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c900005a-3693-4386-96bc-946a8b394846 | Leukoplakia is the most common (~ 85%) of the premalignant lesions of the oral cavity. | Surgery | null | The commonest pre-malignant condition of oral cancer is
A. Leukoplakia
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Lichen planus
D. Erythro-leukoplakia
| Leukoplakia |
58915bc9-4f7a-4258-89dc-ee13244853b4 | Ans. is'b'i.e., Ciliated columnarLining epithelium of paranasal sinuses is ciliated columnar with goblet cells. | Anatomy | null | Maxillary sinus epithelium is made of ?
A. Pseudostratified columnar
B. Ciliated columnar
C. Simple columnar
D. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
| Ciliated columnar |
168237c7-2799-4dde-95fe-b47edd638e13 | Refractory ascites can be managed by: Trans-jugular intra-hepatic peritoneal shunt (TIPS) Serial large volume paracentesis (LVP) with albumin. TIPS is superior to LVP in reducing the re-accumulation of ascites but is associated with an increased frequency of hepatic encephalopathy Extra Edge: Diagnostic criteria for refractory ascites Lack of response to maximal doses of diuretic for at least 1 week Diuretic-induced complications in the absence of other precipitating factor Early recurrence of ascites within 4 weeks of fluid mobilization. Persistent ascites despite sodium restriction Mean weight loss <0.8 kg over 4 days Urinary sodium excretion less than sodium intake | Medicine | Cirrhosis | Best treatment of refractory ascites is?
A. AV shunt
B. TIPS
C. Frusemide with Low volume paracentesis
D. Distal splenorenal shunt
| TIPS |
27b8aa3f-0220-424c-bf82-a3ecff8f99ac | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 271 - 272)Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO)FeaturesNon-Ischemic CRVO Ischemic CRVO Epidemiology Most common (75%)Moderate visual acuity lossLess common (25%)Severe visual acuity lossPathogenesis Slight RAPD with mild touosity & dilatation of retinal veins Marked RAPD with severe touosity & engorgement of retinal veins Fundus finding Hemorrhages Dot blot & Flame shaped in all 4 quadrants & most numerous in periphery Extensive retinal hemorrhages (Blood & Thunder fundus)Cotton wool spots Few Numerous Disc & Macular edema Mild Severe with hyperemia Fundus Fluorescein Angiography Venous stasis Masking of retinal vascular bed by retinal hemorrhages & extensive area of capillary nonperfusion Prognosis Good Poor Management Treat predisposing factor Pan retinal photocoagulation | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | Tomato ketchup retina is seen in
A. Central retinal aery occlusion
B. Central retinal vein occlusion
C. Coats disease
D. Sickle cell retinopathy
| Central retinal vein occlusion |
fc04e509-e28d-4d90-ac14-f321570eec81 | The ideal tidal volume in a patient ventilated for ARDS is 6mL/kg predicted body weight.Moality was significantly lower in this low TV patients(31%) compared to the conventional TV (12 mL/kg predicted body weight) ventilation(40%). Despite its life-saving potential mechanical ventilation can aggravate lung injury in severe ARDS patients. Ventilator-induced lung injury arises from two principal mechanisms: Volutrauma from repeated alveolar overdistension from excess tidal volume; Atelectrauma from recurrent alveolar collapse. Reference: Harrison's Medicine,20thedition, page no:203 | Medicine | Respiratory system | The ideal tidal volume in a patient ventilated for ARDS is-
A. 6 mL/kg
B. 10 mL/Kg
C. l4 mL/kg
D. 2O mL/kg
| 6 mL/kg |
b9314e23-7477-4866-ab9b-b7ce9c4c7105 | Caisson's disease has many synonyms : as:- Bends - Decompression sickness - Diver's paralysis - Dysbarism.It occurs in divers, compressed air is taken in order to match the pressures at deep sea.The air contains Nitrogen in almost 70 % of the mixture.At high pressures in the sea, the pressure over the body is balanced by the compressed air delivered to the lungs and the N2 stays dissolved in the tissues, more in fat than in other compaments.But if the diver ascends very quickly then the N2 is conveed into its gaseous form as the pressure outside the body drops down to 1 atm. (760 mm Hg), at first, they are smaller bubbles which later coalesce and progressively larger vessels are affected.Tissue ischemia and sometimes tissue death is the result.Coronaries getting blocked, cause myocardial damage.Most people with bends have joint pains and muscles of the arms and legs affecting 85-90%.Ref: Ganong 22nd Ed/ Pg 695, Guyton 11th Ed/Pg 549,548 | Physiology | Respiratory system | In caissons, disease pain in joint is because of
A. Nitrogen bubble
B. Oxygen bubble
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Air in joint
| Nitrogen bubble |
71e94eca-a582-4c5e-bc02-6bada86ed360 | .Outcome of Sho Bowel Syndrome * Severe malabsorption. * Severe dehydration. * Gallstone formation due to altered bile metabolism. * Urinary calculi due to increased oxalate level. * Water and electrolyte imbalance. * Diarrhoea is common. * Recurrent bacterial enteritis. * Fulminant hepatic failure often can occur. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 814 | Surgery | G.I.T | Which one of the following gastrointesinal disorders predisposes to urolithiasis
A. Peutz - jegher's syndrome
B. Sho bowel syndrome
C. Familial polyposis coli
D. Ulcerative colitis
| Sho bowel syndrome |
73a7bb31-7c84-4303-b824-e7504ca2096c | The changes are conspicous in the glomerulus which becomes enlarged.(Glomerular Endotheliosis) Endothelial cells swell up and fibrin like deposits occur in the basement membrane. Lumen may be occluded. Interstitial cells between the capillaries proliferate. There is associated spasm of the afferent glomerular aerioles. Patchy areas of damage of the tubular epithelium due to anoxia are evident. Net effects are reduced Renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate(25%) and impare tubular reabsorption or secretory function. Reference: Textbook of Duttas,9th edition, page 209. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | Effect of PIH on GFR is:
A. GFR Increase
B. Decreases GFR
C. GFR remains the same
D. GFR can increase or decrease
| Decreases GFR |
9099574d-ab2d-44c8-9d52-8a598dfe0a72 | Biliary strictures are most commonly present post operatively(80%),especially following laparoscopic cholecystectomy.It can also occur following open cholecystectomy,biliary surgery,gastrectomy,liver surgery,duodenal and pancreatic surgery. Choledocholithiasis(CBD stones) can lead to recurrent attacks of cholangitis and thereby biliary structures.But cholelithiasis cannot usually lead to CBD strictures. Biliary strictures can also occur following malignancy(cholangiocarcinoma) & worm infestations like Ascaris lumbricoides,Clonorchis sinensis. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:657. | Surgery | G.I.T | Bile strictures are seen in
A. Cholelithiasis
B. Malignancy
C. Post operative
D. Worm infestation
| Cholelithiasis |
55f7f4b2-6aeb-411a-b502-5d51f0a806b4 | Signs of Spina bifida on USG : Small biparietal diameter Ventriculomegaly Frontal bone scalloping or the so called Lemon sign. Elongation and downward displacement of the cerebellum, the so called Banana sign Effacement or obliteration of the cisterna Magna. Ref:Williams Obs 23e pg 354,355. | Anatomy | General obstetrics | Banana and lemon sign is seen in which fetal anomalies :
A. Neural tube defect
B. Hydrops fetalis
C. Twins
D. IUD
| Neural tube defect |
b5777dec-8645-4344-8025-655aa99a7738 | Ans. C: Niacin Pellagra is caused by a chronic lack of niacin (vitamin B3) in the diet. It can be caused by decreased intake of niacin or tryptophan, and possibly by excessive intake of leucine. It may also result from alterations in protein metabolism in disorders such as carcinoid syndrome. A deficiency of the amino acid lysine can lead to a deficiency of niacin as well, meaning that another potential cause of pellagra is lysine deficiency | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Pellagra is due to deficiency of: September 2006, 2009
A. Riboflavin
B. thiamine
C. Niacin
D. Pyridoxine
| Niacin |
14fba7c9-2028-452d-8a8d-7606f52ca55f | Because community-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) causes more than one half of all staphylococcal infections in most communities, empiric therapy with penicillins or cephalosporins may be inadequate. Some expes recommend combination therapy with a penicillinase-resistant penicillin or cephalosporin (in case the organism is methicillin-sensitive S aureus)and clindamycin or a quinolone. Others suggest use of clindamycin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), rifampin, doxycycline, or a quinolone. Finally, because of concerns about induction of resistance, some recommend using TMP-SMX and rifampin in combination, rather than singly. As data accumulate, clindamycin may become the preferred outpatient antibiotic therapy (compared with TMP-SMX) in regions with a relatively low incidence of clindamycin resistance.Recently, treatment guidelines have been published. USES: Staphylococcal Infections Mild to moderate infections: 250-500 mg IV/IM q4-6hr Severe infections: 1 g IV/IM q4-6hr Acute/chronic osteomyelitis/staphylococci infections: 1.5-2 g IV q4-6hr Renal Infection CrCl < 10 mL/min: May consider adjusting to the lower range of the usually recommended dose depending on severity of infection REFERENCE: www.medscape.com | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Which of the following drug is not used against pseudomonas? (UP 2005)
A. Piperacillin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Oxacillin
| Oxacillin |
fa49c840-9bd9-410c-b3b9-b4d9d43c7df1 | In paranasal sinus tumors Lymphatic spread: Nodal metastases are uncommon and occur only in the late stages of disease. Submandibular and upper jugular nodes are enlarged. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses drain primarily into retropharyngeal nodes, but these nodes are inaccessible to palpation. Systemic metastases are rare. May be seen in the lungs (most commonly) and occasionally in bone. Intracranial spread can occur through ethmoids, cribriform plate or foramen lacerum. | ENT | null | First lymph node involved in maxillary carcinoma:
A. Submental
B. Submandibular
C. Clavicular
D. Lower jugular
| Submandibular |
8c100164-3f0c-49db-9c16-0e05472927b2 | Deficiency of vitamin C causes reduced cross-linking of tropocollagen to collagen. | Pathology | null | Which among the following is essential for wound healing:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Carbohydrate
| Vitamin C |
8dd698f2-8dac-4200-9e73-a12a92548f2c | "Inferior (downward/subglenoid) dislocation of shoulder is known as luxatio erecta". Inferior dislocation of shoulder It is caused by severe hyper abduction force. With the humerus as the lever and acromion as fulcrum, the humeral head is lifted across the inferior rim of the glenoid socket and pokes into axilla (subglenoid position). It is rare and also called luxatio erecta because the humeral head is subluxated (dislocated anteriorly and humerus shaft points upwards (erected). The staing picture of a patient with his/her arm locked in almost full abduction/ elevation, should make the diagnosis quite easy. The patient comes with his/her arm fixed almost by the side of the head. Potentially serious consequences e.g. neurovascular damage is quite common. It is reduced by pulling upward in the line of abducted arm with counteraction downwards. Ref: Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adult 6/e, Page 1287. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is referred to as Luxatio erecta?
A. Tear of the glenoid labrum
B. Inferior dislocation of shoulder
C. Anterior dislocation of shoulder
D. Defect in the humeral head
| Inferior dislocation of shoulder |
80201c43-b846-4721-8049-84bc58324c65 | Fluoride was established as the causative factor for mottling of enamel through the historical studies conducted by Trendley H. Dean, known as the "Shoe Leather Survey". | Dental | null | The “Shoe Leather Survey” was given by
A. Trendley H. Dean
B. Frederick McKay
C. Greene Black
D. J. M. Eager
| Trendley H. Dean |
fc03fa84-c117-4c3e-b51f-dcc72153083b | Primary dentition Ref: Ghai 9th edition, table 2.2 Upper jaw lower jaw Central incisor 8-12 mnths 6-10 mnths Lateral incisor 9-13 mnths 10-16 mnths First molar 13-19 mnths 14-18 mnths Canine 16-22 mnths 17-23 mnths Second molar 25-33 mnths 23-31 mnths | Anatomy | General anatomy | Primary dentition shows teeth eruption by
A. 6 wks
B. 12 wks
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
| 6 months |
fa5e291a-827f-481d-ac81-d3f5ddeb49a5 | Ans. (a) Amphibole(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 689)Serpentine Q (M.C) and Amphibole Q (more pathogenic) as particles are asbestor particle associated with asbestosis. | Pathology | Respiration | Causative particle in asbestosis is?
A. Amphibole
B. Crysolite
C. Tridymite
D. Gristobalite
| Amphibole |
27d09878-6c3b-41d5-a004-3a3ebe565328 | All antipsychotics are antagonists at D2 receptors except Aripiprazole which is a partial agonist. | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following antipsychotic is a partial agonist at D2 receptors?
A. Olanzapine
B. Ziprasidone
C. Aripiprazole
D. Quetiapine
| Aripiprazole |
060d145d-1650-42f9-a648-1a5868ca81e2 | Various pressures in thoracic cage. 1. Intra pleural pressure - - Intra pleural pressure is the pressure of the fluid in the thin space b/w the lung pleura & the chest wall pleura - It's a slight negative pressure. - Normal pleural pressure at the beginning of inspiration is about - -5 cm H2O (at rest) - At rest - - 5cm H2O - At normal inspiration - - 7.5 cm H2O 2. Intra alveolar pressure - Pressure in alveolus - This is equal to atmospheric pressure. - It is considered to be zero at rest. Transpulmonary pressure - difference b/w alveolar & pleural pressure. Transthoracic pressure - Transthoracic compliance - Alveolar pressure - Atmospheric pressure | Physiology | JIPMER 2018 | Transthoracic compliance formula:-
A. C = Vt x RR /PEEP
B. C = V/AIv p - atmospheric pressure
C. C = Vt/Pplt - PEEP
D. C = Vt/Pk - Pplt
| C = V/AIv p - atmospheric pressure |
d5ce3c4d-3e5e-4e48-87cf-9d035139e7a2 | -Hydroxychloroquineis used for the treatment of rheumatoid ahritis. - Taking hydroxychloroquine for a long-term or at high doses may cause irreversible damage to the retina of your eye. (Bull's Eye Retinopathy) Blurred vision, trouble focusing Distoed vision, blind spots Changes in your colour vision Hazy or cloudy vision Light flashes or streaks, halos around lights Increased sensitivity to light | Medicine | NEET Jan 2020 | A 45 year old male, known case of Rheumatoid ahritis is on a monotherapy since many years. Symptoms of RA are controlled but suddenly patient develops blurring of vision. Which of the following drug is responsible for sudden affect on vision?
A. Leflunomide
B. Methotrexate
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Hydroxychloroquine
| Hydroxychloroquine |
c41ff909-9da7-4ea4-9345-b60ff7b38785 | During an absence seizure, your brain&;s electrical signals repeat themselves. A person who has absence seizures may also have altered levels of neurotransmitters. Hyperventilation or flashing lights may trigger an absence seizure in others. Doctors may never find a specific cause for some patients. Abscence seizure : * Typical absence seizures have a bimodal distribution for age of onset; * First peak at 5-8 years (childhood) * Second peak near 12 years of age (juvenile) Childhood Absence Epilepsy (CAE) * CAE is a childhood epilepsy syndrome occurring in 10-17% of all childhood onset epilepsy. * The most common pediatric epilepsy syndrome. * Females > males * Usually sta at 5-8 yr of age. * No aura. * Usually last for only a few seconds. * Accompanied by eye lid flutter or upward rolling of eyes. * Absence seizures can have simple automatisms like lip-smacking or picking at clothing. * Head can minimally fall forward. * No postictal period. * Hyperventilation for 3-5 min can precipitate the seizures and the accompanying 3 Hz spike--and--slow-wave discharges. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Central Nervous system | Generated 3-4 Hz spike and slow wave complex is seen in
A. GTCS
B. Abscence seizure
C. Simple paial seizure
D. Myoclonic epilepsy
| Abscence seizure |
2f0fed57-8872-4074-96bd-2be34d4ea466 | The best-characterized human tumor-associated antigens are the oncofetal antigens. CEA is a glycoprotein and member of the immunoglobulin gene superfamily and is elevated in colorectal cancer. a-Fetoprotein (AFP) is analogous to albumin and elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is elevated in prostatic cancer. CEA, AFP, and PSA are all glycoproteins. Melena refers to altered (black) blood per rectum, indicative of an upper gastrointestinal bleed. A patient's tumor markers are best used clinically in the monitoring of the efficiency of the antitumor therapy and remission periods posttreatment. | Microbiology | Immunology | A 45-year-old businesswoman arrives in your office with vague abdominal complaints. She has noticed melenic stool. Upon performing a sigmoidoscopy, you find a 4-cm mass in the upper colon. You should immediately order a blood test for which of the following tumor markers?
A. a-Fetoprotein
B. Anti-tumor antibody
C. Antitumor light chains
D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
| Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) |
702e71fb-730a-4f76-ac94-e53941e032b3 | Upper temporal region is most common site for retinal break The mechanism most commonly involves a break in the retina that then allows the fluid in the eye to get behind the retina. A break in the retina can occur from a posterior vitreous detachment, injury to the eye, or inflammation of the eye. Other risk factors include being sho sighted and previous cataract surgery Reference: Aravind FAQS in Ophthalmology; First Edition; Page no: 371 | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | Most common site for retinal break is
A. Upper temporal
B. Lower temporal
C. Upper nasal
D. Lower nasal
| Upper temporal |
f2ed19b2-e154-495f-bcc7-730015eb1ef9 | Appropriately and promptly treated, uncomplicated falciparum malaria (i.e., the patient can swallow medicines and food) carries a moality rate of 0.1%. However, once vital-organ dysfunction occurs or the total propoion of erythrocytes infected increases to >2% (a level corresponding to >1012 parasites in an adult), moality risk rises steeply. Cerebral Malaria : Coma is a characteristic and ominous feature of falciparum malaria and, despite treatment, is associated with death rates of 20% among adults and 15% among children. Any obtundation, delirium, or abnormal behavior should be taken very seriously. The onset may be gradual or sudden following a convulsion. Ref: White N.J., Breman J.G., Osler W. (2012). Chapter 210. Malaria. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Microbiology | null | Cerebral malaria is most commonly associated with which of the following?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium ovale
| Plasmodium falciparum |
69242d81-7b89-40a5-97c2-000d69be583d | Behavioral therapy is learning given by BF Skinner , according to him all behaviors are learned phenomenon and thus can be unlearned Positive reinforcement a type of reinforcement when a behavior is rewarded there is more chance that the behavior is repeated Negative reinforcement is that when a behavior is done and an aversive response is removed, the behavior is repeated. When I go and meet my girlfriend, she checks my messages and picks up fight (aversive response) suddenly I delete all messages one day and that day there was no fight (no aversive response) then that behavior is repeated (delete all messages before meeting my girlfriend) Extinction is the type of reinforcement where a behavior is done and a rewarding response is removed the chance is that behavior will not be repeated A child likes to play with children( reward) but when the child fights with other children( undesirable behavior) the child will be removed from playing( removing a reward) , then the child stops fighting with other children( reduction of undesirable behaviour) Ref. kaplon and sadock synopsis, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | Anatomy | General anatomy | any behaviour is assosiated with reward will be increased in frequency. this is based on
A. mindfulness therapy
B. behavior therapy
C. psychodynamic therapy
D. cognitive therapy
| behavior therapy |
5df6a7ee-7169-4d63-be51-9f4aff160b14 | Amniocentesis is often performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is an alternative to amniocentesis and is usually performed either transervically or trans abdominally between 10 and 12 weeks of gestation . | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | At how many weeks of gestation is amniocentesis mostly performed ?
A. 10-12 weeks
B. 12-20 weeks
C. 20-25 weeks
D. 25-30 weeks
| 12-20 weeks |
ddc17c40-96d3-4844-9469-1cbd68c4fbf0 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chemotherapy Treatment of mycosis fungoides (Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)Patch stage (good response) (stage-1)Potent topical corticosteroidsUltraviolet BPsoralens + UVA (PUVA)Plaque stage (moderate response) (stage-2)Electron beam therapyPUVATopical nitrogen mustardTumor stage (Poor response) (stage-3)Low dose radiation for individual lesionsChemotherapy | Skin | Skin Cancer | Treatment of choice for mycosis fungoides in tumor stage is?
A. PUVA therapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Electron beam therapy
D. Topical corticosteroids
| Chemotherapy |
a33cd4b1-9f19-40d9-a0fb-1903e05d8918 | Duke's staging is used for colorectal cancer.
In Dukes 'C' stage, there is involvement of regional lymphnodes.
Duke's staging has been explained earlier. | Pathology | null | Duke's stage C2 refers to carcinoma -
A. Bladder penetrating the extravesical fat
B. Bladder with metastasis to internal iliac lymph nodes
C. With histological features of 75% anaplastic cells
D. Rectum with metastasis to inferior mesentric lymph nodes
| Rectum with metastasis to inferior mesentric lymph nodes |
df076e7b-49af-4080-a97e-177e95976413 | Helicobacter pylori is associated with: Acute gastritis Peptic ulcer disease Chronic atrophic gastritis Autoimmune gastritis Promotes pernicious anemia Adenocarcinoma of stomach Non-Hodgkin's gastric lymphoma. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria) | Helicobacter pylori is not associated with:-
A. Gastrointestinal lymphoma
B. Gastric cancer
C. Gastric leiomyoma
D. Peptic ulcer
| Gastric leiomyoma |
b8eb2b8b-7ec7-41d6-937a-85f061439df1 | A topical vitamin D analogue (calcipotriene) and a retinoid (tazarotene) are also efficacious in the treatment of limited psoriasis and have largely replaced other topical agents such as coal tar, salicylic acid, and anthralin. Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 348 | Dental | Papulosquamous disorders | Calcipotriene is a
A. Vitamin A analogue
B. Vitamin B analogue
C. Vitamin C analogue
D. Vitamin D analogue
| Vitamin D analogue |
b97ad132-b856-45b3-91cd-048c753ee6f2 | Chaperones also called as heat shock proteins are auxillary proteins that assist in protein folding. | Biochemistry | null | Which among the following help in folding of Proteins
A. Proteosomes
B. Chaperones
C. Glycoproteins
D. Proteases
| Chaperones |
90415f43-6067-4a5a-a95d-1eeb1ff7ed76 | The primary action of the superior oblique muscle is intorsion (internal rotation), the secondary action is depression (primarily in the adducted position) and the teiary action is abduction. | Anatomy | null | Function of superior oblique muscle is:
A. Intorsion, adduction and depression
B. Intorsion, abduction and elevation
C. Intorsion, abduction and depression
D. Extorsion, abduction and depression
| Intorsion, abduction and depression |
61471cf6-298e-4dd8-9e8e-80de22307e19 | Isoflurane more than other inhalational agents increases coronary blood flow many times beyond that of the myocardial oxygen demand, thereby, creating potential for "Steel", steel is diversion of blood from a myocardial bed with limited or inadequate perfusion to a bed with more adequate perfusion. | Anaesthesia | Inhalational Anesthetic Agents | Which of the following inhalational agent can cause coronary steal phenomenon-
A. Isoflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Halothane
| Isoflurane |
3a60d418-1566-4639-9396-6ed299ce6150 | Depolarization initiated in the SA node spreads radially through the atria, then converges on the AV node. Atrial depolarization is complete in about 0.1 s. Because conduction in the AV node is slow, a delay of about 0.1 s (AV nodal delay) occurs before excitation spreads to the ventricles. This delay is shoened by stimulation of the sympathetic nerves to the hea and lengthened by stimulation of the vagi. From the top of the septum, the wave of depolarization spreads in the rapidly conducting Purkinje fibers to all pas of the ventricles in 0.08-0.1 s. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 29. Origin of the Heabeat & the Electrical Activity of the Hea. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | Physiology | null | Slowest conduction is seen in the following pa of the cardiac conducting system:
A. SA node
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle of his
| AV node |
01328973-22a3-4999-a2db-82cff745108b | Best / most impoant stimulus for ADH - Hypeonicity Next - hypotension Water deficit | |extracellular osmolarity |Osmoreceptors | ADH secretion (posterior pituitary) | |Plasma ADH | H2O permeability in |distal tubules. Collecting ducts | |H2O reabsorption | |H2O excreted 1. | Osmolality / tonicity 2. Aerial baroreceptor reflex - |aerial pressure - | ADH 3. Cardiopulmonary reflexes - | blood volume |ADH release |ADH release | plasma osmolality |plasma osmolality |blood volume |blood volume |blood pressure | blood pressure Nausea Hypoxia Drugs: Morphine Nicotine Cyclophosphamide Drugs: Alcohol Clonidine Haloperidol | Physiology | FMGE 2018 | What is the best stimulus for release of vasopressin
A. Hypotonicity of extracellular fluid
B. Hypeension
C. Hypotension
D. Hypo-osmolality of extracellular fluid
| Hypotension |
6a7041bd-e26b-41f9-a6ee-0b25ce5fb5d9 | Methoxyflurane is most metabolized and produces more than 80 micromol/litre of flouride in blood. The amount of fluoride ions produced: Methoxyflurane: 50uM Sevoflurane: 20-30 uM Enflurane: 20uM Isoflurane and desflurane: 5uM | Anaesthesia | Inhalational Anesthetic Agents | Volatile agent which causes most renal toxicity is
A. Ether
B. Isoflurane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Sevoflurane
| Methoxyflurane |
5407a05c-1275-4745-be90-89f96e7e92f9 | Answer- B. Downsloping depression of the ST segment >0.1 mV below baselineThc ischemia ST:-segment respone generally is defined as flat or downsloping depression of the ST segmant >O.1 mVbelow baseline (i.e., tha PR segnent) and lasting longer than O.08s.Upsloping or junctional ST-segment changes are not considered characteristic of ischemia and do not constitute a positive test. | Medicine | null | Positive ECG sign(s) of ischemia in Tread mill test is/ are-
A. Upsloping depression of the ST segment mV below baseline
B. Downsloping depression of the ST segment >0.1 mV below baseline
C. Junctional ST-segment
D. Tachycardia
| Downsloping depression of the ST segment >0.1 mV below baseline |
5aff9ea9-1452-48f7-84af-dd06c3a3379f | In garrotting, a ligature is thrown over the neck of the victim and is quickly tightened by twisting it with a lever. In Spanish windlass, an iron collar is tightened by a screw. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 21st Edition, Page 300. | Forensic Medicine | null | Spanish windlass is an example of which of the following methods of crime?
A. Bansdola
B. Garrotting
C. Throttling
D. Mugging
| Garrotting |
30cbe4e9-187f-4e6f-80b5-f12e5b320b9c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., India ink o C. neoformans is best demonstrated in CSF by direct microscopy. The capsule is seen as a clear halo around the yeast cells in unstained wet preparations of CSF mixed with a drop of India ink or nigrosine. Methenamine silver stain would be the best choice for a tissue sample.CRYPTOCOCCUS NEOFORMANSo The only pathogenic yeasto Four capsular serotypes - A, B, C and Do It has polysaccharide capsuleo Most infections in immunocompromizedpatients are caused by serotype A.o Pigeon droppings commonly contains serotype A and D.o Eucalyptus tree contain serotype B.o It is urease positive.Mode of transmissionBy inhalation of the fungus into the lung (most common)Through skin or mucosa (some times).Laboratory diagnosis# Lumbar puncture is the single most useful diagnositc test.Laboratory diagnosisDirect microscopyCultureSerologyo Unstained wet preperationso Can be easily culturedo The most useful serological testof CSF mixed with drop offrom CSF on sabouroud'sls LPA test (Latex agglutinationIndia ink or nigrosineagartest for the detection of cryptococcaldemonstrate the capsule polysaccharide capsular antigen)as a clear halo o This is highly specific and sensitive; ando Methenamine silver or periodic gives better results than direct microscopyacid-Schiff are used for and cultures.staining a tissue sample. | Microbiology | Mycology | Investigation of choice for cryptococcosis is -
A. Culture
B. India ink
C. PCR
D. Acid faststain
| India ink |
0aa3ef76-b47b-4753-b159-0c255bdeb774 | Ans. c (25 weeks) (Ref. Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics 17th/pg. 545)IRON REQUIREMENT IN PREGNANCY# Mineral supplementation is not needed in healthy women.- The exception is iron.# The iron requirements of pregnancy are total about 1 gram.# Demand of fetus for iron is evident in last 12 weeks of pregnancy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Demand of fetus for iron is evident after_____ weeks
A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
| 25 |
88e2cf55-87a1-4d8f-ad51-97f3be6759e3 | Sodalime is most common Co2 absorbant . Indicators added to sodalime changes the color of sodalime . It contains 94% Ca(OH)2 , 5%NaOH,1% KOH. | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | The most impoant constituent in soda lime for reabsorption of CO2 in a closed circuit
A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Barium hydroxide
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Potassium hydroxide
| Calcium hydroxide |
20412a44-ea6d-42a8-820e-5d5c121f40f2 | Usual chest X-ray is PA view in full inspiration. For pneumothorax PA view in full expiration is the most appropriate view. | Radiology | null | X–ray film should be taken in closed pneumothorax during-
A. Deep expiration
B. Deep inspiration
C. In supine position
D. In lateral position
| Deep expiration |
89a53b03-bd40-46f7-ba75-2c2296e31401 | Adults - 120 days.
Term infant - 60 - 90 days.
Premature neonate - 35 - 50 days. | Medicine | null | Lifespan of RBCs in premature neonate
A. 120 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 40 days
| 40 days |
a6f8902b-e77f-4277-a26c-acb65c83017f | Ref: Robbins E-Book, P 135* Choice A is type of type 4 Hypersensitivity reaction.* Choice C is type of type 3 Hypersensitivity reaction.* Choice D is type of type 4 Hypersensitivity reaction.Examples of type ii hypersensitivityDiseaseTarget antigenMechanism of diseaseClinicopathologic ManifestationsAutoimmune hemolytic anemiaErythrocyte membrane proteins (Rh blood group antigens, I antigen)Opsonization And phagocytosis of erythrocytes, complement mediated lysisHemalysis, anemiaAutoimmune thrombocytopenic purpuraPlatelet membrane proteins (gplib-Illa integrin)Opsonization And phagocytosis of plateletsBleedingPemphigus vulgarisProteins in intercellular junctions of epidermal cells (desmoglein)Antibody mediated activation of proteases, disruption of intercellular adhesionsSkin vesicles (bullae)Vasculitis caused by ANCANeutrophil granule proteins, presumably released from activated neutrophilsNeutrophil degranulation and inflammationVasculitisGoodpastere's syndromeNon- ecellagerous NCl protein of basement membrane in glomeruli and lungComplement and Fc receptor mediated inflammationNephritis, lung hemorrhageAcute rheumatic feverStreptococcal cell wall antigen; antibody cross reacts with myocardial antigenInflammation, macrophage activationMyocarditis, arthritisMyasthenia gravisAcetylcholine receptorAntibody inhibits acetylcholine binding and down regulates the receptors.Muscle weakness, paralysisGraves' disease (hyperthyroidism)TSH receptorAntibody mediated stimulation of TSH receptorsHyperthyroidismPernicious anemiaIntrinsic factor of gastric parietal cellsNeutralization of intrinsic factor, decreased absorption of vitamin B12 Abnormal erythropoiesis, anemia | Pathology | Immunity | Which of the following is a Type 2 Hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Chronic Kidney Rejection episode
B. Autoimmune Hemolytic anaemia
C. Arthus reaction
D. Mitsuda reaction
| Autoimmune Hemolytic anaemia |
e182eb98-38b5-431c-8976-4077b3624c4a | Robbins basic pathology 6th edition. Chapter Neoplasia. page no. 287. The mutations required to produce retinoblastoma involve Rb gene located on chromosome 13q14. | Pathology | General pathology | The gene that predisposes to retinoblastoma is located at -
A. Chromosome 13q14
B. Chromosome 15q11
C. Chromosome 11p13
D. Chromosome 22q11
| Chromosome 13q14 |
a54478c8-ee11-4f3e-a20a-161888207f43 | Answer- A. ARDSARDS CriteriaAcute, meaning onset over 1 week or less.Bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema must be present and may be detected on CT or chest radiograph.PF ratio < 300 mmHg with a minimum of 5 cmH20 PEEP (or CPAP).CVP < l8 mmHg. | Surgery | null | A 57 year old male suffering from acute pancreatitis develops sudden onset breathlessness with a CVP< 18mmHg. The chest xray shows bilateral infiltrates. The possible diagnosis is
A. ARDS
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Congestive left hea failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
| ARDS |
89a1c078-8c62-4dca-8526-dce1ebed23a3 | D i.e. 70%With each degree fall in temperature, the metabolic rate is reduced by 70%.So by reducing temperature by 10-degree celsius, the metabolic rate is reduced by 70%.Cerebra coex is protected for 10 mins at 30-degree celsius and for 1 hr at 15-degree celsius. | Physiology | null | A 10-degree decrease in temperature causes decreases in cerebral metabolic rate by :
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
| 70% |
473dafee-ca66-48b1-8a4a-6ea59e08be7c | Therapeutic aboion In 1970 the World Medical Association drew up a Statement on Therapeutic Aboion. This code, known as the Declaration of Oslo, was amended by the 35th World Medical Assembly, Venice, Italy in October 1983 and states: The first moral principle imposed upon the physician is respect of human life from its beginning. Circumstances which bring the vital interests of a mother into conflict with the vital interests of her unborn child create a dilemma and raise the question whether or not the pregnancy should be deliberately terminated. Diversity of response to this situation results from the diversity of attitudes towards the life of the unborn child. This is a matter of individual conviction and conscience which must be respected. It is not the role of the medical profession to determine the attitudes and rules of any paicular state or community in this matter, but it is our duty to attempt both to ensure the protection of our patients and to safeguard the rights of the physician within society. Therefore, where the law allows therapeutic aboion to be performed, the procedure should be performed by a physician competent to do so in premises approved by the appropriate authority. If the physician considers that his convictions do not allow him to advise or perform an aboion, he may withdraw while ensuring the continuity of (medical) care by a competent colleague. This statement, while it is endorsed by the General Assembly of the World Medical Association, is not to be regarded as binding on any individual member association unless it is adopted by that member association. Ref: | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non communicable diseases | Therapeutic aboion was accepted by -
A. Declaration of Geneva (1948
B. Declaration of Oslo (1970)
C. Declaration of Helsinki
D. Declaration of Tokyo
| Declaration of Oslo (1970) |
dfa488d6-0f6f-46dd-ac1e-048a97334493 | Section 94:- Act to which a person is compelled by threats Except murder, and other offences punishable with death, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is compelled to do it by threats of instant death Explanations A perso seized by a gang of dacoits, and forced, by threat of instant death, to do a thing which is an offence by law; for example, a smith compelled to take his tools and to force the door of a house for the dacoits to enter and plunder it, is entitled to the benefit of this exception. | Forensic Medicine | Legal sections | IPC 94 related to
A. Consent in emergency situations
B. Criminal responsibility of an act done by a person < 7 years
C. Criminal responsibility of an act done by an intoxicated person
D. Criminal responsibility of an act Compelled by threats
| Criminal responsibility of an act Compelled by threats |
9bc9e2d0-4924-451a-b2fd-faff1ef68f03 | It&;s sigmoid colon Tonic and phasic colonic motility and compliance of the transverse and sigmoid colon were therefore assessed using a combined barostat-manometry assembly in 22 healthy subjects. Measured colonic compliance was corrected by subtraction of the compliance of the closed barostat system. The mean (SEM) preprandial colonic volumes in the transverse and sigmoid colon were similar (150 (12) and 128 (13) ml, p = NS), corresponding to calculated mean (SEM) colonic diameters of 4.3 cm and 4.0 cm respectively. The mean increase in colonic tone postprandially was significantly greater in the transverse (24.1% (3.5)) than in the sigmoid colon (13.1% (3.0), p < 0.01). The mean increase in phasic contractility was significantly greater, however, in the sigmoid than in the transverse colon (1270 (210) and 425 (60) mm Hg/90 min respectively, p < 0.01). Compliance was greater in the transverse than sigmoid colon (7.6 (0.44) and 4.1 (0.15) ml/mm Hg, p < 0.001). The fasting volume of the colon was significantly correlated with the magnitude of the tonic response to the meal in the transverse and sigmoid colon (p < 0.001 for both). In conclusion, there are quantitatively different but qualitatively similar phasic and tonic responses to the meal in the two colonic regions. Differences in the viscoelastic and luminal dimensions may paly account for these differences in tonic responses.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 475 | Physiology | G.I.T | Most common postprandial motility is seen in
A. Ascending colon
B. Transverse colons
C. Descending colon
D. Sigmoid colon
| Sigmoid colon |
7f8aa840-849e-4bfd-8807-47b6fcf488ad | D i.e. RASGenes that promote autonomous cell growth in cancer cells are called oncogenes and their normal cellular counterpasQ are called proto-oncogenesQ. RAS is an oncogeneQ.Growth factorGrowth factor receptorsProteins involved in signaltransductionNuclear regulatory proteinsProtooncogeneEncodeProtooncogeneEncodeProtooncogeneRelated toProtooncogeneRelated toHST-1, 1NT-2Fibroblast growthfactorERB-B2 &ERB-B1(ECRF)EGF-receptorfamilyRAS-K/ H/NGTP bindingMYC-C/N/LTranscriptionalactivatorQTGF aTransforminggrowth factor- aFMSColonystimulating factor(CSF)-1ABLNonreceptortyrosine kinaseCell cycle regulatorsHGFHapatocytegrowth factorRETReceptor forneurotrophicfactorsBRAFRAS signaltransductionCyclin D/ECyclinsSISPlatelett growthtactor 13-chainKITReceptor for stemcell (steel)factor[3-cateninVVNT-signaltransductionCDK-4CyclindependentkinaseMYC - protooncogene is expressed in almost all eukaryotic cell. MYC - protein is translocated to nucleus (sometimes as hetrodimer with MAX protein) and is a potent transcription activator. MYC activation causes cell proliferation, induces histone acetylation, protein synthesis and cell motality & decreases cell adhesion & proteinase activity. Cells in culture undergo apoptosis if MYC activation occurs in absence of growth factorsQ, but it is not clear whether MYC induced apoptosis occurs in vivo.Retinoblastoma susceptibility protein (RB), in hypophosphorylated state, prevents cell from replicating by forming complex with transcription factor E2F (E2F/D P1/RB - complex). Phosphorylation of RB dissociates the complex, release E2F, eliminates main barrier to cell cycle progression & promotes cell replication. Cyclin D, which is the first cyclin to increase in cell cycle, (appears in GI phase but becomes detectable in S phase) activates CDK4 and form cyclin D- CDK4 complex that phosphorylates RB. During M phase RB is again hypophosphorylated.Normal growth requires - protooncogenes not oncogenes , tumor suppressor genes, genes involved in apoptosis and DNA reapirQ | Biochemistry | null | Which is not a tumor suppressor gene?
A. WT-1
B. Rb
C. p53
D. RAS
| RAS |
5533e6fb-1470-41cf-8572-904130275cd7 | Ans is 'd' ie. Radionuclide scan "If a Meckels diveiculum is suspected because of repeated gastrointestinal haemorrhage the abdomen can be scanned after the injection of 99Tc-labelled peechnetate intravenously. This may localise heterotopic gastric mucosa revealing the site of a meckels diveiculum in 90% of cases." - Bailey & Love | Surgery | null | Best Diagnosis for Ectopic gastric mucosa of meckels diveiculum -
A. Fluoroscopy
B. Occult blood test in stool
C. Ultrasound abdomen
D. Radionuclide scan
| Radionuclide scan |
fd576a7d-fdbe-44ca-8779-ee4a9ca2553a | (d) Source: GAS 448-451; GA 224-225 As seen in the photograph, the swollen scrotum contains mostly a clear fluid. Since hydrocele is the accumulation of fluid between the visceral and parietal layers of the tunica vaginalis, this condition best accounts for the findings in this patient. | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | A 2-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with testicular pain. Physical examination reveals an enlarged scrotum. An otoscope is placed beneath the lateral side of the scrotum and the testis is transilluminated through the scrotal sac. Which of the following best describes the signs observed in this patient?
A. Varicocele
B. Rectocele
C. Cystocele
D. Hydrocele
| Hydrocele |
696561c7-ce6e-4f8c-beb9-760e99c3681a | Ans. is c, i.e. Respiratory distress syndromeRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 164, 165; COGDT 10/e, p 987According to COGDT 10/e, p 987"The most common cause of death in patients with this condition is respiratory insufficiency secondary to ARDS."According to Williams Obs. 23/e, p 222"With severe sepsis syndrome, acute respiratory distress syndrome or DIC may develop and supportive care is essential" | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Abortion | The most life threatening complications of septic abortion includes:
A. Peritonitis
B. Renal failure
C. Respiratory distress syndrome
D. Septicemia
| Respiratory distress syndrome |
c0398e2b-0e67-4c66-8e03-afb3b334bd42 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ca2+ o Phase 0 (phase of rapid depolarization)- opening of fast sodium channels with Na4 influxo Phase 1 (initial phase of rapid repolarization)- closure of fast sodium channelso Phase 2 (plateu phase)- opening of voltage gated slow Ca++ channels with calcium influx.o Phase 3 (final repolarization)- opening of K+ channels with K+ efflux.o Phase 4- Resting membrane potential. | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | Plateau phase of cardiac cycle is due to -
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Ca2+
D. Cl-
| Ca2+ |
4e9b225e-10b5-4e79-ab02-1a36b34beac8 | Ans.D. ADHDStimulants (like methylphenidate, dextramphetamine) are the drugs of choice for ADHD. | Psychiatry | null | Stimulant drug is given to child for ?
A. Conduct disorder
B. Speech developmental disorder
C. Pervasive disorder
D. ADHD
| ADHD |
48694268-4535-4380-aa45-bd6498912b4f | Option 1, 4 Food items associated: Diarrheal type - Meat, vegetables, dried beans, cereals. Emetic type - Rice (Chinese fried rice). 1. Bacillus cereus food poisoning is of two types. Emetic type and Diarrheal type abdominal cramps are common features in both. Other features are: a) Emetic Type: History of intake of fried rice from Chinese restaurant 6 hour earlier. Mediated by enterotoxin resembling E. coli stable toxin. On ingestion of the rice, the toxin causes nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps after a sho incubation period of 6 hours. Diarrhea and fever are rare. b) Diarrhoeal type: History of intake of cooked meat and vegetables 8-16 hours earlier. Mediated by enterotoxin resembling E. coli.The symptoms consist of acute abdominal pain, diarrhea, and nausea; vomiting is rare Option 2, 3 Brucellosisis: Ingestion of raw milk or dairy products. Staphylococcal food poisoning: Most common food items involved are milk products, bakery food, custards, potato salad, or processed meats. BOTULISM:-Food borne botulism occurs due to preformed toxin mixed with canned food. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli) | The food item associated with B.cereus emetic food-type poisoning is:
A. Meat
B. Milk products
C. Canned food
D. Fried rice
| Fried rice |
3bd79e14-0e15-4667-98b2-478c830f28d9 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 95% o WHO's measles elimination strategy comprises a three part vaccination strategy, i.e.:-i) Catch-up - One-time, nationwide vaccination campaign targeting usually all children aged 9 months to 14 years regardless of history of measles disease or vaccination status.ii) Keep-up - Routine services aimed at vaccinating more than 95% of each successive birth cohort.iii) Follow-up - Subsequent nationwide vaccination campaign conducted every 2-4 years targeting usually all children bom after catch-up campaign. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Measles | For elimination of measles, vaccine Coverage should be (in successive brith cohart) -
A. >70%
B. > 80%
C. >90%
D. > 95%
| > 95% |
dc02803f-537e-49b3-8666-3dd6b043eef5 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 35 Arrhythmias by Kathryn Lewis p. 219] o In LVH, SV-1 plus RV-6 is more than 15 mm. To diagnose the left ventricular hyperophy on ECG one of the following criteria should be met :? The sokolow-lyon criteria is most often used - R in V, or V6 + 5 in V > 35 mm in men The cornell-criteria has different values R in aVL and S in V3 > 28 mm in men R in aVL and S in V3 > 20 mm in women As the left ventricular wall becomes thicker QRS complexes are larger in leads V1-V6 S wave is deep in V, R wave is high in V4 ST depression in V,,-V, (strain pattern) | Medicine | null | In LVH, SV1 +RV6 is more than mm
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 45
| 35 |
d900b9c4-f6e0-47e3-96c4-ed4f81f41c73 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alkaline phosphataseo Amongst the given options, alkaline phosphatase is best because it is raised in all type of rickets.o The primary (Basic) investigations in a child of rickets are :?Serum calciumSerum phosphorusAlkaline phosphataseo If patient does not respond to calcium and Vit D therapy, secondry investigations are done :?Vit D levelSerum PTHUrinary calcium and phosphorus. | Pathology | null | Serum marker of rickets is -
A. Acid phosphates
B. Alkaline phoshpatase
C. Decreased serum calcium
D. Urinary posphates
| Alkaline phoshpatase |
241dafe0-8b30-437b-9869-97f33228ea8e | Ans. c. Antoni A and Antoni B pattern (Ref: Robbins 9/e p257. 854, 8/e p1340)Antoni A and Antoni B pattern is seen in schwannoma.'Schwannoma: In the Antoni AQ pattern of growth, elongated cells with cytoplasmic processes are arranged in fascicles in areas of moderate to high cellularity and scant stromal matrix; the 'nuclear-free zones' of processes that lie between the regions of nuclear palisading are termed Verocay bodiesQ. In the Antoni pattern of growth, the tumor is less densely cellular and consists of a loose meshwork of cells, microcysts and myxoid stroma.' - Robbins 9/e p854.Area marked with arrow represents the pattern of growth, in which the tumor is less densely cellular and consists of a loose mesh work of cells, microcysts and myxoid stroma, Antoni B pattern of growth."Schwannoma: In the Antoni AQ pattern of growth, elongated cells with cytoplasmic processes are arranged in fascicles in areas of moderate to high cellularity and scant stromal matrix; the "nuclear-free zones" of processes that lie between the regions of nuclear palisading are termed Verocay bodiesQ. In the Antoni BQ pattern of growth, the tumor is less densely cellular and consists of a loose meshwork of cells, microcysts and myxoid stroma. "-- Robbins 9/e p854Fig. 15: Tumor showing cellular areas (Antoni A). including Verocay bodies (far right). As well as looser, myxoid regions (Antoni B. center)SchwannomaBenign tumorArise from the neural crest-derived Schwann cellQCause symptoms by local compression of involved nerve or adjacent structures (brainstem or spinal cord).Schwannomas are a component of NF2QLoss of expression of the NF2 gene product. merlinQ, is a consistent finding in all schwannomas.MorphologyWell-circumscribed, encapsulated masses that are attached to the nerve but can be separated from itOn microscopic examination tumors show a mixture of two growth patternsIn the Antoni AQ pattern of growth, elongated cells with cytoplasmic processes are arranged in fascicles in areas of moderate to high cellularity & scant stromal matrix: the "nuclear-free zones" of processes that lie between the regions of nuclear palisading are termed Verocay bodiesQ.In the Antoni BQ pattern of growth, tumor is less densely cellular & consists of a loose meshwork of cells, microcysts & my xoid stroma.Schwann cell origin of these tumors is borne out by their S-100 immunoreactivityQ.Malignant change is extremely rareQ, but local recurrence can follow incomplete resection.Clinical Features:Within the cranial vault most schwannomas occur at cerebellopontine angle, where they are attached to the vestibular branch of eighth nerveQAffected individuals often present with tinnitus & hearing loss; tumor is often referred to as an "acoustic neuroma," although it actually is a vestibular Schwannoma.Elsewhere within dura, sensory nerves are preferentially involved, including branches of the trigeminal nerve & dorsal rootsQ.When extradural, schwannomas are most commonly found in association with large nerve trunksQ, where motor & sensory modalities are intermixed. | Pathology | Tumors | Which of the following is seen in Schwannoma?
A. Storiform pattern
B. Spindle cells
C. Antoni A and Antoni B pattern
D. Target cells
| Antoni A and Antoni B pattern |
352d05ff-814f-4d68-9b59-9b541cce1b7b | - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 350 mcg retinol. - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 2800 mcg beta carotene. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:616 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | RDA in infant of Vit A is -
A. 350 g
B. 450 g
C. 600 g
D. 1000 g
| 350 g |
5506accf-c8a2-4e5a-98cf-e116ebe61dcd | Ans. is 'd' i.e., FlurineBlood doping is a form of fraudulent increase in the oxygen carrying capacity of a person, widely used to improve the aerobic capacity of athletes. | Biochemistry | null | Synthetic Orygen carrier is made up of_
A. Iron
B. Bronze
C. Molybdenum
D. Flurine
| Flurine |
62c97ef5-fce0-43eb-9c11-0123afae3256 | Aspirin inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins that are impoant in the pathophysiology, signs, and symptoms of a host of inflammatory or ahritic states. It does so, of course, by inhibiting both COX-I and -2. Acetaminophen lacks this propey, and so acetaminophen is much less efficacious for managing inflammation. Aspirin and acetaminophen are equally efficacious (and, for all practical purposes, equipotent) for relieving the simple headache for most patients. (Note, however, when pain involves a component of inflammation, aspirin is clearly superior to acetaminophen because it suppresses both the inflammation and the pain caused by it.) Aspirin usually helps normalize or lower body temperature in febrile states, but this, too, involves inhibited synthesis of prostaglandins (peripherally perhaps, leading to increased heat loss through diaphoresis, but also in such central structures as the hypothalamus, which is a prime temperature regulating structure). Aspirin does not exe bacteriostatic or bactericidal effects (at any level encountered in vivo), and so antibiotic effects do not contribute to its antipyretic actions. Although aspirin is an effective cyclooxygenase inhibitor, it has no effects on the lipoxygenase pathway that leads to leukotriene synthesis. It does not affect uric acid synthesis (xanthine oxidase) at all. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Autacoids | At usual therapeutic doses (blood levels), expected effects of aspirin include which of the following?
A. Efficacy greater than acetaminophen as an anti-inflammatory agent
B. Efficacy less than acetaminophen for relieving simple headache pain
C. Inhibited growth, or killing, of bacteria that cause fever as a symptom of infection
D. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis, protection against bronchopasm in asthmatics
| Efficacy greater than acetaminophen as an anti-inflammatory agent |
a842bf1e-946a-43fd-ab71-fdfd1afdb41d | The most impoant stimulus comes from the pH of the CSF on the central chemoreceptors. The other choices are incorrect: The effect of PO2 on the peripheral chemoreceptors under normoxic conditions is very small. Changes in PCO2 do affect the peripheral chemoreceptors, but the magnitude is less than that for the central chemoreceptors. The effect of changes in pH on peripheral chemoreceptors under normal conditions is small, and changes in PO2 do not affect the central chemoreceptors. | Physiology | Respiratory System Pa 2 | The most impoant stimulus controlling the level of resting ventilation is:
A. PO2 on peripheral chemoreceptors
B. PCO2 on peripheral chemoreceptors
C. pH on peripheral chemoreceptors
D. pH of CSF on central chemoreceptors
| pH of CSF on central chemoreceptors |
f6d46f53-4a75-4a02-9d6c-b48e4e72fb2e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Retinoblastoma o In retinoblastoma, there are areas of necrosis and calcification.o In the presence of calcification, endophytic retinoblastoma gives the typical 'cottage cheese' appearance. | Ophthalmology | Intra Ocular Tumour | Intraocular calcification in eye in child -
A. Toxocara
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Angiomatosis retinae
D. Malignant melanoma of choroid
| Retinoblastoma |
073a461d-1098-4622-8e49-c3e9a4b29b51 | IgM antibodies appear early in the course of an infection and usually reappear, to a lesser extent, after fuher exposure. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Parkers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:98 | Microbiology | Immunology | Predominant class of immunoglobulin during primary immune response is -
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgG
| IgM |
b22afb18-16bf-4f1b-8dd2-a3d0afe8d4f0 | Cimetidine (but not other H2 blockers) has antiandrogenic action. It displaces dihydrotestosterone from its cytoplasmic receptor. It also increases plasma prolactin and inhibits degradation of estradiol by liver. High doses given for long periods have produced gynaecomastia, loss of libido, impotence and temporary decrease in sperm count leading to infeility. Reference : page 650 Essentials of Medical Pharmacology K D Tripathi 7th edition | Medicine | Endocrinology | Man with gynaecomatsia and infeility, cause?
A. Cimetidine
B. Omeprazole
C. Erythromycin
D. Digitalis
| Cimetidine |
94027983-e50e-4229-a8f9-76658b3f4def | Ans. is 'd' i.e.,Convex smooth surface Features of Dhatura sees are :-Large & thickOdourlersKidney - shapedLaterally compressed and double edged at convex border (not smooth)Yellowisk brown Bitter | Forensic Medicine | null | Wrong about dhatura seeds is ?
A. Kidney shaped
B. Odourless
C. Yellow brown
D. Convex smooth surface
| Convex smooth surface |
1722860e-b0d8-4f82-920b-507974406e04 | Sharp pain is transmitted by A delta nerve fibres Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 698,699,700 | Physiology | Nervous system | Sharp pain is transmitted by which type of fibers
A. Aa
B. Ab
C. Ad
D. C
| Ad |
4b9e910e-526c-48b4-8b7f-312451fe55d2 | Assisted reproductive technology (ART) is the technology used to achieve pregnancy in procedures such as fertility medication, in vitro fertilization and surrogacy.
It is reproductive technology used primarily for infertility treatments and is also known as a fertility treatment.
It mainly belongs to the field of reproductive endocrinology and infertility, and may also include intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) and cryopreservation.
Some forms of ART are also used with regard to fertile couples for genetic reasons (preimplantation genetic diagnosis).
ART is also used for couples who are discordant for certain communicable diseases; for example, HIV to reduce the risk of infection when a pregnancy is desired. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which is not an assisted reproduction technique:
A. GIFT
B. ZIFT
C. IVF and ET
D. Artificial insemination
| Artificial insemination |
b459479a-e311-4b3c-8b05-b528565bd212 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rectum The most common site of involvement in Ulcerative colitis is the rectum. Ulcerative colitis (involvement is limited to the colon) Ulcerative colitis typically stas in the rectum and may progress with continuous lesions (no skip lesions) in a retrograde manner to involve the entire colon (Pancolitis). UC is a mucosal disease that usually involves the rectum and extends proximally to involve all or pa of the colon. About 40 to 50% of patients have disease limited to the rectum and rectosigmoid, 30 to 40% have disease extending beyond the sigmoid but not involving the whole colon, and 20% have a total colitis. Proximal spread occurs in continuity, without areas of uninvolved mucosa | Medicine | null | Which of the following is MOST commonly affected in U.C
A. Cecum
B. Rectum
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Terminal leum
| Rectum |
707d2633-0524-40af-8fc7-59e7eed396cc | Postmoem ant bites on dead bodies may produce marks which simulate antemoem abrasions. Ref: Forensic Pathology By J.M. Di Maio, 2nd Edition, Page 196; Modi's Textbook of Medical Jurisprudence and Toxicology; Principles of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Rajesh Bardale, Page 174; Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By R.N. Karmakar, Page, 2nd Edition, Page 334 | Forensic Medicine | null | Antemoem Abrasions can be confused with?
A. Eczema
B. Ant bite marks
C. Chemical burn
D. Joule burn
| Ant bite marks |
f339161b-3870-4f2b-bdd5-7d069376ca25 | Pyomyositis is an acute bacterial infection of the skeletal muscle caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It may be primary or secondary to a penetrating injury or contiguous anatomic infection. It typically affects the major muscles of the lower extremity and the gluteal muscles. Patients usually presents with pain, tenderness and edema of the involved muscle group. Abscess can develop in the muscle groups. Diagnosis is confirmed by needle aspiration or operative incision and drainage. Treatment involves adequate drainage along with antibiotic therapy against Staphylococcus aureus. In contrast to necrotizing soft tissue infections, pyomyositis is characterized by a localized infectious process, conventional purulence, lack of surrounding tissue necrosis and a ourable response to simple incision drainage. Ref: Skeletal Muscle: Pathology, Diagnosis and Management of Disease edited by Victor R. Preedy, page 313. | Microbiology | null | Pyomyositis is caused by which of the following?
A. Streptococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Salmonella typhi
D. E. coli
| Streptococcus aureus |
bd1ae929-0fee-40e5-8db6-9977a1fbcbbf | ANSWER: (A) KetamineREF: Morgans clinical anesthesia 3rd edition page 141"Remember always Ketamine increases not only intracranial pressure but all the pressures of the body, like blood pressure, intraocular pressure, and intragastric pressure"Agents that increase intracranial pressure (ICP) can be remembered as Mnemonic SNAKE:* Sevoflurane* Nitrous oxide* Althesin* Ketamine* Enflurane | Anaesthesia | Anesthesia for Neurosurgery | Increased intracranial tension is seen with:
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Halothane
D. Propofol
| Ketamine |
849c3592-fff8-4ea4-b9cf-05560922830c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sr. creatinine The Model for End-stage Liver Disese (MELD) is a prospectively developed and validated chronic liver disease severity scoring system that uses a patient's laboratory values for - Li Serum bilirubin Serum creatinine The international normalized ratio (INR) for prothrombin time to predict three month survival. Patients with cirrhosis, and increasing MELD score is associated with increasing severity of hepatic dysfunction and increased three-month moality risk. Given its accuracy in predicting sho-term survival among patients with cirrhosis, MELD was adopted by the United network for organ sharing (UNOS) in 2002 for prioritization or patients awaiting liver trasplantation in the United states. Pediatric end stage liver disease (PELD) Serum bilirubin INR Serum albumin Age Nutritional status | Medicine | null | MELD score includes A/E
A. Sr. creatinine
B. Transaminase
C. Albumin
D. Alkaline phosphatase
| Sr. creatinine |
e08d6e54-9845-45a8-8b24-0717e6040d8e | Answer is A (t(8:14)) 'Demonstration of very high proliferative fraction and the presence of the t (8; 14) or one of its variants t (2; 8) or t(8:22) can be confirmatory of Burkitt's lymphoma /leukemia' | Medicine | null | Burkitt's Lymphoma is associated with which of the following viruses
A. EBV
B. HTLV-1
C. HHV- 8
D. Adenovirus
| EBV |
b89cf064-d3fd-4822-9bef-c6ad7a97ef68 | Ans. c (Transduction). (Ref. Textbook of Microbiology by Anantanarayan, 6th/53)TRANSMISSION OF GENETIC MATERIAL IN BACTERIA IS BY:# Transformation:- Transfer of genetic information through agency of free DNA.# Transduction:- Transfer of a portion of DNA from one bacteria to another by transduction phase.- It is not confined to transfer of chromosomal DNA.- It transduces epizomes & plasmids also.- B'phages are viruses that parasitise bacteria & consist of nucleic acid core & a protein coat.- It is excellent tool for gene mapping of bacteria.# Lysogenic conversion:- Phage DNA becomes integrated with bacterial chromosome as prophage, which multiplies synchronously with host DNA & is transferred to daughter cells. This is lysogeny & bacteria harbouring prophages are lysogenic bacteria.- In transduction phage acts as vehicle carrying bacteria genes from one cell to another but in lysogenic conversion phage DNA itself is new genetic element.# Conjugation:- Process where by 'male' or 'donor' bacterial mates or makes physical contact with female or recipient bacteria & transfer genetic element into it.# Sexduction:- Process of transfer of host genes through F factor resembles transduction known as sexduction. | Microbiology | General | Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to other by a bacteriophage is known as
A. Formation
B. Conjugation
C. Transduction
D. Transcription
| Transduction |
71fba271-3625-49f5-bfe6-f2215b3012eb | Ans. B: Echocardiography Echocardiography is the imaging modality of choice for the diagnosis of pericardial effusion. Most impoantly, the contribution of pericardial effusion to overall cardiac enlargement and the relative roles of tamponade and myocardial dysfunction to altered hemodynamics can be evaluated with echocardiography. Pericardial effusion appears as an "echo-free" space between the visceral and parietal pericardium. Early effusions tend to accumulate posteriorly owing to expandable posterior/lateral pericardium. Large effusions are characterized by excessive motion within the pericardial sac. Severe cases may be accompanied by diastolic collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle (and in hypovolemic patients the left atrium and left ventricle), signaling the onset of pericardial tamponade | Medicine | null | Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by: September 2009
A. Chest X-ray
B. Echocardiography
C. ECG
D. Angiography
| Echocardiography |
fdb40ab1-e0c0-405d-a8f3-73f52b787f19 | Following opens into right atrium
- Superior vena cava
- Inferior vena cava
- Coronary sinus
- Venae cordis minimae
- Anterior cardiac vein
- Right marginal vein | Anatomy | null | Which of the following opens directly into right atrium?
A. Anterior cardiac vein
B. Oblique vein
C. Middle cardiac vein
D. Great cardiac vein
| Anterior cardiac vein |
00c34add-87f1-499b-9d06-67d606f2d8c7 | 17 -hydroxylase (17 -OH) deficiency syndrome is a rare genetic disorder of steroid biosynthesis causing decreased production of glucocoicoids and sex steroids and increased synthesis of mineralocoicoid precursors. Reduced or absent levels of both gonadal and adrenal sex hormones result in sexual infantilism in 46, XX females and ambiguous genitalia in 46, XV males. Excessive mineralocoicoid activity produces varying degrees of hypeension Q and hypokalemia Q. Patients usually are diagnosed with this condition during an evaluation of delayed pubey. absent secondary sexual characteristics or primary amenorrhea. REF : OP-GHAI 9th edition | Pediatrics | All India exam | Which of the following is caused by congenital A-17 hydroxylase deficiency:
A. hypercalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hermaphroditism
D. Hypeension
| Hypeension |
7156da08-6147-44f2-b89a-f44a6fbe9489 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tuberous sclerosis Koenen's periungual fibroma is seen in tuberous sclerosis | Skin | null | Koenen's tumor associated with ?
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Psoriasis
D. Alopecia aerata
| Tuberous sclerosis |
8dcf1a5f-3b5f-45c0-b2b7-7313c53e74f7 | Precapillary sphincters are controlled mainly by the local concentration of tissue metabolites. Precapillary sphincters are considered as pa of the precapillary resistance vessels; they determine the size of the capillary exchange area which is perfused at any given moment in the tissue. In the triple response, relaxation of the precapillary sphincters is due to presence of histamine and/or polypeptides released locally from the damaged skin. Circulating catecholamines may cause constriction of the precapillary resistance vessels and the precapillary sphincters. | Physiology | Circulation | Precapillary sphincter relaxation occurs due to:
A. Local chemicals
B. Sympathetic stimulation
C. Circulating catecholamines
D. Capillary filling
| Local chemicals |
b0389cf2-cdf5-4a2e-8121-4346cfaeac6c | In Alzheimer's disease the most common cause of dementia, there is a reduction in the activity of acetylcholine within the brain due to loss of cholinergic activity within the brain due to loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis of Meyne . Both Rivastigmine and Donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors used in the management of dementia. These drugs reduce the degeneration of acetylcholine by inhibiting the enzyme Acetyl cholinesterase.Ref: Alzheimer's Disease And Dementia in Down Syndrome And Intellectual Disabilities By Vee P. Prasher page 85. | Psychiatry | null | Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the management of which of the following conditions?
A. Depression
B. Dissociation
C. Delusions
D. Dementia
| Dementia |
45505bbf-e125-48ec-9749-01b8f38c957a | Citrate is used by salmonella as sole source of carbon But citrate test positive: Salmonella Typhimurium Salmonella Paratyphi A is citrate negative Ref: Elmer W Koneman 5th ed Pg 186 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Citrate as a sole source of carbon is utilized by
A. Staphylococcus
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Escherichia
| Salmonella |
7e8cb453-ea1f-42a7-9f81-95b9c1dbe824 | The superior oblique muscle is supplied by4th cranial nerve. | Anatomy | null | The superior oblique muscle is supplied by?
A. 3rd cranial nerve
B. 4th cranial nerve
C. 5th cranial nerve
D. 6th cranial nerve
| 4th cranial nerve |
087bc458-396b-4d79-b73d-78fe6c781174 | Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin. 7-Dehydrocholesterol (an intermediate in the synthesis of cholesterol that accumulates in the skin) undergoes a nonenzymic reaction on exposure to ultraviolet light, yielding previtamin D. This undergoes a fuher reaction over a period of hours to form cholecalciferol, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Only when sunlight exposure is inadequate is a dietary source required. Most of its actions are mediated by way of nuclear receptors that regulate gene expression. It also has a role in regulating cell proliferation and differentiation. Ref: Bender D.A. (2011). Chapter 44. Micronutrients: Vitamins & Minerals. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following vitamin is NOT required from diet?
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Vitamin-A
D. Vitamin-D
| Vitamin-D |
cb41f1e7-911c-4dd9-949f-a27bbb6098d5 | Ref Robbins 9/e p240-241 Classically, this disease is characterized by the following: * Absent or markedly decreased numbers of B cells in the circulation, with depressed serum levels of all classes of immunoglobulins. The numbers of pre-B cells in the bone marrow may be normal or reduced. * Underdeveloped or rudimentary germinal centers in peripheral lymphoid tissues, including lymph nodes, Peyer patches, the appendix, and tonsils * Absence of plasma cells throughout the body * Normal T cell-mediated responses | Anatomy | General anatomy | Diagnosis of x linked agammaglobulinamia should be suspected if
A. Absent tonsils and no palpable lymph nodes on physical examination
B. Female sex
C. High iso hemagglutinin titers
D. Low CD3
| Absent tonsils and no palpable lymph nodes on physical examination |
79460587-d579-46dd-ada9-5066afa95aaa | A symmetrical and slightly warm area of erythema on the thenar and hypothenar eminences of the palm in chronic liver disease patients is referred to as palmar erythema. Features of Palmar Erythema May have a mottled appearance or blanch when pressed. Not associated with pain, itch or scaling. May involve the palmar aspect of the fingers and proximal nail folds Causes of palmar erythema Primary causes Secondary causes Hereditary - rare Pregnancy - common Senile Chronic liver disease Autoimmune (e.g. Rheumatoid ahritis) Endocrine causes -Hypehyroid Neoplastic | Medicine | Misc. | Palmar erythema is seen in:
A. CCF
B. ARF
C. CRF
D. Hepatic failure
| Hepatic failure |
edf5a7fc-af51-4b32-8579-b1f148727b30 | Larynx & trachea -Stomach, intestines & Spleen -Liver (foamy liver) lings-Brain -Hea - Kidneys, bladder -Prostate, uterus-Skin, muscle, tendon - Bones Larynx is the earliest organQto putrefy. Nulliparous uterusQis the last organQto putrefy, gravid uterus and uterus soon after delivery putrefies rapidly In males, ProstateQis the last organ to putrefy Optimum temperature for putrefaction Q | Forensic Medicine | Thanatology | First internal organ to putrefy
A. Hea
B. Brain
C. Larynx
D. Kidney
| Larynx |
70d7bc1f-a4c9-480b-835d-803600e9c418 | One of the impoant recommendations of the Bhore Committee was Integration of preventive and curative services at all administrative levels (refer pgno:873 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | Bhore committee advised -
A. Integration of health services
B. 100% immunisation
C. Eradication of povey
D. Minimum needs programme
| Integration of health services |
b67fde7c-787f-4e4c-a7fe-d543868f586f | Ideally the schedule of antenatal visits should be : Monthly visit upto 28 weeks Two weekly visit between 28 and 36 weeks Weekly visit from 36 week onwards This means a total of 12-15 visits. Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 89. | Anatomy | General obstetrics | Ideal number of antenatal visits:
A. 14-Dec
B. 8-Jun
C. 9-Jul
D. 11-Oct
| 14-Dec |
8156240c-3975-4a9d-b583-bff08bb0cef0 | Contraindications of gastric lavage: Absolute: Corrosives to prevent fuher damage from perforation (except carbolic acid - causes leathery mucosa of stomach - no risk of perforation). Relative: 1. Convulsant - may induce more convulsions 2. Comatose - |change of aspiration.3. Varices - can cause bleeding 4. Volatile - hydrocarbons / kerosene: risk of aspiration reading to chemical pneumonitis. | Forensic Medicine | FMGE 2018 | Gastric lavage is contraindicated in?
A. Organo-Phosphosphate poisoning
B. Hydrocarbons
C. Bicarbonate
D. PCM toxicity
| Hydrocarbons |
7f1d31df-f03d-41ff-9a47-19ba9530c392 | Risk of dysplasia and colorectal cancer is higher in ulcerative colitis than in the general population. The severity, duration, and anatomic extent of the inflammation are risk factors for the development of dysplasia and cancer. These cancers do not seem to follow the adenoma carcinoma sequence and can arise in flat mucosa making them difficult to detect even with regular colonoscopies. After 8-10 years of colitis surveillance colonoscopy should be performed with multiple random biopsies. The finding of dysplasia is an indication for immediate total proctocolectomy. Centers have reported up to 42% of colons removed for dysplasia also had colon cancer. | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | Ten years after diagnosis of total proctocolitis this patient undergoes colonoscopy and biopsy reveals high-grade dysplasia in 2-10 specimens. What should the physician recommend?
A. Repeat colonoscopy in 1 year
B. Increase steroid dosage
C. Early repeat colonoscopy and biopsy area again
D. Total proctocolectomy
| Total proctocolectomy |
74a2f2d2-97c5-41da-9c6d-56ebbe1dac97 | Ans. (b) CimetidineRef Appendix-39 for 'Drugs causinggynaecomastia" | Pharmacology | Adverse Drug Effect | Gynaecomastia is caused by?
A. Flutamide
B. Cimetidine
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Methotrexate
| Cimetidine |
cb32a48d-7e93-4bdd-b549-77fefc85ac28 | a. Endocardial cushion defect(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 610-614)Most common cardiac defect in Down syndrome is Endocardial cushion defect or Atrioventricular septal defect | Pediatrics | Genetics And Genetic Disorders | Most common heart lesion in down syndrome:
A. Endocardial cushion defect
B. ASD with ostium secundum
C. VSD
D. Coarctation of aorta
| Endocardial cushion defect |
a485fee4-ad16-498d-91f6-4c9644581c28 | Ref. Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology BY Parija. Page. 487
Most common infection is CMV.
Below is the table of the infections in transplant recipients (Very important from Harrisons) | Unknown | null | Most common infection occurs in transplant recipients:
A. Cytomegalo virus
B. Epstein Barr virus
C. Hepatitis virus
D. Polyoma virus
| Cytomegalo virus |
0b785481-e4e1-4542-90bb-ecfa423780ea | Tc99 MDP - bone scanTh201-myocardial imagingTc99 DMSA-Renal coical scintigraphyTc99 sulphur colloid - Liver and spleen scintigraphy(Ref: Radiology Review ManualBy Wolfgang Dahne 6thEtd, Page no:1084) | Radiology | All India exam | Which bone scan is done to detect metastasis bone
A. Tc99 MDP
B. Th201
C. Tc99 DMSA
D. Tc99 sulphur colloid
| Tc99 MDP |
faf919cc-3104-4c8a-b346-98ca5037a927 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., DNS Cottle test : It is used to test nasal obstruction due to abnormality of nasal valve as in case of deted nasal septum. In this test, cheek is drawn laterally while the patient breathes quietly. If the nasal airway improves on the test side, the test is positive, and indicates abnormality of the vestibular component of nasal valve. | ENT | null | Cottle test is used for ?
A. Septal perforation
B. Rhinophyma
C. Choanal atresia
D. DNS
| DNS |
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