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55ad8221-2958-4e23-8515-3ac1e7792db0 | Ans- C Extra calories required in pregnancy during 1st trimester is 150 kcals and 2nd trimester and 3rd trimester is 350 kcals | Unknown | null | The daily extra calories in the second and third trimester of pregnancy is
A. 150 kCals
B. 200 kCals
C. 350 kCals
D. 250 kCals
| 350 kCals |
5e96c292-72e8-497a-ac4f-7a9ea3e4ad1e | *Marble Bone disease is another name of Osteopetrosis/Albers-Schonberg Disease | Radiology | Musculoskeletal Radiology | Marble Bone disease is ?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopoikilosis
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Fibrous Dysplasia
| Osteopetrosis |
63208b85-9413-4efa-826c-bff45b3d65fb | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Giant cell tumor Epiphyseal tumors are : Chondroblastoma, Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma), Clear cell chondrosaroma. | Surgery | null | Epiphysis involved in which bone tumor ?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Giant cell tumor
D. Ewing's sarcoma
| Giant cell tumor |
0da00f55-de97-452a-8961-67e687966be9 | (Sensory conduction) (24-Apley's 8th)Sensory nerve conduction - If a sensory nerve is stimulated distally, the sensory nerve action potential (SNAP) can be recorded at a proximal site, here again, by measuring the distance between stimulating and recording electrodes and the time lapse between stimulus and response, the sensory nerve conduction velocity can be calculated.Motor nerve conduction Electrical stimulation of a motor nerve normally produces contraction of the muscles supplied by that nerve.The time interval between stimulation of the nerve and the appearance of the motor action potention (MAP) is the latency (Normal values are about 50-60 m/s)Somatosensory evoked potentials (SEPs) - This test is useful in monitoring the integrity of the spinal cord during operative correction of severe spinal deformities and other potentially dangerous procedures | Orthopaedics | General | Sensory nerve action potential in NCV to calculate
A. Sensory conduction
B. Motor conduction
C. Velocity conduction
D. Muscular contraction
| Sensory conduction |
1245bce9-91db-4311-913b-42f82d062b50 | A common cause of overactive thyroid in pregnant women is Graves' disease. This disease occurs when your immune system becomes overactive and forms antibodies (immune proteins) that attack the thyroid. This causes the gland to enlarge and make too much thyroid hormone. Most women with Graves' disease find out they have it and get treatment before they become pregnant. Women with severe nausea and vomiting or those expecting twins may develop temporary hypehyroidism. Called transient gestational thyrotoxicosis, this hypehyroidism is due to high levels of a pregnancy hormone called human chorionic gonadotropin or hCG. Because it resolves by week 14 to 18 of pregnancy, women do not need antithyroid drugs to treat this condition. Ref - pubmed.com | Medicine | Endocrinology | Gestational hypehyroidism occurs due to
A. Beta HCG from placenta
B. Trans-placental transfer of TSH
C. TPO antibodies
D. Anti thyroglobulin antibody
| Beta HCG from placenta |
9102efdb-b74b-4cba-a4e4-32f355b81c43 | ref Robbins 8/e p718 from tuberculous lesions often contain caseous , , other , and contain epithelioid cells, a few lymphocytes, and occasional multinucleated giant cells. No necrosis is seen. Granulomas following are noncaseous and characterized by epithelioid cell reaction with giant cells and , and the is based on finding organisms or and mononuclear macrophages when examined under polarized light. The crystals are composed of hydrous Fungal infections Most Histoplasma capsulatum. The granulomas are often isolated or small and scattered, thereby resembling miliary granulomas. The organism can be identified histologically. They are intracellular organisms, with 1-5 mm, round to oval yeast-like bodies, with a small, central round nucleus. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) and methenamine-silver (Meth-Ag) stains highlight these organisms. Other fungi that may cause granulomas are Cryptococcus neoformans (Fig. 21.4A), Blastomyces Fig. 21.4B), Mucorales, causing Fig. 21.4C), and Coccidioides immitis.13Some of these organisms are associated with definite geographical regions. Because of the ease of travel, however, diseases do not necessarily present in a Fungal infections Most Histoplasma capsulatum. The granulomas are often isolated or small and scattered, thereby resembling miliary granulomas. The organism can be identified histologically. They are intracellular organisms, with 1-5 mm, round to oval yeast-like bodies, with a small, central round nucleus. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) and methenamine-silver (Meth-Ag) stains highlight these organisms. Other fungi that may cause granulomas are Cryptococcus neoformans (Fig. 21.4A), Blastomyces (Fig. 21.4B), Mucorales, causing Fig. 21.4C), and Coccidioides immitis.13Some of these organisms are associated with definite geographical regions. Because of the ease of travel, however, diseases do not necessarily present in a <a style="box-sizing: border-box; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; background-color: transparent; overflow-x: auto; color: ; transition: color 0.3s ease 0s, border-bottom-color 0.3s ease 0s; text-decoration-line: none;" title="Learn more about Geographic Distribution from ScienceDirect's AI-generated Topic Pages" href=" distribution</a> | Anatomy | General anatomy | Caseous granuloma is seen in
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Silicosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Foreign body
| Histoplasmosis |
afa097b5-4101-4e0b-aa89-2c9116c3c6cd | (C) (C3) (49-BDC-3 6th, 590 Snell 9th)Hyoid Bone - at rest, it lies at the level of the third cervical vertebra behind and the base of the mandible infront.* Is a single mobile bone found in the midline.* It does not articulate with any other bones* U shaped, develops from second and third branchial arches.* It is attached to the skull by the stylohyoid ligament and to the thyroid cartilage by the thyrohyoid membrane.* The hyoid bone forms a base for the tongue and is suspended in position by muscles that connect it to the mandible, to the styloid process of the treatment bone, to the thyroid cartilage, to the sternum and to the scapula. | Anatomy | Head & Neck | Hyoid bone present at -
A. C1
B. C2
C. c3
D. C4
| c3 |
d183e2b5-c6ec-444f-9fd8-03c592a47cad | It is a painful condition characterised by the formation of hemorrhagic blebs on the tympanic membrane and deep meatus. It is probably caused by a virus or Mycoplasma pneumonia. ( Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, 7TH edition, PL Dhingra, pg no. 58) | ENT | Ear | Bullous myringitis is caused by?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Mycoplasma
C. Pneumococcus
D. Candida
| Mycoplasma |
8e68591c-08ef-450d-91d6-85f477ca2a46 | vit D3 analoguesSuch as calcipotriene,calcipotriol, tacalcitol,maxacalcitol. mechanism of action: Anti inflammatory effect,Induce keratinocyte differentiation, Inhibit epidermal proliferation . Used in psoriasis. advantages: no steroid induced side effects can be used for prolonged periods. IADVL textbook of dermatology page1044 | Dental | Papulosquamous disorders | Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of -
A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Phemphigus
D. Leprosy
| Psoriasis |
ecd00e83-5cb4-4d74-a162-44451d88c168 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Papillary Carcinoma thyroid Radiation induced cancers Leukemias o Breast Carcinoma Papillary carcinoma of thyroid. o Squamous cell and Basal cell carcinoma of skin. | Pathology | null | Example for radiation induced cancer is ?
A. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
C. Lymphoma
D. Hepatoma
| Papillary carcinoma thyroid |
01e28d60-2bb4-438a-b5a2-f19e2df8dc19 | (Middle cerebral) (388-BDC-3- 4th edition)* HEMIPLEGIA - is a common condition. It is an UMN type of paralysis of one half of the body including the face* It is usually due to an internal capsule lesion caused by thrombosis of one of the lenticulostriate branches of the middle cerebral artery (Cerebral thrombosis)* Wallenberg's syndrome (lateral medullary syndrome) caused by thrombosis of the posterior inferior cerebral artery | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Thrombosis of the following cerebral vessels leading to the Hemiplegia by
A. Anterior cerebral
B. Middle cerebral
C. Posterior cerebral
D. Lateral cerebral
| Middle cerebral |
6860f29c-8505-4441-aed4-9b180d7bf387 | This is a specimen of linitis plastica, a diffuse type of gastric carcinoma.These infiltrative tumors often evoke a desmoplastic reaction that stiffens the gastric wall. When there are large areas of infiltration, diffuse rugal flattening and a rigid, thickened wall may impa a leather bottle appearance termed linitis plastica.Meitner&;s disease has hyperophic gastric folds.Ref: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 772 | Pathology | G.I.T | Diagnosis is
A. Atrophic gastritis
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Linitis plastica
D. Meitner's disease
| Linitis plastica |
1df9bef7-38b0-43dd-acad-c65484e3448a | Exophthalmos (also called exophthalmos, exophthalmia, proptosis, or exorbitism) is a bulging of the eye anteriorly out of the orbit.Exophthalmos can be either bilateral (as is often seen in Graves' disease) or unilateral (as is often seen in an orbital tumor). | Anatomy | Head and neck | Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
A. Meiosis
B. Exophtahalmos
C. Nasal congestion
D. Conjunctival redness
| Exophtahalmos |
43ee8ceb-ac6b-4379-b0af-adee4848fb30 | - Strong acids and bases are ionized in all media. Weak acids ionize in alkaline media and weak bases ionize in acidic media. | Pharmacology | null | Urinary alkalinizing agents are administered in case of poisoning due to drugs which are:
A. Weak bases
B. Weak acids
C. Strong bases
D. Strong acids
| Weak acids |
a872467a-c5d2-498c-9c9f-534d89e63b5f | Clostridium perfringens infection characteristically presents after 8 to 16 hours of consumptions of food material and causes abdominal cramps, followed by diarrhea. Thus all features presented in question are consistent with a diagnosis of Clostridium perfringens infection. Meats, meat products, and gravy are the foods most frequently implicated. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 15th Edition, Page 837 ; Food Microbiology By M. R. Adams, M. O. Moss, 2008, Page 209 | Microbiology | null | 12 children were off from the primary school with intense abdominal cramps followed by watery diarrhea 6-10 hours after a bihday pay. The most likely causative organism is:
A. Rotavirus
B. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
C. Staphylococcal toxin
D. Clostridium perfringens
| Clostridium perfringens |
56a0731f-dc8a-4067-b7dc-6b9c4e08c1c0 | Answer- A. Aoic stenosisDecreased impedance of the systemic vascular bedProstenotic dilatation of the Aoa secondary to Aoic stenosis or regurgitation.Patent ductus aeriosus | Medicine | null | Reverse split S2 is seen in -
A. Aoic stenosis
B. Aoic stenosis
C. Pulonary aery hypeension
D. Pulmonary stenosis
| Aoic stenosis |
ad3bec9e-31fb-4f78-974b-c05592a11ddc | Ans. d. EvanescentWheal/hives are evanescent (last for short duration) lesions | Skin | Neutrophilic Dermatoses | Urticarial lesions are best described as-
A. Nonpruritic
B. Bullous
C. Macular
D. Evanescent
| Evanescent |
45bd6b6f-7ba2-4da4-b587-9df0e62978e3 | Ans. is 'b' BRCA 2 "In women with hereditary breast - ovarian cancer, two susceptibility loci have been identified:BRCA -1 - located on chromosome 17 andBRCA - 2 - located on chromosome 13" - Harrison, 15/e, p620 | Pathology | Breast | A female patient presented with a firm mass of 2 x 2 cms in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. She gives a family history of ovarian carcinoma. The investigation that needs to be done to assess for mutation is :
A. p53
B. BRCA-2
C. Her 2/Neu gene
D. C-myc gene
| BRCA-2 |
205e1064-eca3-4d60-96b1-0e3a7e604561 | (Ref: KDT 6/e p749) Coicosteroids are absolutely contra-indicated in intestinal TB due to risk of perforation. | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Conticosteroids are absolutely contraindicated in the following type of tuberculosis:
A. Miliary
B. Meningeal
C. Intestinal
D. Renal
| Intestinal |
54b1af67-0c56-4d5d-9f3f-5149798fb005 | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 249 - 251)Causes of secondary angle closure glaucomaPupillary block: uveitis, pseudophakiaAngle fibrosis: neovascular glaucoma | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Which of the following is a cause of secondary angle closure glaucoma?
A. Pseudophakia
B. Coicosteroid induced
C. Angle recession glaucoma
D. Congenital glaucoma
| Pseudophakia |
7662156f-d887-40eb-92f8-52292eb43df5 | Orbit REF: Sabiston 18th ed chapter 71 The most common primary sites for RMS are the head and neck (parameningeal, orbit, pharyngeal), the genitourinary tract, and the extremities Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most frequent soft tissue sarcoma in the pediatric population and is the most common sarcoma occurring in the head and neck. Excluding the orbit, the most common site in the head and neck is the nasopharynx. | Surgery | null | Most common site of rhabdomyosarcoma is?
A. Orbit
B. Nasopharynx
C. Extremities
D. Hypopharynx
| Orbit |
07871bc9-48eb-4107-9d55-2d10b6cbf1cf | Ans. (a) Simple mastectomy(Ref: Bailey and Love 807 /26th edition)* In Phyllodes tumor - Axillary dissection is not needed as there in no nodal mets | Surgery | Breast | Cystosarcoma phyllodes is treated by:
A. Simple mastectomy
B. Radical mastectomy
C. Modified radical mastectomy
D. Antibiotic with conservative treatment
| Simple mastectomy |
2bd88a1d-28a6-4018-b369-d5d0971cdffb | Causes of Erythema nodosum
Idiopathic
Bacterial: - Streptococci, TB, Leprosy (ENL), LGV, yersinia, mycoplasma, Rickettsia, Cat scratch disease.
Fungal: - Coccidioidomycosis, Histoplasmosis, Trichophyton.
Viral : - HBV, HIV
Drugs : - Sulfonamides, iodides, oral contraceptives.
Systemic diseases : - IBD (Ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease), Sarcoidosis, Bechet's disease, SLF
Malignancy : - Hodgkin's disease, other malignancies
Other : - Pregnancy | Dental | null | Erythema nodosum is due to – a) Contraceptive pillsb) Barbituratesc) Penicillind) Sulphonamides
A. b
B. ad
C. ac
D. ab
| ad |
0042ff95-fbc8-4879-bf69-0aa32a042944 | Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed: Pg no:147 OP compounds binds to esteric site of ACHE carbamates binds to both anionic and esteric sites of ACHE oximes binds to anion site of ACHE | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the following is the binding site of organophosphorous compounds
A. Anionic site of Ache
B. Esteric site of Ache
C. Nm receptors
D. plasma cholinesterase
| Esteric site of Ache |
f5d5becd-3bc1-4f53-b1db-40736c2a22b0 | Osteogenesis imperfecta (blue sclera, easily broken bones with minimal trauma) is transmitted as an autosomal recessive (severe form) or, more commonly, autosomal dominant (milder form) disorder. The basic defect is an abnormality in the production and composition of the matrix of bone. Serum calcium and phosphate concentrations are normal. | Pediatrics | Genetics And Genetic Disorders | A 4-year-old child with blue sclera and a history of multiple fractures with minimal trauma. For the mention disorder, select the serum concentration of calcium (Ca2+) and phosphate (PO4) with which it is most likely to be associated.
A. Low PO4, normal Ca
B. Low PO4, high Ca
C. Normal PO4, low Ca
D. Normal PO4, normal Ca
| Normal PO4, normal Ca |
1f3815e8-5425-4f7e-b0ff-aa7ee469005d | • Right colon is the fermentation chamber of the human GI tract
• Bacteria are most metabolically active in cecum
• Left colon is a site of storage and dehydration of stool. | Surgery | null | Antiperistalsis is seen in -
A. Distal colon
B. Jejunum
C. Proximal Colon
D. Ileum
| Distal colon |
0585b517-079a-4bb2-93f2-d9cb441bf5af | (D) Ruptured ovarian cyst > Appendicitis alone does not cause increased amylase. Perforated appendix, may be associated with increased amylase.> Abdominal disorders associated with increased amylase levels include> Biliary tract disease: Cholecystitis Choledocholithiasis> Intra-abdominal disease: Perforating or penetrating peptic ulcer Intestinal obstruction or infarction Ruptured ectopic pregnancy Peritonitis Aortic aneurysm Chronic liver disease Postoperative | Surgery | Miscellaneous | Serum amylase is NOT raised in
A. Cholecystitis
B. Peptic ulcer perforation
C. Intestinal ischemia
D. Ruptured ovarian cyst
| Ruptured ovarian cyst |
d91b5758-08b7-48e2-8020-1a11b87a3668 | Ans. (A) Nicorandil(Ref: Harrison 12th/1862)Nicorandil is the agent that causes coronary dilation by activating myocardial ATP sensitive K+ channels. Inaddition it possesses NO releasing property; to which tolerance does not develop. | Pharmacology | C.V.S | Which of the following is a potassium channel opener?
A. Nicorandil
B. Ranolazine
C. Ivabradine
D. Nitroprusside
| Nicorandil |
f287973b-dcfc-4385-9baa-2bd4f5b08511 | "Lyre sign" is splaying of internal and external carotid arterics because of carotid body tumor, seen on carotid angiogram. | Surgery | null | "Lyre sign" is a feature of:
A. Cystic hygroma
B. Branchial Fistula
C. Bezold's abscess
D. Carotid body tumor
| Carotid body tumor |
820d98b2-28ec-4190-821f-84f776a06648 | PIn index provides prevention of wrong attachments of cylinders . N20 - 3 ,5 O2 - 2 , 5 C02 (Gas) - 1 ,6 . ( Liquid below 88F ) 2 , 6 ; Cyclopropane 3 , 6 . | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | Pin code index of N2O is
A. 1,6
B. 2,5
C. 2,6
D. 3,5
| 3,5 |
86abd2a7-e1ab-42d9-b5ec-ed548909bd3a | Heme Synthesis. Heme is synthesized in a complex series of steps involving enzymes in the mitochondrion and in the cytosol of the cell (Figure 1). The first step in hemesynthesis takes place in the mitochondrion, with the condensation of succinyl CoA and glycine by ALA synthase to form 5-aminolevulic acid (ALA) Ref Robbins 9/e pg 413 | Pathology | Haematology | The quantity of globin chain synthesis is reduced in
A. HbS
B. Thalassemia
C. HbC
D. HbF
| Thalassemia |
864bab68-61df-4859-8db3-7ebf20c9961f | Lyre sign is an angiographic finding seen in carotid body tumour of the neck. There is splaying apa of internal and external carotid aeries on angiogram. Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat by P.L. Dhingra, 9th edition, p460. | ENT | All India exam | Lyre sign in seen in
A. Grave's disease
B. Meniere's disease
C. Lateral sinus thrombosis
D. Carotid body tumour
| Carotid body tumour |
b455c5b0-7f18-4c1e-8fb1-3bad56559238 | Primary health centers provide, as close to the people as possible, an integrated, curative and preventive health care to the rural population, with emphasis on preventive and primitive aspects of health care.
The functions of a PHC are integrated in such a way so as to provide a variety of "Essential" elements of primary health care which are not provided by a dispensary. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Difference between it Ispensary and PHC is that a PHC –
A. Gives integrated services
B. Is confined to particular area
C. Is managed by medical officer
D. Is located in rural areas
| Gives integrated services |
8ae74446-c689-4a27-a451-505a0cc25725 | Supraclavicular is the most commonly used approach to brachial Plexus block.The supraclavicular approach to the brachial plexus characteristically is associated with a rapid onset of anaesthesia and a high success rate.The supraclavicular approach has more even distribution of local anaesthesia. | Anaesthesia | Regional anaesthesia | Most commonly used approach to brachial Plexus block?
A. Interscalene
B. Supraclavicular
C. Infraclavicular
D. Axillary
| Supraclavicular |
018542dc-162d-4c7b-a9b1-47b0ab962a63 | The intraembryonic mesoderm splits into –
Paraxial – forms Somites.
Intermediate plate - give rise to the Genital & Urinary system
Lateral plate - encloses a cavity called the intraembryonic coelom, which further forms the pericardial, peritoneal & pleural cavities. | Unknown | null | Somites are derived from __________ mesoderm:
A. Intermediate plate
B. Lateral plate
C. Paraxial
D. Extraembryonic
| Paraxial |
d6f5dac3-f921-4993-8858-642331276b34 | Carcinoma in Choledochal cyst More than half tumors occur within the cyst itself(intracystic) and may recur after cyst excision Risk of malignancy is decreased after cyst excision, but risk persist even after cyst excision Type I and IV cysts have highest risk of cancer When present most commonly seen along posterior cyst wall If is age related Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1511 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Choledochal cyst
A. Mostly present in adulthood
B. Excision is infrequently done
C. Presents as slowly progressive jaundice
D. Can lead to carcinoma
| Can lead to carcinoma |
98095171-2883-40ae-a76e-a4f498a52ee3 | Ans. a. Chronic pyelonephritis with hydronephrosis (Ref: Robbins 9/e p933-935, 8/e p943-961)In a 45-year old male with history of recurrent ureteric calculi, who presented with fever: Right-sided nephrectomy was performed. Grossly kidney shows hydronephrosis with evidence of scarring. Microscopically changes predominantly involve tubules and interstitium. Most probable diagnosis would be Chronic pyelonephritis with hydronephrosis.Chronic Pyelonephritis* Insidious in onset, may present with clinical manifestations of acute recurrent pyelonephritis with back pain, fever, frequent pyuria, and bacteriuria.* Gross examination: Irregularly scarred kidney; if bilateral, the involvement is asymmetric.* Hallmark of chronic pyelonephritis: Coarse, discrete, corticomedullary scar overlying a dilated, blunted, or deformed calyx.* Most of the scars are in the upper and lower poles, consistent with the frequency of reflux in these sites.* Microscopic changes: Predominantly involve tubules and interstitium.* Dilated tubules with flattened epithelium may be Ailed with colloid casts (thyroidization).* Glomeruli may appear normal except for periglomerular fibrosis, but a variety of glomerular changes may be present, including ischemic fibrous obliteration as well as secondary changes related to hypertension.Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease* Gross Appearance: Kidneys are usually bilaterally enlarged and may achieve enormous sizes.* The external surface appears to be composed solely of a mass of cysts, up to 3 to 4 cm in diameter, with no intervening parenchyma.* Microscopic examination reveals functioning nephrons dispersed between the cysts.* The cysts may be filled with a clear, serous fluid or, more usually, with turbid, red to brown, sometimes hemorrhagic fluid.Renal Cell Carcinoma* Usually presents as a yellowish, spherical mass in one pole of the kidney.* In clear cell carcinoma, the growth pattern varies from solid to trabecular (cordlike) or tubular (resembling tubules). The tumor cells have a rounded or polygonal shape and abundant clear or granular cytoplasm; the latter on special stains contains glycogen and lipids.* Papillary carcinoma is composed of cuboidal or low columnar cells arranged in papillary formations. Psammoma bodies may be present. The stroma is usually scanty but highly vascularized.* Chromophobe renal carcinoma is made up of pale eosinophilic ceils, often with a perinuclear halo, arranged in solid sheets with a concentration of the largest cells around blood vessels.* Collecting duct carcinoma is a rare variant showing irregular channels lined by highly atypical epithelium with a hobnail pattern.* Sarcomatoid changes arise infrequently in all types of renal cell carcinoma and are a decidedly ominous feature of these tumors.Cystic Dysplastic Kidney* Dysplasia can be unilateral or bilateral and is almost always cystic.* Gross appearance: Kidney is usually enlarged, extremely irregular, and multicystic.* The cysts vary in size from microscopic structures to some that are several centimeters in diameter.* The characteristic histologic feature is the presence of islands of undifferentiated mesenchyme, often with cartilage, and immature collecting ducts. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Kidney & Uterus) | A 45-year-old male with history of recurrent ureteric calculi presented with fever. Right-sided nephrectomy was performed. Gross view and histology have been provided. What is your diagnosis?
A. Chronic pyelonephritis with hydronephrosis
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
D. Cystic dyspiastie kidney
| Chronic pyelonephritis with hydronephrosis |
a3092f31-0c44-407b-a9f2-445dcaf0cfb4 | Masseter muscle covers the lateral surface of ramus of mandible which has three layers ORIGIN- Superficial layer: from anterior two third of zygomatic arch Deep layer: from deep surface of zygomatic arch Middle layer: from lower border of posterior one-third of zygomatic arch INSEION- Superficial fibers pass downwards and backward at 45 degree Deep fibers pass veically downwards Middle fibers pass or veically downwards NERVE SUPPLY- By masseteric nerve, a branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve ACTIONS- Elevates mandible to close the mouth to bite Superficial fibers cause protrusion Ref BDC volume 3,sixth edition pg 116 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Which aery is palpated at the anterior border of masseter?
A. Superficial temporal
B. Occipital
C. Facial
D. External carotid
| Facial |
a730ffd1-d9d3-4140-b712-47be6eca252c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Clofazamine Clofazimineo Clofazimine is a leprostatic drug.o It acts by interfering the template function of DNA.o Adverse effects of clofazimine1. Skin -Reddish-black discolouration of skin, dryness of skin and itching. Discolouration of hair and body secretions, acneform eruptions and phototoxicity, conjuctival pigmentation.2. GIT -Enteritis with loose stools, nausea, abdominal pain, anorexia and weight loss.Remember - Clofazimine has antiinflammatory property can be used in lepra reaction. | Pharmacology | Adverse Drug Effect | Ichthyoses is a side effect of -
A. Clofazamine
B. Cephalosporin
C. Capreomycin
D. Lctrozole
| Clofazamine |
2f2ff761-fe12-4f71-a4be-cef81381e66e | While taking an incision on contusion, extravasation of blood into the surrounding tissues which is firmly clotted and cannot be washed by gentle stream of water. Subcutaneous tissues are deep reddish-black. On incision in postmoem staining, blood is seen in blood vessels, which can be easily washed away. Subcutaneous tissues are pale. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 163. | Forensic Medicine | null | A contusion can be differentiated from postmoem staining by doing:
A. Diaphanous test
B. Picard's test
C. Incision test
D. Gettler's test
| Incision test |
e46c4d8e-c0e3-45b5-a98d-b06f4f5fc822 | Ans. B i.e. Itraconazole The presentation is suggestive of pityriasis/ tinea versicolor Tinea Dermatophyte: Parasitic fungus/mycosis, that infects the skin It involve the imperfect fungi of the genera (epidermophyton, microsporum, trichophyton) Dermatophyte are anamorphic (asexual/ imperfect) Dermatophytes causes infection of skin, hair and nails due to their ability to obtain nutrients from keratinized material Athlete's foot/ Tinea pedis presents as (Does not affect only athletes): - Severe itching - Hyperhydrosis Onycho-mycosis/Tinea unguum/Ringworm of the nail affects: Nail plate Dhobi itch or jock itch is also known as: Tinea cruris Tinea versicolor/versatile colour Caused by Malassezia furfur (Dimorphic, lipophilic organism) - Griseofulvin is ineffective (Ketoconazole and Itraconazole are systemic therapy) | Skin | null | A patient presented with scaly, hypopigmented and irregular macules on trunk and proximal extremities. Such a case is best treated with: March 2013
A. Amphotericin B
B. Itraconazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Dapsone
| Itraconazole |
5b03d886-7dca-4345-89c4-665537d701b9 | A. Budd-Chiari syndrome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1973, Ghai 8/e p 320)Budd-Chiari Syndrome: pg 388What is it?Portal hypertension caused by obstruction to hepatic veins anywhere between the efferent hepatic veins & the entry of the inferior vena cava into the right atriumEtiology* Hypercoagulable states e.g. antithrombin III deficiency, protein C or S deficiency, factor V Leiden or prothrombin mutations, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia* Hepatic or metastatic neoplasms, Collagen vascular disease, Infection, Trauma | Pediatrics | Gastro Intestinal System | The obstruction of two or more major hepatic veins is seen in:
A. Budd-Chiari syndrome
B. Reye's syndrome
C. Rotor syndrome
D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
| Budd-Chiari syndrome |
b96d4feb-b510-44df-bd47-8eeb71cd1cf4 | Pareek has evolved a method useful for rural areas. It is based on 9 characteristics. These are caste, occupation of family head, education of family head, level of social paicipation of family head, land holding, housing, farm power, material possessions and type of family. Each characteristic is given score and the total score is used for ultimate classification. Kuppuswami's scale is based on three characteristics; education, income and occupation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The Socio-Economic, Education and Housing Scale developed for rural areas for demographic classicification is which of the following?
A. Pareek
B. Kuppuswami
C. Bhore
D. Adson's scale
| Pareek |
fa8a74fe-a134-4c69-ae71-57c145eba3a3 | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage Earlier it was believed that neonates and infants don't feel pain because of their immature nervous system. But it has now been definitively proved that they experience pain and therefore require analgesia for any surgical procedure. Various pain management options are available: for minor procedures, pacifers dipped in sucrose can be used, topical anesthetic ointment regional anaesthesia can be given such as caudal blocks for hernias and epidural or incisional catheter infusions (On-Q system) for large abdominal or thoracic incisions. for major painful procedures, intravenous narcotic agent is recommended. Morphine and fentanyl can be used. epidural analgesia and paraspinal blockade Paracetamol as oral suspension or as peranal suppositories can be used for mild to moderate pain. | Surgery | null | A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended
A. No medication is needed, as infant does not feel pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system.
B. Only paracetamol suppository is adequate
C. Spinal narcotics intrathecal route
D. Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage
| Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage |
2c3adf10-2bb9-4f73-a3f7-963a05a2267c | SCFH is known for malunion- gun stock defrmity. other fractures complication is non union. | Orthopaedics | Upper Limb Traumatology | Which of the following fracture is known for Malunion ?
A. Femur neck
B. Supracondylar Humerus
C. Scaphoid
D. Lateral condyle of humerus
| Supracondylar Humerus |
d75ae8fd-8aa7-46d3-a930-93c650815178 | Answer is A (Alpo's syndrome): Alpo is syndrome has not been mentioned to recur in kidney after a renal tansplant. | Medicine | null | Disease, does not recur in the kidney after renal transplant is :
A. Alpo syndrome
B. Amyloidosis
C. Good Pasteur's syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy
| Alpo syndrome |
67278fe4-9382-4616-880a-dd5198c852a6 | Anechoic fluid collections, which might normally suggest an early intrauterine gestational sac, may also be seen with ectopic pregnancy. These include pseudogestational sac and decidual cyst.A pseudosac is a fluid collection between the endometrial layers and conforms to the cavity shape. If a pseudosac is noted, the risk of ectopic pregnancy is increased Reference: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition; Chapter 19; Ectopic pregnancy | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Pseudogestational sac is seen in ultrasonography is suspicious of
A. Missed aboion
B. Incomplete aboion
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Complete aboion
| Ectopic pregnancy |
8cc13be4-6f15-433b-b14d-86f0f484875e | The larvae of S.srercoralis migrate through the lungs and they escape from the pulmanory capillaries into the alveoli leading to haemorrhages in the lung alveoli.Bronchopneumonia may also be present. (refer pgno:151 baveja 3 rd edition) | Microbiology | parasitology | Parasite causing pulmonary eosinophilia syndrome -
A. Stongyloides
B. Enterobiasis
C. Hookworm
D. Trichinella
| Stongyloides |
d9c09724-629e-48d9-b40e-ad6528f977d8 | The term hospital infection, hospital-acquired infection or nosocomial infection are applied to infections developing in hospitalized patients, not present or in incubation at the time of their admission.
Such infections may become evident during their stay in hospital or, sometimes, only after their discharge.
Infections are considered nosocomial if they first appear 48 hours or more after hospital admission or within 30 days after discharge. | Microbiology | null | Nosocomial infection occurs in hospital in
A. <12 hours
B. 12-14 hours
C. 24-48 hours
D. >48 hours
| >48 hours |
46ed639a-3cc0-4a2f-97d8-24280d191fb9 | Ans. c. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branchesNerve damaged in case of numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscles is ulnar nerve, before division into superficial and deep branches.Supplied musclesUlnar Nerve (C8T,)Musician's NervMedian Nerve (C5678T1)Laborer's nervedegAxilla and ArmNo branchNo branchForearmFlexor carpi ulnarisdegFlexor digitorum profundus(medial half)degFlexor carpi radialisFlexor digitorum profundus (lateral Flexor digitorum superficialisdegFlexor pollicis longusPalmaris longusPronator teres and quadratusdegHandLast two (3rd and 4th)lumbricalsdegPalmar and dorsal interosseidegThenar muscles:Adductor pollicisdegHypothenar muscles:Palmaris brevisAbductor digiti minimiFlexor digiti minimiOpponens digiti minimi1st two (1st and 2sd)lumbricalsdegThenar musclesAbductor pollicis b.revisdegFlexor pollicis brevisdegOpponens pollicisdeg | Anatomy | null | Nerve damaged in case of numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscles
A. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar
B. Deep branch of ulnar
C. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches
D. Posterior cord of brachial plexus
| Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar |
0fc17fac-4a19-487a-8b84-0b8254ad542c | Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate (F-2,6-BP) increases the activity of phosphofructokinaseF-2,6-BP is formed from fructose-6-phosphate by the action of an enzyme called PFK-2. (It is different from the PFK1)Fructose-2,6bisphosphate is hydrolysed to fructose-6phosphate by fructose-2,6-BisphosphataseThe activities of both the enzymes (PFK2 and fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase) are reciprocally regulated.When glucose supply is in plenty, PFK-2 is dephosphorylated and activated; so F2,6-BP concentration increases; this, in turn, activates PFK. Thus glycolysis is ored Ref: DM Vasudevan, 6th edition, page no: 98-99 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Phosphorylation of phosphofructokinase and fructose-1,6-bisphosphate by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate regulation is seen in
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Adrenal Coex
D. RBC
| Liver |
cc237a72-0626-4246-b272-2d74b799247e | Beta 1 receptors are present opn JG apparatus producing increased renin. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Stimulation of the following receptor produce renin
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2
| Beta 1 |
e6fda91b-aee4-4866-85cc-66f367fa0fa8 | C i.e. Bacteria cannot survive because it lacks DNA methylase that protects the host DNA Any bacteria is protected against its own restriction endonuclease (RE) by a companion enzyme site specific DNA methylase which methylates the restriction sites recognized by that paicular REQ. In other wors, every bacteria has its own pair of RE & site specific DNA methylase - So if any bacteria aquires new/ different RE by horizontal transfer (i.e. from other bacteria) this restriction enzyme will cleave (lyse) the bacterial DNA and kill bacteriaQ because the restriction sites for this RE are not methylated & protected. | Medicine | null | Bacteria aquires restriction endonuclease by horizontal transfer. The result would be
A. Bacteria can undergo mutation
B. Bacteria causes death of host DNA
C. Bacteria cannot survive because it lacks DNA methylase that protects the host DNA
D. It helps in DNA proof reading in bacteria
| Bacteria cannot survive because it lacks DNA methylase that protects the host DNA |
9fb7e229-2c23-443f-9db5-30ac0e64486a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Urachuso Allantois is a vestigial structure and initially, the bladder is continuous with it. Most of the allantois soon constrict to form a thick fibrous cord called the urachus, which extends from the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus. In the adults, the median umbilical ligament represents the urachus. Incomplete closure of urachus results in urachal cyst, sinus or fistula:Urachal cyst: Middle part of allantois remains patent (proximal and distal parts are obliterated).Urachal sinus : Patent inferior end of urachus dilate to form urachal sinus,Urachal fistula : Entire urachus remains patent. | Unknown | null | Median umbilical ligament is derived from -
A. Cloaca
B. Urachus
C. Metanephros
D. Ureteric bud
| Urachus |
bed97bb5-8b96-4d0e-9a15-a193bfae71b8 | Ans. (A) High blood: gas partition coefficient(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p427)The depth of anesthesia depends on the partial pressure of anesthetic in CNS. The transfer of anesthetic into the brain starts only after the blood is fully saturated (or, in other words partial pressure of the anesthetic in blood equals the partial pressure in the inspired air). The speed of transfer of anesthetic to the brain determines its onset of action (rapid vs slow induction of anesthesia) and is dependent on the solubility of anesthetic in the blood. Solubility of an anesthetic is directly related to its blood/gas partition coefficient: highly soluble anesthetics have high blood/gas partition coefficient.If the agent is poorly soluble the amount of gas needed to saturate the blood is small and saturation occurs fairly quickly. Nitrous oxide is an example of poorly soluble gas with a blood/gas partition coefficient of 47. On the graph above the curve of partial pressure of NO in blood rises rapidly. In the highest point on the curve the partial pressure on NO in blood equals that in the inspired air, and the transfer to brain occurs.The second curve (drug A) portrays the process of blood saturation for a highly soluble gas. The higher the solubility the more gas can be taken up by blood before it is saturated. Note that the curve of the partial pressure of drug A in blood rises slower than that for NO. When the blood is fully saturated with NO the partial pressure of drug A in blood is approximately 25% of that in inspired air. For drug A, it takes a longer time to fully saturate the blood and to start transfer in tissues. Drug A, therefore is characterized with high blood/gas partition coefficient and slower onset of action.EffectPoorly soluble gas NOHighly soluble gas (Halothane)Amount needed to saturate the bloodSmallLargeRise in tension of gas in bloodRapidSlowEquilibrium with the brainRapidSlowOnset of actionRapidSlow | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | A new inhaled anesthetic has been developed and tested in a series of experiments. Anesthetic tension in the arterial blood is shown on the graph below as a function of time after inhalation (Drug A) similar curve for nitrous oxide is also shown:Which of the following best describes the properties of the new anesthetic compared to nitrous oxide'?
A. High blood: gas partition coefficient
B. Low solubility in the blood
C. Rapid onset of action
D. Low potency
| High blood: gas partition coefficient |
6c80b95d-2e82-42da-93e9-07ebc8aedb4e | Typically for iron replacement therapy, up to 300 mg of elemental iron per day is needed, usually as three or four iron tablets (each containing 50-65 mg elemental iron) per day. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 848 | Medicine | null | Amount of elemental iron required for iron replacement therapy ?
A. 60 mg of elemental iron per day
B. 160 mg of elemental iron per day
C. 300 mg of elemental iron per day
D. 360 mg of elemental iron per day
| 300 mg of elemental iron per day |
30ba716c-c1a5-457a-960d-2e7a480058b4 | Hypotension and apnea are the most common side effects of propofol. Propofol does not cause hypehermia, indeed, it is the anesthetic of choice in patients at risk for malignant hypehermia. Propofol is associated with a fast emergence, which is also an advantage of the drug. | Anaesthesia | General anaesthesia | A 60-year-old man undergoing an inguinal hernia repair is induced with propofol. Which of the following is most likely to be observed
A. Hypeension
B. Apnea
C. Hypehermia
D. Prolonged sedation
| Apnea |
ff512c76-b056-4d47-98df-202e82e10028 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Duodenal ulcer Both esophageal varices and duodenal ulcer are causes of massive upper GI bleed. Although it is difficult to reach a diagnosis by clinical history and physical examination alone, variceal bleed is less likely as there are no stigmata of chronic liver disease or poal hypeension. | Surgery | null | A 42 year old company executive presents with sudden upper GI bleed (5 litres) of bright red blood, with no significant previous history. The diagnosis is?
A. Oesophageal varices
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Gastritis
D. Gastric erosion
| Duodenal ulcer |
b9f3eeff-274a-4ff1-b4e2-44b32ed5fc63 | About 2/3rd cases of myeloma excrete Bence Jones (light chain) proteins in the urine consists of either kappa or lamda light chains along with presence of Bence Jones paraproteins in the serum.Most commonly gamma globulin Ref;Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no.363 | Pathology | Haematology | Bence Jones proteins are derived from-
A. Alpha globulins
B. Beta globulins
C. Gamma globulins
D. Delta globulins
| Gamma globulins |
63ce0234-0674-41a1-b655-37df0a859006 | Global warming /Green house effect is caused by heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere released by burning of fossil fuels, depletion of ozone layer, d/t use of aerosolized chloro-fluoro-hydrocarbons etc. By their % contribution to greenhouse effect on eah, 4 major gases: Water vapour, 36-70 % Carbon dioxide 9-26% Methane 4-9% Ozone 3-7% | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment | Green-house gases not include:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Water vapour
D. Methane
| Carbon monoxide |
63c7d14b-0d0b-42ab-be84-4630ae1c63aa | .Complications of obesity General: Difficulty in work, fatigue, depression, back pain, ahritis and gout Cardiovascular: Hypeension, stroke, thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolism Pulmonary: Hypoventilation, poor respiratory effo GIT: Hiatus hernia with reflux, changes in liver, pancreatitis, gallstones Endocrine: Diabetes mellitus. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 90 | Surgery | Urology | Complication (s) of obesity is /are
A. Venous ulcer
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Moality
D. Prostate cancer
| Venous ulcer |
d25ecd74-5e4e-46aa-ab07-07438ba244c1 | Ans. A. Stage IVThe International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system for carcinoma of corpus uteri is as follows:a. Stage IA-Tumor limited to endometrium <8cm)b. Stage IB-Invasion to less than one half the myometrium (>8cm)c. Stage IC-Invasion to more than one half the myometriumd. Stage IIA-Endocervical glandular involvement onlye. Stage IIB-Cervical stromal invasioni. Stage IIIA-Tumor invades serosa and/or adnexa and/or positive peritoneal cytologyii. Stage IIIB-Vaginal metastasisiii. Stage IUC-Metastases to pelvic and/or para-aortic lymph nodesiv. Stage IVA-Tumor invasion of bladder and/or bowel mucosav. Stage IVB-Distant metastases including intra-abdominal and/or inguinal lymph nodesvi. Cases of carcinoma of the corpus should be classified (or graded) according to the degree of histologic differentiation. The histopathology and degree of differentiation is as follows:vii. Class G1-Non squamous or non morular solid growth pattern of 5% or lessviii. Class G2-Non squamous or non morular solid growth pattern of 6-50%ix. Class G3-Non squamous or non morular solid growth pattern of more than 50% | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological Disorders in Obs. | Carcinoma endometrium with superficial inguinal lymph node involvement is of:
A. Stage IV
B. Stage III
C. Stage II
D. Stage I
| Stage IV |
a7862cd8-84d0-4933-afe4-3c3bafceb3f9 | Ans. (b) Decreased carbon dioxide(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.640)In oxygen dissociation curve, right shift is favored by,AcidosisIncrease in, 3 DPGIncrease in PCO2 Increase in temperature | Physiology | Respiratory System | Arrow shift of the curve is not due to:
A. Increased hydrogen ions
B. Decreased carbon dioxide
C. Increased temperature
D. Increased BPG
| Decreased carbon dioxide |
de0fd294-508b-43c3-a8d8-f72d39ed8474 | Lesion in the medial lemniscus at the level of pons causes loss of tactile and proprioception on the opposite side. Fibers of medial lemniscus ascend ipsilaterally in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord to the medulla, where they synapse in the gracilis and cuneate nuclei. The second order neurons from these nuclei cross the midline and ascend in the medial lemniscus to end in the contralateral ventral posterior lateral (VPL) nucleus and related specific sensory relay nuclei of the thalamus. Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition PGno: 165 | Physiology | All India exam | Lesion in the medial lemniscus at the level of pons causes which of the following?
A. Pain and temperature loss in the same side
B. Pain and temperature loss in the opposite side
C. Loss of tactile and proprioception on the same side
D. Loss of tactile and proprioception on the oppposite side
| Loss of tactile and proprioception on the oppposite side |
d2599da0-4488-432e-bb46-9b14f154c5a8 | Afferent fibres to cerebellum are climbing fibres (olivocerebellar from inferior olivary nuclei) and mossy fibres (other pas of body) | Anatomy | All India exam | Climbing fibres of cerebellar coex are
A. Olivocerebellar
B. Spinocerebellar
C. Pontocerebellar
D. Vestibulocerebellar
| Olivocerebellar |
f576a687-db0b-40b5-859c-c479d53529e9 | It is seen primary ocular herpes.Sometimes the margins of the dendritic ulcer enlarge and coalesce to form a large epithelial ulcer with a 'geographical' or 'ameboid' configuration</p. Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,6th edition,page no.108 | Ophthalmology | Cornea and sclera | Ameboid ulcer is a feature of -
A. Parasitic corneal ulcer
B. Mycotic corneal ulcer
C. Herpetic corneal ulcer
D. Bacterial corneal ulcer
| Herpetic corneal ulcer |
6573becd-cd24-4512-bed6-c569fbd7f242 | The infant is suffering from hereditary spherocytosis, a disease that can result from defective erythrocyte cytoskeletal proteins such as spectrin or ankyrin. Spectrin is a cytoskeletal protein in the erythrocyte that binds to the ankyrin/band 3 protein complex. It also binds to a protein 4.1/actin complex to form a stable suppoing cytoskeletal network just below the plasma membrane. This helps to maintain the biconcave shape of the cell. Defective spectrin can lead to a destabilization of this network and a tendency of the affected cells to assume a spherical shape and become osmotically fragile. Such cells often become trapped in the splenic cords, and are subsequently destroyed by phagocytes. This can lead to hemolytic anemia, jaundice and splenomegaly. Clathrin is a protein found on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. It is located within the coating of the so-called coated pits seen in electron micrographs of cells engaged in receptor-mediated endocytosis. Connexon is a protein found in gap junctions, usually aggregated around the aqueous pores within the junctional area. Dynein is an ATPase protein responsible for the interaction and sliding of microtubule doublets, resulting in the bending of cilia and flagella. Ref: Murray R.K. (2011). Chapter 52. Red & White Blood Cells. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Pathology | null | An infant presents with mild anemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly. A complete blood count with differential reveals spherocytosis; the reticulocyte count is elevated. The parents state that several relatives have also suffered from a similar illness.The infant's condition is most likely caused by defective?
A. Clathrin
B. Connexon
C. Dynein
D. Spectrin
| Spectrin |
46cfd691-b8f8-4725-8449-2f89733646d3 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Autoclaving Type of SterilizationSpore used* Moist heat (autoclave)Bacillus stearothermophilus* Dry heat (hot air oven)Bacillius subtilis* Ionizing radiationBacillus pumilis* Gas sterilization (ethylene oxide)Bacillus subtilis* Plasma sterilizationBacillus stearothemophilus(Geobacillus stearothermophilus) | Microbiology | General | Bacillus stearothermophilus is used as an indicator for-
A. Hot air oven
B. Radiation
C. Gas sterilization
D. Autoclaving
| Autoclaving |
4fcce4f5-b31c-4e4b-92ef-c1c1cba0526c | Unconjugated bilirubin cannot be excreted in urine because:-
(i) It is lipophilic (lipid soluble) but not water soluble, i.e. it is hydrophobic
(ii) It is tightly bound to albumin, thus cannot be filtered at glomeruli. | Biochemistry | null | Bilirubin is absent in urine because it is -
A. Distributed in the body fat
B. Conjugated with glucoronide
C. Not filterable
D. Lipophilic
| Lipophilic |
c5fd642d-0498-49f4-9b12-3eeb5819857c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malondialdehyde* ROS can be produced by either breakage of covalent bond, addition of electrons to a molecule or removal of hydrogen by other radicals. They are generally highly reactive species and typically act as electrophilic species or oxidant agents. The most important radicals or pro-oxidant molecules involved in disease processes are superoxide (O2-), hydroxyl radical (OH), hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and certain oxides of nitrogen, like nitric oxide (NO) and peroxynitrite (ONOO-)2* Since it is complex measuring free radicals directly in vivo, it is necessary to carry out the quantification of cellular components which can react with these free radicals, such as proteins, DNA and mainly lipids. Once lipid peroxides are unstable compounds, they tend to degrade rapidly in a variety of sub products. MDA (Malondialdehyde) is one of the most known secondary products of lipid peroxidation, and it can be used as a marker of cell membrane injury.* MDA is a three-carbon, low-molecular weight aldehyde formed by cyclization of aldehydes which have unsaturation in a or (3 positions* Several methods have been developed to assess MDA, including quantitative methods using spectrophotometry or fluorimetric detection, high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC), gas chromatography and immunological techniques* Other markers of oxidative stress include conjugated dienes, ethane and pentane gases, isoprostanes and 4-HNE (4 - hydroxy 2- nonenal)About other option* CRP and hsCRP are inflammatory markers* Carboxymethyllysine is an advanced glycation product | Biochemistry | Lipids | What is the parameter that is used to assess lipid peroxidation?
A. Malondialdehyde
B. CRP
C. hsCRP
D. Carboxymethyl lysine
| Malondialdehyde |
53b95bb4-e98f-4beb-bb57-3852d6ac51fd | In patients with spinal cord injury when a minor noxious stimulus is applied to the skin, it will cause a withdrawal response and also irradiate to autonomic centers and produce evacuation of the bladder and bowel, sweating, pallor, and BP swings. This is called "mass reflex". It can be used in paraplegic patients who have poor bladder and bowel control. They can be trained to initiate urination and defecation by pinching their thighs. Magnet reaction is a postural reflex called 'positive suppoing reaction' shown by spinal animals. Decoicate rigidity is seen on removal of the coex and hence removal of inhibition of 'gamma' efferent discharge causing hyperactive stretch reflexes and rigidity. | Physiology | Motor System | Evacuation of the urinary bladder and stool with profuse sweating is a feature of:
A. Mass reflex
B. Magnet reaction
C. Decoication
D. Hemisection of the spinal cord
| Mass reflex |
76e7cb2c-95d8-4861-8b7e-62fdd9051d6a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Squamous non-keratisized Histology of corneao The cornea has five distinct layers (from superficial to deep): -Epithelium : - It is the outermost part of cornea and is composed of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelial cellsQ.Bowman's membrane : - It is not a true membrane but simply a condensed superficial part of stroma. Once destroyed, it does not regenerateQ.Stroma (Substantia propria) : - This layer constitutes most of the cornea (90% of thickness). It consists of collagen fibrils (lamellae) embedded in hydrated matrix of proteoglycans.Descemet's membrane : - This layer bounds the stroma posteriorly. In the periphery it appears to end at the anterior limit of trabecular meshwork as Schwableys ring.Endothelium : - It is a single layer of flat polygnonal cells. The endothelial cells contain 'active-pump' mechanism and is the most important layer in maintaining the transparency of corneaQ. | Anatomy | Epithelium and Intraepithelial Glands | Cornea is lined by -
A. Ciliated columinar
B. Simple columinar
C. Squamous non-keratisized
D. Pseudostrati fied
| Squamous non-keratisized |
89aba2d8-4df6-4d6a-8b91-0c57972510b6 | Muir's Textbook of pathology, edited by J. R. Anderson, 12th edition Answer is option 2, May-Hegglin's anomaly Dohle bodies are intracytoplasmic inclusions seen in mature nuetrophils and are thought to be ribosome containing remnants of promyelocyte cytoplasm. They are seen in May Hegglins anomaly,which is an autosomal dominant disorder. | Pathology | Haematology | Dohle bodies are seen in-
A. Multiple myeloma
B. May-Hegglin anomaly
C. Waldenstorm Macroglobulinemia
D. Lymphoma
| May-Hegglin anomaly |
ebda0ea5-aba4-4859-92b2-7d08a80bdb74 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type II Epiphyseal (Physeall Injuries o The junction between the metaphysis and epiphysis, i.e. physeal plate/growth plate, is the weakest point of a long bone in children and is, therefore, most vulnerable to shearing forces. o Salter and Harris have classified epiphyseal injuries into five types ? Type I : Complete separation of epiphysis from the metaphysis without fracture. Common in rickets, scurvy and osteomyelitis. Type II: The fracture involves the physis and a triangle of metaphyseal bone (Thurston Holland sign).This is the commonest type of epiphyseal injury accounting for 73 percent of cases over 10 years of age. Type III: The fracture is intra- aicular and extends along the physis and then along the growth plate. This injury is relatively uncommon. Type IV: The fracture is intra- aicular and extends through the epiphysis, physis and metaphysis. Perfect reduction is necessary and open reduction is more often necessary to prevent growth arrest. Type V : Crushing of epiphysis. Growth arrest usually follows. Type VI (Rang's type) : There is a peripheral physis (perichondrial ring) injury. | Surgery | null | Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
| Type II |
0f8a6476-177a-4517-aa7e-12d0c05a9c7e | Erythropoietin secretion increases promptly on ascent to high altitude. The increase in circulating red blood cells triggered by the erythropoietin begins in 2-3 days and is sustained as long as the individual remains at high altitude. | Physiology | null | A 32 year old high altitude mountaineer is observed to have a hematocrit of 70%. Which of the following represents the most likely cause/explanation
A. Polycythemia with increased red cell mass
B. Relative polycythemia due to dehydration
C. Polycythemia due to hemoconcentration
D. Polycythemia with high altitude pulmonary edema
| Polycythemia with increased red cell mass |
299621c7-ce66-4efc-8a04-be6ada0b7e9a | ANSWER: (A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thighREF: Differential diagnosis in neurology and neurosurgery: a clinician's pocket guide Page 243Repeat Orthopedics December 2009 | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around the Thigh & Knee | Meralgia paresthetica involves?
A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
B. Forearm
C. Radial nerve
D. Cutaneous branches of obturator nerve
| Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh |
90a360d7-82c6-4e83-ab8a-05dbdcbb3cb7 | Ans. is a, i.e. Head compressionRef. Dutta Obs. 9/e, p 569"Deceleration is defined as a decrease in fetal heart rate below the base line by 15 beats per minute or more." Three basic patterns of deceleration are observed, each of which has a diagnostic significance:FHR patternFeatureSeen inEarly decelerationDeceleration coincidences with a contraction Uniform onset, i.e. gradual takes > 30 sec and recovery Magnitude rarely >40 bpmHead compressionNot associated with fetal hypoxiaLate decelerationBegins at or after the contraction peak and touches baseline only after contraction Uniform onset, i.e. gradual takes> 30 secs and recoveryMay be of low magnitude 10-20 bpmUteroplacental insufficiency, Fetal hypoxia. It is an ominous findingVariable decelerationVariable relationship to contraction Ragged waveform. Abrupt in onset < 30 sec Variable magnitudeUmbilical cord compression M/C type of deceleration | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis in Obstetrics | Early deceleration denotes:
A. Head compression
B. Cord compression
C. Placental insufficiency
D. Fetal distress
| Head compression |
8d244a9c-d978-496b-8237-5fdc2a209342 | Classical features of Plummer-Vinson (Patterson Brown-kelly) Syndrome includes dysphagia, iron deficiency anemia, upper esophageal inflammation with web formation, angular stomatitis and gastritis. It usually affects females in their fouh or fifth decade. Esophageal webs are formed at the junction between squamous mucosa of esophagus and islands of gastric type mucosa in the upper esophagus. Barium swallow shows a web in the post-cricoid region and the same can be seen on oesophagoscopy. It is due to subepithelial fibrosis in this region. About 10% of the cases with this syndrome will develop post-cricoid carcinoma. Treatment: Primary treatment is to correct anemia by oral/parenteral iron. Associated B12 and B6 deficiency should also be corrected. Dilatation of the webbed area by esophageal bougies help to relieve dysphagia. | ENT | null | Women with vitamin B12 deficiency presents with dysphagia and anemia. What is the syndrome that describes this presentation?
A. Plummer Vinson syndrome
B. Eagle syndrome
C. Job's syndrome
D. Treacher Collin syndrome
| Plummer Vinson syndrome |
1fc830c8-fdc6-4255-a85c-ce9e3ad910f5 | Gold attracts gases that render it noncohesive, such gases must be removed from the surface of the gold before dental compaction. This process is usually referred to as degassing or annealing and is accomplished by application of heat. | Dental | null | The purpose of heating gold foil before condensing is:
A. To improve welding quality
B. To melt the gold
C. To remove adsorbed gases on gold surface
D. To increase oxidation
| To remove adsorbed gases on gold surface |
7227d9ce-df25-4a5f-9a89-c251500b2636 | Ans. A: 1% of total body surface area The use of a patient's own hand as a tool to estimate the area of burn injury is well documented. The area of the palmar surface of one hand has been estimated to be 1 percent of the body surface area. | Surgery | null | Palmar surface of hand represents:
A. 1% of total body surface area
B. 2% of total body surface area
C. 3% of total body surface area
D. 4% of total body surface area
| 1% of total body surface area |
5020ac9e-9c2d-43e1-93db-50211087b85e | Ans. b. Lactate (Ref: Yanoff and Duker 4/e p280)In hypoxic injury, cornea becomes edematous because of accumulation of lactate.'Contact lenses are generally very well tolerated, but they induce numerous changes in corneal physiology and the tear film. Decreased oxygen tension occurs with contact lens wear, especially when conventional lenses are worn overnight. Hypoxic stromal edema results from the osmotic changes produced by lactate accumulation. - Yanoff and Duker 4/e p280CorneaCornea (the anterior surface) is the most important refractive surface of the eye, and have power of 45 diopter (3/4th of total power of eye). The refractive index is 1.376Q The critical angle is 46" at cornea tear interfaceThe healthy cornea is avascular and devoid of lymphatic channelsQ.Corneal cell derives nourishment by diffusion from the aqueous, the capillaries at the limbus and oxygen dissolved in the tear himQ.The metabolism of cornea is preferentially aerobicQ and it can function only up to 6-7 hours anaerobically under normal conditions.Hypoxic corneal stromal edema results from the osmotic changes produced by lactate accumulationQ.The metabolic active cells are endothelium, epithelium and stromal keratocytesQOxygen is mostly derived from tear filmQ with a small contribution from timbal capillaries.Glucose supply from cornea metabolism is mainly (90%) derived from aqueousQ and supplemented (10%) by limbal capillaries.Cornea is richly supplied by nervesQ (without myelin sheaths and Schwann cell sheath) which originate from small ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve, mainly by long ciliary nerveQ Due to its dense nerve supply, the cornea is extremely sensitive structure. | Ophthalmology | Inflammations of the Cornea | In hypoxic injury, cornea becomes edematous because of accumulation of:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Lactate
C. Pyruvate
D. Glycogen
| Lactate |
5ee07ad7-d9df-47c7-ae92-1174e383f6c3 | Bulla development in pemphigus vulgaris is due to Acantholysis, this is disruption of intercellular attachment leading to intraepidermal bullae. Autoantibodies against desmosomal protein-desmoglein-3 mediate the pathogeneis. | Pathology | null | Bullous disease in which autoantibodies are formed against antigens of epidermal intercellular junctions
A. Pemphigus Vulgaris
B. Epidermolysis bullosa
C. Dermatitis herpatitis
D. Bullous pemphigoid
| Pemphigus Vulgaris |
80221baf-97b3-4cdf-9530-7d78523bbf2e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Latissimus dorsi & Pectoralis major * Climbing of tree is helped by:i) Latissimus Dorsiii) Pectoralis major* Latissimus Dorsi is also known as "climber's muscle" or "Tree climbing muscle". | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Which of the following two muscles act together for climbing on a tree -
A. Latissimus dorsi & Serratus anterior
B. Serratus anterior & Teres major
C. Latissimus dorsi & Pectoralis major
D. Serratus anterior & Pectoralis major
| Latissimus dorsi & Pectoralis major |
c15cbcad-6103-4eb1-bd67-6d23c1a96488 | Key hole sign - Posterior urethral valve.
Crescent sign - Hydronephrosis. | Radiology | null | Key hole sign is seen in
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Posterior urethral valve
C. Ectopic ureter
D. PCKD
| Posterior urethral valve |
81c13107-551f-439c-b9c3-b343f28014b0 | (Digoxin) (499-KDT 6th)Cardie glycosides (Digitoxin, digoxin, lanatoside-C, Quabain)* All are concentrated in the heart (~ 20 times than plasma) skeletal muscle, liver and kidney* All are cumulative drugs | Pharmacology | C.V.S | Which of the following drugs deposited in the muscles
A. Verapamil
B. Digoxin
C. Adenosine
D. Phenytoin
| Digoxin |
4cf34327-d030-4e11-80e7-80d8fe01d009 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., UN 2000 The millennium development Goals (MDG) More recently in September 2000, representive for 189 countries met at the millennium summit in New York, to adopt United Nations Millennium Declaration. The goals in the area of development and povey eradication are now referred to as "Millennium development Goals" (MDGs). Governments have set a date of 2015 by which they would meet the MDGs. MILLENNIUM DEVELOPMENT GOALS (MDGS - TO BE ACHIEVED BY 2015) : Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) is a set of 8 Goals adopted by 189 countries at UN Millennium Summit in September 2000. Baseline year was taken as 1990: 'All MDGs have to be achieved by 2015' 3 of 8 goals (Goal 4, 5, 6), 8 of 18 targets and 18 of 48 indicators are 'directly' health related Goal 1: Eradicate extreme povey and hunger Goal 2: Achieve universal primary education Goal 3: Promote gender equality and empower women Goal 4: Reduce child moality (Reduce by two-thirds the under-five moality rate) Goal 5: Improve maternal health (Reduce by three-quaers the maternal moality ratio) Goal 6: Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases Goal 7: Ensure environmental sustainability Goal 8: Develop a global panership for development | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Where and when MDG adopted ?
A. WI-10 1990
B. UN 2000
C. UNICEF 1995
D. ILO 2005
| UN 2000 |
31d88999-3980-41f3-b297-5a3f0c7c1060 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hollow viscus There is barotrauma to air filled hollow organs. | Forensic Medicine | null | Organs mostly involved in blast injury ?
A. Solid organs
B. Hollow viscus
C. Skeletal system
D. Muscles
| Hollow viscus |
99183b53-215e-40e8-b12d-3a938f90f4f0 | Strychnine causes respiratory stimulation.
Other three options can cause respiratory depression | Forensic Medicine | null | Respiratory depression is caused by A/E -
A. Opium
B. Barbiturate
C. Strychnine
D. Gelsemine
| Strychnine |
193e3cbb-76a0-4209-b00a-ad7d26b99ab0 | <Tinea capitis it is is superficial fungal infection of scalp and hair with dermatophytes . Commonest mycosis in children's Fungus grows over scalp and extend down in hair follicles till zone of keratinisation-adamsons fringe. According to the inflammatory component of clinical presentation tinea capitis classified as Inflammatory-keerion and us Non inflammatory- grey patch and black dot According to size and location of spores Ectothrix-spores outside hairshaft hairs appear dull and grey Endothrix-spores inside hair shaft- hairs break at the follicular orifices appear as black dots on scalp Clinical presentation :four different clinical presentations Grey patch or non inflammatory type:patches of hair loss with broken dull looking hairs.causative organism- microsporum audounii,M.canis,M.gypseum Kerion or inflammatory type : kerion is a inflammatory boggy swelling , indurated tender swelling that is studded with broken ,unbroken hairs , vesicles and pustules. There is sinus formation thick crusting.heals with scarring. Causative organism trichophyton verrucosum and trichophyton mentagrophytes Black dot or non inflammatory type: endothix infection.hairs break at the level of scalp appear as black dot on scalp. Favus: inflammatory type: yellow cup shaped crust composed of dense meat of mycelia and debris-scutula.concavity of cup faces up.endemic in Kashmir. Causative organism T.schoenleinii. Diagnosis: Woods lamp: Bright green fluorescence- M.canis,M.audounii,M.gypseum Dull green fluorescence- T.schoenleinii Direct demonstration KOH mount Treatment Drug of choice for tinea capitis-griseofulvin 15-25mg/kg/day for 2-4 months Other drugs- itraconazole ,fluconazole,terbinafine Topical therapy not effective Antifungal shampoos like ketoconazole and selenium sulphide decrease carrier state. iadvl textbook of dermatology page 254 | Dental | Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis | Hair infection with scutula formation is seen is case of-
A. Tenia Capitis
B. jock Itch
C. Tenia glabrosa
D. Tenia barbae
| Tenia Capitis |
4dfb4017-74c5-4765-93ad-aaa0a2880cb0 | Propylthiouracil Propylthiouracil is the drug of choice for hypehyroidism during pregnancy. Antithyroid drugs in pregnancy Propylthiouracil and methirnezole are both antithyroid drugs that cross the placenta and can lead to fetal goiter. Methimazole has been associated with "cutis aplasia". Scalp defects cloanal atresia esophageal atresia and increased maternal side effects. Because both medications are equally effective the drug of choice for hypehyroidism in pregnancy is propylthiouracil. Propylthiouracil is not available throughout the world and in those conditions methimazole may be substituted. Antihypeensives in pregnancy Angiotensin conveing enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor) e.g., Enalapril, captopril can cause fetal renal tubular dysplasia in the second and third trimesters leading to oligohydramenios fetal limb contractures, craniofacial deformities and hypoplastic lung development. A recent large coho study found an increased risk of congenital malformations with isolated first trimester exposure to ACE inhibitors. Infants exposed in utero to ACE inhibitors were at increased risk of cardiovascular and CNS malformations. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists have been shown to have second and third trimester findings consistent with ACE inhibitors and are not recommended in pregnancy. Aldosterone We have not got any literature on the use of Aldosterone during pregnancy. We are not sure of it use during pregnancy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which can be used in pregnancy aEUR'
A. >ACE inhibitors
B. >Aldosterone
C. >AT receptor antagonist
D. >Propylthiouracil
| >Propylthiouracil |
7f691d6e-2cb9-4746-a0a1-1f6af05d624b | The primary bacterial indicator recommended for faecal contamination is the coliform group of organisms as a whole (E.Coli)Supplementary indicator organisms are faecal streptococci and sulphite-reducing clostridia.Park 23e pg: 720 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Not seen in fecal pollution is
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. E.coli
D. Clostridium perfringens
| Staphylococcus |
788c7751-02fb-4c9c-9ba8-e8f487bcca74 | < o.5Slow growth0.5 - 1.0Moderate growth1.0 - 1.5Rapid growth1.5 - 2.0Very rapid growthMore than 2.0 is explosive growth.Currently, India has 1.2% annual growth with 132 crores (in 2016)(Ref:- Park. 23rd ed. Page no 481) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | The annual growth rate of a Country was found to be 1.3, country rating under population growth would be under
A. Moderate growth
B. Rapid growth
C. Very rapid growth
D. Explosive growth
| Rapid growth |
82eb7b56-02fc-4e20-962a-3b77d8b1c132 | Most commonly involved organism in causing urinary tract infection is E. Coli. Risk factors - More common in females Recent use of a diaphragm with spermicide, frequent sexual intercourse. Maternal history of diabetes ,UTI and incontinence . Obstruction in urine flow(calculi,malignancies) Incomplete voiding(residual urine) Foriegn body in urinary tract (catheter, calculi) Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 969,970 | Medicine | Kidney | Most common organism involved in urinary catheter induced urinary tract infection is -
A. E.coli
B. Pseudomonas
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Proteus
| E.coli |
48ffc9f3-78d8-4157-993d-f67b80d3198b | RHESUS SYSTEM. The Rhesus (Rh) blood group systemwas first discovered on human red cells by the use of antisera prepared by immunizing rabbits with red cells from a Rhesus monkey. The Rh allelic genes are C or c, D or d, and E or e,located on chromosome 1. One set of 3 genes is inheritedfrom each parent giving rise to various complexcombinations. The corresponding antigens are similarly named Cc, Ee and only D since no d antigen exists. However, out of all these, D antigen is most strongly immunogenic and, therefore, clinically most impoant. In practice, Rh grouping is performed with anti-D antiserum.Individuals who are D-positive are referred to as Rh-positiveand those who lack D antigen are termed Rh-negative.Practically, there are no naturally-occurring Rh antibodies.All Rh antibodies in Rh-negative individuals areacquired from immunization such as by transfusion andduring pregnancy, resulting in fatal hemolytic transfusionreaction and haemolytic disease of the newborn. Ref: Harsh Mohan - Textbook of Pathology, 6th Edition.page no.339 | Pathology | miscellaneous | Rh factor is an-
A. antibody
B. Mucopolysaccharide
C. Protein
D. fatty acid
| Protein |
55ccacd7-16f4-4a24-9421-05eb755e42d8 | If the pancreatic duct is dilated and symptoms persist, a longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy (Puestow) is performed (Figure below). In this operation, the pancreatic duct is slit open and anastomosed side-to-side to the cut end of the divided jejunum with a Roux-en-Y anastomosis. Resection of the pancreas is reserved for patients without a dilated duct (<6 mm). In these cases, a distal pancreatectomy is performed when the disease primarily involves the body and tail of the pancreas; whereas, a Whipple operation is performed when the disease is confined to the head.Lateral pancreatic jejunostomy (Puestow) for chronic pancreatitus | Surgery | Pancreas | A 40-year-old woman with severe chronic pancreatitis is scheduled to undergo an operation, because other forms of treatment have failed. The ultrasound shows no evidence of pseudocyst formation or cholelithiasis and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) demonstrates dilated pancreatic ducts with multiple stricture formation. Which operation is suitable to treat this condition?
A. Pancreatic jejunostomy (Puestow procedure)
B. Gastrojejunostomy
C. Cholecystectomy
D. Splenectomy
| Pancreatic jejunostomy (Puestow procedure) |
1e1d823d-3c2f-497c-94c4-96faeddbd0f0 | Osteoclastoma a.k.a Giant cell tumor Occurs at the epiphysis Tumors occurring at epiphysis: Chondroblastoma Osteoclastoma Metaphysis: Osteosarcoma Enchondroma Chondrosarcoma Simple bone cyst Aneurysmal bone cyst Diaphysis (LEMON) Lymphoma Ewing&;s sarcoma Multiple myeloma Osteoid osteoma Admantinoma Ref: Maheshwari 9ED pg 250. | Orthopaedics | Tumors | Which bone tumor appears in epiphysis?
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Ewing's sarcoma
C. Chondromyxoid fibroma
D. Osteosarcoma
| Osteoclastoma |
0756bd93-d85e-4fbd-9f08-e6e513f2d239 | Ans. A. CVS defectLithium is in FDA pregnancy category D, which includes drugs for which there is evidence of human fetal risk, but whose potential benefits may outweigh the risk in some pregnant women. Lithium appears to increase the risk of cardiovascular anomalies in humans (the incidence of Ebstein anomaly of the tricuspid valve is between 1 and 2 per 1,000 which is 10 to 20 times greater than in the general population). Although the teratogenic risk of lithium is still greater than that found in the general population, it is lower than that posed by carbamazepine and valproate. Fetal echocardiography is advised to screen for cardiovascular malformations in women exposed to lithium during the first trimester of pregnancy. | Psychiatry | Pharmacotherapy In Psychiatry | Lithium use in pregnancy leads to which of the following effect on baby?
A. CVS defect
B. Urogenital defect
C. Neural tube defect
D. Facial defects
| CVS defect |
db80c0fd-5d8c-4598-aefa-35d02636d1e9 | The ministry of Health and Family Welfare,Govt of India,evolved a National Health Policy in 1983 keeping in view the national commitment to attain the goal of Health for all by the year 2000.Since then there has been significant changes in the determinent factors relating to the health sector,necessitating revision of the policy and a new National Health Policy-2002 was evolved (refer pgno:873 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | The national health policy is ba sed on -
A. Comprehensive health care
B. Subsidized health care
C. Socialized medicine
D. Equitable distribution of health resources
| Comprehensive health care |
ed36bc6c-0a85-427f-9889-841d147fbb82 | The pathogenesis of nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) often involves a hypercoagulable state which is the result of the procoagulant effects of circulating products of cancers the resulting cardiac valve vegetations may also be called marantic endocarditis. The pathophysiology of NBTE is similar to that of Trousseau's syndrome (migratory thrombophlebitis) which may also be induced by disseminated cancers like mucinous adenocarcinoma of the pancreas and adenocarcinoma of the lung which may relate to procoagulant effects of circulating mucin. Cancer metastases to the hea usually involve the pericardium or myocardium. Valve metastases are less frequent and would probably have shown invasive characteristics on histological examination. | Pathology | Myocardial Infarction | A 70-year-old male Rohan with advanced visceral cancer dies of extensive myocardial infarction. Autopsy also reveals sterile non-destructive vegetations along the mitral leaflet edges. The pathogenesis of this patient's vegetations is most similar to that of:
A. Hypercalcemia of malignancy
B. Distant metastases
C. Trousseau syndrome
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
| Trousseau syndrome |
12bad48b-d4a5-48ce-b673-154d499aeec3 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pons Duret Hemorrhage:* It is the hemorrhage of mid brain and pons secondary to herniation of brain.* This lesion in most cases is a secondary midline hemorrhage resulting from rapid assymetrical herniation of brainstem downwards.* The midline lesion usually involves the mid brain and pons but never the medulla.* The morphology of the hemorrhage is highly variable - ranges from a streak like discoloration in the midline pontinetegmentum to Rorschach like complex pattern. | Surgery | Nervous System | Duret hemorrhages are seen in -
A. Forebrain
B. Occipital lobe
C. Pons
D. Temporal lobe
| Pons |
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