies because of that act (sepsis due to swab), then the responsibility may pass from original incident to later negligent act of doctor by principle of 'novus actus intervention' (an unrelated action intervening). Thus doctor irresponsible for negligent act, Le. criminal negligence, and the assailant will not be fully responsible for the ultimate harm. | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Psychiatry | Novus actus interveniens is related to?
A. Facts speaking for itself
B. Breaking of chain
C. Contributory negligence
D. Therapeutic misadventure
| Breaking of chain |
2a855555-06dc-4354-9c86-6304e4fc903c | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis The anticancer antibiotics are :o Actinomycin - D (Dactinomycin)o Daunorubicin (Rubidomycin)o Mitomycin C* Doxorubicino Mitoxantroneo Mithramycin (plicamvcin)o Bleomycins o These anticancer, antibiotics obtained from micro-organisms and have prominent antitumour activity,o Mechanism of action : They are intercalated betw een DNA strands and interfere w ith its template functionActinomycin "D' inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis.Bleomycin cause DNA breakage and free radical formation .Doxo-and daunorubicin inhibit Topoisomerase I & II.Mitomycin acts like alkylating agents.Mitoxantrane binds to DNA to produce strand breakage and inhibits both DNA & RNA synthesis.RememberAll antitumor antibiotics are cell cycle nonspecific except for bleomycin which acts in G2 phase. | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | Mechanism of action of actinomycin D is -
A. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis
B. Activates DNA dependent RNA synthesis
C. Inhibits RNA dependent DNA synthesis
D. Activates RNA dependent DNA synthesis
| Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis |
1332f2e7-8466-4444-b532-3c3603daeff0 | Ans. D. SchizophreniaNeologisms:Refers to a new word or condensed combination of several words that is not a true word & is not readily understandable, although sometimes the intended meaning or paial meaning may be apparent.Feature of schizophrenia(thought & speech disorder) | Psychiatry | null | Neologism is characteristic of :
A. OCD
B. Mania
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Schizophrenia
| Schizophrenia |
3e27baa0-d63a-4e2b-9925-07f4dcc03c7d | In bimodal series Mode = 3xmedian - 2xmean= 3x3 - 2x2 = 5 Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition - Pgno. 847 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | In a bimodal series, if mean is 2 and median is 3, what is the mode
A. 5
B. 2.5
C. 4
D. 3
| 5 |
179e07f7-6706-4ead-b0d1-d80e1fc85299 | By using TERC, TE can add a six-nucleotide repeating sequence, 5'-TTAGGG (in veebrates, the sequence differs in other organisms) to the 3' strand of chromosomes. These TTAGGG repeats (with their various protein binding paners) are called telomeres. The template region of TERC is 3'-CAAUCCCAAUC-5'. Telomerase can bind the first few nucleotides of the template to the last telomere sequence on the chromosome, add a new telomere repeat (5'-GGTTAG-3') sequence, let go, realign the new 3'-end of telomere to the template, and repeat the process. Telomerase reverses telomere shoening. | Pathology | General pathology | Telomerase-
A. RNA polymerase
B. Causes carcinogenesis
C. Present in somatic cells
D. Absent in germ cells
| Causes carcinogenesis |
6ed8cb21-90bd-4fee-807d-30ebbc6a0f02 | The most common therapeutic use of cannabis is as an antiemetic during cancer chemotherapy. It might have some analgesic and anticonvulsant properties. Its ability to lower intraocular pressure has not been therapeutically useful in glaucoma. However, all the possible therapeutic effects of cannabis are accompanied by psychoactive effects, which include impaired cognition and perception, prolonged reaction time, and impaired memory and learning. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | A 19-year-old college student smokes cannabis on a regular basis. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely to be seen an hour after inhalation?
A. a decrease in heart rate
B. an increase in intraocular pressure
C. prolonged reaction time
D. peripheral vasoconstriction
| prolonged reaction time |
a9088aae-c9e3-4463-a129-2cc6a85e7a61 | Functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)
FESS is a minimally invasive technique in which sinus air cells and sinus ostia are opened under direct vision.
It is called functional because it aims to return the working of the sinus to normal.
FESS is based on the hypothesis that the osteomeatal complex (maxillary sinus ostium, anterior & middle ethmoid Ostia, frontal recess, infundibulum and middle meatal complex) is the key area in the pathogenesis of chronic sinus disease.
Minor pathological changes in the nasal mucosa in the vicinity of the osteomeatal complex may interfere with mucociliary clearance or with the ventilation of maxillary, ethmoid and frontal sinuses.
The underlying principle of FESS is that the sinus mucosa will return to normal if adequate drainage is established.
No attempt is made to remove the sinus mucosa; rather, it is allowed to return to normal and to resume its normal function.
FESS has greatly reduced the indications for conventional operations like those of Caldwell-Luc, Frontal-sinus operations, and an external ethmoidectomy. | ENT | null | FESS means -
A. Factual endoscopic sinus surgery
B. Functional endonasal sinus surgery
C. Factual endonasal sinus surgery
D. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery
| Functional endoscopic sinus surgery |
01a1aafa-5ac5-4057-809f-f78f7c4e1df0 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Azygous veinVenous Drainage of Lung1. Bronchial veinso Superficial bronchial veins drain pleura and extrapulmonary bronchi. On the right side they drain into the azygous vein and on the left side they drain into the left superior intercostal vein or hemiazygous veino Deep bronchial veins drain rest of the bronchial tree and the lung parenchyma and end in pulmonary veins.2. Pulmonary veins - (4 in number) - Open into the left atrium of the heart. | Anatomy | Blood Vessels of Thorax | Right bronchial vein drains into -
A. Superior intercostal vein
B. Posterior intercostal vein
C. Azygous vein
D. Hemiazygous vein
| Azygous vein |
f016d92f-7d93-4cda-80ec-2a899914ad2f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Henoch-Schonlein purpura Henoch-Schonlein purpura* Henoch-Schonlein purpura, also referred to as anaphylactoid purpura, is a small-vessel vasculitis characterized by palpable purpura (most commonly distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities), arthralgias, gastrointestinal signs and symptoms, and glomerulonephritis.Clinical features* It is seen pediatric patients having palpable purpura.* Most patients develop polyarthralgias in the absence of frank arthritis.* Gastrointestinal involvement is seen in almost 70% of pediatric patients. It is characterized by colicky abdominal pain usually associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation and is frequently accompanied by the passage of blood and mucus per rectum; bowel intussusception may occur.* Renal involvement occurs in 10-50% of patients and is usually characterized by mild glomerulonephritis leading to proteinuria and microscopic hematuria, with red blood cell casts in the majority of patients; it usually resolves spontaneously without therapy. Rarely, a progressive glomerulonephritis will develop. | Medicine | Kidney | 5 years old female presents with palpable purpura over the buttocks, arthralgias, abdominal pain with diarrhea with passage of blood per rectum. Patient also has presence of proteinuria. What is the most probable diagnosis -
A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Nephritic syndrome
D. Thalassemia
| Henoch-Schonlein purpura |
e3fc64cf-3046-4fd5-a373-2794e702814c | ANSWER: (A) Ketamine REF: Morgan's 3rd e p. 515Anesthetic of choice in status asthmaticusChildren - halothaneAdults - ketamine | Anaesthesia | Anaesthesia For Special Situations | Anesthetic of choice for status asthmaticus is?
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Ether
D. N2O
| Ketamine |
81f94fe0-576f-491a-945b-35c2fc9008de | Among all the given options for the patient in the clinical scenario, the best treatment option would be simple hysterectomy. There are chances of about 60-70% for simple hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia to progress into endometrial cancer. While abdominal hysterectomy with or without oophrectomy is preferred in elderly, medical management is used in younger patients who would not prefer hysterectomy. Ref: Shaws textbook of Gynaecology 13 edition, page 395 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the ideal treatment for a 55 yr female with Simple Hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia?
A. Simple hysterectomy
B. Medroxy progesterone Acetate (MPA)
C. Levonorgesterol (LNG)
D. IUCD
| Simple hysterectomy |
b288e9e3-58e6-4c23-a144-99666f795094 | The hepatic poal vein is formed by the union of, (a) Splenic vein, which drains the spleen, pancreas, greater curvature of stomach, and (b) Superior mesenteric, which drains the small intestine andascending colon. The gastric vein, which drains the lesser curvature of the stomach, empties directly into the hepatic poal vein. | Anatomy | null | The hepatic poal vein is formed by the union of which of the following major vessels?
A. Superior Mesenteric and Inferior Mesenteric Veins
B. Superior Mesenteric and Splenic Veins
C. Superior Mesenteric And left renal vein
D. Inferior Mesenteric and Splenic Vein
| Superior Mesenteric and Splenic Veins |
703b2f7c-37bb-4677-aec3-4ce644604c2c | Options a, b, c are part of 3Ds of pellagra. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following does not belong to 3Ds of Pellagra
A. Diarrhea
B. Dementia
C. Dermatitis
D. Diplopia
| Diplopia |
fb9e7503-c745-4f07-a1f5-2d6d98bdca9e | Provider of energyPlasma glucoseGrams12 Kilocalories48Hepatic glycogen70280Musde glycogen2801120Fat (Triglyceride) in adipose tissue13,000117, 000Muscle protein10,00040,000 | Biochemistry | null | Energy storage form in liver ?
A. Triglyceride
B. Cholesterol
C. FFA
D. Glycogen
| Glycogen |
40401013-8a93-40a9-ad7f-eaee905e53fd | When a patient develops hypercalcemia, a disorder of the parathyroid glands or malignancy at a visceral location must be considered. The elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) suggests primary hyperparathyroidism. The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a parathyroid adenoma. Secondary hyperparathyroidism, most commonly resulting from renal failure, is excluded when the serum inorganic phosphate level is low because phosphate is retained with chronic renal failure. Hypervitaminosis D can cause hypercalcemia because of increased calcium absorption, but in these cases, the PTH levels are expected to be near the low end of the reference range because of feedback suppression. Serum PTH levels near the high end of the reference range indicate autonomous PTH secretion unregulated by hypercalcemia. Although medullary carcinomas of the thyroid often have positive immunohistochemical staining for calcitonin, and plasma levels are sometimes increased, there is typically no major reduction in serum calcium as a result. | Pathology | Endocrine | A 40-year-old man experiences weakness and easy fatigability of 2 months' duration. Physical examination yields no remarkable findings. Laboratory studies show a serum calcium of 11.5 mg/dL, inorganic phosphorus of 2.1 mg/dL, and serum parathyroid hormone of 58 pg/mL, which is near the top of the reference range. A radionuclide bone scan fails to show any areas of increased uptake. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Hypervitaminosis D
C. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
D. Parathyroid adenoma
| Parathyroid adenoma |
8fe95469-e037-4c97-b1f8-817395398eb6 | The symptomatology is classic for carpal tunnel syndrome, which is a form of neuropathy resulting from anatomic compression of the median nerve. Pain, tingling sensations, and hypoesthesia in the distribution of the median nerve are the cardinal manifestations. These often undergo exacerbations at nighttime. A shock-like pain upon percussion on the volar aspect of the wrist (Tinel sign) is an additional characteristic sign. Carpal tunnel syndrome is most often idiopathic, but may represent a manifestation of underlying disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, acromegaly, and leukemia. Carpal tunnel syndrome may be confused with angina pectoris when located on the left side. However, angina pectoris typically manifests with physical or emotional stress and very rarely results in pain limited to the hand. Dupuytren contracture is a relatively common disorder characterized by fibrous thickening of the palmar fascia. Contracture and nodule formation ensue. This condition is most common in Caucasian men over 50. Fibrositis also known as fibromyalgia, refers to a poorly understood syndrome of widespread musculoskeletal pain associated with tenderness in multiple trigger points. Fatigue, headache, and numbness are also common. Women between 20 and 50 years of age are most commonly affected. Neck, shoulders, low back and hips are usually involved. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy describes a syndrome of pain and swelling of one extremity (most commonly a hand), associated with skin atrophy. It is thought to be secondary to vasomotor instability. Sometimes, it follows injuries to the shoulder (shoulder-hand variant). | Unknown | null | A 40-year-old woman presents with complaints of burning and tingling sensations in the left hand for several months. She relates that she has been frequently awakened at night by aching pain in the same hand. Pain is elicited by extreme dorsiflexion of the wrist. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Dupuytren contracture
D. Fibrositis
| Carpal tunnel syndrome |
e51417d2-062d-41cc-9447-67b988a3d377 | HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal * More cognitive side effects==bi fronto temporal * Less cognitive side effect======bi frontal * SIDE EFFECTS * RETROGRADE AMNESIA * BODY ACHE * MEDICATIONS USED IN THE PROCEDURE * ANAESTHETIC======Thiopentone / ethosuximide * MUSCLE RELAXANT====Succynyl choline CURARE IN PSEUDOCHOLINEESTERASE DEFICIENCY * ANTICHOLINERGIC=====Atropine CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication * RELATIVE -----------------Brain tumour / arrythmia Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 edition, pg no. 1065 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | which of the following is a relative contra indication for ECT
A. pediatrics
B. brain tumour
C. geriatrics
D. pregnacy
| brain tumour |
177dc45c-5cbd-4138-a2d8-d6c7eef6b0bb | Paget's disease - In extramammary involvement commonest site affected (vulva) - Presence of pruritis/red /crusted lesion/map like area usually on labia majora - Not associated with malignancy A. Epidermis is infiltrated by large cells With pale pink cytoplasm spreading along basal surface of squamous epithelium B. Immuno staining for cytokeratin7 highlights the intraepidermal paget cells | Pathology | Breast | Extramammary Paget's disease is seen in:-
A. Ovary
B. Uterus
C. Vagina
D. Vulva
| Vulva |
6bd9aa91-4b0e-4fc5-bd3d-30d150cd3df7 | Ans. a. Dantrolene Sudden development of increased hea rate, arrhythmia, high fever, metabolic and respiratory acidosis on aerial blood gases and elevation of end tidal CO, in a child undergoing squint surgery is highly suggestive of malignant hypehermia. Dantrolene would be the first agent of choice in the management of malignant hypehermia. "Malignant Hypehermia: Dantrolene is the only drug effective in reversing the symptoms and preventing the episode. | Skin | null | A 10-year old child is undergoing squint surgery. He suddenly developed increased hea rate, arrhythmia, high fever, metabolic and respiratory acidosis on aerial blood gases and elevation of end tidal CO2. Which of the following would be the first agent of choice in the management of this condition?
A. Dantrolene
B. Paracetamol
C. Procainamide
D. Sodium bicarbonate
| Dantrolene |
88d84819-d8b2-46fd-afd1-ab7cca71a6bd | Up to a point, the harder a muscle is stretched, the stronger is the reflex contraction. However, when the tension becomes great enough, contraction suddenly ceases and the muscle relaxes. This relaxation in response to strong stretch is called the inverse stretch reflex or autogenic inhibition. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 23rd edition, Chapter 9. | Physiology | null | When the tension becomes great enough, contraction suddenly ceases and the muscle relaxes, this phenomenon is known as:
A. Reciprocal innervations
B. Autocrine innervation
C. Autogenic inhibition
D. Converse stretch reflex
| Autogenic inhibition |
50100299-95fa-4e08-8833-10c5a566a13e | All cells of the spermatogenic lineage are closely associated with the extended surfaces of Seoli cells and depend on them for metabolic and physical suppo. Each Seoli cell suppos 30 to 50 developing germ cells. Impoant in Seoli cell function are elaborate tight occluding junctions between their basolateral membranes that form a blood-testis barrier within the seminiferous epithelium. Ref: Mescher A.L. (2013). Chapter 21. The Male Reproductive System. In A.L. Mescher (Ed), Junqueira's Basic Histology, 13e. | Anatomy | null | The suppoing cells of the testes are the following:
A. Spermatogonia
B. Leydig cells of testes
C. Cells of Seoli
D. Spermatids
| Cells of Seoli |
e1b2a49a-5217-4701-b83d-562d604f72b6 | Ans. is d, i.e. PeritonitisRef: Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p932, COGDT 10th/ed, p801-2Important points to remember on laparoscopy:* CO2 is currently the insufflation gas of choice for laparoscopy. It fulfills most of the requirements for an ideal insufflation gas, being colorless, noninflammable and rapidly excreted from the circulation.Other alternative is N2 O: But it is expensive, less soluble in blood and supports combustion.* Instrument used for creating pneumoperitoneum is vercess needle.* It should be inserted at an angle of 45 degrees to the spine.* Flow rate of CO2 for creating pneumoperitoneum is 200-2000ml/min & pressure between 10-15mm of Hg. In many patients, this correlates with an infusion of 2.5 to 3 litres of gas - Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p934Contraindications of laparoscopyAbsoluteRelative* Intestinal obstructionQ* Previous periumbilical surgeyQ* Generalized peritonitisQ* Cardiac or pulmonary diseaseQ* Massive hemorrhageQ* ShockQ* Cancer involving anterior abdominal wallQ | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological Diagnosis | Laparoscopy is contraindicated in:
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. PID
C. Endometriosis
D. Peritonitis
| Peritonitis |
bfe26e9d-d783-43c0-9c84-1352f39cb067 | While K+ is positively charged and more abundant on the inside, there exists a great amount of negatively charged paicles (the anions), accounting for the negative charge inside the membrane. The cell membraneforms the border of a neuron and acts to control the movement of substances into and out of the cell. Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg 58 | Physiology | General physiology | What is/are effect on the membrane when extracellular concentration of K+ decreased?
A. | magnitude of RMP
B. | negativity of the membrane
C. | magnitude of RMP
D. | negativity of membrane
| | negativity of the membrane |
43d07502-2d3e-4f51-bd19-30c9dd2dfa25 | Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was launched in 2008. The objective is to improve access to health care in unorganised work force in the BPL category. Ref: Textbook of community medicine, S. Lal, 3rd edition pg: 629. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was launched in:
A. 1999
B. 2002
C. 2005
D. 2008
| 2008 |
aae7ba09-a052-4772-b499-068edb869783 | The PO2 (in mm Hg) inside skeletal muscle cells during exercise is closest to - 3mm Hg The PO2 decreases severly due to muscle's oxygen demand is very high. | Physiology | Respiratory System Pa 2 | The PO2 (in mm Hg) inside skeletal muscle cells during exercise is closest to:
A. 3
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
| 3 |
a049d194-42e6-47ba-82a7-5472f6158f30 | Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology 15th Edition Pg: 230Explanation:Levonorgestrel I LCD is progesterone impregnated IUCD and is recommended to control bleeding in menorrhagia.Other non contraceptive benefits of LNG IUCD:DUBEndometrial hyperplasiaIntrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCD)Biologically inert devices : Lippe's loop Copper containing devices : Copper T Hormonal IUCDS : Progestasert, Levonova, MI RENAHormonal IUCDsProgestasert38mg of ProgesteroneReleases 65 micrograms/dayEffective for 1 year40% reduction in Menorrhagia40%' reduction in DysmenorrheaLevonova60 mg of LevonorgestrelReleases 20 micrograms/dayIncreased chances of ectopic pregnancySafe during lactationEffective for 5 yearsMIRENA52 mg of levonorgestrelReleases 25 micrograms/dayDoes not suppress ovulationActs on endometrium and cervical mucusUsed in DUB. Endometrial hyperplasia. HRTEffective for 5 years | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Non-Hormonal - Intrauterine Devices | Best IUCD for a woman with menorrhagia is:
A. Lippe loop
B. Cu-T 375
C. Cu-T 200
D. Levonorgestrel IUCD
| Levonorgestrel IUCD |
04b58a19-4825-4d38-a6b0-77d6c4ac458e | Ans. is 'b' i.e. procaineThis one has been repeated so many times beforeAmide linked Local anaestheticsLidocaineBupivacaineDibucainePrilocaineRopivacaineEster linked local anaestheticsCocaineProcaineChlorprocaineTetracaineBenzocaine | Anaesthesia | Miscellaneous (Local and Regional Anesthesia) | Which of the following is not an amide:
A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Etidocaine
| Procaine |
db9636bb-4335-44a1-a2a7-090a3d2e0543 | Holt Oram syndrome:Hypoplastic or absent radii1st-degree hea blockASD(Refer: OP Ghai's Textbook of Pediatrics, 8th edition, pg no. 401) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Holt Oram syndrome is characterized by
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TGA
D. TAPVC
| ASD |
34c5ae30-0251-4530-b3d9-71b6ec52e08a | Low levels of Ach are associated with the symptoms of Alzheimer disease. Tacrine, donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (i.e., they block the breakdown of Ach, increasing its availability). These agents can thus be effective in slowing down the progression of the illness. They do not restore the function the patient has already lost. | Psychiatry | Organic Mental Disorders | In Alzheimer disease patients, the major effect on neurotransmitter systems of tacrine, donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine is to
A. increase dopamine availability
B. decrease dopamine availability
C. increase Ach availability
D. decrease Ach availability
| increase Ach availability |
1bd89554-6c2e-4584-92f9-2f238e8a2c39 | Glass is always radio-opaque irrespective of content of lead and other additives. So plain X-Ray is best to look for glass foreign body. | Radiology | Musculoskeletal Radiology | 16 year old boy presents to emergency with injury to his right index finger tip with glass piece. Which of the following radiological modality is best used for determination of glass piece in patient's finger?
A. X-Ray
B. USG
C. CT Scan
D. MRI
| X-Ray |
a9140920-3366-4a87-b848-2f3ad7bfab3d | Liddle syndrome is charcterized by increased ENaC channels and Amiloride is a ENaC blocker, which can be used for this condition. | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for Liddle syndrome
A. Acetazolamide
B. Furosemide
C. Amiloride
D. Spironolactone
| Amiloride |
f6dea44b-fd89-4db3-84c2-d2500a2a59b0 | Answer is B (Absence seizures): Presence of multiple sho episodes of vacant stare (absence) in an otherwise normal child with no history of aura or postictal confusion suggests the diagnosis of typical absence seizures. Absence seizures versus Dav dreaming Absence seizures can easily be confused with episodes day dreaming however there are ceain clues that can help differentiate these two conditions Day dreaming is usually not associated with automatism while automatism is common in seizures. Day dreaming can often be 'broken' with stimulation while seizures can usually not be 'broken'. Day dreaming usually occurs when child is tired /bored or involved in a monotonous activity but seizures can sta abruptly at any time (for example in the middle of a sentence). Abrupt onset of vacant episodes and the fact that the child remains unresponsive during the episode (cannot be broken) ours a diagnosis of absence seizures in this child. Absence seizures versus complex paial seizures Complex paial seizures are frequently associated with aura and postictal confusion. Absence of these features ours a diagnosis of 'Absence seizures' Absence seizures must primarily be differentiated from complex paial seizures and Day dreaming Clinical data Absence Complex paial Daydreaming Frequency/day Multiple Rarely over 1-2 Mutiple; situation-dependent Duration Frequently < 10 sec (Rarely longer than 30 sec) Average duration ober 1 min, 10 sec Seconds to minutes; rarely more rarely less Aura Never Frequently' No Eye blinking Common Occasionally No Automatism Common Frequently No Postictal impairment None Frequently No Seizures activated by 1-11p er yen ti la tio n Very frequently Occassionallv No Photic Frequently Rarely No EEG ktul Generalized spike and wave Usually unilateral or bilateral temporal frontal discharges Normal Interictal Usually normal Variable; may be spikes or sharp waves in frontal or temporal lobes Normal | Pediatrics | null | A child presents with sho episodes of vacant stare several times a day. The vacant episode begins abruptly and the child remains unresponsive during the episode. There is no associated history of aura or postictal confusion and the child is otherwise normal. The likely diagnosis is
A. Grandmal seizures
B. Absence seizures
C. Complex paial seizures
D. Day dreaming
| Absence seizures |
e0348afc-9c6e-49f5-a5ce-6e345077f432 | Primary Closure
Also known as healing by primary intention Have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection Requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance Surgical incisions, paper cuts and small cutaneous wounds usually heal by primary closure.
Fastest type of closure by simple suturing, skin grafting or flap closure Secondary Closure Also known as healing by secondary intention Healing of a wound in which the wound edges cannot be approximated Requires a granulation tissue matrix to be built to fill the wound defect Requires more time and energy than primary wound closure Creates more scar tissue The majority of wounds close by secondary wound closure.
Delayed Primary Closure Also known as healing by tertiary intention. Combination of healing by primary and secondary intention
The wound is first cleaned and observed for a few days to ensure no infection is apparent, before it is surgically closed.
E.g. traumatic injuries such as dog bites or lacerations involving foreign bodies. | Surgery | null | Would closure for clean wounds within 6 hours of injury without risk of contamination
A. Primary closure
B. Delayed primary closure
C. Secondary closure
D. Tertiary closure
| Primary closure |
d8caa5a3-8369-489b-afce-39593a81268f | Absolute contraindications of hormone replacement therapy (H): Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding Estrogen dependent cancer in the body Severe liver disease Pregnancy Venous thrombosis Well-differentiated and early endometrial cancer (once treatment for the malignancy is complete, is no longer an absolute contraindication.) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which among the following is an absolute contraindication of Hormone replacement therapy ?
A. Endometriosis
B. Osteoahritis
C. Hea disease
D. Breast carcinoma
| Breast carcinoma |
95a5881b-82eb-4076-b4b1-81b7d34b862e | Ans. (d) X linked recessiveRef: Robbings pathology 9th ed. 1/42 | Pathology | Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects | Duchene-muscular dystrophy?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
| X-linked recessive |
99507c09-b98e-42f3-8a3f-cd1ae6e8b01c | Ans: C i.e. Conduct disorderChild psychiatric conditions and presentationTriad of symptoms of autism includes abnormal reciprocal social interaction; communication and language impairment; and a restricted, stereotyped and repetitive repeoire of interests and activitiesClinical features of ADHD includes inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivenessConduct disorder is characterized by aggression/cruelty to people and/or animals, theft, theft, fire setting, severe provocative or disobedient disorder etc.Features of OCD include obsessions (intrusive, repetitive and distressing thoughts), compulsions (repetitive, stereotyped, unnecessary behaviours) | Psychiatry | null | A child fights with other childrens frequently. He has disciplinary problem in school and steals things. Most likely diagnosis is: March 2012
A. Autism
B. Attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder
C. Conduct disorder
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
| Conduct disorder |
929928e5-ebe6-4f1d-91d6-c017d49177d1 | Arden ratio = (Maximum height of light peak/Minimum height of dark trough) x 100 Normal curve values are 185 or above. Subnormal curve values are less than 150. Flat curve values are less than 125. Reference : AK KHURANA COMPREHENSIVE OPHTHALMOLOGY, Edition4 , Page-490 | Ophthalmology | Anatomy, Development and clinical examination | The normal value of Arden index is
A. 1
B. 5-Jan
C. Less than 18.5
D. More than 1.85
| More than 1.85 |
2774add4-7ea3-48f1-a950-9969fd90efeb | Culpable homocide ( section 299 IPC) whoever causes death by doing an act, with the intention of causing death or with the intention for causing such bodily injury as likely to cause death, or cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 216 | Anatomy | Miscellaneous | Sec 299 IPC deals with
A. Assault
B. Culpable homicide
C. Murder
D. Grievous hu
| Culpable homicide |
388378fd-7bcf-4370-a666-fb54e2ddcb6e | The unique feature of atracurium is inactivation in plasma by spontaneous nonenzymatic degradation (Hofmann elimination) in addition to that by Alkaline ester hydrolysis.
Consequently, its duration of action is not altered in patients with hepatic/renal insufficiency or hemodynamic compromise → It is the preferred muscle relaxant for such patients as well as for neonates and elderly. | Anaesthesia | null | Muscle relaxant used in renal failure –
A. Ketamine
B. Atracurium
C. Pancuronium
D. Fentanyl
| Atracurium |
4d94a07d-4334-45dc-ba71-f9bf985f5bd8 | Ans. C Deep peroneal nerveRef: Anatomy of Foot and Anklet pg 12NerveMotor InnervationSensory DistributionCommon peroneal (L4, L5, S1, S2)Deep and superficial peronealArticular branches to knee; anterolateral aspect proximal leg (via lateral sural nerve)Deep peronealTibialis anterior, EDL, EHL, peroneus tertius Lateral branch: EDBMedial branch: Dorsal first web space lateral hallux, medial second toe.Lateral branch: Tarsal and metatarsal jointsSuperficial peronealPeroneus longus and brevisAnterolateral distal two thirds of leg; dorsum of foot and toes | Anatomy | Lower Extremity | First web space of foot is supplied by:
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Superficial peroneal nerve
C. Deep peroneal nerve
D. Sural nerve
| Deep peroneal nerve |
1d5bee12-e421-44ff-81cf-6e688602f892 | Phospholipid - 2 Fatty acid+ Glycerol+ PO + Choline or ethanolamine ( 2 Fatty acid + Glycerol is called Diacylglycerol or Diglyceride) Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 31st edition page196 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | The structure of Phospholipid consists of
A. Monoglyceride+phosphate+choline
B. Diglyceride+phosphate+choline
C. Triglyceride+phosphate+choline
D. Glycerol+phosphate+choline
| Diglyceride+phosphate+choline |
a7c13502-2359-406d-a893-9c76e7eb010e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 31Spinal cord gives origin to 31 pairs of spinal nerves -8 cervical pairs12 thoracic pairs5 lumbar pairs5 sacral pairs1 coccygeal pairsThere are 8 cervical nerves (but only 7 cervical veebrae) because C1 exits between the skull and atlas, while C8 exits through the interveebral formen between C7 and T1 . | Anatomy | null | There are low many pairs of spinal nerves ?
A. 28
B. 30
C. 31
D. 33
| 31 |
1efd7aac-0ace-4bc6-9603-825aa2bfea05 | Ans. A Pulsatile tinnitus "The two most common presenting symptoms of paraganglioma of temporal bone (Glomus tumor) are conductive hearing losso and pulsatile tinnnus" Hearing loss is conductive and slowly progressive Tinnitus is pulsatile and of swishing character", synchronous with pulse", and can be temporarily stopped by carotid pressure", Thus, both pulsatile tinnitus and deafness are seen in glomus tumor. | ENT | null | Earliest symptom of glomus tumor is:
A. Pulsatile tinnitus
B. Deafness
C. Headache
D. Veigo
| Pulsatile tinnitus |
2b1c04e3-182f-46b4-850c-561c101eb895 | Achilles tendon injury
Achilles tendon is the thickest and strongest tendon in the body and is also the one of the most commonly injured tendon in the body.
The most common Achilles tendon injuries are :-
Achilles tendinosis (formerly called Achilles tendonitis)
Achilles tendon rupture
Achilles tendinosis (Achilles tendonitis)
Achilles tendonitis is a condition that develops over time and is associated with degeneration of the tendon and inflammation that causes pain.
Achilles tendonitis is described as insertional or non-insertional:-
Insertional achilles tendonitis :- Occurs where the achilles tendon interts into the calcaneum, i.e. at the tendon-bone interface.
Non-insertional achilles tendonitis:- Occurs about one to two inches (2-5 cm) proximal to the site of insertion of the tendon.
The etiology of Achilles tendonitis is overuse.
"Achilles tendonitis is a chronic problem; it occurs primarily from overuse". — Healthguide for sports
"The etiology of Achilles tendonitis is overuse". — Essential sports medicine
Achilles tendonitis occurs more commonly in Atheletes, joggers and hikers. | Orthopaedics | null | Most common cause of insertional tendonitis of tendoachilles is -
A. Overuse
B. Improper shoe wear
C. Runners and jumpers
D. Steroid injections
| Overuse |
d4af32dd-386b-4c10-b484-f109b2b4a7ad | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methylopa o Methyldopa is DOC for hypeension in pregnancy. o Nifedipine is 2nd choice. o Hydralazine is DOC for hypeensive emergencies in pregnancy. | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice of hypeension in pregnancy is ?
A. Methyldopa
B. Thiazide
C. Nifedipine
D. Labetalol
| Methyldopa |
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