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8d3420cf-9433-4126-906b-f562d77ef7e2 | Ans- B Thyroid hormone increases the hepatic expression of LDL receptor. Hence in hypothyroidism there is reduction in hepatic LDL receptor So there is reduced clearance of LDL. | Unknown | null | Increased blood levels of cholesterol that are seen in hypothyroidism are most likely due to -
A. Decreased calorigenesis
B. Decreased production of LDL receptor in liver and the thus decreased clearance by liver
C. Decreased production of LDL receptor in the adipose tissue and increased release of cholesterol from adipose tissues
D. Increased breakdown of lipoproteins releasing cholesterol in circulation
| Decreased production of LDL receptor in liver and the thus decreased clearance by liver |
9934b988-d862-48e7-a2d7-4253e0567231 | The inferior olivary nucleus, a cerebellar relay nucleus, is the most prominent nucleus in the lateral medulla. Coordinate signals from the spinal cord to the cerebellum to regulate motor coordination and learning. fig:- crossection at the level of medulla(upper pa) | Anatomy | Brainstem, cerebellum and ventricles | Inferior olivary nucleus is present in
A. Base of pons
B. Midbrain, at level of superior colliculus
C. Midbrain, at level of inferior colliculus
D. Lateral medulla
| Lateral medulla |
e9f2c377-749c-47b4-8baa-fc11457e5d43 | From the onset of the LH surge, it takes 34-36 hours and from the peak it takes 10-12 hours to ovulate. The midcycle LH surge is responsible for a dramatic increase in local concentrations of prostaglandins and proteolytic enzymes in the follicle. These substances progressively weaken the follicular wall and ultimately allow a perforation to form. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception | Ovulation is seen after how many hours of the 'Peak' of the 'Up stroke' in this diagram here :
A. 0-6 hours
B. 10-12 hours
C. 12-24 hours
D. 24-36 hours
| 10-12 hours |
ecf5cf39-ae00-440d-a7bb-338897216678 | Radiation energy is absorbed by tissue causing ionization or excitation, which are responsible for various biological effects. Susceptibility of various phases of cell cycle of radiation: G2M>M>G1> early S> late S phase Phase of cell cycle Comment G2M>G2 * Most sensitive to radiation End of S phase * Most resistant to radiation G1 * Radiation exposure leads to chromosomal aberration G2 * Radiation exposure leads to chromatid aberration | Surgery | Oncology | Most radio resistant phase in cell cycle:
A. G1
B. Early S
C. Late S
D. G2
| Late S |
840dbf43-e03c-4050-bd33-ec56621f0aef | BOERHAAVE&;S syndrome is a tear in the lower third of oesophagus which occurs when a person vomits against a closed glottis, causing leaks into the mediastinum, pleural cavity, and peritoneum.site of perforation is about 2-10 cm of posterolateral pa of the lower oesophagus.investigations include chest Xray, MRI/CT, and total count.treatment includes feeding by jejunostomy, surgery with resection. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th ed, pg no 802 | Surgery | G.I.T | Boerhaave&;s syndrome is due to
A. Drug induced esophagus perforation
B. Corrosive injury
C. Spontaneous perforation
D. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease
| Spontaneous perforation |
cb35cea0-5945-484b-b6f4-69c5847ca7aa | N-acetylcysteine is used as an effective antidote for acetaminophen overdose. In acetaminophen overdose, N-acetylcysteine, a sulfhydryl-containing acetaminophen-specific antidote, replenishes hepatic stores of glutathione by acting as a glutathione surrogate, combining directly with reactive acetaminophen metabolites and preventing hepatic damage. N-acetylcysteine should be initiated within 10 hours of actaminophen overdose to achieve optimum results. | Forensic Medicine | null | What is the effective antodote for acetaminophen overdose in a 28 year old suicidal patient?
A. N-Acetyl cysteine
B. N-Glycolamine
C. Penicillamine
D. Fomipezole
| N-Acetyl cysteine |
570370c2-6601-4148-9210-1831933c8009 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Transposon(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 63 and 8th/e, p. 64)Transposons are also known as jumping genes.Transposons are also known as jumping genes. They move between chromosomal DNA and extra chromosomal DNA within cell. They take part in drug resistance mechanism. | Microbiology | General | Jumping gene is:
A. Transposon
B. Cosmid
C. Episome
D. Plasmid
| Transposon |
cb1258c4-8cbd-492b-a84b-0019561acf32 | Phenylbutyrate and sodium benzoate act as ammonia(nitrogen) scavengers. | Biochemistry | null | Phenylbutyrate is used in the treatment of urea cycle disorders, because
A. It activates deficient enzymes
B. It maintains urine output
C. It acidifies the urine
D. It scavenges nitrogen.
| It scavenges nitrogen. |
b9a8b397-90bf-450b-ac91-c84ba44e58e7 | D i.e. Cholesterol restricted diet, high fiber diet with low saturated FA to unsaturated FA ratio. | Biochemistry | null | For reduction of cholesterol, the best management includes:
A. Cholesterol restricted diet
B. High fiber diet
C. Diet with high unsaturated FA and low saturated FA
D. Cholesterol restricted diet, high fiber and diet with low saturated FA to unsaturated FA ratio
| Cholesterol restricted diet, high fiber and diet with low saturated FA to unsaturated FA ratio |
f510edaa-c420-4cfd-8ee8-ccdea6a8684c | Chronic meningoencephalitis and hydrocephalus are reversible causes of dementia. | Psychiatry | null | Reversible cause of dementia -a) Post encephalitisb) Multi infarctc) Hydrocephalusd) Senile dementia
A. a
B. bc
C. ad
D. ac
| ac |
bfdc9543-8d48-4bc2-ae4c-e60989a12720 | Deficiency of ascorbic acid results in scurvy, a disease characterized by sore and spongy gums, loose teeth, fragile blood vessels, swollen joints, and anemia. Many of the deficiency symptoms can be explained by a deficiency in the hydroxylation of collagen, resulting in defective connective tissue.Reference: Lippincott; 5th Edition; Page no: 377 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Scurvy is due to deficiency of
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E
| Vitamin C |
554bc91b-8ebf-4ce1-a38c-919288522948 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acetylcholine Lower esophageal sphinctero Unlike the rest of the esophagus, the musculature of the gastroesophageal junction (lower esophageal sphincter: LES) is tonically active but relaxes on swallowing,o The tonic activity of the LES between meals prevents reflux of gastirc contents into the esophagus,o The LES is made up of three components.o The esophageal smooth muscle is more prominent at the junction with the stomach (intrinsic sphincter),o Fibers of the crural portion of the diaphragm, a skeletal, a skeletal muscles, surround the esophagus at this point (extrinsic sphincter) and exert a pinchcock-like action on the esophagus. In addition, the oblique or sling fibers of the stomach wall create a flap valve that helps close off the esophagogastric junction and prevent regurgitation when intragastric pressure rises,o The tone of the LES is under neural control.o Release of acetylcholine front vagal endings causes the intrinsic sphincter to contact, and release of NO and VIP from interneurons innervated by other vagal fibers causes it to relax.o Contraction of the crural portion of the diaphragm, which is innervated by the phrenic nerves, is coordinated with respiration and contractions of chest and abdominal muscles,o Thus, the intrinsic and extrinsic sphincters operate together to permit orderly flow' of food into the stomach and to prevent reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus. | Physiology | Physiology of Gastrointestinal Disorders | Tone of lower esophageal sphincter is increased by-
A. NO
B. VIP
C. Acetylcholine
D. Epinephrine
| Acetylcholine |
2babcd35-7be3-4ff5-b8b9-ae8b41c300da | The distal convoluted tubule in the kidney coex functions to reabsorb sodium and secrete potassium. This is regulated by the adrenal hormone aldosterone as stimulated by angiotensin II which will increase reabsorption of sodium and secrete potassium. The distal convoluted tubule also functions in the continuation of bicarbonate ion reabsorption with hydrogen ion secretion. The terminal poion of the distal convoluted tubule is sensitive to antidiuretic hormone from the neurohypophysis, which acts to increase the permeability to the tubule to water, resulting in concentrating the urine. | Physiology | null | Exchange of sodium for potassium in the distal convoluted tubule is regulated primarily by:
A. Angiotensin 1
B. Aldosterone
C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D. Androstenedione
| Aldosterone |
798c45ab-90f9-415e-ae9f-78b939f731a0 | Ans. d. Zymogen: (Ref: Lippincott 4/e p64, 443, 248-49; Harper 29/e p89, 519, 651-53)Chymotrypsinogen or prochymotrypsin is a proprotein, proenzyme or zymogen."Chymotrypsinogen or prochymotrypsin is a proprotein, proenzyme or zymogen. Trypsin can then activate chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin, proelastase to elastase. procarboxypeptidase to carboxypeptidase, and proaminopeptidase to aminopeptidase. Chymotrypsinogen is a endopeptidase, breaking the peptide bond formed by alpha carboxyl group of amino acids: phenylalanine, tyrosine, tryptophan, valine or leucine."Proproteins (Proenzymes or Zymogens)Zymogen is an inactive precursor of enzyme/protein that require selective proteolysis for activationQ.Selective proteolysis often result in conformational changes that create the catalytic site of an enzyme or it unmasks the active site of an enzyme by removing small region of peptide chain (by hydrolysis of specific peptide bond)Q.Enzymes needed intermittently but rapidly often are secreted in an initially inactive form since new synthesis and secretion of required proteins might be insufficiently rapid to respond to a pressing pathophysiological demand such as clot formation, clot dissolution, tissue repair etc.Proenzymes facilitate rapid mobilization of activity in response to physiological need.Proteolytic digestive enzymes are known as proteases. These are secreted as inactive zymogens. The synthesis of enzymes as Zymogens protects the cell from being digested by its own product (autodigestion)Q.Types of ProteasesExopeptidaseEndopeptidase* Hydrolyse peptide bonds one at a time from the ends of polypeptide chain.* Carboxypeptidase (in pancreatic juice): Cleaves amino acid from carboxy terminalQ* Aminopeptidase (in small intestine): Cleaves amino acid from amino terminalQ* Hydrolyse peptide bonds in mid portion between specific amino acids (Pepsin, Elastase, Trypsin, Chymotrypsin)Q | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Enzymes) | Chymotrypsinogen is a:
A. Transaminase
B. Carboxypeptidase
C. Clot lysing protein
D. Zymogen
| Zymogen |
c334f24c-dcc8-4702-9ee5-e0f68d7efdfb | a. Increased O2 tension(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2162)In the course of several days after birth, the high arterial Po2 constricts and eventually closes the ductus arteriosus, which eventually becomes the ligamentum arteriosum | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | Which of the following is a stimulus for closure of ductus arteriosus?
A. Increased O2 tension
B. Hypoxia
C. Prematurity
D. Hypercapnia
| Increased O2 tension |
22535dc3-c846-42f8-87bf-62fd133a2b06 | Myoclonic and atonic seizures-control is often incomplete, but valproate is the drug of choice. Myoclonic Seizures. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by brief, jerking spasms of a muscle or muscle group. They often occur with atonic seizures, which cause sudden muscle limpness. The word "myoclonic" combines the Greek prefix for muscle -- "myo" -- with "clonus," which means twitching. REF: KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Myoclonus in children is best treated by:
A. Clonazepam
B. Sodium Valproate
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Ethosuccimide
| Sodium Valproate |
f53b3d5e-9d2a-4697-be1e-bfedf89275b3 | Ans. (b) KidneyRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 1409* Hyperacute rejection is most common in Kidney* Hyperacute rejection is very rare in liver | Surgery | Transplantation | Transplantation of which one of the following organs is most often associated with hyper acute rejection?
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Lungs
D. Liver
| Kidney |
4b104999-eebb-4d32-8cb9-b7a3dccfeac7 | Sickle cell disease Caused by missense mutation in the b-globin gene that leads to the replacement of a charged glutamate residue with a hydrophobic valine residue. Mutation promotes the polymerization of deoxygenated hemoglobin, leading to red cell distoion (sickling), hemolytic anemia, microvascular obstruction, and ischemic tissue damage. Sickle cell trait (heterozygosity) confers protective effect against falciparum malaria. In early childhood, spleen is enlarged. However, as disease progresses, there is chronic erythrostasis leading to splenic infarction, fibrosis, and progressive shrinkage, only a small piece of fibrous splenic tissue is left, a process called autosplenectomy. The mainstay of treatment is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis, hydroxyurea. | Pathology | Megaloblastic Anemia | Which of the following is not a feature of sickle cell disease?
A. Autosplenectomy
B. Heterozygous individuals are at increased risk of Plasmodium falciparum infection
C. Ischemic tissue damage
D. Hydroxyurea is used as a therapeutic agent
| Heterozygous individuals are at increased risk of Plasmodium falciparum infection |
d606a2c8-8704-4b2e-b538-b9072d562a8a | The major causes of neonatal moality are prematurity/low bihweight (LBW) and congenital anomalies.Moality is highest during the 1st 24 hr after bih.Neonatal moality accounts for about two-thirds of all infant deaths (deaths before 1 yr of age).(Refer: Nelson, Chapter 93; pg no. 789) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Maximum risk of death is seen in which week of the neonatal period?
A. First week
B. Second week
C. Third week
D. Fouh week
| First week |
562f0008-129a-488b-bca2-f81e21354d19 | Enteric fever: In 25% of cases, a macular or maculopapular rash (rose spots) may be visible around the 7th-10th day of the illness These lesions may be difficult to see in dark-skinned children. | Pediatrics | Impoant Bacterial Diseases in Children | Rose spot is associated with?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Malaria
C. Scarlet fever
D. Wilson disease
| Typhoid fever |
3b795307-511f-4e87-a604-eb8d7f974d77 | Ans. (a) Tuberous sclerosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 516)Ungual fibromas or Koenen's tumors are angiofibromas which occur in the lateral nail groove, along the proximal nail fold or under the nail. They are seen in Tuberous Sclerosis | Pathology | Central Nervous System | Koener's tumor are seen in?
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. VHL
D. NF
| Tuberous sclerosis |
fd5a8e0f-909c-41fa-bcdb-4e5b340da0b4 | PANCREATIC ASCITES: MANAGEMENT Pancreatic ascites occurs from a pancreatic duct disruption or from a leaking pseudocyst. High amylase levels are found in the ascitic fluid. Initial treatment: Non operative (elimination of enteral feeding, institution of nasogastric drainage, and administration of somatostatin) Repeat paracentesis may also be helpful. Roughly 50% to 60% of patients can be expected to respond to this treatment with resolution of pancreatic ascites within 2 to 3 weeks Persistent or recurrent ascites: Endoscopic or surgical treatment Endoscopic pancreatic sphincterotomy with or without placement of a transpapillary pancreatic duct stent . Resection (for leaks in the pancreatic tail) or internal Roux-en-Y drainage (for leaks in the head and neck region) | Surgery | Pancreas | When to do surgery in pancreatic ascites?
A. Symptomatic
B. Recurrent ascites following abdominal drainage
C. Not responding to medical therapy
D. Leak from the stented duct
| Recurrent ascites following abdominal drainage |
c164e337-cf93-42c6-9ed0-dee0dde98067 | HYSTERICAL BLINDNESS It is a form of psychoneurosis, commonly seen in attention-seeking personalities, especially females. It is characterised by sudden bilateral loss of vision.There may be associated blepharospasm and lacrimation. Visual fields are concentrically contracted. One can commonly find spiral fields as the target moves closer to the fixation point. Pupillary responses are essentially normal and so is the blink response. Optokinetic nystagmus is intact. Treatment: Its treatment includes psychological suppo and reassurance. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-307 | Ophthalmology | Neuro-ophthalmology | Spiral field defect is a feature of
A. Hysterical amblyopia
B. Amblyopia exanopsia
C. Toxic amblyopia
D. Malingering
| Hysterical amblyopia |
11f34dee-77fb-42a0-87f5-88e27f39c1ce | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Streptococcus pneumoniae | Pediatrics | null | Most common organism causing meningitis in a 1 year old child -
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. H. influenza
C. Listeria
D. Neisseria meningitidis
| Streptococcus pneumoniae |
1abbff0c-6488-4348-b194-a7132833d1e0 | PARK'S CLASSIFICATION Type 1 Inter- sphincteric (MC) Type 2 Trans- sphincteric Type3 Supra- sphincteric Type4 Extra- sphincteric Investigations - First investigation - Fistulogram - IOC- MRI Treatment High morbidity * Fistulotomy -Incision over fistula tract it * Fistulectomy- Excision of fistula tract. * SETON * VAAFT (Video Assisted Anal Fistula Treatment | Surgery | Rectum and anal canal | Most common anorectal fistula:
A. Inter sphincteric
B. Trans sphincteric
C. Supra sphincteric
D. Extra sphincteric
| Inter sphincteric |
780d845b-276c-4af7-b7d9-568b767f93d6 | Indian is a major excretory product in the metabolism of tryptophanRef: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 242, fig 18.11 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | "Indican" is a metabolite of
A. Histidine
B. Tryptophan
C. Tyrosine
D. Valine
| Tryptophan |
bbbd60ab-bfdb-4d46-950c-535352cac34c | - Pseudomembranous colitiis Overgrowth of C. difficile following antibiotic therapy d/t destruction of normal intestinal flora. Aka Antibiotic-associated colitis / Antibiotic-associated diarrhea Produces exotoxin that induces necrosis of superficial mucosa, -Pseudomembrane formation. Bacteria itself does not invade the mucosa. Histology : small surface erosion of superficial colonic crypts and overlying accumulations of neutrophils, fibrin, mucus, and necrotic epithelial cells Lamina propia adjoining area of necrosis has infiltrate of neutrophils and eosinophils In advanced lesion : necrosis of superficial crypts with more dense neutrophil infiltrate and plaque like pseudomembrane of neutrophil , fibrin, and cellular debris covering mucosal surface | Pathology | Small Intestine Malabsorption disorders | For the past week, a 65-year-old woman has been treated for a severe infection with broad-spectrum antibiotics, and she had recovered well. Over the past day, however, she has developed foul-smelling, voluminous, greenish, watery diarrhea, as well as abdominal pain and fever. She is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. Which of the following is the mechanism associated with this condition?
A. Aggregation of bacterial colonies on the lumen, forming pseudomembranes
B. Bacterial release of exotoxin, inducing necrosis of the mucosa
C. Physical invasion of bacteria into the superficial mucosa, leading to pseudomembrane formation
D. Selective killing of C. difficile bacteria by antibiotics
| Bacterial release of exotoxin, inducing necrosis of the mucosa |
cdc72949-ccff-4be1-80d0-58e0c3cb7740 | Ans. a (Intermediate uveitis) (Ref. Parson's 19th/pg. 360 & Basak's Ophthalmology, 2nd /p. 151; Q. 157 of MH-2007)INTERMEDIATE UVEITIS (PARS PLANITIS)# Thought to be immunological reaction# 2nd to 4th decade# Usually trilateral (80%)# Floaters & blurring of vision# Snow-ball vitreous opacities# Snow-bank exudates over pars plana ('SNOW-BANKING')# Moderate aqueous cells & flare# Moderate to severe cases need sub-tenon steroid inj or systemic steroids or cryotherapy | Ophthalmology | Uveal Tract | Pars planitis is also known as
A. Intermediate uveitis
B. Anterior uveitis
C. Posterir uveitis
D. Pan uveitis
| Intermediate uveitis |
6c41b9df-d78e-4d22-9f41-944f11f0f5b7 | Alcohol is not a prominent risk factor for stroke or hea disease but is for cancer and motor vehicle accidents. Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21stedition, page-37 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is not a prominent risk factor for stroke?
A. High blood pressure
B. Elevated cholesterol
C. Smoking
D. Alcohol
| Alcohol |
6678f45f-185c-4fb4-9141-f7bdd149955c | fluticasone an example of inhaled steroid coicosteroids suppress bronchial inflammation by stimulating lipocoin production and inhibiting phospholipase A2 after binding to intracellular receptors ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION KD TRIPATHI PG NO.230 | Pharmacology | Respiratory system | Inflammation in the airways can be reduced by:
A. Fluticasone
B. Budesonide
C. Theophylline
D. Salbutamol
| Fluticasone |
ebf01456-efac-4fcc-8f2f-6712b5acaaf1 | Symptoms dysuria vaginal discharge excessive irritant acute unilateral pain and swelling over labia rectal discomfo labia look swollen and inflamed D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,Pg no:147,6th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Infections of the genital tract | In Gonorrhoea -- which is not a presenting feature?
A. Discharge
B. dysuria
C. Hematuria
D. Reddened lips of vulva and vagina
| Hematuria |
f0bb2de5-f418-4092-ab01-1279b7ef089d | A i.e. Long bones Endochondral ossification is seen in long bones, veebrae, pelvis, and bones of base of skullQ; whereas intramembranous ossification occurs in skull vault, flat bones of skull, maxilla, majority of mandible and clavicleQ | Anatomy | null | Enchondral ossification is/are seen in:
A. Long bones
B. Flat bones of skull
C. Clavicle
D. Mandible
| Long bones |
88af1f5a-6ef6-4e36-ba39-ab931ec66a37 | Diagnostic tests for ch. hepatitis B is FIBsAg, lgG anti-HBc, HBcAg, HBv DNA. IgM anti-HBc is present in acute hepatitis B infections which disappears gradually will the appearance of IgG antiHBc. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 2349 t | Medicine | Infection | Which of the following is not associated with active chronic hepatitis B?
A. HBsAg
B. IgM anti-HBcAg
C. HBeAg
D. Anti-HBsAg
| IgM anti-HBcAg |
ce6c0cd1-7977-4493-bad7-efa6436ba805 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., >1010 It has been calculated that a human adult has about 1012 bacteria on the skin, 1010 in the mouth and 1014 in thegastrointestinal tract. ---------Textbook of bacteriology | Microbiology | Misc. | The number of bacteria on skin are -
A. 10l- 102
B. 102- 105
C. 105-1010
D. 1010
| 1010 |
57dc6d4b-3b1e-48db-98fd-e2707b45b11e | The first number is the width of the blade or primary cutting edge in tenths of a millimeter (0.1 mm).
The second number of a four-number code indicates the primary cutting edge angle, measured from a line parallel to the long axis of the instrument handle in clockwise centigrades. The angle is expressed as a percent of 360 degrees. The instrument is positioned so that this number always exceeds 50. If the edge is locally perpendicular to the blade, then this number is normally omitted, resulting in a three-number code.
The third number (second number of a three-number code) indicates the blade length in millimeters.
The fourth number (third number of a three-number code) indicates the blade angle, relative to the long axis of the handle in clockwise centigrades.
Sturdevants operative dentistry 7th edition page e2 | Dental | null | For a dental hand instrument with a formula of 10-8.5-8-14, the number 10 refers to ________.
A. The width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter
B. The primary cutting edge angle in centigrades
C. The blade length in millimeters
D. The blade angle in centigrades
| The width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter |
f5460c5c-cc56-4bf0-8b6e-0fdc3792ed03 | Ans. is c i.e. > 12 weeks Medical termination of Pregnancy act passed in 1971deg is an impoant topic. Many questions are asked on this topic. I am giving MTP Act in detail - Do go through it. THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971 In India. the MTP act was passed in August 1971 and came into effect from April 1972. In extends to the whole of India except in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Indications : A. Therapeutic : When the continuation of pregnancy endangers the life of woman or may cause serious injury to her physical or mental health. B. Eugenic : When there is risk of the child being born with serious physical or mental abnormalities. This may occur. If the pregnant woman in the first three months suffers from : -- German measles, (incidence of congenital defects 10 to 12%). -- Smallpox or chicken pox. -- Toxoplasmosis. -- Viral hepatitis. Any severe viral infection. If the pregnant woman is treated with drugs like thalidomide, coisone, aminopterin, antimitotic drugs, or if she consumes hallucinogens or antidepressants. Mother is treated by X-rays or radioisotopes. Insanity of the parents. Humanitarian : When pregnancy has been caused by rape.deg Social : When pregnancy has resulted from the failure of contraceptive methods in case of a marrieddeg woman, which is likely to cause serious injury to her mental health. When social or economic environment, actual or reasonably expected can injure the mother's health. Rules : Only a qualified registered medical practitionerdeg possessing prescribed experience can terminate pregnancy. Chief Medical Officer of the district is empowered to ceify that a doctor has the necessary training to do aboions. A medical practitioner can qualify if he has assisted in performance of twenty-five cases ofdeg M. TR in a recognised hospital. The pregnancy should be terminated in Government hospitalsdeg, or in the hospitals recognised by the Governme: . Is No novemmental institutions may take up aboion if they obtain a licence from Chief Medical Officer of the district.deg The consent of the womandeg is required before conducting aboion. Written consent of the guardian is required if the woman is a minor (<18 years)degor a mentally ill person.deg Consent of husband is not necessary. Aboion cannot be performed on the request of the husband, if the woman herself is not willing. The woman need not produce proof of her age. The statement of the woman that she is over eighteen years of age is accepted. It is enough for the woman to state that she was raped, and it is not necessary that a complaint was lodged with the police. Professional secrecy has to be maintained. The Admission Register for the termination of pregnancies is secret document, and the information contained therein should not be disclosed to any person. If the period of pregnancy is below 12 weeks, it can be terminated on the opinion of a single doctor.deg // the period of pregnancy is between 12 and 20 weeks, two doctors must agree that there is an indication.deg Once the opinion is formed, the termination can be done by any one doctor. Termination is permitted upto 20 weeks of pregnancy.deg In an emergency, pregnancy can be terminated by a single doctor, even without required training (even after twenty weeks). without consulting a second doctor, in a private hospital which is not recognised. The termination of pregnancy by a person who is not registered medical practitioner (person concerned), or in an unrecognised hospital (the administrative head) shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a terra which shall not be less than two years, but which may extend to seven years. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | According to MTP Act, 2 doctor's opinion is required when pregnancy is :
A. 10 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. > 12 weeks
D. > 20 weeks
| > 12 weeks |
9fbc781a-d19f-46bc-94ac-edc045013047 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 150 ml * Methanol is highly toxic alcohol. It is metabolized to formaldehyde (by alcohol dehydrogenase) and formic acid (by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase). It can be present in contaminated country liquor used to denature ethanol.* It is the accumulation of formic acid which causes toxic effects in methanol poisoning. Accumulation of formic acid results in lactic acidosis/high anion gap metabolic acidosis with low plasma bicarbonates, blindness due to retinal damage, papilledema and optic atrophy.* Symptoms of poisoning are nausea, vomiting, dizziness, confusion, headache, abdominal pain, respiratory depression, cyanosis, acute tubular necrosis, hypothermia, fixed dilated pupils, visual distrubance (blurring of vision; photophobia) and odor of spirit in breath. Fatal dose in adults is 60-240 ml in adults, but as little as 15 ml can cause blindness.* Methanol poisoning can be treated by supportive measures, gastric lavage and sodium bicarbonate (to treat acidosis) ethanol is useful because it competitively inhibits the conversion of methanol to formic acid. Fomepizole can also be used as it is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase. Folic acid or folinic acid enhance the metabolism of formic acid to C02. Hemodialysis may also be used in severe poisoning. | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology | Fatal dose of methanol is?
A. 15 ml
B. 150 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 650 ml
| 150 ml |
25736212-c5b4-4920-8e33-c1b80716a9f9 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fungal infection o Hypopyon refers to accumulation ofpolymorphonuclear leucocytes in the lower angle of anterior chamber. Many pyogenic organisms (Staphylococcus, streptococci, gonococci, Moraxella) and fungi may produce hypopyon but by far the most dangerous are pseudomonas pyogenea and pneumococcus.o Thus, any corneal ulcer may be associated with hypopyon, however, it is customary to reserve the term 'hypopyon corneal ulcer'for the characteristic ulcer caused by pneumococcus and the term 'corneal ulcer with hypopyon' for the ulcers associated with hypopyon due to other causes. The characteristic hypopyon corneal ulcer caused by pneumococcus is called "ulcus serpens".o It is worth noting that the hypopyon in bacterial causes is sterile since the outpouring of polymorphonuclear cells is due to toxin and not due to actual invasion by bacteria. On the other hand, hypopyon in fungal (mycotic) corneal ulcer is non-sterile as there is direct invasion by fungi. | Ophthalmology | Inflammations of the Cornea | Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in -
A. Pneumococcus infection
B. Pseudomonas infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Gonococcal infection
| Fungal infection |
a93cf1bd-dcf3-4782-babf-52b0e4651318 | BronchiectasisAbnormal and permanent dilatation of bronchi.The bronchial dilatation of bronchiectasis of is associated with destructive and inflammatory changes in the walls of medium-sized airways, often at the level of segmental or subsegmental bronchi.Types of bronchiectasisCylindrical bronchiectasis Varicose bronchiectasis Saccular (cystic) bronchiectasis Aetiology & pathogenesisBronchiectasis is a consequence of inflammation and destruction of the structural components of the bronchial wall. Infection is the usual cause of inflammation.Adenovirus and influenza virusImpaired host defence mechanisms Carcinoid tumours or foreign body aspirationPrimary ciliary dyskinesia, Kaagener&;s syndrome and cystic fibrosis are also associated with bronchiectasis.Exposure to toxic substances like inhalation of toxic gases such as ammonia or aspiration of acidic gastric contentsClinical Manifestations:Radiographic findingsPersistent or a recurrent cough and purulent sputum productionHemoptysis due to bleeding from friable, inflamed airway mucosa.Massive bleeding from hyperophied bronchial aeries.Physical examination include crackles, rhonchi, and wheeze may be heard, all of which reflect the damaged airway containing significant secretions HRCT is an investigation of choice When seen longitudinally, the airways appears as"tram tracks"; when seen in cross-section, they produce&;ring shadows" Bronchiectasis of relatively proximal airways suggests ABPA, whereas the presence of multiple small nodules (nodular bronchiectasis) suggest infection with M. avium complex(Refer: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18thedition, pg no: 2143-2144) | Anatomy | All India exam | The most likely precursor to bronchiectasis is
A. Tuberculosis
B. Carcinoma
C. Bronchial adenoma
D. Bronchopneumonia
| Bronchopneumonia |
2949130e-edee-4fcb-98ef-315340ac86ba | Ans: a (Diabetes) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 2060; 17th ed, p. 2180Most common cause of neuropathic joint is diabetesNeuropathic joint (Charcot joint)It is a progressive destructive arthritis associated with loss of pain sensation, proprioception or both.Clinical featuresIt begins as a single joint and then progresses to involve other joints. Swelling is present, loose bodies may be palpated.Joint becomes unstable and subluxation may occur. The amount of pain experienced by the patient is less than that would be anticipated based on the degree of joint involvement.Causes of Charcot jointDiabetes mellitusTabes dorsalisMeningomyelocoele or syringomyeliaAmyloidosisLeprosyPeroneal muscular atrophyCommonly involved joints in various diseasesDiabetes mellitus: Tarsal and metatarsal jointsTabes dorsalis: Knee, hips and anklesSyringomyelia: Glenohumeral joint, elbow and wrist | Medicine | Immunology and Rheumatology | Most common cause of neuropathic joint:
A. Diabetes
B. Amyloidosis
C. Syphilis
D. Leprosy
| Diabetes |
5c1b49eb-b61c-4464-b56a-982be32cb87b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Respiratory synchytial virus o The child presenting with respiratory distress and bilateral crepitations and wheezing, we have to suspect brochiolitis. | Pediatrics | null | A 11 month old child presents with complaints of respiratory distress. On examination there is bilateral crepitation and wheezing. Which of the following is the most likely cause -
A. Pneumonia
B. Adenovirus
C. Respiratory synchytial virus
D. Rhinovirus
| Respiratory synchytial virus |
60f3b070-f393-4a43-9dbd-d78a4a97839e | High levels of serum calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen are produced by many medullary tumours, which should be tested for in suspected cases.Calcitonin levels fall after resection and rise again with recurrence, making it a valuable tumour marker in the follow-up of patients with this disease.Ref: Bailey and Love, page no: 820 | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | After thyroidectomy for medullary carcinoma of thyroid, which is impoant for determining recurrence of a tumour?
A. Thyroglobulin
B. TSH
C. Calcitonin
D. Thyroxine
| Calcitonin |
3e10afe5-f8e9-470e-a549-b93f182624b9 | Ans. is C i.e. Hemogram /blood grouping? As discussed in previous answer? Complete blood counts along with platelet count are done in case of recurrent pregnancy loss. VDRL-To test for syphilis Rubella-virus screening are not done because as discussed earlier, infections rarely lead to recurrent Toxoplasma serology pregnancy loss. "Few infection are firmly associated with early pregnancy loss- moreover, if any of these infections are associated with miscarriage, they are even less likely to cause recurrent miscarriage because maternal antibodies usually develop with primary infection. Thus, there appears no concrete indication to screen for infection in asymptomatic women with recurrent miscarriage" "Routine serological lests, cervical cultures and endometrial biopsy to detect genital infections in women with recurrent pregnancy loss cannot be justified. Evaluation should be limited to women with clinical cervicits, chronic or recurrent bacterial vaginosis or other symptoms of pelvic infections" As far as Blood glucose testing is concerned- Neither Novaks, Leon speroff, nor Williams- say that blood glucose levels should be tested in patients with recurrent pregnancy loss - Leon speroff says? " In women with recurrent pregnancy loss, evaluation with blood glucose and HbA,C AIC level is indicated for those with known or suspected diabetes, but otherwise it is unwarranted" So for our exams purposes we have to learn & remember the list of investigations mentioned in previous question in case of recurrent aboions. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A lady presented to your with a history of recurent early pregnancy loss. What are the investigation to be ordered:
A. VDRL
B. Toxoplasma serology
C. Hemogram/Blood grouping
D. Rubella screening
| Hemogram/Blood grouping |
61675305-3efd-4d04-8337-9b647574cfa6 | Purkinje fibers at the apex, where impulse is passed on from Purkinje fibers to ventricular muscle, are the so-called "gate cells". | Physiology | Conducting System of Hea | "Gate" cells in the hea are:
A. Cells in SA node
B. Cells in AV node
C. Cells in his bundle
D. Cells in Purkinje fibers
| Cells in Purkinje fibers |
77bcc3c0-fb26-434d-ad8b-9819bc518c46 | Ans. (c) 4 yearsRef: OP Ghai 8th ed./13* Length of Indian baby at birth=50cm* Length at 1 year=75cm* Length at 4 1/2 years= 100cm* Subsequently 5-6 cm/year* Pubertal growth spurt=6-8cm/year | Pediatrics | Assessment of Growth | At what age (in years) does-a child attain a height of 100 cms?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
| 4 |
7056c115-c69a-4509-9463-cb821c2a47a8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radial nerve palsy Complications of humerus shaft fractureNerve injury : - Radial nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in fracture shaft humerus. It is particularly common in oblique fractures at the junction of middle and distal third of the bone (Holstein- Lews fracture).Vascular injury : - Brachial artery damage.Delayed union or non-union : - Delayed union or non-union may occur, especially in transverse fracture of the midshaft. The cause of non-union is distraction at fracture site due to gravity and weight of plaster.Joint stiffness : - Shoulder & elbow stiffness. | Orthopaedics | Humerus Fractures | Most common complication of mid shaft humerus fracture is -
A. Radial nerve palsy
B. Median nerve palsy
C. Nonunion
D. Malunion
| Radial nerve palsy |
5b4dc106-e2e8-40b2-aaff-5efe31f4fed3 | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. In blocking mitotic activity p53 inhibits the cyclins and CDKs and prevent the cell to enter G1 phase transientally. This breaking time in the cell cycle is utilised by the cell to repair the DNA damage.. | Pathology | General pathology | The tumor suppressor gene P53 induces cell arrest at-
A. G2 - M phase
B. S G2 phase
C. G1 - S phase
D. Go - phase
| G1 - S phase |
0799ebd4-a3f4-49fd-9c2c-93880fffcc2f | Devices used foroxygen therapy Performance of these devices can be described according to 1. Themaximum oxygen concentrationachievable to be delivered to the patient, and the reliability/ variability with which the devices do that. Looking at the reliability and variability of oxygen delivery to the patient we can divide these pieces of equipment intofixed performance or variable performance devices. This means that the achieved inspired oxygen concentration is either more dependent on thepatient'speak inspiratory flow rate (PIFR)(variableperformance devices) or less so (fixedperformance devices). Fixed performance devices These devices deliver a fixed inspired oxygen concentration to the patient, independent of the PIFR. Even at the time of PIFR no random entrainment of room air will occur to unpredictably alter the FiO2 with this equipment. Devices in this group include: SS Venturi mask Thereisentrainment of room air with these devices, but it is fixed and not dependent on the patient's PIFR. Therefore the resulting delivered FiO2 is also constant. SS Non-rebreather facemask A reservoir bag supplies 100% oxygen and makes up for the deficit which occurs during times when the patient's PIFR is higher than the oxygen supply flow to the mask (usually around 20 L/min from an oxygen wall or tank source). Aflap valveon the mask prevent or at least reduce entrainment of room air. These masks do not achieve a perfect seal with the patient's face, sosomeroom air entrainment still occurs. FiO2 up to 70-80% can be achieved. SS Anesthetic facemask(with an anesthetic breathing circuit) These masks form a complete seal around the patient's airway so no entrainment of room air can occur. The delivered oxygen concentration is the same as in the gas mixture supplied to the mask (assuming no rebreathing occurs in the anesthetic breathing cicuit). We have also listed thePatil-Syracuseand theendoscopy maskunder this heading. Both of these devices allow instrumentation with a fiberoptic scope while maintaining a seal to the face with the mask. 2. Variable performance devices These devices deliver a variable inspired oxygen concentration to the patient, which depends on the PIFR. Depending on a patient's inspiratory effo (tidal volume, 'speed' of inspiration and respiratory rate) the PIFR can often exceed the flow rate at which oxygen or an oxygen/air mixture is supplied by the device, meaning that at the time of PIFR more or less entrainment of room air occurs, altering the resulting FiO2 in an unpredictable fashion Devices in this group are: SS Nasal cannulas Simple facemask/ 'Hudson' mask | Anaesthesia | Airway | Which of the following can delivery 100% oxygen
A. Venturi mask
B. Anesthetic face mask
C. Hudson mask
D. Non - rebreather face mask
| Anesthetic face mask |
2496161d-375c-4c65-8779-d9a40cb1e0bb | Benign paroxysmal positional veigo (BPPV) is characterised by veigo when the head is placed in a ceain critical position. There is no hearing loss or other neurologic symptoms. Disease is caused by a disorder of posterior semicircular canal. The condition can be treated by performing Epley's manoeuvre. The principle of this manoeuvre is to reposition the otoconial debris from the posterior semicircular canal back into the utricle. | ENT | null | Epley's test is used for which of the following conditions?
A. Benign paroxysmal positional veigo
B. Basilar migraine
C. Ohostatic hypotension
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
| Benign paroxysmal positional veigo |
17e2381b-2573-4852-a8b9-b3ed20f349ce | ANSWER: (A) LouseREF: Park textbook of preventive and social medicine 20th edition page 684 "Epidemic relapsing fever is transmitted by Louse"Always remember:Epidemic typhus Endemic typhus Epidemic relapsing fever Endemic relapsing feverLouse Rat flea Louse Soft tickDiseases transmitted by louse can be remembered as "PERT": Pediculosis, Epidemic typhus, Relapsing fever (Epidemic), Trench fever.Diseases transmitted by soft tick can be memorized as 'QRS": Q-fever, Relapsing fever (Endemic) by Soft tickDiseases transmitted by hard tick can be memorized as "Hard tick Takes Very Kind Babe": Tick typhus (Rocky Mountain spotted fever), Tick Paralysis, Tick fever, Tularemia, Viral encephalitis (Russian spring summer encephalitis), Viral hemorrhagic fever, Kyasanur Forest Disease, Babesiosis | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and Health | Epidemic relapsing fever is transmitted by?
A. Louse
B. Soft tick
C. Hard tick
D. Rat flea
| Louse |
e6a81818-8983-44cd-bdcb-0a8c42c67086 | Isolation: The period of isolation is determined by the duration of communicability of the disease and the effect of chemotherapy on infectivity. Period of infectivity: the risk of transmitting Hepatitis A virus is greatest from 2 weeks before to 1 week after the onset of jaundice. Thus isolation of the patient 2 weeks before and one week after jaundice is necessary. Must know: Hepatitis A is caused by a Hepatitis A virus of genus hepatovirus. Humans are the only known resovoirs and their main mode of transmission is feco-oral route. Natural infection with Hepatitis A virus gives life long immunity. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 101,168. | Microbiology | null | Isolation period of Hepatitis A after the onset of jaundice is:
A. 1 week
B. 2 week
C. 3 week
D. 4 week
| 1 week |
8bc9723e-6d0e-4db8-88ac-b7a70b89d885 | Ans. B i.e. Palpable lymphadenopathy Hodgkins lymphoma Malignant cells of Hodgkin's disease are: Reed Sternberg cells/ RS RS cells are positive for: -- CD15 and -- CD30 Subtype of Hodgkin's disease, which is NOT positive for CD15 and CD30: Lymphocytic predominant Lacunar cells are seen in: Nodular sclerosis type of lymphoma Hilar lymphadenopathy is a feature of: Nodular sclerosis type MC type of Hodgkins lymphoma: Nodular sclerosing MC type of Hodgkins lymphoma in India: Mixed cellularity | Medicine | null | MC presentation of Hodgkin's disease: March 2013
A. Weight loss
B. Palpable lymphadenopathy
C. Fever
D. Night sweats
| Palpable lymphadenopathy |
1ee59766-772f-4e95-8f33-e7209abe451a | The chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect papillary muscles to valve leaflets. The restraint provided by these cords on the valve leaflets prevents the prolapse of the mitral valve cusps into the left atrium. The crista terminalis is a ridge that runs from the opening of the inferior vena cava to the superior vena cava. Trabeculae carneae are irregular ridges of myocardium that are present within the ventricles. | Anatomy | Thorax | A 42-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with dyspnea. Imaging reveals severe mitral valve regurgitation. Which of the following structures prevents regurgitation of the mitral valve cusps into the left atrium during systole?
A. Crista terminalis
B. Crista supraventricularis
C. Pectinate muscles
D. Chordae tendineae
| Chordae tendineae |
168c379a-1ae2-4c75-befb-f6f5ba6f2661 | Ans: D i.e. Negri bodiesPathologic changes and associated conditionsIn tuberculosis, aeries running through the subarachnoid space may show obliterative endaeritis with inflammatory infiltrates in their walls and marked intimal thickeningHIV encephalitis is best characterized microscopically as a chronic inflammatory reaction with widely distributed infiltrates of microglial nodules, sometimes with associated foci of tissue necrosis and reactive gliosisAcute cases of poliomyelitis show mononuclear cell perivascular cuffs and neuronophagia of the anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cordNegri bodies, the pathognomic microscopic finding of rabies, are cytoplasmic, round to oval, eosinophilic inclusions that can be found in pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus and Purkinje cells of the cerebellum, sites usually devoid of inflammation. | Pathology | null | Pathognomic finding of rabies is: March 2012
A. Obliterative endaeritis
B. Microglial nodules
C. Neuronophagia
D. Negri bodies
| Negri bodies |
92519ea0-6846-458c-a81e-70d2396646f4 | Ans: c (8 days) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 203If the division occurs after 8th day of fertilization, when the amniotic cavity has already formed, a monoamniotic--monochorionic twins developsTwins:There are two different types of twins -- dizygotic and monozygotic(i) Biovular - (Dizygotic/ Fraternal twins) - Diamniotic dichorionic(ii) Uniovular (Monozygotic, Identical)(a) Diamniotic - Monochorionic division occurs between 4-8 days. (After formation of inner cell mass)(b) Diamniotic - Dichorionic - division occurs within 3 days(c) Monoamniotic mono chorionic - division occurs after 8 days(d) Conjoint twins (Siamese twins) - division occurs after 2 weeks of the development of embryonic disc.Most common type of fusion is thoracophagusCommonest lie of fetus in twins -Commonest presentation -Rarest presentation-LongitudinalBoth cephalicBoth transverseComplication of twin pregnancyCommonest complication of twin pregnancy - preterm labourCommonest complication during labour is post partum hemorrhageOther complications during labour - PROM, cord prolapse, prolonged labour, increased operative interference and interlocking.Other complications are hyperemisis, anaemia, preeclampsia, polyhydramnios, APH (PP), malpresentationUnique complications of monozygotic twinAcardiac twinsTwin - Twin transfusion syndromeConjoint twinsCord entanglementHellin ruleAccording to Hellin rule the mathematical frequency of multiple birth is twins 1 in 80 pregnancies, Triplets 1 in 802, Quadruples - 1 in 8(P Incidence of monozygotic twins - 1 in 250Discordant twin - When there is a difference of 25% wt between the two twins then they are called discordant twins.SuperfecundationIt is the fertilization of two ova released in different menstrual cycle, by separate acts of coitus within a short period of time.SuperfetationIt is the fertilization of two ova released in different menstrual cycles. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Monoamniotic monochorionic twins develop if division occurs after:
A. 24 hrs
B. 1-3 days
C. 8 days
D. 14 days
| 8 days |
df96db51-b0bd-457f-ab91-81b876360bd9 | A child follows object upto 180° by 3 months, ---- Meharban Singh 3'.d/e 67.
Neck holding develops by 3 months.
A child can sit with support by 5 months and can sit without support by 8 months.
So, the age of this child is between 5-8 months, which may be 5 months (option c) or 6 months (option d) or 7 months. | Pediatrics | null | A baby can follows an object with 180°, can hold neck, can sit with support but can not sit without support.The age of the baby is – a) 1 monthb) 3 monthsc) 5 monthsd) 6 monthse) 9 months
A. cd
B. bc
C. bd
D. ac
| cd |
ecbd496a-6f73-48de-9c6e-ebcb72d84118 | Thyroglobulin is a glycoprotein specific to the follicular cell, facilitates the conversion of MIT and DIT into T3 and T4. Measurement of peripheral thyroglobulin has predictive value for the recurrence of DTC (differentiated thyroid cancers) locally or in metastatic deposits after initial total thyroidectomy Source : Sabiston 20th edition Pg : 886 | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | Tumor marker for papillary carcinoma of thyroid is ?
A. Calcitonin
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Chromogranin A
D. Tyrosinase
| Thyroglobulin |
4ff7047e-d3d4-44a2-8bdc-a2b687e178e4 | Ans. A Medial geniculate body I. Auditory pathway: SC-SLIM-41,42 II. S- Spiral ganglia (cochlea) III. C- Cochlear nuclei (ponto-medullary junction) IV. S-Superior olivary nucleus (pons) V. L-Lateral lemniscus (brain stem) VI. I-Inferior colliculus (mid-brain) VII. M-Medial geniculate body (meta-thalamus) VIII. 41,42 - Brodmann area (cerebral coex) | Anatomy | null | Auditory pathway passes through:
A. Medial geniculate body
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Reciculate formation
D. Cerebellar fornix
| Medial geniculate body |
6d4472c7-7c86-4f2e-9723-e83bac0aa092 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 7 yearso A person is legally declared dead if not seen for 7 years from the date of declared missing. | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | A person is declared dead if not seen by relatives for how many years -
A. 3 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
| 7 years |
8c666534-4470-4f09-bc53-de4b9f86a13b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Red Contaminated recylable wastes are disposed in which red color bag. These are tubing, bottles, IV tubes, IV sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes (without needles) and vaccutainers (with their needles cut) and gloves. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Used urine bags are disposed in which color bag ?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Black
| Red |
bf73ac1b-8a7c-464f-a7e3-852a3b770ee6 | A child with nephrotic syndrome and no other clinical findings is most likely to have minimal change disease, a name that reflects the paucity of pathologic findings. There is a fusion of podocyte foot processes, which can be seen only by electron microscopy. This fusion leads to selective proteinuria of low molecular weight proteins (albumin). Variability of basement membrane thickening may be seen in Alport syndrome. The mesangial matrix is expanded in some forms of glomerulonephritis (e.g., IgA nephropathy) and other diseases, such as diabetes mellitus, but not in minimal change disease. Reduplication of the glomerular basement membrane may be seen with membranoproliferative GN. Subepithelial electron-dense humps represent immune complexes and are seen in postinfectious GN. | Pathology | Kidney | A 6-year-old girl has become increasingly lethargic over the past 2 weeks. On examination, she has puffiness around the eyes. Her temperature is 36.9degC, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Laboratory findings show serum creatinine, 0.7 mg/ dL; urea nitrogen, 12 mg/dL; and cholesterol, 217 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows pH, 6.5; specific gravity, 1.011; 4+ proteinuria; lipiduria; and no blood or glucose. The 24-hour urine protein level is 3.8 g. The child's condition improves after glucocorticoid therapy. Which of the following findings by electron microscopy is most likely to characterize this disease process?
A. Areas of thickened and thinned basement membrane
B. Effacement of podocyte foot processes
C. Increased mesangial matrix
D. Reduplication of glomerular basement membrane
| Effacement of podocyte foot processes |
2327350f-71e1-461d-af3e-5ac4593685fd | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pseudomonas aeruginosa "The optimum temperature for growth of pseudomonas aeruginosa is 37 degree and is able to grow at temperature as high as 42deg C" - Essentials of Microbiology Pseudomonas aeruginosa Morphology Gram negative bacilli Motile by polar flagellum Non capsulated but many strains have mucoid slim layer especially the organisms which are isolated from cystic fibrosis patient. Culture Obligate aerobe Colonies emit a distinctive, musty, mawkish, eahy or sweet grape-like odour or corn tocolike odour. Cetrimide agar is a selective media. Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a numbers of pigments. The production of these pigments accounts for the colour of colonies. Pyocyanin is produced only by P.aeruginosa and it inhibits the growth of many other bacteria. Pyoverdin may be produced by many other species. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is incubated at temperature 40-44 degrees ?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Vibrio parahemolyticus
D. E coli
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
9aa1a608-9431-4ba5-b495-a3a4436f1b82 | Presence of Mill wheel murmur and decrease in End tidal CO2 during surgery suggests Air embolism:-
"If air enters the vein in sufficient amount, it will go to the right heart and lung causing an air-lock obstruction in the pulmonary artery. This may result in a loud continuous precordial murmur, the so called "Mill wheel murmur". | Anaesthesia | null | 55 year old female a known case of thryotoxicosis in control posted for abdomino perineal resection during surgery there was sudden drop in B.P., and end tidal CO2 decreased from 40 to 10 mmHg. On auscultation there was a mill wheel murmur, what is the diagnosis –
A. Thyroid storm
B. Bleeding
C. Hypoxia
D. Air embolism
| Air embolism |
f7e06ef1-4c44-48f6-83dd-7e11d675283a | B i.e. Lisfranc amputation Tarsometatarsal joint is known as Lisfranc joint and amputation through this joint is k/a Lisfranc amputationQ. | Surgery | null | Tarsometatarsal amputation is also known as
A. Chopa's amputation
B. Lisfranc amputation
C. Pirogoff amputation
D. Symes amputation
| Lisfranc amputation |
f0ba0727-464b-4e50-b8d7-98ff821ceb18 | Pavor nocturnus is the other name for sleep terror. | Psychiatry | null | Pavor nocturnus is -
A. Sleep terror
B. Sleep apnea
C. Sleep bruxism
D. Somnambulism
| Sleep terror |
c7221d54-2c92-448b-9ae4-686fb8069f66 | ANSWER: (D) Medial cutaneous nerve of armREF: Schwartz 9th ed chapter 18, Bailey 25th ed page 733, Mastery of Surgery, Volume 1 edited by Josef E. Fischer, Kirby I. Bland, Mark P. Callery 5th ed Vol 1 page 323Virtually any part of brachial plexus can be injured in RND. Read following lines of Gray's anatomy.The medial cutaneous nerve of the arm is the smallest and most medial branch of the brachial plexus, and arises from the medial cord (C8, Tl). It crosses the axilla, either anterior or posterior to the axillary vein, then passes medial to the axillary vein, communicates with the intercostobrachial nerve, and descends medial to the brachial artery and basilic vein. It pierces the deep fascia at the midpoint of the upper arm to supply the skin over the medial aspect of the distal third of the upper arm. (Gray's anatomy 40th ed chapter 46)Safety or Holy layer; the layer of prevertebral fascia that covers the brachial plexus and phrenic nerve. It is advisable to stay superficial to this layer in order to avoid damage to these vital structures (Ref: Step by step Neck dissection Dr Chintamani page 5)MASTERY OF SURGERY 5TH ED VOL 1 TABLE 6 PAGE 323TYPES OF NECK DISSECTIONSDissectionLymph Node Levels RemovedNon nodal Structures RemovedIndicationsComprehensive neck dissectionsRadical/ Classical/ Crile {RND)Levels I-VSpinal accessory nerve (SAN) Internal jugular vein (IJV) Sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM)Submandibular glandNr neck for SCC when SAN is involvedMRND type 1Levels I-VPreserves SANN+ neck for SCC when SAN is free (most commonly used for SCC of upper aerodigestive tract)MRND type 2Levels I-VPreserves SAN & SCMN+ neck for SCC when LA7 is involved but SAN is freeMRND type 3Levels I-VPreserves SAN, IJV & SCMMost commonly used for metastatic Ca of thyroidSelective neck dissectionsSupraomohyoidLevel I- IIIPreserves SAN, IJV & SCMN-ve neck SCC of oral cavity and oropharynx N-ve neck malignant melanoma anterior to earExtendedsupraomohyoidLevel I- IVPreserves SAN, IJV & SCMN-ve neck SCC of lateral tongueLateral NDLevel II- IVPreserves SAN, IJV & SCMN-ve neck SCC of Larynd & HypopharynxPosterioLateral NDLevel II- V,Suboccipital,RetroauricularPreserves SAN, IJV & SCMN-ve neck malignantmelanoma posterior to earNote:Structure preserved in RND: ICA, EC A (may be sacrificed), Brachial plexus, Hypoglossal nerve, Vagus nerve, Phrenic nerve, Facial nerve (cervical and marginal mandibular branches), Sympathetic trunkCommonest incisions in RND:Crile's incision (modified Y incision)Macfees incision (double horizontal incision) in irradiated neck.The main disability that follows the RND is weakness and drooping of the shoulder due to paralysis of the trapezius muscle as a consequence of excision of the spinal accessory nerve. | Surgery | Orthopedics | A nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
| Medial cutaneous nerve of arm |
fda1c1be-2e71-4c82-b5c3-72d48d427a64 | Ans. (b) 10% formalin fixative-for-testis-biopsy.html(Ref: Complete review of pathology 2nd ed/Annexure 4. )This is a tricky Question !When you first see the term analysis for sperm, the answer is bouin s fluid. But what the examiner wants to know is whether you know that for histological diagnosis, the fixative is 10% formalinRemember: bouins fluid should be used for testicular anlysis in cases of infertility or even CIS (carcinoma in situ) as Formalin induces marked shrinkage - difficulty in germ cell and CIS recognition.But once you have known case of testicular carcinoma, then you need to make correct diagnosis on the basis of morphology, also preserve antigens for IHC and do molecular tests, which comes best when you fix the tissue in 10% buffered neutral formalin | Pathology | Male Genital Tract | A surgeon suspecting testicular carcinoma in a patient asks the intern to send the sample for histopathology, what is the fluid in which the intern should send the sample to the pathologist?
A. Bouvin solution
B. 10% formalin
C. 95% ethanol
D. Alcohol
| 10% formalin |
0bad2ca2-02af-4385-a329-3288523b4dd2 | URBAN HEALTH CARE DELIVERY MODEL :- Community level: Community outreach services. Sub-primary level: Swasthya chowki 1 Swasthya chowki per 10,000 population. 1 ANM + 1 Community health worker. Primary level: I Primary urban health Centre (PUHC) 1 PUHC/UHC per 50,000 (1 per 25000-30000 in slums). Referral level: Public or empanelled secondary / teiary care providers. Secondary level Urban Health Centre - Metros- 1 per 5,00,000 ; Non-metros - 1 per 2,50,000. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Rural & Urban Health Centres, Workers, Norms | Primary Urban Health Centre should be for a population of:
A. 30,000
B. 50,000
C. 10,000
D. 1,000,000
| 50,000 |
a2e32f41-4eda-4c3b-9ec4-1c7fa6d32180 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ketamine Inducing agent of choice in Asthma & COPD Ketamine. Inhalational agent of choice in Asthma & COPD --) Halothane. | Pharmacology | null | Inducing agent of choice in shock ?
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone
| Ketamine |
e9201daf-9319-4030-8c6d-d458aa467d69 | Afrezza is inhalational form of insulin available in color coded forms
Blue : 4IU
Green : 8IU
Yellow : 12IU | Pharmacology | null | Afrezza is used to treat post prandial hyperglycemia available in color coded formulations yellow colour indicates
A. 4IU
B. 8IU
C. 12IU
D. 16IU
| 12IU |
b47d5e74-b784-4617-b2e7-0d0217a5a3f1 | Ans. B: 1500 gm Very low bihweight is a term used to describe babies who are born weighing less than 1,500 grams. | Pediatrics | null | Very low bih weight is less than: September 2009, March 2013 (g)
A. 1000 gm
B. 1500 gm
C. 2000 gm
D. 2500 gm
| 1500 gm |
0ac28a39-d58b-4368-b031-b7c88c850cc5 | Calcium increases threshold potential- restoring normal gradient between threshold potential and resting membrane potential (elevated abnormally in hyperkalemia) Calcium chloride - onset of action is < 5min and lasts about 30-60 min. Doses should be titrated with constant monitoring of ECG changes during administration Potassium binding resin exchanges Na+ for K+ :onset of action after PO ranges from 2-12 h. Calcium hydroxide and calcium carbonate have no role in management of hyperkalemia. | Medicine | Electrolyte Imbalance | Immediate treatment for hyperkalemia with significant ECG changes?
A. Calcium chloride
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. K+ Binding Resin Enema
D. Calcium Carbonate
| Calcium chloride |
8d8d7791-671f-4f50-a958-1c1a85af3928 | Risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma Choledochal cyst Primary sclerosing cholangitis Ulcerative colitis. RPC or hepatolithiasis. Biliary enteric anastomosis HBV, HIV, HCV Choledocholithiasis Clonorchis sinensis and opisthorchis viverrini Cirrhosis Radon Asbestos, Nitrosamines, Dioxib(AND). Diabetes, Obesity, OCP's, smoking, Thorotrast, Isoniazid(DOSTI) Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1514 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma
A. Thorotrast
B. Radon
C. Dioxin
D. Aflatoxin
| Aflatoxin |
1e983a70-4ab9-43a3-ac2e-ce540ec6fbab | Ans: a) Pox virusMolluscum contagiosum is seen in children and adults. It is characterised by pink o pearly white wart like nodules on the skin. Eosinophilic hyaline inclusion bodies called molluscum bodies are present Humans are the only susceptible hosts.Extra points:Certain inclusion bodies* Vaccinia - Guamieri bodies* Fowl pox - Bollinger bodies* Herpes, Yellow fever - Cowdry type A* Adeno, Polio - Cowdry type B | Microbiology | Virology | Molluscum contagiosum is caused by
A. Pox virus
B. Varicella
C. Vaccinia
D. Herpes
| Pox virus |
3c3644a8-3622-45cd-8e5e-c6aebc7bdf9d | Human brucellosis is acquired from animals, directly or indirectly. Goats, sheep, cattle, buffalos, and swine are common sources. Most human infections in various pas of India are due to B.melitensis acquired from goats and sheep. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayana and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 348 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Organism most likely to cause "fever of unknown origin" in a farmer who raises goats
A. Brucella melitensis
B. Clostridium novyi
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
| Brucella melitensis |
b9e1720e-8e9f-4839-a6e1-b65603080ff3 | Transthyretin (TTR) is a normal serum protein that binds and transpos thyroxine and retinol. Several distinct mutant forms of TTR (and its fragments) are deposited in a group of genetically determined disorders referred to as familial amyloid polyneuropathies. Normal TTR is also deposited (Due to overproduction) in the hea of aged individuals (senile systemic amyloidosis). | Pathology | Amyloidosis | Which type of amyloidosis is caused by mutations in transthyretin gene?
A. Familial Mediterranean fever
B. Familial amyloidosis polyneuropathy
C. Dialysis associated amyloidosis
D. Prion protein associated amyloidosis
| Familial amyloidosis polyneuropathy |
cab07397-da10-4087-b326-d5d4880ca27b | Ans: A (Prostatic urethra & ejaculatory duct) Middle lobe of prostate lies behind the upper part of the urethra and in front of the ejaculatory ductQ, just below the neck of the bladderQ"- BDC4th/Vol II -372Fig.; Saggital section of a prostate that had undergone benign enlargement of the median lobe. Note the bladder pouch filed with stagnant urine behind the prostateProstate : High Yielding Fields# The median or middle or prespermatic Lobe* It produes an elevationQ in the lower part of the trigone of the bladder. It contains much glandular tissues.It is the common site of adenomaQThe prostate has the five lobesQ-anterior. posteriorm median and right and left lateralAdenoma never occurs at posterior part but carcinoma is common.Outer zone: frequently the site of carcinomaeInner zone : typically prone to benign hypertrophy5Median lobe which lies between urethra and the ejaculatoryt duct is prone to benign hypertrophy. QPosterior lobe, which lies behind the urethra and below the ejaculatory duct contains glandular tissue and is prone to carcinomatous transformation.Q | Anatomy | Male Genital System | Middle lobe of prostrate is present in between: (PGI June 2008)
A. Prostatic urethra & Ejaculatory' duct
B. Prostatic u reth ra & rectu m
C. Ejaculation duct & pubis
D. Pubis and rectum
| Prostatic urethra & Ejaculatory' duct |
ffd0f91e-318a-4788-bcd9-ea378af6c595 | Caused by compression of the third nerve. Hutchinson pupil is dilation of pupil in one eye when the other eye is contracted Hutchinson's pupil is a clinical sign in which the pupil on the side of an intracranial mass lesion is dilated and unreactive to light, due to compression of the oculomotor nerve on that side. The sign is named after Sir Jonathan Hutchinson Reference: Aravind FAQS in Ophthalmology; First Edition; Page no: 491 | Ophthalmology | Neuro-ophthalmology | Hutchinson pupil is seen in which nerve palsy
A. Optic nerve
B. Occulomotor nerve
C. Abducent nerve
D. Trochlear nerve
| Occulomotor nerve |
a06f8198-92a7-4ecf-9edd-68c72cb6a958 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Factor VIII HemophilaA;-o Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of factor VIILo Hemophilia A is inherited as an X-linkedrecessive trait.o Factor VIII is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X.Clinical manifestations are due to defect in coagulation system : -Large post traumatic ecchymoses or hematoma.Prolonged bleeding after a laceration or any form of surgical procedure.Bleeding into weight bearing joints.o Petechiae are characteristically absent (in contrast to platelet dysfunction where bleeding occur from small vessels of skin and mucous membrane, e,g.t petechiae).Laboratory findings :-# | PTT# Normal BT# Normal PT# Normal platelet countsRemembero Hemophilia B (christmas disease> is due to deficiency of factor IX.o Hemophilia B has clinical features and laboratory findings similar to hemophilia A. | Pathology | Bleeding Disorders | Hemophia A due to deficiency of -
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor X
D. Factr XI
| Factor VIII |
8b569cc6-92e2-49fd-8dc0-5bfb211882cd | Shearing of the hair cell stereocilia against the tectorial membrane results in depolarization, and the release of neurotransmitter onto afferent endings of the auditory cranial nerve leads to initiation of an action potential.
Sound waves are directed toward the tympanic membrane by the pinna and the external auditory canal of the external ear. The vibration of the tympanic membrane is transmitted to the oval window by way of the ossicles of the middle ear. Induction of waves in the perilymph results in the movement of the basilar and vestibular membranes toward the scala tympani and causes the round window to bulge outward. The movement of the hair cells is facilitated because the tectorial membrane is rigid and the pillar cells form a pivot. The stabilization of the pressure between the middle ear and the nasopharynx is not directly related to the mechanism of sound transmission. | Unknown | null | Which of the following is directly involved in sound transduction?
A. Release of neurotransmitter onto the afferent endings of cranial nerve VIII
B. Shearing motion of the basilar membrane against hair cell stereocilia
C. Movement of the tectorial membrane resulting in hair cell depolarization
D. Vibration at the round window via the stapes
| Release of neurotransmitter onto the afferent endings of cranial nerve VIII |
a63e1805-6bed-4843-b07c-2152f2aa3302 | In histopathology of mycosis fungoides shows collection of atypical lymphocytes( Pautriers micro abscesses) in epidermis( a feature of epidermotropism) and a band of lymphoid cells in the upper dermis. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 405,406 | Dental | Skin tumors | Pautrier&;s micro-abcess is a histological feature of
A. Sarcoidosis
B. TB
C. Mycosis fungoides
D. Ptyriasis lichenoides chronica
| Mycosis fungoides |
54947d21-ddd9-4f92-bd39-3b249ac48fc4 | causes of hard exudates on the retina. Diabetic retinopathy Hypeensive retinopathy Coats' disease Circinate retinopathy Ref Comprehensive ophthalmology AK Khurana 4th edition page no 495 | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | Hard exudates not seen in -
A. Hypeension
B. DM
C. Toxemia of pregnancy
D. SLE
| Toxemia of pregnancy |
7c14f01a-250d-4ee3-8505-c6c04ae766d5 | TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS Cutaneous manifestations Angiofibromas (previously called adenoma sebaceum):- Most frequent manifestation, seen in almost 90% of patients. Appear in childhood and enlarge at pubey (hence the misnomer "sebaceum"). Reddish brown, smooth, dome-shaped papules with telangiectasis. Symmetrically, on nose, nasolabial folds, cheeks. Ref:- Neena khanna; pg num:-32,33 | Dental | Skin tumors | Adenoma sebaceum is a characteristic of Wof
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Xanthomatosis
D. Incontinentia pigmenti
| Tuberous sclerosis |
70378676-d327-4c7a-84d3-450448bec163 | Normal platelet count =1.5 - 4.5 lac per cu.mm 35% of patients with thrombocytosis eventually end up being Diagnosed with Malignancy Causes of Thrombocytosis Tissue inflammation: collagen vascular disease, inflammatory bowel disease Hemorrhage Malignancy Iron-deficiency anemia Infection Surgery Myeloproliferative disorder: polycythemia Vera, primary myelofibrosis, chronic myelogenous leukemia Rebound: Correction of vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, post-ethanol abuse Myelodysplastic disorder: 5q- syndrome, idiopathic refractory sideroblastic anemia Hemolysis Post splenectomy or hypersplenism Familial: Thrombopoietin overproduction, JAK21 or MPL mutations | Medicine | JIPMER 2017 | An asymptomatic patient on regular health checkup has platelet counts of 8,00,000/cu.mm. Next line of management is:
A. Follow up and observe
B. Bone marrow biopsy
C. Plasmapheresis
D. Phelobotomy
| Follow up and observe |
dab2f96e-5f8c-455d-ae4d-d52390cff71d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Resolution * "In stage of resolution, consolidation tissue re-aereates and the fluid infiltrate. Causes sputum"* "Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, initially short, painful and dry and later on expectoration (during resolution). -----Clinical medicine | Pathology | Respiration | A patient of pneumonia develops sputum expectoration. What is the stage of pneumonia-
A. Congestion
B. Red hepatization
C. Grey hepatization
D. Resolution
| Resolution |
dde32905-d2bf-4029-9fdb-018ffe5240a4 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., GlutamateBasal ganglia are richly connected with one another. These connections include :?1) Dopaminergic nigrostriatal projection from the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNPC) to the striatum caudate nucleus and putamen) and corresponding GABAergic projection from striatum to substantia nigra pars reticulata (SNPR). Dopamine is the major neurotransmitter in substantia nigra.2) The striatum has GABAergic projections to both globus pallidus inner segment (IS) as well as globus pallidus external segment (ES).3) Globus pallidus ES has GABAergic projections to subthalamic nucleus and to globus pallidus IS.4) Subthalamic nucleus has Glutamate-ergic projections on both globus pallidus IS as well as globus pallidus ES.5) Cholinergic interneurons are there within the striatum. | Physiology | null | Neurotransmitter in subthalamic nuclei ?
A. Glutamate
B. GABA
C. Serotonin
D. Ach
| Glutamate |
d9886087-786f-4805-85a2-ac038af381cc | Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are microbial sensors that are named for the founding member called Toll, which was discovered in Drosophila. There are ten mammalian TLRs, which recognize products of bacteria (such as endotoxin and bacterial DNA), viruses (such as double-stranded RNA), and other pathogens . TLRs are located in plasma membranes and endosomes, so they are able to detect extracellular and ingested microbes. They are complemented by cytoplasmic and membrane molecules, from several other families, that also recognize microbial products. TLRs and the other receptors recognize products of different types of microbes and thus provide defense against essentially all classes of infectious pathogens. Recognition of microbes by these receptors activates transcription factors that stimulate the production of a number of secreted and membrane proteins. These proteins include mediators of inflammation, antiviral cytokines (interfer-ons), and proteins that promote lymphocyte activation and even more potent immune responses. Robbins 9 th edition page no. 32 | Pathology | General pathology | The primary function of Toll like Receptors is?-
A. Vasodilation
B. Activation of Immune System
C. Regulation of Calcium channel
D. Second Messenger
| Activation of Immune System |
28bc3278-ebd5-452f-a31d-19757881de8d | ANSWER: (A) 11 beta hydroxylase deficiencyREF: Nelson's 18th ed p. 2366See APPENDIX-58 below for details of "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia" APPENDIX - 58Congenital Adrenal HyperplasiaCAH is very frequently asked in pre PG examinations with different case scenarios. There is a simple way to remember the symptomatology and reach to the conclusion of the deficient enzyme.Enzyme deficientAldosteroneTestosterone11 (if 1 is to increase, 11 is to both testosterone and aldosterone increases)| (salt retention, hypertension)|Precocious puberty in malesAmbiguous genitalia in females17 (1 is to increase so only aldosterone increases)| (salt retention, hypertension)|Ambiguous genitalia in malesPrecocious puberty in females21 & 3 (1 is to increase so only testosterone increases)| (salt wasting, hypotension)|Precocious puberty in malesAmbiguous genitalia in femalesLipoid| (salt wasting, hypotension)|Ambiguous genitalia in malesPrecocious puberty in femalesSymptoms as per the increase or decrease of aldosterone and testosterone will be:f Aldosterone = salt retention & hypertension (irrespective of the gender)I Aldosterone = salt wasting & hypotension (irrespective of gender)t Testosterone = Ambiguous genitalia in females, precocious puberty in malesI Testosterone = Ambiguous genitalia in males, precocious puberty in females | Pediatrics | Genetic Approach to Pediatric Medicine | A female child presents with hypertension, hyperpigmentation and virilization, she is most likely to be suffering from deficiency of?
A. 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency
B. 21 alpha hydroxylase
C. 17 alpha hydroxylase
D. 3 beta hydroxylase
| 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency |
f1267e7d-a317-462e-9ae1-3d80a6016a81 | Group B streptococcus followed by E.coli are the two most common causes of neonatal meningitis.___ Nelson
Note -
For exams like AIIMS & AI, where only one options is correct, streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococcus) is best answer. | Pediatrics | null | A newborn of 7 days old presented with meningitis. Most common cause –a) E.colib) Streptococcal pneumoniac) N. Meningitisd) Streptococcal agalactiae
A. b
B. c
C. ac
D. ad
| ad |
c7b118f1-69a0-48c6-981a-5c353861cc30 | Gum hyperophy: Commonest ( more in younger age (b) Hirsutism, coarsening of facial fea :-..:: c (troublesome in young girls), acne. REF: KD TRIPATIH 8TH ED. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Which of the following are the features of phenytoin toxicity:
A. Gum hyperophy
B. Acne rosacea
C. Exacerbation of acne vulgaris
D. Loss of hair
| Gum hyperophy |
6a85fe4e-c3f7-4aab-8b0a-fb72fd81d6be | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thalidomide Risk category of drugs during pregnancyCategory ExamplesANo riskAdequate studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to the foetusInj. Mag. sulfate, thyroxineBNo evidence of risk in humansAdequate human studies are lacking, but animal studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the foetusorAdequate studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to the foetus, but animal studies have shown an adverse effect effect on the foetusPenicillin V, amoxicillin, cefactor, erythromycin, paracetamol, lidocaineCRisk cannot be ruled oldNo adequate studies in pregnant women, and animal studies are lacking or have shown an adverse effect on foetus, but potential benefit may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential riskMorphine, codeine, atropine, corticosteroids, adrenaline, thiopentone, bupivacaineDBenefit may out weigh potential riskThere is evidence of human foetal risk, but the potential benefits from use of the drug may be acceptable despite the potential riskAspirin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate, lorazepam, methotrexateXContraindicatedStudies in animals or humans have demonstrated foetal abnormalities, and potential risk clearly outweighs possible benefitEstrogens, isotretinoin, ergometrine, thalidomide | Pharmacology | General Pharmacology | Which of the following belongs to category 'X' risk, if given to pregnant women -
A. Lidocaire
B. Morphine
C. Aspirin
D. Thalidomide
| Thalidomide |
d21e9b15-ca0b-4222-89c1-ff4e9a305e01 | Sulphur granules are examined microscopically. They are crushed between slides and stained by gram stain and examined. The granules are bacterial colonies and will be found to consist of a dense work of thin gram-positive filaments surrounded by a peripheral zone of swollen, radiating club-shaped structures (antigen-antibody complex) presenting a sun-ray appearance. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg:398 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Sulphur granules in actinomycosis consist of
A. Monophils and neutrophils
B. Monophils and lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Bacterial paicles
| Bacterial paicles |
9ca9b3f0-c2f2-4e54-9d33-49da861f6b30 | Symptoms of down's syndrome (Trisomy 21): Mental retardation Epicanthic folds and flat facial profile Simian's crease Umblical hernia Hypotonia Gap between first and second toe Congenital hea defects Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome) symptoms: Prominent occiput Mental retardation Low set ears Congenital hea defects Rocker-bottom feet Trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) symptoms: Microphthalmia Microcephaly and mental retardation Polydactyly Cleft lip and palate Renal defects Turner syndrome (45,X) include: Sho stature Coarctation of aoa Cubitus valgus Streak ovaries, infeility, amenorrhea Peripheral lymphedema at bih Low posterior hairline Webbing of neck Broad chest and widely spaced nipples | Pathology | Specific Cytogenetic Disorders | Down's syndrome is:
A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 13
D. 45,X
| Trisomy 21 |
11429601-f42a-41d7-98f1-01dace9d6a1e | Russel bodies are seen in rhinoscleroma. (Ref: PL DHINGRA diseases of ear, nose and throat, 7th edition page no 175) | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Which of the following is not a feature of rhinosporidiosis?
A. Bleeding polyp
B. Russel bodies are seen
C. Oral dapsone is useful in treatment
D. Excision with the knife is the treatment
| Russel bodies are seen |
1561d748-422b-408a-8013-e1d2091a83e9 | Some occupational malignancies and hazardous agents responsible for it are given below: Vinyl chloride - liver, angiosarcoma Cadmium - Ca prostate Beryllium, chromium compounds - Ca lung Ethylene oxide - leukaemia Ref: Robbins Basic Pathology, 7th Edition, Page 176. | Pathology | null | Cadmium is associated with which of the following occupational malignancies?
A. Leukaemia
B. Ca lung
C. Ca liver
D. Ca prostate
| Ca prostate |
426efe7d-1414-4cff-980a-a309dbb44f5f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ototoxicity Ethacrynic acid is most ototoxic loop diuretic. | Pharmacology | null | Ethacrynic acid is not used due to ?
A. Renal toxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. GI toxicity
D. Pulmonary toxicity
| Ototoxicity |
d1615793-c3be-4175-b82a-e787d187ac7d | Mixed connective-tissue disease (MCTD) is an overlapping of clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), scleroderma, and myositis.MCTD is associated with the presence of high titers of anti-U1RNP antibodies specifically directed against the proteins A, C, or 70K complexed with U1RNA. Anti-RNP bodies are, however, are not specific for MCTD as they are also seen in other connective tissue disorders. Absence of U1 RNP antibodies essentially rules out mixed connective tissue disorder. Ref: Diagnostic Criteria in Autoimmune Diseases edited by Yehuda Shoenfeld, Ricard Cervera, M. Eric Gershwin, 2008, Page 45 ; Harrison 17thedition, Table 325-4 | Pathology | null | A 20 year old girl presented with Raynaud's phenomenon, ahralgia, acrosclerosis, and mild myositis. She is positive for a distinctive antibody against U1-ribonucleoprotein (RNP). This antibody is a common finding in which of the following conditions?
A. SLE
B. Scleroderma
C. MCTD
D. Dermatomyositis
| MCTD |
54bf3407-4704-437b-bd09-0dbba7115889 | Alcohol-induced jealousy: patients suspect their spouses of infidelity and the belief is morbid enough to influence various aspects of personal and social life. Reference: P.105 chap.5 Substance use disorders textbook of postgraduate psychiatry Nivas &ahuja | Psychiatry | All India exam | Morbid jealousy is seen with
A. Alcoholism
B. Opium
C. Cannabis
D. Amphetamine
| Alcoholism |
7c7c4853-9f28-4604-b83b-71fcfff2e026 | Ans. A. Ectopic PregnancyAll cases of ectopic pregnancies had a typical eccentric leash of vessels on color Doppler that showed a low resistance placental type of flow on spectral Doppler. This is called leash sign. This sign has a sensitivity of 100% and specifity of 99% a positive predictive value of 95% and negative predictive value of 100% thus helping in the diagnosis of early ectopic pregnancy, and resulting in earlier treatment with reduced morbidity and mortality. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Ecotopic Pregnancy | Leash sign is found in
A. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. Vulvovaginitis
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Tubercular Salpingitis
| Ectopic Pregnancy |
1f9b471f-3329-42fe-a0c3-cb45d1eb681b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Combined with cleft palate Distribution of Cleft types Cleft lip alone -> 15%Cleft lip & palate --> 45% Isolated cleft palate --> 40% | Surgery | null | Commonest type of cleft lip is ?
A. Bilateral
B. Midline
C. Combined with cleft palate
D. Unilateral
| Combined with cleft palate |
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