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Adrenal adenoma on contrast-enhanced CT/MRI shows rapid uptake and relatively rapid washout of contrast material than do non adenomasQ. Adenoma: CT features Well defined/sharply defined  <5 cm in size Low attenuation (<10 HU) due to lipid content Mild homogenous enhancement Relatively rapid washout of contrast material (due to lack of large interstitial spaces Relatively rapid washout is characteristic of adenoma
Radiology
null
Which of the following is not a CT feature ofAdrenal adenoma – A. Low attenuation B. Homogenous density and well defined borders C. Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a relatively longer time and washes out late D. Calcification is rare
Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a relatively longer time and washes out late
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ANSWER: (B) Cardiac failureREF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition chapter 324. AmyloidosisThe kidneys are the most frequently affected organ (80%), Renal amyloidosis is usually manifested by proteinuria, which is often in the nephrotic range and associated with significant hypoalbuminemia and edema or anasarca; rarely, tubular rather than glomerular deposition of amyloid can produce azotemia without significant proteinuria. Cardiac symptoms are the second most common presentation (40%), but cardiac dysfunction is associated with death in 75% of patients.
Pathology
Amyloidosis
Most common cause of death in primary amyloidosis is? A. Respiratory failure B. Cardiac failure C. Renal failure D. Septicemia
Cardiac failure
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Mumps causes the classic bilateral parotitis, but it can present as a unilateral enlargement in rare cases. Heerfordt syndrome includes sarcoidosis. Tuberculosis historically was associated with ‘cold abscess’. It is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, an acid-fast bacterium that does not stain with Gram stain. It requires Ziehl–Neelsen staining.
Surgery
null
Which of these pathologies is the most common benign tumour of the parotid gland? A. Mumps B. TB C. Heerfordt syndrome D. Pleomorphic adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
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The plasma colloid osmotic pressure is often low in alcoholics with chronic liver disease (cirrhosis). The diseased liver cannot produce adequate amounts of albumin, which leads to a decrease in the concentration of albumin in the plasma, i.e., hypoalbuminemia. Because about 75% of the plasma colloid osmotic pressure can be attributed to the presence of albumin in the plasma, the decrease in plasma albumin concentration that occurs in the latter stages of cirrhosis often leads to peripheral edema. Cirrhosis also causes excess fluid to accumulate in the peritoneal cavity as ascites. In the case of ascites, the edema results not only from hypoalbuminemia, but also from poal vein obstruction (which increases capillary hydrostatic pressure) as well as the obstruction of lymphatic drainage of the liver. In fact, ascites is observed more often than peripheral edema in liver disease. A decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure would tend to decrease fluid loss from the capillaries, and thereby oppose the development of edema. A decrease in the colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid would decrease fluid loss from the capillaries, thereby opposing the development of edema. A decrease in interstitial hydrostatic pressure would tend to increase fluid loss from the capillaries, but this cannot be considered a primary cause of edema because the interstitial hydrostatic pressure actually increases when a tissue becomes edematous. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 31. Blood as a Circulatory Fluid & the Dynamics of Blood & Lymph Flow. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
Physiology
null
A 62 year old man has a 25 year history of alcoholism and liver disease. He visits his physician complaining of pain and swelling of his legs. A decrease in which of the following is the most likely cause of the peripheral edema? A. Capillary hydrostatic pressure B. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure C. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure D. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Plasma colloid osmotic pressure
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Aoic dissection occurs when blood splays apa the laminar planes of the media to form a blood-filled channel within the aoic wall.Aoic dissection occurs mainly in two age groups: (1)men aged 40 to 60 with antecedent hypeension (more than 90% of cases); and (2) younger patients with connective tissue abnormalities that affect the aoa.Robbins Basic pathology, 9th edition, pg no.346
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
Most common cause of dissecting hematoma is A. Hypeension B. Marfan's syndrome C. Iatrogenic D. Kawasaki
Hypeension
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Charcot's triad is a feature of ascending cholangitis secondary to CBD stones.Intermittent symotoms are produced as the stone moves proximally & floats with relieving of obstruction and subsiding of symotoms.The triad includes fever,jaundice and pain(maybe colicky). SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:651.
Surgery
G.I.T
Charcot's triad include A. Fever, pain, jaundice B. Fever, vomiting, jaundice C. Fever, Jaundice, Abd, distension D. Fever, chills, jaundice
Fever, pain, jaundice
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Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) may be associated with a serious coagulation abnormality ,disseminated intravascular coagulation.Reference :Davidson's principles & practices of medicine 22nd edition pg no 383.
Medicine
Haematology
Die is commonly seen in - A. MlAML B. M2AML C. M3AML D. M4AML
M3AML
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M.tuberculosis is mainly transmitted by direct inhalation of aerosolised bacilli contained in the droplet nuclei of expectorated sputum. Generated while coughing. sneezing,or speaking of infected patients. There may be as many as 3000 infectious nuclei per cough. The tiny droplets may remain suspended in the air for several hours and are easily inhaled. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 355
Anatomy
Bacteriology
Humans become infected by M.tuberculosis commonly by A. Ingestion B. Contact C. Inhalation D. Inoculation
Inhalation
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Delayed pubey: Girls: Absence of secondary sexual characters by 13 yrs of age / Absence of menarche by 16 years of age / within 5 yrs of onset of pubey Boys: Lack of pubeal changes by 14 yrs of age
Pediatrics
Disorders of Pubey
Delayed pubey is when primary amenorrhea is seen without development of secondary sexual characters beyond the age of? A. 12 years B. 14 years C. 16 years D. 18 years
16 years
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- MCC of central precocious pubey in girls is Idiopathic. - Organic causes are more common in boys. - OTHER CAUSES: Infections - TB, meningitis Injuries - Trauma, neurosurgery, Radiotherapy Tumors - Hypothalamic hamaoma (Gelastic seizures)- MCC of organic central precocious pubey CNS malformations like arachnoid cyst ,hydrocephalus, septo-optic dysplasia
Pediatrics
Disorders of Pubey
Most common cause of central precocious pubey in girls: A. Exogenous estrogen B. Idiopathic C. CNS tumor D. Hypothyroidism
Idiopathic
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Ans. is 'C' i.e., Log rank test o The Kaplan-Meier estimator is an estimater for estimating the survival function from life time data. o A plot of the Kaplan-Meier estimate of the survival function is a series of horizontal steps of declining magnitude which, wrhen a large enough sample is taken, approaches the true survial function of that population. The value of the survival function between successive distinct sampled observations is assumed to be constant, o Different Kaplan-Meier curves can be compared by - The log rank test The cox proportional hazards test
Social & Preventive Medicine
Statistical Tests
Which test is used to compare kapian-meier survival curve- A. T-test B. Chi-square test C. Log rank test D. Whitneys test
Log rank test
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In H&E-stained tissue sections, the nuclei of apoptotic cells show various stages of chromatin condensation and aggregation and, ultimately, karyorrhexis; at the molecular level, this is reflected in fragmentation of DNA into nucleosome-sized pieces. The cells rapidly shrink, form cytoplasmic buds, and fragment into apoptotic bodies composed of membrane-bound vesicles of cytosol and organelles.( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 18 )
Pathology
General pathology
Apoptotic bodies are A. Clumped chromatin bodies B. Pyknotic nucleus without organelles C. Cell membrane bound with organelles D. No nucleus with organelles
Cell membrane bound with organelles
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According to Hellin’s rule The mathematical frequency of multiple pregnancy is: Twins 1 in 80 Triplets 1 in (80)2 Quadruplets 1 in (80)3 and so on
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
According to Hellin's law chances of twins in pregnancy are: A. 1 in 60 B. 1 in 70 C. 1 in 80 D. 1 in 90
1 in 80
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* La facies sympathique occurs in hanging* On postmortem examination, in hanging, usually the eyes are closed or partly open and the pupils are usually dilated.Sometimes, when the ligature knot presses on the cervical sympathetic, the eye on the same side may remain open and its pupil dilated (La, facies sympathiaue). This indicates antemortem hanging.
Forensic Medicine
Death and Investigations
"La-facies sympathique" is a condition seen in cases of A. Hanging B. Strangulation C. Myocardial insufficiency D. Railway accidents
Hanging
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Ans. (a) Intra-keloidal injection of triamcinolone.Diagnosis based on the image is Keloid scar* Characterized by overgrowth of scar tissue beyond the margins of original wound* Occur more commonly in females over sternum, shoulder and face, Black people are more prone for it* Treatment is with intralesional injections of triamcinolone. However best is surgery combined with postoperative interstitial radiotherapyImage Source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Wounds, Tissue Repair & Scars)
This condition is best treated by: A. Intra-keloidal injection of triamcinolone B. Wide excision and grafting C. Wide excision and suturing ( D. Deep X-ray therapy
Intra-keloidal injection of triamcinolone
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Kness is the most commonly affected joint. Other joints such as hip, ankle , elbow and shoulder can also be involved. Definition : * Localized condition affecting the aicular surface of a joint with separation of a segment of cailage and subchondral bone * Knee by far the most common joint involved (75% of all OCD lesions) with the ankle, elbow, wrist and other joints accounting for the remaining 25% * Most common: Lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle * Weightbearing surfaces of medial and lateral femoral condyles also affected . ref : maheswari 9th ed
Anatomy
null
Which joint is commonly involved in osteochondritis dissecans? A. Ankle joint B. Knee joint C. Wrist joint D. Elbow joint
Knee joint
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Etiology # Pyelonephritis # Obstruction of the urinary tract # Sickle cell hemoglobinopathies, including sickle cell trait # Tuberculosis # Cinhosis of the liver, chronic alcoholism # Analgesic abuse # Renal transplant rejection, Radiation, Renal vein thrombosis # Diabetes mellitus # Systemic vasculitis Renal papillary necrosis # Renal papillary necrosis (RPN) is characterized by coagulative necrosis of the renal medullary pyramids and papillae # Renal papillary necrosis generally affects individuals who are in the middle decades of life or older # It is more common in women than in men # 60% of the patients have DM, 30% Urinary tract obsruction, 15% have both. # Renal papillary necrosis is primarily a bilateral process ref : harrisons 21st ed
Medicine
All India exam
renal papillary necrosis is caused by ? A. alcohol B. cocaine C. heroin D. morphine
alcohol
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Hydatid cyst is caused by Echinococcus granulosus. It has a thick opaque white outer cuticle / laminated layer and an inner thin germinal layer containing nucleated cells. The germinal layer is the site of asexual reproduction. It also secretes the hydatid fluid which fills the cavity. The fluid is clear, colourless / pale yellow with a pH of 6.7 containing salts and protein. It is a good antigen which sensitises the host. The fluid was used as the antigen for Casoni's intradermal test and other diagnostic serological tests. From the germinal layer, small knob like excrescences / gemmules protrude into the lumen of the cyst. These enlarge and become vacuolated and filled with fluid. These are called brood capsules. They are initially attached to the germinal layer by a stalk, but later escapes free into the fluid filled cyst cavity. From the inner wall of brood capsule, protoscolices develop, which represent head of adult worm, complete with invaginated scolex, bearing suckers and hooklets. Each of these are potential tapeworm. Many of the scolices float free in the cyst fluid. These with free brood capsules are called hydatid sand. Ref: Paniker's Textbook of parasitology, 6th Ed page 151.
Microbiology
null
Which is the only living pa of Hydatid cyst? A. Adventitia B. Germinal epithelium C. Laminated membrane D. Parenchyma of the organ
Germinal epithelium
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Von Langenbeck Repair: Two-stage palate repairs were originally described as a means of treating wide clefts; soft palate repair was done at the same time as lip repair, with the hard palate repaired later after the cleft width had diminished. In a way, this is analogous to lip adhesion; the surgeon is committed to a second operation and has additional scar to confront at the time of the second procedure. The use of two-stage palate repair has consistently been shown to produce poorer speech results when compared with most single-stage techniques, but is still used by some surgeons.
ENT
null
Von Langenbeck repair is used for treatment of: A. Cleft lip B. Cleft palate C. Septal detion D. Saddle nose
Cleft palate
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B. i.e. Bed rest for 3 months In low back ache (lumbago) bed rest should not exceed 2 (to 4) daysQ, because bed rest for longer period may lead to debilitating muscle atrophy and increased stiffness. Therefore bed rest > 2 days (Harrison)/>4 days (CDTF) is not recommended.
Surgery
null
Which of the following is not recommended in the treatment of Chronic Low Back Pain: A. NSAIDs B. Bed Rest for 3 months C. Exercises D. Epidural steroid Injection
Bed Rest for 3 months
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It would appear that quaan malaria causes an immune complex nephritis in some individuals that, once established, is sustained by mechanisms not yet fully explained but which may involve an autoimmune process. Evidence to suppo an immunologic pathogenesis of the renal lesions is provided by the presence of immunoglobulin, complement (C3) and quaan malarial antigen in biopsy specimens studied by immunofluorescence microscopy
Microbiology
parasitology
Malaria causing nephrotic syndrome - A. P. vivax B. P. Falciparum C. P. malariae D. P. Ovale
P. malariae
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Ans. A: Sho acting beta 2 agonists Severe asthma (Continuous symptoms; activity limitation; frequent exacerbations/hospitalization) requires: Regular high dose of inhaled steroid (800-2000 microgram/ day) through a large volume spacer device and inhaled long acting beta2 agonist (Salmeterol). Additional treatment with one or more of the following: Leukotriene antagonist/Sustained release oral theophylline/ oral beta2 agonist/ inhaled ipratropium bromide. Rescue treatment with sho acting inhaled beta2 agonist In patients not adequately controlled or those needing frequent emergency care-institute oral steroid therapy.
Pharmacology
null
Drug of choice for acute severe asthma is: September 2006 A. Sho acting beta 2 agonists B. Long acting beta 2 agonists C. Oral theophylline D. Inhaled ipratropium bromide
Sho acting beta 2 agonists
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WHO recommendations for prevention of PPH by active management of third stage of labour Components of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labour (WHO)Administration of uterotonic soon after bih of baby.Delayed cord clamping and cutting.Controlled cord traction for delivery of the placenta (Brandt Andrew&;sMethod).Uterine massage.Uterotonic Agents Used in AMTSLInjectable oxytocin is the first line agent as it is effective after 2-3 minutes and has minimal side effects. Recommended dose by WHO is 10 units IM.Injectable methylergometrine (methergine) 0.2 mg IM/IV delivery of anterior shoulder or immediately after DELIVERY OF BABY.Syntometrine or Oxymatrine (ERGOMETRINE 0.5 MG +OXYTOCIN 5 UNITS) IM after delivery of the baby.Misoprostol 600 microgram tablet orally or rectally (in home delivery). Oral administration of misoprostol should be reversed for situations when the safe administration and/or appropriate storageconditions for injectable oxytocin and ergot alkaloids are not possible.Cord ClampingEarly cord clamping which was included originally in AMTSL not recommended now.Delayed cord clamping is now recommended and not immediate cord clamping.Current evidence shows that delayed cord clamping is beneficial for the baby.Immediate cord clamping has been shown to increase the incidence of iron deficiency and anemia.For premature and low bih weight babies immediate cord clamping can also increase the risk of intraventricular hemorrhage and late-onset sepsis.Controlled Cord TractionRecommended intervention for delivery of the placenta and a well-documented intervention in the active management of third stage of labour.(Refer: Mudaliar and Menon&;s Clinical Obstetrics, 11th edition, pg no: 121)
Pathology
All India exam
According to WHO, what is given to prevent PPH by active management of third stage of labour? A. IV PGF2 alpha agonist B. IM oxytocin C. IV ergometrine D. Perrectal prostaglandins
IM oxytocin
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hereditary spherocytosis Osmotic fragility of Red blood cells. Red blood cell osmotic fragility is the resistance of RBC hemolysis to osmotic changes. o Normally RBC maintains osmotic equilibrium with the surrounding medium i.e., with serum that has 0.9% NaCl. o As the surrounding medium becomes hypotonic fluid will enter into the cell along osmotic gradiant, eventually under very hypotonic conditions the cell will enlarge to capacity and rupture -4 Osmotic lysis. Osmotic fragility is determined by measuring the degree of hemolysis in hypotonic saline. o Normal red cell begins to lyse at 0.5% NaC1 and the hemolysis is complete at 0.3 NaCl. o Red blood cells osmotic fragility is considered to be increased if hemolysis occur in a NaC1 concentration > 0.5%. o Osmotic fragility is considered to be decreased if the hemolysis is not complete in a 0.3% of NaCl. Increased osmotic fragility o Hereditary spherocytosis o Hemolytic anemia (acquired immune) o Malaria o Severe pyruvate kinase dificiency o Hemolytic disease of newborn Decreased osmotic fragility o Iron deficiency anemia Thalassemia Liver disease Reticulocytosis o Hemoglobinopathies, MS, HbC.
Pathology
null
Osmotic fragility is increased in ? A. Sickle cell anaemia B. Thalassemia C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Chronic lead poisoning
Hereditary spherocytosis
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fenoldopam Summary And Recommendations for prevention of contrast induced nephropathy (uptodate recommendation )o Optimal therapy to prevent contrast-induced acute renal failure remains uncertain. Patients with near-normal renal function are at little risk and few precautions are necessary other than avoidance of volume depletion.o We recommend the following preventive measures for patients at increased risk of contrast nephropathy, which is defined a serum creatinine >1.5 mg/dL (132 micromol/L) or an estimated glomerular filtration rate <60 ml/l 73 m2, particularly in those with diabetes.o Use, if possible, ultrasonography, MRI without gadolinium contrast, or CT scanning without radiocontrast agents.o We recommend NOT using high osmolal agents is not recommendedo We recommend the use of iodixanol or nonionic low osmolal agems such as iopamidol or ioversol rather than iohexol.o Use lower doses of contrast and avoid repetitive, closely spaced studies.o Avoid volume depletion and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.o If there are no contra indications to volume expansion, we recommend isotonic intravenous fluids prior to and continued for several hours after contrast administration. The optimal type offluid and timing of administration are not well established. We suggest isotonic bicarbonate rather than isotonic saline.o Despite conflicting data, we suggest that acetylcysteine be administered the day before and the day of the procedure, based upon its potentialfor benefit and low toxicity and cost. If acetylcysteine is administered, we suggest giving 1200 mg orally twice daily rather than 600 mg twice daily the day before and the day of the procedure.o Based upon the lack of convincing evidence of benefit and ihe potential risk of anaphylactoid reactions, we suggest not using intravenous acetylcysteine for the prevention of contrast nephropathy. (Note: Oral acetylcysteine is used)o We recommend NOT using mannitol or other diuretics prophytactically.o Among patients with stage 3 and 4 CKD, we recommend NOTperforming prophylactic hemofiltration or hemodialysis after contrast exposure.o Among patients with stage 5 CKD, we suggest prophylactic hemodialysis after contrast exposure if there is already a functioning hemodialysis access.
Medicine
Drugs
Which drug is not used to prevent contrast nephropathy - A. Fenoldopam B. N-acetylcysteine C. Infusion of Hair normal saline D. Hemodialysis
Fenoldopam
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hydroxylysine o The initial step in protein synthesis is the activation of amino acid in which each of the 20 amino-acids is covalently attached to their respective t-RNA, forming specific amino acyl t-RNA.o The reaction is catalyzed by ami noacyl t-RNA synthase.o Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine are not represented into genetic code, i.e. they to not have t-RNA capable of accepting them and inserting them into polypeptide chain. Therefore, they have to be synthesized post-translational ly from proline and lysine residues in the polypeptides.
Biochemistry
Amino Acids Basics
Aminoacyl t-RNA is not require for - A. Proline B. Lysine C. Hydroxy lysine D. Methionine
Hydroxy lysine
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Episodes of major depression tend to increase in both length and frequency with age. When treated, episodes of major depression last for about 3 months. If untreated, depression lasts from 6 to 12 months. Episodes of major depression often have a gradual onset and occur an average of 5 to 6 times over a 20-year period.
Psychiatry
null
Episodes of depression in major depressive disorder tend to: A. Increase in frequency with age B. Decrease in length with age C. Last for about 9 months when treated D. Have a rapid onset
Increase in frequency with age
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adeno virus cause epidemic keratoconjuctivitis REF:<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.482
Microbiology
Virology
Which of the following does cause epidemic kerato conjuctivitis - A. Adenovirus B. Enterovirus C. Coxsakie virus D. Herpes virus
Adenovirus
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Ans: A (Menigocele) Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease: 8th editionExplanation:Sacrococcygeal TeratomasMost common teratomas of childhoodAccounts for 40% or more of casesFour times more common in girlsApproximately 10% of sacrococcygeal teratomas are associated with congenital anomaliesPrimarily defects of the hindgut and cloacal regionMid line defectsMeningocele and spina bifidaApproximately 75% of these tumors are mature teratomas, and about 12% are unequivocally malignant and lethal. The remainder is immature teratomas.Most of the benign teratomas are encountered in younger infants (<4 months), whereas children with malignant lesions tend to be older.Other sites for teratomas in childhood include:TestisOvariesMediastinumRetroperitoneumHead and neck.
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Neoplasia)
Sacrococcygeal teratoma is associated with: A. Meningocele B. Cardiac detects C. Hepatic cysts D. Cystic adenoid malformation
Meningocele
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Ans. is 'b' i.e. Mercury Pink disease or Acrodvniao It is thought to be an idiosyncratic hypersensitivity reaction particularly seen in children. This can be caused by chronic mercury exposure in any form usually in children. The onset is insidious with anorexia, insomnia, sweating, skin rash and photophobia. Hands and feet become puffy, pinkish, painful, paraesthetic with peeling of skin (5Ps). Teeth may be shed.
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
Which poisoning causes 'pink disease'? A. Arsenic B. Mercury C. Copper D. Lead
Mercury
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Ans is 'a' i.e. Laser Photocoagulation Threshold disease in ROP is defined as stage 3+ ROP in Zones 1 or 2 occupying at least five contiguous clock-hours or eight noncontiguous clock-hours of retina.Treatment of threshold disease is Laser Photocoagulation.'Laser therapy has largely replaced cryotherapy because visual and anatomical outcomes are superior and laser induces less myopia. " -Kanski 6/e p610Other options:Antioxidants like vit E and slow reduction in 02 has no role in established ROP (threshold disease in our patient); although both are mentioned in few texts for prevention of ROP and even that is not well proven.Retinal reattachment is required when retina is detached like in stage 4 and 5 while Threshold disease is Stage 3 + disease.Also know:"Low birth weight and decreased gestational age are now considered the primary causative factors for ROP. Supplemental oxygen administration which was for a long time considered as the important causative factor is now considered only a risk factor. " - Khuran Ophthalmology 4/e p264 "ROP is confined to those with a birth weight of under 1.5 kg and/or a gestational age of under 32 wks. "- Parson 21/e P310 The hallmark of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is abnormal retinal vasculature. Ophthalmologists diagnose and make decisions about the initial treatment of ROP based on the appearance of the retinal blood vessels. Dilatation and tortuosity of the retinal vessels at the posterior pole is termed 'plus' disease. It is a sign of rapidly progressive ROP and is an indication for early laser ablation of the peripheral avascular retina.Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)ROP is a bilateral proliferative retinopathy that develops in premature infants due to incomplete vasculogenesis of retina at the time of birth.During normal retinal development, vessels migrate from the optic disc to the ora serrata beginning at 16weeks of gestation. Capillary network is formed differentiating into mature vessels which extend to nasal ora by 36 wks and tangential ora by 39-41 wks.The pathogenesis of ROP begins with premature birth. Exposure of extrauterine environment causes phases of hyperoxia-vasocessation (obliteration of retinal vessels) and hypoxia-Vaso proliferation (neovascularization). VEGF is thought to be the most important molecule involved in the neovascularization.Neovascularization leads to retinal and vitreous changes which ultimately lead to retinal detachment.Classification of ROP:ROP is described using a number of parameters. These are location of the disease into zones (1, 2, and 3), the circumferential extent of the disease based on the clock hours (1-12), the severity of the disease (stage 1-5) and the presence or absence of "Plus Disease".Classification on the basis of severity, ROP is divided into 5 stages:-Stage I- the first sign of ROP (stage 1) is the appearance of a thin, fiat, white structure (termed a demarcation line) at the junction of vascularized retina posteriorly and avascular retina anteriorly.Stage II- the demarcation line develops into a pink or white elevation (ridge) of thickened tissueStage III- proliferation of vessels over the ridge and into vitreous (extra vitreal fibrovascular proliferation)Stage IV- partial retinal detachmentIVa- partial detachment with macular sparing IVb- partial detachment with macula involvedStage V- total retinal detachmentClassification on basis of anatomical location:-Since there is a direct correlation between severity of disease and amount of avascular retina, the location of the border between vascularized and avascular retina is an important prognostic sign.3 zones are divided to describe the location of ROP. Location of the border in zone 1 is the most severe disease and in zone 3 least.Zone 1 is defined as a circle, the center of which is the disc, and the radius of which is twice the distance of the disc to the fovea.Zone 2 is a doughnut-shaped region that extends from the anterior border of Zone 1 to within one disc-diameter of the ora serrata nasally and to the anatomic equator temporally.Zone 3 encompasses the residual temporal retina.Plus disease:- As ROP progresses, more and more shunting occurs in the neovascular tissue at the retinal vascular- avascular junction. This increased retinal vascular blood flow results in dilation and tortuosity of the major retinal arteries and veins in the posterior pole - described as "plus disease". Plus disease is the hallmark of rapidly progressive ROP and is notated by adding a plus sign after the number of the ROP stage.Management:Most of the cases (approx. 80%) of ROP resolve spontaneously, hence intervention is chosen according to the below given protocol.ROP is divided into Threshold and Pre threshold disease.Threshold disease: It is defined as stage 3+ ROP in Zones 1 or 2 occupying at least five contiguous clock-hours or eight noncontiguous clock-hours of retina.Treatment of Threshold disease is - Laser photocoagulation.Pre threshold disease is divided into 2 types:High risk or Type I - treatment is Laser photocoagulationLow risk or Type II - treatment is Weekly or Twice weekly observationType 1 Pre thresholdType 2 Pre thresholdZone I ROP (any stage) + Zone I, Stage 3 Zone II, Stage 2/3 +Zone I, Stage 1/2 - Zone II, Stage 3 -Laser PhotocoagulationWeekly or Twice weekly observationROP diseases less severe than Pre threshold are followed up.In this question, the child with zone 1, stage II 'plus' ROP falls into Pre threshold disease- Type 1 or high risk type, hence Laser Photocoagulation would be the management of choice.
Ophthalmology
Dystrophies and Degenerations
What is the treatment of threshold ROP? A. laser photocoagulation B. slow reduction in oxygen C. retinal reattachment D. antioxidants
laser photocoagulation
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DLBCL - Most common lymphoma in adults Follicular lymphoma - Most common indolent lymphoma in adults Chronic lymphocytic leukemia - Most common leukemia in adults
Pathology
Non Hodgkin Iymphoma
Which is the most common lymphoma in adults? A. Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL) B. Hodgkin lymphoma C. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) D. Follicular lymphoma
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
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Flashing: The act of momentarily exposing or revealing sexual body pa by quickly moving the clothing. Streaking: The act of running naked through a public place. Mooning: The act of displaying one's bare buttocks, by lowering the pants and bending over
Forensic Medicine
Sexual offences
Mooning is a form of A. Exhibitionism B. Transvestism C. Voyeurism D. Eonism
Exhibitionism
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Posterior interosseous emerges from the supinator on the back of the forearm .Here it lies between the superficial and deep muscles.At the lower border of the extensor pollicis brevis, it passes deep to extensor pollicis longus.it then runs on the posterior surface of the interosseous membrane up to the wrist where it enlarges into pseudoganglion and ends by supplying the wrist and intercarpal joints.
Anatomy
Upper limb
A person had injury to right upper limb he is not able to extend fingers but able to extend wrist and elbow. Nerve injured is - A. Radial B. Median C. Ulnar D. Posterior interosseus
Posterior interosseus
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NPO is same for obese and normal. NPO guidelines - 6hrs for liquid and semisolid, 2 hours NPO for clear fluids. Subset of patients who are at high risk for aspiration - pregnant women, morbidly obese (rapid sequence induction), full fatty meal - 8 hours NPO.
Anaesthesia
JIPMER 2019
The patient with least risk of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents during induction of anesthesia is:- A. Markedly obese and NPO for eight hours B. Fed coffee four hours before elective surgery C. Scheduled for elective cesarean delivery and NPO for 20 hours D. NPO for four hours after a full meal
Markedly obese and NPO for eight hours
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Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
Which of the following enzyme uses citrate in fatty acid synthesis? A. Aconitase B. Citrate synthase C. Malic enzyme D. ATP citrate lyase
Citrate synthase
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Answer is D (Hyaline Aeriosclerosis) : Hyaline aeriosclerosis is a feature of Benign Nephrosclerosis associated with benign phase of Hypeension. It is not a ,feature of Malignant Hypeension.
Medicine
null
Which of the following changes does not occur in malignant hypeension : A. Peticheal Haemorrhages on coical surface B. Fibrinoid necrosis of aerioles C. Intimal concentric thickening D. Hyaline aeriosclerosis
Hyaline aeriosclerosis
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Radial nerveRecovery potential after nerve repairExcellent :- Radial, Musculocutaneous, femoral, digital nervesModerate :- Median, Ulnar, TibialPoor :- Common peroneal (lateral popliteal)
Orthopaedics
Radial Nerve Injury
Which of the following nerves has the best prognosis for repair after injury - A. Ulnar B. Radial C. Median D. Lateral popliteal
Radial
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pethidine Post-anaesthesia shivering (PAS) Post anaesthesia (post operative) shivering occurs in 40% of patients recovering from general anaesthesia. Some time it is preceded by central hypothermia and peripheral vasoconstriction, indicating that it is a thermoregulatory mechanism Pethidine is most effective drug for treatment of PAS. Other drugs used are --clonidine, doxapram, ketanserin, alfentonil, butorphanol, chlorpromazine.
Anaesthesia
null
Treatment in post operative shivering? A. Pethidine B. Piritramide C. Methadone D. Pentazocine
Pethidine
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Birbeck granules are rod Shaped/Tennis-racket shaped cytoplasmic organelles with a central linear density and a striated appearance. They are diagnostic microscopic feature in Langerhans cell histiocytosis (Histiocytosis X)
Pathology
null
Birbeck’s granules in the cytoplasm are seen in: A. Langerhans cells B. Mast cells C. Myelocytes D. Thrombocytes
Langerhans cells
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Risk factors LEVELS OF PREVENTION There are four levels of prevention :? Primordial prevention Primary prevention Secondary prevention Teiary prevention Primordial Level of Prevention: Is primary prevention (see below) in purest sense It is the prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared Modes of Intervention: Individual Education Mass Education Primordial Level is Best level of prevention for Non-communicable diseases
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Primordial prevention is done to prevent development of ? A. Disease B. Risk factors C. Impairment D. Disability
Risk factors
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-1 antagonisto Anakinra is an IL-1 antagonist.o It is used for some rare syndromes dependent on IL-1 production :Neonatal - onset inflammatory diseaseMuckle - Wells syndromeFamilial cold urticariaSystemic juvenile - onset inflammatory arthritisRA
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
Anakinra is a - A. IL - 1 antagonist B. IL - 2 antagonist C. IL - 6 antagonist D. IL - 10 antagonist
IL - 1 antagonist
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Biliary atresia Evaluation of biliary anatomy begins with ultrasound Other imaging modalities such as HIDA scintigraphy, MRCP and ERCP have been used with varying success Although these are useful adjuncts, liver biopsy is gold standard for the diagnosis of biliary atresia and can safely be done percutaneously under local anaesthesia Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 639
Anatomy
G.I.T
The gold standard for the definitive diagnosis of the extrahepatic biliary atresia is A. Per operative cholangiography B. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy C. Alkaline phosphatase level D. Liver biopsy
Liver biopsy
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Ans. A: Hereditary spherocytosisThe normal red blood cell is a relatively impermeable biconcave disc which maintains osmotic equilibrium with the surrounding medium. As the surrounding medium becomes hypotonic, fluid will be taken into the cell to maintain stability. Eventually under very hypotonic conditions the cell will fill to capacity and rupture. Spherocytic red blood cells have a decreased capacity to expand, and will rupture in mildly hypotonic conditions that fail to lyse normal red cells. They thus exhibit increased osmotic fragility.Osmotic fragility is determined by measuring the degree of hemolysis in hypotonic saline solution. With the unincubated test, red cell osmotic fragility is considered to be increased if hemolysis occurs in a sodium chloride concentration > 0.5%. Although increased osmotic fragility is characteristically associated with hereditary spherocytosis, it may also be increased in other types of hemolytic anemia associated with the presence of spherocytes, paicularly auto-immune hemolytic anemia, and in hypernatermia (Na > 155 meq/L).Often the increased osmotic fragility in spherocytosis is limited to a small fraction of cells that are unusually susceptible to lysis. After incubation, the defect is magnified, and a striking increase in fragility will be seen in hereditary spherocytosis. Osmotic fragility is considered to be decreased if hemolysis is not complete in a 0.30% NaC1 solution. Decreased osmotic fragility is associated with chronic liver disease, iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia, hyponatremia (Na < 130 meq/ L), polycythemia vera, and sickle cell anemia after splenectomy.
Pathology
null
Increased osmotic fragility is characteristic of:September 2009 A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Sickle cell anemia C. Thalassemia D. Iron deficiency anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
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Absolute indications for surgical treatment of BPH 1) Refractory urine retention (failing at least one attempt at catheter removal 2) Recurrent UTI from BPH 3) Bladder stones d/t BPH 4) Renal insufficiency d/t BPH 5) Large bladder diveicula secondary to BPH 6) Recurrent gross hematuria from BPH Ref : Cambell's Urology 8/e p1340
Anatomy
Urology
Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia - A. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis B. Nocturnal frequency C. Recurrent urinary tract infection D. Voiding bladder pressures > 50 cm of water
Recurrent urinary tract infection
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(C) Phenyalanine hydroxylase # Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder inherited from a person's parents.> It is due to mutations in the PAH gene which results in low levels of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.> This results in the build up of dietary phenylalanine to potentially toxic levels. It is autosomal recessive meaning that both copies of the gene must be mutated for the condition to develop.> There are two main types, classic PKU and variant PKU, depending on if any enzyme function remains.> Those with one copy of a mutated gene typically do not have symptoms.
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry)
Phenylketonuria caused by deficiency of A. Tyrosine transaminase B. Tyrosine hydroxylase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Phenylketonuria hydroxylase
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
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Simultaneous beating of both ears with the palms of the hands is known as TELEFONO. This may lead to rupture of the tympanic membrane causing pain, bleeding and hearing loss. It is difficult to detect this. The external ear may also get torn during pulling of the ears.
Surgery
null
Telefono is: A. Pulling of hair B. Beating on soles C. Beating on ears D. Beating on fingers
Beating on ears
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HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal * More cognitive side effects==bi fronto temporal * Less cognitive side effect======bi frontal * SIDE EFFECTS * RETROGRADE AMNESIA * BODY ACHE * MEDICATIONS USED IN THE PROCEDURE * ANAESTHETIC======Thiopentone / ethosuximide * MUSCLE RELAXANT====Succynyl choline CURARE IN PSEUDOCHOLINEESTERASE DEFICIENCY * ANTICHOLINERGIC=====Atropine CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication * RELATIVE -----------------Brain tumour / arrythmia Ref. kaplon and saock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, 1055
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
who introduced ECT A. manfred bleuler B. moerin seligman C. lucio bini D. freud
lucio bini
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Answer is D (Enterovirus): Enteroviruses are the most common cause of viral meningoencephalitis. Arboviruses, HSV and Mumps virus are all impoant agents associated with viral meningoencephalitis, but Enteroviruses are the most commonly associated agents and the answer of choice. 'Enteroviruses are the most common cause of viral meningoencephalitis' -
Medicine
null
Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children: A. Mumps B. Arbovirus C. HSV D. Enterovirus
Enterovirus
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Serum ferritin is the single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status.It reflects the size of Iron stores in the body. Values below 10 mcg/L indicate an absence of stored iron.Park 23e pg: 623
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
Single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status is A. Haemoglobin concentration B. Serum ion concentration C. Serum ferritin D. Serum transferrin saturation
Serum ferritin
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One PHC for every 30,000 rural population in the plains. One PHC for every 20,000 population in hilly, tribal and backward areas.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is – A. 20000 B. 30000 C. 40000 D. 25000
20000
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A bullet's ability to injure is directly related to its kinetic energy at the moment of impact. Kinetic energy i.e. E = mv2 /2 The kinetic energy is directly propoional to weight (mass) of the bullet and the square of its velocity. Thus a bullet traveling at twice the speed of a second bullet of equal weight and similar size and shape, possesses four times much energy and injuring power. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 189.
Forensic Medicine
null
Which of the following factor determines the destructive power of bullet after firing? A. Weight of bullet B. Shape of bullet C. Size of bullet D. Velocity of bullet
Velocity of bullet
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Baroreceptors are present in carotid sinus and aortic arch. Increase in BP activates them which results in decrease in the sympathetic discharge. This leads to decrease in cardiac contraction, heart rate and BP.
Physiology
null
Baroreceptor stimulation producesa) Decreased heart rate & BPb) Increased heart rate & BPc) Increased cardiac contractilityd) Decreased cardiac contractility A. b B. c C. ac D. ad
ad
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(B) (Bell Magendie law's) (157 - Ganang 23rd)* Bell Magandie law - In the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and ventral roots are motors (DS - VM)* Weber Fachner law - Magnitude of sensation felt in proportionate to the log of intensity of the stimulus**.* Law of pro jection states than no matter where a particular sensory pathway is stimulated along its course to the cortex. The conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of the receptor (eg. Phantom limb).* Within physiological limits, the force of contraction of the ventricular muscle fibers is directly proportional to its initial length i.e. larger the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibers, greater will be the force of contraction of the ventricles. This is known as the Frank Starling Law of the heart.* All or none relationship between the stimulus and the response is called. All or none law, applies to the whole of the functional syncytium in the heart, the unit bring the entire atria or entire ventricle.Points to remember* Arterioles - Resistance vessel, capillaries - exchange vessels, veins - capacitance vessels, main arteries conduct (muscular) arteries.* Windkessel effect is seen in - large elastic vessels- Major reservoir of blood is veins- Highest compliance is seen in veinsa) Neurons of first order - Axon of bipolar cells (in Retina)b) Neurons of second order - Axons of ganglionic cell (Retina i.e. optic disc) optic nerve** (optic chiasma, optic tract).c) Neurons of third order : Axons from nerve cells in lateral geniculate body (optic radiation)* Dorsal root ganglia have - Pseudounipolar.* Neurons in sympathetic ganglia are - Multipolar
Physiology
Nervous System
The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as - A. Laplace's law B. Bell-Magendle's law C. Frank-Starling's law D. Weber-Fechner's law
Bell-Magendle's law
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Tracer bullet: It leaves a visible mark or 'trace' while in flight, so that the path of bullet can be seen . Dum - dum bullet: The nose of the bullet is not covered by jacket & exposed. It expands or mushrooms on striking the target, producing a large hole & more damage. Incendiary bullets: Incendiary bullets contain phosphorus. Type of army bullet used to cause fire in the target. Tandem bullet: Bullets ejected one after the other, when the first bullet having been struck in the barrel fails to leave the barrel and is ejected by a subsequently fired bullet.
Forensic Medicine
Ballistics
Bullet that leaves a visible mark in its flight so that person can see the path is A. Tandem bullet B. Tracer bullet C. Dum-dum bullet D. Incendiary bullet
Tracer bullet
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D i.e. Wyburn-Mason syndrome - Wyburn-Mason syndrome (or Bonnet-Dechaume Blanc syndrome mesencephalo-oculo-facial or mesencephalo-optico retinal angiomatosis syndrome) is characterized by neuro (mesencephalo) - optico / oculo / retinal - facial angiomatosis (vascular-malformations). - Wyburn-Mason syndrome presents with telangiectasia of skinQ (i.e cutaneous vascular nevi) on face + retinal cirsoid aneurysmQ and aerio-venous malformation (AVM) involving the visual pathways and midbrainQ (= entire optic tract = optic nerve, thalamus, geniculate bodies and calcarine coex). The lesions are typically unilateral mostly. It may be a/w AVMs of postrior fossa, neck, mandible/maxilla presenting in childhood. Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome (hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia) is AD neurocutaneous syndrome that result in a variety of systemic fibrovascular dysplasia (i.e. telangiectasia, AVM, AV hemangioma/fistula, and aneurysm) affecting mucous membrane, skin, lung, brain and GI tract-Q. Telangiectasi is primarily found in the skin & mucous membranes. AVM and fistula are found manly in liver > brain > lung > spine. Aneurysm can invovle any size vessel. Frequent bleeding into mucous membrane, skin, lungs, genitourinary and gestrointestinal system is d/ t vascular weakness. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome (KTS) is angio-osteo-hyperophy i.e. hyperophy of soft tissue & over growth of bone IR abnormalitie of finger/toes /limb and venous varicosities d/t large angiomatous nevus (AVM). Several KTS patients exhibit CNS findings of Sturg-Weber syndrome and are called Klippel-TrenaunayWeber syndrome. They exhibit cutaneous angiomata, soft tissue /bony hyperophy and leptomeningeal vascular malformation.
Radiology
null
Mesencephalo-oculo-facial-angiomatosis is seen in: A. KTW Syndrome B. NF-1 & 2 C. Sturge-Weber syndrome D. Wyburn-Mason syndrome
Wyburn-Mason syndrome
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Features of Buspirone Non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic agentDoes not produce significant sedation or cognitive/functional impairmentDoes not interact with BZD receptor or modify GABAergic transmissionDoes not produce tolerance or physical dependence Does not suppress BZD or barbiturate withdrawal syndrome Has no muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant activity (Refer: KD Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, pg no: 466-467)
Pathology
All India exam
The following drug has anxiolytic action with least sedation A. Buspirone B. Triazolam C. Alprazolam D. Chlordiazepoxide
Buspirone
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The Human Povey Index (HPI) was considered to better reflect the extent of deprivation to the HDI. In 2010 it was supplanted by the UN&;s Multidimensional Povey Index.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
Index measuring deprivation in basic dimensions of human development A. Human povey index B. Human development index C. Physical quality of life index D. Development deprivation index
Human povey index
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Prophalyctatic antibiotics is given to all vesicoureteric reflex pts.
Surgery
null
A child with vesicoureteric reflex of grade 2 comes to OPD. What is the preferred treatment method A. Antibiotics B. Observation C. Sting operation D. Ureteric reimplantation
Antibiotics
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Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Intense fear of becoming fat * Restriction of food intake * Restricting type * Binge eating and purging type * Amenorrhea is not needed for diagnosis, previously amenorrhea is considered as a diagnostic criteria for diagnosis, in recent DSM 5 amenorrhea is considered for a diagnosis * Association= * OCD and depression * Decreased interest in sex * Complication * 7-14% moality * ECG changes * Hypokalemic alkalosis because of induced vomiting * Gastric dilation * Drugs * Cypro hepatidine * SSRI * Management * Admit in severe cases * Prevent vomiting by making restroom inaccessible for 2 hours after food intake * Avoid laxatives * Small frequent meals * Avoid refeeding syndrome Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 509
Anatomy
Sleep disorders and eating disorders
patient has decreased weight, need for thinness, the diagnosis is A. refeeding syndrome B. anorexia nervosa C. metabolic syndrome D. bulimia nervosa
anorexia nervosa
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Krukenberg tumor is a distinctive bilateral tumor metastatic to the ovaries by the transcoelomic spread. The tumor is generally secondary to a gastric carcinoma but other primary sites where mucinous carcinomas occur (e.g. colon, appendix, and breast) may also produce Krukenberg tumor in the ovary. Rarely, a tumor having the pattern of Krukenberg tumor is primary in the ovary.Grossly, Krukenberg tumor forms rounded or kidney-shaped firm large masses in both ovaries. Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of mucus-filled signet ring cells which may lie singly or in clusters. It is accompanied by a sarcoma-like cellular proliferation of ovarian stroma HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 750
Pathology
miscellaneous
Krukenberg tumor is associated mostly with which cancer? A. Stomach B. Breast C. Liver D. Pancreas
Stomach
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Ans: c (Glottic cancer) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 372; 4th ed, p. 286No lymphatics in vocal cords so nodal metastasis are practically never seen in cord lesions unless the disease spreads beyond the membraneous cord. SupraglottisGlottisSubglottisSiteEpiglottisAryepiglottic foldArytenoidVentricular bandsVentricles & sacculeTrue vocal cordsAnt.commissurePost.commissureWall of subglottis upto lower border of cricoid cartilageFrequencyLess frequent than glotticMost commonLeast commonNodal metsNodal mets earlyNo lymph node metsNodal mets as common as in supraglottic varietySymptomsOften silent, hoarseness lateHoarsenessStridor
ENT
Tomour of Larynx
Which of the following malignancy shows least lymph node involvement: A. Supraglottic B. Subglottic C. Glottic cancer D. Ca nasopharynx
Glottic cancer
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Ans: b (Sucrase) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p.Sucrase or invert sugar converts sucrose (which is a complex polysaccharide) into 1 molecule of glucose and 1 molecule of fructose.Na+k+ ATPase is a membrane protein.Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme in intestinal mucosa which will activate trypsinogen to trypsin.Proteolytic enzyme are secreted as zymogens which are converted into their active forms in the intestinal lumen. This will prevent the auto digestion of secretory acini. Once activated trypsin activates other molecules.Carboxypeptidase is a proteolytic enzyme present in pancreatic juice.
Biochemistry
Carbohydrates
Complex polysaccharides are converted to glucose and absorbed by the help of: A. Na+k+ATPase B. Sucrase C. Enterokinase D. Carboxypeptidase
Sucrase
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(b) Source: GAS 849-852, 855; GA 450, 465, 536The right abducens nerve innervates the right lateral rectus, which mediates outward movement (abduction) of the right eye. Inward movement is accomplished by the medial rectus, supplied by the oculomotor nerve. Downward movement in the midline is accomplished by joint activation of the superior oblique and inferior rectus muscle. Downward movement of the pupil from the adducted position is a function of the superior oblique alone, which is supplied by the trochlear nerve. Down and out motion is mediated by the combined actions of the lateral rectus and inferior rectus, which are innervated by the abducens and oculomotor nerves. Downward movement of the pupil from a forward gaze is a result of combined actions of inferior rectus and superior oblique muscles, supplied by oculomotor and trochlear nerves, respectively.
Anatomy
Head & Neck
A 47-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis. Radiographic examination reveals a pituitary tumor involving the cavernous sinus, confirming the initial diagnosis. During physical examination it is suspected that the right abducens nerve of the patient has been damaged by the tumor. In which direction will the physician most likely ask the patient to turn her right eye to confirm the abducens nerve damage, assuming she is unable to perform this task? A. Inward B. Outward C. Downward D. Down and out
Outward
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The 'Accordion sign' (also known as 'conceina sign') is seen on CT examinations of the abdomen Refers to the similarity between the thickened oedematous wall of Pseudomembranous colitis and the folds of an accordion. This appearance is the result of hyperaemic enhancing mucosa stretched over markedly thickened submucosal folds. Also seen when contrast is trapped between oedematous haustral folds and pseudomembranes formed on the luminal surface of the colon.
Radiology
Gastrointestinal Radiology
Accordian sign is seen in A. Pseudomembranous colitis B. Intussusception C. Ileocecal TB D. Ischemic colitis
Pseudomembranous colitis
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Deadly triad of trauma Following a trauma protracted surgery in physiologically unstable patient, the three factors that carry moality are Hypothermia Acidosis Coagulopathy Hence originated a phenomenon - DAMAGE CONTROL SURGERY Phases of damage control surgery Phase1 :Initial exploration Phase 2: Secondary Resucitation Phase 3: Definitive operation Phase 1(initial exploration) Control of active hemorrhage and contamination Midline incision--4 quadrant packing done GIT perforation done with sutures or staples External drains kept for pancreatic or bile duct injuries Temporary closure of abdomen using plastic sheet known as OPSITE This technique of closure is known as VACPAC or OPSITE SANDWICH Phase 2( secondary resuscitation) Transfer to ICU Ventilatory suppo Correct the deadly triad Hypothermia, acidosis, Coagulopathy Phase 3(definitive treatment) Planned re exploration and definitive surgery Done 48-72 hrs after secondary phase Complex reconstruction must be avoided Ref : Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno: 318-326, 378-380, 426
Anatomy
General anatomy
Phase 2 of Damage control surgery occurs at A. Pre hospital management B. Resuscitation in ICU C. Resuscitation in operating room D. Definitive repair
Resuscitation in ICU
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trypanosoma cruzi Romana's signo The classic finding in acute Chagas disease, which consists of unilateral painless edema of the palpebrae and periocular tissues - can result when the conjunctiva is the portal of entry.o These initial local signs may be follwed by malaise, fever, anorexia, and edema of the face and lower extremities.o Generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly may develop.
Medicine
Parasitology
Romana's sign is seen in - A. Toxoplasma B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Loaloa D. Wuchereria
Trypanosoma cruzi
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All clinical features are suggestive of malignant otitis externa, an inflammatory condition of the external ear. Malignant otitis externa (also k/a Necrotizing external otitis) Malignant otitis externa is an inflammatory condition of the external ear usually spreading deep to cause osteomyelitis of temporal bone and base of skull. It occurs primarily in immunocompromised persons, especially older persons with diabetes mellitus, and is often initiated by self-inflicted or iatrogenic trauma to the external auditory canal [May also be seen in pts. who received radiotherapy to skull base I The most frequent pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Others may be S. aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Aspergillus, Actinomyces, and some gram-negative bacterial. One of the hallmarkof malignant otitis externs is granulation tissue in the external auditory canal, especially at the hone-cailage junction. As the infection spreads to the temporal bone, it may extend into the cranium and result in cranial nerve palsies (commonly the facial nerve) Cranial nerve involvement indicates poor prognosis. Death is usually due to intracranial complications such as sigmoid sinus thrombosis. It has high moality rate due to which the name 'malignant' is used for this disease. Treatment Includes correction of immunosuppression (when possible), local treatment of the auditory canal, long-term systemic antibiotic therapy, and in selected patients, surgery. - In all cases, the external ear canal is cleansed and a biopsy specimen of the granulation tissue sent for culture. - IV antibiotics is directed against the offending organism. - For Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the most common pathogen, the regimen involves an antipseudomonal penicillin or cephalosporin (3rd generation-piperacillin or ceftazidime) with an aminoglycoside. A fluoroquinolone antibiotic can be used in place of the aminoglycoside. Ear drops containing antipseudomonal antibiotic e.g. ciproflaxacin plus a glucocoticoid is also used. - Early cases can be managed with oral and otic fluoroquinolones only. - Extensive surgical debridement once an impoant pa of the treatment is now rarely needed.
ENT
null
An elderly diabetic with excruciating pain in ear, appearance of granulation in meatus, skull base infection with facial paralysis should be treated with A. Penicillin B. Ciprofloxacin C. 2nd generation ciphalosporin D. Erythromycin
Penicillin
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CONTRAINDICATIONS / PRECAUTIONS Adrenal insufficiency, anuria, diabetes mellitus, hyperkalemia, renal disease, renal failure, renal impairment. ... Acid/base imbalance, metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis. ... Ascites, biliary cirrhosis, hepatic disease. ... Menstrual irregularity.
Pharmacology
Kidney
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated along with spironolactone A. Chlorothiazide B. Beta blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Amlodipine
ACE inhibitors
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The American Dental Association (ADA), the American Academy for Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), the European Academy for Pediatric Dentistry (EAPD), and other organizations have published criteria that are meant to guide the dental professional in decision-making regarding appropriate radiographic imaging (Table 2-5). These guidelines clearly state that if the patient cannot cope with the procedure, one should attempt other strategies to handle the situation. The guidelines all acknowledge that, in some cases, radiographs are not possible, in which case, one should balance the benefit against the risk even more carefully. Sometimes it is better to postpone the radiographic exposure until the patient is older or better conditioned. The guidelines also clearly state that if there are no clinical signs of pathology, the need for a radiographic assessment is up to the professional’s judgment, and that these decisions have to be made on an individual patient basis. Radiographs are never to be used for economic and screening reasons since they involve a potential health risk for the patient. A 3-year-old with a sound dentition and open proximal contacts does not need a radiographic assessment. In contrast, for a 3-year-old with only 10 teeth visible in the mouth and no history of dental treatment, the dental professional should make a radiographic assessment. If a 4-year-old shows rampant decay, a radiographic assessment is certainly justifiable and indicated.
Dental
null
A 3-year-old male has come for a routine dental check up. Intra-oral examination reveals good oral hygiene and open proximal contacts. During previous dental appointments, he was cooperative. Which radiographic assessment should be done for this patient? A. No radiographic assessment. B. Bitewing Radiographs C. Intraoral periapical radiograph D. Occlusal radiographs
No radiographic assessment.
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There are areas of colon with poor blood supply resulting from incomplete anastomosis of marginal aeries. These are watershed areas of colon and include :Splenic flexure (Griffith point) : Watershed area between superior mesenteric aery and inferior mesenteric aery.Rectosigmoid junction (Sudeck's point) : Watershed zone between inferior mesenteric aery and internal iliac aery.
Anatomy
null
Watershed zone of large intestine ? A. Cecum B. Ascending colon C. Rectosigmoid D. Transverse colon
Rectosigmoid
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The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming what is sometimes called a corpus hemorrhagicum. Minor bleeding from the follicle into the abdominal cavity may cause peritoneal irritation and fleeting lower abdominal pain ("mittelschmerz"). The granulosa and theca cells of the follicle lining promptly begin to proliferate, and the clotted blood is rapidly replaced with yellowish, lipid-rich luteal cells, forming the corpus luteum. Ref: Alford C., Nurudeen S. (2013). Chapter 4. Physiology of Reproduction in Women. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which of the following is indicated by the term 'mittelschmerz'? A. Fern pattern of cervical mucus B. Peritoneal irritation from corpus hemorrhagicum C. Rise of body temperature due to effect of progesterone D. LH surge before ovulation
Peritoneal irritation from corpus hemorrhagicum
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Ans. is `b' i.e., Type H Collegen type Tissue distributionUbiquitous in hard & soft tissuesII & IX Cailage, interveebral disc, vitreousIn Hollow organs & soft tissuesIV Basement membraneV Blood vesselsVI Ubiquitous in microfibrilsVII Dermoepidemal junctionIX Cailage & VitrousNote : Amongst these type I, II, III, V & IX are fibrillary Interstitial collegen, all others are nonfibrillary collegen.
Pathology
null
Aicular cailage is made up of- A. Type I collagen B. Type II collagen C. Type III collagen D. Type IV collagen
Type II collagen
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., K ATP channel blocker * Sulfonylurease provoke a brisk release of insulin from pancreas. They act on the so called "Sulfonylurea receptors" (SUR1) on pancreatic b-cell membrane - cause depolarization by reducing conductance of ATP sensitive K+ channels. This enhances influx of Ca+2 - degranulation. They do not cause hypoglycemia in pancreatectomized animals and type 1 diabetes (Presence of at least 30% of functional b-cells in essential for their action). A minor action reducing glucagon secretion by increasing insulin and somatostatin release has been demonstrated.
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
Mechanism of action of the sulfonylureas is A. K+ ATP channel blocker B. Na ATP channel blocker C. Cl ATP channel blocker D. Ca ATP channel blocker.
K+ ATP channel blocker
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Answer is D (Asbestosis): Lower lobe fibrosis is seen in Asbestosis. Silicosis, Sarcoidosis and Cystic Fibrosis are all associated with Upper Lobe Fibrosis Upper Lobe Fibrosis Fibrotic Disease Old Granulomatous Infection (Tuberculosis; Histoplasmosis; Coccidioidomycosis) Sarcoidosis Silicosis, Berylliosis Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis Ankylosing Spondylitis Radiation Pneumonitis Chronic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis Airway Disease Cystic Fibrosis Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA) Fibrotic Disease Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis Asbestosis Collagen Vascular Disease (SLE; Systemic Sclerosis; RA) Drugs (Busulphan; Bleomycin; Methotrexate etc.) Airway Disease Chronic Aspiration Basal Bronchiectasis
Medicine
null
Lower lobe fibrosis is seen in : A. Silicosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Cystic Fibrosis D. Asbestosis
Asbestosis
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Ghotna: Rolling a wooden log over the thighs up and down, while the log is weighed by one or two policemen standing on it Cattle prod: Electric shock especially over the genitals Sham execution: Victim is blind folded and asked to stand before a wall and then threatened that a vehicle is going to hit him. He hears the sound of a vehicle very near to him, causing fear and shock.
Forensic Medicine
Toure methods
Ghotna is:- A. Heavy wooden log rolled on leg B. Compressing the thighs with two roads C. Tying the limps to the pole D. Electric shock to genitalia
Heavy wooden log rolled on leg
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Epiphyseal enlargement Most common causes of epiphyseal enlargement are chronic inflammation (e.g. JRA) or chronic increase in blood flow. Causes of Epiphyseal enlargement are:- a) Solitary (Enlargement of particular epiphysis) Post-inflammatory (JRA, Septic arthritis) Perthe's disease (in repair stage) Status post hip dislocation Hemophilia (Hemophilic arthropathy) Turner syndrome Klippel-trenaunay syndrome (angiohypertrophy syndrome) Kascibach - Merritt syndrome Beckwith - Wiedemann syndrome (Hemihypertrophy) Trevor disease (Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica) b) Generalized Hyperthyroidism    Acromegaly or cerebral gigantism          Adrenogenital syndrome   iv) Rickets Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia McCune-Albright syndrome Kniest syndrome
Orthopaedics
null
Epiphyseal enlargement occurs in - A. Paget's disease B. Sheurmann's disease C. Epiphyseal dysplasia D. Hemophilia
Hemophilia
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Isotretinoin is indicated in severe nodulo cystic acne vulgaris. It may result in hyperlipidemia, arthralgia and myalgia
Unknown
null
When patient is on isotretinoin therapy, monitoring of which of the following is done A. Liver function test B. Lipid profile C. Renal function tests D. CBC
Lipid profile
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Head injury can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe. For patients with a history of head trauma, classification is as follows: severe head injury if the GCS score is 3 to 8, moderate head injury if the GCS score is 9 to 12, and mild head injury if the GCS score is 13 to 15. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 42.
Surgery
null
If GCS score is 8, head injury is classified as: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Very severe
Severe
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Ans. A: 3 mg/ml Tobramycin works by binding to a site on the bacterial 30S and 50S ribosome, preventing formation of the 70S complex. As a result, mRNA cannot be translated into protein and cell death ensues. Sterile Tobramycin Ophtha Solution (eye-drops) contains tobramycin concentration of 0.3%. It is mixed with 0.01% benzalkonium chloride as a preservative. This concentrations result in 3 mg per ml.
Pharmacology
null
Strength of topical ophthalmic preparations of tobramycin is : September 2009 A. 3 mg/ ml B. 8 mg/ ml C. 10 mg/ml D. 13 mg/ml
3 mg/ ml
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Ans. d (Calcium leucovorin) (Ref. Harrison 18th/ p 476, 607)# Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which regenerates reduced folates from the oxidized folates produced when thymidine monophosphate is formed from deoxyuridine monophosphate.# Without reduced folates, cells die a "thymineless" death.# N-5 tetrahydrofolate or N-5 formyltetrahydrofolate (leucovorin) can bypass this block and rescue cells from methotrexate, which is maintained in cells by polyglutamylation.METHOTREXATE - Side Effects:# In addition to bone marrow suppression and mucosal irritation, methotrexate can cause renal failure itself at high doses owing to crystallization in renal tubules; therefore high-dose regimens REQUIRE ALKALINIZATION OF URINE with increased flow by hydration.6# Less frequent adverse effects include reversible increases in transaminases and hypersensitivity-like pulmonary syndrome.# Chronic low-dose methotrexate can cause hepatic fibrosis.# When administered to the intrathecal space, methotrexate can cause chemical arachnoiditis and CNS dysfunction.# Trimetrexate is a methotrexate derivative that is not polyglutamylated and does not use the reduced folate carrier.# The effects of folate antagonists that inhibit dihydrofolate reductase can be counteracted by folinic acid (5-formyl tetrahydrofolate ) in a dose of 100 to 200 mg/d, which circumvents the block in folate metabolism by providing a form of folate that can be converted to 5,10-methylene THF.Methotrexate(Antimetabolite)# A folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase; decreased dTMP levels hinder DNA and thus protein synthesis# S-phase specificNeoplastic indications: leukemia, lymphomas, breast cancer, choriocarcinomaNonneoplastic indications; rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, termination of pregnancy (e.g., ectopic) Toxicities: suppresses bone marrow reversibly; folinic acid (leucovorin) is used to "rescue"; fatty change in liver
Medicine
Drugs
Which of the following is given to prevent methotrexate toxicity? A. MESNA B. Flumazenil C. Fomipezole D. Calcium leucovorin
Calcium leucovorin
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High risk pregnancies should be staed of Dexamathasone, that readily crosses placenta, in an amount of 20 mu/kg in 2-3 divided doses. This surpasses secretion of steroids by fetal adrenals, including secretion of fetal adrenal androgens. If staed 6 weeks of gestation, it ameliorates virilization of external genitals in affected female fetus. Ref: Kligman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 577, "Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia", In the book, "Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Page 2364
Pediatrics
null
Which drugs are used for prenatal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia? A. Hydrocoisone B. Prednisolone C. Fludrocoisone D. Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone
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D i.e. Stomach & Intestine Breslau's second life (or Stomach Bowel) test says that air will be swallowed & so may pass into stomach & small intestine when respiration establishes.
Forensic Medicine
null
In Breslau's second life test, organ tested is A. Brain B. Hea C. Lung D. Stomach and Intestine
Stomach and Intestine
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(A) a-waves # Alpha Rhythm> In adult humans who are awake but at rest with the mind wandering and the eyes closed, the most prominent component of Ihe EEG is fairly regular pattern of waves at a frequency of 8-12 Hz and an amplitude of 50-100 pV when recorded from the scalp> This pattern is the alpha rhythm.> It is most marked in the parieto-occipital area.
Physiology
Nervous System
A person with eyes closed & mind wondering will have the following wave in A. a-waves B. b-waves C. d-waves D. t-waves
a-waves
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Cidofovir Gold standard treatment for respiratory papillomatosis is Laser MLS/ Powered MLS (using microdebrider). Cidofovir is a recent drug which is used intralesionally or topically. Its active metabolite, cidofovir diphosphate, inhibits viral replication by selectively inhibiting viral DNA polymerase.
Pathology
All India exam
Which drug is used for topical application in respiratory papillomatosis? A. Acyclovir B. Ranitidine C. Cidofovir D. Ribavirin
Cidofovir
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Ans. is 'b' i.e. X-ray abdomen erect posture
Surgery
null
30 years old lady presented with acute pain abdomen, constipation and vomiting suspecting acute intestinal obstruction. The investigation of choice for the patient is - A. Ba enema B. X-ray abdomen erect posture C. USG D. CT scan
X-ray abdomen erect posture
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Tonic neck reflex is prominent between 2nd and 4th months. Persistence of reflex beyond the age of 6-9 months is abnormal. Impoant neonatal reflexes: Sucking, rooting, and swallowing reflexes Grasp reflex Moro's reflex Glabellar tap Crossed extension Ref: Essential paediatrics by OP Ghai, 6th edition, Page 146.
Pediatrics
null
Which of the following reflex is NOT prominent in child at bih? A. Moro's reflex B. Glabellar tap C. Crossed extensor reflex D. Tonic neck reflex
Tonic neck reflex
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Rosuvastatin - most potent best bioavailability: fluvastatin most commonly prescribed- atorvastatin safe for children- pravastatin Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
Most potent statin is? A. Simvastatin B. Pitavastatin C. Rosuvastatin D. Atorvastatin
Rosuvastatin
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The liver can synthesize niacin from the essential amino acid tryptophan, but the synthesis is extremely inefficient; 60 mg of tryptophan are required to make one milligram of niacin. The 5-membered aromatic heterocycle of the essential amino acid, tryptophan, is cleaved and rearranged with the alpha amino group of tryptophan into the 6-membered aromatic heterocycle of niacin.
Biochemistry
null
Niacin is synthesized from: A. Phenylalanine B. Tryptophan C. Tyrosine D. Methionine
Tryptophan
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Answer is C (Left atrial myxoma) An increased gradient during diastole is suggestive of an obstructive lesion between Left atrium and Left ventricle that is not allowing pressures to normalize between the atria and ventricle such as atrial myxoma. Pulmonary aery wedge pressure represents Left atrial pressure. Left ventricular end diastolic pressure represents Left ventricular pressure. Gradient between Left atrial pressure (PCWP) and Left ventricular pressure during diastole: Normally there is no gradient during diastole as both pressures are equal. An increased gradient during diastole is suggestive of an obstructive lesion between Left atrium and Left ventricle that is not allowing pressures to normalize between the atria and ventricle. This may thus be seen in obstructive lesions between Left atria and ventricle such as : Mitral stcnosis Atrial myxomas
Medicine
null
Gradient in pulmonary aery wedge pressure and left ventricular end diastolic pressure is seen in A. Aoic regurgitation B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Pulmonary thromboembolism
Left atrial myxoma
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Breast Important risk factors for breast cancer1) Increased age8) High fat diet2) Female sex9) High socioeconomic status3) Western countries10) Irradiation4) Early menarche11) Hormone replacement therapy5) Late menopause12) Family history positive6) Obesity13) Somatic mutation in p53 gene (in 40% cases)7) Nulliparity * Most of these factors are related to increased exposure of estrogen to breast.* Breast feeding is protective against breast cancer. Thus women who avoid breast cancer are at increased risk to develop breast cancer. Oral contraceptives and smoking do not appear to increase the risk of breast cancer.* 3 most important cancer associated with estrogen are breast, endometrium and uterine.Note - There is also an increased risk of ovarian cancer with long term large dose estrogen therapy, but much less common as compared to breast cancer.
Pathology
Female Genital Tract
Which cancer is most commonly associated with increased estrogen levels? A. Cervix B. Ovarian C. Breast D. GTN
Breast
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Ans. (a) A lifeguard in swimming poolCutaneous larva migrans (CLM) is a clinical syndrome consisting of an erythematous migrating linear or serpiginous cutaneous track;It is also called as creeping eruptionsIndividuals at greatest risk include travelers, children, swimmers in lakes, and laborers whose activities bring their skin in contact with contaminated soilLarva migrans:* It is caused by nematodes that usually cause infection to animals* When they accidentally enters humans - it cannot complete the cycle and hence gets arrested in the body causing larva migrans* It is of two types:# Cutaneous larva migrans# Visceral larva migransComparison between Cutaneous and visceral larva migransCutaneous larva migransVisceral larva migrans* Ancylostoma braziliense (M/c)* Toxocara can is* Ancylostoma caninum (second M/c)* Toxocara cati* Necator americanus* Gnathostoma* Ancylostoma duodenale* Anisakis* Gnathostoma spinigerum * Strongloides * Loa loa * Fasciola * Paragonimus * The question is quite a tricky one. A lifeguard in swimming pool has risk comparatively, as poultry has no link with these organisms. Most of the organisms are dog and canines sources.
Microbiology
Virology
Which among the following occupation is a risk factor for this presenting illness? A. A lifeguard in swimming pool B. A poultry worker C. Farmer D. A kennel worker
A lifeguard in swimming pool
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Rotavirus vaccination - there is a potentially high risk of intussusception with the first dose when this vaccine is given to infants aged more than 12weeks. Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition.
Microbiology
Virology
Vaccination causing intussusception is A. Rotavirus B. Parvovirus C. Poliovirus D. BCG
Rotavirus
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Urethral stricture CAUSES The common causes of urethral stricture are: * Inflammatory * Secondary to urethritis * Secondary to balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) * Traumatic (MC) * Bulbar urethral injury * Pelvic fracture urethral disruption injury * Iatrogenic * Secondary to urethral instrumentation including cath- eterisation and transurethral prostatectomy * Secondary to radical prostatectomy * Secondary to radiotherapy for prostate cancer * Idiopathic CLINICAL FEATURES Symptoms are usually hesitancy of micturition, straining to void and a poor urinary stream. The relative youthfulness of the patient often rules out prostatic enlargement, which characteristically occurs after the age of 50. As the stream becomes narrower, micturition is prolonged and is followed by postmicturition dribbling as a result of urine trickling from the dilated urethra proximal to the stricture. Urinary frequency by day and night is common and is due to incomplete bladder emptying, coexisting detrusor overactivity or urinary infection. If the stricture is tight enough, the patient will go into acute retention, although this is rare. If this happens, there is a danger that clumsy attempts to pass a urethral catheter will result in a false passage. If a patient has gone into retention because of a urethral stricture, its lumen will be too narrow to pass even a tiny catheter and suprapubic catheterisation is required. Investigation involves uroflowmetry, urethroscopy, urethrography and ultrasound scanning to assess bladder emptying and to detect any upper tract dilatation. The urinary flow rate is typically prolonged and plateau shaped while urethroscopy allows the stricture to be viewedas a circumferential scar. Openings of false passages commemorate previous misguided attempts to pass a urethral catheter. Urethrography using a water-soluble contrast medium will show the extent and severity of the stricture Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1482
Surgery
Urology
Most common cause of urethral stricture is A. Trauma B. Infection C. Congenital D. Post endoscopy
Trauma
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Ans. (b) TGARef: Sutton 7thed different pages. Pediatrics Radiology: The Requisites by Johan G. Blickman, Bruce R. Parker; M.D. Patrick D. Barnes p-52
Radiology
Cardiac and Pericardiac Imaging
Egg on side appearance of heart is seen in the radiograph of? A. TAPVC B. TGA C. ASD D. VSD
TGA
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Chromatography paper contains about 15-20% water, held to the paper fibers. This water acts as the stationary phase in paper chromatography. Amino acids are separated according to their solubility in the water and in an organic solvent (the mobile phase) moving up the paper. The most non-polar amino acids migrate the farthest, due to their greater solubility in the organic solvent. Paper also acts as an adsorbent, having an affinity for polar groups. Among the given options, Glycine and Valine are non-polar amino acids (hydrophobic). Aspartic acid and Lysine are polar amino acids. Valine is more non-polar than glycine.
Biochemistry
null
Which amino acid migrates fastest on paper chromatography on methylcellulose medium? A. Aspartic acid B. Valine C. Lysine D. Glycine
Valine
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Systemic therapy for all dermatophytosis Terbinafm  → DOC Griseofulvin → 2nd choice Once the mainstay of systemic therapy for dermatophytic infection, has now replaced by terbinafine.
Dental
null
An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is – A. Oral griseofulvin therapy B. Topical griseofulvin therapy C. Shaving of the scalp D. Selenium sulphide shampoo
Oral griseofulvin therapy
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Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Bhore Committe Bhore CommitteIt is also known as 'Health Survey and Development Committee'. Its recommendations were :1) Integration of preventive and curative services at all administration levels2) Sho term and long term recommendationsSho term : PHC to cater to a population of 40,000Long term (3 million plan) : PHC units to be set up with 75 bedded hospital for each 10,000 to 20,000 population3) Major charger in medical education including 3 months training in social and preventive medicine to prepare 'social physicians'.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Provison of PHC was done by A. Bhore Committee B. Chadah Committee C. Shrivastava Committee D. Bajaj Committee
Bhore Committee
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The most common neoplastic tumour is lymphoma(Hodgkin) and the most common benign tumour is a hemangioma, rest like angiosarcoma, secondaries and hamaomas are rare tumours of the spleen. Bailey and love&;s 24 the edition page no. 1091
Surgery
G.I.T
What is the most common malignancy affecting spleen A. Angiosarcoma B. Hamaoma C. Secondaries D. Lymphoma
Lymphoma
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Alanine is a key gluconeogenic amino acid. The rate of hepatic gluconeogenesis from alanine is far higher than from all other amino acids. The capacity of the liver for gluconeogenesis from alanine does not reach saturation until the alanine concentration reaches 20 to 30 times its normal physiologic level. Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 289
Biochemistry
null
A key gluconeogenic amino acid is: A. Alanine B. Serine C. Valine D. Tyrosine
Alanine