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c6390e2d-66a5-4352-8ee8-d9f11b66bcf8 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Goblet cells o Large intestine (colon) contains large number of goblet cells,Part of gutHistological featureStomachGastric pits and glands. Gastric glands contain (from above downwards): Mucus neck cells, parietal cells, chief cells.DuodenumBrunner's glands in the submucosaJejunumSolitary lymphoid nodulesIleumSubmucosal aggregated lymphoid tissue, called Peyeds patchesLarge intestineCrypts of Lieberkuhn and large number of goblet cells. Paneth (zymogen) cells lie at the deepest part of the crypts.o Chief cells secrete pepsin and gastric lipaseQ.o Parietal cells secrete acid and intrinsic factor of Castleo Paneth cells are rich in zincQ and Rough endoplasmic reticulum and their secretory granules contain lysozyme, defensins and TNF alpha. | Anatomy | Large Intestine, Rectum, and Anal canal | Colon contains -
A. Parietal cells
B. Chief cells
C. Brunner's gland
D. Goblet cells
| Goblet cells |
7ef69042-a124-4b52-a445-a2dc53cb26af | Common causes of postmenopausal bleeding Genital malignancy (Me) Decubitus ulcer DUB. Urethral caruncle. Senile endometritis DIAGNOSIS Speculum Examination If a growth is found, punch biopsy is to be taken. If no growth is visible and the cervix looks apparently healthy- Cervical smear Aspiration cytology Fractional curettage, if the cervical cytology becomes negative. Hysteroscopic evaluation and directed biopsy Laparoscopy in suspected cases of ovarian or adnexal mass. Detection of a benign lesion should not prevent fuher detailed investigations to rule out malignancy. | Anatomy | All India exam | The Investigation of choice in a 55-year-old postmenopausal women who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is:
A. Pap smear
B. Fractional curettage
C. Transvaginal ultrasound
D. CA-125 estimation
| Fractional curettage |
0b92e688-8522-41e8-8606-e63f193c78a4 | Spinal anaesthesia creates a zone of differential blockade in which sympathetic fibres are blocked two segments higher and motor fibres are blocked two segments lower than the level of sensory block. | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | In spinal anaesthesia the segmental level of:
A. Sympathetic block is lower than the sensory block
B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block
C. Motor block is higher than the sensory block
D. Sympathetic, motor and sensory block has the same level
| Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block |
e5644567-4898-4102-bc78-fc1fe69b3583 | Ans. (A) VinblastineThe mechanism shows the inhibition of polymerization of tubulin means the drug inhibit the spindle formation. This mechanism is shown by vinca alkaloids like vincristine and vinblastine.Mechanism on spindleDrugsInhibit polymerization of tubulinVincristine, VinblastineInhibit depolymerization of tubulinPaclitaxel, Docetaxel | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy: General Principles | Figure shows the mechanism of action of:
A. Vinblastine
B. Cisplatin
C. Imatinib
D. Trastuzumab
| Vinblastine |
4bf1d0cd-31ac-4ee5-afa8-9c833fed526b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 82 Criminal responsibility:o Any act wrhich is done by a child under seven years of age is not an offence- Section 82 I.P.C.o A child between seven and 12 years is presumed to be capable of commiting an offence , if he attained ''sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion: -Sec. 83 I.P.Co A child under 12 years cannot give valid consent to suffer any harm which may occur from an act done in good faith and for its benefit (Sec 89 I.P.C.)o A person above 18 years can give valid consent to suffer any harm whichmay result from an act not intended orrr not known to cause death or grievous hurt.- Sec 87 I.P.C. | Forensic Medicine | Introduction to Forensic Medicine and Medical Jurisprudence | IPC for criminal responsibility defining non-offence is ?
A. 82
B. 182
C. 88
D. 188
| 82 |
74f4ba73-f689-4afa-a3c6-1af0a81dcfa7 | Auscultation is the most commonly used method to detect endobronchial intubation. But it may be misleading, as breath sounds can be transmitted to opposite side of the chest. Chest x-ray is reliable but time consuming and expensive. The radio opaque marker at the patient end shoilube in the middle third of trachea. End tidal CO2 is the most reliable and standard method to detect endobronchial intubation. | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | Standard method to differentiate between endotracheal and esophageal intubation is-
A. End tidal CO2
B. Chest X-rays
C. Auscultation
D. Paial pressure of 02
| End tidal CO2 |
5277138b-7c95-4f8e-86a5-411f5372e1d6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tension gangrene due to the accumulating secretions | Surgery | null | The frequent mechanism in perforation of appendix is?
A. Impacted faecolith
B. Tension gangrene due to the accumulating secretions
C. Necrosis of lymphoid patch
D. Retrocaecal function
| Tension gangrene due to the accumulating secretions |
df24645a-022a-4587-84c7-1f56c57e22c3 | FSGS is seen in cases of congenital renal anomalies (unilateral renal agenesis or renal dysplasia) and acquited causes like reflex nephropathy. | Pathology | null | Which glomerular lesion is seen in cases of reflux nephropathy
A. RPGN
B. MPGN
C. MGN
D. FSGS
| FSGS |
bf0a6633-9443-4eb3-bd97-19f6fb10ac92 | Ref. KDT. Page. 677.
Senna is obtained from leaves and pod of certain Cassia sp., while Cascara sagrada is the powdered bark of the buck-thorn tree.
These and a number of other plant purgatives contain anthraquinone glycosides, also called emodins.
Senna is most popularly used.
MOA – They not active as such. Unabsorbed in the small intestine, they are passed to the colon where bacteria liberate the active anthrol form, which either acts locally or is absorbed into circulation—excreted in bile to act on small intestine.
The purgative action and uses of anthraquinones are quite similar to diphenylmethanes.
Taken at bed time
The active principle acts on the myenteric plexus to increase peristalsis and decrease segmentation. They also promote secretion and inhibit salt and water absorption in the colon.
ADR: Skin rashes, fixed drug eruption are seen occasionally, Regular use for 4–12 months causes colonic atony and mucosal pigmentation (melanosis). | Unknown | null | A 25 year old colonscopy showed pigmentary deposits and microscopy showed pigment laden macrophages. The women in on laxatives for past one year. Which of the following is the cause of it ?
A. Castor oil
B. Bisacodyl
C. Lactulose
D. Senna
| Senna |
ccb58bf0-ee5d-4658-a936-a3ac446342af | Ans. C Bennet's fractureThere is a 2-part fracture of base of thumb (first metacarpal) with intra articular extension. Similar intra articular 3 part or comminuted fracture is known as Rolando's fractureQ. Abductor pollicis longus tendonQ - creates an un-opposed pull on the fracture fragments hence Bennet's fracture requires internal fixationQ. | Radiology | Skeletal System | Fracture shown in this radiograph is:
A. Colies' fracture
B. Smith's fracture
C. Bennet's fracture
D. Rolando's fracture
| Bennet's fracture |
358e4e5e-b218-4939-b296-545e45a6838c | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Class V KIDNEY INVOLVEMENT IN SLE (LUPUS NEPHRITIS) A. Glomerular disease There are several versions of WHO classification of lupus nephritis ? 1. Minimal or no detectable abnormalities (class 1) o It occurs in less than 5% of patients. o Has best prognosis. 2.Mesangial lupus glomerulonephritis (class H) o Characterized by mesangial cell proliferation and lack of involvement of glomerular capillary wall. Granular mesangial deposits of immunoglobule and complement ---> the earliest change of lupus nephritis and is found in all type of lupus nephritis. Has good prognosis. 3. Focal proliferative glomerulonephritis (class III) o Affecting fewer than 50% of glomeruli. o Deposits are predominantly subendothelial, i.e between endothelium and basement membrane. o Granular deposits also occur in mesangium as occur in all form of lupus nephritis. 4.Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (class IV) o Most common form of lupus nephritis (35-60% of patients). Most or all glomeruli are involved. o Deposits are predominantly subendothelial. o Granular deposits in mesangium. o Epithelial crescents are seen in the Bowman space. o Has worst prognosis. 5. Membranous glomerulonephritis (class V) o There is widespread thickning of capillary walls. o Deposits are primarily subepithelial, i.e. between epithelium and basement membrane. o Granular deposits in mesangium. B. Tubulointerstitial disease o Though glomeruli are involved primarily in lupus nephritis, interstitium and tubules can also be involved especially in association with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. o Granular deposition of immunoglobulin and complement in tubular basement membrane are seen. Anti-DNA antibodies is usually associated with active lupus nephritis Also know o Nephritis is the most serious manifestation of SLE. o Most common cause of death is renal failure due to nephritis. | Pathology | null | According to WHO, membranous glomerulonephritis seen in SLE, is-
A. Class II
B. Class III
C. Class IV
D. Class V
| Class V |
ff8e5916-27fc-4415-9b63-3b8cb5d3dfc0 | Single diffusion in one dimension - Oudin procedure
Double diffusion in one dimension - Oakley fulthorpe procedure
Single diffusion in two dimensions - Radial immunodiffusion
Double diffusion in two dimensions - Ouchterlony procedure | Microbiology | null | Ouchterlony procedure is a immunodiffusion by
A. Single diffusion in one dimension
B. Double diffusion in one dimension
C. Single diffusion in two dimensions
D. Double diffusion in two dimensions
| Double diffusion in two dimensions |
604f92a1-1e5c-4a86-aa51-eb334621a345 | In molecular biology, DNA replication is the biological process of producing two identical replicas of DNA from one original DNA molecule. This process occurs in all living organisms and is the basis for biological inheritance. DNA is made up of a double helix of two complementary strands. During replication, these strands are separated. Each strand of the original DNA molecule then serves as a template for the production of its counterpa, a process referred to as semiconservative replication. Cellular proofreading and error-checking mechanisms ensure near perfect fidelity for DNA replication | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Formation of Okazaki fragments occur in
A. Transcription
B. Translation
C. Transduction
D. Replication
| Replication |
05abf886-a2c5-4d33-b18c-d889b19d59af | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cell shrinkage Morphological changes in apoptosiso Features of apoptosis areCell shrinkage : It is the earliest changes. It is due to damage to cytoskeleta! proteins.Chromatin condensation (pyknosis)/nuclear compaction : It is the most characteristic feature.Formation of cytoplasmic blebs : It is the end stage of apoptosis.Cytoplasmic eosinophilia.Chromosomal DNA fragmentation ; It is due to activity of endonuclease and caspases.Formation of apoptotic bodies : These are membrane bound round masses of eosinophilic cytoplasm with tightly packed orgaelles which may contain nuclear debries. Important examples of apoptotic bodies are civatte bodies, kamino bodies, councilman bodies, Tingible bodies, sunburn cells, satellite dyskeratotic cells, and eosinophilic globules,Phagocytosis of apoptotic cells and bodies by adjacent macrophages or healthy parenchymal cells.Considerable apoptosis may occur before it becomes apparent on histological section.o Two very important differentiating features from necrosis areAbsence of inflammation.Intact cell membrane. | Pathology | Apoptosis | The earliest change seen in apoptosis is -
A. Cell shrinkage
B. Pyknosis
C. Formation of apoptotic bodies
D. Fragmentation of cells
| Cell shrinkage |
08295e22-9c86-44a2-bd94-3621b9925304 | - Tumors of the pituitary body are MCC of bitemporal hemianopia, Suprasellar tumors like: Craniopharyngioma and Suprasellar meningioma also results in bitemporal hemianopia | Ophthalmology | Neuro Ophthalmology | Which of the following results in bitemporal hemianopia?
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Optic nerve glioma
C. Posterior cerebral aery occlusion
D. AION
| Craniopharyngioma |
d8d03fd7-8092-48ab-a94c-8eeda2d7131a | Ans: A (Acid Phosphatase) Ref: Harpers illustrated biochemistry, 28th edition.Explanation:Markers of Intracellular organellesPlasma Membrane: Na+ K+ ATPase & 5' NucleotidaseCytoplasm: Lactate dehydrogenaseMitochondria: Glutamate dehydrogenaseRibosome: RNAEndoplasmic reticulum: Glucose-6 phosphataseLvsosoitie: Acid phosphataseGolgi Apparatus: Galactosyl transferasePeroxisomes: Catalase & Uric acid oxidaseNucleus: DNAPeroxisome: Oxidase & catalase | Biochemistry | Enzyme Specificity and Allosteric Regulation | Marker of lysosome is: (Repeat)
A. Acid Phosphatase
B. Lactate dehydrogenase
C. Oxidase
D. Na K ATPase
| Acid Phosphatase |
9ff0bba2-2cad-4086-a7f2-cfa018876e19 | Non-professional antigen presenting cell
o A non-professional APC does not constitutively express the Major Histocompatibility Complex class II
(MHC class II) proteins required for interaction with naive T cells; these are expressed only upon
Stimulation of the non- professional APC by certain cytokines such as IFN-γ.
All nucleated cells express the Major Histocompatibility Complex class I necessary to be considered a
Non- professional APC.
As erythrocytes do not have a nucleus, they are one of the few cells in the body that cannot display
Antigens. | Pathology | null | Non professional antigen presenting cell is A/E –
A. Red blood cells
B. Endothelial cell
C. Epidermal cell
D. Fibroblasts
| Red blood cells |
0af5c147-be0b-4fb9-94a4-9d14e9bcb752 | .Complications of MRM/mastectomy * Injury/thrombosis of axillary vein * Seroma--50-70% * Shoulder dysfunction 10% * Pain (30%) and numbness (70%) * Flap necrosis/infection * Lymphoedema (15%) and its problems * Axillary hyperaesthesia (0.5-1%) * Winged scapula LYMPHANGIOSARCOMA (Stewa-Treve's syndrome) of upper limb can develop in patients who have developed lymphoedema after mastectomy with axillary clearance. Usually it occurs 3-5 years after development of lymphoedema. Such patient may require fore-quaer amputation. It has got poor prognosis. It presents as subcutaneous nodules.parasthesia develops due to the involvement of brachial cutaneous nerve. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 484 | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | Following MRM parasthesia develops due to involvement of which nerve
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Medial pectoral nerve
C. Brachial cutaneous nerve
D. Thoracodorsal nerve
| Brachial cutaneous nerve |
5809008f-8182-4a8f-b331-6ea6e9389524 | Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics. 19th Edition.Explanation:Weak femoral pulse is indicative of Coarctation of aorta. Normally, the femoral pulse occurs slightly before the radial pulse. Weak femoral pulse or femoral pulse felt after radial pulse is a characteristic feature of COACoarctation of aorta (COA)Constrictions of the aorta of varying degrees may occur at any point from the transverse arch to the iliac bifurcation, hut 98% occur just below the origin of the left subclavian artery at the origin of the ductus arteriosus i juxtaductal coarctation).The anomaly occurs twice as often in males as in females.Coarctation of the aorta may be a feature of Turner syndrome and is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve in more than 70% of patients.Mitral valve abnormalities (a supravalvular mitral ring or parachute mitral valve) and subaortic stenosis are potential associated lesions.When this group of left-sided obstructive lesions occurs together, they are referred to as the Shone complex.Clinical ManifestationsMostly asymptomaticSome children or adolescents complain about weakness or pain in the legs after exerciseSilent hypertension diagnosed on routine physical examination.Disparity in pulsation and blood pressure in the arms and legs.The femoral, popliteal, posterior tibia], and dorsalis pedis pulses are weak (or absent in up to 40%' of patients), in contrast to the bounding pulses of the arms and carotid vessels.The radial and femoral pulses should always be palpated simultaneously for the presence of a radial-femora] delay.Normally, the femoral pulse occurs slightly before the radial pulse. A radial-femoral delay occurs when blood flow to the descending aorta is dependent on collaterals, in which case the femora] pulse is felt after the radial pulse.In normal persons, systolic blood pressure in the legs obtained by the cuff method is 10-20 mm Hg higher than that in the arms.In coarctation of the aorta, blood pressure in the legs is lower than that in the arms.The precordial impulse and heart sounds are usually normal.The presence of a systolic ejection click or thrill in the suprasternal notch suggests a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 709c of cases).A short systolic murmur is often heard along the left sternal border at the 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces.In older patients with well-developed collateral blood flow, systolic or continuous murmurs may be heard over the left and right sides of the chest laterally and posteriorly. (SUZMAN SIGN)In these patients, a palpable thri 11 can occasionally be appreciated in the intercostal spaces on the back.DiagnosisCardiac enlargement and pulmonary congestion are noted in infants with severe coarctation.The enlarged left subclavian artery commonly produces a prominent shadow in the left superior mediastinum.Notching of the inferior border of the ribs from pressure erosion by enlarged collateral vessels is common by late childhood.In most instances, the descending aorta has an area of poststenotic dilatation. | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | An infant presents with cardiac failure. Examination reveals a weaker femoral pulse when compared to the radial pulse. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. PDA
B. COA
C. Aorto-illiac vasculitis
D. VSD
| COA |
5610fcc1-8b3b-4e68-850f-938c91636041 | The element selenium is found in the enzyme glutathione peroxidase that destroys free radicals. Thus, Se is also involved in antioxidant functions like vitamin E, and both of them act synergistically. To a certain extent, Se can spare the requirement vitamin E, and vice versa.
Ref : Satyanarayana, 3rd ed, pg. 129 | Biochemistry | null | The mineral having sparing action on vitamin E
A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Iodine
D. Selenium
| Selenium |
620c91fc-2b3d-4b89-abc6-1673fec306e9 | Bilirubin is a tetrapyrrole and a breakdown product of heme catabolism.
Most bilirubin (70%-90%) is derived from hemoglobin degradation and, to a lesser extent, from other hemoproteins. In the serum, bilirubin is usually measured as both direct bilirubin (DBil) and total-value bilirubin
Direct bilirubin correlates with conjugated bilirubin but tends to overestimate actual conjugated bilirubin, as it includes both the conjugated bilirubin and bilirubin covalently bound to albumin (delta-bilirubin).
Indirect bilirubin correlates with unconjugated bilirubin but tends to underestimate unconjugated bilirubin, as a | Pediatrics | null | What should be measured in a newborn who presents with hyperbilirubinemia –
A. Total & Direct bilirubin
B. Total bilirubin only
C. Direct bilirubin only
D. Conjugated bilinibin only
| Total & Direct bilirubin |
7232e19d-de66-4284-8dce-7bcd3261f14c | Activating point mutation in the RET proto oncogene plays impoant role in development of both familial and sporadiac medullary carcinoma of thyroid. The tumour tissue is firm,pale grey to tan and infiltrative. On microscopy,stroma shows acellular amyloid deposits which are derived from calcitonin polypeptides. Ref: Robbins and cotrans 9e pg 1099 | Pathology | Endocrinology | Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of medullary carcinoma of thyroid?
A. RET Proto Oncogene
B. Fap gene
C. Rb gene
D. BRCA 1 gene
| RET Proto Oncogene |
f4470ff9-6011-4f8c-b523-6844ae8c14f7 | Ans. B i.e. Edrophonium test Myasthenia gravis Decreased myoneural junction transmission Features: Dysahria, Dysphagia, Proximal muscle weakness, Sensory modalities and deep tendon reflexes are NORMAL MC used cholinergic drugs: Pyridostigmine/neostigmine Surgical procedure (should be done in all cases): Thymectomy | Medicine | null | 21 yearold female presents with history of mild bilateral ptosis, proximal muscle weakness and easy fatiguability. Which amongst the following, is best in diagnosing this condition: March 2013 (b)
A. Muscle biopsy
B. Edrophonium test
C. Repetitive nerve stimulation test
D. Electromyography
| Edrophonium test |
a32b791b-2254-44fd-8dca-062aeed41c20 | Fibroma is a rare benign tumor of the vulva arises from deep connective tissues by fibroblast proliferation. Lesions are primarily found on the labia majora. Larger lesions often become pedunculated with a long stalk and may cause pain or dyspareunia. Surgical excision is indicated for symptomatic lesions. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 4. Benign Disorders of the Lower Reproductive Tract. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is the commonest site of fibroma?
A. Labia majora
B. Labia minora
C. Clitoris
D. Rudimentary hymen
| Labia majora |
2b8374f3-8384-4b8e-a999-32b8efde94b8 | Both the internal and external carotid aery supply the nose but main aery is the external carotid aery. Ref.Dhingra5/e p 189 | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Nasal mucosa is supplied by:
A. only external carotid aery
B. Only internal carotid aery
C. Mainly external carotid aery
D. Mainly internal carotid aery
| Mainly external carotid aery |
e58e5138-6a4e-46d8-a20b-92c14a991dc7 | The anterior intercostal aeries anastomose with the posterior intercostal aeries. Ligation of the anterior aeries would not affect the supply of the intercostal spaces because the posterior aeries would provide collateral aerial supply. Branches of the musculophrenic aery provide supply for the lower seventh, eighth, and ninth intercostal spaces. The superior epigastric aery passes into the rectus sheath of the anterior abdominal wall. The lateral thoracic aery arises from the second pa of the axillary aery, and the thoracodorsal aery is a branch of the subscapular aery, a branch of the third pa of the axillary aery | Surgery | Thorax And Mediastinum | In coronary bypass graft surgery of a 49-year-old female, the internal thoracic aery is used as the coronary aery bypass graft. The anterior intercostal aeries in intercostal spaces three to six are ligated. Which of the following aeries will be expected to supply these intercostal spaces?
A. Musculophrenic
B. Superior epigastric
C. Posterior intercostal
D. Lateral thoracic
| Posterior intercostal |
13256dea-5dc7-4fb2-bfa3-5e0ac4408575 | Patent Vitello-intestinal Duct The resulting umbilical fistula discharges mucus and rarely, feces A patent vitello-intestinal duct should be excised, together with a Meckel&;s Diveicula if present, preferably when the child is about 6 months old Ref: Bailey 27th edition Pgno : 1044 | Surgery | G.I.T | Patent vitello-intestinal duct should preferably be operated at:
A. Bih
B. 6 months of age
C. 12 months of age
D. 3 years of age
| 6 months of age |
6358f295-0a9e-440c-bb79-5f496891613c | PCOS is associated with elevated LH and mildly elevated testosterone. In case of stromal hypehecosis, though testosterone is elevated and LH is normal. Markedly elevated testosterone > 2 ng/ml is suggestive of tumor. Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 254. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 28 year old female comes to you with history of oligomenorrhea. On examination you note hirsutism and virilisation. USG showed that the left ovary is enlarged. The testosterone levels comes as 4 ng/ml. What is the MOST probable diagnosis? Note: The LH levels are normal.
A. PCOS
B. Stromal hypehecosis
C. Luteoma of pregnancy
D. Ovarian tumor
| Ovarian tumor |
897b5be0-a6c7-4025-985c-43af58e296eb | Eyelid disorders Inflammatory disorders of eyelidsClinical pictureTreatmentBlepharitisSubacute or chronic inflammation of lid margins due to Corynebacterium, Staphylococcus aureus, Demodexfolliculorum&PhthiriasisPalpebraCrusts should be removed, Antibiotic ointment at least twice daily ( Erythromycin or tetracycline ), Oral anti-inflammatory drugs, removal of nits with forceps External hordeolum (Stye)Acute suppurative inflammation of the gland of Zeiss or MollStage of cellulitis - Stage of abscessHot compresses 2 - 3 times a day, the Surgical incision for large abscess, Antibiotic drops, anti-inflammatory and analgesics Chalazion Chronic noninfective granulomatous inflammation of meibomian gland - retention secretions which are fatty in nature Intralesional triamcinolone, Incision, and curettage, Diathermy Internal hordeolum ( Infected chalazion )Suppurative inflammation of meibomian gland associated with blockage of the duct Drained by veical incision from the tarsal conjunctiva Molluscum contagiosumMultiple, pale, waxy, umbilicated swellings scattered over the skin near lid margin Incised and interior cautery with tincture of iodine or pure carbolic acid (Refer: AH Khurana, Comprehensive Textbook of Ophthalmology,5thedition,pg no: 366-369) | Pathology | All India exam | Pale waxy umbilicated swelling on the lid is
A. Chalazion
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. External hordeolum
D. Internal hordeolum
| Molluscum contagiosum |
bf2adaf8-0465-4fbb-8a6d-85e7d6adba18 | Dabigatran etexilate is an oral thrombin inhibitor and rivaroxaban is an oral factor Xa inhibitor. Dabigatran etexilate is used as an alternative to warfarin for stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation. Argatroban is a parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor. Alfimeprase is a fibrinolytic agent. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Chapter: 118 | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is an oral thrombin inhibitor?
A. Rivaroxaban
B. Dabigatran
C. Argatroban
D. Alfimeprase
| Dabigatran |
a358d9e6-0906-43e1-b9e7-9cf1cbe84cb5 | The best screening test for SLE is a demonstration of Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) Sensitive test for SLE ANA Specific test for SLE Anti-ds DNA and Anti Sm antibody Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 2515, 2516f, 2517t, 2518t, 2522 | Medicine | All India exam | Anti-ds DNA antibodies are most specific for
A. SLE
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Scleroderma
D. Polymyositis
| SLE |
e3fa7c77-8455-46ec-8b5f-64a206e20a86 | Primary biliary cirrhosis Believed to be an autoimmune etiology, leading to progressive destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts More common in females Associated with autoimmune disorders (CREST, Sicca syndrome, Autoimmune thyroiditis, Renal tubular acidosis) Clinical features Most patients are asymptomatic, pruritus the commonest and earliest symptom. Pruritus precedes jaundice in PBC, Pruritus is most bothersome in evening Jaundice, fatigue, melanosis (gradual darkening of exposed areas of skin), deficiency of aft soluble vitamins due to malabsorption Xanthomas and xanthelesmas due to protracted elevation of serum lipids Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 639 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Pruritus precedes jaundice in
A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Secondary biliary cirrhosis
C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
D. CBD stone
| Primary biliary cirrhosis |
b2c5c01e-a574-4599-9c58-f5826495d393 | Esthesioneuroblastoma or olfactory neuroblastoma are uncommon highly malignant tumors, arising from the neuroendocrine cells in the olfactory mucosa. Ref : Osborn Neuroradiology 1/e p493 | Surgery | Head and neck | Esthesio neuroblastoma arises from -
A. Olfactory N
B. Maxillary N
C. Ophthalmic N
D. Nasociliary N
| Olfactory N |
e472cf4b-adc0-4723-b240-6037fda1dec8 | Maternal moality rate is total no.of female deaths due tobcomplications of pregnancy, childbih or within 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes in an area during a given year by total no.of live bihs in the same year and area.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-514 | Social & Preventive Medicine | obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics | Denominator in maternal moality ratio?
A. Mid Year Population
B. Live bihs
C. Total bihs
D. Total numbebr of pregnancies
| Live bihs |
5a63e7e7-94b4-42ec-86df-43251765ebc1 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rhabdomyosarcoma Histology of rhabdomvosarcoma o The diagnostic cell of rhabdomyosarcoma is rhabdomyoblast. o Rhabdomyoblast contains eccentric eosinophilic granular cytoplasm rich in thick and thin filaments. o The rhabdomyoblasts may be ? i) Round Elongated Tadpole or Strap cells. o It has three variants i) Embryonal Alveolar iii) Pleomorphic o Rhabdomyoblasts are positive for desmin, MYOD1 and Myogenin. | Pathology | null | Tadpole cells comma shaped cells on histopathology are seen in -
A. Trichoepithelioma
B. Spideroma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Histiocytoma
| Rhabdomyosarcoma |
00546d04-832f-4485-abc7-8952dad259fe | Koch's triangle boundaries tendon of Todaro opening of coronary sinus at the base septal cusp of tricuspid valve (. atrio ventricular valve) AV node at apex | Anatomy | Surfaces and Grooves | Which of the following is not a boundary of the Koch's triangle?
A. tendon of todaro
B. IVC opening
C. coronary sinus ostium
D. septal cusp of tricuspid valve
| IVC opening |
0efe45c8-616c-4c8b-9dee-d32528a22fea | When ventricle begin to contract isovolumetrically the mitral & tricuspid valves close producing First hea sound Ref: Metting, Physiology pretest and review, 14th edition | Physiology | All India exam | In the cardiac cycle diagram, when does the first hea sound occur
A. Point A
B. Point B
C. Point C
D. Point D
| Point A |
e96c0196-7107-4518-81d4-0dd791149b3a | Egg contains all nutrients except carbohydrate and Vitamin ‘C'
Food items as Poor Sources of nutrients :
Milk is a poor source of Vitamin C and Iron.
Milk is a poor source of Calcium.
Milk is a poor source of Carbohydrates.
Food items as Rich Sources of nutrients :
Halibut Liver Oil is richest source of Vitamin A and Vitamin D.
Indian Gooseberry (amla) is richest source of Vitamin C.
Gingelly seeds are richest source of Vitamin Bj (Thiamine).
Sheep liver is richest source of Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Egg is deficient in-
A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin C
C. Fat
D. Proteins
| Vitamin C |
33995c15-5239-4ddf-ab5c-c80c0552730d | In nicotine withdrawal there is bradycardia not tachycardia. The most common symptoms of nicotine withdrawal are impaired concentration, irritability, tension, disturbed sleep or drowsiness, intense longing for a cigarette/nicotine, headaches, and an increased appetite leading to weight gain. | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following is not a feature of Nicotine withdrawal?
A. Depression
B. Headache
C. Tachycardia
D. Anxiety
| Tachycardia |
b4c6aa74-23eb-4375-94c0-fce0c1a6c71f | (A) Sickle cell anaemia # Priapism in childhood commonly presents as a common symptom of Sickle Cell Disease especially after puberty, mainly as low flow or as a complication of penile trauma (normally high flow, non-ischemic episodes).> This phenotypic manifestation of SCD can cause persistent impotence, erectile dysfunction and behavioral problems in the sexual realm, as affected individuals fear the induction of an episode of painful erection in the course of normal sexual activity, which is the most common cause of priapism episodes after puberty.> The causative mechanisms are poorly understood but involve complex neurological and vascular factors.>Priapism may be associated with 1. Haematological disorders, especially sickle-cell disease, sickle-cell trait, and 2. Other conditions such as leukemia, thalassemia, and Fabry's disease, and 3. Neurologic disorders such as spinal cord lesions and spinal cord trauma (priapism has been reported in hanging victims; death erection).> Priapism is also found to occur in extreme cases of rabies,>. Priapism can also be caused by reactions to medications. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Persistent priapism in childhood is due to
A. Sickle cell anaemia
B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Paraphimosis
D. Urethral stenosis
| Sickle cell anaemia |
6d6451bf-c872-4d21-b72f-d9017b32e7d8 | (A) 30 ml In 100 ml of blood> I.P.C. Sec. 185 Driving by a drunken person or by a person under the influence of drugs. - Whoever, while driving, or at- tempting to drive, a motor vehicle -(a) has, in his blood, alcohol exceeding 30 mg Per 100 ml. of blood detected in a test by a breath analyser, or(b) is under the influence of a drug to such an extent as to be incapable of exercising proper control over the vehicle.> shall be punishable for the first offence with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees, or with both; and for a second or subsequent offence, if committed within three years of the commission of the previous similar offence, with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two year, or with fine which may extend to three thousand rupees, or with both.> Explanation - For the purposes of this section, the drug or drugs specified by the Central Government in this behalf, by notification in the Official Gazette, shall be deemed to render a person incapable of exercising proper control over a motor vehicle. Corresponding Law. - Section 185 corresponds to section 117 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1939. Objects and Reasons. - Clause 185 provides for punishment or driving under the influence of drink or drug | Social & Preventive Medicine | Miscellaneous | According to Motor vehicle Act 1988, punishable quantity of Alcohol in blood is
A. 30 ml in 100 ml of blood
B. 20 ml in 100 ml of blood
C. 10 ml in 100ml of blood
D. 15 ml in 100ml of blood
| 30 ml in 100 ml of blood |
ba48b782-3a3d-4b2b-89c9-91fbd7b897b1 | C i.e. C8 dermatome According to International Standards for Classification of Spinal Cord Injury (ISCSCI) dorsal surface of proximal phalanx of thumb corresponds to C6, middle finger to C7 and little finger to C8. | Surgery | null | Little finger of the hand corresponds to which dermatome?
A. C6 dermatome
B. C7 derma tome
C. C8 dermatome
D. T1 dermatome
| C8 dermatome |
b0030ae3-5aae-47e9-87cb-69274554d590 | Among IV induction agents,ketamine has a bronchodilator action. | Anaesthesia | Complications of anaesthesia | Intraoperative wheezing can be managed by
A. Thiopentane
B. Ketamine
C. Methohexitone
D. Propofol
| Ketamine |
de0c2144-b8e3-40fd-b3ba-dec97ef65a7d | Hypersensitivity reaction Time 1. Hyperacute II Minutes 2. Acute IV <6 months 3. Chronic IV >6 months | Medicine | Chronic Kidney Disease & Diabetic Nephropathy | Acute auto-graft rejection occurs within?
A. Few hours
B. < 1 month
C. < 6 months
D. 6-12 months
| < 6 months |
122554be-5d9e-4a19-9cc7-539e4046c610 | Adenoviral types 40, 41, and 42 have been shown to be associated with gastrointestinal disease in infants. Adenoviral types 4 and 7, commonly cause upper respiratory infections in military recruits; adenoviral types 19 and 37 have been implicated in causing epidemic keratoconjunctivitis. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 567 | Pathology | All India exam | A 2-year-old child attending daycare develops diarrhoea and gastroenteritis as a result of adenoviral infection. Which of the following adenoviral serotypes would most likely be responsible for this girl's illness?
A. Type 4
B. Type 7
C. Type 19
D. Type 41
| Type 41 |
3d86b676-d6d1-4d12-8947-a56fb0183465 | Ans. B: Stomach cancer Gastric tumour may spread the abdominal cavity to the umbilicus (Sister Joseph's nodule) Sister May Joseph's nodule: Periumbilical nodule/ hard mass Represents metastatin involvement of the paraumbilical nodes from intrapelvic or intraabdominal malignancies Seen with: - Stomach - Large bowel - Ovary - Pancreatic tumour Indicates poor prognosis | Surgery | null | Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen with: March 2011
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Stomach cancer
C. Colon cancer
D. Pancreatic cancer
| Stomach cancer |
d082c5c9-8dcd-4b00-b071-9de41df46b5d | B i.e. Measuring the radioactivity A gamma camera, measures radioactivityQ of the substance that is taken up by specific organ or tissue of interest, by detecting gamma rays Working of gamma camera Nuclear medicine studies require the oral or intravenous introduction of very low level radioactive material (called radio pharmaceuticals, radionuclide or radiotracess) into the body; which is taken up by a paicular organ or tissue. The decay of radiotracer then leads to emission of y (gamma) rays, which are measured by gamma camera with the help of its crystal detector (or scintillation crystal). | Radiology | null | Gamma camera in Nuclear Medicine is used for:
A. Organ imaging.
B. Measuring the radioactivity.
C. Monitoring the surface contamination
D. RIA.
| Measuring the radioactivity. |
8bc21dae-68de-4ec1-bcb6-82c11c3772cc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., BBT Miscellaneous methods of contraceptions o These are (i) Abstinence, (ii) Coitus interruptus, (iii) Safe period (rhyth method), and (iv) Natural family planning methods. Abstinence o There is complete abstinence from sexual intercourse. It is not used and can hardly be considered as a method of contraception to be advocated to the masses. Coitus interruptus o It is the oldest method of voluntary feility control. The male withdraws before ejaculation, and thereby tries to prevent deposition of semen into vagina. Failure rate is very high 25%. Natural family planning methods o These are :- i) Basal body temperature (BBT) method : It is based on the principle that there is rise BBT at or just before ovulation. ii) Cervical mucus method (Billings method or ovulation method) : It is based on the observation that at the time of ovulation cervical mucus becomes watery clear resembling raw egg white, smooth, slippery and profuse. iii) Symptothermic method : This method combines temperature, cervical mucus and safe period (calender method) methods. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | atural family planning method ?
A. Abstinence
B. Coitus interruptus
C. BBT
D. Safe peroid
| BBT |
d6ec9fb0-c8ac-45d3-897b-17c91e36e29f | Ref: Nelson s Textbook of Pediatrics. 19th Edition, Page: 1895.Explanation:"Most cases of congenital hypothyroidism results from thyroid dysgenesis"(Ref: Nelson)Thyroid DysgenesisSome form of thyroid dysgenesis (aplasia, hypoplasia, or an ectopic gland) is the most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism, accounting for 80-85% of cases; 15% are caused by an inborn error of thyroxine synthesis (dyshormonogeneses). and 2% are the result of transplacental maternal thyrotropin-receptor blocking antibody (TRBAB).In about 33% of cases of dysgenesis, even sensitive radionuclide scans can find no remnants of thyroid tissue (aplasia).In the other 66%' of infants, rudiments of thyroid tissue are found in an ectopic location, anyw here from the base of the tongue (lingual thyroid) to the normal position in the neck (hypoplasia).The cause of thyroid dysgenesis is unknown in most cases.Thyroid dysgenesis occurs sporadically, but familial cases occasionally have been reported.The finding that thyroid developmental anomalies, such as thvroglossal duct cysts and hemiage- nesis. are present in 8-10% of lst-degree relatives of infants with thyroid dysgenesis supports an underlying genetic component.Causes of Congenital HypothyroidismDefect of fetal thyroid development (dysgenesis)AplasiaHypoplasiaEctopiaDefect in thyroid hormone synthesis (dyshormonogenesis)Iodide transport defect: mutation in sodium- iodide symporter geneThyroid organification, or coupling defect: mutation in thyroid peroxidase geneDefects in H202 generation: mutations in DUOXA2 maturation factor or DU0X2 geneThyroglobulin synthesis defect: mutation in thyroglobulin geneDeiodination defect: mutation in DEHAL1 geneTSH unresponsivenessGsa mutation (e.g.. type IA pseudohypopar-athyroidism)Mutation in TSH receptorDefect in thyroid hormone transport:Mutation in monocarboxylate transporter 8 (MCT8) geneIodine deficiency (endemic goiter)Maternal antibodies:Thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibody (TRBAb, also termed thvrotropin-binding inhibitor immunoglobulin)Maternal medicationsIodides, amiodaronePropylthiouracil, methimazoleRadioiodine | Pediatrics | Thyroid Gland | Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism:
A. Thyroid dysgenesis
B. Dvshormonogenesis
C. Antithyroid antibodies
D. Maternal Hypothyroidism
| Thyroid dysgenesis |
54397cf1-8b30-4f15-ba3e-65077646b327 | Adenine complementary to uracil in RNA Guanine complementary to cytosineRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 457 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Complementary RNA sequence of 5&; AGTCTGACT3&;
A. 5' UCAGACUGA 3'
B. 5' UCAGACUGA 3'
C. 5' UCAGACUGA 3'
D. 5' UCAGACUGA 3'
| 5' UCAGACUGA 3' |
0a9afe88-e829-4903-bbb9-1c1db22999a3 | Answer is A (Myxoma) The commonest tumor of myocardium is a myxoma. | Medicine | null | The commonest tumor of the myocardium is :
A. Myxoma
B. Rhabdomyoma
C. Sarcoma
D. Fibroma
| Myxoma |
f9d820d2-0e81-4cd0-9129-0244bb58c969 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type II hypersensitivity Schick test is an example of type III hypersensitivity or immune-complex reaction.HYPERSENSITIVITYType I (IgE mediated)Type II (IgG IgM ando Eczemacomplement mediated)o Hay fevero Blood transfusion reactionso Asthmao Erythroblastosis fetaliso Atopyo Autoimmune hemolytico Urticariaanemia or thrombocytopeniao Anaphylactic shockor agmulocytosiso Acute dermatitiso Pemphigus vulgariso Theobald smitho Good pasture syndromephenomenono Bullous pemphigoido Prausnitz Kusntero Pernicious anemia(PK) reactiono Acute rheumatic fevero Casonis testo Diabetes mellituso Schultz-Daleo Graves diseasephenomenono Myasthenia gravisHYPERSENSITIVITYType III flgG IgM. complementType IV (Cell mediated)and leucocyte mediated)o Tuberculin testo Local-Arthus reactiono Lepromin testo Systemic-serum sicknesso Sarcoidosiso Schick testo Tuberculosiso Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)o Contact dermatitiso Rheumatoid arthritiso Granulomatous inflammationo SLEo Type I lepra reactiono Acute viral hepatitiso Patch testo Penicillamine toxicityo Temporal arteritiso Hyperacute graft rejectiono Jones mote reactiono Type 2 lepra reaction (ENL)(cutaneous basophilic HSN)o Hypersensitivity pneumonitiso Graft rejectiono R.A.o Fairleys testo Infective endocarditiso Frie's testo Henoch schonlein purpura o Glomerulonephritis | Pathology | Blood | Transfusion reaction and erythroblastosis fetalis are-
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
| Type II hypersensitivity |
be7d3347-278e-4384-bcd4-771afcb2879d | Fe2+ and a-ketoglutrate are also needed in hydroxylation of proline for collagen synthesis. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following elements is not required for hydroxylation of proline in collagen synthesis?
A. Vit C
B. O2
C. Dioxygenases
D. Pyridoxal phosphate
| Pyridoxal phosphate |
657a171b-0ec3-4f83-b820-de7c38dac6ac | Starvation: In starvation, the dietary supply of glucose is decreased. Available oxaloacetate is channeled to gluconeogenesis. The increased rate of lipolysis is to provide alternate source of fuel. The excess acetyl CoA is conveed to ketone bodies. The high glucagon level ors ketogenesis. The brain derives 60-75% ofenergy from ketone bodies under conditions of prolonged starvation. Hyperemesis (vomiting) in early pregnancy may also lead to starvation-likecondition and may lead to ketosis. The urine of a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis will give positive Benedict&;s test as well as Rothera&;s test. But instarvation ketosis, Benedict&;s test is negative, but Rothera&;s test will be positive.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 144 - 145 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Ketoacidosis without glycosuria is seen in
A. Aspirin poisoning
B. Rena tubular
C. Prolonged starvation
D. Paracetamol poising
| Prolonged starvation |
d11037b4-be95-4774-aca8-85632000750c | Ans. is'c' i.e.,Dorsalscapular nerveRhomboids major and minor are supplied by dorsal scapular nerve. | Anatomy | null | Nerve supply of rhomboids major -
A. Spinal accessory nerve, cranial pa
B. Spinal accessory nerve, spinal pa
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Thoracodorsal nerve
| Dorsal scapular nerve |
829ba070-db18-416c-b1db-bf74a02c9f50 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increased arteriolar blood flow to the tissue * Hypermia and congestion are the terms used for increased volume of blood within dilated vessels of an organ or tissue.* Hyperemia is an active process resulting from augmented blood flow to tissue because of arteriolar dilatation, at the site of inflammation or in skeletal muscle during exercise.Hyperemia is one of the cardinal sign of inflammation, i.e. redness (rubor) is due to hyperemia.* Congestion is a passive process resulting from impaired venous outflow from a tissue. It occurs in heart failure, portal venous obstruction and other local causes of obstruction. In right heart failure there is hepatic (liver) congestion and in left heart failure there is pulmonary congestion. | Pathology | Hemodynamics | Which of the following is seen in hyperemia?
A. Decreased arteriolar blood flow to the tissue
B. Increased arteriolar blood flow to the tissue
C. Increased venous blood flow in the tissue
D. Decrease venous blood flow in the tissue
| Increased arteriolar blood flow to the tissue |
8e856812-19ab-40ff-b6e7-3b7a469bf19b | Froment's sign is clinical testing of adductor pollicis .Give the patient a thin book and ask him to grasp it firmly between thumb and index fingers of both hands. If the muscle is healthy and acting normally, the thumb will be straight. but if paralyzed,the thumbs are flexed at IP joints. This is because adductor pollicis is not acting and flexor pollicis compensates for it. Reference: Textbook of anatomy upper limb and thorax, Visharm Singh, 2nd edition, page no.144. | Anatomy | Upper limb | Froment signs are positive in injury of which nerve
A. Median
B. Ulnar
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
| Median |
8eb12997-9f45-43ff-b3ab-860a81455501 | Ans:. (c) Sensorineural hearing lossRef Dhingras ENT. 5th ed. /124ACOUSTIC NEUROMA* Acoustic neuroma is also known as vestibular schwannoma, neurilemmoma or eighth nerve tumor.* It arises from superior division of vestibular nerve.* The tumor arises from the Schwann cells of the vestibular, but rarely from the cochlear division of 8th nerve within the internal auditory canal.Clinical Features* Age and sex: Mostly seen in age group of 40-60 years. Both sexes are equally affected.* Cochleovestibular symptoms# They are the earliest symptoms.# Most commonly manifests by Progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, often accompanied by tinnitus.# Vestibular symptoms are imbalance or unsteadiness.* Cranial nerve involvement# Cranial nerve 5th is the earliest nerve to be involved (after 8th)causing loss of corneal reflex# MC clinical finding of acoustic neuroma- loss of corneal reflex# CN 7th involvement: although rare, it causes numbness or paraesthesia of face# Hitzelberger sign: Hypoaesthesia around posterior auricular area (due to CN 7th involvement)# In CN 8th Sensory fibres are affected early.# 9th and 10th nerves: There is dysphagia and hoarseness due to palatal, pharyngeal and laryngeal paralysis.* Brainstem involvement# There is ataxia, weakness and numbness of the arms and legs with exaggerated tendon reflexes.* Cerebellar involvement# Revealed by finger-nose test, knee-heel test, dysdiadochokinesia, ataxic gait, inability to walk along a straight line with tendency to fall to the affected side.* Raised intracranial tension* This is also a late feature.* There is headache, nausea, vomiting, diplopia and papilloedema with blurring of vision. | ENT | Tumors | Which of the following is most prominent symptom of acoustic neuroma?
A. Ataxic gait
B. Diplopia
C. Sensorineural hearing loss
D. Parasthesia
| Sensorineural hearing loss |
496e6325-e954-4bb1-8588-33faa6edb9d6 | Neutral substances cross membranes based on their concentration gradient. That occurs by diffusion. | Physiology | null | Neutral substances are transported across the cell membrane by
A. Porins
B. lonophore
C. Lipopolysaccharides
D. Diffusion
| Diffusion |
9ade0c73-19c5-46e4-8357-233fae432230 | It is the most commonly injured organ in the abdomen. | Anatomy | All India exam | A woman has a fracture of the left tenth and eleventh ribs. The organ most likely to get injured by these fractured ribs is
A. Descending colon
B. Jejunum
C. Le adrenal gland
D. Spleen
| Spleen |
3b8da52d-16c5-43fa-b14f-290c4a4d9173 | organophosphates are anticholinesterases so it reduces cholinesterase level.
op compounds have muscurnic, nicotinic, and central actions so it causes lacrimation, salivation, tremors. | Pharmacology | null | A patient presents to emergency with a pinpoint pupil, salivation lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level Was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is:
A. Organophospahte Poisoning
B. Dhatura Poisoning
C. Opioid Poisoning
D. Pontine hemorrhage
| Organophospahte Poisoning |
3702ea9b-1933-4954-8046-f2153eb6d775 | Ans. (a) ATPaseIn primary active transport, the energy is derived directly from breakdown of ATPOne of these ATPases is sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (Na, K ATPase), which is also known as the Na, K pump | Physiology | General | Na+ K+ pump which enzyme is used
A. ATPase
B. GTpase
C. Acetyl CoA
D. NADPH
| ATPase |
5dedc621-eddc-412e-b88b-dbe5103ba920 | Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is the most common form of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia.It is characterised by exeional dyspnea,non productive cough,inspiratory crackles with or without digital clubbing.HRCT show patchy,predominantly basilar,subpleural reticular opacities,traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing.Pulmonary function tests often reveal a restrictive pattern. Reference:Harrison' s medicine-18th edition,page no:2165. | Medicine | Respiratory system | Most common cause of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Organizing pneumonia
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Lipoid pneumonia
| Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis |
61a8f69d-8c49-40a5-813e-a51014f79b45 | Ans. (c) Used to test ignificanc of association between two quantititve dataRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 852* DEGREE OF FREEDOM: it is the no. of observations in a dataset that can freely vary once the parameters have been estimated.* It is used in chi-square test and t-test.* DOF: (c-1) (r-1), where c is no. of columns and r is no. of rows.* In the given question there are 4 columns and 5 rows.* Therefore (4-1) (5-1) gives 12. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Statistical Tests | In a 4 x 5 table for Chi-square test, what is the degree of freedom?
A. 20
B. 16
C. 12
D. 9
| 12 |
1db0f36b-6da4-4bad-afd3-21472d25d828 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Filaria o Transmission by vectors may be of following types :A) Mechanical transmission# The infectious agent is mechanically transported by vector, e.g., through souling of feet of flying arthropod.# There is no development or multiplication of infectious agent within the vector.B) Biological transmission# The infectious agent undergoes replication (change in number) or development (change in form) or both in vector.# So, inectious agent requires an incubation period (extrinsic incubation period) before vector can transmit it to host.# This type of transmission is of three types : -i) Propagativeo Agent undergoes multiplication (increase in number), but there is no development (no change in the form), for example plague bacilli in rat flea.ii) Cyclo-developmentalo Agent undergoes only development (change in form) but there is no multiplication (no change in number), for example microfilaria in mosquito.iii) Cyclo-propagativeo There is both development (change in form) and multiplication (change in number), for example malarial parasite (plasmodium) in mosquito. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Infectious Disease Epidemiology | Cyclodevelopmental type of transmission is seen in-
A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Plague
D. Cholera
| Filaria |
4575f58c-2424-4a82-a388-19210106f0b6 | MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class II molecules are a family of molecules normally found only on antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes, some endothelial cells, thymic epithelial cells, and B cells Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 140 | Microbiology | Immunology | MHC II are not presented by -
A. macrophage
B. Dendritic cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Eosinophils
| Eosinophils |
8f254bbd-19c7-49b9-b37a-3bd5aac3c71d | It is right recurent Laryageal nerve palsy, hense only hoarsness is seen,so wait for recovery. | ENT | null | 10 year old boy developed hoarseness of voice following on attach of diphtheria, No other significant OLE or VR is paralysed, treatment of choice is
A. Get foam infection of right VC
B. Fat injection of rigth VC
C. Thyroplasty Type 1
D. Walt for spontaneous recovery
| Walt for spontaneous recovery |
fb2233fe-d181-4709-9867-421cb911dfdc | Halothane is hepatotoxic and all fluorinated anesthetic agents can cause a dose-dependent decrease in arterial BP and depression of heart. Xenon has minimal effect on CVS function. | Pharmacology | null | A patient with mitral stenosis had to undergo surgery. A pre-anaesthetic checkup revealed the increased liver enzymes. Which of the following inhalational agent should be preferred in this patient?
A. Xenon
B. Enflurane
C. Halothane
D. Sevoflurane
| Xenon |
f6e046fe-f188-4627-9efa-99e5849a7a9a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cross reactivity with endogenous antigen Acute Rheumatic fever results from immune response to group A streptococci.The main factor responsible for virulence in infection with streptococcal A group is "M" protein.The body mounts an immune response against streptococci A organism by producing antibodies directed against the "M" protein.Antibodies directed against the "M" protein of streptococci have been shown to cross react with self antigens in the heartThe streptococcal M protein and the human myocardium appears to be identical antigenically.Epitopes present in the cell wall membrane and the A, B, C repeat regions of the "M" protein are immunologically similar to molecules in human myosin, tropomyosin, keratin actin, laminin, vimentin."This molecular mimicry is the basis for autoimmune response that leads to Acute Rheumatic fever". | Pathology | Rheumatic Fever | What is the mechanism of acute rheumatic fever -
A. Cross reactivity with endogenous antigen
B. Innocent by slender effect
C. Due to toxin secretion by streptococci
D. Release of pyrogenic cytokines
| Cross reactivity with endogenous antigen |
2593506f-3fef-43ea-aa88-64e4e0972136 | Cushing Syndrome Presents with lemon on sticks with hypeension and anemia Albright syndrome At least 2 / 3 features: 1. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia 2. Cafe-au-lait skin pigmentation 3. Autonomous endocrine hyperfunction (eg, gonadotropin-independent) Peutz Jehgers syndrome Located primarily around the nose and mouth, on the hands and feet, and within the oral cavity. Associated with hamaomatous polyps. C/F -anemia, rectal bleeding, abdominal pain, obstruction, and/or intussusception Incontinentia pigmenti Major criteria (1) typical neonatal vasicular rash with eosinophilia (2) typical blaschkoid hyperpigmentation on the trunk fading in adolescence (3) linear, atrophic hairless lesions Minor criteria: (1) dental abnormalities (2) alopecia (3) wooly hair (4) abnormal nails | Medicine | Bleeding from the GUT and diseases of esophagus | A 25 year old man has pigmented macules over the palms, soles and oral mucosa. He also has anemia and abdominal pain. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Albright's syndrome
C. Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
D. Incontinentia pigmenti
| Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome |
43d02088-0eba-4efd-95f5-80e687ca650b | Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is high, upto 90%. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is -
A. 60
B. 50
C. 90
D. 40
| 90 |
354bd6c3-d5cb-4932-8678-9eefa9d0a2b7 | (A) Loss of taste sensation # HORNER'S SYNDROME results due to interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by the classic Triad of Miosis (constricted pupil), Partial ptosis, & Loss of hemifacial sweating (Anhidrosis).> Von Passow syndrome is an association of Horner syndrome with iris heterochromia (heterochromia iridis).# CAUSES OF HORNER SYNDROME> First-order neuron lesions: Arnold-Chiari malformation Basal meningitis (E.g., syphilis) Basal skull tumors Cerebral vascular accident (CVA)/Wallenberg syndrome (Lateral medullary syndrome) Demyelinating disease (E.g., multiple sclerosis) Lesions in the hypothalamus or medulla Intrapontine hemorrhage Neck trauma (E.g., Traumatic dislocation of cervical vertebrae or Traumatic dissection of the vertebral artery): Horner syndrome resulting in association with spinal cord trauma suggests a high cervical cord lesion because it does not occur with lesions below T2 or T3 Pituitary tumor Syringomyelia> Second-order neuron lesions: Pancoast tumor (tumor in the apex of the lung, most commonly squamous cell carcinoma) Birth trauma with injury to lower brachial plexus Cervical rib Aneurysm or dissection of the aorta Lesions of the subclavian or common carotid artery Central venous catheterization Trauma or surgical injury (E.g., due to radical neck dissection, thyroidectomy, carotid angiography, radiofrequency tonsil ablation, chiropractic manipulation, or coronary artery bypass grafting) Chest tubes Lymphadenopathy (E.g., Hodgkin's disease, leukemia, tuberculosis, or mediastinal tumors) Mandibular tooth abscess Lesions of the middle ear (E.g., acute otitis media) Neuroblastoma> Third-order neuron lesions: Internal carotid artery dissection (associated with sudden ipsilateral face or neck pain) Raeder or Paratrigeminal syndrome: characterized by Oculosympathetic paresis & ipsilateral facial pain with variable involvement of the trigeminal and oculomotor nerves Carotid cavernous fistula Cluster or migraine headache Herpes zoster | Surgery | Nervous System | NOT a feature of Horner's syndrome?
A. Loss of taste sensation
B. Ptosis
C. Anhydrosis
D. Miosis
| Loss of taste sensation |
441580c4-1d55-4a02-a694-0651d75ca36f | <p>MEASLES VACCINE:- Live attenuated vaccine Person to person transmission of measles vaccine strains has never been documented. Freeze dried product. In the year 2010, the worlds two most populous countries made promising advances in measles control: china held the largest ever SIA , vaccinating > 103 million children and India staed implementation of a 2 dose vaccination strategy. Age-before 9 months.The age can be lowered to 6 months if there is measles outbreak in community.For infants immunised between 6 and 9 months,second dose administered as soon as possible after the child reaches 9 months provided that at least 4 weeks have elapsed since the last dose. Route-subcutaneous/intramuscular. Immune response- both humoral and cellular. Efficiency-55% Contraindications- High fever,pregnancy, history of anaphylactic reaction to vaccine components, immunocompromised individuals, leukemia, lymphoma,severe HIV( early stage of HIV is not a contraindication), treatment with steroids, antimetabolites and serious malignancy. Adverse reactions:- TSS-toxic shock syndrome. Occurs when measles vaccine is contaminated or when the same l is used more than once on same day / next day. The vaccine should not be used after 4 hrs of reconstitution. Symptoms of TSS : severe watery diarrhoea, vomiting, high fever repoed within few hours after vaccination. TSS is totally preventable and reflects poor quality of immunisation. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.149}</p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Efficiency of measles vaccine -
A. 55%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 100%
| 55% |
7c830a33-effb-4273-8e3e-ab396e470bfb | The basic ingredient of the medicated sealer is zinc oxide, but usually they contain other contraindicated ingredients, including paraformaldehyde.
Sargenti advocated the use of a sealer containing 6.5% paraformaldehyde and lead that was marketed as N2 and later as RC2B. Lead is toxic to the humans and adds little benefit to the property of the cement. Paraformaldehyde is highly irritating and destructive to tissues. Other paraformaldehyde sealers include SPAD and Reibler’s paste.
Endomethasone (Septodent) contains a corticosteroid. Corticosteroids reduce postoperative pain, but the claim is still unproved. The role of medicated sealer in endodontics is controversial and is not clinically recommended. | Dental | null | Which of the following is not a medicated sealer:
A. Zinc oxide.
B. AH26.
C. RC2B.
D. Endomethasone.
| AH26. |
dab2dcae-117e-4067-aa85-dd39805fb555 | MRI is the investigation of choice for Acute Osteomyelitis MRI is the Investigation Of Choice For evaluating Bone Marrow pathologies Avascular Necrosis of the femur Pehes disease Ankylosing Spondylitis Stress fracture Figure: MRI showed advanced osteomyelitis of the distal femur with a central bone sequestrum and septic ahritis of the knee joint. | Radiology | Magnetic Resonance Imaging | Investigation of choice for acute osteomyelitis?
A. CT Scan
B. MRI
C. Bone Scan
D. PET
| MRI |
7aac1177-842b-4443-abf8-c6e88e809051 | Type ll respiratory failure occurs as a result of alveolar hypoventilation and results in the inability to eliminate carbon dioxide effectively.It can be caused by drug overdose,brainstem injury,hypothyroidism,myasthenia gravis,Guillain -Barre syndrome,electrolyte derangements,myopathy,etc.So there will be hypoxia and hypercapnia. Ref:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:2200. | Medicine | Respiratory system | In type -II respiratory failure, there is
A. Low p02 and low pCO2
B. Low p02 and high pCO2
C. Normal p02 and high pCO2
D. Low p02 and normal pCO2
| Low p02 and high pCO2 |
d5323a1f-be93-4db3-bec1-cc413b8b27f2 | Answer is C (Distal Tubular Function) Water Deprivation Test is used to assess Distal Tubular Function. Water Deprivation Test Water deprivation test is used to assess the tubule's ability to concentrate urine. When a normal person is deprived of water, ADH secretion occurs, which acts on the distal tubule and collecting ducts, making them freely permeable to water, allowing reabsorption of water from these segments, thereby producing concentrated urine. Inability to concentrate urine during the water deprivation test thereby suggests dysfinction of distal tubules and helps to identifi, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. | Medicine | null | Water Deprivation Test is used to assess
A. Glomerular Function
B. Proximal Tubular Function
C. Distal Tubular Function
D. Renal Plasma Flow
| Distal Tubular Function |
f051a4b8-c56a-4ccf-88f5-972a05a3c57e | The multidrug resistance (MDR) gene encodes a protein that actively pumps drugs out of tumor cells. This gene confers resistance on a variety of antitumor drugs, including the antibiotics and plant-derived compounds. Tumor resistance to a given chemotherapeutic agent can often be overcome by the administration of multiple drugs. Ref: Sabel M.S. (2010). Chapter 44. Oncology. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | Pharmacology | null | How does MDR gene act?
A. Block drug activation
B. Block intracellular DNA synthesis
C. Cause efflux of drug
D. DNA repair inhibition
| Cause efflux of drug |
7bddcbfa-f624-4ed3-8041-0c8cdda54e74 | Concentrated urine is formed due to the reabsorption of water in collecting ducts. | Physiology | null | Hypertonic urine is excreted due to absorption of water in
A. Collecting ducts
B. DCT
C. Ascending part of loop of Henley
D. Descending part of loop of Henley
| Collecting ducts |
f856b1be-93be-4cb7-aadc-8635305572c1 | TRANSDUCTION: the transfer of a poion of the DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage is known as transduction. bacteriophages are viruses that parasitize the bacteria and consist of a nucleic acid core and a protein coat. a phage paicle may have its core beside its own nucleic acid a segment of host DNA. When this paicle infects another bacterium DNA transfer is effected and the recipient cells acquire new characteristic coded by the donor DNA REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:63 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Propey of acquiring antibiotic resistance from the viral colony is by -
A. Transferance
B. Conjunction
C. Transduction
D. Mutation
| Transduction |
fa38ca50-98a0-403c-ae21-eaf1900ec3eb | Ans. B: Oesophageal varices Physical findings in esophageal varices: Pallor may suggest active internal bleeding. Low blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and postural drop of blood pressure may suggest blood loss. Parotid enlargement may be related to alcohol abuse and/or malnutrition. A hyperdynamic circulation with flow murmur over the pericardium may be present. Jaundice may be present because of impairment of liver function. Telangiectasis of the skin, lips, and digits may be present. Gynecomastia in males results from failure of the liver to metabolize estrogen, resulting in a sex hormone imbalance. Fetor hepaticus occurs in poosystemic encephalopathy of any cause (e.g., cirrhosis). Palmar erythema and leuconychia may be present in patients with cirrhosis. Ascites, abdominal distention due to accumulation of fluid, may be present.. Distended abdominal wall veins may be present, with the direction of venous flow away from the umbilicus. Splenomegaly occurs in poal hypeension. Testicular atrophy is common in males with cirrhosis, paicularly those with alcoholic liver disease or hemachromatosis. Venous hums, continuous noises audible in patients with poal hypeension, may be present as a result of rapid turbulent flow in collateral veins. During the rectal examination,a black, soft, tarry stool on the gloved examining finger suggests upper GI bleeding. | Medicine | null | An young man is brought to casualty with history of hematemesis. There is mild splenomegaly on examination. Cause of bleeding is: March 2009
A. Gastritis
B. Oesophageal varices
C. Tumour
D. Leukaemia
| Oesophageal varices |
36a88ca2-f645-46e3-b9f0-aa53b6698f66 | Facial nerve is the motor nerve of the face. its five terminal branches, temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular and cervical emerge from the parotid gland and diverge to supply the various facial muscles as follows. Temporal - frontalis, auricular muscles,orbicularis oculi. Zygomatic- orbicularis oculi. Buccal- muscles of the cheek and upper lip Marginal mandibular- muscles of lower lip. Cervical - platysma Ref BDC volume 3; sixth edition | Anatomy | Head and neck | Facial nerve supplies
A. Risorius
B. Anterior belly of digastric
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Zygomaticus
| Risorius |
7eff257b-e730-44a8-b1ee-c1e60526089d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sample registration system Sample registration systemo Sample registration system (SRS), initiated in mid 1960s provides reliable estimates of birth (fertility) and death (mortality) rates at state and national Levels.o It is a dual record system .consisting of continuous enumeration of birth and death by an enumerator and an independent survey every 6 months by an investigator supervisor,o Main objective of SRS is to provide reliable estimates of birth rate, death rate and infant mortality' rate at the natural division level for rural areas and at state level for urban areas,o Infant mortality rate is the decisive indicator for estimation of sample size at natural division.o Sample design for SRS is unistage stratified simple random sample. SRS now covers entire country.o Finding of recent SRS (2013), According to 23rd/e of ParkCrude Birth Rate (CBR) : 21 -6 per 1000 mid-year population.Crude Death Rate (CDR) : 7-0 per 1000 mid-year population.Natural Growth Rate : 14'5 per 1000 mid-year population.Infant Mortality' Rate (IMR): 42 per 1000 live births. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Statistical Tests | Registration of birth & death with a 6 monthly survey is done in -
A. National sample survey
B. Vital statistical system
C. Census
D. Sample registration system
| Sample registration system |
12e6ac1d-2999-4766-8567-59b774c41a38 | B i.e. Outer 1/3rd of radius Treatment Plan of Fracture Head of Radius Undisplaced split Single large displaced Small, displaced non - Comminuted fracture 1 aicular (inner 2/3) aicular (outer 1/3.1) - Fracture dislocation * Immobilization in above elbow fragment fragment POP with cuff & collar sling. 1 1 Excision of radial head & * Aspiration if swelling is marked. OR & herbe screw fixation . Excision of fragmentQ prosthetic replacement | Surgery | null | OR is not required in which fracture:?
A. Patella
B. Outer 1/3 of radius
C. Condyle of humerus
D. Olecranon displaced
| Outer 1/3 of radius |
8ed12330-702e-4039-98ec-243e3d9d86bd | Right cerebral coex is the command centre for right gaze origination. These signals runs through right paramedian reticular formation (PPRF) From PPRF signals reach VI cranial nerve nucleus of same side (Right here) which in turn supplies the lateral rectus causing abduction. Signals from Right PPRF also goes to III cranial nerve nucleus (LEFT) MLF (LEFT) leading to left eye adduction. Thus lesion in the LEFT MLF will result in failure of the adduction of the left eye, There is no effect on the movement of right eye. This is called Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia. | Medicine | Miscellaneous QBank | A patient comes in eye OPD presents with diplopia,headache and blurring of vision. On examination while attempting right gaze, right eye abducts but left eye fails to adduct. Patient's right gaze is normal,convergence is also normal. The lesion is most probably in the following:-
A. Left MLF
B. Left PPRF
C. Right MLF
D. Right PPRF
| Left MLF |
0c68b852-99a0-47a4-b87b-a7738af40753 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Racemose glands The glands which dip into the stroma are of complex racemose type and are lined by secretory columnar epithelium.There is no stroma in the cervix unlike the corpus and the lining epithelium rests on a thin basement membrane.The change in the epithelium and the glands during menstrual cycle and pregnancy are not so much as those in the endometrium. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Cervical stroma consists of?
A. Racemose glands
B. Tubular glands
C. Alveolar glands
D. Coiled tubular glands
| Racemose glands |
8d195247-afdc-4910-abf6-7b6a304fb069 | C i.e. H+ Major difference between x-rays & light are wave length (A) & energyQ Electromagnetic radiation or photon waves are non paiculate (0-mass), non charged (0-charge) waves, that do not require a medium to travel (i.e. can travel in vaccum) and transfer energy from one location to another at the speed of light (c= 3x108 m/s). The major difference between various forms of photons/electromagnetic radiation lies in their wave length (X) and frequency (n), which accounts for their differences in energy carried. E n/A. So Xrays with shoer wave length in comparison to visible light carries 5000 times higher energies. Because for EM waves energy is propoional to frequency (n) and inversly propoional to wave length N. - EM radiation spectrum consists of photons with wave length, frequency and energy ranges over 10 orders of magnitude (the range is really infinite). From low energy to high energy these are Radar waves, Microwaves, Infra-red, Light (visible photons), Ultraviolet, X rays and Gamma rays. (Mn- "Reliance MILL Xtra Grand"). - When a photon beam falls, it can exit (transmitted electrons) or interact with matter (attenuation). With increasing amount of photon energy 5 possible interactions are possible, which are coherent scattering (very low energy electrons;1.022 to > 10 MeV), and photodisintegration (very high energy; > 8-10 MeV) - Maximum compton scattering occurs with hydrogenQ b/o highest electron density. In photoelectric effect, the most tightly bound-inner most electron completely absorbs all energy of falling low energy photonQ, so much so that the photon is completely absorbed and no longer exists and inner orbital electron (now called photoelectron) is ejected. The interaction can occur with other orbital electrons but the most probable interaction is with inner most shell electron. The vacency created in inner shell is filled by an electron from outer orbit with simultraneous emission of X-ray or Auger electron. In Compton Scattering incident higher energy photon transfers only a pa of its energy to a loosely bound outer shell electronQ. and is deflected or scattered off in a new direction with lower energy. The outer shell electron (now called compton/recoil electron) is ejected with no production of X-ray or Auger electron. Charged heavy paicles (such as protons and a-paicles) have a finite range and experience a rapid increase in energy loss near the end of their track (range/path), dumping most of their remaining energies quickly and producing an ionization curve with a peak near end (K/ a Bragg peak). - When a light mass-charged paicle (such as electron or 8-paicle) with high energy passes close to the nucleus's positive electrical field, it is deflected & decelerated by electro static attractions and loses energy in form of X-ray photons called bremsstrahlung or braking radiation. So Bragg peak is produced by charged heavy paicles mainly, whereas Bremsstrahlung radiation is produced by charged light paiclesQ. - Collisional energy losses (& heat production) dominate at lower energyies, whereas radiative losses dominate at higher energies (Vt more efficient X-ray production)Q. Because of dependency on atomic number (Z2) and 1/velocity2; collisional energy losses increases as atomic number increases and paicle velocity decreases. So electrons are stopped sooner in low Z than high Z materialsQ. | Radiology | null | Maximum scattering in X Ray plate occurs in
A. Carbon
B. Mercury
C. H+
D. Ca++
| H+ |
5f717cdf-2e05-42cd-bc98-b2d508ead1d4 | Option a : Oxidation of galactose with strong oxidizing agent produces mucic Acid In the presence of strong oxidizing agent, both first and last carbon of sugar is oxidized to produce Saccharic Acid. If Aldehyde group (C1) is oxidized, then Aldonic Acid is produced. If last carbon (C6) is oxidized, then Uronic Acid is produced Glucose to Glucosaccharic acid Glucose to Gluconic Acid Glucose to Glucuronic Acid Mannose to Mannaric acid Mannose to Mannonic Acid Mannose to Mannuronic Acid Galactose to Mucic Acid (forms insoluble crystals) Galactose to Galactonic Acid Galactose to Galacturonic Acid In mild oxidation, either C1 is oxidized or C6 is oxidized. | Biochemistry | Classification of carbohydrate | The oxidation of Galactose with strong oxidizing agent produces:
A. Mucic Acid
B. Gluconic Acid
C. Galacturonic acid
D. Saccharic Acid
| Mucic Acid |
4d44d12d-1d4e-421f-a5a2-9c5458dbffeb | Ans. B: Suprapubic cystostomy Patient should be discouraged from passing urine if urethral rupture is suspected. Drainage of full bladders with paial tears can be managed with a suprapubic catheter. Suprapubic cystostomy has the benefit of avoiding urethral manipulation, which can produce fuher urethral trauma and allows for a simultaneous study to be carried out later. If the bladder is not easily palpable suprapubically, inse the catheter using transabdominal sonography If the patient has passed urine when first seen and there is no extravasation, the rupture, if any, is paial and a catheter is not needed. | Surgery | null | Following urethral rupture, immediate procedure to be done is: September 2008, March 2009
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Suprapubic cystostomy
C. Referral to a urologist
D. Observation
| Suprapubic cystostomy |
8cbd332f-99e8-4ec7-88c8-6b052a875168 | Charas or Hashish is resinous exudates from the leaves and stems of plant cannabis indica or cannabis sativa. | Forensic Medicine | null | Charas is -
A. Leaves of Cannabis Indica
B. Flowers of Cannabis Indica
C. Stem of Cannabis Indica
D. Resin exudate Cannabis Indica
| Resin exudate Cannabis Indica |
0f9f1879-a49b-4c7a-816e-6dd8d379a5fb | Ans BIn neonates the femoral head is cartilaginous and not ossified hence it cannot be identified on radiographs but well demonstrated on USG. Also the Graf's classification using Alpha and Beta angles are very definitive in assessment and can be readily calculated on USG. | Radiology | Skeletal System | Investigation of choice to diagnose congenital hip dislocation in neonates?
A. Plain radiographs
B. US
C. CT
D. MRI
| US |
dd374811-c60e-4944-aefe-ba2f8520d831 | Duration of action of flumazenil is 30-60min. So the best answer seems to be 30min The onset of action is about 1 to 2 minutes; 80% response is seen within the first 3 minutes. Peak effect is 6 to 10 minutes after administration.Duration range is from 19 minutes to 50 minutes as it depends on the dose was given and benzodiazepine plasma concentrations Ref: Goodman and Gilman 13th ed. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Duration of action of flumazenil is
A. 5minute
B. 10minute
C. 20minute
D. 30minute
| 30minute |
eb207037-cb38-40f9-b299-d38c81fb60a4 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiopental o This question is straight forward as amongst the given options only thiopental is used as inducing agent. o Iv. inducing agents are used for induction because of rapid and smooth induction and drugs used for this purpose are: i) Thiopentone iii) Propofol ii) Methohexitone sod iv) Etomidate o Till now we were discussing about inducing propey of iv inducing agents. Some of the inhalation anaesthetic agents also have smooth induction. Induction by inhalation agents Unpleasant Intermediate Smooth o Ether o Halothane o Isoflurane o Enflurane o Desflurane o Sevoflurane o Nitrous oxide o But, you should keep in mind that smoothest induction is produced by iv inducing agents and therefore they are used as inducing agent. | Pharmacology | null | Anaesthetic that has a smooth induction is-
A. Diethyl ether
B. Thiopental
C. N2O
D. Halothane
| Thiopental |
d604c033-7538-4752-83d4-8933bed232d8 | Nasopharyngeal catheter deliver 32% of O2 (FiO2 → 0.32) at flow-rate 3 litre / minute. | Anaesthesia | null | At a flow rate of 3L/min, inspiratory (FUO2) concentration of 30–60% can be achieved by using a –
A. Nasopharyngeal catheter
B. Simple face mask
C. Venturi mask
D. Head box
| Nasopharyngeal catheter |
63e3def8-acc9-4f49-869e-0b0157439252 | Inversion Rearrangement that involves two breaks within a single chromosome with reincorporation of the inveed, intervening segment. Not associated with change in genetic material. | Pathology | Genetics | No change of genetic material occurs in which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities?
A. Deletion
B. Inseion
C. Translocation
D. Inversion
| Inversion |
67279656-1cd2-4169-82c7-b4a2bff9c949 | Antenatal screening test done in the maternal serum is cell-free fetal DNA testing, which is a non-invasive prenatal screening. This test is done using the freely circulating fetal cells in the maternal serum. It is useful for karyotyping and for detecting single gene disorders. Invasive procedures for prenatal diagnosis Chorionic villous sampling (CVS) Amniocentesis Cordocentesis or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 969 | Pediatrics | New born infants | Antenatal screening test done in the maternal serum is _______
A. Percutaneous unbilical blood sampling
B. Cell-free fetal DNA testing
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Amniocentesis
| Cell-free fetal DNA testing |
e42a2469-a4fd-4008-b729-7f821862216f | Negative eugenics has little application in civilized world. People suffering from serious hereditary diseases may be sterilized or otherwise debarred from producing children. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 767. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | "Hitler intended to improve German race by killing the weak and defective"- this is an example of:
A. Positive eugenics
B. Negative eugenics
C. Euthenics
D. Gene therapy
| Negative eugenics |
3570e8de-1e88-4ed4-987d-7e866001d276 | Ans: A (Hot air oven) Ref: A nanthana ray an, Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg. 30-38.Explanation: (See table below) Disinfectant/ SterilisationActive againstUseEthyl alcoholBactericidal but not sporicidalSkin antisepticsMethyl alcoholActive against bacterial and fungal sporesCabinets & incubatorsIsopropyl alcoholBactericidal but not sporicidalDisinfection of suture material, clinical thermometersFormaldehydeBactericidal, sporicidal & virucidalOT fumigationGlutaraldehydeBactericidal, sporicidal & virucidal (less toxic/irritant)Bronchoscopes, endoscopes, cystoscopesHypochloriteBactericidal, sporicidal & virucidalBlood spillChlorhexidineBactericidal, mo cerate sporcidal & virucidalTreatment of woundsEthylene oxideBactericidal, sporicidal & virucidal(highly penetrating gas)Heart lung machines, respirators, dental equipmentAutoclaveAll organismsDressings, instruments, media, linenHot air ovenAll organismsGlassware, Glass syringes, Grease, oi. liquid paraffin, dusting powder | Microbiology | General | Oil and Grease are sterilized by:
A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Filtration
D. Irradiation
| Hot air oven |
d18cff9a-63db-4713-b846-4a12169966b6 | One DALY is equal to one year of healthy life lost.
It is a disability indicator and Japanese life expectancy is used as a standard. Disability - adjusted life year (DALY1 o DALY is a measure of :-
i. The burden of disease in a defined populaon ii. The ef ectiveness of inten'entions It expresses years lost to premature death and years lived
w r ith disability'- adjusted for the severity of the disability, That means, DALY measures both mortality and disability together (in contrast to Sullivan's index which is related to disability only).
One DALY is one lost year of healthy life. Health - adjusted life expectancy (HALE) HALE is the indicator used to measure healthy life expectancy.
HALE is based on the life expectancy at birth but includes an adjustment for me spent in poor health,
It is the equivalent number of years in full health that a newborn can expect to live based on current rates of ill health and mortali | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 50 people are suffering from cholera in a population of 5000. Out of 50, suffering from cholera, 10 died. But the total deaths are 50. What is the death rate
A. 10 per 1000
B. 10 per 1000
C. 5 per 1000
D. 20 per 100
| 10 per 1000 |
ce304b93-24ce-4377-bd5d-95a7f1a7d30c | A morula is distinct from a blastocyst in that a morula (3-4 days post feilization) is a 16-cell mass in a spherical shape whereas a blastocyst (4-5 days post feilization) has a cavity inside the zona pellucida along with an inner cell mass | Anatomy | General anatomy | Stage of 16 cells is
A. Embryo
B. Morula
C. Zygote
D. Blastocyst
| Morula |
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