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NARP syndrome (neuropathy ,ataxia, & retinitis pigmentosa) is a condition related to changes in mitochondrial DNA Refer Harrison 17/316-317 Robbins 8/1328
Anatomy
General anatomy
NARP syndrome is seen in A. A. Mitochondrial diseases B. B. Glycogen storage diseases C. C. Lysosomal storage diseases D. D. Lipid storage diseases
A. Mitochondrial diseases
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Measles prevention is only by immunisation and vaccination. No chemoprophylaxis(Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st Edition page no.136)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
Which disease doesn't require chemoprophylaxis? A. Measles B. Conjunctivitis C. Cholera D. Malaria
Measles
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ANSWER: (A) TamsulosinREF: KDT 7th ed p. 135, Goodman Gillman s 11th ed p. 173Tamsulosin:This unselective alpha! ./alpha blocker has been found to be as effective as terazocin for symptomatic control of BPHPrazosin: blocks all subtypes of alpha receptors equally, used for symptomatic control of BPH Terazosin: long acting, more popular for BPH due to single daily dose
Pharmacology
Anti Adrenergic System
Alpha la adrenergic blocker giving symptomatic relief in BPH? A. Tamsulosin B. Prazosin C. Oxazocin D. Dolazoline
Tamsulosin
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Ketamine along with adjunctive therapy is the standard therapy in the treatment of children with status asthmaticus and impending respiratory failure. Ketamine cause bronchodilation through the inhibition of vagal tone, release of endogenous catecholamines and by direct muscle relaxation.
Anaesthesia
null
Which is the anesthetic agent of choice in a case of status asthmaticus? A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone C. Ether D. Nitrous Oxide
Ketamine
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Preformed toxin of S. aureus causes nausea within 1-6 hours of ingestion. Common food associated are: Poultry, potato and egg salad.
Medicine
null
A 22 year old man had a Beef sandwich and Potato salad. He Vomited 2 hours after the meal. What is the probable diagnosis A. S. aureus poisoning B. Bacillus cereus poisoning C. Clostridial poisonong D. Helicobacter pylori poisoning
S. aureus poisoning
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Neostigmine, sold under the brand name Prostigmin among others, is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis, Ogilvie syndrome, and urinary retention without the presence of a blockage. It is also used together with atropine to end the effects of neuromuscular blocking medication of the non-depolarizing type. Refer 7/105
Anatomy
General anatomy
Which of the following is an alkaloid A. Morphine B. Neostigmine C. Emetine D. Atropine
Neostigmine
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Incubation period of mumps is 2-3 wks Ref Harrison20th edition pg 897
Medicine
Infection
The incubation period of mumps is- A. 1 -2 weeks B. 2-3 weeks C. 3-4 weeks D. 4-5 weeks
2-3 weeks
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The uterine vessels are found in the inferior poion of the broad ligament, while the ovarian vessels are found in the suspensory ligaments of the ovaries. The suspensory ligaments of the ovaries are peritoneal folds covering ovarian aeries , veins, nerves, and lymphatics as the structures pass over the pelvic brim to reach the ovary. The ovarian ligament proper is a round cord which attaches the ovary to the uterus, just below the entrance of the uterine tube into the uterus. The round ligament of the uterus is a connective tissue band that attaches the uterus to the inner aspect of the labium majus,it traverses the inguinal canal and it is found in the broad ligament. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 38. Anatomy. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
During a hysterectomy and an oophorectomy, the uterine and ovarian vessels must be ligated. These vessels can be found in which ligaments? A. Broad and ovarian B. Broad and suspensory C. Round and ovarian D. Round and suspensory
Broad and suspensory
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Ans. A. Docosahexaenoic acidDocosahexaenoic acid (DHA) is a long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acid found in breast milk that plays a role in neurodevelopment. Breast milk DHA concentration is influenced by DHA in the mother's diet.
Pediatrics
Nutrition
Fatty acid present in breast milk which is important for growth and CNS development is: A. Docosahexaenoic acid B. Palmitic acid C. Linoleic acid D. Linolenic acid
Docosahexaenoic acid
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The most common cause of limp in a child between 3-10 years is transient synovitis of hip. However, among the given options Perthe's disease is the best answer as Perthes disease is the second most common cause of limp in a child between 5-10 years.
Orthopaedics
null
The commonest cause of limp in a child of seven years is - A. T.B. hip B. C.D.H C. Perthe's disease D. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Perthe's disease
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Ans. is 'a' i.e.,. Temporal Arteritis The symptom and the laboratory examination of the patients almost confirm the diagnosis of temporal arteritis.This question has been asked too frequently in various PGME examination you are required to be well versed with the differential diagnosis of a headache.Let's see the diagnostic features of various headaches.A migraineAge - Females after pubertySex - Females > malePresentationLateralised*usually frontotemporalPain preceded by Aura*Builds up gradually*May lasts for several hoursUsually throbbing but may be dull*Onset is after awakening & quietened by Sleep*.* Associated symptoms includeNausea, vomiting, Diarrhoea, photophobia* & Visual disturbance*Paresthesia with tingling and numbness*Other focal neurological symptoms such as clumsiness & weakness *.Cluster HeadacheMen in 20 - 50*Male>F (7 to 8 times)*Lateralised*Periorbital*Pain(periodic attacks 1-2/days)*Begins without warning. Reach crescendo within 5 min last for 45 minutes*Excruciating deep, explosive but only rarely pulsatile*.Commonly awakens the patients from sleep*.Associated SymptomsHomolateral lacrimation*Reddening of eye*Nasal stuffiness*Ptosis*Nausea*Trigeminal Neuralgia> 40 YearsOccurs along the distribution of Maxillary nerve*Electric in character*Episodic each episode lasts 2-4 min.The typical course is relapsing-remitting over several years.Temporal ArteritisMedian age 75 yrs*Female (Account for 65% cases)*Unilateral or Bilateral located temporarily in 50% patients*Usually appear graduallyOccasionally it is explosive.Dull and boring in character,Seldom throbbing.Scalp tenderness*Patients also complains of pain in jaw*Headache is usually worse at night.Associated symptomsHeadache, fever, weight lossJaw claudication*Polymyalgia Rheumatica*ESR Increase*Anemia*Blindness d/t ophthalmic artery involvement*.A tension HeadacheAt all agesFemalesBilateral Frontal area *Builds up slowlyFluctuates in severityPersists continuously for many days.A headache may be episodic or chronic.A tight band like discomfort*Associated symptomsNot prominentSometimes post neck muscles are tight*May be associated with anxiety & depression*.
Unknown
null
A 64-year-old lady Kamla complains of severe unilateral headache on the right side and blindness for 2 days. On examination, there is a thick cord-like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm / hr. in the first hour. The most likely diagnosis is : A. Temporal arteritis B. A migraine C. Cluster headache D. Sinusitis
Temporal arteritis
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Management of CA prostate- T1a- observation+ Follow up (DRE+ PSA)- T1b, T1c, T2* > 70 years - Observation + follow up* < 70 years - Radical prostectomy Or RadiotherapyT3, T4 * Hormone therapy > Palliative radiotherapy* Bilateral Orchidectomy + Flutamide* LHRH Agonist (Goserelin, Leuperolide) + Flutamide- Goserelin -Recently FDA approved for advanced and metastatic CA prostate
Surgery
Prostate and seminal vesicles
An 85 years old man underwent transurethral resection of prostate. A histological examination of his specimen showed T1a stage of adenocarcinoma: management will be: A. Endocrine therapy B. Radical surgery C. Hormone therapy D. No fuher treatment
No fuher treatment
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- Sec. 328 IPC - Causing hu by means of poison, etc with an intent to commit an offence shall be Punishment is imprisonment upto 10 years and also fine. - Sec.326 A IPC - voluntarily causing grievous hu by means of acid - Sec.327 IPC - voluntarily causing hu to exto propey - Sec. 329 IPC - voluntarily causing grievous hu to exto propey
Forensic Medicine
Indian Legal system, Legal sections & Cou procedures
Causing hu by means of poison, etc with an intent to commit an offence is punishable under A. Sec. 328 IPC B. Sec.326 A IPC C. Sec.327 IPC D. Sec. 329 IPC
Sec. 328 IPC
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Answer is option 2 M3 DIC is common, especially in M3, with prolonged prothrombin time, low levels of fibrinogen and fibrin degradation products (FDPs) present. myeloid luekemia.
Pathology
Haematology
DIC is seen most commonly seen in which ANIL type? A. M2 B. M3 C. M4 D. M5
M3
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Peptic ulcer Contraindications of Aspirin Peptic ulcer Prostaglandin has cytoprotective function for gastric mucosa by inhibiting acid secretion and promoting secretion of mucus. Aspirin inhibits synthesis of cytoprotective PG -3 bleeding & perforation may occur. Children with chicken pox & influenza Aspirin can cause Reye's syndrome (hepatic encephalopathy). Acknowledging this aspirin should not be given to children < 12 years, e.g. in JRA. Bleeding tendencies By its antiplatelet action, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding. Chronic liver disease Long-term therapy with high dose aspirin can cause insidious onset hepatic injury.
Pharmacology
null
Aspirin is contraindicated in? A. Fever B. Peptic ulcer C. Unstable angina D. Myalgia
Peptic ulcer
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Semicircular canals contain cristae which sense angular or rotational acceleration
ENT
Anatomy of Inner Ear
Semicircular canals are stimulated by: A. Gravity B. Linear acceleration C. Rotation D. Sound
Rotation
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Vitamin K is an essential factor to a liver carboxylase that adds a carboxyl group to glutamic acid residues on five of the impoant clotting factors: prothrombin, Factor VII, Factor IX, Factor X, and protein C.Ref: Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 13th edition. Page: 490
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors include A. II and III B. IX and X C. III and V D. VIII and XII
IX and X
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Cell cycle Correct sequence: G0-G1-S-G2-M Most impoant checkpoint: G1-S Cellular content doubled in: S phase Cyclins D,E,A,B appears sequentially Cyclin D - first to increase in cell cycle Cyclin D - controls G1-S transition P16 (CDKN2A), P53& RB - Induce cell cycle arrest at G1-S Cyclin B - controls G2-M transition Fixed time is required for: S & M phase Most radio-resistant phase: S Most radio-sensitive phase: M
Pathology
General pathology
Cells are most radio-resistant in A. S phase B. M phase C. G1 phase D. G2 phase
S phase
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A normal chromosome appear constricted at the centromere, this divides each chromosome into two arms. The sho arm is designated as p arm and the long arm is designated as q. Ref: Primate Anatomy: An Introduction By Friderun Ankel-Simon, 3rd Edition, Page 552 ; Clinical Laboratory Medicine By Kenneth D. McClatchey 2nd Edition, Page 568 ; Folia Biologica 2001, Page 146
Anatomy
null
Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome? A. Acrocentric B. Telocentric C. Submetacentric D. Metacentric
Acrocentric
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Interveebral disc calcification seen in : Ochronosis /Alkaptonuria Ankylosing spondylitis Pseudogout Hemochromatosis Hypervitaminosis D Transient interveebral disc calcification Juvenile chronic ahritis Hyperparathyroidism Amyloidosis Poliomyelitis Acromegaly
Radiology
Skeletal system
Calcification of interveebral disc is seen in - A. Gout B. Rheumatoid ahritis C. Alkaptonuria D. Psoriasis
Alkaptonuria
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Epidermal turnover time - skin doubling time -Time taken by keratinocytes to move from Stratum Basale to environment. -Around 14 days are required to move from Stratum Basale to reach lowermost layer of Stratum Corneum & 14 days to cross Stratum Corneum. -Sloughing off requires 28 days So total ETT =56 days (8 weeks) The turnover time in psoriasis = 4 days.
Dental
Layers of epidermis, dermis
Normal turnover rate of epidermis: A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 8 weeks
8 weeks
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Exudate from chopped roots
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Which one of the following describes the flavouring substance asafoetida (Fling)? A. Dried leaf extract B. Exudate from chopped roots C. Pith of stem boiled and dried D. Dried and hardened paste of fruit
Exudate from chopped roots
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The development of the serum ascites-to-albumin gradient (SAAG) has replaced the description of exudative or transudative fluid. When the gradient between the serum albumin level and the ascitic fluid albumin level is >1.1 g/dL, the cause of the ascites is most likely due to poal hypeension; this is usually in the setting of cirrhosis. When the gradient is <1.1 g/dL, infectious or malignant causes of ascites should be consideredIn Budd Chiari syndrome SAAG is >1.1 i.e poal hypeensionReference: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 35; Cirrhosis and its complications
Medicine
Nutrition
In which of the following condition serum ascites-to-albumin gradient is > 1.1 A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pancreatitis C. Peritoneal carcinomatosis D. Budd chiari syndrome
Budd chiari syndrome
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The strength attained by amalgam within 8 hours is 70%. Reference: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials, Pg-353
Dental
null
The strength attained by amalgam within 8 hours is A. 60% B. 70% C. 80% D. 90%
70%
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Interpretation of benign symptom (extra beats) as a serious illness (cardiac disorder) is suggestive of Hypochondriosis.
Psychiatry
null
A non diabetic, non hypertensive patient has some extra beats in pulse. Doctor informed that is benign and no intervention required. But patient is worried that it is a serious cardiac disorder and is still going for repeated investigation & going from doctor to doctor. This is a type of: A. Conversion disorder B. Hypochondriosis C. Somatization D. Depression
Hypochondriosis
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Ans. C. Is a reducing agent, thereby helping to keep iron in the ferrous stateAscorbic acid enhances iron absorption mostly by its reducing capacity, keeping iron in the ferrous state. Ascorbic acid does not enhance heme iron absorption, nor does it affect heme oxygenase activity or the production of ferritin or transferrin.
Physiology
Misc.
Ascorbic acid is a potent enhancer of iron absorption because it: A. Enhances the absorption of heme iron B. Enhances the activity of heme oxygenase C. Is a reducing agent, thereby helping to keep iron in the ferrous state D. Decreases the production of ferritin by enterocytes
Is a reducing agent, thereby helping to keep iron in the ferrous state
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A i.e. Thyrotoxicosis Grave's ophthalmopathy is most common cause of U/L or B/L proptosis in adults Q between age of 25-50 yrsQ
Ophthalmology
null
Most common cause of unilateral proptosis is A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Retinoblastoma C. Intraocular haemorrhage D. Raised intracranial tension
Thyrotoxicosis
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Ans. is 'a'i.e., Monocytes o The monocytes migrate to tissues and become part of the tissue (fixed) macrophages.o Blood macrophages - Monocyteso Tissue macrophages - HistiocytesTissue macrophages (histiocytes) in different tissue are mentioned below -o Lung: 'Alveolar macrophages' or 'Dust' cellso Placenta: Hoffbauer cellso Brain: Microgliao Kidney : Mesangial cellso Liver : Kupffer cellso Spleen : Littoral cellso Bone: Osteoclastso Synovium: Type-A lining cellso Skin: Langerhans cellso Spleen: Red pulp sinusoidal lining cellso Connective tissue: Histiocytes (tissue macrophages)o Life span of monocytes in circulation is 1-3 days whereas tissue macrophages have life span of 3 months to years
Pathology
Cell and Tissue Regeneration
Macrophage is - A. Monocytes B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes
Monocytes
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Ans is 'd' i.e. Posterior urethral valve Poor urinary stream in 3 years old boy suggests urinary tract obstruction (usually infravesical) and the most common cause of obstructive uropathy in a male child is posterial urethral valve. Posterior urethral valve These are symmetrical folds of urothelium extending distally from prostatic urethra to external urinary sphincter. It most commonly lies just distal to the verumontanum or at the verumontanum* It occurs only in males. It behaves as flap valves so, although urine does not flow normally a urethral catheter can be passed without difficulty. Sometimes, the valves are incomplete and the patient remains without symptoms until adolescence or adulthood. Approximately 30% of patients experience end stage renal disease Vesicoureteral reflux occurs in 50% of patients. Diagnosis is made by (a) voiding cystourethrogram* & (b) endoscopy Both of these investigations clearly depict the site of obstruction. The diagnosis can be established prenatally by ultrasound.* Management First a small polyethylene feeding tube is inseed in the bladder and left for several days. Then fuher management is done according to serum creatinine level. (a) with normal serum creatinine --> transurethral ablation of the valve leaflets. * (b) With increased serum creatinine and the worsening of condition --> vesicostomy to bypass the obstruction and when normal creatinine levels are achieved, transurethral ablation is done.
Surgery
null
A three years old boy presents with poor urinary stream. Most likely cause is - A. Stricture urethra B. Neurogenic bladder C. Urethral calculus D. Posterior urethral valve
Posterior urethral valve
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Subluxation of head of radius Pulled elbowo If a young child is lifted by the wrist, the head of the radius may be pulled partly out of the annular ligament, i.e., subluxation of the head of the radius.o Ir occurs when forearm is pronated, elbow is extended and longitudinal traction is applied to the hand or wrist, e.g., lifting, spinning or swinging a child with wrist or hand. Pulled elbow most commonly occurs between the age of 2-5 years.Clinical features of pulled elbowo History of sudden axial pull on extended elbow.o Immediately child starts crying and is unable to move the affected elbow.o The forearm is held in pronation and extension and any attempt to supinate is resisted,o Child does not allow to touch the affected limb,o X-ray seems to be normal.Treatment of pulled elbowo Treatment is simple. The child's attention is diverted, the elbow is quickly supinated and then slightly flexed.o This reduces the subluxation or dislocation and the radial head is relocated with a snap.
Orthopaedics
Dislocation of Elbow Joint
Pulled elbow means - A. Fracture of head of radius B. Subluxation of head of radius C. Fracture dislocation of elbow D. Fracture ulna
Subluxation of head of radius
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Ans, is 'b' i.e., 0[?]5 - 0[?]8 mg/L o The recommended level of fluoride in drinking water in the country is accepted as 0-5 to 0-8 mg.; Liter. -Park o The maximum permissible limit is T5 mg/L it.
Unknown
null
Recommended level of fluoride in drinking water- A. 0.2-0.5 mg/L B. 0.5-0.8 mg/L C. 0.8-1.2 mg/L D. 1.2-2.0 mg/L
0.5-0.8 mg/L
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Renal cell carcinoma *Renal cancers are mostly sporadic, except for a 4% cases which appear familial *Familial renal cancers are due to mutation of VHL and MET genes*98% of all renal cancers (sporadic and familial) are due to VHL mutation encoded in chr3p*Most common cause of familial papillary renal cell carcinoma (rare disease) is MET protooncogene*Most common risk factor for all renal cancers- Tobacco*Most common type of renal cell carcinoma is clear cell carcinoma , which is followed by papillary carcinoma, chromophobe carcinoma and collecting duct carcinoma*Most common type of renal cancer in patients who develop dialysis associated cystic disease - Papillary carcinoma*VHL is a tumour suppressor gene. Mutation of both the VHL genes causes angiogenesis (by increasing expression of hypoxia inducible factor-1) and cell growth (by increasing expression of insulin like growth factor -1)*Renal cell carcinoma mostly affects the poles Microscopic findings:*Classic clinical features of renal cell carcinoma - Costoveebral pain, palpable mass and hematuria*Clear cell carcinoma -Cells with clear cytoplasm containing glycogen and lipids, delicate capillaries*Papillary carcinoma - Papillary formations, foam cells in interstitium, psammoma bodies*Collecting duct carcinoma - irregular channels lined by atypical cells and show hobnail pattern*Chromophobe cell carcinoma - cells with abundant cytoplasm impaing blue colour in Hale's colloidal iron stain (Ref: Robbins 8/e p964)
Pathology
Urinary tract
Hobnail pattern is seen in which type of RCC A. Clear cell B. Papillary C. Chromophobe D. Collecting duct
Collecting duct
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Perhaps the use of word “treatable” is inappropriate here since all the types of dementia can be “treated”. The examiner most likely wants to ask the types which can be “reversed” or “cured”
Psychiatry
null
Treatable causes of dementia are -a) Alzheimer's ds.b) Hypothyroidismc) Multi-infarct dementia d) SDH (subdural h'ge) e) Hydrocephalus A. abc B. ade C. bde D. bce
bde
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., 24 mm o The length of the eyeball is approximately 24 mm, So the distances from the cornea / crystalline lens to the retina and the focal length of optical rays focused by the comea/crystalline lens propagating in the vitreous humor and imaging on the retina, are also about 24 mm.Dimensiosn of an adult eyeAnteroposterior diameter (Length)24 mmHorizontal diameter23-5mmVertical diameter23 mmCircumference75 mmVolume6-5 mlWeight7 gm
Ophthalmology
Anatomy
Normal axial length of the eye - A. 18mm B. 20 mm C. 24mm D. 28 mm
24mm
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Mad Cow Disease is related to both scrapie in sheep and bovine spongiform encephalopathy virus. The fear in Great Britain is the potential for acquiring Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, which is a slowly progressive neurodegenerative disease. Theoretically, such acquisition could be through ingestion of beef from infected cows. A prion consists of protein material without nucleic acid. While related to a virus, a prion is a proteinaceous infectious particle that replicates within cells.
Microbiology
Virology
Mad Cow Disease has been highly publicized in Great Britain. This disease, which is similar to scrapie, is caused by A. A prion B. A virus C. Rickettsiae D. An autoimmune reaction
A prion
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In typical depressive episodes of all three varieties described below (mild, moderate, and severe), the individual usually suffers from depressed mood, loss of interest and enjoyment, and reduced energy leading to increased fatigability and diminished activity. Reference: International classification of diseases 10, page 119.
Psychiatry
Mood disorders
Which of the following has to be present for diagnosis of major depressive disorder A. Loss of interest or pleasure B. Recurrent suicidal tendency C. Insomnia D. Indecisiveness
Loss of interest or pleasure
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Halban's disease: Rare, self-limiting process. Also called Irregular shedding endometrium Due to persistent corpus luteum due to incomplete withdrawal of LH even on 26 in day of cycle. The corpus luteum continues to secret progesterones Menstruation comes on time, is prolonged but not heavy. Slight bleeding continues intermittently for several days after proper flow. On D& C done on 5-6th of cycle - endometrial tissue shows presence of proliferative endometrium along with secretory endometrium
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception
Halban's disease is due to A. Persistent corpus luteum B. Deficient corpus luteum C. Persistent trophoblast D. Deficient trophoblast
Persistent corpus luteum
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The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is a macroscopic, nontreponemal flocculation card test used to screen for syphilis. RPR antigen is prepared from a modified VDR antigen suspension containing choline chloride to eliminate the need to heat inactivate serum, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) to enhance the stability of the suspension, and finely divided charcoal paicles as a visualizing agent. Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 374
Microbiology
Bacteriology
The RPR test uses VDRL antigen containing fine A. Carbon paicles B. Iodine paicles C. Silver ions D. Sodium ions
Carbon paicles
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Ref. KDT. Page. 793 Fluconazole They inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme ‘lanosterol 14-demethylase’ and thus impair ergosterol synthesis leading to a cascade of membrane abnormalities in the fungus. lower affinity for mammalian CYP450 enzymes and lesser propensity to inhibit mammalian sterol synthesis – causes less side effects It is a water-soluble triazole having a wider range of activity Indications include cryptococcal meningitis, systemic and mucosal candidiasis in both normal and immunocompromised patients, coccidioidal meningitis and histoplasmosis
Unknown
null
What is the mechanism of action of Fluconazole? A. Inhibits fungal mitosis B. Inhibits lanosterol 14 demethylase C. Inhibits squalene epoxidase D. Inhibit ß1,3 glucan synthase
Inhibits lanosterol 14 demethylase
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Most common benign neoplasm is cavernous hemangioma Most common hepatic neoplasm is metastasis Most common primary malignant tumor is Hepatocellular carcinoma.
Pathology
null
Which of the following is the most common benign neoplasm of liver A. Hepatic adenoma B. Cavernous hemangioma C. Lipoma D. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia
Cavernous hemangioma
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Answer- C. Aplastic anemiaThe patient in question is having Pancytopenia (anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia) - Feature of Aplastic anemia.
Medicine
null
A patient presents with Hb of 8 gm%, WBC count of 2000/mm3 and platlet count of 60000/mm3. What is your likely diagnosis ? A. Thalassemia B. Sickle cell anemia C. Aplastic anemia D. Anemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anemia
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Little's area-Anteroinferior pa of nasal septum- formed by- anterior ethmoidal aery,septal branch of superior labial aery,septal brach of sphenopalatine aery,greater palatine aery. Ref.Dhingra 6/e,p 176.
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
Which aery does not contribute to little's area: A. Anterior ethmoidal aery B. Septalbrach of facial aery C. Sphenopalatine aery D. Posterior ethmoidal aery
Posterior ethmoidal aery
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Ans: a (Genital herpes) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed, p. 113Heipes genitalis is caused by HSV type 2. It is the most common DNA viral infection encountered in vulval disease.Symptoms: Tingling, itching, paraesthesia - vesicles - painful ulcers.Treatment: AcyclovirNote:Genital warts (condyloma accuminata) caused by HPV 6,11.Heipes zoster is caused by varicella virus.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Specific Infections
HSV 2 causes: A. Genital herpes B. Genital warts C. Herpes zoster D. Genital ulcer
Genital herpes
b7dbb26c-6bcd-45bf-bb23-2bee4c01c17f
normal Range in glycosylated haemoglobin 7% to 9 % for < 5 yrs 6 % to 8 % for > 5 yrs
Anaesthesia
Pre Anesthetic Evaluation
What is normal range of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) for adequate glycaemic control in diabetic patient- A. 6% to 8 % B. 8 % to 10 % C. 4 % to 6 % D. 10 % to 12 %
6% to 8 %
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Nephrotic range of proteinuria is > 40 mg/m2/hr or  > 1 gm/m2/24hrs.
Pediatrics
null
Nephrotic range of proteinuria is A. > 30 mg/m2/hr B. > 40 mg/m2/hr C. > 2 gm/m2/24hrs D. > 4 gm/m2/24hrs
> 40 mg/m2/hr
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Ans. is 'd' i.e., TVrosine Thyroid hormones (Important facts)o Thyroid hormones are T4 (throxine) and T3 (Triiodothyroxine)o Thyroid hormones are synthesised from amino acid tyrosine.o Their synthesis is regulated by TSH, a hormone secreted by anterior pituitary.o T3 is the active form and T4 is converted to T, in liver and kidney. Thus T4 mainly serves as transport form,o Circulating thyroid hormones are bound to thyroxine binding globulin fmain binding protein), throxine binding albumin and throxine binding prealbumin.o Thyroid hormone has two main function.i) Morphogenesis: - Growth & differentiation.ii) Calorigensis : - It increases all metabolism producing energy.
Physiology
Endocrinology metabolism
Thyroxine is synthesized from which amino acid- A. Arginine B. Lysine C. Methionine D. Tyrosine
Tyrosine
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M. tuberculosis 4-8 weeks is required before growth is detected. New methods have decreased the time required for bacteriologic confirmation of TB to 2-3 weeks. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1350
Medicine
null
The normal time required to culture mycobacterium TB is : A. 4-8 weeks B. 2-3 weeks C. 6-10 weeks D. 21 days
4-8 weeks
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NRR is the most significant indicator of feility. Sterilization accounts for 80% of effective couple protection and hence is the best method among the above choices.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Which of the following means of contraception is the best method to achieve Net Reproductive Rate (NRR)=1? A. IUCD B. Condoms C. Vasectomy D. Oral pills
Vasectomy
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Koch's Triangle is a triangle enclosed by the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve, the coronary sinus, and the membranous pa of the interatrial septum.Koch's triangle: Walter Karl Koch (1880-1962) was a distinguished German surgeon who discovered a triangular-shaped area in the right atrium of the hea that marks the atrioventricular node (known as Koch's triangle).The three sides of the triangle are defined by the following structures within the right atrium: The ostium of the coronary sinus, posteriorly; The anterior poion of the tricuspid valve annulus; and The tendon of Todaro (a tendinous structure connecting the valve of the inferior vena cava ostium to the central fibrous body), posteriorly.Impoance:Used as an anatomical landmark for location of the atrioventricular node during electrophysiology procedures such as pacing or ablation.
Anatomy
null
Boundary of the Koch's triangle is not formed by? A. Tricuspid valve ring B. Coronary sinus C. Tendon of todaro D. Limbus fossa ovalis
Limbus fossa ovalis
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Prostaglandins were believed to be pa of the prostatic secretions, and eventually were discovered to be produced by the seminal vesicles. ... The biochemists Sune K. Bergstrom, Bengt I. Samuelsson and John R. Vane jointly received the 1982 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their research on prostaglandins. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition
Physiology
Endocrinology
Prostaglandin was discovered from A. Tear B. Saliva C. Seminal fluid D. Blood
Seminal fluid
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Cytokines Proinflammatory                                      Anti-inflammatory  o Major:- IL-1,                                      o IL-4, IL-10, IL-13 TNF-alpha, IL-6 o Other:- IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-11, IL-12, IL-15, IL-21, IL-23, IFN- gamma, GM-CSF o Here, you can consider IL-4 as pro-inflammatory cytokine ( as more than one options can be correct in PGIchandigarh).
Pathology
null
Which of the following is not a proinflammatory cytokine - A. IL 10 B. IL 8 C. IL 11 D. TNF alpha
IL 10
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Menkes syndrome is an X linked recessive disorder characterized by a mutation in ATP7a or MNK gene encoding copper binding ATPase leading to deficient copper transpo and metabolism with subsequently low serum copper. Pili tori is the most common hair manifestation, showing flattening and twisting at 180 degree angles. Children show progressive neurologic degeneration with mental retardation, failure to thrive and hypotonia. X-linked Recessive disease is seen only in males because males have only one X chromosome. There is no male to male transmission. Heterozygous females are clinically normal but may be detected by subtle clinical features. Ref: Embryology By Ronald W. Dudek, 3rd Edition, Page 229 ; The Busy Physician's Guide to Genetics, Genomics and Personalized Medicine By Kevin M. Sweet, Page 41; Clinical Genetics In Nursing Practice By Felissa R. Lashley 3rd Edition ; Dermatology Terminology By Herbe B. Allen, Page 100
Pathology
null
Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother's brother also died of the same condition. What is the mode of inheritance of kinky hair disease which is running in this family? A. X-linked recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant
X-linked recessive
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C.tetani produces two distinct toxins- a hemolysin(tetanolysin), and neurotoxin(tetanospasmin). Tetanospasmin: This is the toxin responsible for tetanus. This toxin acts pre-synaptically. The abolition of spinal inhibition causes an uncontrolled spread of impulses initiated anywhere in the central nervous system. This results in muscle rigidity and spasms. Tetanolysin: it is not relevant in the pathogenesis of tetanus. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Edition; Pg: 265
Microbiology
Bacteriology
Which is the principal virulence factor in Clostridium tetani A. Tetanolysin B. Tetanospasmin C. Tetanotactin D. Immobility factor
Tetanospasmin
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Leukemia is most common radiation induced cancer. Others: Thyroid, Breast Carcinoma
Radiology
null
Most common radiation induced cancer: A. Thyroid Carcinoma B. Breast Carcinoma C. Leukemia D. Sarcomas
Leukemia
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Anthracyclines, taxanes, fluorouracil, psoralens, and zidovudine may induce nail pigmentation through melanocyte stimulation in nail matrix resulting in melanonychia. It appears to be reversible and dose-dependent and appears 3-8 weeks after drug intake.
Dental
Disorders of nail
Drug that may induce nail pigmentation - melanonychia: A. Retinoids B. Carbamazepine C. Tetracyclines D. Zidovudine
Zidovudine
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ANSWER: (D) T7REF: Gray's Anatomy 30th edition page 819, Instant Anatomy by Robert H. Whitaker, Neil R. Borley 4th edition Page 199See APPENDIX- 9 below for "VERTEBRAL LEVELS"The scapula is a large, flat, triangular bone which lies on the posterolateral aspect of the chest wall, covering parts of the second to seventh ribs (also T7). It has costal and dorsal surfaces, superior, lateral and medial borders, inferior, superior and lateral angles, and three processes, the spine, its continuation the acromion and the coracoid process. APPENDIX - 9Vertebral Levels (Mnemonic: All Bifurcations (B 14-cation) are at The Level of 4)C4Hyoid bone; Bifurcation of common carotid artery.C5Thyroid cartilageC6Cricoid cartilageTrachea beginsOesophagus begins Pharynx and larynx endsC7Thoracic duct reaches its greatest height; Isthmus of thyroid glandT1Sternoclavicular joint; Highest point of apex of lung.T2Sternal notchJugular notchT4Sternal angle (of Louis)Junction of superior and inferior mediastinumAscending aorta endsArch of aorta begins and ends.Bifurcation of tracheaTSIVC hiatusT9Xiphisternal jointT10Oesophageal hiatusT12Aortic hiatusThoracic duct through diaphragmAzygos vein through diaphragmLIEnd of spinal cord in adults Transpyloric plane Pylorus of stomach Superior mesenteric artery originHilum of kidneys (renal artery-left is above and right is below)Celiac artery originates just above and renal arteries originate just below this line.L2Thoracic duct begins; Azygos and hemiazygos beginL3UmbilicusEnd of spinal cord in newborns Inferior mesenteric arteryL4Iliac crestAorta bifurcates into common iliac arteries.Inferior vena cava formed from common iliac veins.S1Sacral promontoryS2Posterior superior iliac spineEnd of dural sac (Dura, arachnoid, subarachnoid space, CSF)Middle of sacroiliac jointS3Posterior inferior iliac spineEnd of sigmoid colonRectum begins (important landmark in surgery of recto sigmoid carcinoma).
Anatomy
Osteology of Thorax
Inferior angle of scapula is at the level of? A. T4 B. T5 C. T6 D. T7
T7
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Cataract 39% Glaucoma 10% tracoma3% diabeticretinopathy 4% Ref-Park&;s textbook of Preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. .
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
Other than cataract, which one among the following is the highest prevalent cause of blindness in the world - A. Corneal opacity B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Glaucoma D. Trachoma
Glaucoma
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The severity of head injury is classified according to glassglow coma scale(GCS) as it is the best predictor of neurological outcome. Mode of injury and age of the patient help in initial evaluation and management, CT helps in confirmation of the diagnosis. Their prognostic value is less when compared to GCS. Reference: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 26th edition, Pg no:313
Surgery
Trauma
Best prognostic factor for head injury is A. A.Glasgow coma scale B. B.Age C. C.Mode of injury D. D.CT
A.Glasgow coma scale
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dermatitis herpatiformis Immunopathological appearance of vesicobullous disorderso Bullous pemphigoid-Linear band of IgG or C3 in epidermal basement membraneo Pemphigus vulgaris-Cell surface deposits of IgG on keratinocyteso Pemphigus foliaceous-Cell surface deposits of IgG on keratinocyteso Pemphigoid gestationis-Linear band of C3 in epidermal basement membrane zoneo Dermatitis herpeteformis-Granular deposits of IgA in dermal papillaeo Chronic bullous disease of childhood-IgA deposits along the dermoepidermal junctiono Linear IgA dermatosis of adults-Linear deposits of IgA at dermoepidermal junction
Skin
Autoimmune Skin Disorders
Granular deposit of IgA at dermoepidermal junction is seen in - A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Dermatitis herpatiformis D. Pemphigus foliaceous
Dermatitis herpatiformis
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T cell receptor for antigen: The TCR is the recognition molecule for T cells. The TCR is a transmembrane heterodimeric protein containing two disulfide-linked chains. It is composed of two different classes of TCR called: alpha-beta (a and b) and gamma-delta (g and d). The majority of the T cells contain the ab TCR phenotype. However, a smaller percentage of T cells express the g d TCR. The ab T cells are subdivided by their surface markers: CD4 or CD8. They recognize peptide antigens presented by MHC molecules on the surfaces of APC's (antigen-presenting cells) The g d T cells are primarily located in the epithelial linings of the reproductive and GI tracts.(aiims nov. 2020). Theyrecognize different type of antigenswithout the requirement of MHC Prostglandins( eicosanoids) are the lipid compounds acting as mediators of pain and inflamation .they have diverse action such as bronchodilation ,vasodilataion etc.. IgG AND IgD are immunoglobolins involved in defence mechanism
Microbiology
Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)
The type of receptors present on T cells is- A. IgG B. IgD C. CD4 D. Prostaglandins
CD4
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Pyogenic granulomas) are pedunculated masses usually found on the gingiva of children, young adults, and pregnant women. These lesions are richly vascular and typically are ulcerated, which gives them a red to purple color. In some cases, growth can be rapid and raise fear of a malignant neoplasm. However, histologic examination demonstrates a dense proliferation of immature vessels similar to that seen in granulation tissue. Pyogenic granulomas can regress, mature into dense fibrous masses, or develop into a peripheral ossifying fibroma. Complete surgical excision is definitive treatment. (Robbins basic pathology,9th edition,pg no.553)
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
Pathological feature of pyogenic granuloma A. Epitheloid cells B. Cavernous hemangioma C. Granulation tissue D. Giant cells
Granulation tissue
950da998-b5c3-4495-b7df-6c7b332a11be
Most prominent feature of alzheimer’s disease is neuronal loss, fibrillary tangles, loss of synapses and amyloid plaque formation.
Medicine
null
Which of the following is most characteristic of the brain in patients with Alzheimer’s disease A. Pigmentary degeneration in hippocampus B. Demyelination in cerebral cortex C. Posterior column degeneration D. Neuronal loss in cerebral cortex
Neuronal loss in cerebral cortex
cf01daea-216b-4143-8e4f-eb8d480fd4d3
Grasp is best as..~ by offering a red cube to the ol.j)d. A 6-month-old infant reaches and holds the cul-e {b.rg? object) in a crude manner usincr the ulnar asf'C'l-'i: of r~ hand (Fig. 3_27). He can transfer ~bjects from one h.md t::i oth~ by 6-1 months. The child is able to grasp from the radial side of hand at 8-9 months (Fig. 328). B\* the ab'" ci 1 year, mature grasp (index finuer and thumb) is e,iJo.t (Fig. 3.29). 0 By offering pellets (smaller object), finer hand skills;.:~ assessed. By 9-10 months, the child approaches the pelletby an index finger and lifts it using finger thumb apposition, termed 'pincer' gras
Pediatrics
Growth and development
A mature pincer grasp is attained at ------ months A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 18
12
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Pityriasis rosea REF: Dermatology. 1995; 190(3): 252. PubMed PMID: 7599393, Clinical Pediatric Dermatology - By Thappa page 104 PITYRIASIS ROSEA The primary eruption, herald patch (Mother spot) is a single oval or round patch with a central wrinkled salmon colored area and a darker peripheral zone separated by a "collarette of scales" (when stretched across the long axis, the scales tends to fold across the line of stretch, the so called Hanging cuain sign).
Skin
null
Hanging cuain sign seen in? A. Pityriasis rosea B. Pityriasis Versicolor C. Pityriasis rubra pilaris D. Pityriasis lichenoides chronica
Pityriasis rosea
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hemorrhage "Post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage is the most common complication, occuring in approximately 2 to 5%, and should be taken seriously "._________Bellenger's otolaryngologyComplications of tonsillectomyo Complications of tonsillectomy may beImmediateDelayedImmediate complicationsPrimary haemorrhage : Occurs at the time of operation. It can be controlled by pressure, ligation or electrocoagulation of the bleeding vessels.Reactionary haemorrhage: Occurs within a period of 24 hours.Injury to tonsillar pillars, uvula, soft palate, tongue or superior constrictor muscle due to bad surgical technique.Injury to teeth.Aspiration of blood.Facial oedema : Some patients get oedema of the face particularly of the eyelids.Surgical emphysemaDalayed complicationsSecondary haemorrhage: Usually seen between the 5th to 10th post-operative day. It is the result of sepsis and premature separation of the membrane. Usually, it is heralded by bloodstained sputum but may be profuse.Infection : Infection of tonsillar fossa may lead to parapharyngeal abscess or otitis media.Lung complications : Aspiration of blood, mucus or tissue fragments may cause atelectasis or lung abscess.Scarring in soft palate and pillars.Tonsillar remnants : Tonsil tags or tissue, left due to inadequate surgery, may get repeatedly infected.Hypertrophy of lingual tonsil: This is a late complication and is compensatory to loss of palatine tonsils.
ENT
Pharynx
Most common complication of tonsillectomy is- A. Hemorrhage B. Teeth injury C. Pneumonia D. Otitis media
Hemorrhage
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Answer is B (Bupropion): Bupropion (along with Varenicline and Nicotine replacement therapy) is a USFDA approved first line agent for pharmacotherapy in Smoking Cessation. USFDA Approved Agents for Smoking Cessation Nicotine Replacement Therapy (Transdermal Patch, gum, lozenges, oral inhaler, nasal spray) Bupropion (Atypical Antidepressant with dopaminergic and noradrenergic activity) Varenicline (Selective paial agonist at the Alpha4-Beta2 Nicotinic A-Choline receptor that is believed to mediate nicotine dependence) Clonidine and Noriptyline are two other medications that have efficacy but are NOT USFDA approved for this indication. These are classified as second line agents.
Medicine
null
Which of the following drugs, is used for Smoking Cessation? A. Naltrexone B. Bupropion C. Buprenorphine D. Methadone
Bupropion
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C. i.e. (24 - 36 hours before ovulation) (37-Shaw's 14th/64-Dutta 4th)* LH surge precedes ovulation by 24 to 36 hours (mean 30 hours) and minimum of 75 ng/ml is required for ovulation (37 - Shaw's 14th)* LH levels remains almost static throughout the cycle except at least 12 hours prior to vulation. When it attains its peak, called LH surge (64 - Dutta 4th)* The main function of LH is steroidogenic, but along with FSH. It is responsible for full maturation of the graffian follicle and oocyte and ovulation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
LH surge occurs at A. At the time of ovulation B. 5-6 days before ovulation C. 24-36 hours before ovulation D. 24 - 72 hours after ovulation
24-36 hours before ovulation
d98182ac-2901-40fa-b570-fdbbc4253a02
Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Metabolic alkalosis o Features of adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) are :-i) Hypoglycemiaii) Hyperpigmentationii) Hyperkalemiaiv) Hyponatremiav) Hypotensionvi) Metabolic acidosiso Associated features are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal cramps.
Physiology
Adrenal
Adrenal insufficiency in not associated with - A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
590dd219-71b7-4baf-8bdb-f6abe054200f
Answer is B (Hereditary spherocytosis) Splenectomy is curative in hereditary spherocytosis. Splenectomy is carried out in all symptomatic patients Q because of the potential for gall stones and stones and episodes of bone marrow hyperplasia or hemolytic crisis Q It reliably corrects the anemia and RBC survival often becomes normal or nearly so. The operative risk is low. Remember Splenectomy is not carried out in young children e (preferably postponed until age 4) in order to minimize the risk of severe infections Q with gram positive encapsulated organisms.
Medicine
null
Splenectomy is most useful in : A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. H.S. purpura D. Sickle cell anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
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Epidemic hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by Coxsackie Virus A24 or Enterovirus 70 (members of the Family Picornaviridae). HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)- causes oral herpes and genital herpes. HZV (Herpes Zoster Virus) -causes Shingles. HIV -cause AIDS.
Microbiology
Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
Epidemic hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by - A. HSV B. HZV C. HIV D. Picorna virus
Picorna virus
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Accidents are a common features in most industries. In fact, some industries are known for accidents, eg: coal and other mining industries, quarrying, construction work.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
The industry, with the highest accidental death rate and long held to be the most dangerous occupation is – A. Agriculture B. Construction C. Mining and quarrying D. Trade
Mining and quarrying
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The metabisulfite test is used to detect the presence of hemoglobin S, but it does not differentiate the heterozygous sickle cell trait from the homozygous sickle cell disease. The test is based on the fact that erythrocytes with a large propoion of hemoglobin S sickle in solutions of low oxygen content. Metabisulfite is a reducing substance that enhances the process of deoxygenation. The osmotic fragility test is a diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis. Spherocytes lyse at a higher concentration of salt than do normal cells, thus causing an increased osmotic fragility. The direct antiglobulin test (DAT), or Coombs' test, is used to differentiate autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) due to the presence of anti-red cell antibodies from other forms of hemolytic anemia. In this test, antibodies to human immunoglobulin cause the agglutination (clotting) of red cells if these anti-red cell antibodies are present on the surface of the red cells. In patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, the erythrocytes are excessively sensitive to complement-mediated lysis in low ionic environments (the basis for the sucrose hemolysis test) or in acidotic conditions, such as sleep, exercise, or the Ham's acid hemolysis test. The Schilling test, which measures intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 with and without intrinsic factor, is used to diagnose decreased vitamin B12 caused by pernicious anemia, which is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition.
Pathology
miscellaneous
A 22-year-old African American male wants to know if he has sickle cell trait. He has no previous history of the signs or symptoms of sickle cell anemia. What laboratory method or test can be used to detect the presence of hemoglobin S? A. Coombs' test B. Osmotic fragility test C. Metabisulfite test D. Sucrose hemolysis test
Metabisulfite test
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Earliest clinical feature of Senile cataract is Glare Most common symptom at presentation is Frequent change of glasses
Ophthalmology
null
Earliest clinical feature of Senile cataract A. Glare B. Frequent change of glasses C. Coloured halos D. Uniocular polyopia
Glare
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Capacitation is the process of reconditioning of the sperm, making it more suitable for penetration into the ovum. It takes about 6-8 hours and occurs in FGT chiefly in the tubes.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Time taken for capacitation of sperms is A. 2-4 hours B. 4-6 hours C. 6-8 hours D. 8-10 hours
6-8 hours
5b2d1bda-0768-4c72-b54b-b6aaa4738de9
Method Utility to control confounding Randomization 2nd best method Restriction Limiting study to people who have paicular characteristics Matching Mostly useful in case control studies, MC used method Stratification Useful for larger studies Statistical modeling When many confounding variables exist simultaneously Stratified randomization Best method
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
Best method to remove confounding is A. Randomization B. Restriction C. Stratified randomization D. Multivariate analysis
Stratified randomization
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Occulomotor nerve Most unruptured intracranial aneurysms are completely asymptomatic. Symptoms are usually due to rupture and resultant subarachnoid hemorrhage. Occasionally neurological symptoms may arise due to mass effect of the aneurysm. Progressively enlarging unruptured aneurysm most commonly involves the occulomotor nerve. This usually occurs .from an expanding aneurysm at junction of post communicating aery and internal carotid aery. Other neuropathies due to intracranial aneurysms are Cavernous sinus aneurysm can produce sixth nerve palsy. Supraclinoid carotid or anterior cerebral aery aneurysm can produce visual field defects. Posterior inferior cerebellar aery or anterior inferior cerebellar aery aneurysm may present as occipital & posterior cervical pain. An expanding middle cerebral aery aneurysm can produce pain in or behind the eye & in the low temple. Ophthalmic aery aneurysm can cause visual loss by compressing optic nerve.
Surgery
null
Nerve compressed by aneurysm of posterior communicating aery is A. Occulomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Hypophysis cerebri D. Trochlear nerve
Occulomotor nerve
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(Asthma) (726- Robbins 7th) (485- 492- HM 5,h) (492- Basic pathology 8th)* Bronchial Asthma - Histologically the mucous plugs contain whorls of shed epithelium. Which give rise to the well known Curschmann spirals*, Numerous eosinophils and charcot Leyden crystals* are present* The other characteristic histologic findings of asthma collectively called "airway remodeling"* REID INDEX is the ratio between thickness of the submucosal mucous glands (i.e, hypertrophy and hyper plasia) in the cartilage containg large airway to that of the total bronchial wall seen in chronic bronchitis**
Pathology
Respiration
Curschmann spirals are found in A. Broncitis B. Asthma C. Bronchiectasis D. Lung abscesses
Asthma
e38f2f41-bc94-4276-85c9-d4225212a141
Answer- D. 4 hour Once the blood bag is opened hy puncturing one of the sealed pos, the platelets must be administered within 4 hours
Medicine
null
Platelets transfusion must be completed in how many hours after entering the bag A. 1 hour B. 2 hour C. 3 hour D. 4 hour
4 hour
fea384f5-4913-4f7d-b24c-fb01fe8cde7a
Ans. is c, i.e. 3x2x1 inchesRef: Jeffcoates Principle of Gynae 9/ed, pg 32Remember, best answer to this question is 3.25x2.5x1.5 inches.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Anatomy
Size of uterus in inches: A. 5x4x2 B. 4x3x1 C. 3x2x1 D. 4x2x1
3x2x1
deb53386-ca4b-48e0-b6de-489537df647b
<p>Improved medical management of chronic kidney disease now allows many patients to survive for decades and hence time enough to develop features of renal osteodystrophy, which must be controlled to avoid additional morbidity. Impaired production of 1,25(OH) 2 D is now thought to be the principal factor that causes calcium deficiency, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and bone disease; hyperphosphatemia typically occurs only in the later stages of CKD. Low levels of 1,25(OH) 2 D due to increased FGF23 production in bone are critical in the development of hypocalcemia. The uremic state also causes impairment of intestinal absorption by mechanisms other than defects in vitamin D metabolism. Nonetheless, treatment with supraphysiologic amounts of vitamin D or calcitriol corrects the impaired calcium absorption. Since increased FGF23 levels are seen even in early stages of renal failure in some patients, and have been repoed to correlate with increased moality, there is current interest in methods (lowering phosphate absorption) to lower FGF23 levels and concern as to whether vitamin D supplementation (known physiologically to increase FGF23) increases FGF23 in CKD. Hyperphosphatemia in renal failure lowers blood calcium levels by several mechanisms, including extraosseous deposition of calcium and phosphate, impairment of the bone-resorbing action of PTH, and reduction in 1,25(OH) 2 D production by remaining renal tissue(harrison 18 pg 3116)</p>
Medicine
Endocrinology
Hypocalcemia with hyperphosphatemia are seen in. A. CRF B. Pseudobypoparathyoidsm C. Vit-D deficiency D. Vit-D deficiency
CRF
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Dens in Dente  (Dens invaginatus, dilated composite odontome) The  ‘dens in dente’  is a  developmental variation which is thought to arise as a result of an invagination in the surface of tooth crown before calcification has occurred. Several causes of this condition have been proposed. These include increased localized external pressure, focal growth retardation, and focal growth stimulation in certain areas of the tooth bud. The permanent maxillary lateral incisors are the teeth most frequently involved,  and in the majority of cases the  ‘dens in dente’ appears to represent simply an accentuation in the development of the lingual pit. Radiological signs Dens in dente represent a tooth-shaped, enamel-covered mass within the crown and/or root of the tooth but which may traverse the length of the tooth. Dilated odontome represents the most extreme form of this anomaly and exhibits a grossly altered morphology that is internally outlined by a dense linear radiopacity. In both cases, the apical region may or may not display an open apex and there may be associated adjacent apical rarefaction.
Radiology
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The specific name of the anomaly shown in the following radiograph is: A. Dens in dente B. Dilated odontome C. Dens invaginatus D. Ghost tooth
Dilated odontome
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The physical finding of facial asymmetry is suggestive of an abnormality involving the facial nerve (CN VII). The facial nucleus, which is located within the pons, is divided in half, the upper neurons innervate the upper muscles of the face, while the lower neurons innervate the lower poion of the face. It is impoant to realize that each half receives input from the contralateral motor coex, while only the upper half receives input from the ipsilateral motor coex. Therefore an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion will produce a defect involving only the contralateral lower half of the face. Causes of UMN lesions involving the facial nerve includes strokes that involve the coex or the internal capsule. In contrast, lesions that affect the facial nerve from the facial nucleus to the remaining length of the nerve result in LMN lesions. Patients present with facial asymmetry involving the ipsilateral upper and lower quadrants. Lesions to the facial nerve within the facial canal (frequently due to cold weather) cause Bell's palsy. Patients present with paralysis of all muscles of facial expression. Bell's phenomenon refers to the finding of the affected eye looking up and out when patients try to close their eyes. Because the lacrimal punctum in the lower eyelid moves away from the surface of the eye, lacrimal fluid does not drain into the nasolacrimal duct. This produces "crocodile tears." ref - pubmed.com
Medicine
C.N.S
An upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion involving cranial nerve VII would most likely produce A. Contralateral weakness of the lower half of the face with sparing of the upper half of the face B. Decreased gag (pharyngeal) reflex with decreased taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue C. Hemianesthesia of the face with flaccid paralysis of the muscles of mastication D. Ipsilateral anosmia with primary amenorrhea in females
Contralateral weakness of the lower half of the face with sparing of the upper half of the face
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One of the anticholinergic effects is dry skin due to absence of sweating due to blockade of m3 receptors on sweat glands Datura is nothing but atropine-anticholinergic drug Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 114-116
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
Dry skin seen due to excess dosage of datura is due to A. Vasodilatation B. Absence of sweating C. Central action D. Change in BMR
Absence of sweating
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Ans: c (Palmer sign) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 66Perception of rhythmic uterine contraction on bimanual examination in pregnancy is Palmer sign. It is done as early as 4-8 weeks. This is one of the signs used to diagnose pregnancy. There are various signs and symptoms to detect early pregnancy. These are listed below:Diagnosis of pregnancy1st trimester - Amenorrhoea- Morning sickness- Freq. of micturition- Breast discomfortPlacental signBleeding at the time of next periodHartman signImplantation bleedingJacquemiersign(Chadwick sign)Blue hue of vestibule and anterior vaginal wallOsiandersignIncreased pulsation in the lateral fornixGoodell signCervix becomes softPiskacek signDuring lateral implantation one half of the uterus becomes more firm than other halfHegars signOn bimanual palpation upper uterus and cervix are felt separately, due to the softening of lower part of body of uterus.(6-10 weeks)Palmer signRhythmic uterine contraction during bimanual examination.2nd trimester- Quickening (16-18 wks)- Chloasma (20 wks)- Breast changes - Secondary areola- Montgomery tubercles -Colostrum - 12 wks- Linea nigra- Striae gravidarum- Ext. ballotment- Int. ballotment
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
Perception of uterine contraction is known as: A. Chadwik sign B. Goodell sign C. Palmer sign D. Hegar sign
Palmer sign
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Ans. (a) Placental siteRef. Dutta's Obstetrics, 7th ed. 1433PUERPERAL SEPSIS* An infection of the genital tract which occurs as a complication of delivery is termed puerperal sepsis.* Sources of infection may be endogenous where organisms are present in the genital tract before delivery.Mode of infection* Puerperal sepsis is generally a wound infection.* Placental site being a raw surface in the endometrium is the most common site for infection.* Other causes of puerperal sepsis may be laceration of the genital tract or may be CS section wound infection by organisms like anaerobic strep, E. Coli, staph etc.* Anaerobic streptococcus is the most common cause of Puerperal sepsis.* The primary sites of infections are: Uterus, Perineum, Vagina, Cervix.
Unknown
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The most common site of puerperal infection is: A. Placental site B. Cervical laceration C. Episiotomy wound D. Vaginal laceration
Placental site
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Greenhouse gases are CO2 Methane CFC 12 HCFC 22 Nitrous oxide Tetrafluoromethane SO2 is not a Greenhouse gas but it causes global warming Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 794
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
Gas causing global warming but is not a greenhouse gas? A. CO2 B. SO2 C. CFC D. Ozone
SO2
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Papillary hypertrophy into polygonal papilla is arranged in cobblestone or pavement stone fashion.
Ophthalmology
null
Features of vernal keratoconjunctivitis are – a) Papillary hypertrophyb) Follicular hypertrophyc) Herbert's pitsd) Tantra\'s Spote) Ciliary congestion A. b B. c C. ac D. ad
ad
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Ans. A i.e. Early morning hyperglycemia Impoant terms Dawn phenomenon: Glucose level rise in early morning Somogyi effect: Rebound hyperglycemia may appear after 1-24 hours after moderate to severe hypoglycemia
Medicine
null
Dawn phenomenon refers to: March 2013 A. Early morning hyperglycemia B. Early morning hypoglycemia C. Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia D. High insulin levels
Early morning hyperglycemia
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Drugs used for Hirusitism: 1.Ovarian Suppression agents a.Oral Contraceptives b.Cyproterone acetate. c.GnRH agonist and antagonist. 2.Adrenal suppresion agents a.Glucocoicoids. 3.Androgen receptor blocking agents a.Spironolactone b.Flutamide. c.Cyproterone acetate. 5. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor a.Finasteride. Shaw's textbook of Gynecology 16th edition page no 152
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
PCOD, hirsutism and galactorrhea
Women with PCOS and Hirsutism, management is : A. Ethinyl estradiol B. Ethinyl estradiol + Cyproterone Acetate C. Levonorgestrel D. Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrel
Ethinyl estradiol + Cyproterone Acetate
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Gaucher disease results from mutation in the gene that encodes glucocerebrosidase. There are three autosomal recessive variants of Gaucher disease resulting from distinct allelic mutations. Common to all is variably deficient activity of a glucocerebrosidase that normally cleaves the glucose residue from ceramide. This deficit leads to an accumulation of glucocerebroside, an intermediate in glycolipid metabolism, in the mononuclear phagocytic cells and their transformation into so-called Gaucher cells. (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no. 231)
Pathology
General pathology
Gaucher's disease is inherited as? A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant
Autosomal recessive
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Gamma Rays are used in Radioisotope studies/scintigraphy studies Bone scan is a radioisotope study done using Tc99m -MDP to detect skeletal metastasis Fluoroscopy and CT scan uses Xrays Radiowaves are used in MRI
Radiology
Radiotherapy Pa 1
Gamma Rays Are used in which Diagnostic Modality ? A. Fluoroscopy B. CT Scan C. MRI D. Bone scan
Bone scan
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methanol poisoning Methyl alcohol (methanol)o Methanol is highly toxic alcohol. It is metabolized to formaldehyde (by alcohol dehydrogenas) and formic acid (by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase).o It is the accumulation of formic acid which causes toxic effects in methanol poisoning. Accumulation of formic acid results in lactic acidosis/high anion gap metabolic acidosis with low plasma bicarbonates, blindness due to retinal damage, papilledema.o Methanol poisoning can be treated by supportive measures, gastric lavage and sodium bicarbonate (to treat acidosis). Ethanol is useful because it competitively inhibits the conversion of methanol to formic acid. Fomepizole can also be used as it is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase. Folic acid or folinic acid. Enhance the metabolism formic acid to CO2. Hemodialysis may also be used.
Pharmacology
Alcohol
Fomepizole acts as antidote for - A. Methanol poisoning B. Cannabis poisoning C. Lead poisoning D. Cadmium Poisoning
Methanol poisoning
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The thymus matures at pubey, thus attaining the maximum size Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition
Physiology
Endocrinology
Lymphoid tissues reach their maximum size: A. In early childhood B. During adolescence C. At pubey D. At 20 years of age
At pubey
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., 2 to 15 days Incubation period of gonorrhea is 2 - 8 days.
Microbiology
null
Incubation period of gonorrhoea is - A. Less than 24 hrs B. 1 to 2 days C. 2 to 15 days D. 12 to 25 days
2 to 15 days
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acalculous cholecystitis is not an uncommon entity, but can be commonly missed.* It is common in patients who have undergone major surgeries, trauma, burns, or any other stress or in cases of cholecystoses. * Common in ICU patients. ACUTE CHOLECYSTITIS * Commonly it occurs in a patient with pre-existing chronic cholecystitis but often also can occur as a first presentation. * Usual cause is impacted gallstone in the Hamann's pouch, obstructing cystic duct. ref : SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed,pg no 576
Surgery
G.I.T
Which of the following are causes for cholecystitis wxcept? A. Estrogen B. OCP C. Diabetes mellitus D. Obesity
Diabetes mellitus
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ATP is not produced by NADPH. ATP is produced by reducing equivalents like NADH, FADH2. W When NADH and other reducing equivalents transfer their electrons through Electron transpo chain in the Mitochondrial inner membrane and generate proton motive force which brings about the ATP synthesis by the ATP synthase complex. Both nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) or nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+) are co-factors of vitamin niacin used by dehydrogenases. However NAD-linked dehydrogenases catalyse oxido-reduction reactions in the oxidative pathways of metabolism, paicularly in glycolysis, in the citric acid cycle and in the respiratory chain of mitochondria.
Pharmacology
All India exam
NADPH actions in RBC are a/e A. Produce ATP B. Stabilizes the membrane C. Reductive biosynthesis D. GP6D deficiency causes decreased synthesis of NADPH
Produce ATP
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Ans. (d) Hypotension, bradycardiaRef : KDT 6th ed. / 360Systemic Effects (Physiological Alterations) of Central Neu- ralxial BlocksCARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEMThe most prominent effect is hypotension which is because of the following factors:* Venodilatation which is because of sympathetic block which maintains the venous tone.* Dilatation of post arteriolar capillaries which is again because of loss of sympathetic tone.* Decreased cardiac output which is because of:# Decreased venous return: Due to blood pooling in veins of lower limb and lower abdomen.# Bradycardia: Bradycardia can occur as a result of: Decreased atrial pressure because of decrease venous return (Bainbridge reflex) and Direct inhibition of cardioaccelerator fibres (T1 to T4).* Paralysis of nerve supply to adrenal glands with consequently decreased catecholamine release.* Direct absorption of drug into systemic circulation.* Compression of inferior vena cava and aorta by pregnant uterus, abdominal tumors (supine hypotension syndrome).NERVOUS SYSTEM* Autonomic fibres (mediated by C fibres) are most sensitive and they are blocked earliest followed by sensory and then motor fibres. So, sequence of block is Autonomic - Sensory - Motor. The recovery occurs in reverse order although number of studies have suggested return of autonomic activity before sensory.
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
High spinal anaesthesia is characterized by: A. Hypertension, tachycardia B. Hypertension, bradycardia C. Hypotension, tachycardia D. Hypotension, bradycardia
Hypotension, bradycardia
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Vesicovaginal fistula: In obstructed labor, the bladder becomes an abdominal organ and due to compression of urethra between presenting part and pubic symphysis, patient fails to empty bladder. The bladder wall gets traumatized which may lead to bloodstained urine, a common finding in obstructed labor. The bases of the bladder and urethra which are nipped in between presenting part and pubic symphysis may undergo pressure necrosis. The devitalized tissue becomes infected and later on may slough off around the 3rd to 5th day of puerperium resulting in genitourinary fistula which is a remote complication (does not present on the day of injury as in perineal tear). Causes: Obstetric cause—97% obstructed labor is the prime cause, and bladder neck is the most common site; Gynecological operations—anterior colporrhaphy, total hysterectomy, or Wertheim’s operation, sling operation.
Unknown
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Fistula formation due to the below etiology occurs within A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. 5 days D. 2 weeks
5 days
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum Botulinum Toxin Cl. botulinum produces a powerful exotoxin that is responsible for its pathogenicity. The toxin differs from other exotoxins in that it is not released during the life of organism. It is produced intracellularly and appears in the medium only on the death and autolysis of the cell. It is the most toxic substance known. Toxin is heat labile, but spores are highly heat resistant. It acts by blocking the release of acetylcholine at synapses and neuromuscular junction. It acts presynaptically. Toxin of all types (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) are neurotoxin except C2 which is a cytotoxin (enterotoxin).
Microbiology
null
Botulism is a disease of ? A. Neural transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum B. Muscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum C. Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum D. Non neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum
Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum
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Retinoscopy is an objective method of finding out the error of refraction by the method of neutralization.The end point of neutralization is either no movement or just reversal of the movement of the pupillaryshadow. Depending upon the movement of the red reflexvis-a-vis movement of the plane mirror, Following infrences are drawan No movement of the red reflex indicates myopia of 1D.With movement - emmetropia or hypermetropia or myopia of lessthan 1D.Against movement -myopia of more than 1D.
Ophthalmology
Optics and Errors of Refraction
Retinoscopy is done for: A. Examination of Retina B. Assessing surface of cornea C. Refractive errors D. Examination of vitreous
Refractive errors