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1800615f-870d-430c-9e8f-330e870e5f9b | MECHANISM OF FLUOROQUINOLONES (FQ) In gram negative bacteria, FQ inhibit DNA gyrase by binding to its A subunit and interfere with cutting and resealing function. In gram positive bacteria, FQ inhibit similar enzyme DNA topoisomerase IV. | Pharmacology | Antimetabolites and Quinolones | Mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin in gram negative bacteria:-
A. Inhibition of mycolic acid
B. Inhibition of topoisomerase IV
C. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibition of helicase
| Inhibition of DNA gyrase |
680f2013-cc37-43f2-9d1f-60c946249a06 | "Meningiomas are the most common intracranial tumor to extend to the orbit".......... Ophthalmic oncology
Meningiomas commonly arise from the dura of sphenoid wing, i.e. sphenoid wing meningioma. | Ophthalmology | null | Most common tumor to extend from intracranial to orbit is –
A. Astrocytoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Sphenoidal wing meningioma
| Sphenoidal wing meningioma |
d6579434-b7f0-4e26-b8d1-d3ea5dcc2af4 | Generation time of bacteria refers to the doubling time. Mycobacterium leprae is the slowest growing human bacterial pathogen, it has a doubling time of 14 days. It grows best at 30 degree C, at a temperature lower than body temperature, therefore it grows preferentially in the skin and superficial nerves. Mycobacterium leprae is transmitted by prolonged contact with patients with lepromatous leprosy, who discharge M. leprae in large numbers in nasal secretions and from skin lesions. 2 forms of leprosy are: Tuberculoid and Lepromatous. In tuberculoid type: CMI response to the organism limits its growth, very few acid-fast bacilli are seen, and granulomas containing giant cells form. In lepromatous leprosy: CMI response to organism is poor, the skin and mucous membrane lesions contain large numbers of organisms, foamy histiocytes rather than granulomas are found, and the lepromin skin test result is negative. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 21. Mycobacteria. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | Microbiology | null | What is the generation time of Mycobacterium leprae?
A. 2-5 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 12-14 days
D. 20-25 days
| 12-14 days |
3b95c99d-e512-42cb-a6ca-6e100513fa60 | Maturation of germ cells (spermatogenesis) within the seminiferous tubules occurs in a concentric pattern with the less mature spermatogonia near the basal lamina and the mature forms near the tubule center. Spermatogonia are 2N cells and mature into larger primary spermatocytes (4N) . These mature into secondary spermatocytes (2N) , and finally into spermatids (1N) . Spermatids undergo spermatogenesis to become mature spermatozoa . Acrosomes form from the Golgi apparatus and a flagellum forms from microtubules. Unneeded organelles are shed. The seminiferous tubules of a reproductive-age male should exhibit all stages of maturation, with mature flagellated sperm in their centers. | Anatomy | null | A 35 year old male presents to the urologist for an infeility evaluation. A biopsy of his testis is performed to check sperm production and maturation. A microscopic section reveals only a few germ cells near the basal lamina in the seminiferous tubule. Which of the following cells is the germ cell closest to the basal lamina in the seminiferous tubule?
A. Primary spermatocyte
B. Secondary spermatocyte
C. Spermatid
D. Spermatogonia
| Spermatogonia |
a227a262-f152-49e8-a5ea-cde7ea09eb7c | Apexification is the process of inducing the development of the root and the apical closure in an immature pulpless tooth with an open apex.
The main aim of apexification is to preserve the Hertwig’s root sheath and apical pulp tissue.
Ref: Textbook of endodontics, Nisha Garg and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, pg no:548 | Dental | null | A child has mid-crown fracture in a permanent
maxillary central incisor several months ago, the pulp is now necrotic, radiographic examination reveals an incompletely formed root with an open apex. The treatment of choice is:
A. Formocresol pulpotomy
B. Root canal therapy
C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
D. Apexification
| Apexification |
07524d17-bbf3-46d5-a5dc-97443d76615f | . Grading refers to the extent of necrosis andinflammations | Pathology | null | In Chronic Viral Hepatitis:
A. Hepatitis A virus infection is a common cause inchildren
B. Morphological classification into Chronic ActiveHepatitis and Chronic Persistent Hepatitis areimpoant
C. Fatty change is pathognomic of Hepatitis C virusinfection
D. Grading refers to the extent of necrosis andinflammations
| Grading refers to the extent of necrosis andinflammations |
fe2903f5-7f35-48e5-8d8a-210380d3a1ac | Double decidual sac sign on USG - Intra-uterine sac (Eccentrically placed) Outer layer - Decidua Parietalis Inner layer - Decidua Capsularis Indicates - Intrauterine pregnancy Intradecidual ring sign is the first sign of pregnancy on USG. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis of Pregnancy | The double decidual sac sign (DDSS) is the best method for ultrasound diagnosis of
A. Monoamniotic Dichorionic twins
B. Diamniotic dichorionic twins
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Normal pregnancy
| Normal pregnancy |
1a502be3-9afb-4584-b64b-f3785bda98c2 | Answer- A. LimbusLimbal stem cells (also called corneal epithelial stem cells) are stem cells located in the basal epithelial layer of the corneal limbus.Proliferation of limbal stem cells maintains the cornea; for example, replacing cells that are lost tears.Limbal stem cells also prevent the conjunctivalepithelial cells from migrating onto the surface ofthe cornea. | Ophthalmology | null | Stem cells are present where in cornea -
A. Limbus
B. Stroma
C. Epithelium
D. Descmet's membrane
| Limbus |
621c72a0-b1e7-49ee-bef6-9f7819cbbf81 | Violent shaking (by parent) may cause subdural hematoma; whereas ruptured spleen occurs due to compression of abdomen; long bone fracture due to compression, bending, direct blow, pulling and twisting; and skull fractures due to direct blow.
Caffey (1974) described the effects of shaking as a major cause of subdural haematoma and intraocular bleeding in battered babies or infantile whiplash syndrome. | Forensic Medicine | null | A child brought to casualty with reports of violent shaking by parents. The most likely injury is?
A. Long bone fracture
B. Ruptured spleen
C. Subdural haematoma
D. Skull bone fracture
| Subdural haematoma |
c86f8ca5-1e1d-4ed7-9a13-efbaa16c4073 | Head's paradoxical reflex is paradoxical to Hering- Breuer inflation reflex This reflex might be the cause for inflation of the lungs in the newborn when the newborn takes the first breath | Physiology | Nervous system | "Inflation of lungs induces fuher inflation" this is explained by
A. Hering-Breuer inflation reflex
B. Hering-Breuer deflation reflex
C. Head's paradoxical reflex
D. J-reflex
| Head's paradoxical reflex |
0b14eff2-2d49-4880-b141-d6e9e96f27aa | (C) Enterovirus # VIRAL CAUSES INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING: Enteroviruses - coxsackievirus, echovirus, poliovirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) types 1 and 2 (HSV-1, HSV-2) Varicella-zoster virus. Arboviruses, Epstein-Barr virus, HIV, Influenza virus types A and B, Mumps virus.> Many different viruses can cause meningitis.> About 90% of cases of viral meningitis are caused by members of a group of viruses known as Enteroviruses, such as Coxsacki-eviruses and Echoviruses.> These viruses are more common during summer and fall months.>Herpesviruses and the mumps virus can also cause viral meningitis. | Pediatrics | Miscellaneous | Most common cause of Acute Aseptic Meningitis in children is
A. Arbovirus
B. Respiratory syncytial virus
C. Enterovirus
D. Herpes family
| Enterovirus |
e0992ffa-0b1a-497f-9563-cd88bf5c8fd8 | Ans. C: Chronic bronchitisThe Reid Index is a mathematical relationship that exists in a human bronchus section observed under the microscope. It is defined as ratio between the thickness of the submucosal mucus secreting glands and the thickness between the epithelium and cailage that covers the bronchi.It isn't of diagnostic use in vivo since it requires a dissection of the airway tube, but it has value in post moem evaluations and for research.RI = gland/wallRI is the Reid IndexWall is the thickness of the airway wall between the epithelium and the cailage's perichondriumGland is the thickness of the mucous producing gland at the location of inspection.A normal Reid Index should be smaller than 0.4, the thickness of the wall always more than double the thickness of the glands it contains.Hyperplasia and hyperophy of mucous glands as in chronic bronchitis causes them to be present at deeper levels in the bronchial wall and thicker in size, thus increasing the Reid Index beyond the normal value. | Pathology | null | Reids index is increased in: March 2007
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
| Chronic bronchitis |
f5c442b4-0128-4b74-bf36-078a2dc00dd6 | OCD results from a regression from the oedipal phase to anal phase of psychosexual development, i.e. In OCD fixation occurs in anal stage (Note - Regression is reversion from higher level of development to lower level of development). | Psychiatry | null | In psychoanalytic terms, obsessive-compulsive disorder is fixed at -
A. Oedipal stage
B. Genital stage
C. Oral stage
D. Anal stage
| Anal stage |
eeaa0443-e294-4e6c-a749-f4b10c9e097b | Ans. is b i.e., Cysticercosis Parasitic cysts occurs in subconjunctival cysticercus, hydatid cyst and filarial cyst. | Ophthalmology | null | Subconjunctival cyst is seen in?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Chaga's disease
| Cysticercosis |
8fe5f498-31ce-49b4-869e-5ccca4178377 | A demonstration is a carefully prepared presentation to show how to perform a skill or procedure.Here a procedure is carried out step by step before an audience or the target group,the demonstrator asceaining that the audience understands how to perform it (refer pgno:864 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | The best method of teaching an urban slum about ORS is -
A. Lecture
B. Role play
C. Demonstration
D. Flash card
| Demonstration |
8dce65c5-b95d-4d53-a1d5-b74cb48d4464 | Eruption is defined as the superior pa of crown of the tooth appearing level with the surface of the alveolar bone.Temporary dentition: total 20 number of teeth, stas at 6 months till 2 years.Permanent dentition: total 32 number of teeth, stas at 6 years completed by 17 - 25 years.1st to erupt is molar 1 (M1) and last to erupt is molar 3 (M3).21st teeth refers to 1st permanent tooth, which erupts at 6 years. | Forensic Medicine | FMGE 2017 | 21st tooth erupts at:-
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
| 6 years |
3e71a440-f571-458d-b879-007d265e51fb | HEV- increases risk of fulminant hepatic failure in pregnancy | Medicine | Hepatitis | Most common viral cause of Fulminant hepatic failure in pregnancy?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
| HEV |
e0d722cf-e57d-4ad1-b61b-619d77c4cdeb | (Ref: KDT 6/e p323) Isoxsuprine and ritodrine are selective b2 agonists useful as tocolytic agents for arresting labour. Pulmonary edema is an impoant adverse effect of these agents. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | Which of the following is an adrenergic drug preferred for arresting labour?
A. Ritodrine
B. Isoprenaline
C. Salbutamol
D. Terbutaline
| Ritodrine |
440222b4-4c23-4ae3-b28d-a513db91dbfc | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diplopia in left gaze o Sixth nerve supplies lateral rectus, therefore its palsy results in abduction weakness (not adduction weakness)o In left gaze, there is abduction of left eye and adduction of right eye. If there is paralysis of lateral rectus of left eye (6th nerve paralysis), abduction of left eye will not be possible in left gaze, while adduction of right eye is normal. Therefore, there will be diplopia in left gaze. | Ophthalmology | Ocular Motility | Sixth cranial nerve palsy causes of left eye causes?
A. Accomodation paresis in left gaze
B. Ptosis of left eye
C. Adduction weakness of left eye
D. Diplopia in left gaze
| Diplopia in left gaze |
ee16afe4-8042-451b-bcc8-b12f0dcf583d | orfila is known as father of modern toxicology Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 397 | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | Father of modern toxicology -
A. Paracelsus
B. Galton
C. Orfila
D. Guftason
| Orfila |
e9e0492a-afd8-4bd8-9d51-1d34aa7f6564 | Submandibular duct is thin-walled and is about 5 cm long.it emerges at the anterior end of the deep pa of the gland and runs forwards on the hyoglossus between the lingual and hypoglossal nerves.at the anterior border of the hyoglossus, the duct is crossed by lingual nerve.it opens on the floor of the mouth on the summit of the sublingual papilla at the side of the frenulum of the tongue. Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 135 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Submandibular gland is crossed by which nerve?
A. Lingual
B. Hypoglossal
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Facial nerve
| Facial nerve |
edc8bc6a-0a6a-43e2-8e6c-71b46979e3c9 | Ans. d. Urrets Zavalia syndrome (Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">icles/PMC1770988)A fixed dilated pupil following penetrating keratoplasty is a well recognized if rare postoperative complication.The mydriasis following penetrating keratoplasty was first described by Castroviejo but it was Urrets-Zavalia who first published his observations on a series of six cases and suggested an association of fixed dilated pupil, iris atrophy, and secondary glaucoma.The pupil can become abnormally dilated following penetrating keratoplasty for keratoconus, particularly if dilating drops are used.In addition to the pupil and iris abnormalities, Urrets-Zavalia also described other features--iris ectropion, pigment dispersion, anterior subcapsular cataract and posterior synechiae.Urrets Zavalia SyndromeUrrets Zavalia Syndrome is characterized by triad of: Secondary glaucoma + Iris atrophy + Fixed dilated pupilQUrrets-Zavalia syndrome (UZS) consists of a fixed dilated pupil associated with iris atrophy.It is a poorly understood complication following penetrating keratoplasty for keratoconus.Posner Shlossman syndromeIt is also called as glaucomatocyclitic crisis.Episodic unilateral mild anterior uveitis, photophobia, reduced vision and colored rings around lights (from secondary corneal edema)Benedict's SyndromeIf red nucleus is involved, tremors and jerky movements occur in contralateral side of the body.This condition combined with ipsilateral 3rd nerve paralysis is called as Benedict's syndrome.McKusick-Kaufmann SyndromeMcKusick-Kaufman syndrome: A rare genetic disorder characterized by hydrometrocolpos (fluid buildup in vagina and uterus), extra fingers and congenital heart defects. | Ophthalmology | Secondary Glaucomas | Patient with fixed dilated pupil, with iris atrophy and secondary glaucoma after penetrating keratoplasty is suggestive of:
A. Benedict's syndrome
B. Posner-Shlossman syndrome
C. Kaufmann's syndrome
D. Urrets Zavalia syndrome
| Urrets Zavalia syndrome |
bceeefc3-dad5-4457-9a96-1a804093b44c | Ans, is 'b' i.e,. Bitemporal hemianopia Site of lesionVisual field defectOptic nerveBlindnessOptic cbiasmaBitemporal hemianopiaOptic tractIncongruent homonymous hemianopiaLateral geniculate bodyHomonymous hemianopiaOptic radiation (Total)Homonymous hemianopia, sometimes with macular sparingOptic radiation lower fibres (temporal lobe)Homonymous upper quadrantanopiaOptic radiation upper fibres (parietal lobe)Homonymous lower quadrantanopiaVisual cortex (anterior occipital cortex)Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparingOccipital cortex tipHomonymous macular defect | Ophthalmology | Lesions of the Visual Pathway | Characteristic visual field defect in optic chiasma lesion -
A. Homonymous hemianopia
B. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. Upper quadrantanopia
D. Lower quadrantanopia
| Bitemporal hemianopia |
0deceed6-5c74-4689-b838-55df0b2aebc6 | D Harper, 26th ed, p. 283 & 25th ed, p. 370 | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Ehrlich's test is done to detect:
A. Urinary amylase
B. Urinary cystine
C. Abnormal porphyrin
D. Urobilinogen
| Urobilinogen |
2c79193f-6b10-43a7-af7c-865cdba91dd6 | - During September 2000, representatives of 189 countries met at Millennium Summit in New York to adopt United nations Millennium Declaration. - the goals in the area of development and povey eradication are now referred as Millennium Development Goals. - Governments have set date of 2015 by which they would meet the MDGs. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:893 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | Millenium development goals formulated in 2000 were to be achieved by -
A. 2005
B. 2015
C. 2010
D. 2020
| 2015 |
89857ee9-3093-4da8-b3f9-fa8a8d0eb60a | Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan)6th edition,page no. 469 GREY HEPATISATION: LATE CONSOLIDATION This phase lasts for 4 to 8 days Grossly, the affected lobe is firm and heavy. The cut surface is dry, granular and grey in appearance with liverlike consistency .The change in colour from red to grey begins at the hilum and spreads towards the periphery. Fibrinous pleurisy is prominent. Histologically, the following changes are present i)The fibrin strands are dense and more numerous. ii)The cellular exudate of neutrophils is reduced due to disintegration of many inflammatory cells as evidenced by their pyknotic nuclei. The red cells are also fewer. The macrophages begin to appear in the exudate. iii)The cellular exudate is often separated from the septal walls by a thin clear space. iv)The organisms are less numerous and appear as degenerated forms. | Pathology | Respiratory system | In the stage of Grey hepatization-
A. WBC's fill the alveoli
B. RBC's fill the alveoli
C. Organisms fill the alveoli
D. Accumulation of fibrin
| Accumulation of fibrin |
60994797-e56d-4059-9a33-5d982e45d9e2 | Ans. D: 2500 gm Low bih weight (LBW) is defined as a fetus that weighs less than 2500 g (5 lb 8 oz) regardless of gestational age. Other definitions include Very Low Bih Weight (VLBW) which is less than 1500 g, and Extremely Low Bih Weight (ELBW) which is less than 1000 g. Normal Weight at term delivery is 2500 g - 4200 g. SGA is not a synonym of LBW, VLBW or ELBW. Small for gestational age (SGA) babies are those whose bih weight, length, or head circumference lies below the 10th percentile for that gestational age | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Low bih weight baby is defined as baby weighing: September 2006
A. 1000 gm
B. 1500 gm
C. 2000 gm
D. 2500 gm
| 2500 gm |
e0c2cf58-aa5c-4516-b250-79b76d99a2cc | ANSWER: (B) FluoxetineREF: Kaplan 9th ed p - 622OCDTreatment of choice: behaviour therapyDrug of choice: SSRI2nd drug of choice: comipramine | Psychiatry | Neurotic Disorders | Drug of choice for OCD is?
A. Clomipramine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Carbamezapine
D. Chlorpromazine
| Fluoxetine |
9b6f8e62-54e1-4b6d-9ec7-1acd174bdd71 | (Malignancy) (269- CMDT-08) (1658-H17th)Serum amylase level in PE - suggest pancreatits, pancreatic pseudocyst, adenocarcinoma of the lung or pancreas or esophageal rupture, - MalignancyGlucose < 60 mg/ dL - occurs in Malignancy, Bacterial infections, Rheumatoid pleuriticIncreased amvlase acids are found in perforated duodenal ulcers acute cholecystitis. High intestinal obstruction, acute mesenteric vascular occlusion, DKA leaking aortic aneurysm, mumps, ectopic pregnancy after administration of narcotics, after abdominal surgery* Bacterial pneumonia and cancer are the most common cause of exudative effusion* High concentration of cholesterol in most rheumatoid effusions | Medicine | Respiratory | Increased serum amylase in pleural effusion is seen in
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Malignancy
D. Pulmonary embolism
| Malignancy |
bdf06820-2bf1-4f27-b49d-64a09e85366a | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypothalamus PyrogenesPyrogenes are substances that cause fever.Pyrogens may be exogenous or endogenousExogenous - Bacterial toxinsEndogenous - IL-1, TNF-a, IL-6, Interferons, Ciliory's neurotropic factorThese pyrogenes increase the level of PGE, in the hypothalamus that elevates the thermoregulatory set point and causes fever. | Physiology | null | Pyrogens act on which site of brain ?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Limbic system
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus
| Hypothalamus |
02979b58-aa6b-426a-814c-f377d7ac99ab | (A) (Primordial) (39 - Park 22nd)PRIMORDIAL PREVENTION* Special attension is the prevention of chronic disease* Prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared* For example, many adult health problems (eg obesity hypertension) have their early origins in childhood, because this is the time when life styles are formed (for example smoking, eating pattern, physical exercise)* Efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles* Main intervention in primordial prevention is through individual and mass educationTABLE Levels of preventionLevelPhase of diseaseAimActionsTargetPrimordialUnderlying economic, social, and environmental conditions leading to causationEstablish and maintain conditions hat minimize hazards to healthMeasures that inhibit the emergence of environmental, economic, social and behavioural conditionsTotal population or selected groups; achieved through public health policy and health promotion.PrimarySpecific causal factorsReduce the incidence of diseaseProtection of health by personal and community efforts, such as enhancing nutritional status, providingimmunizations, and eliminating environmental risks.Total population, selected groups and individuals at high risk; achieved through public health programmesSecondaryEarly stage of diseaseReduce the prevalence of disease by shortening its durationMeasures available to individuals and communities for early detection and prompt intervention to control disease and minimize disability (e,g. through screening programmes)Individuals with established disease; achieved through early diagnosis and treatmentTertiaryLate stage of disease (treatment, rehabilitation)Reduce the number and/or impact of complicationsMeasures aimed at softening the impact of long-term disease and disability; minimizing suffering; maximizing potential years of useful life.Patient achieved through rehabilitation* 'YOGA' is a practice that involves training of the mind, body and breathing to deliver various health benefits,Repular practice of yoga can be best defined as a form of "Preventive Medicine" that has shown beneficial effects on several ailments including Backache, Anxiety, Hypertension etc.Health promotionSpecific protection* Health education* Environmental modifications* Nutritional intervention* Lifestyle and behavioural changes* Immunization *** Use of specific nutrients eg vit A *** Chemoprophylaxis* Protection against accident carcinogen etc* Protection against occupational hazards* HIV sentinel surveillance is for Detecting trend of the disease* STEPS done for surveillance of risk factors of non communicable disease | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of Health and Disease | Risk factor prevention at which level
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
| Primordial |
58a070e3-b4d0-458e-bf72-97ba8f1eea5e | Killians dehiscence is also called 'gateway of tears' | ENT | null | Gateway of tears is:
A. Rathke pouch
B. Sinus of morgagni
C. Killians dehiscence
D. Pharyngeal bursa
| Killians dehiscence |
972c5769-f186-4a55-a10a-e56c9866c7dc | "Although cobalt - 60 and cesium - 137 have been used in the past, iridium - 192 is the most commonly used radioisotope in HDR brachytherapy". — The physics of radiation therapy
Note - Cs-137 is used in HDR brachytherapy, while option c i.e. Cs - 133 (not Cs - 137). | Radiology | null | Isotope (s) used in high dose rate brachytherapy – a) lr192b) Co–60c) Cs–l33d) Ra 226 e) Pd103
A. ac
B. a
C. ab
D. bc
| ab |
324bcd12-a946-43cc-8081-ddd693151c9c | Ans. is 'a' ie Auspitz signErythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbow and knee favours the diagnosis of Psoriasis.The clinical diagnosis of psoriasis can be made by demonstrating Auspitz sign.It is a characteristic finding of psoriasis in which removal of scale leads to pinpoint bleeding.Tzanck testis used in the clinical diagnosis of PemphigusNote that Tzanck smear is used in the diagnosis of herpes virus infection.KOH smearis used for diagnosing fungal infections such as ringworm infections | Skin | Psoriasis | A patient presents with erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbows and knee. The clinical diagnosis is got by :
A. Auspitz sign
B. KOH smear
C. Tzanck smear
D. Skin biopsy
| Auspitz sign |
80771152-c449-45c4-a556-0345e358dccc | Ref Robbins 9/e p205 A positive result meansHLA-B27 was found in your blood. You may have a higher-than-average risk of ceain autoimmune diseases, such as ankylosing spondylitis and reactive ahritis. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is having a 90% associated with HLA B27
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Psoriasis
D. Reiter's syndrome
| Ankylosing spondylitis |
c7192eea-2a32-460a-a071-13bc5c005fe4 | The sinus of Morgagni or ventricle of the larynx is a narrow fusiform cleft between the vestibular and vocal folds. the anterior pa of the sinus is prolonged upwards as diveiculum between the vestibular fold and the lamina of the thyroid cailage .this extension is known as the saccule of the larynx. The saccule contains mucous glands which help to lubricate the vocal folds.it is often called oil can of larynx. Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 256 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Foramen of Morgagni refers to an opening in?
A. The brain
B. The lesser omentum
C. The skull
D. The diaphragm
| The diaphragm |
840f27e2-82d1-414c-92db-eff63a396c74 | Ans. D. Obstructive jaundiceLaboratory tests in three different types of JaundiceConditionSerum BilirubinUrine UrobilinogenUrine BilirubinNormalDirect: 0.1-0.4mg/dL Indirect: 0.2-0.7mg/dL0-4mg/24hAbsentHemolytic anemiaIndirectIncreasedAbsentHepatitisDirect and indirectDecreased if micro-obstruction is presentPresent if micro-obstruction occursObstructive jaundiceDirectAbsentPresent | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals | A 10-year-old boy presents with increase bilirubin, increased bilirubin in urine and no urobilinogen Diagnosis is:
A. Gilbert syndrome
B. Hemolytic jaundice
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
| Obstructive jaundice |
f7456bfd-fc46-4c00-b326-2c4cd6bfea77 | to establish diagnosis of rheumatoid ahritis are * Clinical criteria * ESR and CRP * Ultrasound or MRI * Rheumatoid factor and anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies DAVIDSON&;S 22nd EDITION;PAGE NO 1100 | Medicine | Immune system | Which of the following is the most specific test for Rheumatoid ahritis
A. Anti-ccp antibody
B. Anti Igm antibody
C. Anti IgA antibody
D. Anti IgG antibody
| Anti-ccp antibody |
92f241b1-5dd7-4309-be7d-575987eb3c07 | Bezold's abscess It can occur following acute coalescent mastoiditis when pus breaks through the thin medial side of the tip of the mastoid and presents as a swelling in the upper pa of the neck. The abscess may Lie deep to sternocleidomastoid, pushing the muscle outwards. Follow the posterior belly of digastric and present as swelling between the tip of mastoid and angle of the jaw. Present in the upper pa of the posterior triangle. Reach the parapharyngeal space. Track down along the carotid vessels. Clinical features: Onset is sudden. Pain Fever Tender swelling in the neck Toicollis The patient gives a history of purulent otorrhoea. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 87) | ENT | Ear | A young male presents with ear discharge since three years; recently developed swelling in the neck below and behind the angle of mandible, toicollis; on the examination, the external auditory canal was filled with granulation tissue. What is the diagnosis?
A. Luc's abscess
B. Citelli's abscess
C. Bezold's abscess
D. Parapharyngeal abscess
| Bezold's abscess |
ec560c3b-7ce3-46f5-9020-9263cb87db0f | The 4 components of kangaroo mother care are all essential for ensuring the best care option especially for low bih weight babies. This include: Skin to skin contact on mothers chest Adequate nutrition through breast feeding Ambulatory care as a result of earlier discharge Suppo for mother and family in caring baby. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 537 | Social & Preventive Medicine | obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics | Not a pa of kangaroo mother care -
A. Skin to skin contact
B. Early discharge
C. Free nutritional supplements
D. Exclusive breast feeding
| Free nutritional supplements |
a3ebfb78-6640-488c-a174-1a8aeb345690 | Ans. is 'b' i.e.lateral condyle humerus This child had lateral condyle of humerus 4 yrs back. He is now presenting with symptoms of tardy ulnar palsy. Lateral condyle of humerus may lead to cubitus valgus deformity because of diminished growth at the lateral side of distal humeral epiphyses. Cubitus valgus deformity leads to late ulnar palsy (tardy ulnar nerve palsy) because of friction neuritis of the ulnar nerve as it moves over the medial epicondyle every time the elbow is flexed and extended. Ulnar nerve palsy presents as tingling and numbness in the distribution of ulnar nerve.Treatment- Anterior transposition of ulnar nerve. | Orthopaedics | Supracondylar Fracture | A 6-year-old child has an accident and had elbow, after 4 years presented with tingling and numbness in the ulnar side of finger, fracture is
A. supra condylar humerus
B. lateral condylar humerus
C. olecranon
D. dislocation of elbow
| lateral condylar humerus |
c6d962ab-9dbb-4c07-9e13-6020d3c59b72 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-1 Proinflammatory cytokinesi) Major:- IL-1, TNF- a, IL-6ii) Other:- IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-11, IL-12, IL-15, IL-21, IL-23, IFN- g, GM-CSFAnti-inflammatory cytokines* IL-4, IL-10, IL-13, and transforming growth factor-b (TGF-b). | Pathology | Inflammation & Repair | Pro - inflammatory cytokine is?
A. IL-1
B. IL-3
C. IL-6
D. IL-10
| IL-1 |
a8af28cb-9dae-4584-a3b8-2d3f635f532c | ref: Park&;s 23rd edition pg 58 A standard population is defined as the one for which the numbers in each age and sex group are known. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Direct standardization is used to compare the moality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in -
A. Cause of death
B. Numerators
C. Age distributions
D. Denominators
| Age distributions |
d90c3714-243a-40af-b497-1dbec4fd341f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sepsis Thrombocytopenias in ICU patients :* Thrombocytopenia is a common laboratory abnormality that has been associated with adverse outcomes in ICU patients.* Thrombocytopenia is defined as platelet count < 150 X 103 cells / mcL.* Following table depicts the probable mechanisms and the causes for presence of thrombocytopenia in ICU patients.Thrombocytopenia in ICU : mechanisms and causesSix possible mechanisms* Hemodilution* Increased consumption* Increased destruction* Decreased production* Increased sequestration* Laboratory artifact (pseudothrombocytopenia) Specific causes* Sepsis, multiorgan failure* Trauma or major surgery* Bone marrow failure (leukemia, aplastic anemia)* Immune-mediated platelet consumption (ITP)* Drug induced (heparin, GPIIb/GPIIa inhibitors, antibiotics)* TIP and related disorders (HUS, TMA, and peripartum HELLP syndrome)* Sepsis is the most common cause accounting for 48% of the total patients of thrombocytopenia in ICU patients.* More than 25% of the patients have more than one associated cause. | Medicine | Blood | Which is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an ICU patient?
A. Sepsis
B. Bone marrow failure
C. ITP
D. Drug induced
| Sepsis |
445ec67f-406e-489e-bd05-783378ba94e4 | Answer- A. LymphangiosarcomaAngiosarcoma is a vascular tumor which may arise de novo in the breast or as a complication of the radiation therapy. | Surgery | null | A female undergone surgery for left breast cancer 3 yrs back now developed blue nodule on same side
A. Lymphangiosarcoma
B. Recurrence
C. Hemangioma
D. Cellulitis
| Lymphangiosarcoma |
418a3875-0237-4742-82eb-70337557f49a | 512Hz is used normally Note: These tests are performed with tuning forks of different frequencies such as 128, 256, 512, 1024, 2048 and 4096 Hz, But for routine clinical practice, tuning fork of 512 Hz is ideal. Forks of lower frequencies produce a sense of bone vibration while those of higher frequencies have a shoer decay time and are thus not routinely preferred. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 21 | ENT | Ear | Most commonly used tuning fork in ear examination is
A. 128 Hz
B. 256 Hz
C. 512 Hz
D. 1024 Hz
| 512 Hz |
3a47f062-8be2-4f63-94d9-bc7cbf944290 | Ventricular distension can produce a powerful depressor reflex called the Bezold-Jarisch reflex; vagal afferents of this cardiopulmonary reflex are also activated by chemical stimulation (eg, prostanoids, cytokines, serotonin, and classically, Veratrum alkaloids). The central connections for this reflex are in the nucleus tractus solitarii, which has both sympathetic and parasympathetic synapses. Ref: Hoit B.D., Walsh R.A. (2011). Chapter 5. Normal Physiology of the Cardiovascular System. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e. | Physiology | null | Depressor reflex, Bezold-Jarisch reflex, produced by the following stimulus:
A. Atrial overload
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Ventricular distension
D. Isotonic exercise
| Ventricular distension |
6da33607-b0fe-4ce0-88a0-275d35bf1ee0 | Ans. (a) <1000 gmRef : OP Ghai 8th ed./125* Normal birth weight - 2800 gm- 3000gm* Low birth weight(LBW) - < 2500 gm* Very low birth weight(VLBW) - < 1500 gm* Extremely low birth weight (ELBW) - < 1000 gm. | Pediatrics | Newborn Infant - Physical Examination | Extremely low birth weight -
A. <1000
B. <1500
C. <2500
D. <2800
| <1000 |
0e97cd05-876b-4a27-9710-0ae41c0b0ec0 | Ref Harrison 17/e p2021 CD45 (lymphocyte common antigen) is a receptor-linked protein tyrosine phosphatase that is expressed on all leucocytes, and which plays a crucial role in the function of these cells. ... These CD45-associated molecules may play an impoant role in regulatingCD45 tyrosine phosphatase activity and function. Present on memory T cells | Anatomy | General anatomy | Memory T cells can be identified by using the following
A. CD 45RA
B. CD45RB
C. CD45RC
D. CD45RO
| CD45RO |
932f40b0-3df1-445c-8932-36262e63e157 | Viridans streptococci Commensals in the mouth and upper respiratory tract. Cause transient bacteremia following tooth extraction or other dental procedures; -MC cause of subacute endocarditis: Streptococcus Viridans - MC Streptococcal species in Viridans group causing endocarditis: S. sanguis mc cause of Native valve endocarditis : S. aureus | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology Pa 1 (Gram Positive Cocci, Gram Negative Cocci) | A patient of RHD developed infective endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely organism causing this is -
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus aureus
| Streptococcus viridans |
91f27218-d7f2-4e06-a676-7e320bf5ebe8 | Whooping cough is most infectious during the catarrhal stage. The infective period may be considered to extend from a weak after exposure to about 3 weeks after the onset of the paroxysmal stage although communicability diminishes rapidly after the catarrhal stage. (refer pgno:163 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Disease highly transmitted during incubation period is -
A. Peussis
B. Cholera
C. Measles
D. Brucellosis
| Peussis |
7b7dbc9c-5bf8-40d0-8c01-9647180f289b | Ans. is 'c' ie Pauciarticular JRA Uveitis can be seen in both pauciarticular and polyarticular JRA but is much more commonly associated with pauciarticular JRA.It is seen in about 20-25% of cases of pauciarticular and only 5% of polyarticular JRA. | Ophthalmology | Uveal Tract | Uveitis is associated most commonly with :
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic JRA
C. Pauciarticular JRA
D. Poly articular JRA
| Pauciarticular JRA |
d8e7f6bb-791f-4235-b1fe-3a5aae120d20 | Sec 191 IPC states that whoever, being legally bound by an oath or by an express provision of law to state the truth, or being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject, makes any statement which is false, and which he either knows or believes to be false or does not believe to be true, is said to give false evidence. This is a hostile witness. REF: Dr K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 29th edition pg. 31. | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | Hostile witness is covered under IPC section
A. 191
B. 192
C. 193
D. 194
| 191 |
224d86e3-a1a1-44f2-8c45-66cdac69980a | Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics (EMLA) is a mixture of 2.5% lidocaine and 2.5 prilocaine. | Anaesthesia | null | EMLA constituent is –
A. Lidocaine + Cocaine
B. Lidocaine + Prilocaine
C. Lidocaine + Bupivacaine
D. Bupivacaine + Prilocaine
| Lidocaine + Prilocaine |
7b2b29f4-0bb8-4f42-8d49-73df68ebc337 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Uveitis o Keratic precipitates (KPs) are proteinaceous cellular deposits occurring at the back of cornea (corneal endothelial deposits). Keratic precipitates are formed by the aggregation of polymorphonuclear cells, lymphocytes, and epitheloid cells. In the setting of uveitis, the bimicrosopic appearance of KP may yeild important diagnostic clues for the identification of the underlying inflammatory disorder1) Mutton fat KP Large, yellowish KPs, are characteristic of granulomatous uveitis .These are composed of epitheloid cells and macrophages. They are large, thick fluffy, lardaceous KPs, having a greasy or waxy appearance.2) Small or medium KPs (granular KPs):- These are composed of lymphocytes and are characteristic of nongranulomatous uveitis. These are small, round and whitish precipitates3) Red KPs:- Composed of RBCs and inflammatory cells. These are seen in hemorrhagic uveitis.4) Old KPs:- In healed uveitis. The above described KPs shrink, fade, become pigmented and irregular in shape with crenated margins. | Ophthalmology | Uveal Tract | Keratic precipitates are most commonly seen in -
A. Corneal ulcers
B. Uveitis
C. Nuclear cataracts
D. Keratoconus
| Uveitis |
67efd388-c8b7-49b8-b011-3f12f5a81805 | Clinical features of nasal myiasisInitial symptoms (3-4 days maggots):- Intense irritation, sneezing, headache, blood stained discharge, lacrimationLater:- Maggots may crawl out of the nose and there is a foul smellRef: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 181 - 182 | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Presenting symptom of nasal myiasis is
A. Severe irritation with sneezing
B. Maggots
C. Nasal pain
D. Impaired olfaction
| Severe irritation with sneezing |
f499a21c-9b04-4146-b928-303c4198579a | Lateral ventricle develops from the cavity of telencephalon. Third ventricle develops from diencephalon. Cavity of mesencephalon remains narrow and forms the aqueduct, while the cavity of rhombencephalon forms the fouh ventricle. | Anatomy | null | Fouh ventricle develops from?
A. Telencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Rhombencephalon
| Rhombencephalon |
720e1e5d-cacc-4bd0-8d66-a6c3d32a32fb | Ans. B: Drugs affecting hea rate Chronotropic effects are those drugs that change the hea rate. Chronotropic drugs may change the hea rate by affecting the nerves controlling the hea, or by changing the rhythm produced by the sinoatrial node. Positive chronotropes increase hea rate; negative chronotropes decrease hea rate. A dromotrope affects Atrioventricular node (AV node) conduction. A positive dromotrope increases AV nodal conduction, and a negative dromotrope decreases AV nodal conduction. A lusitrope is an agent that affects diastolic relaxation. Inotropes affects contractility of the hea. Chronotropic variables in systolic myocardial performance can be split left and right. Left sided systolic chronotropy can be appreciated as Aoic Valve open to close time. Right sided variables are represented by Pulmonary valve open to close time. Inveed as diastolic chronotropy, the variables are aoic valve close to open and pulmonic close to open time. | Pharmacology | null | Chronotrophic means: March 2010
A. Drugs affecting the contractility of hea
B. Drugs affecting hea rate
C. Drugs affecting the myocardial blood flow
D. Drugs affecting diastolic relaxation
| Drugs affecting hea rate |
02d215cc-24a9-4c99-8971-e1fb81435c81 | Calcification anywhere in the body - IOC is CT scan Except for gall stones - IOC is USG So, for pericardial calcifications, the best investigation is CT scan. Figure: An incidental discovery of focal calcific plaque within the visceral pericardium. The patient was asymptomatic. | Radiology | CT SCAN | For pericardial calcifications, which is the best investigation-
A. MRI
B. Transesophageal echocardiography
C. USG
D. CT scan
| CT scan |
3f7da90b-7b58-4737-bf2a-03764640a865 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Heberden node Joint involvement in OA Common joints : Knee, Hip, Spine (cervical, lumbosacral), Hand (PIP, DIP, first carpometacarpal), first tarsometatarsal. Uncommon joint : Shoulder Spared : Wrist, elbow, ankle, metacarpophalangeal. In osteoahritis of hand : Distal interphalangeal joint :- Heberden's node. Proximal interphalangeal joint :- Bouchard's node | Surgery | null | Feature of osteoahritis is -
A. Heberden node
B. Increased ESR
C. Onycholysis
D. Z deformity
| Heberden node |
e0fe8e8a-62d2-49f2-a17b-ac856889a1b5 | Causative agents of UTI:Uncomplicated UTIComplicated UTI*E.coli *Klebsiella*Proteus species*Enterobacter*Staphylococcus saprophyticus*Enterococci *Chlamydia , Neisseria *Ureaplasma, Mycoplasma . Adenovirus *E.coli *Klebsiella*Proteus species*Serratia marcescens*Pseudomonas *Enterococci Staphylococci Ref:Harrison's infectious disease 2nd edition, p296 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Most common cause of UTI in a neonate is
A. E.coli
B. S. aureus
C. Enterococcus
D. Anerobes
| E.coli |
6c2fb816-bdbb-4774-89c3-dea2ad19c538 | Second cervical vertebra (axis)
Presence of odontoid process.
Transverse processes are small and lack the anterior tubercle.
Anterior margin of the inferior surface of the body projects downwards to a considerable extent.
Foramen transversarium is directed superolaterally (expand in typical vertebrae it is directed vertically)
Inferior surface presents a deep and wide inferior vertebral notch placed in front of the inferior articular process. The superior vertebral notch is shallow and is present behind the superior articular process.
Key concept:
Second cervical vertebra is called the axis. it is identified by the presence of the dens or odontoid process which is a strong, tooth-like process projecting upwards from the body. The dens is usually believed to represent the centrum or body of the atlas which has fused with the centrum of the axis. | Anatomy | null | Axis is the name for:
A. IV cervical vertebra
B. III cervical vertebra
C. II cervical vertebra
D. I cervical vertebra
| II cervical vertebra |
36d28bf3-f48d-4d2d-9fb4-12eb81ceeaf2 | Hodgkin&;s lymphoma is characterised by the presence of neoplastic giant cells called Reed Sternberg cells.These cells release factors that induce the accumulation of reactive lymphocytes, macrophages, and granulocytes, which typically make up greater than 90% of tumour cellularity. RS cells are derived from the germinal centre or post germinal centre B cells. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 607 | Pathology | Haematology | Reed sternberg cells are found in-
A. Hodkin's disease
B. Sickle cell anaemia
C. Thalassemia
D. CML
| Hodkin's disease |
57f5085c-5527-4fc7-ac9c-a3802ac8b4b6 | Ans. (A) Gardasil(Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynecology 16th Ed; Page No 495)Gardasil is the vaccine of choice in this situation.Other options:Biovac: It is freeze-dried live attenuated vaccine indicated for the prevention of Hepatitis A in persons of age 1 year or older.Rabivac: It is monovalent inactivated rabies vaccine for cats and dogs.Tvac: It is tetanus vaccine.HPV vaccinesHPV vaccines have been developed from the inactivated capsid coat of the virus.HPV vaccines were earlier of two types. During its Feb 2015, meeting Advisory Committee on Immunization Practises (ACIP) recommended 9-valent HPV vaccine (9V HVP) as one of the three vaccines for preventive HPV.CharacteristicBivalent (2V HPV)Quadrivalent (4V HPV)9 Valent (9VHPV)Brand nameCervarixGardasilGardasil-9HPV subtypes16,186,11,16,186, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58Protects againstCIN, Ca cervixAnogenital warts, CIN, Ca cervixAnogenital warts CIN, Ca cervix, vulva intraepithelial neoplasia, vaginal intraepithelial neoplasiaManufacturingTrichoplusia insect line infected with L1 encoding baculovirusSaccharomyces cerevisiae expressing L1Saccharomyces cerevisiaeexpressing L1Adjuvant500 mcg aluminum hydroxide with monophosphoryl lipid A225 mcg Al(OH)PO4 SO4 500 meg Al(OH)PO4 SO4 Dose0.5 mL0.5 mL0.5 mLAdministration1/m1/m1/mAdministered to males or femalesOnly femalesBoth males and femalesBoth males and femalesAge in females Ideal age range11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-26 yearsAge in males Ideal age range---11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-15 years--FDA approved9-26 years--ACIP recommendation | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | 16 yr unmarried girl came for vaccination against cervical cancer. Which vaccine to he given:
A. Gardasil
B. Rabivac
C. Biovac
D. Tvac
| Gardasil |
34b88b65-cb4a-41a1-84b2-001ad9600303 | Insulin stimulated glucose entry in seen in Cardiac muscles. Name Location Features GLUT-1 & GLUT-3 Brain, RBC, placenta Concerned with basal uptake of glucose GLUT-2 Liver, kidney, b-cells of pancreas Allows both entry & release of glucose GLUT-4 Skeletal muscles, adipocytes, cardiac muscles Insulin dependent transpoer GLUT-5 Spermatozoa, testis, intestines Transpos fructose | Physiology | Endocrine System | Insulin stimulated glucose entry in seen in-
A. Cardiac muscles
B. Smooth muscles
C. Brain
D. Intestines
| Cardiac muscles |
ed26d6d3-f7ec-4f41-b26d-3c7793216ff4 | Ref: Textbook of Forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.354 Hymen is a thin fold of connective tissue, covered by mucous membranes, about 1 mm in overall thickness, situated at the vaginal orifice. They are of different types. cribriform is one of them, characterized by many small holes. As a result of sexual intercourse, hymen is usually tornfrom posteriorly, with unilateral or bilateral tears extending to the point of its attachment to the vaginal wall. So presence of hymen most probably indicate virginity. | Forensic Medicine | Sexual offences and infanticide | Cribriform hymen is seen -
A. Post paum
B. Septate hymen
C. Sieve hymen
D. Virgin
| Virgin |
cc5e1e79-bb47-45d4-8a9c-45b311f7b4ab | Suggested criteria for local excision in rectal cancer: Physical examination Imaging Histology Tumor <3 cm Tumor <30% of bowel circumference Tumor within 15 cm of dentate line Tumor freely mobile Tumor limited to submucosa (T1) No lymph node involvement (N0) Well to moderately differentiated Absence of lymphovascular invasion or perineural invasion No mucinous or signet cell component | Surgery | Rectum and anal canal | In which of the following condition local excision in rectal carcinoma can not be done?
A. Within 10 cm of the dentate line
B. Lesion 2.7 cm
C. Involvement of <30% bowel circumference
D. T1 and T2 cancer with lymph node involvement
| T1 and T2 cancer with lymph node involvement |
d8df3767-6a85-49b3-bb28-5ea967bf26fc | Irreversible injury is associated morphologically with:- Mitochondrial swelling Plasma membrane damage which forms myelin figures Lysosomal swelling. Large, flocculent, amorphous densities develop in the mitochondrial matrix | Pathology | Irreversible cell Injury/Necrosis | Electron microscopy finding indicating irreversible cell injury is:
A. Dilation of ER
B. Dissociation of ribosomes from rough ER
C. Flocculent densities in the mitochondria
D. Intact cell membrane
| Flocculent densities in the mitochondria |
4a753b66-6b14-49a4-882c-783401dc67ea | Repression is the defense mechanism which removes painful memories or unacceptable desires away from the consciousness or awareness. | Psychiatry | Psychoanalysis | Which of the following excludes painful stimuli from awareness?
A. Repression
B. Reaction formation
C. Projection
D. Rationalization
| Repression |
5000f2e2-5e62-4d9e-9020-c40a5218f4b5 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Unmarried Causes/Risk factors for suicidePsychiatric disorders : - Depression (most common), alcoholism (2nd me), Drug/Substance dependence, Schizophrenia, Dementia.Physical illness : - Cancer, AIDS, Multiple sclerosis, Head trauma.Psychosocial factors : - Failure in love, marital difficulties, family dispute, illegitimate pregnancy.Biological factors : - Decrease in serotoninOther - Male sex, Age > 40 years. Single (Unmarried, divorced or widowed), previous suicide attempt, social isolation. | Psychiatry | Symptoms & Signs | Risk factor for suicide -
A. Female sex
B. Unmarried
C. Age 30 years
D. Married
| Unmarried |
a5b2e089-3e8a-490a-9387-74687302149f | Ans. (a) Bilateral renal artery stenosisRef. Katzung's pharmacology 10th ed. Ch 11* ACEI inhibits the converting enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase that hydrolyzes angiotensin I to angiotensin II and (under the name plasma kininase) inactivates bradykinin, a potent vasodilator, which works at least in part by stimulating release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin.* Drugs under this class are: Captopril, Enalapril, Lisinopril, Benazepril, fosinopril, moexipril, perindopril, quinapril, ramipril, and trandolapril.* ACE inhibitors have a particularly useful role in treating patients with chronic kidney disease because they diminish proteinuria and stabilize renal function (even in the absence of lowering of blood pressure).* ACE inhibitors have also proved to be extremely useful in the treatment of heart failure, and after myocardial infarction, and* There is recent evidence that ACE inhibitors reduce the incidence of diabetes in patients with high cardiovascular risk. | Pharmacology | ACE Inhibitors | ACE inhibitor contraindicated in which of the following condition:
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Post myocardial infarction
D. Diabetes mellitus
| Bilateral renal artery stenosis |
1549adc4-6fcc-48e2-b107-3fd67065e5f5 | Answer- B. Lactiferous ductsIt is seen in breast carcinoma due to infltration of the lactiferous ducts by carcinoma.It is due to extention of the growth along the lactiferous ducts and subsequent fibrosis.Nipple retraction is circumferential in carcinoma and slit like in periductal mastitis. | Surgery | null | Nipple retraction in Ca breast due to infiltration of
A. Suspensory ligaments
B. Lactiferous ducts
C. Lymphatics
D. Pectoralis fascia
| Lactiferous ducts |
7e6dd171-f659-4be9-9d53-6fb8ebf8f71c | Skin blister
Oral mucosa involvement (palatal ulcer) | Dental | null | 25 years old female has palatal ulcer and skin blister most likely diagnosis is –
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Pemphigus foliaceous
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Pemphigoid
| Pemphigus vulgaris |
28e73efe-c768-4be7-ad94-d0f3fad85a48 | Cardiac failure is the most common cause of death in primary or AL amyloidosis. Cardiac involvement is seen in 40% of patients with AL amyloidosis. Amyloid involvement of myocardium, intramural coronary aeries and conduction system may cause congestive hea failure, ischemic syndrome and rythm disturbances. Diagnosis of amyloidosis should be considered in patients with unexplained nephropathy, cardiomyopathy (diastolic dysfunction), neuropathy, enteropathy, or pathognomonic soft tissue findings of macroglossia or periorbital ecchymoses. Pathologic diagnosis of amyloid fibrils can be made by congo red staining of aspirated abdominal fat or of an involved organ biopsy specimen. | Pathology | null | Congo red staining of abdominal fat has confirmed a diagnosis of Amyloidosis in a 28-year-old man. Which is the most common cause of death in primary AL Amylodosis?
A. Respiratory failure
B. Cardiac failure
C. Renal failure
D. Septicemia
| Cardiac failure |
1eaf51d2-d11e-4635-b647-c84deef15b97 | Answer is D (Tracheal shift to side of consolidation): Trachea stays in midline in consolidation (no mediastinal shift). Consolidation is usually caused by pneumonia. In this situation alveoli are full of inflammatory exudates but the size of the lung is unaffected so the trachea remains in its normal midline position. | Medicine | null | Which of the following is not a feature of consolidation
A. Increased vocal resonance
B. Dull Percussion note
C. Bronchial Breath sounds
D. Tracheal shift to side of consolidation
| Tracheal shift to side of consolidation |
b276f941-a708-4910-b24b-4d9e038fa10b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3.5 mm from midline Position of vocal cords The position of the vocal cords may be described as being in various positions. These are : ? 1. Median position The vocal cords are in midline. This is the position of normal larynx during phonation and in recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy. 2. Paramedian position Just off midline (1.5 mm form midline) This position occurs in normal larynx during strong whisper. This is the resting position of vocal cords after long-term recurrent laryngeal nerve injury. 3. Cadeveric (Intermediate) position (3.5 mm from midline) It is 15-20deg from midline. This is the position of immediate total denervation of both recurrent laryngeal nerve as well as superior laryngeal paralysis, as in high vagal paralysis. 4. Gentle abduction (7 mm from midline) This position is seen during quiet respiration in normal larynx and in paralysis of adductors (very rare). 5. Abduct position (9.5 mm from midline) It is 30-45deg from midline. This is the position of maximum adduction during deep inspiration. | ENT | null | Cadaveric position of vocal cords ?
A. Midline
B. 1.5 mm from midline
C. 3.5 mm from midline
D. 7.5 mm from midline
| 3.5 mm from midline |
b4499541-3fb7-497d-8ddb-1a01b7070556 | - All features given in the question suggests the diagnosis of Fanconi anemia Common physical findings in Fanconi Anemia (FA): - Skin pigment changes including Cafe-au-lait spots (55% cases) - Sho stature (in 50% cases) - Microcephaly - Thumb and radial malformations - Renal and cardiac malformations - Hypogonadism - Associated with Aplastic anemia. | Pediatrics | Aplastic anemia | 2-year-old child presents with sho stature and cafe-au lait spots. Bone marrow aspiration yields a little material and mostly containing fat. What is your diagnosis:
A. Fanconi anemia
B. Dyskeratosis congenita
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
| Fanconi anemia |
78ff9b75-1a94-42c6-bd4c-050178f9c668 | 24 hour urinary coisol levels are elevated in both subsets: ACTH secreting pituitary tumour and Ectopic ACTH secretion. Overnight Dexamethasone suppression test involves overnight 1mg dexamethasone tablet and measurement of 8am morning serum or urinary coisol. It is used to diagnose hypercoisolism but cannot identify etiology of Cushing syndrome. High dose dexamethasone suppression test involves giving 6 hourly dexamethasone 2mg, which leads to etiological diagnosis.( differentiates between ACTH secreting pituitary tumor from Ectopic ACTH ) Serum Coisol> 5mg/dl: Ectopic ACTH production. | Medicine | Cushing Syndrome | Which of the following tests is best for differentiating ACTH secreting pituitary tumour from Ectopic ACTH production?
A. 24 hour Urinary free coisol
B. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
C. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
D. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
| High dose dexamethasone suppression test |
b6ef3522-a092-4dcc-a3ac-a3a116737c97 | Answer- (B) Pleural effusionPneumonectomy chest (Early sip: within 24 hr): Paial filling of thorax, ipsilateral mediastinal shift & diaphragmatic elevation.Homogenous opacityShift of mediastinum to the opposite sideConcave upper border (Ellis's curve) | Medicine | null | A person's X-ray chest showing homogenous opacity on right side with shifting of mediastinum on opposite side. Most probable diagnosis is/are:
A. Collapse
B. Pleural effusion
C. Pneumothorax
D. Consolidation
| Pleural effusion |
0cc45da7-d0cb-41ba-83b3-017004d97f6d | Ans. (c) Production of vitamin KRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. Z821* Vitamin K is produced by the bacteria of gut and is used by liver for gamma carboxylation of factor 2/7/9/10.# Liver produces albumin which falls in liver cirrhosis producing ascites/edema.# Ammonia is combined with carbon dioxide to produce urea which in turn is excreted by the liver.# The cytochrome P450 is responsible for metabolism of drugs. | Pathology | Liver | Which of the following is not a function of liver ?
A. Production of albumin
B. Detoxification of ammonia
C. Production of vitamin K
D. Metabolism of drugs
| Production of vitamin K |
b51cbca7-30ed-4bf0-8394-7f631badc598 | Purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of checks suggest the diagnosis of tardive dyskinesia (an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotics).
Clozapine does not produce extrapyramidal side effects. | Psychiatry | null | An elderly woman suffering from schizophrenia is on antipsychotic medication. She developed purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of cheeks. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be involved in this side effect -
A. Haloperidol
B. Clozapine
C. Fluphenazine
D. Loxapine
| Clozapine |
f87e8b2f-c2e9-464e-a3ec-57a34b4214c4 | .Cluster testing is used in the detection of of STD S.here the patients are asked to name other persons of either sex ho move in the same socio-sexual environment.these persons are then screened .this technique ha been shown almost to double the number of cases found ref:park&;s textbook,ed22,pg no 312 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Cluster testing is used in the detection of-
A. STD
B. Diabetes
C. Measles
D. Cancer
| STD |
51d51590-d9b3-4798-9262-b8121e401a38 | When complete relief of pain is needed throughout labor epidural analgesia is safest and simplest | Anatomy | General obstetrics | A 35 yr old pregnant female at 40 weeks gestational age presents with pain and regular uterine contractions every 4-5min . On arrival the patient is in a lot of pain and requesting relief immediately. Her cervix is 5 cm dilated. What is most appropriate method of pain control for this patient
A. Intramuscular morphine
B. Pudendal block
C. Local block
D. Epidural block
| Epidural block |
4f6b0e9a-94db-43d0-a155-b839e77bd5ae | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Meta-zoonoses Zoonoseso Zoonoses are diseases and infections which are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animal and man.o The zoonoses may be classified according to the direction of transmission of disease : -AnthropozoonosesInfection is transmitted to man from lower vertebrate animals.Examples - Rabies, plague, hydatid disease, anthrax, trichinosis,ZoonthroponosesInfection is transmitted from man to lower vertebrate animalsExamples - Human tuberculosis in cattle3. AmphixenosesInfection is maintained in both man and lower vertebrate animals that may be transmitted in either direction.Examples - T. cruzt S. japonicum.Based on the type of life cycle of infecting organism, zoonoses are divided into four categories : -Direct zoonosesTransmitted from an infected vertebrate host to a susceptible vertebrate host by direct contact, by contact with a fomite or by a mechanical vector.The agent itself undergoes little or no propagative changes and no essential developmental change during transmission.Example are - Rabies, Trichinosis, Burcellosis.Cyclo - zoonosesRequire more than one vertebrate host species, but no invertebrate host, in order to complete the developmental cycle of the agent.Example - Taeniasis, echinococcosis (hydatid disease).Meta-zoonosesTransmitted biologically by invertebrate hostIn invertebrate host, the agent multiplies or develop.Examples - Arbovirus infections (e.g., JE, KFD), plague. Schistosomiasis,Sporo - zoonosesThere is non-animal developmental site or reservoir e.g., organic matter (food). Soil and plants.Examples -Larva migrans and some mycoses. | Microbiology | Helminthology | Schistosomiasis is an example of -
A. Meta-zoonoses
B. Cyclo-zoonoses
C. Direct-zoonoses
D. Sporo-zoonoses
| Meta-zoonoses |
bba7a26a-191b-4772-84ec-0d4da14d1e46 | Pleomorphic adenomas or benign mixed tumors, are the most common neoplasms of the salivary glands. They represent approximately 60-70% of all parotid tumors and 90% of submandibular benign tumors. These neoplasms affect females more than males and are commonly seen in the third to sixth decades of life. Histologically, pleomorphic adenomas arise from the distal poions of the salivary ducts, including the intercalated ducts and acini. | Anatomy | null | A 41 year old man presented with swelling over parotid area. He has only mild pain. Which is the commonest tumor of the parotid?
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Monomorphic adenoma
C. Wahin's tumor
D. Adenocarcinoma
| Pleomorphic adenoma |
50cb0de0-10bf-4040-adbe-047f0ab6fbad | Answer is option4, flupenthisol. The antidepressive and anxiolytic efficacy of flupenthixol has been investigated in numerous controlled and open trials involving patients with endogenous, reactive as well as senile depressions. When administered at a mean daily single or multiple dose of 1-2 mg, flupenthixol proved to be a very effective and well-tolerated antidepressant. As opposed to some of the currently available antidepressants, flupenthixol has a rapid onset of action which is often displayed within the first 2-3 days following its application. Ref: | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Depression is not a side effect of
A. Propanolol
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Reserpine
D. Flupenthixol
| Flupenthixol |
0bc67e92-c62b-4458-8966-4411a6fdad85 | Refer Goodman Gilman 12/e p 123 To suppress fetal androgen production effectively band consequent virilization Dexamethasone must be initiated before 10 weeks of gestation To treat congenital adrenal hyperplasia is baby hydrocoisone is used. | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Drug of choice for pregnant female suspected of having a baby with congenital adrenal hyperplasia
A. Dexamethasone
B. Betamethasone
C. Hydrocoisone
D. Prednisolone
| Dexamethasone |
0866ac89-26cd-40e1-a75a-1020d6a821ab | Ans. is a i.e. Ritodrine Pulmonary edema is a serious complication of beta-adrenergic therapy (ritodrine) and MgSO4. This complication occurs in patients receiving oral or (more common) intravenous treatment. It occurs more frequently in patients who have excessive plasma volume expansion, such as those with twins or those who have received generous amounts of intravenous fluids and in patients with chorioamnionitis. Patient presents with respiratory distress, bilateral rales on auscultation of the lungs, pink frothy sputum, and typical X-ray picture. Patients receiving IV beta-adrenergic drugs should be monitored continuously with pulse oxymeter to anticipate the development of pulmonary edema. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The drug that inhibits uterine contractility and cause pulmonary edema is :
A. Ritodrine
B. Nifedipine
C. lndomethacin
D. Atosiban
| Ritodrine |
7d05f799-cfba-4563-a9cf-94e242e445e8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Giardiasis . Mobile protozoa with absence of RBC's and pus cells in stools in a patient with diarrhoea suggests giardiasis. . In balantidum cob and entomoeba histolytica infections, pus cells and RBC's will be present in stools. Trichomonas hominis is considered as non-pathogenic | Microbiology | null | A patient presents with diarrhoea. analysis of stool on wet mount shows mobile protozoa without RBCs and pus cells. The diagnosis is -
A. Balantidium coil
B. Giardiasis
C. Trichomonas hominis
D. Entamoeba histolytica
| Giardiasis |
ae75432e-33e2-49bf-9b11-f13effe588b5 | Cachexia is a common finding in advanced cancers, and weight loss without dieting in an adult is a "red flag" for malignancy. The exact cause for this is unknown, but increases in circulating factors such as tumor necrosis factor (TNF) may play a role. Cardiac murmurs may occur in the development of nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis, a feature of a hypercoagulable state that may occur with advanced malignancies. Icterus is most likely to occur when there is obstruction of the biliary tract by a mass (e.g., as in pancreatic cancer), but metastases are unlikely to cause such an obstruction. Neurologic abnormalities may occur in local tumor growth impinging on nerves, but dull constant pain is the most likely abnormality in malignant neoplasms that invade nerves. Metastases to the spleen are uncommon. Tympany is uncommon in cancer because obstruction by a mass tends to be incomplete and to develop over a long time. (Hint: an empty beer keg is tympanitic when percussed.) | Pathology | Neoplasia | A clinical study involves patients diagnosed with carcinoma whose tumor stage is T4N1M1. The patients' survival rate 5 years from the time of diagnosis is less than 50%, regardless of therapy. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely to be characteristic of this group of patients?
A. Cachexia
B. Cardiac murmur
C. Icterus
D. Loss of sensation
| Cachexia |
e1a6bd20-0da6-47b4-9f16-bca48ed0f609 | (Porphyria): (381 -- KDT 7th edition; 536- Goodman 12th7or variegate)Thiopentone can precipitate acut intermittent or variegate porphyria in susceptible individuals therefore contraindicated. The abnormal synthesis of protoporphyrin (important in hemoglobin production) results in excess porphobilinogen. Barbiturates induce amino levulinic acid synthase, an enzyme responsible for phosphobilinogen synthesis, This leads to excessive porphobilinogen levels and can precipitate acute porphyric crises, that are manifested by severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, psychiatric disorders and neurologic abnormalities | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | Thiopentone is absolutely contraindicated in
A. Porphyria
B. Moribund patients
C. Increased intracranial pressure
D. Meningitis
| Porphyria |
824d1c19-abe7-4f68-a16f-a464c6d1bc7c | Enriched media The media containing ingredients which enhance their growth-promoting qualities E.g. Blood agar, Chocolate agar and Loeffler medium. The usual media employed for cultivation of the diphtheria bacillus are Loeffler's serum slope and tellurite blood agar. Diphtheria bacilli grow on Loeffler's serum slope very rapidly and colonies can be seen in 6-8 hours, long before the other bacteria grow. Best Selective media for Corynebaterium is Potassium tellurite agar. | Microbiology | General Microbiology Pa 1 (History, Microscopy, Stains and Structure and Physiology of Bacteria) | Loeffler's medium is-
A. Indicator medium
B. Selective medium
C. Enrichment medium
D. Enriched medium
| Enriched medium |
5042da44-cdf1-4bd1-943c-8213d3155fef | B i.e. Grief psychosis Bereavement, Grief, or Mourning is a psychological reaction of those who survive a significant loss. Differences between normal & abnormal grief:Identifying with a deceased person such as taking on ceain admired traits or treasuring ceain possessions is normal; believing that one is the deceased person or is dying of exactly what the deceased person died of (if in fact, this is untrue) is not normal.- Hearing the fleeting, transient voice of a deceased person may be normal; persistent, intrusive, complex auditory hallucinations are not normal.Denial of ceain aspects of the death is normal; denial that includes the belief that the dead person is still alive is not normal.GriefIs a normal response of an individual to the loss of a loved object which presents with:- Various physical & mental symptoms like sighing, crying, choking, breathing difficulty, weakness, etc. - Preoccupation with the memory of deceased- Sense of presence of deceased & misinterpretation of voices & faces of others as that of lost. - Seeing a person in dreams & fleeting hallucinations.Abnormal Grief Exaggeration of one or more normal symptoms of grief- Duration > 6 months. Pathological/Morbid GriefComplicated Grief1Associated with psychotic orneurotic illness* Chronic Grief* Delayed Grief* Inhibited Grief =* Anniversary Reaction=Duration > 6 monthsOnset after 2 weeks of lost (death)Denial of lossGrief reaction on the death anniversary Over idealization of the deceased. | Psychiatry | null | A man coming from a mountain whose wife died 6 months prior says that his wife appeared to him and asked him to join her. The diagnosis is
A. Normal grief
B. Grief psychosis
C. Bereavement reaction
D. Supernatural phenomenon
| Grief psychosis |
4c4b3857-ea2a-4efa-b38a-c93bc6d0fcbe | Ans. a. Arteritic AIONAION occurs due to interference of blood supply to anterior part of optic nerve (posterior ciliary artery)AION can be clinically differentiated into:Arteritic AIONNonarteritic AION*. Due to giant cell arteritis*. Due to occlusion of short posterior ciliary artery*. Sudden, severe visual loss (6/60)*. Sudden, moderate visual loss (>60/60 non-progressive)*. Most common in females, 7-8th decade*. Most common males, 5th-6th decade*. Premonitory symptoms like pain, Amaurosis Fugax present*. Premonitory symptoms like pain, Amaurosis Fugax absent*. Usually Bilateral-fellow eye affected within days to weeks*. Usually Unilateral (>70%)*. Pale optic disc*. Hyperemic optic with small cup*. Poor prognosis*. Good prognosis | Ophthalmology | Errors of Refraction | Ocular manifestation in giant cell arteritis?
A. Arteritic AION
B. Nonarteritic AION
C. Papilledema
D. Horners Syndrome
| Arteritic AION |
bfa24e20-d6da-455b-b682-5938605617be | Odynophagia is a sensation of sharp retrosternal pain on swallowing. It is usually caused by severe erosive conditions such as Candida, herpes virus, and corrosive injury following caustic ingestion. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | A 43-year-old man suddenly develops odynophagia. Which organism is most likely to be isolated on throat culture?
A. Mononucleosis
B. S. aureus
C. Normal pharyngeal flora
D. Group A streptococci
| Normal pharyngeal flora |
90a82749-bd6e-4c10-9f4f-c262b8a85c54 | Dr. John Snow was the first to associate Cholera to a sewage-affected drinking water pump in London Ref: 25th edition Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 25 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Which disease is associated with the Father of Public Health?
A. Malaria
B. Cholera
C. Tuberculosis
D. Plague
| Cholera |
a5370ba7-4fd4-4514-b168-5cb78fed20c9 | Ans. (a) Semicircular canalRef. Dhingra's ENT 5th ed. / 48* Caloric test is used to assess vestibular function. The basis of this test is to induce nystagmus by thermal stimulation of the vestibular system.* Done by taking water of 2 temperatures, cold (30degC) and hot (44degC).* Position of the test: Supine then lift head at 30deg forward or patient sitting with bending backwards 60*.* This position is used in order to make lateral/ horizontal SCC in vertical position.* Cold water elicits nystagmus in opposite eye and warm water elicit nystagmus in same eye (Mn: COWS).* Interpretation:# Normal: Time taken from start of irrigation to end point of Nystagmus is taken and it is 80 seconds --120 seconds.# Canal paresis: Duration of Nystagmus shortened i.e. < 80 sec.* Indicates depressed function of ipsilateral Labyrinth, vestibular nerve and vestibular nuclei.* It is seen in:# Meniere's disease# Acoustic neuroma# Vestibular neuritis# Vestibular nerve section# Postural vertigo | ENT | Assessment of Vestibular Function | Caloric test is done for
A. Semicircular canal
B. Macula
C. Saccule
D. Cochlea
| Semicircular canal |
96f7eed7-3d52-4284-8d1a-56ed7e600129 | Altered tactile sensation: the person feel that some insects are crawling on his skin. This is known asMagnan's symptomorcocaine bugs(formication). Cocaine is an alkaloid derived from plantErythroxylon coca. | Forensic Medicine | NEET Jan 2020 | Magnan's symptom is seen in:
A. Datura
B. Cocaine
C. Opium
D. Cannabis
| Cocaine |
dce8f390-9da2-4f5a-a4ac-c872f5a4b2b0 | In general, symptoms and signs that suggest a rise in ICP include altered level of consciousness, headache, vomitingwithout nausea, ocular palcies, back pain and papilledema. If papilledema is protracted, it may lead to visual disturbances, optic atrophy, and eventually blindness. The headache is classically a morning headache which may wake them from sleep. The brain is relatively poorly supplied by oxygen as a result of mild hypoventilation during the sleeping hours and also cerebral edema may worsen during the night due to the lying position. ref-Graham, D. I.; Gennarelli, T. A. (2000). "Pathology of Brain Damage After Head Injury". In Cooper, Paul Richard; Golfinos, John (eds.). Head Injury (4th ed.). McGraw-Hill. pp. 133-54 | Surgery | Trauma | The earliest manifestation of increased intrcranial pressure following head injury is
A. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation
B. Contralateral pupillary dilatation
C. Altered mental status
D. Hemiparesis
| Altered mental status |
605e325d-0517-443a-8f29-26b27529ae53 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Extention at PIP and Flexion at DIP joint * Boutonniere deformity: Flexion contracture of PIP joint and extension of DIP joint.* Swan neck deformity: Hyperextension of PIP joint and flexion at DIP joint. | Orthopaedics | Arthritis | Swan neck deformity -
A. Flexion at PIP and DIP joint
B. Extention at PIP and DIP joint
C. Flexion at PIP and Extention at DIP joint
D. Extention at PIP and Flexion at DIP joint
| Extention at PIP and Flexion at DIP joint |
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