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28f311fe-817f-4614-8e82-06c5d3683458 | Ans: A (Telomerase) TelomersThe ends of each chromosomeQ contain structures called telomers. Telomers consists of short repeat TG rich sequences.Telomerase is mutisubunit RNA-containing complex related to viral-RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (Reverse transcriptase), the enzyme which is responsible for telomere synthesis & thus for maintaining the length of telomereQ.Telomere shortening functions as a clock that counts cell divisionsTelomerase maintain telomer length by synthesizing telomereQTelomere shortening is associated with cancer and agingImportance of Telomers in:Ensuring the complete replication of chromosomal endsQProtecting chromosomal termni from fusion & degradationCentromere is an adenine - thymine (A-T)Q rich region, which connects sister chromatids Multiple rounds of cell replication |Short telemeresQ|||CheckpointintactCheck point bypassed:additional telomere shortening||||||ProliferativearrestApoptosisChromosomefusionNon-reciprocalrecombination |||Genomic instability|||Reactivationof telomeraseCell death| CANCERQ | Microbiology | Immunology | Ends of chromosomes replicated by: (PGI Dec 2006)
A. Telomerase
B. Centromere
C. Restriction endonuclease
D. Exonuclease
| Telomerase |
62ccb055-b889-4507-a981-541c1d83a9e4 | Isolated IgA deficiency It is most often asymptomatic but can be characterized by anaphylactic reactions to transfused blood. It is critical to notify the transfusion service about a patient with possible IgA deficiency prior to giving blood products so that products can be washed to remove any immunoglobulins prior to administration. Associated with:- Frequent episodes of diarrhea and recurrent infections. This inherited B-cell defect is due to inability of B cells to mature into IgA-producing plasma cells Patients lacking IgA can develop IgE antibodies against the IgA antibodies present in transfused blood. As the body don't recognise it as a self antigen. This sensitization can result in susceptibility to anaphylaxis on subsequent transfusion. | Pathology | Immunodeficiency Disorders | A 24-year-old woman who had previously been uneventfully transfused,receives a blood transfusion during surgery and sholy thereafter develops itching, generalized uicaria, laryngeal edema, and dyspnea with wheezing respiration. She has a past history of recurrent upper respiratory tract infections and frequent episodes of diarrhea. Laboratory studies are most likely to reveal decreased concentrations of which of the following immunoglobulins?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
| IgA |
2b038b6b-017a-4469-9bcd-57b1de99cae9 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adhesions * In Western countries where abdominal operations are common, adhesions and bands are the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in such post abdominal surgery cases. | Surgery | Intestinal Obstruction | 23 yrd old male with abdominal surgery, develops intestinal obstruction 2 yrs later, what is the likely cause -
A. Adhesions
B. Hernia
C. Intussecption
D. Volvulus
| Adhesions |
87b4dfb4-dd5f-43b8-9d23-962913eaadf3 | Advanced primary hyperparathyroidism pathognomonic radiologic findings, which are best seen on x-rays of the hands and are characterized by subperiosteal resorption. The skull also may be affected and appears mottled with a loss of definition of the inner and outer coices. Brown or osteoclastic tumors and bone cysts also may be present. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 38. | Surgery | null | Brown's tumour is seen in:
A. Hypehyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
| Hyperparathyroidism |
3a2929fd-1d7f-400f-bf4d-79ebceb37757 | The phosphor layer is composed of phosphorescent crystals suspended in a polymeric binder. When the crystals absorb X-ray photons, they fluoresce. The phosphor crystals often contain rare earth elements, most commonly lanthanum and gadolinium. Their fluorescence can be increased by the addition of small amounts of elements, such as thulium, niobium, or terbium. Rare earth screens convert each absorbed X-ray photon into approximately 4000 lower-energy, visible light (green or blue) photons. These visible photons expose the film. | Radiology | null | The phosphor crystals often contain rare earth elements, the most common being:
A. Lanthanum and gadolinium
B. Thulium
C. Niobium
D. Terbium
| Lanthanum and gadolinium |
a1c495ad-d8fb-4a72-8a64-39163d82c290 | Isosorbide mononitrate, is a medication used for hea related chest pain (angina), hea failure, and esophageal spasms. It can be used both to treat and to prevent hea related chest pain, however is generally less preferred than beta blockers or calcium channel blockers. It is taken by mouth Isosorbide mononitrate is a nitrate-class drug used for the prevention of angina pectoris. Refer kDT 6/e p 525 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | The nitrate which does not undergo first pass metabolism is
A. Isosorbide mononitrate
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Pentaerythratol tetranitrate
D. Isosorbide dinatrate
| Isosorbide mononitrate |
307d17d2-64a0-4327-b527-4beeebc83e43 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Appendageal [Ref : IADVL textbook of dermatology 3'd/e p. 175) Types of epidermal nevusKeratinocytic r Verrucous epidermal nevus, linear epidermal nevus.Organoid (appendageal); Nevus sebaceous, nevus comedonicus, eccrine nevi, apocrine nevi, Becket's nevus. | Skin | null | Comedo nevus is which type of epidermal nevus ?
A. Keratinocytic
B. Verrucous
C. Inflammatory
D. Appendegeal
| Appendegeal |
d2c805e8-4f3d-454f-972f-c3fa52dae59b | Nelson 18th ed, ch8, table 8.1 A child sits alone without suppo at the age of 6-8 months. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Sitting without suppo occurs at what age ?
A. 6 months
B. 5 months
C. 10 months
D. 12 months
| 6 months |
e66cf085-6068-4439-a120-cd5bf4ae10d7 | DiseaseEnzyme DeficiencyClinical SymptomsTay-Sachs disease Hexosaminidase AMental retardation, blindness, muscular weaknessRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 24 Metabolism of Acylglycerols & Sphingolipids | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | A defect in the enzyme hexosaminidase causes
A. Gaucher disease
B. Farber disease
C. Tay-Sachs disease
D. Krabbe disease
| Tay-Sachs disease |
098b5bfa-8894-46e2-a40c-7e948a78a491 | IgG Antibody
o Half life(23d),
o High Serum concerntration (GAMDE) ,
Responsible for-
o Precipitation,
o neutralization,
o NK cell (ADCC)
o Classical complement
Appear late, indicates past / chronic infection | Unknown | null | The immunoglobulin mediates ADCC
A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE
| IgG |
72e4dc6b-ed06-4e06-88d5-6146c4e30a19 | Answer B. Henoch-Schonlein purpuraSkin biopsies revealed leukocytoclastic vasculitis with IgA deposition, which is consistent with IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura). The patient was treated with high-dose glucocorticoids including pulse therapy, which were tapered successfully after cyclosporine was added to the treatment. Henoch-Schonlein purpura, a systemic small-vessel vasculitis, causes palpable purpura in the lower extremities, abdominal pain, arthralgia, and glomerulonephritis. | Medicine | Immunology and Rheumatology | What is the diagnosis in this patient who had abdominal pain?
A. Familial Mediterranean fever
B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
C. Meningococcemia
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
| Henoch-Schonlein purpura |
f610084e-3e84-4d01-b7fc-b6f156934fc0 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cytochrome C oxidase Inhibitors of Electron transport chain (Respiratory chain)o Complex IBarbiturates (amobarbital), piercidin A. rotenone, chlorpromazine. guanithidine.o Complex IICarboxin. TTFA, malonate.o Complex IIIDimercaprol, BAL, actinomycin A, Naphthvloquinone.o Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) :- Carbon monoxide (CO-), cyanide (CN-), H2S. azide (N3-) | Biochemistry | Respiratory Chain | CO acts by inhibiting which component of respiratory chain -
A. Cytochrome b
B. Cytochrome C oxidase
C. NADH CoQ reductase
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
| Cytochrome C oxidase |
d10a068b-1e81-464c-bca1-3fda3ce65ffa | c. Using the two thumbs on the lower third of sternumThe two thumb encircling technique is preferred for chest compressions in newborn | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | How are chest compressions given in a newborn?
A. Using palm on the lower third of sternum
B. Using two fingers on the middle third of sternum
C. Using the two thumbs on the lower third of sternum
D. Using three fingers on the lower third of sternum
| Using the two thumbs on the lower third of sternum |
fe3f75b4-2f8c-4626-9cc3-2c29320dded5 | The government of India launched National Rural Health Mission in 2005,5th April for a period of 7 years later extended upto 2017. Mission seeks to improve rural health care delivery system. Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 448 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health programmes in India | National Rural Health Mission was launched in the year
A. 2005
B. 2003
C. 2007
D. 2010
| 2005 |
bbc963df-a9ec-48f1-9888-8b5771ac15bd | the lumbar epidural replaced caudal analgesia as the preferred technique. Compared with the caudal route, lumbar epidural analgesia is more comfoable for the patient and easier to perform. The technique required less local anesthetic.. Ideally, an epidural is staed when the woman is at least four centimetres dilated and in active labour (having strong and regular contractions) Ref Robbins 9/e pg 456 | Pathology | All India exam | Most preferred technique for painless labour
A. Lumbar epidural
B. Sacral epidural
C. Lumbar + sacral epidural (double catheter technique)
D. Para cervical block
| Lumbar epidural |
d96e0d47-391e-40ce-a551-8155031900ad | Watson Jones operation is done for chronic ankle instability.
Note : Watson Jones approach (not Watson - Jones operation) is used for hip surgeries. | Orthopaedics | null | Watson Jones operation is done for-
A. Polio
B. Muscle paralysis
C. Neglected clubfoot
D. Chronic ankle instability
| Chronic ankle instability |
8ec39384-f7fa-4ffb-a902-be7a9324b7b5 | Ans. B: Safety Margin The therapeutic index/therapeutic ratio is a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that causes death. It signifies safety margin. Quantitatively, it is the ratio given by the lethal dose divided by the therapeutic dose. A therapeutic index is the lethal dose of a drug for 50% of the population (LD50) divided by the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50). A high therapeutic index is preferable to a low one: this corresponds to a situation in which one would have to take a much higher dose of a drug to reach the lethal threshold than the dose taken to elicit the therapeutic effect Generally, a drug or other therapeutic agent with a narrow therapeutic range (i.e. with little difference between lethal and therapeutic doses) may have its dosage adjusted according to measurements of the actual blood levels achieved in the person taking it. | Pharmacology | null | Therapeutic index of a drug signifies: September 2005
A. Dose which produces maximum effect
B. Safety margin
C. Efficacy
D. Maximum response that can be elicited by a drug
| Safety margin |
d9f3eb93-b708-4104-adb4-102cc382439d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ropinirole o Dopamine agonist (Ropinirole, pramipexal, rotigotine) monotherapy is the initial treatment of choice. (But levodopa remains the most effective drug for Parkinson ism). | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for the initial treatment of parkinsonism -
A. Levodopa
B. Benzhexol
C. Ropinirole
D. Selegeline
| Ropinirole |
0f29da56-6a8c-4f1a-9c3c-f7d8b4fb7941 | Anencephaly is defined as absence of the cranial vault and is incompatible with life.This was the first anomaly to be detected on USG and pregnancy to be terminated.It is usually diagnosed by 12 weeks (first trimester)of pregnancy on USG.There is a typical frog's eye apperanace on USG. Refer page no 487 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan 2nd edition. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis in obstetrics | which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound :
A. Anencephaly
B. lnencephaly
C. Microcephaly
D. Holoprosencephaly
| Anencephaly |
7fda6e2f-c97e-4aeb-a25e-5204a199a381 | Ans. A. GLP-2 inhibitorGlucagon-like peptide-2 (GLP-2) - Impoant intestinotrophic growth factor & mediator of intestinal adaptation.FDA approved teduglutide (Gattex--NPS) to treat sho bowel syndrome in adult patients requiring additional nutrition from I.V. parenteral nutrition.Effectively improves fluid absorption. | Pharmacology | null | MOA of Teduglutide in sho bowel syndrome?
A. GLP-2 inhibitor
B. HT1a inhibitor
C. GLP-1 analogs
D. C-peptide analogs
| GLP-2 inhibitor |
9a8c3913-7c3c-41e6-9235-c751b13e9dce | Brachial cyst is lined by squamous epithelium. A branchial cyst develops from the vestigial remnants of the second branchial cleft, is lined by squamous epithelium and contains thick, turbid fluid. The cyst usually presents in the upper neck in early or middle adulthood and is found at the junction of the upper third and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle at its anterior border. It is a fluctuant swelling that may transilluminate and is often soft in its early stages so that it may be difficult to palpate. | Surgery | Neck | Brachial cyst is lined by:-
A. Columnar epithelium
B. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Squamous epithelium
D. Ciliated columnar epithelium
| Squamous epithelium |
4ee56b82-4319-49ee-a513-aec33a38abf2 | DALY Number of years lost due to ill-health, disability or early death 1 DALY = 1yr of healthy life lost Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition - Pgno. 26 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Years of life lost due to premature death and years lived with disability is known as
A. HALE
B. DALY
C. Sullivan's index
D. HDI
| DALY |
0157775b-af9e-470a-8f40-927e0d35daab | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anti Sm Auto anti bodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosuso Antinuclear antibody-best screening test.o Anti DS DNA antibody-Specific for SLE only in high litres.o Anti Smantbody-Specific for SLE.o Anti Ro (SS - A) antibody-Predisposes to Sicca syndrome, subacute cutaneous lupus and neonatal lupus with congenital heart block.o Anti histone antibody-Associated with drug induced lupus. | Pathology | Autoimmune Diseases | Most specific antibody in SLE is -
A. Anti nuclear
B. Anti Sm
C. Anti Ro
D. Anti histone
| Anti Sm |
d68fab39-0df2-4846-a5d7-65cc7b5f181b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Catatonia Disorders of motor activityo Disorder of motor activity may beMannerism Odd, repetitive and goal directed movements, e.g., waving, saluting.Stereotype Odd, repetitive movements which are not goal directed e.g., rocking to and fro. Repetition of speechs (words, phrases) may also occur. Sterotype occur without any stimulus.Perseveration :- There is persistent repetition of movement or speech, beyond fulfilment of purpose. Patient is unable to stop the action or speech beyond fulfilment of purpose. Perseveration is goal directed and requires external stimulus (in contrast to stereotypy).Note : Sterotypy and perseveration may be seen either as speech disturbance or as motor activity disturbance, i.e., repetion of speech or movemnt.Echopraxia Patients senselessly repeat the movement of others around them (associated with echolalia).TIC Sudden, involuntary, rapid, recurrent non-rhythmic motor movements.Catatonia Catatonia is characterized by a marked disturbance of motor behaviour. Most common cause of catatonia is schizophrenia, However it may also occur in depression, Mania, conversion - dissociative disorders, reactive psychosis, hypnosis, anxiety disorders and many medical disorders. Catatonia may be of following typesCatatonic excitmentExcited, uncontrolled motor activity, not influenced by external stimuli.Catatonic posturing :- Voluntary adoption of an unusual or bizarre position that is then maintained for some time.Catatonic rigidity :- Maintaining a fixed position and rigidity resisting all attempts to be moved.Waxy flexibility (flexibilitas cerea or catalepsy) : - Maintaining of particular posture imposed on the patient by examiner, even if the posture is bizzare and uncomfortable, i.e., patient can be moulded like wax into a position that is then maintained.Catatonic stupor :- Patient is mute and immobile (akinetic mutism) but fully conscious.Catatonic negativism :- A seemingly motiveless resistance to all instructions or attempts to be moved.Automatic obedience :- Exactly reverse to negativism, i.e., unhesitating compliance to all instructions without apparent conscious control. | Psychiatry | Schizophreniform Disorder | Waxy flexibility is a feature of -
A. Echopraxia
B. Catatonia
C. Stereotype
D. Mannerism
| Catatonia |
aab24930-96ba-4192-b1bf-24d497d10a96 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hepatocellular carcinoma Tumor MarkersCancerNon-Neoplastic ConditionsHormonesHuman chorionic gonadotropino Gestational trophoblastic disease, gonadal germ cell tumoro Medullary' cancer of the thyroido PheochromocytomaPregnancyCalcitoninCatecholaminesOncofetal AntigensAlphafetoproteinCarcinoembryonic antigeno Hepatocellular carcinoma, gonadal germ cell tumoro Adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, breast, ovary others othersCirrhosis, hepatitisPancreatitis, prostatic hypertrophyHepatitis, hemolytic anemia, manyEnzymesProstatic acid phosphataseNeuron-specific enolaseLactate dehydrogenaseo Prostate cancero Small cell cancer of the lung, neuroblasotmao Lymphoma. Ewing's sarcoma othersProstatitis, prostatic hypertrophyHepatitis, hemolytic anemia, manyTtimor Associated ProteinsProstatic - specific antigenMonoclonal immunoglobulinCA - 125CA 19-9CA - 15-3CD 30CD 25o Prostate cancero Myelomao Ovarian cancer, some lymphomaso Colon, pancreatic, breast cancero Breast cancero Hodgkin's disease, anaplastic large cell lymphomao Hairy ceil leukemia, adult T cell leukemia/lymphomaProstatitis, prostatic hypertrophy Infection, MGUSMenstuation, peritonitis, pregnancy Pancreatitis, ulcerative colitisNew Molecular markerso p53, APC. RAS mutation in stool & serumo Colon cancero p53, RAS mutation in stool & serum3 Pancreatic carcinomao p53, RAS mutation in sputum & serum3 Lung carcinomao p53 mutation in urineo Bladder carcinoma | Pathology | Hallmarks of Cancer | AFP is a marker is tumor marker for -
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Prostate carcinoma
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Colon carcinoma
| Hepatocellular carcinoma |
6cdd152c-277a-472a-bb60-36cb3448d662 | Symptoms of nasal obstruction, mouth breathing and hearing impairment are due to adenoids, and adenoidectomy would be required. Since the child also suffers from hearing impairment (due to otitis media with effusion), a myringotomy with grommet insertion will be required. Simply doing myringotomy (optimised) will lead to recurrence unless cause (adenoids) is removed. | ENT | Nose and PNS | A 6-year-old child presented with history of recurrent upper respiratory tract infections, mouth breathing, nasal obstruction and hearing impairment. Management will be:
A. Tonsillectomy
B. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
C. Myringotomy with grommet
D. Myringotomy
| Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion |
bd789587-e592-4318-a1dd-f1f16dbd4690 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., G protein coupled receptors o Histamine acts on G-protein coupled membrane receptors : -i) H1 histaminic receptors - Linked to adenylyl cyclase and act through cAMPii) H2 histaminic receptors - Linked to IP3-DAG system.o Muscarinic receptors (cholinergic receptors) in heart are M2 type. These are responsible for vagus mediated bradycardia.o M2 mediated actions are through cAMP.Mechanism of action of G-protein coupled receptors# This activated G protein effects one of the following effect pathway (activated stimulatory G protein stimulates, or activated inhibitory G protein inhibits) -A) Adenylyl cyclase (AC)o Activation of AC results in increased synthesis and intracellular accumulation of cAMP (by stimulatory G protein). cAMP acts through cAMP dependent Protein Kinase 4 A', which phosphorylate and alters the function of many enzymes, ion channels and structural proteins. Inhibitory G protein inhibits AC and has opposite effects.o Examples - Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH), FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH (corticotropin), ADH, Vasopressin (V2 receptors), Parathormone, Catecholamines (b2, a2) e.g., adrenaline (most actions), Glucagon, hCG, Calcitonin, Somatostatin, acetylcholine (M2), Dopamine(D1, D2), Angiotensin II (epithelial cells), GABAB, Histamine (H2).B) Phospholipase IP3 - DAG systemo Activation of phospholipase (by stimulatory G protein) hydrolyses the membrane phospholipid phosphatidyl inositol 4, 5 bisphosphate (PIP2) to generate the second messenger inositol 1, 4, 5 - triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).o IP mobilizes Ca+2 from intracellular organelles - increased cytosolic Ca+2. DAG enhances Protein Kinase 'C' activation by Ca+2. Ca+2 acts as third messenger in this type of transduction mechanism and mediates the physiological effects of drugs.o Protein kinase-C phosphorvlates various intracellular proteins (threonine, serine or tyrosine residue), causing their activation or inactivation.o Example - Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), GnRh, ADH/Vasopressin (VI receptor, vasopressor action), oxytocin, cholecystokinin, PDGF, Gastrin, Catecholamines (some actions via a1 receptors), A ngiotensin II (vascular smooth muscle), Substance P, Histamine - H1, muscarinic M1, M3C) Channel regulationo Activated G-proteins can open or close ion channels - Ca+ K+ or Na+o Examples - (1) | Ca+2-b1-adrenergic, (2) | Ca+2-DopamineD2, GABAB, (3) | K+ -Adrenergic -a2, muscarinic M2, DopamineD2, GABAB. | Physiology | Chemical Messengers: Receptors | Histamine acts on-
A. G protein coupled receptors
B. Ligand gated ion channels
C. Enzyme linked receptors
D. Intracellular recepters
| G protein coupled receptors |
53aa60d3-dae9-4a87-83ee-356175d98fdf | Ans. b (30) (Ref Harrison's medicine 17th/ Table 365-5)Cognitive and Neuropsvchiatric ExaminationBrief screening tools such as the mini-mental state examination (MMSE) help to confirm the presence of cognitive impairment and to follow the progression of dementia.The MMSE, an easily administered 30-point test of cognitive function, contains tests of orientation, working memory (e.g., spell world backwards), episodic memory (orientation and recall), language comprehension, naming, and copying.# In FTD, the earliest deficits often involve frontal executive or language (speech or naming) function. DLB patients have more severe deficits in visuospatial function but do better on episodic memory tasks than patients with AD.# Patients with vascular dementia often demonstrate a mixture of frontal executive and visuospatial deficits.# In delirium, deficits tend to fall in the area of attention, working memory, and frontal function.The Mini-Mental Status ExaminationPointsOrientationName: season/date/day/month/year5 (1 for each name)Name: hospital/floor/town/state/country5 (1 for each name)RegistrationIdentify three objects by name and ask patient to repeat3 (1 for each object)Attention and calculationSerial 7s; subtract from 100 (e.g., 93-86-79-72-65)5 (1 for each subtraction)RecallRecall the three objects presented earlier3 (1 for each object)LanguageName pencil and watch2 (1 for each object)Repeat "No ifs, ands, or buts"1Follow a 3-step command (e.g., "Take this paper, fold it in half, and place it on the table")3 (1 for each command)Write "close your eyes" and ask patient to obey written command1Ask patient to write a sentence1Ask patient to copy a design (e.g., intersecting pentagons)1Total30 | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Total score in standard minimental status examination (MMSE) is
A. 25
B. 30
C. 32
D. 35
| 30 |
7538e508-8cb8-49c3-a76b-f4e22a21489a | (B) Alkaptonuria # ALKAPTONURIA: The defective enzyme in alkaptonuria is homogentisate oxidase in tyrosine metabolism. Homogentisate accumulates in tissues & blood, gets oxidized to the corresponding quinones, which polymerize to give black or brown colour. For this reason, the urine of alkaptonuric patients resembles coke in colour. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Lack of Homogentisate oxidase enzyme causes
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Homocystinuria
| Alkaptonuria |
fd72d462-31c0-41ad-87b8-7dba476792ab | In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid by the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, making it soluble in water: the conjugated version is the main form of bilirubin present in the "direct" bilirubin fraction. Much of it goes into the bile and thus out into the small intestine. Ref biochemistry satyanarayana 4e | Biochemistry | Structure and function of protein | Enzyme involved in binding of & for conjugated bilirubin formation is
A. Kinases
B. Ligases
C. Syntheses
D. Transferases
| Transferases |
1544707e-ade2-46b9-9da7-a8f145a80f2c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 150 ml o Total capillary blood valume in lung- 104 ml.o Total pulmonary capillary surface area - 70 m2o Volume of blood per alveolus - 4.7 x 10-7 ml.o Capillary surface area per alveolus - 23.4 x l04 cm2o Number of capillary segments - 280 x 109 | Physiology | Functional Anatomy - Respiratory System | Lung capillary volume is -
A. 50 ml
B. 150 ml
C. 300 ml
D. 500 ml
| 150 ml |
74ad26ed-3bbc-4bc6-b4db-531eddfbbdb4 | Diethylstilbesterol defects Neural tube defects Vaginal and cervical adenosis Clearcell adenocarcinoma Uterine anomalies Cryptorchidism Testicular hypoplasia TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS,SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN,PG NO:565,2nd edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Congenital malformations | Diethylstilbesterol causes the following defects expect
A. Renal anomalies
B. Incompetent cervix
C. T saped uterus
D. Vaginal adenosis
| Renal anomalies |
c0f9166f-2e4f-4a2c-b790-c73ffcc50e4b | Tinea capitis is the infection of skin of scalp and hair by fungi. Microsporium and Trichophyton tonsurans are the most common causative organisms. Oral Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for Tinea capitis. Other oral drugs which are useful includes ketoconazole, itraconazole and tebinafine. Ref: Oski's Essential Pediatrics By Michael Crocetti, 2nd Edition | Skin | null | An eleven year old boy is having Tinea capitis on his scalp. Which of the following is the most appropriate line of treatment of this condition?
A. Shaving of the scalp
B. Oral griseofulvin therapy
C. Topical griseofulvin therapy
D. Selenium sulphide shampoo
| Oral griseofulvin therapy |
1b55184c-f242-4a92-8d7d-73c9c8b21a60 | Alpha glucosidase inhibitors - effect on both prandial and post prandial sugar ,that act as competitive inhibitors of enzymes needed to digest carbohydrates Rapaglinide is used only for treatment of postprandial hyperglycemia Sulfonylureas is for maintenance of type 2 DIABETES MELLITUS Metformin is drug of choice for treatment of type 2 DIABETES MELLITUS | Pharmacology | Pancreas | Drug used only for treatment of postprandial hyperglycemia is
A. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
B. Rapaglinide
C. Sulfonylureas
D. Metformin
| Rapaglinide |
9d4160cc-66d4-42c7-806c-657af0c73534 | Toxic shock syndrome(TSS) is a potentially fatal multisystem disease presenting with fever, hypotension, myalgia, vomiting, diarrhea, mucosal hyperemia and an erythematous rash which desquamates subsequently.TSST(Toxic shock syndrome toxin) type 1 (formerly also known as enterotoxin type F or pyrogenic exotoxin C) is most often responsible, though enterotoxins B also cause the syndrome. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition; Page No: 204 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Staphylococcal toxic syndrome is due to
A. Enterotoxin A
B. Enterotoxin B
C. Enterotoxin C
D. Enterotoxin D
| Enterotoxin B |
af470992-4105-4c8a-bc3c-0e4713f005f8 | Degloving injury is avulsion injury involving skin and subcutaneous tissuewith intact fascia. | Surgery | null | Degloving injury is overlsion injury involving
A. Skin only
B. Skin and subcutaneous tissue, with intact fascia
C. Skin and subcutaneous tissue along with fascia
D. Skin, subcutaneous tissue and muscle
| Skin and subcutaneous tissue along with fascia |
5a24ae6a-fb64-41fd-a0b0-bad7c64af906 | Lactoferrin is an enzyme present in the secondary granules of neutrophils. Neutrophil has 2 granules - primary & secondary. Enzymes present in these 2 are given below | Pathology | null | Secondary granules in neutrophil are:
A. Proteolytic enzymes
B. Nucleotidase
C. Lactoferrin
D. Catalase
| Lactoferrin |
52dec404-7e46-46ca-b9d3-482d5954b372 | The Mapleson D may be described as a co-axial modification of the basic T-piece system, developed to facilitate scavenging of waste anaesthetic gases.
Circuit | Unknown | null | Mapleson’s classification of anesthetic breathing system
A. Describes four systems A, B, C, D
B. Classifies the Bain system as Mapleson
C. Describes the T-piece as M
D. Describes the T-piece system as requiring a fresh gas flow rate of 1.5 – 2 times the minute volume
| Classifies the Bain system as Mapleson |
78047766-bc3e-4e0e-bbe7-b2b0c3125222 | ANS. A* 1st stage (onset of true labor pain to full cervical dilatation)* 2nd stage (delivery of baby)* 3rd stage (delivery of placenta* 4th stage (1 hour observation).# Pictorial representation of stages of labor | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Normal Labour | A primigravida came with 6 cm cervical dilatation with contraction rate of 3/10 minutes. Which stage of labor is she in?
A. 1st stage
B. 2nd stage
C. 3rd stage
D. 4th stage
| 1st stage |
1266e03d-0eb5-4ef4-b406-869f0e7c8e12 | Ans: d (Newborn..) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 213Even though malaria affect all ages, newborn infants have considerable resistance to infection with P. falciparum.This has been attributed to the high concentration of fetal haemoglobin during the first few months of life which suppress the development of P. falciparum. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | Which among the following is most resistant to plasmodium falciparum infection?
A. Adult male
B. Adult female
C. Children
D. Newborn infant
| Newborn infant |
1731c6aa-34f0-42a5-b696-63248d306948 | TRETHOWAN'S SIGN In normal hip a line drawn tangential to superior femoral neck (Klein's line) intersects small poion of lateral capital epiphyseal. In posterior displacement of epiphyses the line doesn't intersect. | Radiology | Radiology Q Bank | Trethowan sign is used in radiological diagnosis of?
A. TB Hip
B. Pehes Disease
C. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
D. Avascular Necrosis of head of femur
| Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis |
12a51307-9ec2-49c4-8245-f4df4a807445 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Myasthenia gravis o Thymomas are associated with a wide variety of paraneoplastic disorders the most common of which is mvaesthenia graviso Mvaesthenia eravis is seen in about 30-40% cases of ThymomaParaneoplastic syndromes associated with ThymomaAutoimmuneEndocrine disordersNeuromuscular syndromeHematological disorderso Systemic lupuso Addison s diseaseo Myasthenia graviso Red cell aplasiaerythematosiso Hyperthyroidismo Eaton lambert syndromeo Hypogamma globuline-o Polymyositiso Hyperparathyroidismo Myotonic dystrophymiao Myocarditiso Panhypopituitarismo Myositiso T-cell deficiency>o Sjogren s Syndrome syndromeo Ulcerative colitis o Pancytopeniao Hashimotos thyroiditis o Erythrocytosiso Rheumatoid arthritis o Amegakargocytico Sarcoiffosis thrombocytopeniao Scleroderma Miscellaneouso Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathyo Nephrotic syndromeo Minimal change nephropathyo Pemphiguso Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis | Medicine | C.N.S. | Thymoma is associated with-
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Polycythemia
C. Ectopic ACTH
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
| Myasthenia gravis |
7e7ca971-5fe0-4e70-bc29-f7ae5912ab42 | Ref:KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page.no: 154) Apraclonidine causes eyelid retraction due to stimulation of a1 receptor. Brimonidine cause less prominent lid retraction due to weaker a1 activity Ref-Drug facts and comparison 2006/2257 | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Lid retraction is caused by?
A. Bimatoprost
B. Latanoprost
C. Brimonidine
D. Apraclonidine
| Apraclonidine |
7a916149-ca05-4769-b8b9-7ed390328a70 | Initially urinary bladder respond at irregular intervals to adequate internal distance and by contraction of detrusor muscle. these contractions are not powerful enough or well coordinator result in incomplete maturation. Thus a large volume of urine may be left in the bladder called as residual urine. Ref: page no 584 Textbook of physiology Volume 1 AK Jain 7th edition | Physiology | Renal physiology | Residual urine is?
A. Urine left in the urinary bladder after micturation
B. Normal phenomenon
C. Never seen with urinary bladder dysfunction
D. Common finding of examination anxiety
| Urine left in the urinary bladder after micturation |
c9880772-f1fd-4ba4-9556-ab4798c22ce1 | Wredin's test After bih, the gelatinous substance in the middle ear is replaced by air through Eustachian tube. This is now considered as not a reliable test. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 351 | Forensic Medicine | Sexual offences and infanticide | Wredin's test is significant in live born fetus related to
A. Lungs
B. Stomach
C. Skull
D. Middle ear
| Middle ear |
93574400-04c8-4aa0-8cf8-bcc4c5d78097 | Rheumatic fever is an acute, immunologically mediated, multisystem inflammatory disease that occurs after group A b-hemolytic streptococcal infections (usually pharyngitis, but also rarely with infections at other sites such as skin). Acute rheumatic fever occurs most often in children; the principal clinical manifestation is carditis. Neveheless, about 20% of first attacks occur in adults, with ahritis being the predominant feature. Symptoms in all age groups typically begin 2 to 3 weeks after streptococcal infection, and are heralded by fever and migratory polyahritis. (Robbins basic pathology,9th edition.pg no.391) | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | The probable interval between throat infection and onset of rheumatic fever is
A. 2-4 hours
B. 2-4 days
C. 2-4 weeks
D. 2-4 months
| 2-4 weeks |
c9d82358-382f-459e-9630-e9f21d5898f7 | b2-Microglobulin, a component of MHC class I molecules and a normal serum protein, has been identified as the amyloid fibril subunit (Ab2m) in amyloidosis that complicates the course of patients on long-term hemodialysis. Ab2m fibers are structurally similar to normal b2m protein. This protein is present in high concentrations in the serum of patients with renal disease and is retained in the circulation because it is not efficiently filtered through dialysis membranes. In some series, as many as 60% to 80% of patients on long-term dialysis developed amyloid deposits in the synovium, joints, and tendon sheaths. Robbins 9 th edition page no. 154 | Pathology | General pathology | Hemodialysis associated with amyloid pattern -
A. AA
B. AL
C. Beta-2-microglobulin
D. ATTR
| Beta-2-microglobulin |
689d1308-f50c-4f53-9803-71f92562eb2e | In veebrates, cervical veebrae (singular: veebra) are the veebrae of the neck, immediately below the skull. Thoracic veebrae in all mammalian species are those veebrae that also carry a pair of ribs, and lie caudal to the cervical veebrae. | Anatomy | Head and neck | Which of this pa of veebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backward?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Sacral
D. Coccyx
| Cervical |
0d4920e2-90a4-4799-8428-33630d9eed8c | RHESEView XRay views for evaluating Orbit : Rhese view is used for Optic Canal Caldwell View is for Superior Orbital fissure Townes View for Inferior Orbital Fissure Waters View for Orbital Floor Caldwell's view Frontal sinus, superior orbital fissure CXR Erect view Pneumoperitoneum Ipsilateral lateral decubitus Minimal pleural effusion Lateral skull view Sella turcica Left anterior oblique Tracheal bifurcation, Aoic window Lordotic view Apex, lingual lobe, Middle lobe pathology Oblique view Spondylolisthesis Odontoid view C1,C2 Reverse lordotic view Interlobar effusion Right anterior oblique Right lung, Left atrium enlargement, Mitral valve Judet View Acetabulum Schullers view Mastoid Air cells Skyline view Patella Stenver's Towne's view Mastoid air cells, Petrous cells, Internal acoustic meatus Stryker's view Hill Sachs Lesions Water's view Maxillary sinus, antrum | Radiology | X-RAYS | What is the X-ray view used for optic canal/orbital foramen?
A. Water's view
B. Towne's view
C. Rhese view
D. Caldwell's view
| Rhese view |
77113d5f-19c2-4789-8a32-85e8592de8ac | "Because malignant and benign pheochromocytomas may have an identical histological appearance, the only absolute criterion of malignancy is metastasis"
"The diagnosis of malignant pheochromocytoma is made only when metastasis is demonstrated" | Pathology | null | Malignancy in pheochromocytoma is indicated by-
A. Vascular invasion
B. Mitotic figures
C. Capsular invasion
D. metastasis
| metastasis |
c4c228ad-76f5-4927-bb73-fd8f8e6108d9 | This means you can see at 6 metres what someone with standard vision could see from 60 metres away. The figures 6 / 60 or 3 / 60 are how the result of a Snellen test are written. The first number given is the distance in metres from the cha you sit when you read it Low vision is the term used to describe significant visual impairment that can&;t be corrected fully with glasses, contact lenses, medication or eye surgery. It includes: ... Tunnel vision (lack of vision in the periphery) and blind spots are examples ofvisual field loss. Legal blindness. Reference: AK khurana 7th edition | Ophthalmology | Optics and refraction | Visual acuity of 6/60 is classified as
A. Blind
B. Low vision
C. Visual morbidity
D. Normal vision
| Low vision |
297965bb-2d36-4d5c-b847-9788e7df8ac6 | Lupus has non-erosive, intermittent polyahritis. Diagnostic criteria for ahritis in SLE includes non-erosive ahritis involving two or more peripheral joints characterised by tenderness, swelling or effusion.Psoriatic ahritis involves PIP, DIP, MCP and wrist. Sparing of any joint may or may not be present.Reiter's syndrome and reactive ahritis are regarded as a spectrum of the same disease. (Triad of ahritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis - Fiessenger-Leroy-Reiter syndrome)Ref: Harrison's 18/e p2728, 2780, 2790, 2847 | Medicine | All India exam | Ahritis is not a pa of
A. Lupus
B. Psoriasis
C. Wegner's granulomatosis
D. Reiter's syndrome
| Wegner's granulomatosis |
e8c4ead0-348a-4e4a-8cb4-ce73b4574cdb | Ans. (d) C4d(Ref: Robbins 9th/234)Acute antibody-mediated rejection is manifested mainly by damage to glomeruli and small blood vessels. Typically, the lesions consist of inflammation of glomeruli and peritubular capillaries, associated with deposition of the complement breakdown product C4d, which is produced during activation of the complement system by the antibody dependent classical pathway | Pathology | Immunity | After a solid organ transplantation, which of the following is responsible for acute graft rejection.?
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C4d
| C4d |
129603a6-bc4f-4411-b0aa-2f353e679ab2 | The common sites of fracture in the skull are:(a) The parietal area of the vault.(b) The middle cranial fossa of the base. This fossa is weakened by numerous foramina and canals.The facial bones commonly fractured are: (a) The nasal bone and (b) the mandible.Some clinical features of petrous temporal bone fractureBattle signCSF otorrheaotorrhagia | Anatomy | Head and neck | The commonest site of fracture in Base of Skull?
A. Anterior Cranial fossa
B. Middle cranial fossa
C. Posterior cranial fossa
D. Lateral cranial fossa
| Middle cranial fossa |
ce3564db-0650-49f6-8bd2-2a88c70e9394 | Trismus is inability to open mouth due to muscle spasm. It is caused by injection into medial pterygoid muscle resulting in hematoma formation or infection. The application of heat and administration of antibiotics relieve the symptoms. | Surgery | null | While giving IANB nerve block, postoperatively the patient complains of trismus due to:
A. Injection into buccinator
B. Injection into parotid capsule
C. Injection into medial pterygoid
D. Paralysis of nerve
| Injection into medial pterygoid |
e4bdf480-c628-403f-b50c-30218eaa03ed | Ans. (b) Hemarthrosis(Ref: Robbins 9th ed p 663)In all symptomatic haemophilia cases there is a tendency toward easy bruising and massive hemorrhage after trauma or operative procedures. In addition, "spontaneous" hemorrhages frequently occur in regions of the body that are susceptible to trauma, particularly the joints, where they are known as hemarthroses. Recurrent bleeding into the joints leads to progressive deformities that can be crippling. Petechiae are characteristically absent. | Pathology | Bleeding Disorders | Which of the following is the most common manifestation of hemophilia?
A. Hemoptysis
B. Hemarthrosis
C. Hematemesis
D. Mucosal bleeding
| Hemarthrosis |
e45230c6-70a1-4839-9496-a3f433bd89f9 | Methohexitol is a barbitutate used as induction agent in ECT. | Psychiatry | null | Anesthetic agent used in ECT is
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Propofol
D. Methohexitol
| Methohexitol |
86807420-10ab-48d8-ab95-98930978783d | Fern test- A specimen of cervical mucus obtained using a platinum loop or pipette is spread on a clean glass slide and allowed to dry. When viewed under low power microscope during the estrogenic phase, a characteristic pattern of fern formation is seen. Ferning is due to the presence of high NaCl and low protein content in the mucus secreted under high estrogen effect in the midmenstral phase prior to the ovlation. Shaw's textbook of gynaecology -16th edition-page no 256. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Infertility | Ferning of cervical mucus (fern test) is due to:
A. Presence of NaCl under progesterone effect
B. Presence of NaCl under estrogenic effect
C. LH/FSH
D. Mucus secretion by Glands
| Presence of NaCl under estrogenic effect |
b685b155-b089-497d-bd27-324767143f70 | Nonseminomatous tumors aur chemosensitive.
BEP regimen is used for stage 1
For stage 2 RPLND followed by chemotherapy is used | Surgery | null | What is the treatment for stage 2 nonseminomatous tumors
A. Chemotherapy
B. RPLND followed by chemotherapy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Chevassu manoeuvre
| RPLND followed by chemotherapy |
ed26922b-ba58-4053-a1e6-69b6bd940139 | It inhibits pFox enzyme and inhibits β - oxidation of fatty acids and increases glucose oxidation. Thus reduces the oxygen consumption & demand in an ischaemic cell. | Pharmacology | null | Trimetazidine acts by
A. Inhibiting Rhokinase
B. Inhibits Molecular light chain kinase (MLCK) and increase cGMP
C. Inhibits pFox enzyme and inhibits β - oxidation of Fatty acids
D. Inhibits sodium channels and decreases funny current
| Inhibits pFox enzyme and inhibits β - oxidation of Fatty acids |
b785bf74-e385-4f16-b1ae-df13243b1c9d | ANSWER: (A) Pityriasis roseaREF: Dermatology. 1995: 190(3):252. PubMed PMID: 7599393, Clinical Pediatric Dermatology - By Thappa Page 104Repeat Dermatology June 2010 | Unknown | null | Hanging curtain sign seen in ?
A. Pityriasis rosea
B. Pityriasis Versicolor
C. Psoriasis
D. Pityriasis Alba
| Pityriasis rosea |
0c87ae18-5c61-4fb2-8257-4b9d354e30aa | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mercury poisoning * Metallic mercury (para or quick silver) is not poisonous on ingestion, as it is not absorbed. But its vapours are poisonous. Mercuric compounds being soluble are more poisonous than mercurous compounds. Mercuric chloride (HgCl2), also called corrosive sublimate or perchloride of mercury, is most poisons salt of mercury.* Acute poisoning presents with syncope, convulsions general instability and nephrotoxicity (proximal tubular). The mouth, tongue and fauces become corroded and appears grayish white.* Signs and symptoms of chronic mercury poisoning are :1) Excessive salivation, metallic taste, loosening of teeth, and blue black lining on gums (similar to lead poisoning).2) Diphtheria like membranous colitis and dysentery.3) Anorexia, insomnia, sweating, nausea, irritability and photophobia.4) Special features are : i) Mercuria lentis: Brownish deposition of mercury on anterior lens capsule.ii) Tremors : There are moderately coarse, intentional tremors starting in fingers and hands, and legs. They are also called Danbury tremors or hatter's shake or glass blower's shake. In severe form, patient becomes unable to dress, write or walk, i.e. concussion mercurialis (shaking palsy).iii) Erethism (neuropsychiatric changes): The personality disturbance is characterized by shyness, irritability, tremors, loss of memory and insomnia. There may be depression, delusion, hallucination and MDP (mad hatter).iv) Acrodynia (Pink disease): This is idiosyncratic hypersensitivity reaction with a generalized pinkish rash described as 5P : pinkish, puffy, painful, paraesthesia hands and peeling of skin.v) Minimata disease: It is due to organic mercury poisoning due to eating fish poisoned by mercury.vi) Membranous glomerulopathy. | Unknown | null | Hatter's shake is seen in
A. Phosphorus poisoning
B. Mercury poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. Lead poisoning
| Mercury poisoning |
26305e4d-fcfb-4dd3-8ab1-97155500c841 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hounsfield * A new method of forming images from X-rays (i.e. CT/CAT) was developed and introduced into clinical use by a British physicist Godfrey Hounsfield in 1972.* Godfrey Hounsfield is considered as the inventor of CT/CAT. | Radiology | Fundamentals In Radiology | CT scan was invented by-
A. Hounsfield
B. Roentgen
C. Cormack
D. Tesla
| Hounsfield |
a088334a-56d0-4114-8914-01b7ff31c049 | Coisol is the principal glucocoicoid produced by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal coex. It promotes gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, suppresses protein synthesis, inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, and has mild mineralocoicoid(for example, hypernatremic, kaliuretic, antidiuretic) effects. Most plasma coisol is bound to transcoin and albumin. Synthetic coisol administered as a drug is usually known by the alternative name hydrocoisone.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-362 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Maximum concentration of coisol is seen at which time of day?
A. Early morning
B. Noon
C. Late evening
D. Midnight
| Early morning |
72f8ad37-61d7-406c-b86b-acfc37d34b87 | A bronchial carcinoid is an example of an amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) tumor or neuroendocrine tumor. This name is applied to ceain cells of the endocrine organs (e.g., anterior pituitary, pancreatic islets, C-cells in the thyroid, adrenal medulla, paraganglia) as well as single cells in various tissues (e.g., Kulchitsky's cells in the bronchial epithelium, argentaffin cells in the gut). APUD tumors are thought to have a common derivation from neural crest and neuroectoderm, thus the appellation, neuroendocrine tumors. However, there are some APUD tumors of endodermal origin. These tumors have dense core neurosecretory granules present on electron microscopy. Tumors involving these cells can be adenomas or carcinomas. They are characterized by the production of various polypeptide hormones that have either a local paracrine effect (e.g., bombesin, vaso intestinal peptide or a more generalized effect. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg 596-598,264 Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are of epithelial origin. Bronchial hamaomas are not neoplastic and are an exaggerated overgrowth of tissue normally present in that organ. Bronchioloalveolar carcinomas are derived from mucin-secreting bronchiolar cells, Clara cells, or type II pneumocytes. | Medicine | Oncology | Which of the following in an example of an amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) type of tumor in the lung?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Bronchial hamaoma
D. Bronchial carcinoid
| Bronchial carcinoid |
a6ab3fc1-7759-41fd-95fc-7b5207d13843 | Fumarylacetoacetate is then hydrolyzed to fumarate and acetoacetate by a hydrolase (step 6, Fig.17.2). This results in the production of a glucogenic product (fumarate) and a ketone body (acetoacetate). Hence phenylalanine and tyrosine are paly glucogenic and paly ketogenic. Impoant Specialized Products from TyrosineRef: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 204 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Which enzyme deficiency causes tyrosinemia type 1?
A. Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase
B. Tyrosine transaminase
C. HGA oxidase
D. Tyrosinase
| Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase |
ad4bc5c1-a118-4334-8d05-8447b3edce24 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Myoclonic seuzures frequently occur in morning Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy-is an epilepsy syndrome. Epilepsy syndromes are disorders in which epilepsy is a predominant feature and there is sufficient evidence to suggest a common underlying mechanism. Juvenile Mvoclonic Epilepsy o It is characterized by: Appearance in early adolescence Bilateral myoclonic jerks that may be single or repetitive Most frequent in morning after awakening Can be provoked by sleep deprivation Consciousness is usually preserved unless myoclonus is specially severe Association with generalised tonic-clonic seizures and absence seizures is seen Absence seizures occur in 1/3rd of patients Benign condition although complete remission is uncommon Seizure responds well to appropriate anticonvulsant medication Family history of epilepsy is common EEG show 4-6/s irregular spike Treatment is with valproate | Pediatrics | null | Which one of the following in the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy ?
A. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning
B. Complete remission is common
C. Response to anticonvulsants is poor
D. Associted absence seizures are present in majority of patients
| Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning |
a1ed2706-b900-479c-90a6-73e9fe3a73b3 | Ref: Histology a Text and Atlas, 6th edition, Michael H. Ross, Page 376Explanation:"Together with endothelial cells of blood vessels within the fascicle, perineurial cells constitute part of the blood-nerve barrier, an important andselective diffusion barrier against entry of potentially infectious and toxic substances that may alter normal function of the nerve." Ref: Netter's Essential Histology by Ovalle WK, 2nd edition. Page 130"Tight junctions, providing the basis for the blood- ner\!e barrier, are present between the cells located within the same layer of the perineurium. " Ref: Histology by Ross MH, 5th edition. Page 342"The perineurium has the character of an epithelium, called perineurial epithelium, and functionally contributes to the formation of a blood- nerve barrier (blood-brain barrierRef: Functional Ultrastructure: Atlas of Tissue Biology and Pathology By Margit Pavelka, Page 324BLOOD NERVE BARRIERFormed by Perineurium of Peripheral Nerves and the endothelium of endoneurial Capillaries.The perineurium acts as a diffusion barrier.but ion permeability is higher than at the blood- brain barrier.ALSO NOTEBlood Brain Barrier (BBB)Formed by:o Tight junctions of endothelial cellso Foot process of the astrocytes around the capillaries.Filters only Lipid soluble substances.Areas outside BBB--Collectively known as Circumven-tricular organs: (Mnemonic-M. SOAP)o Median eminenceo Sub fornical organo Organum vasculosumo Area postrcmao Posterior pituitary. | Physiology | Sex Hormones | Blood nerve barrier is formed by:
A. Perineurium
B. Schwann cells
C. Epineurium
D. Endoneurium
| Perineurium |
798e154e-3279-45d8-b342-bdc264afa10c | Schizophrenia is presently thought to be probably due to a functional increase of dopamine at the postsynaptic receptor, though other neurotransmitters such as serotonin (especially 5-HT2 receptors), GABA and acetylcholine are also presumably involved. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 63 | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders | The most commonly implicated neurotransmitter in the aetiology of schizophrenia is
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
| Dopamine |
b6be5ace-6f3a-426b-a11c-b9ca047f62b6 | Atracurium /Cisatracurium are the muscle relaxant of choice in renal diseases. Mivacurium is an alternative.
Vecuronium and Rocuronium are primarily excreted in bile, therefore are safe in renal diseases. However, they are not the muscle relaxant of choice.
If the question would have been framed differently, i.e. the muscle relaxant which are safe in renal diseases, than all the five options are correct. | Anaesthesia | null | Anaesthesia of choice in renal disease – a) Atracuriumb) Cisatracuriumc) Vecuroniumd) Rocuroniume) Mivacuronium
A. abc
B. bcd
C. abe
D. acd
| abe |
e22676e3-ebf4-464b-8af3-ab81a4f2e4b2 | PM don't have any of the following:rashes ,involvement of extraocular and facial muscles ,family history of neuromuscular disease,history of exposure to myotonic drugs or toxins ,endocrinopathy ,neurogenic disease,muscular dystrophy ,biochemical muscle disorder. Ocular muscles are never involved in generalized polymyositis. However, isolated orbital myositis, an inflammatory disorder involving the extraocular muscles, is well described. Facial and bulbar muscle weakness is extremely rare in individuals with polymyositis Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2366 | Medicine | C.N.S | Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of polymyositis?
A. Neck muscle involvement
B. Extraocular muscle involvement
C. Dysphagia
D. Abdominal muscle involvement
| Extraocular muscle involvement |
7c60f2d8-70c4-4ba8-a804-3a488993fa52 | Principles of HRCT are:-
i) Narrow beam collimation (thin collimation)
ii) High-frequency reconstruction algorithm, e.g. bone algorithm
iii) Small field of vision | Radiology | null | High - resolution CT of the lung is a specialized CT technique for greater detail of lung parenchyma and it utilizes -
A. Special lung filters
B. Thick collimation
C. Bone algorithm for image reconstruction
D. Large field of view
| Bone algorithm for image reconstruction |
62f3a657-37d0-438c-a68a-04e31419b75e | Chalcosis- It refers to the specific changes produced by the alloy of copper in the eye. Mechanism - copper ions from the alloy are dissociated electrolytically and deposited under the membranous structures of the eye. KF ring is due to deposition of copper under peripheral pas of descemets membrane of cornea. Fleischer ring - seen in keratoconus (epithelial iron deposits - base of the cone) Ref: Parson's 22nd edition, page no.396 | Ophthalmology | Ocular trauma | Kayser fleischer ring is seen in -
A. Siderosis
B. Chalcosis
C. Open angle glaucoma
D. Chemical injuries
| Chalcosis |
48672729-5df7-4746-a0eb-97021ad980a0 | The physiochemical process of white spot lesions was difficult to understand until the Moreno model was described. In this model, acids formed by cariogenic bacteria dissolve the surface as well as subsurface enamel. The calcium and phosphate ions from the subsurface dissolution diffuse downwards toward the surface and reprecipitate on the surface making the enamel surface appear unaltered. | Dental | null | Who gave the model for demineralization & remineralization of white spot lesion?
A. Miller
B. Moreno
C. Martin
D. Massler
| Moreno |
8e17ad95-a764-4105-ba2b-0d1b804ace27 | Answer: d) Alpha-fetoprotein (ROBBINS 9th ED, P-337)A 70 year old chronic alcoholic with abdominal pain, weight loss & lump in the RUQ suggests liver cancer. AFP is the tumor marker which is raised in liver cancerTUMOR MARKERSMarkersAssociated cancersNon neoplastic conditionsHuman chorionic gonadotropinTrophoblastic tumors, non- seminomatous testicular tumorsPregnancyCalcitoninMedullary carcinoma of thyroid a-fetoprotein (AFP)Liver ca, non-seminomatous testicular germ cell tumors (especially yolk sac tumors)Cirrhosis, hepatitisCarcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)Cancer of colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, heartPancreatitis, hepatitis, smoking, inflammatory bowel diseaseCA-125Ovarian cancer, some lymphomasMenstruation, peritonitis, pregnancyCA-19-9Colon, pancreatic & breast cancer, CholangiocarcinomaPancreatitis, ulcerative colitis Cholangitis, patients who lack the Lewis blood type antigenCA-15-3,CA 27-29Breast cancer S-100, HMB-45Melanoma CD 30Hodgkin's disease, Anaplastic large cell carcinoma CD25Hairy cell leukemia Adult T-cell leukemia | Pathology | Liver & Biliary Tract | A 70 year old alcoholic presents with abdominal pain, lump in the RUQ and weight loss. No history of upper or lower Gl symptoms. USG shows 10 x 10 cm mass in the right lobe of liver. Which serum marker will be helpful in diagnosis?
A. Serum calcitonin
B. CA19-9
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Alpha-fetoprotein
| Alpha-fetoprotein |
e8b8e80b-cad8-4d2d-a468-93818549b3af | Goodpasture syndrome
Goodpasture syndrome is a rare condition characterized by the rapid destruction of the kidney and diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage.
It is an autoimmune disease characterized by the presence of circulating autoantibodies targeted against basement membrane of lung and kidney.
These antibodies are directed against the noncollagenous domain of the α -3 chains of type IV collagen (collagen of basement membrane).
The antibodies initiate an inflammatory destruction of the basement membrane in kidney glomeruli and lung alveoli.
In Goodpasture syndrome, the immune reaction is type II hypersensitivity.
Morphological changes
I. Lung
The lungs are heavy, with areas of red-brown consolidation.
There is focal necrosis of alveolar walls associated with intraalveolar hemorrhages.
Alveoli contain hemosiderin-laden macrophages.
Linear deposits of immunoglobulins along the basement membranes of the septal walls.
II. Kidney
Diffuse proliferative rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
Focal necrotizing lesion and crescents in >50% of glomeruli.
Linear deposits of immunoglobulins and complement along the glomerular basement membrane.
Clinical manifestations
Occur typically in young males.
Most cases begin clinically with respiratory symptoms, principally hemoptysis.
Soon, manifestations of glomerulonephritis appear and typically present as nephritic syndrome → hematuria, nephritic urinary sediment, subnephrotic proteinuria, rapidly progressive renal failure.
The common cause of death is renal failure. | Pathology | null | Goodpasture's syndrome is characterized by -
A. Necrotising hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis
B. Alveolitis
C. Patchy consolidation
D. Pulmonary edema
| Necrotising hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis |
a1c5b748-7a00-46b3-a547-e828cb31cc7f | Ans. is d i.e. Misoprostol Friends, here the answer of choice is Misoprostol as it is never used for Emergency contraception (though according to Shaw it can be used) whereas Danazol can be used but is less desirable than other methods because of its less efficacy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | NOT used as a post - coital contraception :
A. Danazol
B. Ethinyl estradiol
C. Levonorgesterel
D. Misoprostol
| Misoprostol |
99be6250-8f74-4521-b450-3b4cade34103 | Live vaccines administered by the oral route (Oral Polio vaccine-OPV; oral typhoid and Rota virus) are not believed to interfere with each other if not given simultaneously. These vaccines may be given at any time before or after each other. Live parenteral (injected) vaccines and live intranasal influenza vaccine should either be administered at the same visit or they should be seperated by atleast 4 weeks. Ref: Ghai essentials 9th edition Pgno: 190 | Pediatrics | All India exam | Minimal interval between two live vaccines administered by the oral route is
A. Any time
B. 2 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 3 months
| Any time |
b99af515-e985-433f-945a-621e978ed8c6 | Ans: C (Black gun..) FG, FFG, FFFG.... are used to describe the size of grains of black gunpowder.Gunpowder used in FirearmsBlack PowderQ# It consists of Potassium nitrate 75%, Charcoal 15% & Suiph ur 10% (Pnemonic - PCS in decreasing percentage)# It is designated as FG, FFG, FFFG, etc., depending on size of the grains. More the no. of F's, the finer are grains & the faster the burning. The powder grains are black, coarse or fine, without any particular shape. It burn with production of much heat, flame & smoke. The gas consists of CO, CO^ N2, H2S, H2, CH+ etc., alt at a very high temperature.Smokeless powder# It consists of nitrocellulose (guncotton) or nitroglycerine & nitrocellulose (double-base). Triple base powder consists of nitrocellulose, nitroglycerine & nitroguanidine.They produce much less flame & smoke & are more completely burnt than black powder.Semismoke less powder# It is a mixture of 80% black & 20% smokeless powder. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries by Firearms | FG, FFG, FFFG....used to describe: (PGI May 2011)
A. Primer
B. Cartridge
C. Black gunpowder
D. Wadding
| Black gunpowder |
b9fbc85e-59d5-4b42-8870-45a8f5eba164 | First, see types of arteries
Based on their size and structural features, arteries are divided into three types.
1. Large or Elastic arteries
Aorta
Its large branches, eg. - Innominate, Subclavian, common carotid, iliac.
Pulmonary arteries.
2. Medium sized or muscular arteries
Small branches of aorta → Coronary, Renal
3. Small arteries and arterioles
Within substance of the tissue
Now see their affection -
Arteriosclerosis
Don’t get confused with atherosclerosis.
Arteriosclerosis means hardening of arteries by thickening and loss of elasticity of arterial wall.
There are three patterns of arteriosclerosis.
1. Atherosclerosis
Characterized by intimal lesions, i.e. atheromas, which project into a vascular lumen and may obstruct it.
This is the most common pattern of arteriosclerosis.
It involves elastic arteries and large & medium size muscular arteries.
2. Arteriolosclerosis
Seen in arterioles of patients with hypertension and diabetes.
Two anatomic variants are common hyaline and hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis.
3. Monckeberg medial calcific sclerosis
It is seen in small and medium-sized muscular arteries.
It is a degenerative and apparently non-inflammatory disease.
Media of these arteries becomes calcified.
It occurs in patients older than 50 years. | Pathology | null | Medial calcification is seen in -
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Arteriolosclerosis
C. Monckeberg's sclerosis
D. Dissecting aneurysm
| Monckeberg's sclerosis |
bd2a25ae-44da-4f51-9b0c-e581ae6c5309 | Amphotericin B (AMB): Antifungal spectrum AMB is active against a wide range of yeasts and fungi-Candida albicans, Histoplasma capsulatum, Cryptococcus neoformans, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Coccidioides immitis, Torulopsis, Rhodotorula, Aspergillus, Sporothrix, etc. Dermatophytes are inhibited in vitro, but concentrations of AMB attained in infected skin are low and ineffective. It is fungicidal at high and static at low concentrations. Resistance to AMB during therapy has been rarely noted among Candida in a selected group of leucopenic cancer patients, but it is not a problem in the clinical use of the drug. AMB is also active on various species of Leishmania. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:757,758 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Which of the following is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningitis?
A. Fluconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin B
| Amphotericin B |
e2957ada-da8f-47bb-a74f-544a504e07db | Ans. (a) Y chromatin(Ref: Emery Genetics)Quinacrine, a fluorescence dye, binds strongly to the Y chromosome forming a bright fluorescent spot (F body). This is clearly visible in stained interphase cells from various tissues from the human male and in mature spermatozoa | Pathology | Genetics | F body is
A. Y chromatin
B. X chromatin
C. Chromosome 1
D. Chromosome 21
| Y chromatin |
6dd1a6ba-f791-4b36-b877-91bd0f29fcd0 | This patient has PCOS, diagnosed by Clinical picture- Obese, Facial acne and Hirsutism Abnormally High LH-to-FSH ratio, and increased androgens but Normal DHEAS(excludes Adrenal sources of Hyperandrogenism) To treat Hirsutism associated with PCOS:- OC pills suppress hair growth, act by directly suppressing ovarian steroid production and increasing hepatic binding globulin production, which binds circulating hormone and lowers the concentrations of metabolically active (free unbound) androgen. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome | A 28-year-old woman comes for treatment of hirsutism. She is obese and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face. Serum LH level is 32 mIU/mL and FSH is 9 mIU/mL. Androstenedione and testosterone levels are mildly elevated, but serum DHEAS is normal. The patient does not wish to conceive at this time. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of her condition?
A. Oral contraceptives pills
B. Coicosteroids
C. GnRH analogue
D. Wedge resection of ovary
| Oral contraceptives pills |
4eb2a7f5-0717-4064-8282-d1d2b9e27ebb | Ans: B (Longitudinal muscle fibers) Ref: Grays Anatomy 40th editionExplanation:Internal anal sphincterThe internal anal sphincter is a well-defined ring of obliquely orientated smooth muscle fibers that is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum, and which terminates at the junction of the superficial and subcutaneous components of the external sphincter.Its thickness varies between 1.5 and 3.5 mm, depending upon the height within the anal canal and whether the canal Is distended.It is usually thinner in females and becomes thicker with age.It may also be thickened in disease processes such as rectal prolapse and chronic constipation.The lower portion of the sphincter is crossed by fibers from the conjoint longitudinal coat which passes into the submucosa of the lower canal.External anal sphincterThe externa] anal sphincter is an oval tube-shaped complex of striated muscle, composed mainly of type 1 (slow twitch) skeletal muscle fibers, which are well suited to prolonged contraction.Endoanal ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging revealed that the uppermost fibers blend with the lowest fibers of puborectalis.In the upper third, some of these upper fibers decussate anteriorly into the superficial transverse perineal muscles and posteriorly some fibers are attached to the anococcygeal raphe.The majority of the fibers of the middle third of the external anal sphincter surround the lower part of the internal sphincter.The middle third is attached anteriorly to the perineal body and posteriorly to the coccyx via the anococcygeal ligament: some fibers from each side of the sphincter decussate in these areas to form a commissure in the anterior and posterior midline.The fibers of the low er third lie below the level of the internal anal sphincter and are separated from the lowest anal epithelium by submucosa. | Unknown | null | The internal anal sphincter is formed by:
A. Puborectalis
B. Circular muscle fibers
C. Longitudinal muscle fibers
D. Deep peroneal muscle
| Circular muscle fibers |
be13bbb0-327e-4ee4-9146-4dc06b187401 | Ans- A . Ref- The central nervous system, like any system of the body, requires constant oxygenation and nourishment. The brain has a particularly high oxygen demand - at rest it represents one fifth of the body's total oxygen consumption. It is also very sensitive to oxygen deprivation, with ischemic cell death resulting within minutes. In this article, we shall look at the arterial structures supplying the brain and spinal cord. Arterial Supply to the Brain By TeachMeSeries Ltd (2017) Fig 1.0 - Arteriogram of the arterial supply to the CNS. There are two paired arteries which are responsible for the blood supply to the brain; the vertebral arteries, and the internal carotid arteries. These arteries arise in the neck, and ascend to the cranium. Within the cranial vault, the terminal branches of these arteries form an anastomotic circle, called the Circle of Willis. From this circle, branches arise which supply the majority of the cerebrum. Other parts of the CNS, such as the pons and spinal cord, are supplied by smaller branches from the vertebral arteries. We shall now look at these individual components in more detail. Internal Carotid Arteries The internal carotid arteries (ICA) originate at the bifurcation of the left and right common carotid arteries, at the level of the fourth cervical vertebrae (C4). They move superiorly within the carotid sheath, and enter the brain via the carotid canal of the temporal bone. They do not supply any branches to the face or neck. Once in the cranial cavity, the internal carotids pass anteriorly through the cavernous sinus. Distal to the cavernous sinus, each ICA gives rise to: Ophthalmic artery - Supplies the structures of the orbit. Posterior communicating artery - Acts as an anastamotic 'connecting vessel' in the Circle of Willis (see 'Circle of Willis' below). Anterior cerebral artery - Supplies part of the cerebrum. The internal carotids then continue as the middle cerebral artery, which supplies the lateral portions of the cerebrum. Vertebral Arteries By TeachMeSeries Ltd (2017) Fig 1.2 - The right vertebral artery. Superiorly, it converges with the left vertebral artery to form the basilar artery The right and left vertebral arteries arise from the subclavian arteries, medial to the anterior scalene muscle. They then ascend up the posterior side of the neck, through holes in the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae, known as foramen transversarium. The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity via the foramen magnum. Within the cranial vault, some branches are given off: Meningeal branch - supplies the falx cerebelli, a sheet of dura mater. Anterior and posterior spinal arteries - supplies the spinal cord, spanning its entire length. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery - supplies the cerebellum. After this, the two vertebral arteries converge to form the basilar artery. Several branches from the basilar artery originate here, and go onto supply the cerebellum and pons. The basilar artery terminates by bifurcating into the posterior cerebral arteries. Arterial Circle of Willis The terminal branches of the vertebral and internal carotid arteries all anastamose to form a circular blood vessel, called the Circle of Willis. There are three main (paired) constituents of the Circle of Willis: Anterior cerebral arteries: These are terminal branches of the internal carotids. Internal carotid arteries: Present immediately proximal to the origin of the middle cerebral arteries. Posterior cerebral arteries: These are terminal branches of the vertebral arteries. To complete the circle, two 'connecting vessels' are also present: Anterior communicating artery: This artery connects the two anterior cerebral arteries. Posterior communicating artery: A branch of the internal carotid, this artery connects the ICA to the posterior cerebral artery. By TeachMeSeries Ltd (2017) Fig 1.3 - Schematic of the blood supply to the brain. Circle of Willis Regional Blood Supply to the Cerebrum There are three cerebral arteries; anterior, middle and posterior. They each supply a different portion of the cerebrum. The anterior cerebral arteries supply the anteromedial portion of the cerebrum. The middle cerebral arteries are situated laterally, supplying the majority of the lateral part of the brain. The posterior cerebral arteries supply both the medial and lateral parts of the posterior cerebrum. By Frank Gaillard and Patrick J. Lynch , via Wikimedia Commons Fig 1.4 - Overview of the blood supply to the cerebrum Arterial Supply to the Spinal Cord The spinal cord is primarily supplied by three longitudinal arteries, as it descends from the brainstem to the conus medullaris. These are: Anterior spinal artery- formed from branches of the vertebral arteries, travelling in the anterior median fissure. Gives rise to the sulcal arteries, which enter the spinal cord. Two posterior spinal arteries- originate from the vertebral artery or the posteroinferior cerebellar artery, anastomosing with one another in the pia mater. However, below the cervical level supply from these longitudinal arteries is insufficient. There is support via anastomosis with the segmental medullary and radicular arteries. The anterior and posterior segmental medullary arteries are derived from spinal branches of a number of arteries, before entering the vertebral canal through the intervertebral foramina. The great anterior segmental artery of Adamkiewicz reinforces circulation to the inferior 2/3 of the spinal cord, and is found on the left in the majority of individuals. The radicular arteries supply (and follow the path of) the anterior and posterior nerve roots. Some radicular arteries may also contribute to supplying the spinal cord. Clinical Relevance: Disorders of Arterial Supply Stroke The brain is particularly sensitive to oxygen starvation. A stroke is an acute development of a neurological deficit, due to a disturbance in the blood supply of the brain. There are four main causes of a cerebrovascular accident: Thrombosis - Obstruction of a blood vessel by a locally forming clot. Embolism - Obstruction of a blood vessel by an emboli formed elsewhere. Hypoperfusion - Lack of blood supply to the brain, due to systemically low blood pressure (e.g shock). Haemorrhage - An accumulation of blood within the cranial cavity. Out of these four, the most common cause is embolism. In many patients, an atherosclerotic emboli will arise from the vessels of the neck. Intracerebral Aneurysms An aneurysm is a dilation of an artery, which is greater than 50% of the normal diameter. They most likely to occur to occur in the vessels contributing to the Circle of Willis. They are particularly dangerous - producing few symptoms until they rupture. Once the artery wall has ruptured, it is a medical emergency, and the patient is likely to die unless treated swiftly. Treatment of an intracerebral aneurysm is surgical. Spinal Cord Infarction Spinal cord infarction (also known as a spinal stroke) refers to the death of nervous tissue, which results from an interruption of the arterial supply. Clinical signs of spinal cord infarction include muscle weakness and paralysis with loss of reflexes. The most common causes of infarction are vertebral fractures or dislocations, vasculitic disease, atheromatous disease, or external compression (e.g. abdominal tumours). 95% of spinal cord ischaemic events are to the anterior aspect of the spinal cord, with the posterior columns preserved. Treatment is by reversal of any known cause. | Anatomy | Meninges & Blood Vessels of the Brain | What is the artery labeled with black arrow in the given diagram?
A. Posterior communicating artery
B. Antirior Inferior Cerebellar artery
C. Superior Cerebellar artery
D. Basilar artery
| Posterior communicating artery |
11933f84-5f8a-41f0-976a-71da9252c62f | Peutz-Jegher syndrome is characterized by acral lentigenes (hyperpigmented macules on face and buccal mucosa) with hamartomatous polyps in gastrointestinal tract. | Dental | null | Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of the given below condition?
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Peutz-Jegher syndrome
C. Scleroderma
D. Chronic Clofazimin usage
| Peutz-Jegher syndrome |
5d76e00f-d836-4379-843a-b2a902ee1245 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 600 mcg/day. lRef: KDT Vhle p. 230)Systemic effects of long-term inhaled glucocoicoids are clinically relevant only at doses > 600 mcg/day.The significant ones are-mood changes, osteoporosis, growth retardation in children, bruising, petechiae, hyperglycaemia and pituitary-adrenal suppression; several repos of adrenal crisis have appeared, especially in children, during stress (of an infection, etc). | Pharmacology | null | Systemic adverse effects of long term inhaled steroids are evident only at doses more than ?
A. 200 mcg/day
B. 400 mcg/day
C. 600 mcg/day
D. 800 mcg/day
| 600 mcg/day |
b6770f37-a239-43cb-987f-e45b81d2fb9a | Crohn's disease - Intraabdominal abscess causing spiking fever (High grade with chills & rigor) Hallmark - Fistula formation (Peri-anal fistula) - Fecaluria (Communication between the gut and Bladder; stool will come in urine) -Rectum is spared -MC pa involve is T. ileum -Proctitis- usually a feature of UC. MC pa involve in UC is Rectum. | Medicine | Inflammatory Bowel Disease | Which of the following is not a feature of Crohn's disease?
A. Spiking fever
B. Enterovesical fistula/ Fecaluria
C. Perianal tags
D. Proctitis
| Proctitis |
6e26126a-be71-4d34-8e98-36d5ecbe86f8 | If we increase the workload, more oxygen will be required. At high altitudes oxygen is low. So we need to decrease the workload. At the same time, to increase the work capacity, we need to increase the duration of exercise without increasing the load. | Physiology | null | Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude
A. Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
B. Increasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
C. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
D. Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
| Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise |
6fb940fa-195e-4e4c-96b6-cba99d416a46 | The joints in the skull are mostly sutures.
Various types of sutures in the skull are,
Plane suture - Eg. Internasal suture, mid palatal suture.
Serrated suture - Eg. Sagittal and coronal suture (interparietal suture).
Denticulate suture - Tooth like projections. Eg. Lambdoid suture.
Squamous suture - Eg. Parieto-temporal suture. | Anatomy | null | The type of suture represented by sagittal suture of the cranial vault is
A. Serrate
B. Denticulate
C. Squamous
D. Plane
| Serrate |
95985c68-1219-4f3b-aea4-a5a0727f4a36 | During Fed state GLUT-2 = Insulin = GLUT-4 = Uptake of glucose by skeletal muscles | Biochemistry | Fuel in Fed, Fasting and Starvation | Arrange the following in sequence occurring in fed state 1. Insulin 2. GLUT-2 3. Uptake of glucose by skeletal muscles 4. GLUT-4
A. 2-1-3-4
B. 4-2-3-1
C. 2-1-4-3
D. 1-3-4-2
| 2-1-4-3 |
a1ca185d-b981-4344-9c5f-ae2d7ce130f4 | Influenza Covid-19 Median incubation period 2 days 5.5 days Serial interval 3 days 5-6 days Moality 0.1% 3% Though Influenza spreads faster than covid 19 but moality and reproductive number is higher for covid-19 due to which it is a disease of global concern . Reproductive number- No. of secondary infections generated from one infected person, which 2-2.5 in case of Covid-19 | Medicine | viral infection | Why is Covid-19 a major global concern despite the propey of influenza to spread faster than Covid-19 ?
A. Median incubation period is more in influenza
B. Reproductive number for covid-19 is 2-2.5
C. Serial interval is 5-6 days in influenza
D. Reproductive number for Influenza is more
| Reproductive number for covid-19 is 2-2.5 |
ad0ab14c-d7a1-48ca-a6c7-15ea24c5dc3c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blood schizont o Chloroquine is highly effective blood schizontocide. | Pharmacology | null | Chloroquine acts on -
A. Merozoites
B. Blood schizont
C. Tissue schiont
D. Gametocytes
| Blood schizont |
34abac41-f6c6-4080-a8da-aca7d8ba86e3 | Plasmodium malariae causes quaan malaria, in which febrile paroxysms occur every fouh day, with 72 hours' interval between the bouts. The disease is generally mild, but is notorious for its long persistence in circulation in undetectable levels, for 50 years or more.The sporozoites are relatively thick. Pre-erythrocytic schizogony takes about 15 days, much longer than in other species. Each schizont releases about 15,000 merozoites. Hypnozoites do not occur. The long latency of the infection is believed to be due to persistence of small numbers of erythrocytic forms in some internal organs. P.malariae preferentially infects older erythrocytes and the degree of parasitisation is low TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,CKJ PANIKER,6TH EDITION,PAGE NO 81 | Microbiology | parasitology | Senescent RBC&;s are mainly attcked in -
A. Vivax malaria
B. Ovale malaria
C. Falciparum malaria
D. Quaan
| Quaan |
0fff6189-1b16-4193-8f91-1809e1022f0f | Ans. A i.e. 22 cm Distant direct ophthalmoscopy Used to get a preliminary idea about the status of the ocular media and fundu This should be done routinely before doing a direct ophthalmoscopy Equipment needed - self illuminated ophthalmoscope or plane mirror with a hole in centre Procedure Should be performed in a semi dark room The ophthalmoscope should be kept at a distance of 20-25 cm from the patient's eye Normally a red reflex is seen at the pupillary area Uses Opacities in the ocular media are seen as dark spots in the red glow at the pupillar area The plane of the opacities can be assessed by asking the patient to move the eye from side to side while the examiner is observing the pupillary glow (based on parallax principle) opacities in front of the pupil move in the direction of eye movement opacities in the pupillary plane do not move opacities behind the pupillary plane move opposite the direction of eye movement To differentiate between a mole on the iris and a hole in the iris in oblique illumination, both appear dark in distant direct ophtalmoscopy mole - appears dark hole - red glow is seen To detect a retinal detachment or fundal mass Both of them are visible as a grayish reflex It is not possible to differentiate them in distant direct ophthalmoscopy | Ophthalmology | null | Distance of distant direct ophthalmoscopy is: March 2013 (a, b, c, d, g, h)
A. 22 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 75 cm
D. 100 cm
| 22 cm |
97588d92-bd0a-4cb4-b493-cab9241cc45f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Withdrawing water from vitreous By osmotic action mannitol encourages movement of water from aqueous humour --> decrease. Mannitol is used in angle closure (narrow angle, acute congestive) glaucoma. Treatment of acute congestive glaucoma o Definitive therapy is surgery (laser iridotomy) Drugs are used to decrease the i.o.t. during an acute attack. o Approch is : Sta i.v. mannitol or i.v. acetazolamide When i.o.t. stas falling, sta topical pilocarpine or b -blocker (timolol). Apraclonidine/latanoprost may be added. Once i.o.t. is reduced, surgery is done. | Pharmacology | null | Mannitol decreases the intraocular pressure by ?
A. Withdrawing water from vitreous
B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C. Increasing aqueous through trabecular meshwork
D. Inhibiting the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the ciliary body
| Withdrawing water from vitreous |
60f2fd8e-eb69-45e5-8e13-4c1b265eb69d | Time sector scanning of neonates is preferred because of the practical reason the open fontanelle serve as acoustic windows. Best results are obtained with a high-frequency phased array transducer (5-8 MHz) with a small footprint probe. Additional information : Neurosonography stas with gray-scale imaging performed the anterior fontanelle in the coronal and sagittal planes. Generally, six to eight coronal images are obtained, beginning at the anterior frontal lobes and extending to the occipital lobes posterior to the lateral ventricle trigones. The transducer is then rotated 90deg and five sagittal images are obtained, including a midline and two parasagittal views of right and left hemispheres encompassing the peripheral coex . Color Doppler images for aerial and venous structures may be obtained for the screening of vascular structures. Documentation of Doppler imaging of the circle of Willis and the region of vein of Galen is an essential pa of the assessment | Radiology | Fundamentals in Radiology | Time sector scanning of neonates is preferred for the following reason ?
A. Open fontanelles
B. Inexpensive
C. Children more co-operative
D. Better resolution
| Open fontanelles |
39931b13-b8de-4a91-9ad0-69a7c697d54f | Trabeculodysgenesis is the main pathogenesis for congenital glaucoma. Pathogenesis of Congenital Glaucoma Pathogenesis: Abnormal development of angle (trabeculodysgenesis) (Berkens Membrane). Flat iris inseion. Haab's stria : Horizontal Stria present in glaucoma. - Classical triad of lacrimation, photophobia & blepharospasm is seen. - Signs :Large eye, hazy cornea , Haab's striae. - Treatment : Goniotomy ; Trabeculotomy | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Which of the following is a feature of congenital glaucoma?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Trabeculodysgenesis
D. Inflammatory glaucoma
| Trabeculodysgenesis |
c91a9100-38ca-47fd-a41e-94e7a5c60293 | Ticks transmit disease by biting (larva and nymph also by biting) - Trans-stadially Experiments in ticks have shown trans-ovarian transmission of infection through successive generations. REF: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 840 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in -
A. Fleas
B. Ticks
C. Mosquitoes
D. Sandfly
| Ticks |
981d303b-a085-48e6-b354-313f65da4ca7 | ERCP Endoscopic clearance of CBD stones can avoid the need for an open operation if expeise in laparoscopic common bile duct exploration is not available Indications of preoperative ERCP Patients with worsening cholangitis Ampullaru stone impaction Biliary pancreatitis Cirrhosis Contraindications of endoscopic sphincterectomy CBD diameter >2cm Long suprasphincteric stricture >15mm Peri-Vaterian Diveiculum Duodenal Wall and head of the pancreas severely inflamed Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1511 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Ramu presents with recurrent attacks of cholelithiasis, USG examination shows dilated CBD of 1 cm. The next line of management is
A. ERCP
B. PTC
C. Cholecystostomy
D. Intravenous cholangiogram
| ERCP |
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