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63659eca-ea73-413a-956a-99c48a869609 | Ans. D: Azithromycin Because of higher efficacy, better gastric tolerance and convenient once a day dosing, azithromycin is now preferred over erythromycin as first choice drug for infections such as: Legionnaires' pneumonia Chlamydia trachomatis Donovanosis caused by calymmatobacterium granulomatis Chancroid and PPNg urethritis. | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for chylamydial trachomatis is: March 2007
A. Penicilin
B. Erythromycin
C. Vancomycin
D. Azithromycin
| Azithromycin |
9d35d78d-7550-4efd-ab3e-2917a4f5fae9 | This is most probably postoperative myalgia associated with succinyl choline. Myalgia: Postoperative skeletal muscle pain, which is paicularly prominent in the skeletal muscles of the neck, side and abdomen can occur. Most possible cause unsynchronized contraction of skeletal muscle (fasciculation). | Anaesthesia | Neuromuscular Blocker | A boy undergoes eye surgery under day care anesthesia with succinyl choline and propofol and after 8 hours he stas walking and develops muscle pain. What is the cause?
A. Early mobilization
B. Due to the effects of eye surgery
C. Succinyl choline
D. Propofol
| Succinyl choline |
8387a8ee-efb8-44ba-af76-cbfed3233691 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., E. floccosum T. pedis is caused by E. floccosum and T. rubrum. | Microbiology | null | Tinea pedis is caused by which of the following ?
A. E. floccosum
B. M.furfur
C. M.canis
D. E.werneckii
| E. floccosum |
ea14bf4a-aa91-49e3-9dba-3103b94583e1 | the anemic type, in which the amount of functional hemoglobin is too small, and hence the capacity of the blood to carry oxygen is too low Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 353,354,355 | Physiology | Respiratory system | Aerial O2 content is reduced in one of the following
A. Stagnant hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Ischemic hypoxia
| Anemic hypoxia |
dc35ce8f-4581-4c57-ad35-3eaf949618f6 | Otolith organs: Utricle and saccule are the otolith organs. Their Sensory epithelium is called maculae.
They are concerned with linear acceleration-deceleration. They sense the position of the head with respect to gravity. Otoliths: They are crystals of calcium carbonate located on the otolithic membrane present in the maculae. Also called the otoconia. | ENT | null | Otolith organs are concerned with the function of?
A. Oculovestibular reflex
B. Rotary nystagmus
C. Linear acceleration
D. Angular acceleration
| Linear acceleration |
f62de10a-2874-4e17-a616-ea94be87cd30 | Cavitation occurs only in secondary tuberculosis. Both primary and secondary tuberculosis are characterized bycaseating granulomas, often with Langhans giant cells, which heal by scarring and calcification. The skin test result for tuberculin sensitivity is positive in both forms. | Pathology | NEET Jan 2020 | A 11-year-old boy came with history of cough for 15 days. On examination he was found to have cervical lymphadenopathy. The lymph node biopsy is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Leprosy
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Syphilis
| Tuberculosis |
5a49df35-f138-4dca-aa8a-87d2f4656a9e | Ref: Harrisons, 19th ed. pg. 1413* Ascaris lumbricoidesis the largest intestinal nematode parasite of humans, reaching up to 40cm in length.* Humans are definitive host of ascaris* Clinical disease arises from larval migration in the lungs or effects of the adult worms in the intestines.* Clinical Features:# Around, 9-12 days after egg ingestion, patients may develop an irritating non-productive cough and burning substernal discomfort that is aggravated by coughing or deep inspiration.# Eosinophilia develops during this symptomatic phase and subsides slowly over weeks.# Chest x-rays may reveal evidence of eosinophilic pneumonitis (Loffler's syndrome), with rounded infiltrates a few millimeters to several centimeters in size.* Treatment: Mebendazole (DOC) | Microbiology | Mycology | Definitive host of ascariasis
A. Dog
B. Man
C. Pig
D. Monkey
| Man |
a2b10a38-64ba-49b9-ade5-33cd060ba460 | a. Posterior urethral valve(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2562-2567, Ghai 8/e p 485-486)Voiding cystourethrogram in an infant with posterior urethral valves showing the dilation of the prostatic urethra and the transverse linear filling defect corresponding to the valves. | Pediatrics | Kidney | A male child presents with repeated urinary infections and failure to gain weight. A MCU was carried out as shown in plate, most probable diagnosis is?
A. Posterior urethral valve
B. Meatal stenosis
C. Bladder diverticula
D. Bladder polyp
| Posterior urethral valve |
85d92d7c-82ca-45a5-90d2-04fc7728e1ae | FADH2 enters ETC via Complex II (Succinate Q Reductase) and hence generates only 1.5 molecules of ATP. (NADH generates 2.5 ATPs) | Biochemistry | null | FADH2 enters ETC via which complex?
A. Complex I
B. Complex II
C. Complex III
D. Complex IV
| Complex II |
d596ddf9-97ce-407f-ba83-93b4804525a6 | Because silica is cytotoxic to alveolar macrophages,patients with silicosis are at greater risk of acquiring lung infections that involve these cells as a primary defense(Mycobacterium tuberculosis,atypical mycobacteria and fungi).Because of the increased risk of active tuberculosis,the recommended treatment of latent tuberculosis in these patients is longer.Another potential clinical complication of silicosis is autoimmune connective tissue disorders such as rheumatoid ahritis and scleroderma,as well as lung cancer. Reference:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:2125. | Medicine | Respiratory system | Which of the following ilineses increases the risk of developing tuberculosis ?
A. Anthracosis
B. Berylliosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Silicosis
| Silicosis |
d59acfff-80b8-4e25-adb1-33bac1705850 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ankylosing spondylitiso Back pain with syndesmatophytes in a middle aged man suggest the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.Ankylosing spondylitis (marie-strumpell disease)o Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic progressive inflammatory disease of the sacroiliac joints and the axial skeleton,o Prototype of seronegative (absence of rheumatoid factor) spondyloarthropathies,o Inflammatory disorder of unknown cause.o Usually begins in the second or third decade with a median age of 23, in 5% symptoms begin after 40.o Male to female ratio is 2-3 :1o Strong correlation with HLA-B27o 90-95% of cases are positive for HLA - B27.Joints involved in ankylosing spondylitiso Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects axial skeleton.o The disease usually begins in the sacro-iliac joints and usually extends upwards to involve the lumbar, thoracic, and often cervical spine.o In the worst cases the hips or shoulders are also affected. Hip joint is the most commonly affected peripheral joint,o Rarely knee (Ebenzar 4th/6 593) and ankle (Apley's 9th/e 67) are also involved. Pathologyo Enthesitis i.e. inflammation of the insertion points of tendons, ligaments or joint capsule on bone is one of the hallmarks of this entity of disease.o Primarily affects axial (spinal) skeleton and sacroiliitis is often the earliest manifestation of A.S..o Involvement of costovertebral joints frequently occur, leading to diminished chest expansion (normal > 5 cm)o Peripheral joints e.g. shoulders, and hips are also involved in l/3rd patients.o Extraarticular manifestations like acute anterior uveitis (in 5%); rarely aortic valve disease, carditis and pulmonary fibrosis also occur.o Pathological changes proceed in three stages-Inflammation with granulation tissue formation and erosion of adjacent bone.Fibrosis of granulation tissueOssification of the fibrous tissue, leading to ankylosis of the joint.Radiological features of ankylosing spondylitiso Radiographic evidence of sacroiliac joint is the most consistent finding in ankylosing spondylitis and is crucial for diagnosis. The findings areSclerosis of the articulating surfaces of SI jointsWidening of the sacroiliac joint spaceBony ankylosis of the sacroiliac jointsCalcification of the sacroiliac ligament and sacro-tuberous ligamentsEvidence of enthesopathy - calcification at the attachment of the muscles, tendons and ligaments, particularly around the pelvis and around the heel.o X-ray of lumbar spine may showSquaring of vertebrae : The normal anterior concavity of the vertebral body is lost because of calcification of the anterior longitudinal ligament.Loss of the lumbar lordosis.Bridging kosteophytes' (syndesmophytes)Bamboo spine appearance | Orthopaedics | Arthritis | In a middle aged male having back pain, syndesmophytes involving4 continous vertebrae are seen on Xray. The patient has -
A. DISH
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
| Ankylosing spondylitis |
3336084f-019a-4fa9-9e2a-c6746ec75131 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute drug dystonia o Persistent detion of neck (Toicollis) after one day of taking haloperidol is a feature of acture muscular dystonia (acute drug dystonia). Acute muscular dystonia o Bizarre muscle spasms mostly involving linguo-facial muscles --> grimacing, tongue thrusting, toicollis, locked jaw. o Occurs within a few hours of a single dose. o More common in children below 10 years and girls. o Treatment --> central anticholinergic | Pharmacology | null | Vasanthi 45 years, was brought to casualty with abnormal movements which included persistent detion of neck to right side one day before she was prescribed Haloperidol 5 mgs three times daily from the psychiatry OPD. She also had an altercation with her husband recently. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms-
A. Acute drug dystonia
B. Conversion reaction
C. Acute psychosis
D. Cerebrovascular accident
| Acute drug dystonia |
7e9f9526-1ed6-4e26-b6c7-8f7106d22895 | Total ATP formed (mol)/mol palmitate - 108
Total ATP used (mol)/mol palmitate – 2
Net ATP generated - 106 | Biochemistry | null | The oxidation of 1 mol of the C16 fatty acid, palmitate, generates how many ATP molecules?
A. 112
B. 108
C. 106
D. 120
| 106 |
815df1f0-1c76-4859-8f63-91ec8d48dba7 | Ans. is ,'b' i.e., Right atrium o Torus aorticus is a buldge in the right atrial septum sited superiorly and anteriorly,o It is produced due to adjacent nonocoronary aortic sinus at the base of ascending aorta,o It is superior to coronary sinus and anterior to fossa ovalis. | Anatomy | Cardiovascular System | Where is torus aorticus located -
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Aorta
D. Left ventricle
| Right atrium |
4160af86-e6d2-41a1-be50-8d4c46224aee | Ans. A: Copper In Wilson disease, main sites of copper accumulation are the liver and the brain, and consequently liver disease and neuropsychiatric symptoms are the main features that lead to diagnosis. Liver disease may present as tiredness, increased bleeding tendency or confusion (due to hepatic encephalopathy) and poal hypeension. On examination, signs of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi (small distended blood vessels, usually on the chest) may be observed. Chronic active hepatitis has caused cirrhosis of the liver in most patients by the time they develop symptoms. About 5% of all patients are diagnosed only when they develop fulminant acute liver failure, often in the context of a hemolytic anemia. About half the patients with Wilson's have neurological or psychiatric problems. Specific neurological symptoms then follow, often in the form of parkinsonism (increased rigidity and slowing of routine movements) with or without a typical hand tremor, masked facial expressions, slurred speech, ataxia (lack of coordination) or dystonia (twisting and repetitive movements of pa of the body). Various medical conditions have been linked with copper accumulation in Wilson's disease: Eyes: Kayser-Fleischer rings (KF rings) may be visible around the iris. They are due to copper deposition in Descemet's membrane of the cornea. They do not occur in all patients and may only be visible on slit lamp examination. Wilson's disease is also associated with sunflower cataracts, brown or green pigmentation of the anterior and posterior lens capsule. Kidneys: renal tubular acidosis, a disorder of bicarbonate handling by the PCT leads to nephrocalcinosis (calcium accumulation in the kidneys), weakening of the bone (due to calcium and phosphate loss) and occasionally aminoaciduria. Hea: cardiomyopathy and arrythmias Hormones: hypoparathyroidism, infeility and habitual aboion. | Pathology | null | Wilson disease is due to accumulation of: September 2005
A. Copper
B. Iron
C. Zinc
D. Nickel
| Copper |
ab84350a-e57a-4258-8392-046b9cd9e27a | Anterior interosseous aery pierces the interosseous membrane at the upper border of pronator quadratus to enter the extensor compament. Posterior interosseous aery passes through a gap above the interosseous membrane to the back of forearm . Anterior interosseous nerve is the branch of median nerve. Posterior interosseous nerve is the deep terminal branch of radial nerve. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 112,114 | Anatomy | Upper limb | Interosseous membrane between radius and ulna is pierced by which structure
A. Posterior interosseus nerve
B. Posterior interosseus aery
C. Anterior interosseus nerve
D. Anterior interosseus aery
| Anterior interosseus aery |
196cc10c-afff-4f6c-b629-efd574a1f473 | BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS A fishy vaginal odor, which is paicularly noticeable following coitus. Vaginal secretions are gray and thinly coat the vaginal walls. The pH of these secretions is higher than 4.5 (usually 4.7 to 5.7). Microscopy of the vaginal secretions reveals an increased number of clue cells, and leukocytes are conspicuously absent. Severe BV, more than 20% of the epithelial cells are clue cells The addition of KOH to the vaginal secretions (the "whiff" test) releases a fishy, amine like odor. Metronidazole is drug of choice: | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Genital Tract Infections (Too hot to handle!) | A 34-year-old woman presents with copious vaginal discharge with foul odour. Discharge is gray in color, microscopic examination reveals clue cells. The treatment of choice is:-
A. Azithromycin
B. Fluconazole
C. Metronidazole
D. Clotrimazole
| Metronidazole |
447d95e1-9b97-40fc-8df6-b78f7ab89c58 | In Brown sequard syndrome, a hemisection of the spinal cord results in
- Sensory
Loss of Ipsilateral dorsal column sensations- Proprioception, vibration, fine touch, Kinesthesia.
Loss of contralateral lateral column sensations- Pain, temperature
- Motor
Loss of ipsilateral corticospinal action- results in UMNL- Weakness, spasticity, Extensor plantar response. | Physiology | null | Modality that is lost on the ipsilateral side in Brown sequard syndrome is
A. Pain
B. Temperature
C. Crude touch
D. Proprioception
| Proprioception |
a8236df1-8f44-4e5d-9b95-aee705324ecf | S.angionosus produce small colonies which give off a distinct odour of butterscotch or caramel. | Microbiology | null | Streptococci with butterscotch or caramel odour is
A. S.pyogenes
B. S.agalactiae
C. S.pneumoniae
D. S.angionosus
| S.angionosus |
71be6751-48a8-4248-b379-75f57c2e2626 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bispinous Diameters of female pelvisInleto Antero-posterior diameter (true conjugate, anatomical conjugate, conjugate vera- 11cm)Distance between midpoint of sacral promontory to inner margin of upper border of symphysis pubis.o Obstetric conjugate (10 cm)Distance between midpoint of sacral promontory to the prominent bony projection in the midline on inner surface of symphysis pubis,o Diagonal conjugate (12 cm)Distance between the lower border of symphysis pubis to the midpoint of sacral promontory,o Transverse diameter (13 cm)Distance between the two farthest points on the pelvic brim over ilio-pectineal lines,o Oblique diameter (12 cm)Extending from sacro-iliac joint to opposite ilio-pubic eminence. There 2 of it- right & left,o Sacro-cotyloid (9.5 cm)Distance between the mid-point of sacral promontory to ilio-pubic eminence.Cavityo Antero-posterior (12 cm)Mid point on posterior surface of symphysis pubis to the junction of 2nd & 3rd sacra! vertebrae,o Transverse diameter (12 cm)Cant be measured correctly.Obstetrical outleto Transverse diameter (bispinous - 9.5 cm)Distance between tip of 2 ischial spines,o Antero-posteriordiameter(ll cm)Distance between Inferior border of symphysis pubis to the tip of sacrum,o Posterior sagittal diameter (5 cm)Distance between tip of the sacrum to the midpoint of bispinous diameter.Anatomical outleto Antero-posterior (13 cm)Distance between lowrer border of symphysis pubis to the tip of coccyx,o Transverse diameter (bispinous-11 cm)Distance between the inner borders of ischial tuberositieso Posterior sagittal diameter (8.5 cm)Distance between sacroccygeal joint and anterior margin of anus | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis | Shortest pelvic diameter is-
A. Bispinous
B. Oblique
C. Transverse
D. Anteroposterior
| Bispinous |
127f625a-671b-472a-849c-6c0e84aa3531 | Ans. A. Apical defecta. Sacrospinous ligament fixation: - The main indication for sacrospinous ligament fixation is to correct total procidentia or post-hysterectomy vaginal vault prolapse with an associated weak cardinal uterosacral ligament complex and to correct post hysterectomy enterocele. The contraindication for the procedure is a short vagina.b. The principle of this procedure is the fixation of the vaginal vault to the sacrospinous ligament with nonabsorbable sutures. The fixation site is typically the right sacrospinous ligament. However, bilateral fixation is performed in patients with recurrent vault prolapse and with the goal of restoring a vaginal axis and sexual life. The routes of entry to the sacrospinous ligament may be posterior and anterior. Usually, a unilateral, right-sided, posterior approach is preferred.c. This procedure has advantages, including success rates comparable to abdominal procedures, the ability to repair concomitant pelvic floor defects, the absence of laparotomy, shorter hospital stays, and the preservation of vaginal length and function.d. The most common problem after this procedure is the high rate of postoperative cystocele, which approaches 20% to 33%, resulting from the deviation of the vaginal axis. Recurrent cystoceles have been reported in 6% to 92% of patients.e. Other disadvantages include difficulty in exposing the ligament, the potential need for excessive tensioning during tying, injury risk to the pudendal or inferior gluteal vessels and sciatic or pudendal nerve, alterations in the vaginal axis, and vaginal narrowing.f. Thomson et al have reported that by placing the sutures through the sacrospinous ligament 2.5cm more medially from the ischial spine along the superior border of the ligament and not through the full thickness of the ligament, the risk of complications is minimal. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Operative Obs | Sacrospinous fixation is for strengthening:
A. Apical defect
B. Posterior defect
C. Lateral defect
D. Anterior defect
| Apical defect |
f4e5874f-fb82-4d70-b71a-f4ea4da6e44e | Councilman bodies are seen in Acute viral hepatitis Hepatocyte apoptosis is an active form of "programmed" cell death resulting in hepatocyte shrinkage, Nuclear chromatin condensation (pyknosis), fragmentation (karyorrhexis), and cellular fragmentation into acidophilic apoptotic bodies. Apoptotic hepatocytes have often been referred to as Councilman bodies. The term acidophilic bodies is used, due to their deeply eosinophilic staining characteristics. | Pathology | Hepatitis | Councilman bodies are seen in:
A. Wilson disease
B. Alcoholic hepatitis
C. Acute viral hepatitis
D. Autoimmune hepatitis
| Acute viral hepatitis |
9e1dba21-e2db-4755-9977-9ee3316ebcac | This is the best modality of treatment to immediately reve anuria in patients with bilateral obstructing renal stone. Stenting can be done in other scenarios such as pyelonephritis due to obstructed stone, severe renal colic, long term obstruction. Ref: Urinary Stone Disease : The Practical Guide to Medical and Surgical Management By Marshall L. Stoller, Maxwell V. Meng, 2007, Page 475 | Surgery | null | A 50 year old female is admitted with abdominal pain and anuria. Radiological studies revealed bilateral impacted ureteric stones with hydronephrosis. Urine analysis showed RBCs with pus cells in urine. Serum creatinine level was 16 mg/dl and urea level was 200 mmol/1. Which of the following should be the immediate treatment?
A. Hemodialysis
B. 'J' stent drainage
C. Lithotripsy
D. Ureteroscopic removal of stones
| 'J' stent drainage |
8faed5fd-cd39-4008-ad02-0c80d13993ab | Ans. is 'b' i.e. As Bilateral painless hearing loss in 25 yr. old female accentuated with pregnancy is suggestive of otosclerosis or otospongiosis Tympanometry shows As curve due to ossicular stiffness.TympanometryIs based on the principle of reflection of sound energywhen sound strikes tympanic membrane, some of the sound energy is absorbed while the rest is reflected.A stiffer tympanic membrane would reflect more of sound energy than a compliant one.By changing the pressures in a sealed external auditory canal and then measuring the reflected sound energy, it is possible to find the compliance or stiffness of the Tympano-ossicular system and thus find the healthy or diseased status of the middle ear.By charting the compliance of Tympano-ossicular system against various pressure changes, different types of graphs called tympanogram are obtained.These Tympano grams are diagnostic of certain middle ear pathologies.Types of tvmpanogramsType ANormal tympanogramType AsReduced compliance at or near ambient air pressure. Seen in fixation of ossicles, eg. otosclerosis or malleus fixation.Type AdIncreased compliance at or near ambient pressure. Seen in ossicular discontinuity or thin and lax tympanic membrane.Type BFlat or dome shaped graph. Seen in middle ear fluid or thick tympanic membrane.Type CMaximum compliance at pressures more than -100 mm H2O (negative pressure in middle ear) eg. eustachian tube obstruction or early stage of serous otitis media. | ENT | Otosclerosis | A 25 year old woman suffering from bilateral hearing loss for 6 year which became profound with pregnancy. On tympanogram which of the following curve is obtained
A. Ad
B. As
C. B
D. A
| As |
d66d5e59-731a-4632-a5c5-fbf5749b79f4 | The characteristic presentation of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy is blurring affecting the central visual field of one eye in young adult male; similar symptoms appear in the other eye an average of two to three months late. This sequential appearance of symptoms in young adult is quite characteristic for leber 's hereditary neuropathy. During acute phase fundus may show disc swelling and peripapillary telangiectasis. Pupillary reflex is normal.
Toxic and nutritional deficiency optic neuropathies have similar manifestations to Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy. Differentiating features have been mentioned earlier, are:-
Most patients of toxic optic neuropathy experience slowly progressive bilateral loss of central vision, in contrast to the sequential involvement in LHON.
In toxic optic neuropathy, the fundus may appear normal initially, whereas in LHON, during acute phase fundus changes can be seen. | Ophthalmology | null | A young man with blurring of vision in right eye,followed by left eye after 3 months, showing disc hyperemia, edema, circumpapillary telangiectasia with normal pupillary response with centrocecal scotoma on perimetry, the cause is-
A. Typical optic neuritis
B. Acute Papilledema
C. Toxic optic neuropathy
D. Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy
| Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy |
e1bd543f-ec4e-4e4f-b85b-163d1b8902c2 | Ans. B. Carcinoid syndromeIn Pheochromocytoma VMA is excreted in excess in urine.In Carcinoid syndrome 5 HIAA is excreted in excess in urine.In PKU Phenyl Ketones like Phenyl acetate and Phenyl Pyruvate is excreted in urine.In Alkaptonuria Homogentisate is excreted in urine. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | 5 HIAA in urine is due to:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Carcinoid syndrome
C. Phenyl ketonuria
D. Alkaptonuria
| Carcinoid syndrome |
71e6266b-985c-4ac0-82b5-52105d544bf3 | Malformations associated with unilateral renal agenesis are: Single umbilical aery Contralateral vesicoureteric reflux Absent ureter Absent ipsilateral vas deferens. | Pediatrics | congenital anomalies of kidney | Unilateral renal agenesis is associated with:
A. Polycystic disease of pancreas
B. Hiatus Hernia
C. Single umbilical aery
D. Hypogonadism
| Single umbilical aery |
3f424d9f-4eda-4bb7-aec5-1e6d8c0357b9 | CARCINOMA ESOPHAGUS: Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus usually affects the upper two thirds;whereas, adenocarcinoma usually affects lower third of esophagus. Tobacco, alcohol, GERD & Obesity are some of the common etiological features. Bad prognosis if lymph nodes are involved. The most common presenting symptom is Dysphagia. INVESTIGATIONS: 1st investigation - Barium Swallow IOC for Dx - Endoscopy with biopsy IOC for staging - EUS IOC for staging in cases of obstructed lumen/ advanced stage: CECT IOC for distant metastasis - PET Scan | Surgery | FMGE 2018 | Which of the following is not done in carcinoma esophagus?
A. Biopsy
B. pH - metry/monitoring
C. CT chest
D. PET scan
| pH - metry/monitoring |
12f7ca11-82f3-440d-a045-59c50c66b75d | Answer is A (Anti-LKM antibody): Hepatitis C is associated with Anti-LKM antibodies. Hepatitis C may possibly also be associated with cryoglobulinemia but in view of its definite association with anti-LKM antibodies, this is the single best answer. LKM antibodies stand for antibodies against Liver-Kidney microsomes. LKM antibodies may be seen in - Type II autoimmune hepatitis (anti LKM-I) - Drug induced hepatitis (anti LKM-II) - Chronic hepatitis C - Chronic hepatitis D (anti LKM-III) Note that species of LKM antibodies in hepatitis C and hepatitis D are different from each other as well as from LKM antibodies in autoimmune hepatitis type II. Hepatitis C is also associated with essential mixed cryoglobulinemia (EMC) - Harrison 14th/1683 Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia is an extrahepatic manifestation of viral hepatitis. It was repoed initially to be associated with hepatitis B. Recent reevaluation of patients with EMC suggests that association is with chronic HCV infection rather than HBV infection. PAN is associated with hepatitis B virus and not with hepatitis C. Scleroderma is not associated with Hepatitis C. | Medicine | null | Hepatitis C virus is associated with :
A. Anti LKM antibody
B. Scleroderma
C. Cryoglobulinemia
D. Polyaeritis nodosa
| Anti LKM antibody |
62b4bca1-4dc8-40e3-8da9-416ca37b58bd | B i.e. Bronchial aery In 95% of cases of massive recurrent hemoptysis, the source of blood are systemic bronchial aeryQ rather than pulmonaryaery; So these are the vascular structures which should be evaluated first. Type of Bleeding Source - Hemoptysis - Bronchial aeryQ - Epidural hemorrhage - Middle meningeal aeryQ - Subdural hemorrhage - Bridging veinsQ - Sub arachnoid hemorrhage - Berry saccular aneurysmQ - Intracerebral hemorrhage - Infra parenchymal vessels - Menstruation - Spiral aeriesQ - Epitaxis - Plexus of vein (M.C.) & sphenopalatine aery | Radiology | null | A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first:
A. Pulmonary aery
B. Bronchial aery
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Superior vena cava
| Bronchial aery |
f1ef4a82-af68-4e0d-a9dc-eb8add2e1716 | Ans. B: Aedes Dengue fever and dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) are acute febrile diseases which occur in the tropics, can be life-threatening, and are caused by four closely related virus serotypes of the genus Flavivirus, family Flaviviridae. It is also known as breakbone fever. The reservoir for infection is both man and mosquito. The transmission cycle is man-mosquito-man. Aedes aegypti is the main vector. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Vector for dengue fever is: September 2006
A. Culex
B. Aedes
C. Male Anopheles
D. Female Anopheles
| Aedes |
18eb1110-fc92-4c1e-b5cd-e01a36e7f6d3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hemangioma o Overall hemangioma is most common Tumor in infant,o Hemangioma is usually benign in Nature,o Leukemia is most common malignancy in pediatric age gyp.Leukemia i lymphoma=40%CNS Tumor=30%Embryonal & Sarcoma=10%o 2nd most common is CNS Tumor (30%)o Hemangioma (3 types):(1) CapillaiySalmon patchPort-wine stainStrawberry AngiomaVin Rose PatchCavernous/ Venous HemangiomaPlexiform / Arterial Hemangioma | Pediatrics | Leukemias and Lymphoma | Most common tumor in Infant-
A. Hemangioma
B. Brain tumor
C. Leukemia
D. Ewing sarcoma
| Hemangioma |
dab9ca72-71f6-4f95-ba65-972a6e1927fb | betablockers not given in renal failure : betaxolol acebutolol nadolol atenolol nebivolol ref : kd tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | All India exam | which of the following beta blocker is contraindicated in renal failure ?
A. betaoxolol
B. celiprolol
C. pindolo
D. labetelol
| betaoxolol |
fd6052f3-daae-495a-a021-3aad2bb99b7f | Recurrent chalazion can predispose to the development of adenocarcinoma. Chalazion is a sterile, focal, chronic inflammation of the eyelid that results from obstruction of a meibomian or Zeis gland. It is commonly associated with rosacea and posterior blepharitis. They point towards the conjunctival surface and if its large it may press on the globe and cause astigmatism. Histologic examination shows proliferation of the endothelium of the acinus and a granulomatous inflammatory response that includes Langerhans type giant cells. Treatment includes surgical excision. For small lesions intralesional steroid injection may be sufficient, and in difficult cases it can be used in combination with surgery. Ref: Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e chapter 4. Textbook of Ophthalmology By H. V. Nema, page 577. | Ophthalmology | null | Recurrent chalazion is predisposed to develop which of the following type of malignancy?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Epidermoid Carcinoma
| Adenocarcinoma |
08a0bd9c-8d65-45bf-bd2b-59b7188fb7d1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Suprapubic aspiration The number of bacteria taken as significant bacteriuria varies depending upon the type of sample -Suprapubic aspiration of bladder -102 colony-forming units (CFU) per ml.In-out catheterization of bladder 4 >103 CFU/mlClean void urine >104 CFU/mlCarefully, collected urine in bag (unspun urine) - >10' CFU/ml | Microbiology | null | >102 colony forming unit per ml of urine is significant in ?
A. Suprapubic aspiration
B. In-out caterization
C. Per uretheral catheterization
D. Clean void urine
| Suprapubic aspiration |
4e2cd1a9-d83f-4e8c-b5a4-6430aacabe55 | Ans. (b) 'j' stent drainage* Prompt drainage of the obstructed urinary system by double) stent is the TOC in patients with renal failure.* Hemodialysis is advised only if the renal recovery is prolonged. | Surgery | Kidney & Ureturs | A 50 years old female is admitted with abdominal pain and anuria. Radiological studies revealed: bilateral impacted ureteric stones with hydronephrosis. Urine analysis showed RBCs with pus cells in urine. Serum creatinine level was 16 mg/dL and urea level was 200 mmol/L. Which of the following should be the immediate treatment?
A. Hemodialysis
B. 'j' stent drainage
C. Lithotripsy
D. Ureteroscopic removal of stones
| 'j' stent drainage |
7bdb5358-f08a-487d-9d03-a271a9bcae2c | Ans. B Splenic arteryRef: Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith, Moore, 5th ed. pg. 252-253* The stomach has a rich arterial supply arising from the celiac trunk and its branches.* Most blood is supplied by anastomoses formed along the lesser curvature by the right and left gastric arteries, and along the greater curvature by the right and left gastro- omental arteries.* Fundus of the stomach is supplied by splenic artery mainly.* Branches of splenic artery:# Posterior gastric# Short gastric arteries# Left gastroepiploic artery* Out ot the three, the fundus of stomach is supplied by short gastric artery and left gastroepiploic artery. But major contribution is by short gastric arteries.* This was a controversial question, but given these choices the best answer is splenic artery. | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | Fundus of stomach is supplied by which of the following artery:
A. Celiac trunk
B. Splenic artery
C. Left gastric artery
D. Left gastroepiploic artery
| Splenic artery |
4282f9f4-7626-4bd2-95c7-72efb83449d8 | Umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood to embryo | Anatomy | null | Function of umbilical vein is:
A. Carry oxygenated blood away from the fetus
B. Carry oxygenated blood towards the fetus
C. Carry deoxygenated blood away from the fetus
D. Carry deoxygenated blood towards the fetus
| Carry oxygenated blood towards the fetus |
3a59224f-ad68-4b94-ad61-b0bcebfcfca7 | C i.e. Ring synechiae Annular posterior synechia/ Ring synechia are 360deg adhesion of pupillary margin to anterior capsuldial lens. Thus preventing circulation of aquous humor from posterior chamber to anterior chamber (seclusio pupillae)Q. So the aqueus collects behind the iris & pushes it anteriory like a sail lit Iris bombeQ formation. Due to this the anterior chamber becomes funnel shaped i.e. deeper in centre & shallower at periphery. And ant. surface of iris comes in contact with posterior surface of cornea at periphery, where eventually firm adhesions form (Peripheral anterior synechiae). Both ring & peripheral anterior synechaia lit secondary glaucoma. Yag laser iridotomy is treatment of choice to prevent secondary glaucoma. Complications of Anterior Uveitis - Seclusio occlusio pupillae Secondary glaucoma (most common)Q - Cyclitic membrane Complicated cataractQ Pseudoglioma due to vitreous exudation - Cystoid macular oedemaQ is common cause of visual impairment - Pthisis & atrophic bulbi - Tractional retinal detachment - Band shaped keratopathy: more common in children with JRA - Features of anterior uveitis (acute) include pain, redness /ciliary flush or congestion / perilimbal injection, tenderness, photophobia, blurred vision, keratic precipitates, aqueous flare and cellsQ. Smaller KPs are seen in nongranulomatous, whereas larger (mutton fat) KPs are characteristic of granulomatous uveitis. The normal convection currents of aqueous humor & gravitation result in KPs being typically concentrated over a triangular area (Arlt triangle) in the lower pa of cornea. A diffuse pattern of KPs is frequently seen in Fuch's hetrochromic iridocyclitis or herpetic Keratouveitis. New KPs are white and become shrunken (crenated) or more pigmented as they age. Cornea may show epithelial dendrites, geographic ulcers or stromal scarring in herpetic Keratouveitis. Conjunctiva demonstrate nodules in sarcoidosis. - Clinical features of intermediate uveitis include floaters, deterioration of vision (d/t opacities in anterior vitreous), minimal AF with occasional KPs (k/a spill over anterior uveitis), anterior vitritis, white snowball like exudates near ora serrata, coalescent exudates (snow bank appearance), mild peripheral periphlebitis. - Typical features of posterior uveitis include often painless floater with or without diminution of vision0, vitritis (detectable inflammatory cells & opacities in vitreous), retinitis- choroiditis (exudates, infiltration, odema or atrophy) and sheathing of vessels (perivascular exudates). - Other less frequent features of posterior segment involvement (i.e. complications) include macular edema, disc edema (papillitis), retrolental cyclitic membrane, vitreous haemorrhage; serous, tractional or rhegmatogenous RD; retinochoroidal neovascularization & atrophy. | Ophthalmology | null | Iris bombe occurs with
A. Posterior complete synechiae
B. Anterior complete synechiae
C. Ring synechiae
D. Angle block glaucoma
| Ring synechiae |
cc93d19f-16ce-41a8-95d1-89e96dcf07e3 | Central nebular opacity is treated by phototherapeutic keratectomy with excimer laser (treatment of choice) or lamellar keratoplasty. | Ophthalmology | null | The central nebular corneal opacity is easily treated with –
A. Lamellar keratoplasty
B. Penetrating keratoplasty
C. Gas permeable contact lens
D. Soft contact lens
| Lamellar keratoplasty |
20bc4468-d65c-4b6a-9a25-69b0f1cc78b7 | Vector Diseases transmitted Soft tick Relapsing fever, Q fever, KFD (outside India) Hard tick Tularemia, Babesiosis, KFD (India), Tick paralysis, Tick encephalitis, Indian tick typhus, Tick hemorrhagic fever, Rocky Mountain spotted fever. REF: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 841 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Soft tick transmits -
A. Bebesiosis
B. Relapsing fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Ricketssial pox
| Relapsing fever |
11674eb2-8903-4d38-a7a6-b07cc7ba8350 | It is the storehouse of energy in the body (about 1,35,000 kcal)The free fatty acid (FFA) mobilized from adipose tissue is the preferred fuel for muscle during starvationThe energy is stored in the concentrated form, triacylglycerol. The chylomicrons and VLDL are hydrolyzed by lipoprotein lipase present on capillary walls. It is activated by insulin.Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 87 | Biochemistry | Respiratory chain | Maximum energy store in
A. Adipose
B. Liver
C. Muscle
D. Blood glucose
| Adipose |
acbcf5b7-2592-4284-8c90-5f58cb089749 | B i.e. Staph aureusRef: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 19th edition, page 805Explanation:S. aureus pneumonia commonly complicates influenza infection.FactorPossible Pathogen(s)AlcoholismStreptococcus pneumoniae, oral anaerobes, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter spp., Mycobacterium tuberculosisCOPD and/or smokingHaemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Legionella spp., S. pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Chlamydia pneumoniaeStructural lung disease (e.g., bronchiectasis)R aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, Staphylococcus aureusDementia, stroke, decreased level of consciousnessOral anaerobes, gram-negative enteric bacteriaLocal influenza activityInfluenza virus, S. pneumoniae, S. aureusExposure to bats or birdsH. capsulatumExposure to birdsChlamydia psittaci | Medicine | Infection | Flu like symptoms followed by radiographic evidence of consolidation in lung in a non-smoker is due to:
A. Klebsiella
B. Staph aureus
C. Streptococcus
D. Pseudomonas
| Staph aureus |
f8df8101-c272-47fa-be91-edc6c5710145 | Answer is A (Mitral Valve Prolapse) Valvular Hea Disease: A Companion to Braunwald's Hea Disease by Otto (Elsevier Health Sciences) The single most common cardiovascular abnormality seen in patients with Marfan's Syndrome at the time of presentation is Mitral Valve Prolapse. Mitral Valve Prolapse is the most frequent abnormality seen at the time of presentation (80 - 100%) -Valvular Hea Disease: A Companion to Braunwald's Hea Disease Mitral Valve Prolapse and Dilation of the Ascending Aoa at the level of aoic sinuses are the two most common cardiovascular abnormalities seen in patients with Madan's Syndrome Mitral Valve Prolapse is the single most common cardiovascular abnormality Dilation of the Ascending Aoa at the level of aoic sinuses is the next most common anomaly. | Medicine | null | Most common cardiovascular abnormality seen in Marfan's Syndrome on presentation is:
A. Mitral Valve Prolapse
B. Dilation of Aoic Sinuses
C. Coarctation of Aoa
D. Bicuspid Aoic Valve
| Mitral Valve Prolapse |
2c0bde35-83d6-42ed-ba63-8afad2d7fabe | Ans. is 'd' i.e., To provide essential prenatal, Natal and postnatal services | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In "safe motherhood schemes", (CSSM) major thrust area is -
A. In "safe motherhood schemes", (CSSM) major thrust area is -
B. Elimination of maternal morbidity
C. Feility regulation
D. To provide essential prenatal, Natal and postnatal services
| To provide essential prenatal, Natal and postnatal services |
ee1c9b18-c293-4973-bcea-45d0fad81802 | Also known as endodermal sinus tumor, yolk sac tumor is of interest because it is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age. In this age group it has a very good prognosis. In adults the pure form of this tumor is rare; instead, yolk sac elements frequently occur in combination with embryonal carcinoma. | Pathology | Urinary tract | Metastasis is least common with
A. Embryonal cell carcinoma
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Taeratocarcinoma
D. Spermatocytic Seminoma
| Endodermal sinus tumor |
a8ff7100-b93d-4015-944a-f5e09f9375b6 | Ans. A i.e. ErythropoietinErythropoietin causes formation and release of new RBCs into circulation | Physiology | null | Which one of the following is NOT a transpoer or binding protein: March 2013
A. Erythropoietin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Lactoferrin
D. Transferrin
| Erythropoietin |
39cb8b82-44e2-41bc-a6ee-145d8948948c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Classical conditioningClassical conditioningIn classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus (which usually does not produce the response), when paired with unconditioned stimulus (stimulus which usually produces a response), directly produces a response.The typical example of classical conditioning is pavlov's experiment. Normally food produces salivation in dog, Therefore salivation in response to food is called unconditioned response and the stimulus, i.e., food is called unconditioned stimulus. Under normal circumstances, a dog does not salivate at the sound of a bell. However, if the sound of bell is paired consistently with presentation of food, the dog begans to salivate to the sound of bell even if the food is not presented. This learned response, i.e., salivation to a sound of bell without food, is called conditioned response and the stimulus (sound of a bell) is called conditioned stimulus.There is a reverse side to classical conditioning, called counter conditioning. This amounts to reducing the intensity of conditioned response (e.g., anxiety) by establishing an incompatible response (e.g., relaxation) to a conditioned stimulus (i.e., snake). So anxiety symptoms can be reduced when the stimuli to anxiety are presented in graded order and systemically paired with a relaxation response. This process of reciprocal inhibition is called systemic desensitization.Other behavioral therapies based on classical conditioning principle (counter conditioning) are exposure with response prevention and aversion therapy. | Psychiatry | null | Pavlov's experiment is an example of ?
A. Operant conditioning
B. Classical conditioning
C. Learned helplessness
D. Modeling
| Classical conditioning |
f81d6a5c-6208-4bc3-9ad5-757043799dc2 | Refer kDT 7/e p 641 Ezetimibe is a medication used to treat high blood cholesterol and ceain other lipid abnormalities. Generally it is used together with dietary changes and a statin. Alone, it is less preferred than a statin. It is taken by mouth. It is also available in the combination ezetimibe/simvastatin | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Mechanism of action of Ezetimibe
A. Interfere with absorption of bile acids
B. Interfere CETP
C. Interfere with the absorption of cholesterol by inhibiting NPCIL1
D. Inhibitor of PPAR alpha
| Interfere with the absorption of cholesterol by inhibiting NPCIL1 |
2ff785e1-db86-408c-bf62-a5c4b8f23d2e | The given history of back pain in a 65 year old female with the above given radiograph points towards the diagnosis of Osteoporosis. Radiograph shows multiple endplate compression fractures throughout the lumbar veebra. The term fishmouth veebra / codfish veebra have been used to describe the biconcave appearance (given in the image in the question) of the veebrae that occur in Osteoporosis and sickle cell anemia patients. | Radiology | NEET Jan 2020 | A 65 year old female attended th Ohopaedics OPD with a chief complaint of chronic back ache. The radiograph of lumbar spine is obtained. What could be the most probable diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid Ahritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Renal Osteodystrophy
D. Paget's Disease
| Osteoporosis |
910df80f-0ca7-4105-84e6-bb35a510f72b | The phenomenon referred to as genomic imprinting leads to preferential expression of an allele depending on the parental origin.
Genomic imprinting
Human inherits two copies of each gene, i.e. two alleles, from homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes.
There is no functional difference between the genes derives from mother or the father.
But, with respect to some genes, there are functional differences between the paternal gene and maternal gene.
These differences result from an epigenetic process, called genomic imprinting.
In most cases, genomic imprinting selectively inactivates either the maternal or paternal allele.
Maternal genomic imprinting :
Selective inactivation of maternal allele.
Example is Angelman syndrome.
Paternal genomic imprinting :
Selective inactivation of paternal allele.
Example is Prader – Willi syndrome. | Unknown | null | Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as –
A. Genomic imprinting
B. Mosaicism
C. Anticipation
D. Nonpenetrance
| Genomic imprinting |
b1314a66-6c9c-42ca-ace4-4d222f82dfd6 | D i.e. Drowning where death is d/t laryngeal spasm | Forensic Medicine | null | Dry drowning is defined as:
A. Drowning in sea water
B. Drowning in cold water, death due to cardiac arrest
C. Drowning in a dehydrated body
D. Drowning where death is due to laryngospasm
| Drowning where death is due to laryngospasm |
8c75e728-d074-4ca4-894d-ae9b4df77f43 | Amongst the given options only talus fracture (neck talus fracture) causes AVN. | Orthopaedics | null | Traumatic fracture showing avascular necrosis -
A. Femoral neck
B. Surgical neck of humerus
C. Body of talus
D. Cuboid
| Femoral neck |
97c164d8-059f-4e9d-8acf-1239eba5ff2c | Thyroid Cailage Largest cailage, hyaline in nature. It is V shaped and consists of right and left lamina which meet anteriorly in midline and form an angle (Adams angle) Adams angle: -- Male: 90 degree -- Female: 120 degree The outer surface of each lamina is marked by an oblique line which extends from superior thyroid tubercle to inferior thyroid tubercle. Oblique line gives attachment to: -- Thyrohyoid -- Sternothyroid -- Inferior constrictor muscle. Vocal cords are attached to middle of thyroid cailage. | ENT | FMGE 2019 | Adam's apple in Male is due to.
A. Thyroid cailage
B. Cricoid cailage
C. Hyoid cailage
D. Epiglottis cailage
| Thyroid cailage |
c1fd6cd7-0fd1-49e9-bd76-75da8e67bb7f | Stress incontinence is an involuntary loss of a small amount of urine due to sudden increased intra-abdominal pressure, such as with coughing or sneezing. | Pathology | null | A patient is experiencing which type of incontinence if she experiences leaking urine when she coughs, sneezes, or lifts heavy objects?
A. Overflow
B. Reflex
C. Stress
D. Urge
| Stress |
8c4b2f30-c54d-402b-9661-9ae137384f32 | ANSWER: (D) Electrosurgical equipmentREF: British Journal of Anesthesia Volume 50, Issue 7 p. 659-664, Current Opinion in Anaesthesiology: December 2008 Volume 21 Issue 6 p. 790-795The two most common source of operation theatre fire is electrosurgical unit (ESU) and lasers.Other equipments that can produces fire are, but not limited to, fiber optic light cables, light source box, drills, saws & burrs, handheld cautery, argon beam coagulators and defibrillators.ECRI's analysis of case reports showT that the most common ignition sources are electrosurgical instruments (68%) and lasers (13%); and the most common fire location is the airway (34%), head or face (28%), and elsewhere on or inside the patient (38%), An oxygen-enriched atmosphere wTas a contributing factor in 74% of all cases. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | Operation theatre fire is most commonly due to?
A. Argon beam coagulators
B. Laser
C. Fiber optic illumination
D. Electrosurgical equipment
| Electrosurgical equipment |
2d03be97-e3c8-412c-ab64-2af315bc24ed | Infarcts are classified according to color and the presence or absence of infection; they are either red (hemorrhagic) or white (anemic) and may be septic or bland. White infarcts occur with aerial occlusions in solid organs with end-aerial circulation (e.g: hea, spleen, and kidney), and where tissue density limits the seepage of blood from adjoining capillary beds into the necrotic area.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 4; Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolic Disease, and Shock; Page no: 130 | Pathology | General pathology | Type of infarct seen in hea is
A. Red infarcts
B. White infarcts
C. Septic infarcts
D. Bland infarcts
| White infarcts |
848cf953-e6ec-43b6-b44f-87186a21b10d | Ref:KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page.no: 19,116) Placental membranes are lipoidal and allow free passage of lipophilic drugs while restricting hydrophilic drugs. Glycopyrrolate is a quaternary ammonium compound. So it can't cross placenta and brain(BBB). Other drugs can cross the placenta | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the following drug does not cross the blood-placental barrier?
A. Atropine
B. Glycopyrolate
C. Physostigmine
D. Hyoscine hydro bromide
| Glycopyrolate |
862b8248-ba88-4d35-845e-9729417ff90f | CK-1 or CK-BB is found primarily in brain tissue. Hence it is increased in brain ischemia. Ref: Clinical Biochemistry By Jiro J. Kaneko, John W. Harvey, Michael Bruss, 1997, Page 317 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following condition shows an increase in serum level of Creatinine Kinase 1 (CK 1)?
A. Myocardial ischemia
B. Brain ischemia
C. Kidney damage
D. Electrical cardioversion
| Brain ischemia |
5593f9b7-bb53-4d85-b2e1-77f20f7f1521 | Ans is 'a' i.e., Respiratory Symptoms Recurrent Respiratory Symptoms (Wheezing, stridor, chronic cough apnea, aspiration) are the earliest indicator of Pathological Reflux (GERD) amongst the options provided. `The most frequent complications of Gastroesophageal Reflux disease (pathological Reflux) in infants are failure to thrive and recurrent pulmonary symptoms' -- Bailey & Johnson's Head & Neck Surgery (Otolaryngology) 4th/1108. Gastroesophagial reflux disease (GERD) in infants o Gastroesophagial reflux refers to the passage of gastric contents into the esophagus or orpharynx. o GERD is one of the most frequent problems among infants. o Reflux in infants usually develops when they are between two to four weeks old. Within 6-9 months, the acid reflux stas subsiding and it resolves in most of the cases. Clinical features o Post-prandial regurgitation is the most common and probably the earliest syptom of GERD. However, the presence of postprandial regurgitation does not suggest pathological nature of reflux process as regurgitation is also seen in normal infants. (optiopn b is not correct) o Pathological reflux or GERD is said to be present when frequency and/or duration of reflux episodes results in troublesome symptoms and complications (esophagitis or pulmonary). Symptoms of GERD are failure to thrive, poor weight gain, feeding refusal, recurrent vomiting, generalized irritability, respiratory symptoms and arching/bradycardia. Treatment o Conservative measures may be adequate to treat uncomplicated, mild GERD in infants, however, when therapy is necessary for 2 weeks or longer, proton-pump inhibitors are the treatment of choice in children. Remember Most common and earliest symptom of GERD in infant --> Regurgitation. For diagnosing pathological GERD regurgitation alone is not enough as there is physiological reflux (regurgitation)in normal infants. Regurgitation plus one or more troublesome symptoms (Respiratory symptoms, failure to thrive, poor weight gain, etc) are required to indicate pathological GERD. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is the earliest indicator of pathological gastroesophageal reflux in infants (GERD) -
A. Respiratory Symptoms
B. Postprandial Regurgitation
C. Upper GI Bleed
D. Stricture Esophagus
| Respiratory Symptoms |
501de6f7-d24d-413e-8ad5-4dfd7ecbf0f9 | In CLL, the blood contains large numbers of small round lymphocytes with scant cytoplasm (fragile). Some of these cells are usually disrupted in the process of making smears, producing so-called smudge cells | Pathology | Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia | "Smudge cells" in the peripheral smear are characteristic of:
A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
| Chronic lymphocytic leukemia |
9b3bec7a-4dc3-4bde-a8b2-70b3bda6a429 | Two nitrogen atoms of urea are derived from two different sources, one from ammonia and the other directly from alpha amino group of aspaic acid.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 203 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | The two nitrogen atoms that are incorporated into the urea cycle. The source of the nitrogen is
A. Glutamate & Aspaate
B. Aspaate & Arginine
C. Aspaate & NH3
D. Glutamate & NH3
| Aspaate & NH3 |
ba9328a8-3ef3-40dc-9a3a-2b34f764162f | Facial palsy is the paralysis of facial musculature (motor activity) and not the general sensation of the face (Face is supplied by trigeminal nerve). Facial palsy is characterised by inability to close the eye, drooping of the corner of the mouth resulting in drooling of saliva, absence of wrinkles on the forehead and a mask like face. Drooling of saliva is due to the drooping of corner of the mouth and not overproduction or ptyalism. Speech and eating becomes difficult and occasionally taste sensation on the anterior 2/3rd of tongue may be lost or altered. | Pathology | null | Which one of the following is seen in facial palsy?
A. Drooping of eyelid
B. Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue
C. Excess of saliva secretion
D. Loss of general sensation in cheek
| Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue |
a4835fce-99fa-4747-9a5d-591e42d4d2a3 | Ans. 'c' i.e., Clohetasol propionate cream 0.5% Classification of topical steroids based on potency Class 1 (Super Potent) Clobetasol propionate ointment and cream 0.5% Betamethasone dipropionate ointment 0.05% Halobetasol propionate ointment and cream 0.05% Class 2 (Highly potent) Mometasone furoate ointment 0.1 % Class 3 (Potent) Betamethasone dipropionate cream 0.05% Fluticasone propionate ointment 0.05% Class 4 (Moderately potent) Fluocinolone acetonide ointment 0.025% Fluticasone propionate cream 0.05% Mometasone furoate cream 0.1% Class 5 (Moderately potent) Betamethasone valerate cream 0.1% Hydrocoisone butyrate cream 0.1% Class 6 (Mildly potent) Desonide cream 0.05% Fluocinolone acetonide solution 0.05% Class 7 (Least potent) Dexamethasone cream 0.1 % Hydrocoisone 1% | Pharmacology | null | The most potent topical coicosteroids is ?
A. Hydrocoisone butyrate cream 0.1%
B. Betamethasone valerate cream 0.5%
C. Clobetasol propionate cream 0.5%
D. Clobetasone butyrate cream 0.5%
| Clobetasol propionate cream 0.5% |
d0ff07b6-ee4f-4572-aab7-6c0a4a5e34b9 | STATISTICAL ERRORS & P - VALUE H0 rejected H0 not rejected Null hypothesis (H0) true Null hypothesis (H0) false Type I error No error No error Type II error Type I error: Null hypothesis is true but rejected. Probability of type I error is given by 'P value'. (probability of declaring a significant difference when actually it is not present) Significance (alpha) level: is the maximum tolerable probability of type I error. Alpha is fixed in advance: p - value calculated can be less than, equal to or greater than alpha. Keep type I error to be minimum (P<alpha); Then results are declared statistically significant. Type II error: Null hypothesis is false but not rejected. (or accepted) Probability of Type II error is given by beta. (probability of declaring no significant difference when actually it is present) Type I error is more serious than type II error. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostats | A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two (p<0.05). Assume that in reality, however, the two drugs to not differ. This is therefore an example of:-
A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C. 1 - alpha
D. 1 - beta
| Type I error |
6241687a-f863-4d3e-a50f-f1d18c00254a | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Non-enzymatic free radical peroxidationEpoxygenase pathway Cytochrome P450 may conve arachidonic acid (AA) to 20-HETE (20-hydroxyeicosa tetraenoic acid) or EET (epixyeicosatrienoic acid).EET may function as endothelium derived hyperpolarization factor paicularly in coronary circulation. It also possesses anti-inflammatory, anti-apoptotic and pro-angiogenic action. Biological effects of EET are reduced by metabolism to less active DHET with the help of epoxide hydrolase.20 HETE causes vasoconstriction of renal aeries and has been implicated in the pathogenesis of hypeension. In contrast, EET possesses antihypeensive propeies its vasodilating and natriuretic actions. Inhibitors of epoxide hydralase (results in elevated levels of EET) are being developed as antihypeensive drugs.Isoeicosanoid pathway Isoprostanes are formed by non-enzymatic free radical based peroxidation of arachidonic acid.Iso prostanes have potent vasoconstrictor activity and modulate WBC and platelet adhesive interactions and angiogenesis. | Pathology | null | Isoprostanes are formed from archidonic acid by ?
A. Cycloxygenase
B. Lipoxygenase
C. Epoxide hydrolase
D. Non-enzymatic free radical peroxidation
| Non-enzymatic free radical peroxidation |
9a8e895b-73ad-4f4c-b39a-a803f94852c8 | Clostridia are isolated by heating followed by plating using redox potential. REF:Textbook of microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker. Page no.:252 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Heating and subsequent plating is a method used for isolating?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Vibrio
C. Salmonella
D. Clostridia
| Clostridia |
dd08106c-d446-44aa-b412-3f2776aad05c | Ans:D.)< 18 years. Explanation:The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013:The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which means any sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below the age of 18 will constitute statutory rape. | Forensic Medicine | null | Rape, even after consent is considered when age of woman is:
A. < 16yr
B. <17 yr
C. <21 yr
D. <18 yr
| <18 yr |
110b4fe6-7e32-4ca9-a0f2-9c6f80e02b59 | Answer is B (Coarse granular casts) `Renal tubular casts' are characteristic of Acute tubular disease and interstitial nephritis but are not provided amongst the options. Coarse granular casts though non specific, can represent acute tubular necrosis and thus are the single best answer amongst the options provided. Muddy brown granular casts are characteristic of acute tubular necrosis. Hyaline casts as explained earlier are normal constituents of urine and may be found in - Concentrated urine - Febrile disease - After strenuous exercise - In the course of diuretic therapy They are thus not indicative of any form of renal disease. White cell casts indicate an interstitial type of renal disease such as interstitial nephritis and infective diseases like pyelonephritis but not a renal tubular disease. Cvstein oxalate cell casts are specific entities present only when excretion of these are raised and do not indicate a tubular disorder. | Medicine | null | Which of the following is indicative of renal tubular disease
A. Hyaline casts
B. Coarse granular casts
C. Cystine Oxalate cells
D. White cell casts
| Coarse granular casts |
5d418b64-32ec-4aba-ab80-b521a261e4e3 | Candida species are normal flora of the oropharynx, bowel, and vagina. Candida overgrowth of these surfaces may arise in the setting of broad spectrum antibiotics, diabetes mellitus, or HIV infection, resulting in oral thrush, Candida esophagitis, and vaginal candidiasis. High estrogen states, such as pregnancy or oral contraceptive use, are an additional risk factor for vaginal yeast infection. Candida skin infections are often seen in moist, macerated interigenous folds, such as in the groin, perineum (diaper rash), pannus, axillae, and breasts. Ref: Matloff J. (2012). Chapter 192. Candida and Aspergillus. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant female presented with itching in genital area. What is the MOST common vaginal infection in pregnancy?Gonorrhoea z
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Candidiasis
D. Bacterial vaginosis
| Candidiasis |
746be569-ce6d-4a45-b60a-e60d25ac5186 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Klebsiella Causes of Miliary mottlingInfection Bacterial (3TB, Brucellosis, Bronchopneumonia, Melioidosis), viral (varicella i chicken pox), Fungal [Histoplasmosis, Coccidiodomycosis, blastomycosis, cryptococcosis).Cardiac Mitral stenosis. Pulmonary edema, multiple pulmonary infarct.Pneumoconiosis Coal worker pneumoconiosis, silicosis.NeoplasticLymphangitis carcinomatosis, alveolar cell Ca., lymphoma, leukemia, metastasis.Allergic '.-Loeffler's syndrome, tropical eosinophilia.Others 1PF, RA, Sarcoidosis, Histocytosis-X, HMD. Haemosiderosis. | Radiology | Imaging of Interstitial Lung Disease | Miliary shadow in chest X-ray is seen in A/E -
A. TB
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Klebsiella
D. Metastasis
| Klebsiella |
a52e2cad-5db9-422d-a054-a1733e72ad7d | Polypmetahosphate / volutin granules
Some bacteria contain granules composed of polymetaphosphate. They were first described in spirillum volutans, so they were called as Volutin granules.
These granules are also known as Babes Ernst granules or polar bodies or metachromatic granules.
These granules stain reddish violet with methylene blue or toluidine blue.
These granules are strongly basophilic.
In the granules, there is stored phosphate in the form of linear chains of inorganic phosphate. These granules represent intracellular phosphate reserve when nucleic acid syntheis does not occur.
The phosphate is incorporated into nucleic acid during the synthesis of the latter.
When nucleic acid synthesis is prevented by starvation , the granules accumulate in the cytoplasm. So, volutin metachromatic granules are most frequent in cells grown under conditions of nutritional deficiency (starvation) and tend to disappear when the deficient nutrients are supplied.
Volutin metachromatic granules are common in
(i) Corynebacteria diptheriae ii) Mycobacteria iii) Gardenella vaginalis iv) Spirillum voluants v) Agrobacterim tumefaciens | Microbiology | null | Metachromatic granules are found in -a) Diphtheriab) Mycoplasmac) Gardenella vaginalisd) Staphylococcus
A. ac
B. bc
C. ad
D. b
| ac |
341c7e8c-4dff-40af-961a-2adf71a704f6 | Static mixing — A technique of transforming two fluid (or paste-like) materials into a homogeneous mixture without mechanical stirring; it requires a device that forces two streams of material into a mixer cylinder, such that as the streams move through the mixer, while the stationary elements in the mixer continuously blend the materials.
Key Concept
A technique of transforming two fluid (or paste-like) materials into a homogeneous mixture without mechanical stirring is called static mixing.
Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 152 | Dental | null | A technique of transforming two fluid (or paste-like) materials into a homogeneous mixture without mechanical stirring is known as:
A. Static mixing
B. Rheology
C. Dynamic mixing
D. Mixing time
| Static mixing |
076647bc-d70c-455b-95ae-d71164f69903 | The newborn baby has characteristic signs and symptoms of congenital syphilis. Periostitis is a hallmark of skeletal manifestation. VDRL/RPR is the initial investigation of choice in congenital syphilis. All neonates born to mothers who have reactive nontreponemal and treponemal test results should be evaluated with a quantitative nontreponemal serologic test (RPR or VDRL) performed on the neonate's serum, because umbilical cord blood can become contaminated with maternal blood and yield a false-positive result. FTA-ABS/TPHA are used for confirmation of syphilis in a patient with reactive RPR/VDRL test. T. pallidum cannot be detected by culture. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Bacteriology | A newborn premature baby presented with bullous lesions on skin and legs, Xray shows features suggestive of periostitis. Which of the following is the initial investigation?
A. VDRL test
B. FTA-ABS test
C. TPHA test
D. culture
| VDRL test |
2b2f94be-060d-4dd9-89a2-20cc5b9e8502 | The greater sciatic foramen is an opening (foramen) at the back of the human pelvis. It is formed by the sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments. The piriformis muscle passes through the foramen and occupies most of its volume. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg363 | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Nerve passing from greater sciatic foramen to lesser sciatic foramen
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Superior rectal nerve
C. Inferior rectal nerve
D. Sciatic nerve
| Pudendal nerve |
f447c8ac-7a13-4c1c-b2a6-68cba74bd29c | Kussmaul sign is a paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure (JVP) on inspiration, or a failure in the appropriate fall of the JVP with inspiration. It can be seen in some forms of hea disease and is usually indicative of limited right ventricular filling due to right hea dysfunction. The differential diagnosis generally associated with Kussmaul sign is constrictive pericarditis, as well as with restrictive cardiomyopathy. With cardiac tamponade, jugular veins are distended and typically show a prominent x descent and an absent y descent as opposed to patients with constrictive pericarditis (prominent x and y descent), see Beck's triad Other possible causes of Kussmaul's sign include: Right ventricular infarction - low ventricular compliance Right hea failure Cardiac tumours Tricuspid stenosis Restrictive cardiomyopathy Pulmonary embolism Constrictive pericarditis Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1435 | Medicine | C.V.S | Kussumau's sign is most commonly seen in-
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Pericardial tamponade
C. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Right ventricular infarct
| Constrictive pericarditis |
52e8e8b1-796f-42cd-a5b3-4f87d67d6e57 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Type IV Types of collageno There are at least 28 distinct types of collagen made up of over 30 distinct polypeptide chains Type I is the most abundant collagen The important ones are :-Type of collagenDistributionType ISkin, tendon, bone, corneaType IIArticular cartilage, intervertebral disc. Vitreous humorType HIFetal skin, cardiovascular systam, lung, reticular fiberTypeIVBasement membraneTypeVPlacenta, skin | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Structure & Function of Proteins) | Type of collagen found in basement membrane is -
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
| Type IV |
d67d5039-f47b-4cd7-9e15-83754fb8defd | Tear film is required for accurate measurement , is not a source of error. Sources of error in tonometry: Inappropriate fluorescein pattern. Pressure on the globe. Central Corneal thickness. Corneal edema. Pulse pressure. Astigmatism. Incorrect calibration. Wide pulse pressure. | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Which of the following is not a source of error in the applanation tonometry:
A. High Pressure on the globe
B. Tear film
C. Astigmatism
D. Wide pulse pressure
| Tear film |
1f338f55-0c56-49e3-bd9e-87862a576506 | The principal function of aldosterone is to increase sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting ducts, which causes secretion of potassium and hydrogen ions.
Hypoaldosteronism (e.g., in Addison’s disease)therefore results in a decrease in H+ secretion, which leads to the production of metabolic acidosis (and hyperkalemia and hyponatremia).
Hypoventilationproduces respiratory acidosis.
Hypokalemiacauses an increase in K+ reabsorption and an increase in H+ secretion, resulting in a metabolic alkalosis.
Hypovolemiaresults in an increase in aldosterone secretion, which can lead to an increase in H+ secretion and a metabolic alkalosis.
Hypocalcemia does not directly affect acid-base balance. | Unknown | null | Metabolic acidosisis caused by which of the following?
A. Hypovolemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypoaldosteronism
| Hypoaldosteronism |
64e82d20-60a8-4065-b5c6-13806e9365c0 | Answer is B (Length of murmur) 'The duration of murmur correlates with the severity of stenosis - Harrison Features suggesting severe MS are : Proximity of S2 - O.S. gapQ,and Longer duration of mid-diastolic murmur Q | Medicine | null | Severity of mitral stenosis is assessed by:
A. Loud opening snap
B. Length of murmur
C. Loud S1
D. Splitting S2
| Length of murmur |
dccc20a4-6f29-4123-b06a-034b801eda63 | Features of Cystic fibrosis
Delayed passage of Meconium
Recurrent pneumonia
Steatorrhea
Late onset Diabetes
Azoospermia | Pediatrics | null | A 8 year old boy presents with recurrent pneumonia since birth. The boy had a history of delayed passage of Meconium at birth. Probable diagnosis is
A. Kartagener's syndrome
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Hirnchiprung disease
| Cystic fibrosis |
a3fe2922-7fda-4efc-a446-7f3f2947247b | Ans is 'b' i.e. Rheumatoid arthrirtis Fibrinoid necrosiso Fibrinoid necrosis is special form of necrosis typically occurs when complexes of antigen and antibodies are deposited in the walls of arteries. Deposits of these "immune complexes", together with fibrin that has leaked out of vessels, result in a bright pink and amorphous appearance in H & E stains, called "fibrinoid" (fibrin like) by pathologists.o Diseases causing fibrinoid necrosis are malignant hypertension (most common), PAN, SLE, SABE, acute rheumatic fever (Aschoffs nodule), RA, HSP, HBV, near peptic ulcer and malignancy.Note: In fibrinoid necrosis, there is no deposition offibrin. It is fibrin like matter, which is deposited. | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | Fibrinoid necrosis is seen in?
A. Diabetes
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Alzheimer's disease
| Rheumatoid arthritis |
0df9f346-27cf-44b8-8e0d-45d15e304fe9 | Ans. is c, i.e. Stage IIIRef. COGDT 10/e, p 893Staging of Gestational trophoblastic disease:Stage-I Disease confined to uterus.Stage-II Disease extending outside of the uterus but limited to the genital structures (adnexa, vagina, broad ligaments).Stage-III Disease extending to the lungs, with or without known genital tract involvement.Stage-IV Disease at other metastatic sites viz brain, liver, kidney or gastrointestinal tract. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gestational Trophoblastic Disease | A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia is detected to have lung metastasis. She should be staged as:
A. Stage-I
B. Stage-II
C. Stage-III
D. Stage - IV
| Stage-III |
63c362b7-6b13-4a36-9998-2502d5d66d1c | Long term or secular trends
The term secular trend implies changes in the occurrence of disease over a long period of time, generally several years or decades.
There may be progressive increase or decrease in the occurrence of disease.
Examples -
CHD, lung cancer, and DM have shown a consistent upward trend in developed countries.
TB, typhoid fever, diphtheria and polio have shown a declined trend in developed countries. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Secular trend means -
A. Seasonal changes
B. Periodical changes
C. Religion changes
D. Long term changes
| Long term changes |
ac0fb0dc-76fb-4ced-b286-1a41f350ff00 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Micromole / minute o The activity of enzyme is measured in terms of the following :1) Unit of enzyme acdvity: -# By international agreement, one unit enzyme activity is defined as the amount causing transformation of 1.0 micro mole of substrate per minute at 25deg C. It is usually expressed as m mole of substrate disappeared or p mole of product formed per minute.2) Specific activity:-# It refers to the number of enzyme units per milligram of protein. It is a measure of enzyme purity; higher the enzyme purity, more is the specific activity.3) Ttirn over number# This refers to the number of substrate molecules transformed per unit time by a single enzyme molecule (or by a single catalytic site), when the enzyme concentration alone is rate-limiting factor.# Catalase has the highest turnover number and hence is the fastest active enzyme. Carbonic anydrase has the 2nd fastest turnover number; therefore, it is 2nd fastest active enzyme (after catalase). Lysozyme has the lowest turnover number and therefore is slowest acting. | Biochemistry | Enzyme Kinetics | Unit of enzyme activity -
A. Millimoles / lit
B. Milligm/lit
C. Mg/dl
D. Micromoles/min
| Micromoles/min |
2e391e90-8d01-4267-84c0-9fc9c47b7011 | Measurement of Blood Loss Clot size of a clenched fist is 500 ml. Blood loss in a closed tibial fracture is 500-1500 ml; in a fracture femur is 500-2000 ml. Weighing the swab before and after use is an impoant method of on-table assessment of blood loss. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 6th edition Pgno :120 | Anatomy | General anatomy | A clot size of a clenched fist indicates blood loss of approximately
A. 100 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 300ml
D. 500 ml
| 500 ml |
befde3ba-f9ab-4318-9f26-352fea3cb45e | Ans. A. Twin to twin transfusion syndromeTwin Twin Transfusion Syndrome: TttsOccurs in monochorionic diamniotic twin gestation resulting from unidirectional flow through deep arteriovenous anastomoses in the shared placenta. In this syndrome blood is transfused from a donor twin to its recipient sibling such that the donor may eventually become anemic and its growth may be restricted. In contrast, the recipient becomes plethoric, develop circulatory overload manifest as hydrops, polycythemic, may develop hyperviscosity and Occlusive thrombosis is another concern. Finally, polycythemia in the recipient twin may lead to severe hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus.TTTS is diagnosed based on two criteria:(1) presence of a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy(2) hydramnios defined if the largest vertical pocket is 8cm in one twin and oligohydramnios defined if the largest vertical pocket is 2cm in the other twin.TTTS is typically staged by the Quintero (1999) staging system:Stage I--urine is still visible sonographically within the bladder of the donor twin.Stage II--criteria of stage I, but urine is not visible within the donor bladder.Stage III--criteria of stage II and abnormal Doppler studies of the umbilical artery, ductus venosus, or umbilical vein.Stage IV--ascites or frank hydrops in either twin.Stage V--demise of either fetus.Treatment - laser ablation of the vascular anastomoses | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Multiple Pregnancy | Quintero staging is used for:
A. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
B. Twin reversed arterial perfusion
C. Discordant twins
D. Monoamniotic twins
| Twin to twin transfusion syndrome |
a644e647-6641-41f0-b704-1c941ee72187 | Phosphatidic acid is a precursor of phosphatidylglycerol, which in turn gives rise to cardiolipin. This phospholipid is found only in mitochondria and is essential for the mitochondrial function. Decreased cardiolipin levels or alterations in its structure or metabolism cause mitochondrial dysfunction in aging and in pathological conditions including hea failure, hypothyroidism, and Bah syndrome (cardiac skeletal myopathy). Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 15. Lipids of Physiologic Significance. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Which among the following is a major lipid of mitochondrial membrane?
A. Lecithin
B. Inositol
C. Plasmalogen
D. Cardiolipin
| Cardiolipin |
9a7ffb17-ffb3-4eef-8b09-397be560bd3c | This is a very interesting question – They are testing our knowledge as well as application ability.
Osteogenesis imperfecta is associated with otosclerosis.
Vander Hoeve syndrome is a triad of: | ENT | null | In osteogenesis imperfecta, the tympanogram is -
A. Flat
B. Non-compliance
C. High-compliance
D. Low-compliance
| Low-compliance |
f2e25a8a-8c75-4a6c-b86e-08c8ddd90fd5 | Site for putting chest drain in pleural effusion → 7th ICS mid axillary line
Site for putting needle in spontaneous pneumothorax → 2nd ICS, mid clavicular line. | Surgery | null | Most common site for putting chest drain in case of pleural effusion -
A. 2nd intercostal space midclavicualar line
B. 7th intercostal space midaxillary line
C. 5th I.C. space mid clavicular line.
D. 5
| 7th intercostal space midaxillary line |
40ea8cbd-e762-4cf1-b8f6-989081f0cfe2 | B i.e. Section 174 Cr Pc Autopsy (in general) should only be conducted when there is an official order authorizing the autopsy. Authorisation (an official order) for a medicolegal autopsy is given by Coroner, police or MagistrateQ. Inquest (in dowry daths) should be conducted by a Magistrate (section 176 (1) CrPC) or police officer not below the rank of Dy SP (deputy superintendent of police). In all cases of unnatural death of a female with in 7 years of marriage or if she is below the age of 30 years, autopsy has been made compulsory (section 174 (3) CrPC) and it has to he carried out by 2 medical officers in cases of death due to burns. So the facts written above make it very clear that both police officer (above Dy SP) and Magistrate can investigate (inqueset) a dowry death case; and both can authorize autopsy. But it is the section 176 (1) CrPC which orders Magistrate inquest (and thus authorizing magistrate for autopsy) ; whereas section 174 (3) CrPC makes autopsy compulsory in every case of dowry death and a death of < 30 years of female. | Forensic Medicine | null | A woman died within 5 years of marriage under suspicious circumstances. Her parents complained that her in laws used to frequently demand for dowry. Under which of the following sections can a magistrate authorize autopsy of the case?
A. Section
B. Section 174 Cr Pc
C. Section 176 Cr Pc
D. Section 304 IPC
| Section 174 Cr Pc |
6ff9c40b-ac07-496c-a787-5e94492b4f3b | Heat ruptures are associated with irregular margins. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Page 286 and 28th Edition, Page 283 | Forensic Medicine | null | Heat Rupture is characterized by:
A. Regular margins
B. Irregular margins
C. Ruptured blood vessels
D. Ruptured Red Blood cells
| Irregular margins |
1281e717-c9b5-4515-b7ae-1246f7120006 | (a) Klebsiella(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 1; 1212)Rhinoscleroma is a bacterial granuloma caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis also known as Frisch bacillus.Rhinosporidium seeberi, an aquatic protistan protozoa (unicellular) parasite, causes a granulomatous condition called rhinosporidiosis.Spirochete (syphilis) and autoimmune conditions (e.g. Wegener's granulomatosis) are the other nasal granulomatous conditions. | ENT | Nose and PNS | Rhinoscleroma is caused by:
A. Klebsiella
B. Autoimmune
C. Spirochetes
D. Rhinosporidium
| Klebsiella |
4aa6fd87-50e9-4994-9dab-4482a664b72f | Vasa pre : Color Doppler is the investigation of choice. A transabdominal color Doppler sonography which show 'flow' in vessels overlying the internal cervical os. A Transvaginal ultrasound with color Doppler is even better method to demonstrate this. The APT test is a biochemical test done to differentiate maternal and fetal blood when a pregnant woman presents with a vaginal bleeding episode. Most vaginal bleeding in antepaum hemorrhage are due to abruption and Placenta pre. Placental abruption (32 percent), pre (21 percent), and cervical bleeding (6.6 percent) were the most frequent causes However, when these are not confirmed , then to suspect fetal bleeding due to Vasa Pre, an APT test is done. Here, the vaginal blood is mixed with NaOH, and if the hemoglobin gets denatured ( Colorless) then its maternal blood. A positive APT test would indicate that blood is of fetal origin. A negative test indicates that the blood is of maternal origin. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Antepaum Haemorrhage | Investigation of choice for diagnosis of vasa pre is:
A. APT test
B. Color doppler
C. MRI
D. HSG
| Color doppler |
49e489aa-1ce8-4c8d-98ca-6cef64366b1e | FROZEN SHOULDER OR ADHESIVE CAPSULITIS OR PERIAHRITIS SHOULDER It is characterized by progressive pain and stiffness of the shoulder, which usually resolve spontaneously.There is significant restriction in both active and passive range of motion. A. Painful Inflammatory Freezing Phase Lasts 2-9 months B. Phase of Progressive Stiffness Lasts 3-12 months Pain decreases and stiffness increases Attempt to exceed range of stiffness is accompanied by pain C. Resolution/Thawing Phase Lasts 1-3 years (can be as sho as 1 month) Shoulder slowly and progressively becomes more supple. | Orthopaedics | Neuromuscular disorders | Gradual painful limitation of shoulder movements in an elderly suggest that the most probable diagnosis is:
A. Ahritis
B. Osteoahritis
C. Periahritis
D. Myositis ossificans
| Periahritis |
03910027-a73d-47b7-94d1-6695eb5389a5 | Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg no: 193 Beta blockers are not used in CCF except metoprolol and carvedilol due to their antioxidant propeies they are used only in chronic CHF not in acute in acute CCF or CHF, diuretics , digoxin are used | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Beta blockers are not indicated in
A. Acute CHF
B. Hypeension
C. Chronic CHF
D. Arrhythmia
| Acute CHF |
9a8dac4c-cd88-4a75-abf4-9577d032cd79 | Transbronchial biopsy helps differentiate idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) from similar syndromes with specific treatments. These include chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, and sarcoidosis. | Medicine | Respiratory | A previously well 53-year-old man develops progressive shortness of breath. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive defect and a high-resolution CT suggests pulmonary fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely role of transbronchial biopsy in this condition?
A. assess disease severity
B. assess possible bronchiolar narrowing
C. diagnose specific causes of interstitial lung disease
D. determine degree of inflammation
| diagnose specific causes of interstitial lung disease |
ef0def21-ff48-43cf-8707-78bc7d95725f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subdiaphragmatic migration of gas * One type of pain that is unique to laparoscopy is the post laparoscopy shoulder pain due to the phrenic nerve irritation to the diaphragm caused by the CO2 gas that remains in the abdomen at the end of the procedure. When the patient sits up, the gas moves upwards to the diaphragm and irritates it leading to referred pain C3-C%. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | Laproscopic procedure patient develops shoulder pain due to -
A. Subphrenic abscess
B. Positional pain during surgery
C. Subdiaphragmatic migration of gas
D. Injury to liver
| Subdiaphragmatic migration of gas |
30580d2d-7ee8-4125-8fc0-33dbb18e0438 | Verrucous epidermal nevus is also known as linear verrucous epidermal nevus or linear epidermal nevus. They are characterized by localized or diffuse, closely set, skin-colored, brown, or gray-brown verrucous papules, which may coalesce to form well-demarcated papillomatous plaques. Extensive distribution of a verrucous epidermal nevus is termed systemized epidermal nevus. Epidermal nevi may present in conjunction with other epidermal lesions such as cafe-au-lait macules, congenital hypopigmented macules, and congenital nevocellular nevi. Complete excision of an epidermal nevus to the level of the deep dermis is necessary to prevent recurrences. Ref: Thomas V.D., Snavely N.R., Lee K.K., Swanson N.A. (2012). Chapter 118. Benign Epithelial Tumors, Hamaomas, and Hyperplasias. In L.A. Goldsmith, S.I. Katz, B.A. Gilchrest, A.S. Paller, D.J. Leffell, N.A. Dallas (Eds), Fitzpatrick's Dermatology in General Medicine, 8e. | Skin | null | Child presents with linear verrucous plaques on the trunk with vacuolation of keratinocytes in S.Spinosum and S.Granulosum. Diagnosis is?
A. Incontinentia pigmenti
B. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C. Verrucous epidermal nevus
D. Linear darier's disease
| Verrucous epidermal nevus |
bfce8100-c4f4-4885-86ee-4263586d029c | Clefting of the lip and/or palate is felt to occur around the eighth week of embryogenesis, either by failure of fusion of the medial nasal process and the maxillary prominence or by failure of mesodermal migration and penetration between the epithelial bilayer of the face. The cause of orofacial clefting is felt to be multifactorial. Factors that likely increase the incidence of clefting include,Increased parental ageDrug useInfections during pregnancySmoking during pregnancyFamily history of orofacial clefting. | Anatomy | null | A midline cleft lip is present when there is failure of fusion between the following structure?
A. Mandibular processes
B. Medial nasal processes
C. Medial and lateral nasal process
D. Medial nasal and maxillary process.
| Medial nasal processes |
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