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d373bebf-6c5e-49a2-a51b-451358b47aaa | Ans. is b i.e. Estrous Estrous : It is cyclical period of sexual activity in non human female mammals, marked by congestion of and secretion by the uterine mucosa, proliferation of vaginal epithelium, swelling of the vulva, ovulation, and acceptance of the male by the female. During estrus, the animal is said to be "in heat". Also Know 7 Estrus cycle - The sequence from the beginning of one estrus period to the beginning of the next. It includes : * Proestrus Estrus Metestrus followed by Diestrus (period of quiescence). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In those mammals which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once in a year ; the cycle is termed as :
A. Follicular
B. Estrous
C. Menstrual
D. Luteal
| Estrous |
86df4d68-b1c6-4cc5-8bd1-f4c5fee14654 | Epiphysio-diaphyseal joint is a primary cartilaginous joint – synchondrosis.
It is found in the growing bone, where the growth plate (hyaline cartilage) connects the epiphysis with the diaphysis, creating a hyaline cartilaginous joint.
At this site the fate of synchondrosis is synostosis (bony fusion) after the growth plate gets removed and replaced by the bone. | Anatomy | null | Joint between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone is a type of:
A. Plane Synovial joint
B. Fibrous joint
C. Symphysis
D. Synchondrosis
| Synchondrosis |
e3e9a2e5-d425-4c25-8cbe-6edcb34a76de | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diaphragm Respiratory musclesInspiratory muscles1. During quiet breathing : Diaphragm (most important), external intercostal and interchondral part of internal intercostal.2. During forced inspiration : Sternocleidomastoid, serratus anterior, serratus posterior superior, pectoral is major and minor, erector spinae, scaleni and levator costarum.Expiratory' muscles1. During quiet breathing : Passive process due to passive recoil of the lungs and thoracic wall.2. During forced expiration : Internal intercostal, innermost intercostal, transversus thoracis, serratus posterior inferior, subcostalis, lattissimus dorsi and abdominal muscles (rectus abdominis, internal and external oblique and transversus abdominis). | Anatomy | Thorax | Main inspiratory muscle is -
A. Lattissimus dorsi
B. Transversus thoracis
C. Serratus anterior
D. Diaphragm
| Diaphragm |
c59d6475-a716-4905-b995-cd79efd7db0d | According to Kim et al Classification; there are 5 types
Type I incomplete isthmus between 2 canals.
Type II well defined, complete isthmus between 2 canals.
Type III very short but complete isthmus between 2 canals.
Type IV 3 or more canals with the complete or incomplete isthmus.
Type V 3 or more canals without any visible connection. | Dental | null | Kim et al classification system deals with:
A. Apical constriction
B. Apical foramen
C. Isthmus
D. No. of canals
| Isthmus |
7b94a82b-2050-4007-92e4-f11a5b345a8a | Peussis is an acute highly contagious respiratory tract infection caused by Bordetella peussis. Extremely contagious and clinical presentation can be divided into 3 stages like catarrhal, paroxysmal and convalescent It is called whooping cough due to the characteristic whoop produced by the air rushing in during inspiration through half open glottis. - diagnosis is mainly based on clinical symptoms. - the sample of choice is nasopharyngeal swab. Reference : Ghai essential pediatrics, 9 th edition, pg no:237 | Pediatrics | Infectious disease | A child presents with recurrent bouts of severe cough followed by an audible whoop. Which of the following is considered the best type of specimen to isolate the organism and confirm the diagnosis
A. Nasopharyngeal swab
B. Cough plate
C. Throat Swabs
D. Anterior Nasal Swab
| Nasopharyngeal swab |
8f87627b-4847-4932-82cf-287be2550116 | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Charge Property of protein usedMethodProtein solubility'Salting out' or salt extraction (precipitation of protein by ammonium sulfate)Molecular sizeo Gel filtration chromatography (molecular-sieve chromatography or size exclusion chromatography)o Ultracentrifugationo SDS-PAGE (Sodium dodecvl sulphate-polyacry lamide gel electrophoresis)o DialysisMolecular charge (Ionic charge)o Ion exchange chromatographyo High performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)o Electrophoresis (simple on cellulose acetate starch gel)o Isoelectric focusing (a variant of electrophoresis)Molecular charge and molecular w eightPAGE : polyacrylamide gel electrophoresisAffinity bindingAffinity chromatographyHvdnophobidty'Hydrophobic interaction chromatography | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Structure & Function of Proteins) | Ion exchange chromatography is based on -
A. Size
B. Charge
C. Solubility
D. Polarity
| Charge |
fc8185de-7fe6-48a1-b7ba-436275aad437 | In Hansen&;s disease ,the earliest sensation to be affected is usually light touch. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 332 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Earliest sensation to be lost Hansens disease is -
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Vibration
D. Temperature
| Touch |
7b85ca57-6236-430b-915c-2955e089b6bb | Basal ganglia The most common sites of hypeensive haemorrhage are: The basal ganglia (putamen, thalamus and adjacent deep white matter) Deep cerebellum Pons | Surgery | null | Most common site of intracranial hemorrhage in hepeensive hemorrhage is :
A. Basal ganglia
B. Brain.stem
C. Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus
| Basal ganglia |
e032877f-7224-4383-85ed-876bf7a86e1c | The basic molecular defect in Down's syndrome is the extra genetic material of chromosome 21. It may be due to :
1) Trisomy 21
This is the most common cause (95%). There is an extra chromosome 21 (i.e. three 21 chromosomes) which is due to meiotic nondisjunction in the ovum. The extra chromosome is of maternal origin. The most important risk factor is advanced maternal age (> 35 years).
2) Roberston translocation
This accounts for 3% of cases. Extra material of 21 chromosomes comes from Robertson translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21 to another acrocentric chromosome (22, or 14 or 15), i.e. t (22: 21), t (14:21), or t (15:21). It has no relation with maternal age.
3) Mosaicism (Mosaic 21)
In 2% of patients, there is mosaicism, i.e. occurrence of two or more different types of the cell population (46 XX / 47 XX + 21) in the same individual, due to mitotic nondisjunction of chromosome 21. There is no correlation with maternal age.
4) Partial trisomy
It is very very rare. The long arm of chromosome 21 triplicates | Pediatrics | null | Which mutation is seen in Down’s syndrome -
A. Monosomy X
B. Trisomy 21
C. Trisomy 22
D. Trisomy 22
| Trisomy 21 |
fe9ab9d9-733f-46d6-981b-546b1058dac2 | Dynamic hip screw (DHS) plate is the implant of choice for fixation.
These days proximal femoral nail (PFN) is also commonly used. | Orthopaedics | null | Trochanteric fracture of the femur is best treated by -
A. Dynamic hip screw
B. Inlay plates
C. Plaster in abduction
D. Plaster in abduction and internal rotation
| Dynamic hip screw |
20a1b1e7-6e92-420d-8ac5-ff6ba176295a | Phenylalanine It is an alpha-amino acid. This essential amino acid is classified as nonpolar because of the hydrophobic nature of the benzyl side chain. L-Phenylalanine (LPA) is an electrically neutral amino acid The codons for L-phenylalanine are UUU and UUC. Phenylalanine is a precursor for tyrosine, the monoamine signaling molecules dopamine, norepinephrine (noradrenaline), and epinephrine (adrenaline), and the skin pigment melanin. | Biochemistry | null | Essential amino acid is:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Proline
C. Glutamine
D. Serine
| Phenylalanine |
b6f2d72c-3f76-446f-92c5-87fae48a677d | Savlon is a very popular disinfectant in the hospitals and it contains chlorhexidine and cetrimide. | Pharmacology | null | Savlon contains :
A. Cetrimide and cetavlon
B. Cetrimide and Chlorhexidine
C. Cetrimide, Chlorhexidine and butyl alcohol
D. Cetrimide and butyl alcohol
| Cetrimide and Chlorhexidine |
21fa1168-73bb-4515-b6d8-798b7ecdd899 | In stapedial palsy, damage to the nerve result in a reduction in sound attenuation reflex resulting in sound being heard excessively loud in the affected ear (hyperacusis). Attenuation reflex: When very loud sound is transmitted through the ossicular system to CNS a reflex is initiated with a latent period of 40 to 80ms. This reflex causes contraction of tensor tympani and stapedius muscle. Contraction of these two muscles make the ossicular system rigid and therefore it fails to vibrate with the sound wave. Thus sound is not allowed to enter inner ear or its intensity is reduced by 30 to 40 decibels. | ENT | null | Which of the following condition is associated with a loss of attenuation reflex?
A. Stapedial palsy
B. Glomus tumor
C. Internal ear pathology
D. Malingerers
| Stapedial palsy |
2a644837-f62b-4860-8082-96cf6f9b4f8a | The health care provider may hear a fast heabeat while listening to your hea with a stethoscope. Your pulse may feel fast, uneven, or both. The normal hea rate is 60 to 100 beats per minute. In atrial fibrillation or flutter, the hea rate may be 100 to 175 beats per minute Digoxin toxicity is a life-threatening condition. ... The classic arrhythmias seen during digoxin toxicity include atrial tachycardia with a 2:1 conduction, bidirectional ventricular tachycardia and atrial fibrillation with a slow ventricular response Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1436 | Medicine | C.V.S | In a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation with a regular beat of 60/min, the most probable cause is-
A. Sleep
B. Digitalis toxicity
C. Sino nodal block
D. Hypothyroidism
| Digitalis toxicity |
28167b41-88dc-4acd-a31b-57054cc64c24 | Proper identification of the biopsy site is of paramount impoance. To choose the site, sta with percussion over the right upper quadrant. The biopsy site is usually located in the seventh or eighth intercostal space in the midaxillary line. The site can be fuher confirmed with either routine ultrasonography or a bedside poable ultrasound machine. be sure to eliminate the possibility of bowel juxtaposition along the biopsy tract. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg864 | Medicine | G.I.T | What is the uppermost intercostals space used for hepatic biopsy -
A. 7th
B. 10th
C. 5th
D. 9th
| 7th |
2d6650ab-82fe-46e0-9db3-4ee00a6b3ad5 | Ans. b (Ibuprofen). (Ref. KDT 6th/pg. 191)AnalgesicPropertiesNimesulideDue to gastrointestinal, dermatological, renal & fulminant hepatic failure side effects, its safety, especially in children is questional. Banned in USA.IbuprofenSafest conventional NSAID.But should not be prescribed to pregnant women & peptic ulcer disease patients.ParacetamolIt has negligible anti-inflammatory action.HepatotoxicDiclofenacanalgesic-antipyretic anti-inflammatory drug is Ulcerogenic | Pharmacology | Miscellaneous (Pharmacology) | Anti-inflammatory drug that can safely be used in children is
A. Paracetamol
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diclofenac
D. Nimesulide
| Ibuprofen |
983ccd7a-b123-4442-abbb-c95ef7499a72 | Exclusive breastfeeding advised for 4-6months of age.(Refer: OP Ghai's Textbook of Pediatrics, 8th edition, pg no. 60, 122) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Exclusive breastfeeding is advised till what age?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 10 months
| 6 months |
2ae300c9-e1d2-4827-98a5-44c8b8a6f0d6 | Pulmonary aery pressures are reflective of RV pressures .Pulmonary circulation is low pressure, low resistance circulation as compared to systemic circulation. Pulmonary vessels are about 24 times more compliant compared to their systemic counterpas. Pulmonary circulation, in a sho route, has to accommodate large quantities of blood. Due to their high compliance and large amounts of blood accommodated within them, lungs are called 'reservoir of blood'. At any given time, lungs accommodate about 15% of the total blood volume. | Physiology | Respiratory System | The characteristic of the pulmonary circulation:
A. High resistance, high compliance
B. Low resistance, low compliance
C. High resistance, low compliance
D. Low resistance, high compliance
| Low resistance, high compliance |
69ccc4e3-9e53-45e6-9c64-a8071be4a348 | (Ref: Katzung 11/e p942) The patient described in the question has henorrhagic cystitiws caus3d by drugs like cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide. Hemorrhagic cystitis during therapy with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide is caused by the urinary excretion of the toxic metabolite acrolein. This can be preventede by aggressive hydration, bladder irrigation, and administration of mesna, a sulfhydryl compound that binds acroleinin the urine. | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Roopa Devi, a 65-year-old female with lymph-node-positive breast cancer was treated with systemic chemotherapy. Four weeks later, she developed frequent urination, suprapubic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. Which of the following could have prevented this patient's condition?
A. Folinic acid
B. Mesns
C. Dexrazoxane
D. Amifostine
| Mesns |
e084cba4-4467-4a69-8e7e-1fd25e43b770 | (b) Glossopharyngeal(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2 page 535)The sensory supply of the middle ear is by the tympanic plexus which is formed by the Jacobson's nerve which is the tympanic branch of Glossopharyngeal (IX) along with sympathetic plexus from around the internal carotid. | ENT | Ear | Sensory nerve supply of middle ear cavity is provided by:
A. Facial
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Vagus
D. Trigeminal
| Glossopharyngeal |
0250b33f-a4fb-425f-999e-42512a759377 | Testicular Biopsy in Male Infeility The testis biopsy provides direct information regarding the state of spermatogenesis Abnomalities of seminiferous tubules architecture and cellular composition are then categorized into several patterns. This procedure is most useful in the azoospermia patient, in which it is often difficult to distinguish between a failure of sperm production and obstruction within reproductive tract ducts. A testis biopsy allows definitive delineation between these 2 conditions and can guide fuher treatment options in azoospermic men. Testis biopsies may also be indicated to identify patients at high risk for intratubular germ cell neoplasia. This premalignant condition exists in 5% of men with a contralateral germ cell tumour of the testis and is more prevelent in infeile than feile men. Ref: Smith 18th edition Pgno: 699 | Surgery | Urology | Best indication foe testicular biopsy in male is:
A. Polyspermia
B. Oligospermia
C. Necrospermia
D. Azoospermia
| Azoospermia |
9c86c6a5-8846-4990-a296-1e840bfe000f | The work of Goldman and others has served to identify risk factors for perioperative myocardial infarction. The highest likelihood is associated with recent myocardial infarction: the more recent the event, the higher the risk up to 6 months. It should be noted, however, that the risk never returns to normal. A non-Q-wave infarction may not have destroyed much myocardium, but it leaves the surrounding area with borderline perfusion, thus the paicularly high risk of subsequent perioperative infarction. Evidence of congestive hea failure, such as jugular venous distention, or S3 gallop also carries a high risk, as does the frequent occurrence of ectopic beats. Old age (>70 years) and emergency surgery are risk factors independent of these others. Coronary revascularization by coronary aery bypass graft (CABG) tends to protect against myocardial infarction. Smoking, diabetes, hypeension, and hyperlipidemia (all of which predispose to coronary aery disease) are surprisingly not independent risk factors, although they may increase the death rate should an infarct occur. The value of this information and data derived from fuher testing is that it identifies the patient who needs to be monitored invasively with a systemic aerial catheter and pulmonary aerial catheter. Most perioperative infarcts occur postoperatively when the third-space fluids return to the circulation, which increases the preload and the myocardial oxygen consumption. This generally occurs around the third postoperative day. | Anaesthesia | Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia | A 78-year-old man with a history of coronary aery disease and an asymptomatic reducible inguinal hernia requests an elective hernia repair. Which of the following would be a valid reason for delaying the proposed surgery?
A. Coronary aery bypass surgery 3 months earlier
B. A history of cigarette smoking
C. Jugular venous distension
D. Hypeension
| Jugular venous distension |
5fd74d5f-3d32-4823-ac9f-556e5be1ba8d | Haem iron is present in liver, meat, poultry, and fish. Non haem iron is present in green leafy vegetable,jaggery and dry fruit. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 623 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Among the following, which one is not good dietary source of iron -
A. Liver
B. Jaggery
C. Fish
D. Milk
| Milk |
daa7340b-639c-4ad5-a66a-79d593d641a2 | The fold in collagen is because of presence of Glycine. ADDITIONAL READING ON STRUCTURE OF COLLAGEN: Collagen is made up of 3 alpha- chains (not alpha helix). These 3 chains together make a superhelix --> Tropocollagen(a rope like triple helix) Superhelix (right handed) is oured by Glycine residues. Glycine has the smallest side chain soit fits into the restricted space where three chains of helix come together. | Biochemistry | Glycine Metabolism Detail | The fold in collagen is because of presence of:
A. Histidine
B. Glycine
C. Argininc
D. Glutamate
| Glycine |
a25051b0-38e2-489b-973f-68488093d961 | Emphysematous pyelonephritis (EPN) is a severe, necrotizing infection of the renal parenchyma causing gas formation within the collecting system, renal parenchyma, and/or perirenal tissues. Also called renal emphysema and pneumonephritis. Gas in the renal pelvis alone, without parenchymal gas, is often referred to as emphysematous pyelitis.EPN most often occurs in persons with diabetes mellitus, especially women.Among the bacteria associated with emphysematous pyelonephritis (EPN), Escherichia coli is isolated in 66% of patients, and Klebsiella species are repoed in 26% of patients. Proteus,Pseudomonas, and Streptococcus species are other organisms found in patients with EPN, and Entamoeba histolytica and Aspergillus fumigatus also have been repoed to cause the disease. Mixed organisms are observed in 10% of patients. Rare organisms such as Clostridium and Candida species have also been isolated in patients with EPN. | Surgery | Urology | The common organism isolated in Emphysematous pyeloneohritis is
A. E. Coli
B. Proteus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella
| E. Coli |
4b439229-a9ed-481f-9889-5e5715e8a707 | Oxalate crystals in urine is seen with Ethylene Glycol poisoning. Renal pain and acute tubular necrosis in it, occurs due to renal calcium oxalate precipitation. Other features includes, opthalmoplegia, cranial nerve palsies, hyporeflexia and myoclonus Reference: Harrison20th edition pg pg 789 | Medicine | Toxicology | Oxalate crytals in urine is seen in -
A. Ethylene glycol poison
B. Di glycol poison
C. Alcohol
D. Indivavir
| Ethylene glycol poison |
355df8ca-ea7e-4834-b7fc-6372c73a7830 | Majority of HIV transmission occur during labour (40-80%). Perinatal transmission of HIV: Veical transmission of HIV to the neonate is about 14 - 25%. Transmission of HIV 2 is less frequent (1-4%) than HIV 1(14-35%). Veical transmission of HIV is more in cases with preterm bih and with prolonged membrane rupture. Risk of veical transmission is directly related to maternal viral load and inversely to maternal immune status. Maternal anti retro viral therapy reduces the risk of veical transmission by 70%. Breast feeding increases HIV 1 transmission by 14%. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C Dutta, 6th edn, page 300. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | An HIV positive patient is pregnant. During which of the following stage is HIV transmission maximum?
A. Labour
B. Early pregnancy
C. Late pregnancy
D. Post delivery
| Labour |
fad29693-a438-4461-8ed8-a62ed18bc338 | Metastable REF: Nuclear Physics: Principles And Applications by Lilley Page 20 "In 99Tcm the superscript M denotes that the technetium 99 is not in its ground state but a long lived metastable excited state" | Radiology | null | M in 99Tc"' stands for?
A. Micro
B. Mega
C. Metastable
D. Metastatic
| Metastable |
3db37ca6-c82d-4fd2-b0a5-6d7efcc659cc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., CPKCreatinine phosphokinase (CK) Previously It was the gold standard marker of acute Ml.o But now it has largely been replaced by troponin T and I (see above explanation).o But, CK remains the best alternative to troponin measurement.CK-MB isotype of this enzyme is specific for myocardium.It is raised within 2-4 hours after MI, peaks at 24 hours and returns to normal within approximately 72 hours. | Pathology | null | In MI, which enzyme is raised in 4 to 6 hrs and decreases in 3 to 6 days -
A. SGOT
B. LDH
C. CPK
D. SGOT
| CPK |
baa471b1-7296-45c4-b051-43443803fc78 | The normal free copper value is 10-15 mcg/dL and it is often as high as 50 mcg/dL in untreated Wilson's disease. With treatment, free copper should be <25 mcg/dL. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3190 | Medicine | null | During treatment for Wilson disease with trientine and penicillamine, free serum copper should be kept below which level?
A. 25 mcg/dl
B. 50 mcg/dl
C. 75 mcg/dl
D. 100 mcg/dl
| 25 mcg/dl |
6b82db1a-9535-4442-9b79-dc90fa288524 | Individual type of nerve differs in their minimal blocking concentration. Not all sensory and motor modalities are blocked equally by local anesthetics. This is termed differential blockade. For different fibers order of blockade b > AS = C > AU > A b > Aa autonomic > sensory> motor is the sequence of block. for sensory blockade the sequence is Temperature - pain - touch - pressure | Anaesthesia | Regional Anesthesia | The order of sensory blockade of local anesthesia is:
A. Temperature - pain - touch - pressure
B. Pain - pressure - touch - temperature
C. Touch - pressure - temperature - pain
D. Touch - pain - pressure - temperature
| Temperature - pain - touch - pressure |
75c18dda-23b2-436f-89bb-fe908182b670 | Adult pateint presenting with generalized lymphadenopathy and blood film shows 70percent immature looking lymphocytes is highly suggestive of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Immunophenotyping can be one of the best ways to differentiate between CLL and other B cell neoplasms.( ref Robbins 9/e p593) | Anatomy | Haematology | Adult patient presents with generalized lymphadenopathy and blood film shows 70percent immature looking lymphocytes. What should be the next best investigation?
A. Genotyping/karyotyping
B. Immunophenotyping
C. Bone marrow
D. Peripheral smear study
| Immunophenotyping |
6b173f58-b595-4fe6-b791-1fba2ff46b4b | Ans. c. Diazepam (Ref: Niraj Ahuja 6th/39-40; Kaplan Synopsis 10th/396)'Long acting benzodiazepines such as chlordiazepoxide and diazepam or short acting such as lorazepam can be used to treat mild-moderate uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal.''Chlordiazepoxide is preferred over diazepam for treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome.'Management ofAlcohol IntoxicationAlcohol WithdrawalDelirium TremensDrugs used are:* Lorazepam (can worsen the vitals due to CNS depression)* Haloperidol (can lower seizure threshold)Other drugs which may be used:* Ziprasidone* Olanzapine* All patients should be given multiple oral vitamin B1 including 50-100 mg of thiamine daily for a week.* Replace alcohol (CNS depressant) with any other CNS depressant.* Benzodiazepines are commonly used.* Chlordiazepoxide is drug of choice because of its long half-life.* High dose benzodiazepines or antipsychotics are recommended.* Anticonvulsants are not given to control seizures seen in delirium tremens. | Psychiatry | Alcohol-Related Disorders | A known alcoholic is brought to the emergency department by his wife. The person has not consumed alcohol for the past two days due to religious reasons. The person complained of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. On the second day, he developed seizures, that progressed to generalized tonic clonic seizures (GTCs). Which of the following would be the best medication to manage the seizures of the patients?
A. Sodium valproate
B. Phenytoin
C. Diazepam
D. Clonidine
| Diazepam |
4a316cd4-d9ea-4143-b94b-ebdc083ab777 | BRACHIAL PLEXUS INJURIES It can be: Supraclavicular injury 65% Infraclavicular injury 25% Combined 10% It can also be: Upper plexus injury. Lower plexus injury. It can be: Pre-ganglionic injury Post-ganglionic injury Avulsion injury Usually less severe More dangerous Better recovery Extends into the spinal cord Upper plexus injury (Erb's Duchenne paralysis) Lower plexus injury (Klumpke's paralysis) It is due to depression of shoulder by trauma After diffucult labour in newborn. Here C5 and C6 roots are injured Muscles affected are deltoid, biceps, brachioradialis & supinator Effects Elbow will be extended, pronated & upper limb is internally rotated (Policemen receiving tip) Sensory deficit over the lateral aspect of arm & upper pa of the lateral forearm Forcible hyperabduction of shoulder causes thr injury In newborn it results due to difficult breech delivery Here C8 & 51 are injured Intrinsic muscles of hand are involved Effects Combines Median & Ulnar claw hand Horner's syndrome Sensory deficit over the medial aspect of forearm, hand & medial 1 1/2 finger Investigations Nerve conduction studies. CT/MRI. Electromyogram. X-ray cervical spine and pa. Treatment Conservative, nerve repair. Tendon transfer, physiotherapy. Osteotomy of coracoid process proximal to the attachment of pectoralis minor, sho head of biceps and coracobrachialis is done to improve abduction--Sever's operation. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 265 | Surgery | Trauma | A 45 year-male presents with abrupt onset pain, weakness, loss of contour of shoulder and muscle wasting on 5th day of tetanus toxoid immunization. Likely cause is
A. Hysterical
B. Radial nerve entrapment
C. Brachial plexus neuritis
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
| Brachial plexus neuritis |
ff1d5603-48a0-4d07-aea2-14a2b048c282 | Answer- A. Chylomicrons White (Lactescent) appearance is caused by chylomicrons. | Medicine | null | A patient undergoes a lipid profile screening. On withdrawing the blood, it appears white in colour, Which of the following is the most probable elevated lipoprotein?
A. Chylomicrons
B. HDL
C. LPL
D. Cholesterol
| Chylomicrons |
957208a9-5faa-453a-bea8-8a89def54e48 | Temperature is the first sensation that is lost. The next sensation lost is light touch then pain. Deep pressure is lost finally. | Dental | null | Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansens disease is –
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Vibration
D. Temperature
| Temperature |
db32b977-98a1-4e41-a1c2-0c498e96db86 | SURFACE ECTODERM - LENS- Epithelium of the all structures except ciliary body & iris- Glands NEURAL ECTODERM - Epithelium of ciliary body & iris- Retinal pigment epithelium- Optic nerve- Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles - Smooth muscles of iris MESODERM - EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES- Endothelium of all the orbit & stroma of iris & ciliary body- Sclera (temporal pa) NEURAL CREST - Stroma of cornea & choroid - Corneal endothelium - Sclera (except temporal pa) -Melanocytes -Corneal keratocytes -Ciliary muscles -Ciliary ganglion -Stroma of iris -Choroid Trabecular meshwork | Ophthalmology | Ocular Embryology& Anatomy | Corneal endothelium is derived from:
A. Neuroectoderm
B. Neural crest cells
C. Mesoderm
D. Surface ectoderm
| Neural crest cells |
da1d2176-df9b-4da0-913b-a4ace1385d68 | (d) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion(Ref. Scott Brown, Vol 2; 288)Recurrent URTI with mouth breathing and failure to thrive in the given 6-year-old child with high arched palate is due to persistently hypertrophied adenoids.The impaired hearing is due to serous otitis media which in turn is because of hypertrophied adenoids blocking the Eustachian tubes.So treatment will be adenoidectomy with grommet insertion. | ENT | Ear | Management of a 6-year-old child with recurrent URTI with mouth breathing and failure to thrive with high arched palate and impaired hearing is:
A. Tonsillectomy
B. Grommet insertion
C. Myringotomy with grommet insertion
D. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
| Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion |
cbd6afda-5de0-4038-985d-14d344469101 | Bipolar disorder earlier known as manic-depressive psychosis is characterised by recurrent episodes of mania and depression in the same patient at different times. These episodes can occur in any sequence. (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, NirajAhujaa, 7th edition, pg no.73) | Psychiatry | Mood disorders | What is affected in bipolar disorder
A. Emotions
B. Perception
C. Personality
D. Thought
| Emotions |
3dc061f0-c53f-473e-a907-313273226f85 | Hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid and penicillamine are most commonly associated with drug induced lupus. The list of substances that can induce lupus-like disease is long. Among the most frequent are: Antiarrhythmic, procainamide, disopyramide, and propafenone Antihypeensive: hydralazine; several angiotensin-conveing enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers Antithyroid: propylthiouracil Antipsychotics: chlorpromazine and lithium Anticonvulsants: carbamazepine and phenytoin Antibiotics: isoniazid, minocycline, and macrodantin Antirheumatic: sulfasalazine Diuretic: hydrochlorothiazide Antihyperlipidemics: lovastatin and simvastatin Interferons and TNF inhibitors | Pharmacology | null | A patient given one of the following drug develops low grade fever, muscle and joint ache, chest pain and skin rashes. Lab investigations showed presence of antihistone antibodies. Symptoms however subsided after discontinuation of the drug. Which is the drug that caused the reaction?
A. Hydralazine
B. Rifampicin
C. Paracetamol
D. Furosemide
| Hydralazine |
1d1be44f-2679-4514-9a8e-a53afe90f5f9 | GLOMUS TUMOUR, also called as glomangioma, arises from the cutaneous glomus composed of a touous aeriole which communicates directly into the venule (Sucquet-Hoyer canal) and these vessels being surrounded by network of small nerves making this lesion very painful. It consists of a mixture of blood spaces, nonmedullated nerve tissue, muscle fibres derived from the wall of the aeriole, with large cuboidal glomus cells--angiomyoneuroma. They are often seen in limbs and common in nail-beds near the finger tips, as purple red swelling. Excision cures the condition. Reference : page 81 SRB'S manual of surgery 5th edition | Surgery | Urology | Glomus tumor is seen in
A. Liver
B. Adrenals
C. Pitutary
D. Finger
| Finger |
efecdf9a-2007-494f-9ad0-1a452eeae06d | Complicated lesions indicate advanced atherosclerotic disease. They arise in atherosclerotic plaques, and render them more susceptible to sudden occlusion and acute infarction of the supplied tissues. Commonly, the plaque ulcerates or ruptures, and the exposed surfaces, being highly thrombogenic, precipitate thrombus formation. Thrombi are typified by the lines of Zahn, alternating layers of platelets and fibrin (the pale lines) and layers of blood (the dark lines). Beyond thrombus formation, other features of a complicated plaque include hemorrhage into the lesion itself, and microembolism by cholesterol crystals or calcified debris. Fuhermore, the weakened media underlying the plaque may develop an aneurysmal dilatation. In general, the clinical significance of atherosclerosis is related to the consequences of complicated lesions. The incorrect options all include features of atheromatous plaques, but do not indicate complicated lesions:Beneath the endothelium of a plaque there is a fibrous cap composed of smooth muscle, chronic inflammatory cells and lipid laden macrophages (foam cells), as well as extracellular material. The core of the lesion, which lies between the intima and the media, is composed of necrotic cellular debris, with cholesterol crystals, calcium, and more foam cells. Ref: Fuster V., Falk E. (2011). Chapter 52. Atherothrombosis: Disease Burden, Activity, and Vulnerability. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds),Hurst's The Hea, 13e. | Pathology | null | The presence of which of the following features in an atherosclerotic plaque indicates that it has become a complicated lesion?
A. Cholesterol crystals
B. Chronic inflammatory cells
C. Intimal smooth muscle
D. Lines of Zahn
| Lines of Zahn |
b18fd6a8-d9f1-4638-abaa-e256c76920d9 | Testicular lymphoma is the most common testicular tumor in patients older than 60 years. | Pathology | null | Which is the most common testicular tumor in patients older than 60 years?
A. Seminoma
B. Leydig cell tumor
C. Teratoma
D. Lymphoma
| Lymphoma |
cb0c7ff4-2cc8-472e-a56d-8a8815ba7076 | Complete interruption of the median nerve results in inability to pronate the forearm or flex the hand in a radial direction, paralysis of flexion of the index finger and terminal phalanx of the thumb, weakness of flexion of the remaining fingers, weakness of opposition and abduction of the thumb in the plane at a right angle to the palm (abductor and flexor pollicis brevis), and sensory impairment over the radial two-thirds of the palm and dorsum of the distal phalanges of the index and third fingers. The nerve may be injured in the axilla by dislocation of the shoulder and in any pa of its course by stab, gunshot, or other types of wounds, and like the radial nerve, is often a component of the mononeuritis multiplex syndrome. Ref : Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 46. Diseases of the Peripheral Nerves. In M.A. Samuels (Ed), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | Surgery | null | Pointing finger is due to injury to which nerve?
A. Median
B. Radial
C. Ulnar
D. Axillary
| Median |
691f500f-f0f6-4dc2-bdf5-877f0cf14c34 | Fibromatosis is a group of fibroblastic proliferation distinguished by their tendency to grow in an infiltrative fashion and in many cases intend to recover after surgical removal. They can be isolated lesions or as a component of Gardner syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder. Hence we can conclude that fibromatosis is an autosomal hyperplasia. Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no, 793 | Pathology | miscellaneous | Autonomous hyperplasia is seen in-
A. Choristoma
B. Endometrial hyperplasia
C. Fibromatosis
D. Hamaoma
| Fibromatosis |
264efa9a-dcbb-4555-a593-a4d5f0b23bf8 | FSs are ectopic sebaceous glands seen commonly on the lips (upper lip > lower lip), buccal, and genital mucosa. Infrequently, they can also be seen on oesophagus, uterine cervix, sole of the foot, and tongue. Histopathologically, a FS consists of a sebaceous lobule or gland located in the dermis. The Dermoscopy of FS on the penile shaft has been described and it shows vascular "garlands-like" aspect whose "bows" seem to wind around yellowish bunch-like lobules without crossing them iadvl textbook of dermatology | Dental | Bacterial infections | Fordyce disease most commonly effects
A. Lips
B. Neck
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Trunk
| Lips |
cc367b2d-15dc-4b26-aba8-9aaa6c69c740 | Type Name Enzyme Deficiency Clinical Features IV Amylopectinosis, Andersen disease Branching enzyme Hepatosplenomegaly Accumulation of polysaccharide with few branch points Death from hea or liver failure before age 5 Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Table: 18-2; Page no: 179 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Branching enzyme deficiency is seen in
A. Andersen disease
B. McArdle's syndrome
C. Cori disease
D. Von Gierke disease
| Andersen disease |
0e4b0296-f7df-4ef3-9d70-03a4482f34da | Ans. is 'b' Goodpasture syndrome Goodpasture syndromeGoodpasture syndrome is a rare condition characterized by rapid destruction of the kidney and diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage.It is an autoimmune disease characterized by presence of circulating autoantibodies targeted against basement membrane of lung and kidney.These antibodies are directed against the noncollagenous domain of the a-3 chain of type IV collegen (collegen of basement membrane).The antibodies initiate an inflammatory destruction of the basement membrane in kidney glomeruli and lung alveoli.In Goodpasture syndrome, immune reaction is type II hypersensitivity.Morphological changesLungThe lungs are heavy, with areas of red brown consolidation.There is focal necrosis of alveolar walls associated with intraalveolar hemorrhages. Alveoli contain hemosiderin-laden macrophages.Linear deposits of immunoglobulins along the basement membranes of the septal walls.KidneyDiffuse proliferative rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.Focal necrotizing lesion and crescents in >50% of glomeruli.Linear deposits of immunoglobulins and complement along glomerular basement membrane.Clinical manifestationsOccur typically in young males.Most cases begin clinically with respiratory symptoms, principally hemoptysis.Soon, manifestations of glomerulonephritis appear and typically present as nephritic syndrome - hematuria, nephritic urinary sediment, subnephrotic proteinuria, rapidly progressive renal failure.The common cause of death is renal failure. | Pathology | null | Alveolar hemorrhage and hemosiderin laden macrophages ?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Goodpasture syndrome
C. Bronchial pneumonia
D. Bronchieactasis
| Goodpasture syndrome |
4ff6db83-2049-4da9-9bb0-56eb6a8db6db | (Biparietal diameter) (85-Dutta 6th)Real ultrasound measurement of fetal growth* First trimester - Crown - rump length* Second trimester - Biparietal diameter (BPD)* Third trimester - Multiple foetal growth parameters are considered together. These are- Prior to 36 weeks - Combination of biparietal diameter, abdominal circumference and femur length (FL)- After 36 weeks - Combination of head circumference, abdominal circumference and femur lengthA- BPD greater than 9.2 cm indicates foetal pulmonary maturity corroborated by L:S ratio* Early measurement of BPD and FL are the most useful in establishing gestational age Later measurement of fetal growth are best achieved by measurement of the head circumference and the abdominal circumference (G. chamberlain 7th)* Foetal head: abdominal circumference ratioMaximum - 1.29 at 12 weeksEqual - 1.00 at 36 weeksMinimum - <1.00 after 37 weeks* Bishop score is used for induction of labour* Manning score is most sensitive & reliable test for fetal well beingDifferent diameter of skull in newborn are* Suboccipito-bregmatic =9.5cm* Suboccipito-frontal =10cm* Occipito frontal =11.5cm* Mento vertical =14cm* Sub mento vertical =11.5cm* Sub mento-bregmatic =9.5cm* Biparietal diameter =9.5cm* Super-subparietal =8.5cm* Bitemporal diameter =8cm* Bimastoid diameter =7.5cm* Twin peak sign - Ultrasonography shows extension of placental tissue into the inner twin membrane in diaminiotic dichorionic (DD) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Most sensitive test for assessment of fetal well being is
A. Biparital diameter
B. Arm circumference
C. Abdominal circumference
D. Head circumference
| Biparital diameter |
d3383de9-1c50-419c-8b93-d02f4e489f53 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Parotid gland STENSONDUCTPAROTID GLANDThe exit of the parotid ducts can be felt as small bumps (Papillae) on both sides of the mouth, and are usually positioned next to the maxillary second molars.WHARTONDUCTSUBMANDIBULARGLANDIt then passes between the sublingual gland and the genioglossus and opens by a narrow opening on the summit of a small papilla at the side of the frenulum of the tongue. | ENT | Oral Cavity | A 53 year old male man cpmplains of pain around his cheek and neck. On examination there is pus pouring out from his Stenson's duct. Which gland is involved?
A. Parotid gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Sublingual Gland
D. Lacrimal Gland
| Parotid gland |
37ed1d81-d3c0-4940-95f2-f627c4ec8d7a | Lacrimal sac cyst occurs as a compressible swelling near the medial canthus and not root of nose. Ethmoid cyst (mucocele) presents as a swelling at the medial quadrant of orbit pushing the orbit forwards and laterally. AV malformation is a congenital abnormal connection between aeries and veins, bypassing the capillary system.These are largely found in internal organs and is rare at this site. | ENT | null | A 2 year old child is brought to the hospital with a compressible swelling at the root of nose, most likely diagnosis is:
A. A V malformation
B. Lacrimal sac cyst
C. Ethmoid sinus cyst
D. Meningoencephalocele
| Meningoencephalocele |
75aa19b1-3db5-4c15-b950-c9a8d9c269ca | Formaldehyde gas is used for sterilizing instruments and heat sensitive catheters and for fumigating wards, sick rooms and laboratories. Under properly controlled conditions, clothing, bedding, furniture, and books can be satisfactorily disinfected. In aqueous solutions, it is markedly bactericidal and sporicidal and also lethal effect on viruses. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology By Ananthanarayan, 6th edition, Page 29. | Microbiology | null | Wards in an hospital are sterilized by the following method:
A. Ethylene oxide gas
B. Formaldehyde fumigation
C. Washing with soap water
D. Carbolic acid spraying
| Formaldehyde fumigation |
0d3f983f-97ad-4fdf-b2bc-0c831a04f7c0 | (C) Perforated peptic ulcer # Clinical features Perforated peptic ulcer:> The classic presentation is instantly recognizable. The patient, who may have a history of peptic ulceration, develops sudden- onset, severe, generalized abdominal pain as a result of the irritant effect of gastric acid on the peritoneum.> Although the contents of an acid-producing stomach are relatively in bacterial load, bacterial peritonitis supervenes over a few hours, usually accompanied by a deterioration in the patient's condition.> Initially, the patient may be shocked with a tachycardia but a pyrexia is not usually observed until some hours after the event.> The abdomen exhibits a board-like rigidity and the patient is disinclined to move because of the pain.> The abdomen does not move with respiration.> Patients with this form of presentation need an operation, without which they will deteriorate with a septic peritonitis. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | After dinner, woman develops sudden-onset9 severe, generalized abdominal pain, and accompanied by deterioration in patient's condition. The abdomen exhibits a board-like rigidity and the patient is disinclined to move because of the pain. The classical presentation is due to
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Perforated peptic ulcer
D. Acute pancreatitis
| Perforated peptic ulcer |
303f3432-bede-4ba9-b14b-e2b733a882d4 | Streptomycin is a bactericidal antibiotic, the first of a class of drugs called aminoglycosides to be discovered, and was the first antibiotic remedy for tuberculosis. It is derived from the actinobacterium Streptomyces griseus. Streptomycin cannot be given orally, but must be administered by regular intramuscular injections. An adverse effect of this medicine is ototoxicity, it is highly contraindicated in pregnancy because of ototoxicity in fetus. Ref: Richard Finkel, Michelle Alexia Clark, Pamela C. Champe, Luigi X. Cubeddu (2009), Chapter 34, "Antimycrobials", In the book, "Pharmacology", 4th Edition, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins Publications, United States, Page 404 ; KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 681 | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin
| Streptomycin |
2a819607-91b6-4dfe-9baf-27d0de8db530 | The severe form of Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in a single allele of the fibrillin gene (FBN1). The gene product is a major component of elastin-associated microfibrils. Long, thin extremities; ectopia lentis; and aortic aneurysms are the classical triad. Milder forms of the disease probably also occur but are hard to classify. Mutations in the FBN2 gene can also cause Marfan syndrome, but without aneurysms. | Medicine | Endocrinology | A 22-year-old man has features of arm span greater than height, subluxed lenses, flattened corneas, and dilation of the aortic ring. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Werner's syndrome
D. Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome
| Marfan syndrome |
81f63760-def3-49aa-9e16-a853eeb7a8cf | Bacillus Anthrax causes malignant pustule which later becomes vesicule containing fluid, this is also known as cutaneous Anthrax or Hide poer's disease since it is common in dockworkers containing load of hides and skin on their back surface. | Microbiology | NEET 2019 | A person working in an abattoir presented with malignant pustule on hand; What is the causative agent?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. ostridium perfringens
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
| Bacillus anthracis |
c8eac899-6579-4ee0-9d95-7f2426bbbeea | Veebral levels5th rib, 5th intercostal space, T9 veebra: Right and left dome of diaphragm at max expirationC3 veebra: Hyoid boneC6 veebra: Inferior border of cricoid cailage, division of larynx and tracheaC6 veebra: Inferior cricoid cailage, division of larynx and tracheaC6-T1 veebra: Thyroid glandC7 veebra: Veebra prominensC7 veebra: Superior limit of rhomboid minorveebra: Superior mesenteric aeryLl-L2 veebra: Left crus of diaphragmLl-L3 veebra: Right crus of diaphragmL3 to L4 veebra: UmbilicusL3 veebra: Inferior mesenteric aery and lower border of 10th ribL3 veebra: Right kidney present but not leftL4 veebra: Bifurcation of abdominal aoaL4 veebra: Tubercle of iliac crest and bifurcation of abdominal aoaL4 veebra: Tubercle of iliac crestL5 veebra: Convergence of common iliac veinsS2 veebra: PSISS4 veebra: Natal cleftT1 veebra: Sternoclavicular jointT2 veebra: Superior angle of the scapulaT3 veebra: Base of spine of scapulaT4-T5 interveebral disc: Sternal angleT6-Interveebral disc: Bifurcation of tracheaT5 veebra: Inferior border of rhomboid majorT5-T9 veebra: Sternum properT8 veebra: Caval hiatus of diaphragmT9 veebra: Xiphosternal jointT10 veebra: Esophogeal hiatus of diaphragmT12 veebra: Celiac trunkT12 veebra: Superior border of kidneysT12 veebra: Aoic hiatus of diaphragm | Anatomy | null | Lower limit of left crus of diaphragm is at which veebral level:
A. 8th dorsal
B. 10th dorsal
C. 2nd lumbar
D. 3rd lumbar
| 2nd lumbar |
f2a63e55-1cb0-4587-9e63-24e9f3e85319 | Radiological features of scurvy: Palkan spur : metaphyseal spurs projecting at right angles to the shaft. White line of Frankel : calcified cailage in the metaphysis Trumefeld zone : zone of rarefraction below the white line of Frankel Wimburger sign : ring surrounding the ephiphyseal centres of ossification Pencil thin coex Subperiosteal hemorrhages Generalised osteoporosis | Radiology | Skeletal system | Wimberger sign is seen in
A. Lead poisoning
B. Scurvy
C. Osteomalacia
D. Bone infarct
| Scurvy |
5caccbeb-b27c-42db-8f2e-3dd02fc09016 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., E. coli Pyelonephritis in pregnancyo There is increased chance of urinary tract infection in females as compared to males.o The overall incidence of pyelonephritis in pregnancy is between 1% and 3%.o It is more common in primigravidae than multiparae. Previous history of urinary tract infection increases the chance by 50%. Presence of asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the chance by 25%. Abnormality in the renal tract is found in about 25%.o Physiologic changes responsible for acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy are: (1) low ureteral peristalsis due to high progesterone levels. (2) Dextrorotation of gravid uterus causing compression of right ureter. Pyelonephritis occurs more on the right side (70-80%) compared the left (10-15%).o Predisposing /actors-Dilatation of the ureters and renal pelvis and stasis of the urine in the bladder and ureters are the normal physiological changes during pregnancy.o The organisms responsible are E. coli (70%), Klebsiella pneumoniae (10%), Enterobacter, Proteus, Pseudomonas and Staphylococcus aureus group. About 10% of women develop bacteremia following acute pyelonephritis. 70- 80% of pyelonephritis occur on the right side, 10-15% on the left side and only few are bilateral. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Renal and Urinary Tract Disorders | Most common cause of pyelonephritis in pregnancy is -
A. E.coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Gardnella vaginalis
D. B. fragilis
| E.coli |
11ae1018-e1f9-44ea-8f50-17d74c044078 | Ans. is 'c' i.e.,HMP shunt HMP shunt does not produce energy.HMP shunt is paicularly impoant for two purposes :-Synthesis of ribose for nucleotide and nucleic acid formation.Formation of NADPH which plays impoant role in several other biological processes, e.g. synthesis of fatty acids, cholesterol, steroid hormones and neurotransmitters. | Biochemistry | null | Least energy producing cycle
A. Glycolysis
B. Kreb's cycle
C. HMP shunt
D. Fatty acid oxidation
| HMP shunt |
9ba91ccf-cca2-4c94-9aa2-2b95d98c8655 | Aschoff bodies are pathognomonic of Rheumatic heart disease. | Pathology | null | Aschoff bodies are seen in
A. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Infective endocarditis
| Rheumatic heart disease |
3239a1e4-589f-4335-aadf-48de10828dfc | Ans. is 'd' i.e. 5-6 mg/kg o Aminophylline is a preparation of theophylline, where theophylline is complexed with EDTA. o The i.v. injection must be slow (loading dose of 5 mg/kg over 20 min followed by an infusion of 9 mg/kg/h, adjusted according to subsequent plasma theophylline concentrations). | Pharmacology | null | The loading dose of Aminophylline is-
A. 50-75 mg/kg
B. 0.5-1.0 mg/kg
C. 2.0-3.5 mg/kg
D. 5-6 mg/kg
| 5-6 mg/kg |
0f78f03f-37cc-4b8f-8288-f6176296f41a | Young females have dense brest tissue,thus sensitivity of mammo is low. | Radiology | null | Sensitivity of mammography is low in young females because
A. Young breast have dense tissue
B. Young breast have more fat
C. has less fat
D. less glandular tissue
| Young breast have dense tissue |
94c6eb6a-be54-40f5-b30f-31bf9d401148 | A variety of familial forms of amyloidosis have been described; most are rare and occur in limited geographic areas. The best-characterized is an autosomal recessive condition called familial Mediterranean fever. This is a febrile disorder characterized by attacks of fever accompanied by inflammation of serosal surfaces, including peritoneum, pleura, and synol membrane. This disorder is encountered largely in persons of Armenian, Sephardic Jewish, and Arabic origins. It is associated with widespread tissue involvement indistinguishable from reactive systemic amyloidosis. The amyloid fibril proteins are made up of AA proteins, suggesting that this form of amyloidosis is related to the recurrent bouts of inflammation that characterize this disease. The gene for familial Mediterranean fever is called pyrin and encodes a protein that is a component of the inflammasome (Chapter 2). Patients have gain-of-function mutations in pyrin that result in constitutive overproduction of the proinflammatory cytokine IL-1 and persistent inflammation Robbins 9 th edition page no. 155 | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following is (are) Heredofamilial amyloidosis -
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Familial mediterranean fever
D. RA
| Familial mediterranean fever |
0b17636f-1998-4339-bf01-f435f48e26be | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gabapentin Antiepileptics interfering with folic acid metabolism. 1. Phenytoin 2. Phenobarbitone 3. Primidone | Pharmacology | null | Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism?
A. Phenytoin
B. Gabapentin
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Primidone
| Gabapentin |
4db7b2d5-17be-45fa-aef1-1af0f612682b | The stepwise approach to the management of asthma Step 1: Occasional use of inhaled sho-acting b2-adrenoreceptor agonist bronchodilators A variety of different inhaled devices are available and the choice of device should be guided by patient preference and competence its use. The metered-dose inhaler remains the most widely prescribed . For patients with mild intermittent asthma (symptoms less than once a week for 3 months and fewer than two nocturnal episodes per month), it is usually sufficient to prescribe an inhaled sho-acting b2-agonist, such as salbutamol or terbutaline, to be used as required. However, many patients (and their physicians) under-estimate the severity of asthma. A history of a severe exacerbation should lead to a step-up in treatment. (BUD), fluticasone, mometasone or ciclesonide) should be staed in addition to inhaled b2-agonists taken on an as-required basis for any patient who: * has experienced an exacerbation of asthma in the last 2 years * uses inhaled b2-agonists three times a week or more * repos symptoms three times a week or more * is awakened by asthma one night per week. For adults, a reasonable staing dose is 400 ug beclometasone dipropionate (BDP) or equivalent per day in adults, although higher doses may be required in smokers. Alternative but much less effective preventive agents include chromones, leukotriene receptor antagonists and theophyllines. The preferred asthma medications are sho-acting beta-2 agonists such asalbuterol. Taken 10 minutes before exercise, thesemedicationscan prevent the airways from contracting and help control exercise-induced asthma. Having good control of asthma in general will also help prevent exercise-induced symptoms Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 571 | Medicine | Respiratory system | Best treatment for exercise induced asthma is
A. Montelukast
B. Salbutamol
C. Ipratopium
D. Low dose inhaled steroids
| Salbutamol |
32196140-4d01-484e-ad66-46275bdea9e0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., VDRL for mother and Baby Bullous lesion and periostitis suggest the diagnosis of congenital syphilis. o The only option related to syphilis is option 'a'. o Following evaluations are recommended : - 1. Physical examiation 2. A quantitative nontreponemal test for syphilis (VDRL). 3. CSF for cell count, protein & VDRL. 4. Long bone radiograph 5. Antitreponemal IgM. | Pediatrics | null | Premature baby of 34 wks was delivered. Baby developed bullous lesion on the skin and X-ray shows periostitis. What should be the fleet investigation ?
A. VDRL for mother & baby
B. ELISA for HIV
C. PCR for TB
D. Hepatitis surface antigen for mother
| VDRL for mother & baby |
19033308-685c-4c0b-b32c-8c7cec028e39 | There is universal agreement on the need for regular Pap smears in young women. There is no need to screen for colon cancer (fecal occult blood) or lung tumors (CXR), particularly at this age. Mammography, if indicated for screening, would be only for older women. Many authorities recommend breast self-examination as well as physical examination by a physician. | Medicine | Oncology | A 25-year-old woman has recently moved to a new city. She comes today for her first routine visit and annual physical assessment. She feels well, reports no new symptoms, and her past medical history is negative. Her only medication is the oral contraceptive pill; she is currently in university and drinks on a social basis. She reports smoking in her teens but quit 7 years ago. The physical examination is completely normal. She asks you about screening tests for cancer at her age. Which of the following cancer screening tests are recommended for her age group?
A. mammography every 5 years
B. Pap smear at least every 3 years
C. stool for occult blood
D. chest x-ray (CXR) every 3 years
| Pap smear at least every 3 years |
d5b40b17-2978-492e-a5ec-067ad06cbf6a | d. Mid arm circumferenceA measuring tape with cm markings (from 6to26cm) with 3 colored zones (red, yellow & green) is a Shakir's tape. | Pediatrics | Growth, Development, and Behavior | What is this instrument used to measure?
A. Body mass index
B. Skin fold thickness
C. Upper segment: lower segment ratio
D. Mid arm circumference
| Mid arm circumference |
59537765-d880-4eb3-888a-fc3b14f71e35 | Spectroscopic test is the most specific for blood stains. Tests for blood stains Spectroscopy tests can give information about what chemical compounds and elements are present in a sample, whether ceain types of degradation have occurred in a sample, the amount and type of crystallinity present in the sample, to name a few uses. Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e | Physiology | All India exam | Most specific test to detect blood stains is
A. Benzidine test
B. Teichmann's test
C. Ohotoluidine test
D. Spectroscopic test
| Spectroscopic test |
b4b0c583-c221-45bb-ab4e-0906f9cf64a6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sodium balance * One of the most important metabolic (non-respiratory) function of lungs is activation of relatively physiologically in active decapeptide angiotensin I to 50 times more potent (active) vasoconstrictor, pressor (|BP), aldosterone stimulating octapeptid angiotensin II by extracellular ACE on the surface of endothelial cells in pulmonary circulation.* Asa part of renin-angiotensin-aldesterone system, lungs indirectly regulate sodium and water balance (and BP). However, lungs also directly affect Na+ balance via epithelial Na+ channels (E NaCs). Absorption of excess fluid from alveolar lumen and airways require active transepithelial transport of Na+ by ENaCs (mainly of alveolar type II and possibly type I cells). | Physiology | Respiratory System | Non-respiratory function of lungs -
A. Anion balance
B. Sodium balance
C. Potassium balance
D. Calcium balance
| Sodium balance |
dc8b27e2-464e-4fdc-81dc-702153391c4e | Pre renal Renal (ATN) Post renal Urine osmolality > 500 mOsm ~ 300 mOsm <400 mOsm Urine sodium <20 mmol/dl >20 mmol/dl Variable FeNa <1 >1 Variable Urine microscopic findings Hyaline casts Muddy brown casts Normal or RBC/WBC BUN: creatinine ratio >20:1 (normal 10:1) <20:1 >20:1 | Medicine | Nephrology | Investigations in a patient of oliguria revealed: Urine osmolality: 800 mOsm/kg. Urinary sodium 10 mmol/L.BUN: creatinine=20:1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pre-renal acute renal failure
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Acute coical necrosis
D. Urinary tract obstruction
| Pre-renal acute renal failure |
1539915c-ac0e-41fc-9e89-e4ad475ae562 | CRIMINAL NEGLIGENCE: The question of criminal negligence may arise: 1) When a doctor shows gross absence of skill or care during treatment resulting in serious injury or death of the patient. 2) When a doctor performs an illegal act. 3) When an assaulant person dies, the defence may attribute the death to the negligence in the treatment of the decreased by the doctor. PROSECUTION: Criminal negligence is more serious than the civil. section 304-A, I.P.C. deals with criminal negligence. Whoever causes the death of any person, by doing any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide, shall be punished with imprisonment up to 2 years, or with fine or with both. REF: Dr K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 29th edition pg. 23. | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | Criminal negligence is punishable under section 304 A for a maximum of -
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
| 2 years |
29326b17-b6fe-4d86-89d7-c48e1214b465 | Ans: b (Ethylene glycol)Ref: Harrison, 17 ed. pg. 291, Davidson 21 ed. pg.Ethylene glycol poisoning (Antifreeze)Ethylene glycol is metabolized into glycoaldehyde, glycolic acid, glycoxylic acid, oxalic acid causing metabolic acidosis; oxalate causes renal damage due to calcium oxalate crystals in urine.C/F: Ophthalmpoplegia, cranial nerve palsies, myoclonus, hyporeflexia renal failureManagement* Assay not widely available* Diagnosed by the presence of high anion gap, osmolal gap> 10 mOsm and presence of oxalate crystals in urine* Antidote - Oral ethanol, Fomipazole -Inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase* Hemodialysis in severe cases* Hypocalcaemia treated only if severe ECG changes/ seizures present | Medicine | Kidney | Oxalate crystals in urine is seen in poisoning with
A. Methanol
B. Ethylene glycol
C. Potassium dichromate
D. Methylene blue
| Ethylene glycol |
2ebacaa3-0051-4149-8342-44962e3591ac | Chief cells are more abundant in the fundus of the stomach. Cardiac poion of stomach is rich in mucus secreting glands and have few parietal or chief cells. Body of stomach is rich in parietal and mucous cells and pyloric pa of stomach is rich in enteroendocrine cells. Ref: Modern Nutrition In Health and Disease By Maurice Edward Shils, 10th Edition, Page 1117 | Anatomy | null | Chief cells are most abundant in which pa of the stomach?
A. Fundus
B. Body
C. Antrum
D. Pylorus
| Fundus |
95c60fe4-9809-4d32-9194-e3e797fc4a02 | Ans. is `d' i.e., Electrophoresis Bence Jones proteins are seen in multiple myeloma. Urinary protein electrophoresis will exhibit a discrete protein peak. In myeloma plasma cells produce immuno-globulin of a single heavy and light chain, a monoclonal protein commonly referred to as a paraprotein. Heat test is false negative in 50% of patients with light chain myeloma. Dipstick detects albumin and not paraproteins. | Medicine | null | Bence jones proteinuria is best detected by
A. Dipstick method
B. Sulfosalicylic acid
C. Heat test
D. Electrophoresis
| Electrophoresis |
d91d6b83-6d43-4242-b64c-b876933c2bc6 | Huntington disease (HD) Mutation in the HTT gene which codes for protein called huntingtin which is impoant to neurons. The HTT mutation involves a DNA segment known as a CAG trinucleotide repeat. Made up of a series of three DNA building blocks (cytosine, adenine, and guanine) that appear multiple times in a row leading to the disease. | Pathology | Genetics | In Huntington chorea the causative mutation in the protein huntingtin is a:
A. Point mutation
B. Gene deletion
C. Frameshift mutation
D. Trinucleotide repeat expansion
| Trinucleotide repeat expansion |
8aa7942a-ad13-4276-a791-cb0ed11e1fb6 | Assault: An offer of threat or attempt to apply force to the body of another in a hostile manner (Sec. 351 IPC).1 It does not matter whether it injures him physically or not. Shaking of head or showing of a fist at a person in a hostile manner will constitute an assault. Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg : 210 | Forensic Medicine | Medical Jurisprudence | Person had a fight with a neighour where he assaulted him, he can be booked under
A. 44 IPC
B. 319 IPC
C. 320 IPC
D. 351 IPC
| 351 IPC |
34f097ac-49e7-4c33-a87d-324bc0c4e1a6 | ANSWER: (C) Gray matter of the spinal cordREF: Neurobiology: molecules, cells, and systems By Gary G. Matthew, Page 176-177 "Renshaw cells of grey matter of spinal cord produces self-inhibition of motor neurons.The axons of motor neurons send branches that make excitatory synaptic connection onto Renshaw cells. The Renshaw cells in turn make inhibitory synaptic connections back onto the same motor neuron" | Physiology | Nerve Physiology | Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in?
A. Gray matter of brain
B. White matter of brain
C. Gray matter of the spinal cord
D. White matter of spinal cord
| Gray matter of the spinal cord |
723d8365-4b7d-4910-90d1-04096132bbbe | Flocculonodular lobe has direct connections with vestibular nuclei and it is concerned with balance, equilibrium and eyeball movements Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 248 | Physiology | Nervous system | Flocculonodular lobe has direct connections with
A. Red nucleus
B. Inferior olivary nucleus
C. Vestibular nucleus
D. Dentate nucleus
| Vestibular nucleus |
b02f53ea-b5c0-489b-bc31-b3a35d341b3c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 16, 18 o HPV type 6 & 11 are known to be associated with warts.o HPV type 16, 18, 31 & 33 are associated with cervical carcinoma & CIN. Out of wrhich 16 & 18 are most oncogenic. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Aetiological factors | Cervical carcinoma is due to HPV -
A. 6,8
B. 16,18
C. 30, 32
D. 15, 17
| 16,18 |
30908661-30a7-4f55-a1e2-29d52d2d17db | Ans. c. Redistribution of the drug from sites in the CNSAn IV anesthetic completely bypasses the process of absorption, because the drug is placed directly into the bloodstream. Highly perfused organs (vessel rich) including the brain take up disproportionately large amount of drug compared to less perfused areas (the muscle, fat, and vessel-poor groups).Drugs bound to plasma proteins are unavailable for uptake by an organ.After the highly perfused organs are saturated during initial distribution, the greater mass of the less perfused organs continue to take up drug from the bloodstream.As plasma concentration falls, some drug leaves the highly perfused organs to maintain equilibrium.This redistribution from the vessel-rich group is responsible for termination of effect of many anesthetic drugs. | Anaesthesia | General Anesthesia | Which of the following determines the speed of recovery from IV anesthetic?
A. Liver metabolism of drug
B. Protein binding of drug
C. Redistribution of the drug from sites in the CNS
D. Plasma clearance of the drug
| Redistribution of the drug from sites in the CNS |
e44d09a3-c6d9-42fc-8eba-2324da10d78a | Hb-O2 dissociation curve shift to left indicates more affinity of Hb to O2 and thus less delivery of O2 to tissues.
Hb-O2 dissociation curve shift to right indicates less affinity of Hb to O2, and thus more delivery of O2 to tissues.
When P50 increases, the affinity of Hb to O2 decreases, or there is a shift of the curve to the right.
Among the given options, the only decrease in pH causes a right shift of the curve. All others when decreased cause shifts to left. | Physiology | null | Increase in P50 results in change in oxygenation curve, which is due to decrease in
A. pH
B. Oxygen
C. Temperature
D. CO2
| pH |
ff7f804d-cfab-4737-9e7b-87d6c73eadd5 | Platelets are stored at 20 – 24 degree Celsius with agitation. They can only be stored for 5 days.
Whole blood and packed red cells are stored at 2 – 6 degree Celsius for 35 days.
The anticoagulants which are used for their storage are either CPD (Citrate, Phosphate, Dextrose) or CPDA (Citrate, Phosphate, Dextrose, Adenine).
Fresh frozen plasma is stored at –18 degree Celsius for 1 year. | Pathology | null | Platelets are stored at
A. 5°C for 1 month
B. 20-24°C for 5 days
C. -4°C for 3 months
D. 20-24°C for 3 days
| 20-24°C for 5 days |
46cf1710-951b-460d-a4d8-4d83cc50abd1 | Refer above table Treatment of operable NSCCL Stage IA, IB, IIA, IIB : Surgical resection Adjuvant chemotherapy is given in stage II Stage IIIA with minimal N2 involvement : Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection with complete Mediastinal LN dissection Postoperative radiotherapy for patients found to have N2 disease Ref : Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1591 | Surgery | Urology | A 60 year old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. On CECT chest there was tumour of 5 x 5 cm in upper lobe and another 2 x 2 cm size tumour nodule in middle lobe. The primary modality of treatment is
A. Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Surgery
D. Suppoive treatment
| Surgery |
153845fe-fbc7-467a-93c4-c31cd81b87d2 | Ans. (a) Pemphigus vulgarisHarrison 19th ed. / 370* The rounded keratinocytes with hyperchromatic nuclei and perinuclear halo (due to condensing of cytoplasm in periphery) are called acantholytic cells.* It is seen in case of pemphigus vulgaris* Acantholytic cells can be demonstrated in bed side Tzanck test. | Skin | General | Acantholytic cells are seen in
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Cicatricial pemphigoid
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
| Pemphigus vulgaris |
a5233bd6-8c85-475d-94b0-abc7a36a3f27 | The impoance of protection afforded by acute inflammatory cells is emphasized by the frequency and severity of infections in persons with defective phagocytic cells. The most common defect is iatrogenic neutropenia secondary to cancer chemotherapy. Chemotherapy would not be expected to deplete serum levels of complement or alter the respiratory burst within activated neutrophils . | Pathology | Basic Concepts and Vascular changes of Acute Inflammation | A 50-year-old woman is discovered to have metastatic breast cancer. One week after receiving her first dose of chemotherapy, she develops bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following best explains this patient's susceptibility to bacterial infection?
A. Depletion of serum complement
B. Impaired neutrophil respiratory burst
C. Inhibition of clotting factor activation
D. Neutropenia
| Neutropenia |
c856ee62-e8e1-40eb-b646-e1988382dc9e | Streptococcal and Actinomyces species are initial colonizers of dental plaque. They are grampositive, facultative micro-organisms. | Dental | null | What are the characteristics of the primary (initial) bacterial colonizers of the tooth in dental plaque formation?
A. Gram-negative facultative
B. Gram-positive facultative
C. Gram-negative anaerobic
D. Gram-positive anaerobic
| Gram-positive facultative |
f37d78a8-434a-4646-8cad-5f91edc1c4bb | Ans is 'b' i.e. Compulsive eating of hair o Trichophagia is compulsive eating of hair and is usually associated with trichotillomania i.e. compulsive pulling of hair.o Compulsive shopping is called Oniomania.o Compulsive stealing is called Kleptomania.Also knowo Pyromania i.e. pathological fire setting | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | Trichophagia is characterized by -
A. Compulsive pulling of hair
B. Compulsive eating of hair
C. Compulsive shopping
D. Compulsive stealing
| Compulsive eating of hair |
90890345-4d51-4ee0-8cd5-38647c147da7 | D i.e. Depressive disorder: - Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) is USFDA approved for treatment of resistant depressionQ and has been shown to have efficacy. Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS) has also recently been approved for treatment of resistant depressionQ, but its degree of efficacy is controversial. Deep brain stimulation (DBS) is being used experimentally in treatment resistant cases. - ECT is at least as effective as medication, but its ue is reserved for treatment of resistant cases and delusional depressionQ. | Psychiatry | null | Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) which is approved by USFDA for the treatment of:
A. Resistant schizophrenia
B. Obsessive compulsive disorder
C. Acute psychosis
D. Depressive disorder
| Depressive disorder |
58d0c900-8bfc-4652-8a46-ee40ced34d27 | Maternal moality ratio is the number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 live bihs. This is a ratio and not a rate because the numerator may include cases which are not included in the denominator. This ratio reflects the level of obstetric risk associated with pregnancy TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS.,SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN,pg no:594,2nd edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | MMR is expressed in :
A. Per 1000 live bih
B. Per 10000 live bih
C. Per 1 lakh live bih
D. Per 10 lakh live bih
| Per 1 lakh live bih |
5995b0bf-e454-4917-ba81-2053a4a26cc4 | Ans. B i.e. Thelarche Thelarche is the onset of secondary (postnatal) breast development, usually occurring at the beginning of pubey in girls. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Appearance of Breast bud is known as: March 2013
A. Menarche
B. Thelarche
C. Pubarche
D. Anarche
| Thelarche |
3831c897-090e-48df-b5cb-fb5fde4010e8 | Uterine inversion presents after excessive traction on cord for pulling out the placenta, which leads to paial or complete inversion of uterus. It is usually associated with PPH and may result in shock (hemorrhagic and neurogenic. However more common cause of moality is hemorrhagic) if treatment is delayed. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Labour - III | A patient presents in emergency in shock, with a history off fleshy mass protruding from vagina with heavy bleeding PV. She had history of delivery at home 1 hour back by a health worker with a history of difficulty in placental removal and 'Uterine handling'. Most probable diagnosis is?
A. Atonic PPH
B. Uterine inversion
C. Fibroid polyp
D. Cervical tear
| Uterine inversion |
33887d76-cfe3-498f-a8bc-0e5f65f4abaa | Plasma volume = Total blood volume * (1 - Hematocrit) The total blood volume is about 8% of body weight Blood volume of 60 kg man = 0.08 * 60 = 4.8 L Plasma volume = total blood volume * (1-hematocrit) = 4.8 * (1-0.40) = 4.8 * 0.60 = 2.88 L Also, about 60% of the blood is plasma and 40% is RBCs Thus, plasma = 5% of body weight and haematocrit is 3% of body weight | Physiology | Body fluid compaments | A 60 kg man has haematocrit of 40%. His plasma volume would be approximately:
A. 2.4 L
B. 2.9 L
C. 3.6 L
D. 5.0 L
| 2.9 L |
cbb4c34d-a9db-42a3-8db3-8a9405117256 | C. (post strep. GN). This patient is suffering from post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (C), which forms pa of the nephritic syndrome consisting of haematuria (micro- or macroscopic), hypeension, proteinuria and oedema. In severe cases, oliguria and uraemia can also occur. Patients usually suffer form a streptococcal infection 1-3 weeks prior to presenting with the above symptoms or signs of the nephritic syndrome. During this time, immune complexes are formed and deposited in the glomeruli causing damage. The nephrotic syndrome (A) involves albuminuria usually in the order of 3.5 g/d in adults causing oedema and is also associated with hyperlipidaemia (increased LDL/HDL ratio). Nephritic syndrome (B) involves haematuria (micro- or macroscopic) alongside hypeension and proteinuria. A Von Grawitz tumour (option D), otherwise known as renal cell cancer, typically occur in males (2:1 male to female ratio) originating from the proximal tabular epithelium. The average age of presentation is 50 years with symptoms including pain, haematuria and usually a mass in the flank alongside other symptoms of malignancy such as weight loss. | Surgery | null | A 17-year-old patient is referred by his GP after presenting with periorbital oedema. The patient noticed the oedematous eyes 3 days ago, but repos feeling unwell since a throat infection 3 weeks ago with nausea and vomiting in the last week. A urine dipstick is positive for protein and blood while serum creatinine and urea are mildly deranged. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Nephritic syndrome
C. Post streptococcal GN
D. Von Grawitz tumour
| Post streptococcal GN |
dca0925a-bc24-4ace-abfd-48666fcbb607 | The descending colon is a retroperitoneal organ. The rest of the organs are surrounded by peritoneum. Other retroperitoneal organs are: - Pancreas, Duodenum, Ascending colon, Descending colon, Middle third of the rectum | Anatomy | Abdominal wall ,Inguinal and Femoral region | A 45 year old male presents to OPD with acute abdominal pain. On examination it seems to have spread to retroperitoneal structure. Which of the following is most likely to get affected
A. Stomach
B. Transverse colon
C. Jejunum
D. Descending colon
| Descending colon |
04c9d3ec-718e-4d4b-8504-9c19e065f0f3 | . biochemical test gives the same reading of early sample on reputed testing, it is inferred that the measurement is-precise. ref:park&;s textbook ,22 nd edition,pg no 22 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Screening | If biochemical test gives the same reading of early sample on reputed testing, it is inferred that the measurement is-
A. Precise
B. Accurate
C. Specific
D. Sensitive
| Precise |
3bd16bdf-b7ea-460e-ae85-f8bf61e816c1 | All NSAIDs, including selective COX-2 inhibitors, are antipyretic, analgesic, and anti-inflammatory, with the exception of acetaminophen, which is antipyretic and analgesic but is largely devoid of anti-inflammatory activity. Ref: Grosser T., Smyth E. (2011). Chapter 34. Anti-inflammatory, Antipyretic, and Analgesic Agents; Pharmacotherapy of Gout. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following NSAID does not having antiinflammatory activity?
A. Ketorolac
B. Diclofenac
C. Mefenamic acid
D. Acetaminophen
| Acetaminophen |
05a13819-0d45-443f-9829-cf990a68fd3d | Ans. is A D-cell (Ref Ganong, 20/e, p. 339). Delta cells secrete - somatostatin* Beta cells secrete - insulin* Alpha cells of pancreas - glucagon* | Medicine | Miscellaneous (Endocrinology) | Somatostatin is secreted by :
A. D-cell
B. A-cell
C. B-cell
D. Dl-cell
| D-cell |
64d7d805-c369-422b-af10-548cda6a1692 | Because reduced Hb is purple, a low aerial O2 saturation causes cyanosis. However, this is not a reliable sign of mild desaturation because its recognition depends on so many variables, such as lighting conditions and skin pigmentation. Because it is the amount of reduced Hb that is impoant, cyanosis is often marked when polycythemia is present but is difficult to detect in anemic patients. | Physiology | Respiratory system | Cyanosis does not occur in severe anemia because
A. Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin secretion
B. Oxygen carrying capacity of available Hb is increased
C. Critical concentration of Hb required to produce cyanosis is reduced
D. Oxygen Dissociation Curve shifts to right
| Critical concentration of Hb required to produce cyanosis is reduced |
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