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bc096c55-984b-4033-b2ff-f8ec504ee6c6 | Triage is an impoant pa of disaster management. Triage consist of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of severity of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 857 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | While managing a mass disaster, the term "Triage" applies to -
A. It is the principle of "first come, first treated"
B. It is the classification of the injured on the basis of severity of injuries, with the concept of treating the most seriously injured first
C. It is the classification of the injured on the basis of severity of injuries, with the concept of treating the children and adoslecents first
D. It is the classification of the injured on the basis of severity of injuries, with the concept of treating those first who are likely to survive with medical intervention
| It is the classification of the injured on the basis of severity of injuries, with the concept of treating those first who are likely to survive with medical intervention |
a7838452-37fb-492a-87bd-93b72fb2b693 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyloric stenosisDiagnosis of congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis o History of vomiting without bile (nonbilious vomiting).o Physical examination ?i) Palpable mass in the epigastriumii) After feeding, visible gastric peristatic wave that progresses across the abdomen.USG confirm the diagnosis Criteria --> Pyloric thickness > 4 mm or an overall pyloric length > 14 mm.o Contrast studies ?i) Shoulder sign A bulge of the pyloric muscle into the antrum.ii) Double tract sign -> Parallel streaks of barium in the narrowed channel.iii) Elongated pyloric channel.So the boy is having pyloric stenosis. The only problem is age of boy i.e 6 yrs. The hyperophic pyloric stenosis which we know of, makes its clinical presentation in early infancy (3rd to 6th weeks of life)o But the problem in solved once you know that there is a similar disease in adults - Hyperophic pyloric stenosis of adults. (Bailey & Love, 22th/e, p 675). | Pediatrics | null | A 6 year old boy presenting with palpable abdominal mass in the epigastrium. The clinical diagnosis is (There is no bile in vomitus)-
A. Duodenal Atresia
B. Choledochal cyst
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Oesophageal Atresia
| Pyloric stenosis |
7c9a8e6f-6ba6-47e1-a61d-be2387bbd091 | Ref: Synopsis of forensic medicine and toxicology (K.S.Narayan Reddy) 28th edition, page no. 214 Aboion Stick: This is a thin wood or bamboo stick, from 12 to 13 cm long. This stick is wrapped round at one end or for a greater poion of its length with cotton-wool or a piece of cloth, and socked with juice of marking nut, calotropis, abrus precatorius, asafoetida or paste made of arsenious oxide, arsenic sulphate, red lead etc. It is introduced into the vagina or is of uterus by untrained midwives, and retained there till uterine contraction begin. The uterus contract, cervix dilate and foetus gets out. | Forensic Medicine | Sexual offences and infanticide | Aboion stick used in criminal aboion causes aboion by the mechanism of -
A. Uterine contraction
B. Stimulation of uterine nerves
C. Uterine infection & necrosis
D. Placental separation
| Uterine contraction |
93b97807-b697-4f39-bf78-407ecc34092d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Listeria monocytogens Listeria monocytogens exhibits characteristic, slow, tumbling motility when grown at 25degC but at 37degC it is non motile. | Microbiology | null | Microorganism motile at 25deg C but not motile at 37deg C-
A. Listeria monocytogens
B. Campylobacter
C. Yersinia pestis
D. Streptococcus agalctiae
| Listeria monocytogens |
d6bdd631-33a9-48e8-901f-ea383dbe06cf | Ans. B Para-axial mesenchymeRef: Gray's Anatomy, 41st ed. pg. 212* The axial skeleton, vertebrae and ribs are derived from paraxial mesenchyme* The skull is derived from paraxial mesenchyme and neural crest mesenchyme* The skeletal elements in the limbs are derived from somatopleuric mesenchyme, which forms the limb buds. | Anatomy | Thorax | Ribs develop from:
A. Endothoracic fascia
B. Para-axial mesenchyme
C. Deep intercostal fascia
D. Superficial intercostal fascia
| Para-axial mesenchyme |
920b8285-ba7d-4365-ad24-05ce129c8fbd | GLUT2 is the glucose transpoer present in the betacells and liver cells.It has a high Km for glucose.Hence entry of glucose is directly propoional to the glucose level.It is an insul;in independent transpo. GLUT3 is present in brain and GLUT4 medites insulin dependent transpo of glucose into muscle and adipose tissue. Ref: Murray R.K., Granner D.K. (2011). Chapter 40. Membranes: Structure & Function. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Which among the following glucose transpoer present in beta cells ?
A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4
| GLUT2 |
29b6c067-661d-45a3-8f66-2bfc3ae1d1a2 | ethyl and isopropyl alcohols are commonly used as antiseptics and disinfectants.when diluted with water ,they have potent bactericidal,fungicidal,virucidal and tuberculocidal propeies ,but doesnot destro spores.phenol and aldehydes are slowly effective against spores and gram negative bacteria. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 121 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Which one of the following disinfectant is not effective in killing spores?
A. Alcohol
B. Aldehyde
C. Halogen
D. Phenol
| Alcohol |
bc1791ba-85f2-48c7-a5b4-97bd371698bf | Oniomania Irresistible desire to buy things (shopping addiction) Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 360 | Anatomy | Special topics | Irresistible desire to buy something is
A. Mutilomania
B. Dipsomania
C. Oniomania
D. Trichotilomania
| Oniomania |
4c4c8ee6-6ce1-4ba3-9f37-c0d289196861 | Ref:Harsh Mohan - Textbook of Pathology, 6th Edition.page no.462 BRONCHOPULMONARY SEQUESTRATION Sequestration is the presence of lobes or segments of lung tissue which are not connected to the airway system. The blood supply of the sequestered area is not from the pulmonary aeries but from the aoa or its branches. Sequestration may be intralobar or extralobar. Intralobar sequestration is the sequestered bronchopulmonary mass within the pleural covering of the affected lung. Extralobar sequestration is the sequestered mass of lung tissue lying outside the pleural investing layer such as in the base of left lung or below the diaphragm. The extralobar sequestration is predominantly seen in infants and children and is often associated with other congenital malformations. | Pathology | Respiratory system | Bronchogenic sequestration is seen in whicj lobe -
A. Lefto lower lobe
B. Right upper lobe
C. Left middle lobe
D. Left upper lobe
| Lefto lower lobe |
450238f4-74a7-4bfc-8d9a-9d58a2544393 | Paratharmone is a polypeptide harmone.
Dopamine and thyroxine is amino acid derivative.
Cortisol is a steroid harmone. | Physiology | null | Which of the following harmone is an example of peptide harmone?
A. Paratharmone
B. Dopamine
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
| Paratharmone |
4f1a6f23-ea96-469b-9710-c32c8a2f205a | Stage 2 sleep, a component of Non REM sleep is characterised by the presence of sleep spindles and K complexes. Sleep spindles appears as sinusoidal waves occurring at a frequency of 12-14 Hz. K complexes are occasional high voltage biphasic waves. Stage 1 sleep is characterised by the presence of theta waves 4-Hz). In stage 3 of NREM sleep, a high-amplitude delta rhythm (0.5-4 Hz) are seen. Stage 4 of NREM sleep is characterised by the presence of slow waves. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 14. Electrical Activity of the Brain, Sleep--Wake States, & Circadian Rhythms. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | Physiology | null | EEG taken during which of the following sleep stages shows sleep spindles?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
| Stage 2 |
39423a39-a3f5-415e-a715-71f4c99ae651 | Compliance is a measure of distensibility 1 static compliance(compliance when lungs at rest) Causes of decreased static compliance : a) interstitial fibrosis b)atelectasis c)pneumonia d) pulmonary edema e) ARDS 2 dynamic compliance:compliance with airway resistance Decreased in Broncho spasm like asthma. | Medicine | Respiratory system | Lung compliance is increased in
A. The presence of intra-alveolar fluid
B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Emphysema
| Emphysema |
328448bc-4bb7-46e5-a165-48e0154607fa | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2 rounds of DDT per year with active and passive surveillance | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | If in a locality API is more than 2, the folloiwng is done-
A. 2 round of DDT per year with active surveillance
B. 2 rounds of DDT per year with active and passive surveillance
C. Only active and passive surveillance
D. 2 rounds of DDT per year only
| 2 rounds of DDT per year with active and passive surveillance |
b87fc5e2-fe0f-4903-86c7-4c6df3830544 | ERYTHRODERMA:-Erythema and scaling involving more than 90% of the body surface area. When scaling is the predominant feature-exfoliative dermatitis. Etiology:-1. Pre existing skin disease-psoriasis,lichen planus,contact dermatitis,seborrheic dermatitis,crusted scabies.2. Drugs- Allopurinol,Dapsone,Gold,Nifedipine,Sulpha drugs,isoniazid etc.3. Malignancy-lymphoma,leukemia.4. Idiopathic. Clinical features-Widespread erythema and scaling involving more than 90% of body surface.Fever with chills.Diffuse hair loss and nail dystrophy.Nail shedding. Treatment: Fluid and electrolyte balance.Replenishment of protein and iron.Treatment of underlying cause iadvl Textbook of dermatology page 490 | Dental | Dermatitis | Erythroderma % of skin involved is -
A. >90%
B. <30%
C. 30-60%
D. 60-70%
| >90% |
e44cae45-ba24-4b31-b13f-869276d29d2c | Operate without formal consent is necessary in this case, delay will lead to death of the patient. Ref: Parikh's Textbook of Medical Jurisprudence Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 5th Edition, Page 569 and 6th Edition, Page 1.37 | Forensic Medicine | null | A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requires urgent cranial decompression, doctor should:
A. Operate without formal consent
B. Take police consent
C. Wait for relatives to take consent
D. Take magistrate consent
| Operate without formal consent |
b1f79ff4-0f34-4e75-a22b-07f8873c52ce | Pelvis is the most common intraperitoneal abscess.(50-60%).It is the collection of pus in rectovesical or rectouterine pouch(pouch of Douglas). The pelvis is the commonest site of an intraperitoneal abscess because the vermiform appendix is often pelvic in position and the fallopian tubes are frequent sites of infection. Reference:Bailey & Love's sho practise of surgery,25th edition,page no:996;SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:576. | Surgery | G.I.T | The commonest site of an intraperitoneal abscess
A. Pelvis
B. Subphrenic space
C. Periappendicular
D. Paracolic gutter
| Pelvis |
811346a3-39b6-4f27-9032-8a77e6e24a28 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hereditary spherocytosis o Hereditary spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant disorder,o Other three disorders (given in question) are autosomal recessive.Autosomal dominant disordersNervousUrinaryGITHematologicalSkeletalMetabolico Huntington diseaseo Polycystic kidneyo Familial polyposis colio Heriditary sph-erocytosiso Marfan synd-romeo Familial hypercho-lesterolemiao Neurofibro-matosis o Gardner's syndromeo Von-Willibrand diso EDS (some variant)o Acute intermittent porphyriao Myotonic dys-trohy o Turcot's syndrome o Osteogenesis imperfecta o Tuberous scle-rosis o Lynch syndrome o Achondroplasia o Retinoblastoma o Peutz Jagher's syndrome o Juvenile polyposis | Pathology | Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects | Following is transmitted as autosomal dominant disorder -
A. Albinism
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Glycogen storage disease
| Hereditary spherocytosis |
197f95eb-55d3-4847-bf45-41deb114cb63 | Lateral decubitus view is the best view to detect minimal pleural effusion. | Radiology | null | Minimal pleural effusion is best detected by X–ray...view –
A. A.P.
B. P.A
C. Lateral
D. Oblique
| Lateral |
7ebc76cd-6ac9-485f-b960-9eaeff4da121 | Ans. B Facial aery The aerial supply to the tonsil derives mainly from the tonsillar branch of the facial aery and the descending palatine aery; veins drain into the pharyngeal plexus and the lymphatic drainage from the tonsil is into the upper deep cervical lymph nodes, which may enlarge during tonsillar infection. The tonsil is supplied by five aeries a. Tonsillar branch of facial- This is the main aery b. Ascending pharyngeal aery from external carotid c. Ascending palatine - a branch of facial aery d. Dorsal linguae branches of lingual aery e. Descending palatine branch of the maxillary aery. | ENT | null | Aerial supply of tonsil is mainly by:
A. Maxillary aery
B. Tonsillar branch of facial aery
C. Middle meningeal aery
D. Internal carotid aery
| Tonsillar branch of facial aery |
b3efa7be-9363-4ba0-b4c8-01c57dc03989 | absorption by lymphatics "A negative force is always required on the outside of the lungs to keep the lungs expanded. This is provided by negative pressure in the normal pleural space. The basic cause of this negative pressure is pumping of fluid from the space by the lymphatics (which is also the basis of the negative pressure found in most tissue spaces of the body)."- Guyton 11/e p489 The intrapleural pressure is usually about -7 mm Hg (a few millimeters of mercury more negative than the collapse pressure of the lungs). The intrapleural pressure is more negative at the apex of lung than at bases. | Physiology | null | Negative intrapleural pressure is due to:
A. uniform distribution of surfactant over alveoli
B. negative intraalveolar pressure
C. absorption b lymphatics
D. presence of cailage in the upper airway
| absorption b lymphatics |
c8eda208-b684-44ef-9e55-4468a6c2c72f | Galactorrhea is fairly common up to old age. The discharge may vary in color from brown to milky. Hormonal causes are associated with elevated prolactin levels or with pituitary or thyroid disorders. Tranquilizers have also been implicated. Simple abscesses do not cause galactorrhea. | Surgery | Breast | Galactorrhea, a milky discharge from the nipple in nonpregnant women, is most likely to be associated with which of the following?
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Tubular adenoma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Hyperparathyroidism
| Pituitary adenoma |
0cf61ffb-7b29-4cfb-8a69-aa52311a97a5 | In lens, the enzyme aldose reductase reduces monosaccharides to corresponding sugar alcohols; glucose to sorbitol and galactose to galactitol. POLYOL PATHWAY OF GLUCOSE - Sorbitol is very poorly absorbed from intestine. It involves the reduction of glucose by aldose reductase to sorbitol, which can then be oxidized to fructose. This would amount to the interconversion of glucose to fructose. Glucose when conveed to sorbitol, cannot diffuse out of the cell easily and gets trapped there. Sorbitol is normally present in lens of eyes. But in diabetes mellitus, when glucose level is high, the sorbitol concentration also increases in the lens. This leads to osmotic damage of the tissue and development of cataract. Galactitol also causes cataract. REF: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK OF BIOCHEMISTRY, SIXTH EDITION, PG.NO.,119,588. | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Glucose is conveed to sorbitol by
A. Aldolase B
B. Aldose reductase
C. Sorbitol Dehydrogenase
D. UDP galactose 4 epimerase
| Aldose reductase |
e2676d6a-89bb-4148-aeee-4193855f89c6 | Infraspinatus bursa may communicate with the shoulder joint. Subacromial bursa separates the acromion process and the coracoacromial ligaments from supraspinatus tendon and permit smooth motion. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 148 | Anatomy | Upper limb | Bursa communicating with the shoulder joint space is
A. Infraspinatous bursa
B. Subscapular bursa
C. Subcoracoid bursa
D. Subacromian bursa
| Subscapular bursa |
2b11354c-0ea8-44d6-a377-955e7119f2cc | Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of Aedes aegypti mosquito. Parvovirus transmission through respiratory route and blood. Hepatitis by parental, sexual and perinatal. Cytomegalovirus - transmitted by transplacental route, postnatal infection by sexual intercourse, blood transfusion and organ transplantation. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition. | Microbiology | Virology | Viral infection not transmitted by blood transfusion is
A. Parvovirus B-19
B. Dengue virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Hepatitis G virus
| Dengue virus |
04adf30b-13c7-4a02-99a5-2622a32a4f9b | Among the options given, SLE is associated with non erosive type ahritis most commonly affecting the hands and wrists. Subluxation or dislocation without erosive disease is the hallmark of SLE. | Medicine | null | Which of the following condition result in ahritis without erosion of the bones?
A. Psoriasis
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Osteoahritis
D. SLE
| SLE |
eb86ccbc-a5ab-4c72-85b8-d88c0796f794 | Grand multigravida - >= 5 times pregnant Problems related : Malpresentation Meconium stained liquor Placenta pre Abruption ' PPH Umbilical cord prolapse Low apgar score | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | FMGE 2019 | A grand multipara is a women who has given bih to bihs:
A. >2
B. >3
C. >4
D. >=5
| >=5 |
0e2befe2-1361-4e77-8c12-777dabc107e3 | (B) (Albendazole) (3431-H 18th)* Albendazole 15 mg/kg daily for a minimum of 8 days has become the drug of choice for parenchymal neurocysticercosis (380- Davidson 22nd)* Approximately 85% of parenclymal cysts are destroyed by a single course fo albendazole and 75% are destroyed by a single course of praziquantel for 15 days (3431- H 18th)Drug of choice for CNS toxoplasmosis is combination of sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine ** | Medicine | Infection | Treatment of choice in neurocysticercoses of T. Solium
A. Mebendazole
B. Albendazole
C. Praziquentel
D. Metronidazole
| Albendazole |
7b8079ab-082b-437f-917a-0b88ce780e46 | At 3 years, a child can name 2 colors. At 5 years, a child can name 5 colors. DQ = Developmental age x 100/actual age 6 year old child has a DQ of 50; so his developmental age is 3 years. So he can do milestones corresponding to 3 years only. Gross Development delay=It occurs when DQ is less than 70% in >= 2 domains of development. Speaks sho sentences- at 2 years (child can speak 2 word sentences at 2 years and 3 word sentences at 3 years) Ride a tricycle- at 3 yrs Copy a triangle- at 5 years Since option 2 is the only milestone the child has reached the answer is 2. THERE IS NO MILESTONE LIKE RIDING A BICYCLE | Pediatrics | Abnormalities of Development | A 6 year old child has a DQ of 50. Which of the following can the child do?
A. Identifies 5 colors
B. Speaks sho sentences
C. Ride a bicycle
D. Copy a triangle
| Speaks sho sentences |
08c69f87-fbc7-4e84-99cf-6bad6eea0983 | LEFT CORONARY AERY It is larger than the right coronary aery.It arises from the left posterior aoic sinus. Branches A.Large branches 1.Anterior interventricular 2.Branches to the diaphragmatic surface of the left ventricle,including a large diagonal branch. B.Small branches 1.Left atrial 2.Pulmonary 3.Terminal REF.B D Chaurasia's human anatomy vol.1.fifth edition BD CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY.VOL.1.FIFTH EDITION.PAGE NO 252 | Anatomy | Thorax | Anterior interventricular aery is a branch of
A. Right coronary aery
B. Left coronary aery
C. Circumflex aery
D. Left anterior descending aery
| Left coronary aery |
0743454c-e310-4414-84f6-a6c1a632db7f | Ref-Katzung 11/e p947 Capecitabine and 5-FU can cause hand and foot syndrome | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | Hand and foot syndrome is an adverse effect of
A. 5-Flurouracil
B. Bleomycin
C. Etoposide
D. Actinomycin-D
| 5-Flurouracil |
9e823728-e976-4d49-b384-2dec2e26058f | A i.e. T3 & T4 measurement to rule out thyrotoxicosis | Ophthalmology | null | Kamla, age 48 yrs, presents with unilateral mild axial proptosis. There is no redness or pain. Investigation of choice is :
A. T3 &T4 measurements to rule out thyrotoxicosis
B. CT scan to rule out meningioma
C. Doppler to rule out hemangioma
D. USG to rule out orbital pseudotumor
| T3 &T4 measurements to rule out thyrotoxicosis |
fe8145bf-0f29-48df-a19b-f7aebecae2e1 | Prolactin secretion is under negative feedback control of hypothalamus through the release of dopamine, which normally exerts a tonic inhibition. There is no known specific hypothalamic prolactin releasing hormone.
Hormones of the Anterior Pituitary : | Physiology | null | Which of the following does not have a corresponding releasing hormone from the hypothalamus?
A. FSH
B. TSH
C. ACTH
D. Prolactin
| Prolactin |
7c7ef5e9-2d4e-4fe6-82db-6de5fd31f903 | Adipocytes (Ref: Harper 28/e, p138, 171 (26/e p160, 232); Lippincott Biochem 3/e p310; Ganong23/e p320] Overnight fasting causes insulin levels to fall. This decreases the number of glucose transpoers which are insulin dependent. Insulin dependent glucose transpoers are GLUT-4, present in adipocytes, skeletal and cardiac muscles. Rest of the glucose transpoers are not insulin dependent. Harper writes-"Glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue is controlled by insulin, which is secreted by the B islet cells of the pancreas in response to an increased concentration of glucose in the poal blood. An early response to insulin in muscle and adipose tissue is the migration of glucose transpoer vesicles to the cell surface, exposing active glucose transpoers (GLUT 4). These insulin-sensitive tissues will only take up glucose from the blood stream to any significant extent in the presence of the hormone. As insulin secretion falls in the starved state, so the transpoers are internalized again, reducing glucose uptake" Glucose Transpoers Glucose enters cells either by facilitated diffusion or by secondary active transpo with No+ (in the intestine and kidneys) Glucose transpoers are a family of membrane proteins that are responsible for facilitated diffusion of glucose across cell membranes. They differ from and have no homology with the sodium-dependent glucose transpoers, SGLT 1 and SGLT 2, responsible for the secondary active transpo of glucose in the intestine and renal tubules. Seven different glucose transpoers, named GLUT 1-7 in order of discovery. have been characterized. Each transpoer appears to have evolved for special tasks. GLUT 4 is the transpoer in muscle and adipose tissue that is stimulated by insulin. Glucose Transpoers in Mammals Function Major Sites of Expression Facilitated diffusion GLUT 1 Basal glucose uptake Brain, kidney, colon, placenta, erythrocytes GLUT 2 B-cell glucose sensor; transpo out of intestinal and renal epithelial cells B cells of pancreatic islets, liver, small intestine, kidneys GLUT 3 Basal glucose uptake Brain, placenta, kidneys GLUT 4 Insulin-stimulated glucose uptake Skeletal and cardiac muscle, adipose tissue GLUT 5 Fructose transpo Jejunum, sperm GLUT 6 None Pseudogene GLUT 7 Glucose 6-phosphate transpoer in endoplasmic reticulurn Liver, ? other tissues Secondary active transpo (Nal? glucose cotranspo) SGLT 1 Absorption of glucose Small intestine, renal tubules SGLT 2 Absorption of glucose Renal tubules | Biochemistry | null | After overnight fasing, levels of glucosetranpoers reduced in
A. Brain cells
B. RBCs
C. Adipocytes
D. Hepatocytes
| Adipocytes |
7f6297d4-f95e-4655-a208-424e2851bf43 | PRIMARY AMOEBIC ENCEPHALITIS :- - Infection spreads post swimming in contaminated water. - Enters Olfactory mucosa in nose Treatment: Miltefosine + Amphotericin B | Medicine | parasitic infection | How is primary amoebic meningoencephalitis most likely acquired?
A. Diving or swimming in contaminated water
B. Intravenous drug abuse
C. Using human excrement as vegetable feilizer
D. Eating raw fish or seafood
| Diving or swimming in contaminated water |
59e53ea2-fbb5-4a00-928d-c67235bf6ea2 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IFN gamma Granulomatous inflammation is a form of chronic inflammation characterized by collections of activated macrophages, often with T lymphocytes, and sometimes associated with central necrosis. These granulomas are type IV hypersensitivity reaction that involves CD4-helper T-cells. Helper T-cells are activated by IL-2 and produce IFN-y (interferon gamma) the major cytokine of granulomatous inflammation. IFN-y induces formation of granuloma by conversion of activated macrophages into epitheloid cells and formation of giant cells by fusion of epithelial cells. | Pathology | null | Cytokine for activating macrophage and conveing to epitheloid cell or giant cell ?
A. IL2
B. IL 17
C. TNF alpha
D. IFN gamma
| IFN gamma |
d928a80f-cb78-486f-9846-7ac75a9d76c1 | Erythematous, well-defined, dry plaque with well-defined outer border and loss of appendages. Satellite lesions can be observed surrounding the large plaque. BT leprosy in Type 1 reaction presenting with ulnar nerve abscess and subsequent deformity in the form of ulnar clawing Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1234 | Dental | Bacterial infections | Satellite lesions are seen in
A. Indeterminate leprosy
B. Borderline leprosy
C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
D. Tubeculoid leprosy
| Tubeculoid leprosy |
8f5c0144-a2b6-4be8-9bea-778a628c3faa | The relationship between depression and disease progression is multifactorial and likely to involve psychological and social factors, alterations in immune function, and central nervous system disease. Chronic hepatitis C infection is associated with depression, which may worsen with interferon-a treatment. | Pathology | All India exam | Chronic hepatitis C infection is associated with which psychological illness that may worsen with IF-a treatment?
A. OCD
B. PTSD
C. Depression
D. Schizophrenia
| Depression |
6e2c44a8-5383-45b2-a839-f22110a458d5 | The treatment options for steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome are:
Calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, Tacrolinzus)
IV or oral cyclophosphamide
Levamisol
Mycophenolate
Pulse corticosteroid
All above immunosuppressants are used along with corticosteroids (Prednisolone or methylprednisolone).
Cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide are most commonly used.
Despite these options, there is a lack of consensus on first line appropriate therapy for steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome.
According to Indian Journal of pediatric (vol. 46, Jan 17, 2009) the efficacy of these drugs are (in decreasing order): Tacrolimus + Prednisolone > cyclosporine + Prednisolone > IV cyclophosphamide + Prednisolone > Pulse Corticosteroids (IV dexamethasone + oral cyclophosphamide + Prednisolne) > oral cyclophosphamide + Predniso-lone.
So, amongst the given options, best answer is cyclosporine. | Pediatrics | null | A child comes with steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome secondary to FSGS, not responsive to methylprednisolone. What next should be given –
A. Oral cyclophosphamide
B. Oral cyclosporine
C. Oral mycophenolate
D. IV cyclophosphamide
| Oral cyclosporine |
d56c5c68-340a-4d70-b8ae-697c08653614 | The increased speed of the air flowing through the nose decreases the pressure in the nasal cavity (Bernoulli's theorem) which pulls down the polyp. | ENT | null | Bernoulli's theorem explains -
A. Nasal polyp
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Zenker's diverticulum
D. Laryngomalacia
| Nasal polyp |
29f77ef3-4faa-46dc-b87c-13bde5bc2055 | Ref Robbins 8/e p116-118 Von Willebrand Factor's primary function is binding to other proteins, in paicular factor VIII, and it is impoant in platelet adhesion to wound sites. It is not an enzyme and, thus, has no catalytic activity. VWF binds to a number of cells and molecules. The most impoant ones are: Factor VIII is bound to VWF while inactive in circulation; factor VIII degrades rapidly when not bound to VWF. Factor VIII is released from VWF by the action of thrombin. In the absence of VWF, factor VIII has a half-life of 1-2 hours; when carried by intact VWF, factor VIII has a half-life of 8-12 hours. VWF binds to collagen, e.g., when collagen is exposed beneath endothelial cells due to damage occurring to the blood vessel. Endothelium also releases VWF which forms additional links between the platelets' glycoprotein Ib/IX/V and the collagen fibrils | Anatomy | General anatomy | Platelet adhesion to collagen is mediated by which of the following
A. Factor 8
B. Factor 9
C. Von willebrand factor
D. Fibronectin
| Von willebrand factor |
0df429b9-806a-44e3-bf8d-160272db03e6 | Muscle spindles are sensory receptors within the belly of a muscle that primarily detect changes in the length of this muscle. They convey length information to the central nervous system sensory neurons. Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg 71 | Physiology | General physiology | Muscle spindle detects
A. Tension
B. Length
C. Proprioception
D. Stretch
| Length |
ea4c19f4-4e56-4c2c-bac0-c159769581d0 | Answer- C. Prostate cancerCancers in males in India: Lip / oralcavity > Prostate > Colorectum > Pharynx (other than nssopharynx) > Larytx | Surgery | null | Most common cancer in men is
A. Bladder cancer
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Oral cancer
| Prostate cancer |
cb529d1e-e0bc-424a-ac2c-5ba79adf6ae4 | Large dose of insulin injection will cause hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycemia triggers increased secretion of at least four counterregulatory hormones: glucagon, epinephrine, growth hormone, and coisol. Insulin inhibits glucagon secretion, so low blood glucose has an indirect effect on glucagon secretion through removal of inhibition by insulin. Circulating catecholamines stimulate secretion of glucagon b2-adrenergic receptors Even mild hypoglycaemia is sensed by the CNS, which triggers a central sympathetic response. Glucagon and epinephrine increase the hepatic output of glucose by increasing glycogenolysis. The keys to counter-regulation appear to be glucagon>epinephrine Plasma glucose levels at which various effects of hypoglycemia appear : | Physiology | Endocrine System | Which set of hormonal changes is most likely to occur in the plasma in response to the large dose of insulin injection?
A. Growth Hormone Glucagon Epinephrine | | -
B. Growth Hormone Glucagon Epinephrine - | |
C. Growth Hormone Glucagon Epinephrine | | |
D. Growth Hormone Glucagon Epinephrine | | |
| Growth Hormone Glucagon Epinephrine | | | |
2301c603-5f3c-4689-a151-5d36f6f3f86c | Loxoscelism is caused by the bite of brown recluse spider/violin/fiddle back spider. Blister and rove beetles release vesicating fluid when it is crushed against skin resulting in acute irritant contact dermatitis. Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 8th Edition, Page 38.26, 38.32. | Skin | null | Loxoscelism is a condition caused by the bite of which of the following?
A. Brown recluse spider
B. Blister beetle
C. Rove beetle
D. Thunder fly
| Brown recluse spider |
b2dfc2b1-657d-4003-83ed-0631bb035252 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reuptake o Metabolism does not play an impoant role in terminating the action of neuronally releases CAs. o It is axonal uptake which is responsible for terminating the action of CAs. | Pharmacology | null | Norepinephrine action at synaptic cleft is terminated by-
A. Metabolism by COMT
B. Metabolism by MAO
C. Reuptake
D. Metabolism by acetylchelinesterase
| Reuptake |
d499a3fa-d4ac-4bbd-9b9c-c7b0b5b64f7d | Aspirin inactivates cyclo-oxygenase by irreversible acetylation of the enzyme and thereby inhibit the synthesis of throboxane A2. From medical pharmacology padmaja 4th edition Page no 344 | Pharmacology | Hematology | Mechanism of action of aspirin is inhibition of:
A. Thromboxane A2 synthesis
B. Phosphodiesterase
C. HMG-CoA reductase
D. Pancreatic lipase
| Thromboxane A2 synthesis |
3506aed7-6255-497c-9084-8aa52f53bf50 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., EmphysemaPathogenesis of Emphysema The most accepted theory in the pathogenesis of emphysema is protease - antiprotease mechanism which is responsible in the pathogenesis of two common forms of emphysema, i.e. centriacinar and panacinar.o The alveolar wall destruction results from an imbalance between proteases (mainly elastase) and antiproteases in the lung.o Proteases (elastase) cause destruction of alveolar wall, while antiproteases prevent this damage.o acantitrypsin is the major antiprotease (antielastase) secreted by neutrophils during inflammation.Pathogenesis of panacinar emphysemao Panacinar emphysema is associated with congenital deficiency of arantinypsin.o This results in unchecked overactivity of neutrophil elastase that causes destruction of alveolar wall.o As occantitrypsin is deficient throughout the acinus, the acini are uniformly involved from the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal blind alveoli.o Neutrophils are the major cells in the pathogenesis of panacinar emphysemaPathogenesis of centriacinar emphysemao Centriacinar emphysema is associated with smoking.o Nicotine acts as a direct chemoattractant for neutrophils and macrophages.So, in centriacinar emphysema, both neutrophils and macrophages play central role.Smoking enhances activity of neutrophil and macrophage elastase.o Macrophage elastase is not inhibited by a1-antitrypsin and indeed can proteolytically digest this antiprotease.Beside protease - antiprotease mechanism, oxidant - antioxidant imbalance also plays an impoant role in the pathogenesis of smoking related emphysema.o Normally, the lung contains a healthy complement of antioxidants (superoxide dismutase, glutathione).o Tobacco smoke contains abundant reactive oxygen species (free radicals) which deplete these antioxidant mechanisms.o Free radicals cause tissue damage as well as they inactivate occantitrypsin, resulting in functional acantitrypsin deficiency even in patients without enzyme deficiency.Why smoking related emphysema involves centriacinar poion ?The impaction of smoke paicles occurs predominantly at the bifurcation of respiratory bronchioles, resulting in the influx of neutrophils and macrophages, both of which secrete proteases. An increase in protease activity localized in the centriacinar region, together with the smoke induced oxidative damage, causes the centriacinar pattern of emphysema that is seen in smokers. | Pathology | null | Antitrypsin deficiency is associated with-
A. Restrictive lung pathology
B. Cystric fibrosis
C. Emphysema
D. Carcinoma
| Emphysema |
7a4eb85b-c9dd-4b20-980e-7e990c9e7885 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Precurrent 1. Types of disinfection Precurrent (prophylactic) disinfection o It is done as a preventive method (person is not ill). o For example --> Chlorination of water, pasteurization of milk, Handwashing. Concurrent disinfection 2. It is done when person is ill. o It is the application of disinfective measures as soon as possible after the discharge of infectious material from the body of patient or after the soiling of aicles with such material, i.e., the disease agent is destroyed as soon as it is released from the body, and in this way fuher spread of the agent is stopped. o e.g., disinfection of urine, faeces, vomit, contaminated linen, clothes, hands, dressing, aprons, gloves etc. 3. Terminal disinfection o It is the application of disinfective measures after the patient has taken discharge from hospital or he/she has died. e.g., disinfection of hospital rooms & floor, burning or burial of soiled material. Before illness Precurrent disinfection Illness Concurrent disinfection After illness Terminal disinfection | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Pasteurization is____________________disinfection
A. Precurrent
B. Concurrent
C. Preconcurrent
D. Terminal
| Precurrent |
e78103b3-05bb-4484-ae60-4ede2756ef5f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis Signs of lateral sinus thrombosis (sigmoid sinus thrombosis)o Griesinger's sign:- odema over the posterior part of mastoid due to thrombosis of mastoid emissary veinso Papilloedemao Tobey-Ayer testo Crowe-Beck test:- Pressure on jugular vein of healthy side produces engorgement of retinal veins. Pressure on affected side does not produce such changeo Tenderness along jugular vein | ENT | CSOM and its Complications | Edema over the mastoid is seen in-
A. Bell's Palsy
B. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
C. CSOM
D. ASOM
| Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis |
7823935d-437e-4df7-a9e1-9324856c43d8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. prostateRef. Parik 6th/e p3.26 (5th/e p164)Prostate & testis in male and non gravid uterus and ovaries in female are the last organs to putrefy:As a general rule organs show putrefaction in following order:Larynx and TracheaStomach intestine and spleenLiver, LungsBrainHeartKidney, bladder, uterus, prostateSkin, muscle, tendonsBones | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | Which one of the tissues putrefies late:
A. Brain
B. Prostate
C. Liver
D. Stomach
| Prostate |
62120b7e-9d76-49b3-bcd7-ea7775e7f613 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Periconceptional folic acid* Folic acid is given in periconceptional period to prevent neural tube defects (like Anencephaly).Has been explained in previous sessions. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | In a patient with history of anencephaly, what is the advise given?
A. Preiconceptional VIT A
B. Folic acid after conception
C. Periconceptional folic acid
D. Vit D as on conception
| Periconceptional folic acid |
71173db0-8a6d-49f4-b544-16ae68b3fa2c | Germ tube test / Reynold braude phenomenon - specific test for Candida albicans Colonies are mixed with human or sheep serum & incubated for 2 hours . Wet mount preparation is examined under microscope. Germ tubes are formed , describe as long tube like projections extending from yeast cells. | Microbiology | Mycology | Germ tube test is done for
A. Candida albicans
B. Candida tropicalis
C. Candida glabrata
D. Candida kefyr
| Candida albicans |
c75fe58b-bf10-465a-a387-bba8ebcc8aad | ANSWER: (A) OsteosarcomaREF: Khurana 4th ed p. 281Heritable germ line cases of retinoblastoma develop bilateral tumours and multifocal tumours, and carry a predisposition to develop trilateral tumours most notably pinealoblastomas and osteosarcomas.Retinoblastoma is most common primary intraocular malignanacy of childhood.It is characterized by Flexner winterstiener rosette , homer - wright rosetteLeucocoria or cat's reflex is most common manifestation.Strabismus is second most common manifestation.Predisposing gene is 13ql4 | Ophthalmology | Tumors | Second common malignancy in patients of retinoblastoma is?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing s sarcoma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Osteoblastoma
| Osteosarcoma |
116b3476-84b9-4c03-91a8-08aca521b965 | Ref Harrison 17/e p1011 The other name for kikuchis fujimoto disease is histocytic nercrotizing lymphadenitis. Benign and self-centered disorder in young individuals characterised by cervical lymphadenopathy With tenderness .usually accompanied with mild fever and night sweats,may b viral on ethilogy | Anatomy | General anatomy | Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in
A. Kimura disease
B. Kikuchis fujimoto disease
C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Castelman disease
| Kikuchis fujimoto disease |
60a24781-5f8f-41cb-9206-5070ccf667a1 | Ans. B i.e. PTProthrombin time (PT)PT and its derived measures of prothrombin ratio (PR) and international normalized ratio (INR) are measures of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.This test is also called "ProTime INR" and "PT/ INR".They are used to determine the clotting tendency of blood, in the measure of warfarin dosage, liver damage, and vitamin K status.PT measures factors I (fibrinogen), II (thrombin), V, VII, and X.It is used in conjunction with the activated paial thromboplastin time (aPTT) which measures the intrinsic pathway. | Pathology | null | Which is likely to be increased in vitamin K deficiency:March 2004
A. PTT
B. PT
C. Platelet count
D. Fibrinogen time
| PT |
502436c1-a22a-4ebb-a44a-3be986febcfc | These are proteins containing unusually higher concentration of basic amino acids.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 576 | Biochemistry | null | Histones are:
A. Identical to protamine
B. Proteins rich in lysine and arginine
C. Proteins with high molecular weight
D. Insoluble in water and very dilute acids
| Proteins rich in lysine and arginine |
da315d7a-17d5-4a2e-bb47-c75c1e6e0389 | Lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma, accounting for about 5% of cases, is characterized by the presence of lymphohistiocytic (L&H) variant RS cells that have a delicate multilobed, puffy nucleus resembling popped corn (“popcorn cell”). L&H variants usually are found within large nodules containing mainly small B cells admixed with variable numbers of macrophages. Other reactive cells, such as eosinophils, are scanty or absent, and typical RS cells are rare.
Unlike the RS variants in “classical” Hodgkin lymphoma, L&H variants express B cell markers (e.g., CD20) and usually fail to express CD15 and CD30. Most patients present with isolated cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy, and the prognosis typically is excellent. | Pathology | null | A male patient 59 year old complains of multiple swellings in the neck, fever, and weight loss since 6 months. Patient is a known hypertensive and is on medication for the same. General examination reveals painless lymph node enlargement in the neck and on blood investigation, anemia is revealed. Lymph node biopsy shows cells that have a delicate multilobed, puffy nucleus resembling popped corn. Which variant of lymphoma is this?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Lymphocyte rich
C. Lymphocyte depletion
D. Lymphocyte predominant
| Lymphocyte predominant |
2949d44c-be17-4083-a034-6d4ff75ef019 | Loop diuretics: Thiazide diuretics: Act on Na+K+2Cl- sympoer acts on ascending limb of loop of Henle. Includes- furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide High ceiling diuretics Loop looses calcium - therefore used in hypercalcemia Inhibits Na-Cl- sympoer acts on distal tubule Includes- chlohiazide,indapamide Decreases Na+, K+ , Mg2+, H+ Increases glucose, uric acid, lipid Increase in calcium - used in osteoporosis | Pharmacology | Kidney | Which diuretic can be used in treatment of hypercalcemia?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Mannitol
| Furosemide |
cd6c7100-1513-46db-824f-e814911fb814 | Cholera enterotoxin Light toxin: binds with ganglioside in epithelial cell membrane Heavy toxin: activates adenyl cyclase in epithelial cell wall which increase cAMP, leading to outpouring of isotonic fluid in lumen of intestine | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria) | Mechanism of action of cholera toxin is through:
A. Gangliosides
B. Adenyl cyclase
C. Gangliosides + adenyl cyclase
D. Exotoxin
| Gangliosides + adenyl cyclase |
bafedea1-9822-4347-b036-829e1b1587d6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CPPD crystals under microscope Pseudogout It is one of the forms of "Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate" (CPPD) ahropathy Pseudogout commonly involves the larger joints. Knee joint is most commonly involved; other sites are wrist, elbow, shoulder, ankle. Involvement of small joints is uncommon. Age group is > 60 yrs. In CPPD ahropathy, CPPD deposition occurs in aicular tissues. It can present in any of the following three forms? Asympatomatic chondrocalcinosis Acute synovitis - Pseudogout Chronic pyrophosphate ahropathy The radiologic hallmark of CPPD is "chondrocalcinosis". Chondrocalcinosis is seen as punctate and/or linear radiodense deposits in fibrocailaginous joint menisci or aicular hyaline cailage. Definitive diagnosis is made by synol fluid polarised light microscopy which shows weakly positive, birefkingent, rhomboid crystals of CPPD. In acute synovitis form, leucocytosis (thousands to 1 lac cells/ 1) is seen in synol fluid examination. It may be associated with ceain underlying disease such as - Primary hyperparathyroidism Hemochromatosis Hypomagnesemia Hypophosphatasia Hypothyroidism | Surgery | null | The pathogonomic finding in pseudogout is ?
A. CPPD crystals under microscope
B. Polyahritis with urinary sediment
C. Juxta - aicular osteopenia
D. Bone spurs
| CPPD crystals under microscope |
1a62a758-6a13-45e1-8b54-4fbcb60477eb | Answer is D (Egas Moniz): Egas Moniz first performed cerebral Angiography in 1927. Antonio Egas Moniz, a Pouguese neurologist, first performed cerebral Angiography. He received the Nobel Prize for developing for developing frontal leucotomy as a treatment for psychiatric diseases. In 1927 he performed the first cerebral angiogram in a living human assisted y his colleagues Almeida Lima and Almeida Dias. | Medicine | null | Cerebral angiography was performed by:
A. Sir Walter Dandy
B. George Moore
C. Seldinger
D. Egas Moniz
| Egas Moniz |
553ab61a-c1e2-4c6c-9825-fe32285b6861 | Asymptomatic abdominal mass is the most common presentation of wilms tumor. | Pathology | null | How does wilms tumor commonly present in children
A. Hematuria
B. Abdominal pain
C. Abdominas mass
D. Fever
| Abdominas mass |
b63c5d80-f72d-40de-8563-62a57c38f42d | Triple- stranded DNA- forms hydrogen bonds with another surface of the double helix through called Hoogsteenpairs. | Biochemistry | null | Triplex DNA is clue to
A. Hoogsteen Pairing
B. Palindromic sequences
C. Large no. of guanosine repeats
D. PolypYrimidine tracts
| Hoogsteen Pairing |
bd710135-f158-48c6-827f-4998dceb3364 | Ans. b (Ethyl alcohol). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 18th/Ch. 47)TREATMENT OF METHYL ALCOHOL POISONING# Patient in quiet, dark room# Gastric lavage with sodabicarb and Combat acidosis by IV sodabicarb infusion (the most vital measure, prevents retinal damage).# Ethanol 100mg/dl (retards methanol metabolism), Fomepizole (specific alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor) and Haemodialysis are useful.PoisioningFeaturesRxEthylene Glycol (anti-freeze)High anion gap Metabolic acidosis and severe damage to the CNS, heart, lungs, and kidneys.Prompt institution of a saline or osmotic diuresis, thiamine and pyridoxine supplements, fomepizole or ethanol, and hemodialysis.Methanol (wood alcohol)Causes high anion gap metabolic acidosis, and its metabolites formaldehyde and formic acid cause severe optic nerve and CNS damage.Similar to that for ethylene glycol intoxication, including general supportive measures, fomepizole, and hemodialysis .Isopropyl Alcohol (as little as 150 ml of rubbing alcohol, solvent, or de-icer can be fatal)A plasma level >400 mg/dL is life-threatening. Isopropyl alcohol differs from ethylene glycol and methanol in that the parent compound, not the metabolites, causes toxicity, and an AG acidosis is not present because acetone is rapidly excreted. Ethylene glycol, Methanol and Isoporpyl alcohol, all 3 cause an elevated osmolal gap, but only the first two cause a high-AG acidosis.Treated by watchful waiting and supportive therapy; IV fluids, pressors, ventilatory support if needed, and occasionally hemodialysis for prolonged coma or levels >400 mg/dL.Treat Benzodiazepines overdose with flumazenil (competitive antagonist at GABA receptor). | Medicine | Toxicology | Methyl alcohol poisoning is treated with
A. Disulfiram
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Flumazenil
D. Clonidine
| Ethyl alcohol |
2f6e178e-5e42-472e-a0df-2116fc458e02 | Isotopes used for thyroid scanning are 1234 131, and technetium - 99m pertechnate.
Note - Some books have given II" also. But it is not used for thyroid scintigraphy. | Radiology | null | Isotope for thyroid scaning – a) I129b) I131c) Technetium99d) Selenium
A. bc
B. c
C. ac
D. ad
| bc |
35cddc9c-2265-452a-a8f9-8813ed52f6b2 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Iron Jaggery contains useful amount of carotene and Iron, derived from cooking pans. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Jaggery contains good amont of -
A. Vitamin C
B. Calcium
C. iron
D. Vitanun D
| iron |
5834a4b3-4583-482b-8baf-1bccd286cdca | Length Muscle spindle and Golgi tendon organ both receptors are impoant component of intrinsic muscle control.Muscle spindle --> detects muscle length and rate of change in muscle lengthGolgi tendon organ --> detects muscletension and rate of change in muscle tension.Muscle spindles are specialized mechanoreceptors which located within muscles.Provide information about the length and rate of changes in length of the muscle. | Physiology | null | Muscle spindle detects:
A. Tension
B. Length
C. Proprioception
D. Stretch
| Length |
6eb729c6-f6b8-4a0b-81b3-e3eec61e689a | Ans. (c) Point mutationRef: Harpers Biochemistry 30th Ed; Page No- 416* Mutations in DNA are transcribed into mRNA, and thus can cause changes in the encoded protein.* Severity of damage in mutation: Silent << Missense < Nonsense < Frameshift.* Basic point about mutation:* Transition# Pyrimidine to pyrimidine (eg, C to T) or Purine to purine (eg, A to C).* Transversion# Pyrimidine to purine (eg, C to C) or Purine to pyrimidine (eg, A to T).* Types of Mutation:Point mutation:* It occurs when one base in DNA is replaced by another, altering the codon in mRNA.* Types of Point mutation:# Silent mutation: Substitution of nucleotide occurs but codes for same amino acid. Example: CGA to CGG causes no change, since both codons specify arginine. Base changes most commonly occur in 3rd position of codon (tRNA wobble).# Missense mutation: Mutations result in one amino acid being replaced by another. Conservative missense mutation: If the new amino acid is similar in chemical structure. Example: - Sickle cell disease (substitution of glutamic acid with valine at position 6 in the b-globin chain).# Nonsense mutation: Mutations result in a premature termination of the growing polypeptide chain Nucleotide substitution resulting in early stop codon (UAC, UAA, UCA). Ex: CGA to UGA causes arginine to be replaced by a stop codon.Extra MilePoint mutationSilent mutationFlemoglobin (Sickle cell Anemia)Substitution of glutamic acid with valine at position 6 in the b-globin chainHb MilwaukeeGlutamateHb BristolAspartateHb SydneyAlanineMissense mutationAcceptable mutationPartially acceptable mutationUnacceptable mutationHb - hikari (b chain)Hb -S (b chain)Hb - M Boston (a chain)Non sense mutationCoding codon - Stop cdodonStop codon - Coding codonb-thalassemiaa-thalassemiaInsertions* Addition of base (when a base or a number of bases are added to DNA).* They can result in a protein with more amino acids than normal.Deletions* Removal of Base (when a base or a number of bases are removed from the DNA).Frameshift mutations:* Due to insertion or deletion of nucleotides that are not a multiple of three results in Frameshift mutation.* The reading frame is shifted so that completely different sets of codons are read beyond the point where the mutation starts.* Protein may be shorter or longer, and its function may be disrupted or altered.* Example: Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Tay-Sachs diseaseCystic fibrosis* Cystic fibrosis is most commonly caused by deletion of three nucleotides from the coding region of CFTR gene.* Deletion of phenylamine at the 508th position (dF508) in the protein encoded by that gene.* This dF508 mutation prevents normal folding of the CF trans- membrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein, leading to its destruction by the proteasome.* Oligonucleotide probe is used to test for cystic fibrosis.Splice site mutation* Mutation at a splice site - retained intron in the mRNA - protein with impaired or altered function.* Example: Mutations that cause the incorrect splicing of b-globin mRNA are responsible for some b-thalassemia.* Others example: Rare causes of cancers, dementia, epilepsy | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | Type of mutation seen in sickle cell anaemia:
A. Insertion
B. Deletion
C. Point mutation
D. Frameshift mutations
| Point mutation |
faeeb7a3-16e4-4a15-a5d8-5b476a1c5f41 | Ans. B: ActinomycetesMycetoma is a chronic localized granulomatous inflammatory lesion common in the tropics and sub-tropics.Multiple siAuses, soft tissue swelling and discharge of coloured granules characterize a mycetoma foot. Chronic sinuses discharging granules are caused by (1) Eumycetes (true fungi), (2) Schizomycetes, which includesActinomycosis (aerobic higher filamentous bacteria) andBotryomycosis (bacterial infection).- Actinomycosis is often caused by Actinomadura or Nocardia species wherein it gains entry after penetrating trauma (splinter, gravel or thorn prick).Young males are commonly affected and 75% of the lesions occur in the lower limbs.The disease slowly progresses from a nodule to multiple sinuses discharging coloured granules. Involvement of bone is late following dermal and soft tissue spread.- Botryomycosis (a misnomer), a chronic suppurative infection is caused by bacteria involving skin or viscera . This rare condition mimics a deep mycotic infection and is often caused by Staphylococcus or Pseudomonas species of bacteria. The feet and hands are commonly affected and penetrating trauma may be a predisposing factor. It usually presents as a nodule, sinus or ulcer, which is initially localized.The diagnosis of actinomycosis is based on clinical findings, demonstration of characteristic granules and culture of the organism from a deep tissue biopsy.Immunological studies (counter immuno electrophoresis and ELISA) are also used. Botryomycosis is diagnosed based on a positive gram's stain and culture; negative fungal cultures and demonstration of the characteristic botryomycotic granules at histopathology from a deep biopsy.In endemic areas, subcutaneous swelling with sinuses should be considered as mycetoma unless proved otherwise. The differential diagnosis includes chronic osteomyelitis, tuberculosis and chronic abscesses. | Pathology | null | Multiple sinuses from infection of great toe is mainly caused by:September 2007
A. Tuberculosis
B. Actinomycetes
C. Trichosporum
D. Histoplasmosis
| Actinomycetes |
3d136761-ffff-4d17-97e8-9eff40cd0b03 | (Ref: KDT 6/e p294, 295) S-a-reductase inibitors are used to reduce the static component of urinary obstruction in BHP. It is delayed acting and takes more than 3 months to exe its beneficial effect. Selective a1 blockers are used to relieve the dynamic obstruction in BHP. These provide rapid symptomatic relief. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | A drug 'X' primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hyperophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exe its beneficial effect. Which of the following is 'X' ?
A. Tamsulosin
B. Terazosin
C. Finasteride
D. Amphetamine
| Finasteride |
ab6afaa2-088d-49df-b4b1-55a7e75326d5 | Ans. b (Chloroquine). (Ref. KD Tripathi Pharmacology 5th ed. 239)CHLOROQUINE# Chloroquine is also found to induce remission in up to 50% patients of Rheumatoid arthritis. It is found to reduce monocyte interleukin I, consequently inhibiting B lymphocytes.# Chloroquine/hydroxychloroquine are employed in milder nonerosive disease in case methotrexate or sulfasalazine cannot be used, especially when only one or a few joints are involved.Chloroquine accumulates in tissues and produce toxicity, most disturbing of which is retinal damage (Bull's eye' maculopathy) and corneal opacity.# This is less common and reversible in case of hydroxychloroquine, which is preferred over chloroquine.# Other adverse effects are:- Rashes,- Graying of hair,- Irritable bowel syndrome,- Myopathy and- Neuropathy.Chloroquine has marked, rapid schizontocidal and gametocidal activity against blood forms of P. ovale and Plasmodi- um malariae and against susceptible strains of P. vivax and P. falci- parum. It is not active against intrahepatic forms (P. vivax and P. ovale).Systemic medications for treating infectionIndicationsOcular effects and side effectsSystemic side effectsChloramphenicolSevere bacterial infections such as abdominal typhus, Haemophilus influenzae mening it isDecreased visual acuity, vilsual field changes (scotomas or initation) optic neuritis or retrobulbar optic neuritis, local allergic reactions.Aplastic anemia, gastrointestinal dysfunction, fever, gray syndrome.Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquineMalaria.AmebiasisRheulmatoidArthritisDeposits on the cornea, changes in the retinal pigment epithelium (bull's eye maculopathy), visual field changesNausea, headache, bleaching of the hair, blood count changes.QuinineMalaria infectionDecreased visual acuity including toxic amblyopia, mydriasis, retinal damage (edema or vascular constriction), optic disc edema, scotomas.Hemolytic anemia, allergic reactions, hearing loss.EthambutolTuberculosisOptic neuritis, visual field changes, color vision defects.Hyperuricemia, nauseaIsoniazidTuberculosisOptic neuritis, atrophy of the optic nerve, visual field changes, optic disc edema, colorvision defects.Polyneuropathy (vitamin B6 metabolic dysfunction) allergic reactions, liver damage.PenicillinBacterial infectionsMydriasis, depressed accommodation, diplopia, optic disc edema with cerebral pseudotumor (secondary).Nausea, allergic reactions.RifampicinTuberculosisConjunctival hyperemia, blepharo conjunctivitis, color change (orange) of fluid is possible.Liver dysfunction, nausea, allergic reactions, hepatic enzyme inductionStreptomycinTuberculosisNystagmus, decreased visual acuity, toxic amblyopia, color vision defect, atrophy of the optic nerveOtotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, allergy.SulfonamidesBacterial infectionsMyopia, unspecific irritationAllergic reactions, nausea, photosensitivity.TetracyclineBacterial infectionsMyopia, optic disc edema with cerebral pseudotumor, decreased visual acuity, diplopia.Nausea, allergic reactions, liver damage.Gold saltsBase medication in rheumatoid arthritisDeposits on the eyelids, conjunctiva cornea (chrysiasis) and lens (rare) ptosis, nystagmus, and diplopia are rare.Blood count changes, nephrotoxicity, mucous membrane damage.Educational table:ADVERSE EFFECTS OF AN MALARIAL DRUGSDrugSide EffectsContraindications and cautionsChloroquine, hydroxy- chloroquineGI distress, pruritus, headache, dizziness, hemolysis, ocular dysfunctionAvoid in psoriasisMefloquineNVD, dizziness, syncope, extrasystoles, CNS effects (rare)Avoid in seizures, psychiatric disorders, and in cardiac conduction defectsPrimaquineGI distress, headache, dizziness, neutropenia, hemolysisAvoid in pregnancy, G6PD deficiency, and autoimmune disordersQuinineGI distress, cinchonism, CNS effects, hemolysis, hematotoxicityAvoid in pregnancy | Ophthalmology | Drugs | 'Bull's eye' maculopathy can be caused by which of the following?
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Amiodarone
D. Digoxin
| Chloroquine |
a9f5d8a4-d9d5-4505-9be7-bbb4d0f730fb | Ans: b (Na+) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/ p. 30, 32Most abundant ion in ECF is Na+.ECFMost abundant ion - Na+Most abundant cation - Na+Most abundant anion - Cl-ICF:-Most abundant cation - K+Most abundant anion - PO43- (followed by protein).ECF contains more of Na+, Cl-, HCO3, Ca2+.ICF contains more of K+, PO4, organic anion, protein, magnesium. | Physiology | General | The major ion in extracellular compartment
A. K+
B. Na+
C. Cl-
D. HCO3-
| Na+ |
2aa47eac-5fcf-4272-ad24-fbd6e9b4d7b5 | This patient is suffering from aoic stenosis, which usually manifests during 6th to 8th decade of life. Three cardinal symptoms of aoic stenosis are exeional dyspnea, angina pectoris and synchope. Patients with aoic stenosis become symptomatic when the valvular orifice is narrowed to approximately 1cm2. Reference: Harriosn's Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition chapter 237. | Medicine | null | A 61 year old Purushothom presented to the OPD with complaints of dyspnoea, chest pain and syncope. What is he most likely suffering from?
A. MS
B. AS
C. MR
D. TR
| AS |
3b3bd69c-21df-487c-9216-1988c8c288ee | An increase in plasma l-lactate may be secondary to *poor tissue perfusion (type A)--circulatory insufficiency (shock, cardiac failure), severe anemia, mitochondrial enzyme defects, and inhibitors (carbon monoxide, cyanide) * aerobic disorders (type B)-- malignancies, nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors in HIV, diabetes mellitus, renal or hepatic failure, thiamine deficiency, severe infections (cholera, malaria), seizures, or drugs/toxins (biguanides, ethanol, methanol, propylene glycol, isoniazid, and fructose). *Unrecognized bowel ischemia or infarction *Pyroglutamic acidemia has been repoed in critically ill patients receiving acetaminophen, which is associated with depletion of glutathione. d-Lactic acid acidosis, which | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Lactic acidosis is not seen in -
A. Methanol poisoning
B. Respiratory failure
C. Circulatory failure
D. Tolbutamide
| Tolbutamide |
4bef0501-4e65-4b5f-8ebd-9fad8da71f3d | Microglia are a type of neuroglia (glial cell) located throughout the brain and spinal cord. Microglia account for 10-15% of all cells found within the brain. As the resident macrophage cells, they act as the first and main form of active immune defense in the central nervous system (CNS). Microglia (and other neuroglia including astrocytes) are distributed in large non-overlapping regions throughout the CNS. Microglia are key cells in overall brain maintenance--they are constantly scavenging the CNS for plaques, damaged or unnecessary neurons and synapses, and infectious agents. Since these processes must be efficient to prevent potentially fatal damage, microglia are extremely sensitive to even small pathological changes in the CNS. This sensitivity is achieved in pa by the presence of unique K+ channels that respond to even small changes in extracellular potassium. Ref - Wikipedia.org | Anatomy | General anatomy | Gitter cells are
A. Microglia
B. Modified macrophages
C. Astrocytes
D. Neutrophils
| Microglia |
8f879e1e-3f42-454e-926b-fbda2c1a44bc | , the FDA approved elapegademase (Revcovi) for treatment of adenosine deaminase severe combined immune deficiency (ADA-SCID) in adults and children. The drug had been available as an orphan drug prior to approval. Enzyme replacement helps prevent potentially serious, life-threatening infections in this patient population. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is prescribed routinely after the second month of life in children with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) until after bone marrow transplant (BMT) engraftment. This is Pneumocystis jiroveci prophylaxis. Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIg) is used to prevent infection before BMT and, in selected patients, after BMT, if B-cell function remains poor Ref Harrison20th edition pg 997 | Medicine | Infection | In a viral infection, immunoglobulins are to be given in which of the following condition
A. SCID
B. HIV
C. Dengue
D. Severely malnourished
| SCID |
ebd428b3-3e32-4d19-9cc1-6c2869a6f867 | Transferase- Amino transferase or transaminase, e.g., SGOT (AST) and SGPT (ALT), kinases (Hexokinase glucokinase, pyruvate kinase etc), Transketolases, transaldolases, transcarboxylases | Biochemistry | null | Which type of enzyme is Transaminase?
A. Xidoreductase
B. Isomerase
C. Ligases
D. Transferase
| Transferase |
93f803ab-59f7-4792-8020-45dc7401c5ad | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Toxoplasmosis Sabin-Feldman dye test A Sabin-Feldman dye test is a serologic test to diagnose for toxoplasmosis. The test is based on the presence of ceain antibodies that prevent methylene blue dye from entering the cytoplasm of Toxoplasma organisms. Patient serum is treated with Toxoplasma trophozoites and complements as activator, and then incubated. After incubation, methylene blue is added. If anti-Toxo antibodies are present in the serum, because these antibodies are activated by complements and lyse the parasite membrane, Toxoplasma trophozoites are not stained (positive result); if there are no antibodies, trophozoites with intact membrane are stained and appear blue under microscope (negative result). | Skin | null | Sabin fieldman dye test is used for ?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Syphilis
C. Herpes genitalis
D. Gardenellavaginalis
| Toxoplasmosis |
991c7b2f-23f0-47af-bf5c-849d168b92f2 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Specific antibody Hybridomas are cells that have been engineered to produce a specific antibody in huge numbers. Hybridomas Hybridomas are cells that have been engineered to produce a specific antibody in huge numbers To achieve this, qualities of two types of cells have to be combined together i.e. Cells which can produce large amount of pure antibody and Cells which have the ability to grow continually. These two types of cells are then fused together to form hybridoma. Procedure The pure antibody secreting cells are produced by injecting specific antigen in a mouse and obtaining the antigen specific plasma cells (antibody producing cell) from the mouse's spleen. Cell which can grow indefinitely in culture are myeloma cells (cancerous cells). These two cell lines are fused together. The hybrid cell which is thus produced can be cloned to produce large number of identical daughter clones. These daughter clone cells then produce antibodies. Since these antibodies come from only one type of cell (hybridoma cell) they are called monoclonal antibodies. HAT (hypoxanthine, Aminopterin and thymidine) medium is used for preparation of monoclonal antibodies because it allows only fused hybridoma cells to grow. It does not allow the unfused myeloma and unfused antibody cells to grow. So HAT medium is a selective medium which allows (which allow selective growth of fused hybridoma) How does this happen ? Before we move on with the discussion, remember these few points about purine synthesis. Purine synthesis is essential for the survival of cells. Purine can be synthesized in two way i.e. De novo synthesis (dihydrofolate reductase enzyme is required for this pathway). Salvage pathway (an enzyme hypoxanthine - guanine phosphoribosyl transferase is required for salvage pathways) Myeloma cells lack HGPase enzyme therefore they cannot synthesize purine by salvage pathways. o Antibody cells have HGPase enzyme so they can use the salvage pathways. Aminopterin inhibits dihydrofolate reductase an enzyme used in denovo synthesis of purine When two cell lines i.e. antibody producing cell and myeloma cells are grown in HAT medium only the fused hybridoma cells survive. Myeloma cells die because they lack the enzyme HGPase so they cannot use the salvage pathways for purine synthesis. They also cannot use de-novo pathway, because Aminopterin present in the HAT medium inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (an enzyme essential for denovo synthesis ofpurine). The unfused antibody producing cells die as they cannot grow indefinitely because of their limited life span. Only fused hybridoma cells grow indefinitely because the antibody cell paner supplies HGPase and the myeloma paner gives it immoality. (as it is a cancer cell) | Microbiology | null | Hybridoma technique is used to obtain ?
A. Specific antigen
B. Complement
C. Specific antibody
D. Interleukins
| Specific antibody |
dcfd1819-5810-4f5c-bfb8-0a1ef2cc9d18 | GLUT 4 is the transporter in muscle and adipose tissue that is stimulated by insulin. | Biochemistry | null | Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is
A. GLUT 1
B. GLUT 2
C. GLUT 3
D. GLUT 4
| GLUT 4 |
126bd8da-feb5-4d46-ab31-356e4017b720 | In Buphthalmos medications are not effective and so treatment is primarily surgical. Incisional angle surgery by goniotomy or trabeculectomy Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:227 | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Initial treatment of buphthalmos is -
A. Laser trabeculolasty
B. Goniotomy
C. Topical pilocarpine
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
| Goniotomy |
61830a01-3c88-4a30-9942-8730cc13e834 | Features of lacerated wound: Margins are irregular, ragged and uneven and their ends are pointed or blunt Bruising is seen either in the skin or subcutaneous tissue around the wound Deeper tissues are unevenly divided with tags of tissue at the bottom of wound bridging across the margin Hair bulbs are crushed Hair and epidermal tags may be driven deeply into the wound Less hemorrhage Presence of foreign matter in the wound Shape and size of the wound does not correspond to the weapon used | Forensic Medicine | null | Which of the following is a feature of a lacerated wound?
A. Clean cut wound
B. Regular margin
C. Irregular margin
D. Tapered margins
| Irregular margin |
8626c85d-1bb4-459e-a068-6c1626d0684d | Ans. (c) TSHRef: Bailey and Love Principles and Practice of Surgery, 26th ed p-743* Most sensitive and specific test to detect hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism is TSH ASSAY* Total T4: Reflects output from thyroid gland* Total T3: More indicative of peripheral thyroid metabolism, hence not useful for screening | Surgery | Thyroid Gland | Most sensitive method to diagnose thyroid function is:
A. T3
B. T4
C. TSH
D. Thyroglobulin
| TSH |
641b5be5-a018-4742-9315-24cb2ac9248c | Down's syndrome, which is due to trisomy of chromosome 21 (XXX). | Pathology | null | This gene mapping indicates:
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Cri du chat syndrome
C. Eagle’s syndrome
D. Down’s syndrome
| Down’s syndrome |
ff736beb-48e5-4a59-b7ae-240d9e83bfeb | A mucocele is an epithelial lined, mucus containing sac completely filling the sinus and capable of expansion:
Mucocele are most commonly formed in Frontal sinus followed by ethmoid, sphenoid and maxillary sinuses.
Mucocele of frontal sinus presents as a swelling in the floor of frontal sinus above the inner (medial) canthus. It displaces the eyeball forward, downward and laterally.
IOC = CT scan
TOC = Endoscopic sinus surgery
According to Dhingra,
Least common sinus assopciated with Mucocele formation is sphenoid.
But Scott Brown says:
–– Most of the cases of mucocele of sphenoid sinus are referred to neurosurgeons. Therefore, it seems it is less common but actually the sinus least involved by mucocele is maxilla. | ENT | null | Mucocele is commonly seen is sinus -
A. Frontal
B. Maxillary
C. Ethmoid
D. Sphenoid
| Frontal |
0c6d1548-7ccf-45b4-8f19-0d6e3ac05a6d | While in real life, other diseases (or combinations of diseases) may occasionally cause concurrent pulmonary, sinus, and renal involvement, if you see this pattern on a test question, you should immediately think of Wegener's granulomatosis. This is a rare focal necrotizing vasculitis of still unclear etiology, which also features prominent granulomas, some of which are centered on the vascular lesions. The vasculitis and granulomatous can involve the entire respiratory tract, and an easily obtained nasal biopsy may sometimes yield the diagnosis. The renal involvement is usually in the form of a necrotizing glomerulonephritis. The disease typically affects middle aged men, and its formerly poor prognosis has been improved by coicosteroid and cyclophosphamide therapy. Note: Aspergillosis can cause prominent lung disease, but does not usually have renal involvement. Polyaeritis nodosa is a possibility, but usually spares the lungs. Renal cell carcinoma might cause lung nodules, but there is no evidence of tumor in the kidney. | Pathology | null | A 45-year-old man presents to his physician with hematuria. Renal biopsy demonstrates a focal necrotizing glomerulitis with crescent formation. The patient has a history of intermittent hemoptysis and intermittent chest pain of moderate intensity. A previous chest x-ray had demonstrated multiple opacities, some of which were cavitated. The patient also has chronic cold-like nasal symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Polyaeritis nodosa
C. Renal carcinoma metastatic to the lung
D. Wegener's granulomatosis
| Wegener's granulomatosis |
0108e93a-d2f7-4260-a56d-cbe10a49b4e3 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Meningococcal meningitis | Pediatrics | null | CSF examination of a patient shows high protein markedly low sugar, low chloride and increased neutrophils. The diagnosis is -
A. Viral meningitis
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. Tuberculous meningitis
D. Fungal meningitis
| Meningococcal meningitis |
a839bc01-9d00-4767-9c86-2b22d697eaad | Pyroptosis is a form of apoptosis that is accompanied by the release of the fever-inducing cytokine IL-1 (pyro refers to fever). Microbial products that enter infected cells are recognized by cytoplasmic innate immune receptors and can activate the multiprotein complex called the inflammasome. The function of the inflammasome is to activate caspase-1 (also known as interleukin-1b-conveing enzyme), which cleaves a precursor form of interleukin-1 (IL-1) and releases its biologically active form. IL-1 is a mediator of many aspects of inflammation, including leukocyte recruitment and fever. | Pathology | Bilirubin Metabolism | Pyroptosis is associated with which of the following cytokines?
A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-5
D. IL-6
| IL-1 |
9ff2ab80-4466-4da5-a0ca-ac9a1fa95ce7 | OCD is an anxiety disorder, which is characterized by recurrent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsion). | Psychiatry | null | Irresistible urge to do a thing repeatedly is seen in-
A. Obsessive - compulsive disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Schizoaffective disorder
D. Depression
| Obsessive - compulsive disorder |
54c730dd-33a3-4ba9-8d1c-6d4506ddf9f4 | Ans. c. CNS involvementScalp is a common site of involvement in psoriasis. Corona psoriatica is a band of psoriasis, projecting beyond hairline on forehead.Nail changes in psoriasis are pitting, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis, splinter hemorrhages, uneven surface. | Skin | Papulosquamous Disorders | Least common site involvement in psoriasis is:
A. Scalp involvement
B. Nail involvement
C. CNS involvement
D. Arthritis
| CNS involvement |
bdc9afd4-4764-4dac-9bdd-270c0442f940 | Initial acquisition of mutans streptococci by infants: Evidence for a discrete window of infectivity.
Caufield et al described a discrete “window of infectivity” during which infants acquired mutans streptococci (MS) from their maternal host. This “window” opened at 19 months and extended to 31 months, with a mean of 26 months.
During this period, the prevalence of MS was seen to rise from 0% to 82%. Caufield hypothesized that the discrete nature of initial MS acquisition was directly related to the presence of nondesquamated hard surfaces, namely newly erupted teeth. Empirically, if the acquisition of these cariogenic bacteria could be blocked during this period, an individual may never acquire these organisms and thereby experience lifelong immunity from dental. | Dental | null | The first window of infectivity as described by Caufield is between:
A. 0-6 months
B. 7-16 months
C. 19-31 months
D. 32-52 months
| 19-31 months |
04f019e4-f14f-4e50-8f03-37b7e74208fa | Reference: KDT, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th ed., Pg. 623 and Katzung, Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th ed., Pgs. 876 & 877.
Barbiturates (but not benzodiazepines), carbamazepine, rifampin and griseofulvin induce the metabolism of oral anticoagulants. The dose of anticoagulant determined during therapy with these drugs would be higher: if the same is continued after withdrawing the inducer—marked hypoprothrombinemia can occur—fatal bleeding is on record.
Metronidazole, fluconazole, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole also stereoselectively inhibit the metabolic transformation of S-warfarin, whereas amiodarone, disulfiram, and cimetidine inhibit metabolism of both enantiomorphs of warfarin. Barbiturates and rifampin cause a marked decrease of the anticoagulant effect by induction of the hepatic enzymes that transform racemic warfarin. | Unknown | null | Which of the following do not increase the action of warfarin?
A. Cimetidine
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampicin
D. Cotrimoxazole
| Rifampicin |
da859c7b-68a4-4fca-b0bc-f7234be678b2 | Ans. (A) INH(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12th/1556)Isoniazid can cause neuropsychiatric adverse effects like seizures, transient loss of memory and psychosis. | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy: General Principles | Anti-tubercular drug associated with psychosis is:
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin
| INH |
a4539d72-0236-493f-a711-5ed62d3f38a5 | The panniculus adiposus is the fatty layer of the subcutaneous tissues, superficial to a deeper vestigial layer of muscle, the panniculus carnosus. Hence it is seen in orbit and protects the eye ball. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Panniculus Adiposus is seen in
A. Scrotum
B. Orbit
C. Eyelid
D. Penis
| Orbit |
40fbc86f-2bdb-40f1-b5e1-401eadb014aa | Antigen detection tests [Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) or Immunochromatographic tests (ICTs)
Rapid and simple but less sensitive, costly and may give false +ve in RA factor +ve cases
pLDH and Aldolase: Common to all Plasmodium species
HRP-2 Ag detection: Specific for P.falciparum | Microbiology | null | Which one of the following is detected by the antigen detection test used for the diagnosis of P. falciparum malaria -
A. Circum-sporozoite protein
B. Merozoite surface antigen
C. Histidine-Rich-Protein I (HRP-I)
D. Histidine-Rich-Protein II (HRP-II)
| Histidine-Rich-Protein II (HRP-II) |
62456fef-9569-4af8-afaf-351f8ad0b139 | Ans. (c) HPV-16 style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: )At least 12 HPV types are considered oncogenic, including HPV16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, and 59*HPV16 alone, though, accounts for approximately 50% of cervical cancers in the general population and HPV18 for another 10% to 15%. The other oncogenic HPV types each individually account for fewer than 5% of tumors.*HPV types 6 and 11 cause 90% of genital warts, but are not considered oncogenic | Pathology | Female Genital Tract | Most common cause of Cervical neoplasia is?
A. HPV-6
B. HPV-11
C. HPV-16
D. HHV
| HPV-16 |
134944e4-836f-4dda-b3f6-3c4fa1107ca6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sulfinpyrazone Sulfinpyrazone is a uricosuric drug which is used in the treatment of gout. Drugs causing hvperuricemia due to reduced uric acid excretion (Can cause gout) o Pyrazinamide o Diuretics o Alcohol o Nicotinic acid o Chlohalidone o Ethambutol o Cyclosporine o Levodopa o Aspirin (Low dose) | Pharmacology | null | Gout is NOT caused by which of the following?
A. Chlohalidone
B. Sulfinpyrazone
C. Aspirin
D. Pyrazinamide
| Sulfinpyrazone |
0bbec814-dab3-4f06-9b08-45e1d17eb4e1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Huntington's disease Huntingtons disease is caused bv triplet repeat expansion nucleotideo Huntington disease (HD) is caused by expansion of the cytosine-adenin e-suanine (CA G) trinucleotide repeats in the HTT sene (also known as the HD or IT15 gene) located on chromosome 4pl6.3 that encodes the protein huntingtin.o Mutant huntingtin contains an expanded tract of glutamine residues, which is located near its amino terminal.o The disease is transmitted in an autosomal dominantQ manner.o Unstable trinucleotide repeats are associated with a variety of neurodegenerative diseases.Nine of these disorders are associated with expansion ofcytosine-adenine-guanine (CAG) repeats that encode for polyglutamine tracts in the protein products.Included in this group are Huntington disease (HD), spinobulbar muscular atrophy, dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy, and some of the spinocerebellar ataxias.o The most common presenting symptom of HD in adults is chorea (hence the name Huntington chorea).Other usual findings at presentation include memory deficits, affective disturbances, personality changes, and other manifestations of motor dysfunction such as parkinsonism and dystonia. | Medicine | C.N.S. | Regions of "trinucleotide repeats" are seen in -
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Huntington's disease
C. Progressive supranuclear palsy
D. Alzheimer's deentia
| Huntington's disease |
1b1cf752-98bb-40ad-980e-eef184eb0ab1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lowe's syndrome Lenticonus refers to cone-shaped elevation of the anterior pole (anterior lenticonus) or posterior pole (posterior lenticonus) of the lens. Anterior lenticonus is seen in Alpo's syndrome. Posterior lenticonus is seen in Lowe's syndrome. On distant direct ophthalmoscopy, lenticonus present as an oil globule lying in the center of red reflex. Slit-lamp examination confirms the diagnosis. | Ophthalmology | null | Posterior lenticonus is seen in ?
A. Alpo's syndrome
B. Lowe's syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Homocystinuria
| Lowe's syndrome |
4520bf6d-5223-4d05-888b-03a177082fb1 | Food intake and appetite are regulated by various circulating hormones including ghrelin and glucagon-like-peptide 1 (GLP-1). Ghrelin, mainly released from the stomach, increases food intake, induces appetite, enhances adiposity as well as releases growth hormone Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:811,812,813 | Physiology | G.I.T | Which of the following decreases appetite?
A. Orexin
B. Neuropeptide Y
C. Ghrelin
D. Leptin
| Leptin |
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