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14a8188c-931f-40fc-b843-800d96cad490 | Prevalence is less than incidence
1) Disease is very fatal
Most of the cases die, so at the time of calculating prevalence the number is usually less than the incidence.
2) Disease is very well curable either by rapid recovery or by treatment
Most of the cases recover, so at the time of calculating prevalence the number is usually less than incidence.
Prevalence is more than incidence
1) Disease is not fatal but very chronic
Due to increased duration, prevalence increases
2) Treatment prevent death but does not cure
Due to increased duration, prevalence increases. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | If the prevalene is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies -
A. Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable
B. Disease is nonfatal
C. Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong
D. Nothing can be said, as they are independent
| Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable |
e8ba632f-1755-4698-aee0-94958bf3e1ec | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alcohol Leukemia risk factors1) Generala) Gender: Men are more likely to develop CML, CLL and AML than women.b) Age: The risk of most leukemias, with the exception of ALL, typically increases with age.2) Geneticsa) Family history: First degree relatives of CLL patients, or having an identical twin who has or had AML or ALL, increases the risk for developing the disease.b) Genetic diseases: AML has been associated with Down syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, Patau syndrome, Fanconi anemia, Bloom syndrome, Ataxia telangiectasia, and Kostman syndrome, may play a role in the development of leukemia.3) Smoking: Smoking cigarettes does increase the risk of developing AML.4) Exposuresa) Radiation: Exposure to high-energy radiation (e.g., atomic bomb explosions) and intense exposure to low- energy radiation from electromagnetic fields (e.g., power lines).b) Chemical exposure: Long-term exposure to chemicals like benzene & ethylene oxide is considered to be a risk for leukemia.c) Drugs - alkylating agents & topoisomerase II inhibitors increase the risk of AML.5) Previous Cancer Treatment: Certain types of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for other cancers are considered leukemia risk factors. | Pathology | Lukemia | Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
A. Genetic disorder
B. Alcohol
C. Smoking
D. Chemical exposure
| Alcohol |
be728c78-6881-4937-834c-c5c5f84b4cb3 | Stroma of cornea develops from neural crest cells derived (secondary) mesenchyme. The adult cornea has developmentally three layers: Outer epithelium layer (surface ectoderm) Middle stromal layer of collagen-rich extracellular matrix between stromal keratocytes (neural crest) Inner layer of endothelial cells (neural crest). Ref - medscape.com | Anatomy | General anatomy | Stroma of cornea is developed from
A. Neural ectoderm
B. Surface ectoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Neural crest
| Mesoderm |
8274b641-4990-4b62-afcd-11a12e989219 | Static renal scintigraphy (Tc-99 DMSA) can be used to locate functional renal mass. | Radiology | null | Distribution of functional renal tissue is seen by –
A. DMSA
B. DTPA
C. MAG3 – Tc99
D. 1123 iodocholesterol
| DMSA |
cee9b08f-decc-4410-ad51-a5fe28c2ab9f | The various pas of the body are represented in the precentral gyrus, with the feet at the top of the gyrus and the face at the bottom. The facial area is represented bilaterally, but the rest of the representation is generally unilateral, with the coical motor area controlling the musculature on the opposite side of the body. The coical representation of each body pa is propoionate in size to the skill with which the pa is used in fine, voluntary movement. The areas involved in speech and hand movements are especially large in the coex; use of the pharynx, lips, and tongue to form words and of the fingers and apposable thumbs to manipulate the environment are activities in which humans are especially skilled.Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition | Physiology | Nervous system | Coical representation of body in the cerebrum is
A. Horizontal
B. Veical
C. Tandem
D. Oblique
| Veical |
1a6f5875-e108-45f2-bcc9-635f9a3d3d64 | Langerhan's cell histiocytosis are malignant proliferation of dendritic cells or macrophages. These proliferating cells are actually Langerhan's cells of marrow origin.Reference :Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 385. | Medicine | Haematology | Most common site of histiocytosis is -
A. Bone
B. Skin
C. Lung
D. Liver
| Bone |
3c3d0f99-c5ae-4637-a115-29cc518e91bc | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Degeneracy There are 20 amino acids, to be coded by 61 codons, so every amino acid except methionine and tryptophan are represented by more than one codon. This is k/a degeneracy or redundancy.The genetic code is made up of codons. Codons consist of a sequence of three nucleotides i.e. it is a triplet code. Since there are 4 different nucleotides, their various combination leads to 64 codons (43). Three of these codons do not code for any specific amino acid (known as nonsense codons) and are used as termination signals (hence also known as termination or stop codons. When one of these termination codons appear in an mRNA sequence, it signals that polymerization of amino acids into a protein molecule is complete.Characteristics of the Genetic CodeSpecific or UnambiguousA given codon designates only one single specific amino acid.Degenerate or RedundantAlthough each codon corresponds to a single amino acid, a given amino acid may have more than one triplet coding for it.Exceptions are Methionine & Tryptophan, which have a single codon.Codons that represent same amino acids are called as synonymsIn general, the third nucleotide in a codon is less important than the first two in determining the specific amino acid. This is k/a third base degeneracy or wobbling phenomenon.UniversalIn all living organisms the genetic code is the same, this is k/a universality of the codeException is found in mitochondrial genome where AUA codes for methionine and UGA for tryptophan instead of isoleucine and termination respectively.Non-overlappingThere is no overlapping i.e. no base functions as a common member of two consecutive codons.CommalessThere is no punctuation between the codons. The codons are arranged as a continuous structure. The last nucleotide of the preceding codon is immediately followed by the first nucleotide of succeeding codon. | Biochemistry | Regulation of Gene Expression | Same amino acid is coded by multiple codons d/t following :
A. Degeneracy
B. Frame-shift mutation
C. Transcription
D. Mutation
| Degeneracy |
8bdbe442-f7d0-4211-beec-62597d41a0e1 | SAFE strategy - for prophylaxis against trachoma and prevention of blindness S - Surgery for trichiasis - Teiary prevention A - Antibiotic - AZITHROMYCIN (D/O/C) - secondary prevention F - Facial hygiene - primary prevention E - Environmental changes - primordial prevention | Ophthalmology | Community Ophthalmology | SAFE strategy use in
A. Inclusion conjunctivitis
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Trachoma
D. Haemorrhagic conjunctivitis
| Trachoma |
63832d2f-9fc2-4765-84c1-64eb4000a231 | Single-agent chemotherapy is used as palliative therapy in head and neck cancers with the recurrent or metastatic form of cancer. The drugs which are used are - Cisplatin Methotrexate 5 Fu Paclitaxel Docetaxel Sometimes combinations of these drugs are used . a) Treatment of localized head and neck cancers - These tumors are treated with curative intent either with surgery or radiotherapy. The choice of modality differs according to anatomic location and institutional expeise. In early laryngeal cancer generally, radiotherapy is done to preserve voice while in early oral cavity cancers, surgery is preferred to avoid the long-term complication of radiation such as xerostomia and dental decay. b) Locally or advanced regional disease - Combined modality therapy including surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy is used. Concomitant chemotherapy and radiotherapy appear to be most effective. c) Recurrent or metastatic disease - chemotherapy is used. Management of neck lymph nodes The neck lymph nodes should be treated when there are clinically positive nodes or the risk for occult disease is high based on the location and stage of the primary lesion. The decision to perform neck dissection or irradiate the neck is related to the treatment of the primary lesion. If the primary tumor is being treated with radiation and the neck is N0 or N1, the nodes are usually treated with irradiation. For surgically treated primary lesions, N0 or N1 neck disease may be treated surgically as well (Radical neck dissection/Modified neck dissection/Selective neck dissection). Negative prognostic factors such as extracapsular spread of tumor, perineural invasion, vascular invasion, fixation to surrounding structures, and multiple positive nodes are indicators for postoperative adjuvant radiation therapy. For N2 or N3 neck disease, neck dissection with planned postoperative radiation therapy is performed. | Surgery | Head and neck | In carcinoma cheek what is the best drug for single drug chemotherapy
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Vincristine
C. Danorubicin
D. Cisplatin
| Cisplatin |
b07534c9-5f99-43f2-925a-f8d3dbefeacd | Chargaff's rules state that DNA from any cell of all organisms should have a 1:1 ratio (base Pair Rule) of pyrimidine and purine bases and, more specifically, that the amount of guanine is equal to cytosine and the amount of adenine is equal to thymine. This pattern is found in both strands of the DNA. %A = %T and %G = %C and A + T + G + C = 100% In the question, A is 15%. According to Chargaff's rule, T will also be 15%. A+T=30 Therefore G+C=100-30=70 According to Chargaff's rule C=G, Therefore, C=70/2=35, Hence G=35% | Biochemistry | null | The content of base pair A in the DNA is 15%, what could be the amount of G in DNA according to Chargaff's base pair rule?
A. 15%
B. 85%
C. 35%
D. 70%
| 35% |
d791371e-e38c-472e-8f1f-1485dec17744 | Ans. C: Ductal Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS): DCIS, the most common type of non-invasive breast cancer, is confined to the ducts of the breast. DCIS is often first detected on mammogram as microcalcifications (tiny calcium deposits). With early detection, the five-year survival rate for DCIS is nearly 100%, provided that the cancer has not spread past the milk ducts to the fatty breast tissue or any other regions of the body. There are several different types of DCIS. For example, ductal comedocarcinoma refers to DCIS with necrosis (areas of dead or degenerating cancer cells). Infiltrating ductal carcinoma (IDC): IDC is also known as invasive ductal carcinoma. IDC begins in the milk ducts of the breast and penetrates the wall of the duct, invading the fatty tissue of the breast and possibly other regions of the body. IDC is the most common type of breast cancer, accounting for 80% of breast cancer diagnoses. | Surgery | null | Most common type of breast carcinoma is: September 2010
A. Lobular
B. Sarcoma
C. Ductal
D. Granuloma
| Ductal |
eb208623-fd0a-4741-9401-2543a8103f6b | Ref: Internet source: Medscape RadiologyExplanation:Bragg peak is a concept utilized in giving focused radiotherapy using ionizing radiation to a tumor without affecting the normal healthy surrounding tissuesOptions B.C and D are examples of non-ionizing radiation.Bragg's peakThe Bragg peak is a peak on the Bragg curve which plots the energy loss of ionizing radiation during its travel through matter.For protons, a-rays and other ion rays, the peak occurs immediately before the particles come to rest. This is called Bragg peak.When a fast charged particle moves through matter, it ionizes atoms of the material and deposits a dose along its path.A peak occurs because the interaction cross section increases as the charged particle's energy decreases.Absorption of a beam of energetic photons (X- ravs) which is entirely different in nature; the curve is mainly exponential.The phenomenon is exploited in particle therapy of cancer, to concentrate the effect of light ion beams on the tumor being treated while minimizing the effect on the surrounding healthy tissue.Monenergistic proton beam with the sharp peak is widened by increasing the range of energies, so that a larger tumor volume can be treated.This can be achieved by using variable thickness attenuators like spinning wedges. | Radiology | Fundamentals In Radiology | The braggs peak is found in:
A. Proton beam
B. Microwave
C. UV Rays
D. Infrared
| Proton beam |
dafad5d1-ec83-4570-a212-ddaa563e732f | Carcinoid tumors are most commonly found in the appendix and small bowel, where they may be multiple. They have a tendency to metastasize, which varies with the size of the tumor. Tumors <1 cm uncommonly metastasize. Tumors >2.0 cm are more often found to be metastatic. Metastasis to the liver and beyond may give rise to the carcinoid syndrome. The tumors cause an intense desmoplastic reaction. Spread into the serosal lymphatics does not imply metastatic disease; local resection is potentially curative. When metastatic lesions are found in the liver, they should be resected when technically feasible to limit the symptoms of the carcinoid syndrome. When extensive hepatic metastases are found, the disease is not curable. Resection of the appendix and cecum may be performed to prevent an early intestinal obstruction by locally encroaching tumor. | Surgery | Breast | A 43-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of peritonitis in the right lower quadrant. The clinical impression and supportive data suggest acute appendicitis. At exploration, however, a tumor is found; frozen section suggests carcinoid features. For each tumor described, choose the most appropriate surgical procedure. A 2. 5-cm tumor at the base of the appendix (SELECT 1 PROCEDURE)
A. Appendectomy
B. Segmental ileal resection
C. Cecectomy
D. Right hemicolectomy
| Right hemicolectomy |
00ae43a1-f24e-4a3a-8958-da8a30a89e8f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Slight left axis deviation in ECG Cardiovascular systemo Anatomical changes heart is pushed upwards & outward. Apex beat is shifted in 4th intercostals space. A systolic murmur can be heard in apical or pulmonary area. Mammary' murmur is a continuous hissing murmur audible over tricuspid area in left 2nd & 3rd intercostals space. ECG shows left axis deviation. S3 and rarely S4 can be heard.o Cardiac output starts to increase from 5th week of pregnancy, reaches its peak 40-50% at about 30-34 weeks. It is lowest in sitting or supine position & highest is the right or left lateral or knee chest position. CO further increases by 50% during labour and immediately following delivery. CO returns to pre labour values by one hour following delivery and to the pre-pregnant level by another 4 weeks,o Blood pressure systemic vascular resistance (SVR) decreases. Maternal BP is decreased,o Venous pressure femoral venous pressure is raised,o Supine hypotension syndrome (postural hypotension)o Regional distribution of blood flow uterine blood flow is increased from 50 ml per minute in non-pregnant state to 750ml near term. Pulmonary blood flow is increased by 2500 ml /minrenal blood flow increases by 400ml/min. The blood flow through skin and mucous membrane increases by 500ml/min. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Cardiovascular System | CVS change in pregnancy -
A. Slight right axis deviation in ECG
B. Slight left axis deviation in ECG
C. Diastolic murmur
D. Pulse rate is decreased
| Slight left axis deviation in ECG |
50aa4b96-c396-4f83-9f80-06d48747e5d6 | Iron chelation with desferrioxamine will reduce the toxicity from iron overload if given regularly in high doses. The most lethal toxicity of iron overload is iron infiltration of the myocardium, with resultant dysfunction and death. Penicillamine has no role in the treatment of thalassemia patients requiring frequent transfusions. As well FFP, and cryoprecipitate are not indicated in the management of patients with thalassemia as there are no defects in thrombosis or coagulation. | Medicine | Blood | A 7-year-old boy has severe microcytic anemia due to beta-thalassemia major (homozygous). He requires frequent blood transfusions (once every 6 weeks) to prevent the skeletal and developmental complications of thalassemia. Which of the following medications is also indicated in the treatment of patients requiring frequent blood transfusions?
A. oral calcium supplements
B. fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. desferrioxamine
D. penicillamine
| desferrioxamine |
881164ac-4865-412d-8731-70f680482931 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ornithine transpoer Hyperornithinaemia, hyperammonaemia, homocitrullinuria (HHH) syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder of ornithine transpo caused by mutations in gene SLC 25A15 encoding the ornithine transoer protein (ORNT1).There is defective activity of the ornithine transpoer across the mitochondrial membrane, which causes a functional deficiency of two mitochondrial enzymes:Ornithine transcarbomylase : Which catalyses the condensation of ornithine and carbamoylphosphate to citrulline.Ornithine-8-aminotransferase (OAT) : Which metabolizes the ornithine to .'-pyrroline-5-carboxylate and ultimately glutamate and proline.Ornithine accumulates in the cytoplasm and its deficiency in mitochondria causes a secondary urea cycle disorder and hyperammonemia.Carbamoylphosphate accumulates and undergoes allternate metabolism to form :Homocitrulline - Excreted in urineOrotic acidPlasma | Biochemistry | null | HHH syndrome is due to defect in ?
A. Tryptophan metabolism
B. Histidine transpoer
C. Branched chain AA metabolism
D. Ornithine transpoer
| Ornithine transpoer |
0eac0839-25af-42df-92ac-e35e70059808 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Elevation There are six extraocular muscles in each eye.MusclePrimary ActionSecondary ActionSuperior rectusElevationAdduction and intorsionInferior rectusDepressionAdduction and extorsionMedial rectusAdduction Lateral rectusAbduction Superior obliqueIntorsionAbduction and depressionInferior obliqueExtorsionAbduction and elevationo All the extra ocular muscles are supplied by the occulomotor nerve except for the superior oblique which is supplied by the trochlear nerve and the lateral rectus which is supplied by the abducens nerve.o The occulomotor nerve also supplies the levator palpebrae superioris, sphincter papillae and the ciliary muscle. | Anatomy | Orbit | Main action of superior rectus -
A. Extorsion
B. Intorsion
C. Elevation
D. Depression
| Elevation |
a8d44268-9dca-48f4-91e0-da77822fc0ff | Thrombopoietin (THPO) also known as megakaryocyte growth and development factor (MGDF) is a protein that in humans is encoded by the THPO gene.Thrombopoietin is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the liver and kidney which regulates the production of platelets. It stimulates the production and differentiation of megakaryocytes, the bone marrow cells that bud off large numbers of platelets.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-80 | Physiology | Endocrinology | The major regulator of platelet production is the hormone thrombopoietin (THPO), which is produced by
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Liver and kidneys
D. Spleen and lymph nodes
| Liver and kidneys |
7840a039-46df-4741-b2e6-0bba8e00f9c0 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., PMN's with fibrinoid necrosis with cellular infiltrates Polymorphonuclear leucocytes or neutrophils have a major role in acute inflammatory response. They are typically seen in acute inflammation. While granuloma formation is seen during chronic inflammatory response. The cells predominating during chronic inflammatory response are lymphocytes, plasma cells, monocytes etc. PMN's or neutrophils are typically absent during chronic inflammation. Granuloma contains Activated macrophages, i.e., epitheloid cells. Monocytes Lymphocytes Plasma cells Giant cells There are two types of giant cells 1. Langhans Giant cells Contains 3-5 nuclei Nuclei arranged peripherally (horse shoe) in the cytoplasm. 2. Foreign body cells Contains 3-5 nuclei Nuclei are arranged haphazardly in the cytoplasm. Langhans cells are the precursors of foreign body giant cells, as the numbers of nuclei increase langhans cells are conveed to foreign body giant cells So in early stage Langhans giant cells are predominant, while later on foreign body giant cells predominate. Foreign body giant cells can be arise directly from the fusion of macrophages also. So, Foreign body giant cells arise from ? 1. Langhans giant cells 2. Fusion of macrophages. | Pathology | null | Not characteristic feature of granuloma ?
A. Chronic inflammatory infiltrate
B. Epitheloid cell
C. Giant cell
D. PMN's with fibrinoid necrosis with cellular infiltrates
| PMN's with fibrinoid necrosis with cellular infiltrates |
d290ecea-3582-469b-9f1c-605c1b5343ab | Ans. is 'a' i.e., LDL o Maximum triglyceride contento Maximum exogenous triglyceride o Maximum endogenous triglycerideo Maximum cholesterol content----ChylomicronsChylomicronsVLDLLDL | Biochemistry | Cholesterol and Lipoproteins | Highest cholesterol content is seen in -
A. LDL
B. VLDL
C. Chylomicrons
D. IDL
| LDL |
3ff93778-1c2c-4ca7-abe3-6eac35f63da4 | Acute Physiology And Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) II scoring system It incorporates 12 physiological and laboratory parameters as well as age and comorbid conditions to estimate severity of any disease process The 12 physiologic variables are BT| HR at CWG SHOP - 2 Mean aerial blood pressure Temperature Hea rate. Respiratory rate. Creatinine WBC count Glasgow Coma Scale Sodium Hematocrit Oxygenation Aerial pH Serum potassium Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1527 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Which of the following is not a component of APACHE score
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum calcium
C. Serum sodium
D. Creatinine
| Serum calcium |
8aa8350f-8eea-46f8-a906-8d1883be30b6 | Ans. b. Sodium and water retention Sodium and water retention is the pathology of edema in nephrotic syndrome. The nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, edema, and hypoalbuminemia. Renal sodium retention and changes in variables of the Starling equation are fundamental to the pathophysiology of nephrotic edema. There is evidence for both intravascular volume expansion (overfilling) and intravascular volume depletion (under filling) in patients with nephrosis. Microvascular fluid exchange is described using a formulation of the Starling driving forces (DP and Dp) and it is through this equation that nephrotic edema is conceptualized. Previous theories have focused on abnormalities in DP and Dp to explain nephrotic edema. Studies have shown that hypoalbuminemia (and thus Dp) is not a likely cause of edema formation in most nephrotic patients owing to a parallel decrease in interstitial fluid albumin and an increase in interstitial fluid pressure, both of which serve to maintain edema driving forces constant. There is limited evidence suggesting that abnormalities in vascular permeability (Kf and s) may contribute to edema formation. A major advance in our understanding of the pathophysiologic basis of edema formation in the nephrotic syndrome is the discovery that proteinuria can cause primary renal sodium retention through ENaC activation. This mechanism is likely active in all patients with nephrotic syndrome, regardless of their intravascular volume status. Other causes of primary renal sodium retention include increased renal efferent sympathetic nerve activity, ANPase, and in the expression and activity of the Ne--le in the collecting duct in animal models. Fuhermore, excess serum vasopressin levels have been found to contribute to free water retention in some patients with the nephrotic syndrome."- Eric Siddall and Jai Radhakrishnan. The pathophysiology of edema formation in the nephrotic syndrome Nephrotic Syndrome Manifestations of Nephrotic Syndrome 1. Massive proteinuria, with the daily loss of 3.5 gm or more of proteinQ 2. Hypoalbuminemia, with plasma albumin levelsQ 3. Generalized edemaQ 4. Hyperlipidemia and lipiduriaQ Pathophysiology: Renal sodium retention and changes in variables of the Starling equation are fundamental to the pathophysiology of nephrotic edema. There is evidence for both intravascular volume expansion (overfilling) and intravascular volume depletion (under filling) in patients with nephrosis. Nephrotic Syndrome Mechanisms of Sodium Retention in the Nephrotic Syndrome Increased angiotensin 11-independent afferent and efferent aeriolar tone because of increased efferent sympathetic nerve activity. Tubular resistance to atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). Increased number of open epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) channels in the coical collecting duct due to proteolytic activation of ENaC by plasmin. Increased number and activity of coical collecting duct Na/K ATPase channels Most impoant facts about Nephrotic syndrome The lipid appears in the urine either as free fat or as oval fat bodies, representing lipoprotein resorbed by tubular epithelial cells and then shed along with the degenerated cells. Most proteins are decreased in nephrotic syndrome except Fibrinogen and lipoproteins, due to increased synthesis. Proteins decreased Consequence Albumin Edema due to hypoalbuminemiaQ Transferrin Iron resistant microcytic anemiaQ Cholecalciferol binding proteins HypocalcemiaQ Thyroxin binding globulin Decreased thyroxin (Hypothyroid state)Q IgG Increased susceptibility of infectionsQ Renal vein thrombosis is paicularly common (up to 40%) in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to membranous glomerulopathy, memranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, and AmyloidosisQ. As a consequence of hypercoagulability and changes in proteins, patients can develop spontaneous peripheral aerial or venous thrombosis, renal vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolismQ | Pediatrics | null | What is the pathology of edema in nephrotic syndrome
A. Reduced plasma protein
B. Sodium and water retention
C. Increased venous pressure
D. Hyperlipidemia
| Sodium and water retention |
e4064f61-2974-4c75-98e7-f596d8b1fefd | Insulin Lente is 70% crystalline (ultra lente) and 30% amorphous (semi lente). It is an insulin - zinc suspension | Pharmacology | Pancreas | What percentage of Lente Insulin is amorphous?
A. 70%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 90%
| 30% |
6aa8eb32-4a8f-4b60-8316-9d62447ba053 | Most cases of lobar pneumonia are caused by S. pneumoniae (reclassification of the pneumococcus). Streptococcal or pneumococcal pneumonia involves one or more lobes and is often seen in alcoholics or debilitated persons. | Pathology | null | Lobar pneumonia is caused predominantly by:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus pyogenes
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
| Streptococcus pneumoniae |
14ce18d2-975a-4d72-aa37-973c5f7a4a18 | Nucleosomes : The double stranded DNA wraps twice around a histone octamer formed by H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. This super - twisted helix forms a spherical paicle of 10nm diameter ; called Nucleosome. The function of the Nucleosomes is to condense DNA ; this arrangement also stabilises the DNA. REF : DM.VASUDEVAN.TEXTBOOK; SEVENTH EDITION ; PAGE NO :577 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Nucleosomes are
A. DNA+RNA
B. DNA+Histones
C. RNA+Histones
D. DNA+RNA+Histones
| DNA+Histones |
afcf2c4b-7cb9-4c0e-89ec-bdae76f9594c | Bilirubin metabolism
Bilirubin is the end product of heme degradation.
The heme is derived from -
Senescent erythrocytes by the mononuclear phagocytic system in the spleen, liver and bone marrow (major source).
Turnover of hemoproteins (e.g. cytochrome p.450).
Heme is oxidized to biliverdin by heme oxygenase.
Biliverdin is then reduced to bilirubin by biliverdin reductase.
Bilirubin is transported to the liver in bound form with albumin.
There is the carrier-mediated uptake of bilirubin in the liver.
This bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid by UDP glucuronosyl transferase (UGT1A1) to from conjugated bilirubin (bilirubin glucuronides).
Conjugated bilirubin is excreted into bile.
Most of the conjugated bilirubin is deconjugated and degraded to urobilinogen.
The most of the urobilinogen is excreted in the faeces.
Approximately 20% of the urobilinogen is reabsorbed in the ileum and colon and is returned to the liver, and promptly excreted into bile → Enterohepatic circulation.
The small amount that escapes this enterohepatic circulation is excreted in urine. | Pathology | null | Bilirubin is the degradation product of -
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Heme
D. Transferrin
| Heme |
90824b97-47ee-4a0c-b80d-f74e52e63940 | Ectopia cordis is a condition in which the heart is located abnormally outside the thoracic cavity, commonly resulting from a failure of fusion of the lateral folds in forming the thoracic wall. This is incompatible with life because of the occurrence of infection, cardiac failure, or hypoxemia. Faulty development of the sinus venosus is related to atrial septal defects that result from deficient absorption of the sinus venosus into the right atrium and/or unusual development of the septum secundum. | Anatomy | Thorax | A 3-day-old newborn was born with ectopia cordis. Despite the efforts of doctors at the pediatric intensive care unit the infant died from cardiac failure and hypoxemia. Which of the following embryologic events is most likely responsible for the development of such conditions?
A. Faulty development of the sternum and pericardium, secondary to incomplete fusion of the lateral folds
B. Interruption of third pharyngeal arch development
C. Interruption of fourth pharyngeal arch development
D. Interruption of fifth pharyngeal arch development
| Faulty development of the sternum and pericardium, secondary to incomplete fusion of the lateral folds |
1132ce4d-5e2f-4faf-8c64-c959a5d90c80 | World no tobacco day is celebrated on 31st May. Ref: Health policies and programmes in India, D.K. Taneja 11th edition page: 368 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | When is the World No Tobacco Day celebrated?
A. 1st May
B. 31st May
C. 1st August
D. 31st August
| 31st May |
5367a4f7-2571-49b1-907e-55c08c59072b | Superior colliculus integrates impulses for eye-hand coordination to control rapid directional movements of the two eyes. VISUAL PATHWAY Other impoant areas of the brain involved in visual pathway: Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus, to control circadian rhythms; Pretectal nuclei in the midbrain, to elicit reflex movements of the eyes to focus on objects of impoance and to activate the pupillary light reflex; Superior colliculus, to control rapid directional movements of the two eyes; and Ventral lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus and surrounding basal regions of the brain, to help control some of the body's behavioral functions. | Physiology | Special Senses | The structure that integrates impulses for eye-hand coordination is:
A. Superior colliculus
B. Frontal eye field
C. Pretectal nucleus
D. Area 17
| Superior colliculus |
dbd390f4-2413-4045-8fbf-0815018a37ed | ANSWER: (A) OchronosisREF: Clinical Paediatric Dermatology by Thappa - Page 156, Differential diagnosis in internal medicine: from symptom to diagnosis - Page 347, http:.//en.wikipedia,org/wiki/Ochronosis,http: // en. wikipedia .org/wiki/AlkaptonuriaRepeat from December 2009, June 2009Ochronosis is the syndrome caused by the accumulation of homogentisic add in connective tissues. The condition was named after the yellowish (ocher-like) discoloration of the tissue seen on microscopic examination. However, macroscopically the affected tissues appear bluish grey because of a light scattering phenomenon known as the Tyndall effect. The condition is most often associated with alkaptonuria but can occur from exogenous administration of phenol complexes like hydroquinone.Alkaptonuria (black urine disease or alcaptonuria) is a rare inherited genetic disorder of phenylalanine and tyrosine metabolism. This is an autosomal recessive condition that is due to a defect in the enzyme homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase, which participates in the degradation of tyrosine. As a result, a toxic tyrosine byproduct called homogentisic acid (or alkapton) accumulates in the blood and is excreted in urine in large amounts (hence -uria) | Biochemistry | Amino Acid Metabolic Disorder | Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes?
A. Ochronosis
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Albinism
D. Tyrosinosis
| Ochronosis |
9a8d423e-4c0a-4c17-943f-e194724eb6cd | Nasal intubation is contraindicated in severe fractures of midface, nasal fracture and basilar skull fracture | Surgery | null | Oronasal intubation is not indicated in?
A. Lefort 1 #
B. Lefort 2 and 3 #
C. Parietal bone #
D. Mandibular #
| Lefort 2 and 3 # |
77c3a79e-78a3-45f4-9d99-2455207bc7a9 | Ans. is 'a' Supracardiac * Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is characterized by abnormal drainage of pulmonary veins into the right heart either by direct connection into the right atrium or into its tributaries.* According to the site or level of connection of the pulmonary veins to the systemic venous system TAPVC has been classified into four types# Type I (most common: 45%): Anomalous connection at supracardiac level (PV drains into left innominate vein or SVC).# Type II (25%): Anomalous connection at cardiac level (PV joins the coronary sinus or enter right atrium directly).# Type III (25%): Anomalous connection at infracardiac level (PV drain into portal vein).# Type IV (5%): Anomalous connection at multiple levels.* In supracardiac TAPVC the pulmonary veins join to form a single trunk (common pulmonary vein) which than drain through anomalous connection. | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | Most common type of TAPVC -
A. Supracardiac
B. Cardiac
C. Infracardiac
D. Mixed
| Supracardiac |
bf3060de-91b5-4462-a42b-1bf648b02f59 | Tenosynovitis can be due to an infection of the synovial sheaths of the digits. Tenosynovitis in the thumb may spread through the synovial sheath of the flexor pollicis longus tendon, also known as the radial bursa. The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus muscles are enveloped in the common synovial flexor sheath, or ulnar bursa. Neither the flexor carpi radialis nor flexor pollicis brevis tendons are contained in synovial flexor sheaths. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | A 24-year-old medical student was bitten at the base of her thumb by her dog. The wound became infected and the infection spread into the radial bursa. The tendon(s) of which muscle will most likely be affected?
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Flexor digitorum superficialis
C. Flexor pollicis longus
D. Flexor carpi radialis
| Flexor pollicis longus |
a0b89dad-2295-4fd8-8f50-587a9e839518 | Ans. A Cavernous sinusRef: Gray's Anatomy, 40th ed. Ch; 29* The upper most segment of the facial vein, above its junction with the superior labial vein, is also called the angular vein.* Any infection of the mouth or face can spread via the angular veins to the cavernous sinuses resulting in thrombosis. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Angular vein infection causes thrombosis in:
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Suprasaggital sinus
C. Transverse sinus
D. Inferior petrosal sinus
| Cavernous sinus |
40dacf03-d7e8-45a4-945c-094f30a1abb1 | Ans. a (Brain). (Ref. Robbins, Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th/pg.7-13)NECROSIS# Enzymatic degradation of a cell resulting from exogenous injury.# Characterized by enzymatic digestion and protein denaturation, with release of intracellular components.# Morphologically occurs as coagulative (heart, liver, kidney), liquefactive (brain), caseous (tuberculosis), fat (pancreas), fibrinoid (blood vessels), or gangrenous (limbs, GI tract).# Kidney infarct exhibiting coagulative necrosis will be seen with loss of nuclei and clumping of cytoplasm but with preservation of basic outlines of glomerular and tubular architecture.# Liquefactive necrosis in the kidney can be caused by fungal infection, which will be seen filled with white cells and cellular debris, creating a renal abscess that obliterates the normal architecture.IRREVERSIBLE INJURY AND CELL DEATHMORPHOLOGIC PATTERNCHARACTERSTICSCOAGULATIVE NECROSISMost common type (e.g. Heart, liver, kidney)LIQUEFACTIVE NECROSISAbscesses, brain infarcts, pancreatic necrosisCellular destruction by hydrolytic enzymesCASEOUS NECROSISSeen in tuberculosisCombination of coagulation and liquefaction necrosis soft, friable, and "cottage-cheese-like" appearanceFAT NECROSISCaused by the action of lipases on fatty tissue (e.g. with pancreatic damage)Chalky white appearanceFIBRINOID NECROSISEosinophilic homogenous appearance - resembles fibrinGANGRENOUS NECROSISCommon sites: lower limbs, gallbladder, Gl tract and testesDry gangrene - coagulative necrosisWet gangrene - liquefactive necrosisAPOPTOSISA specialized form of programmed cell death, an active process under genetic control.Executed in mitochondria.Mediated by a cascade of caspases (digest nuclear and cytoskeletal proteins and active endonucleases). | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | Commonest site of liquifactive necrosis is
A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Spleen
| Brain |
48ddbb5f-15ba-4013-923c-73c6461af514 | Ans. B. NucleusThe spermatozoon consists of head, neck, and tail. The tail is further divided into three parts: middle piece, principle piece, and end piece.a. The head mainly consists of a nucleus that contains the condensed chromatin material (mostly DNA).b. Anterior two-third of the nucleus is covered by an acrosomal cap that contains various enzymes including hyaluronidase and acrosin.c. Neck contains a funnel-shaped basal plate and a centriole. The centriole gives rise to axial filament that extends throughout the tail.d. Middle piece contains the axial filament in the center that is surrounded by spirally arranged mitochondrial sheath. | Anatomy | Embryology | Head of sperm is derived from:
A. Golgi Body.
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria.
D. Centromere
| Nucleus |
3f534cc4-19c7-4c02-b881-6c298b1e49ea | Spinal cord ends at lower border of L1 in adults .Hence spinal anesthesia can be given at levels below L1 . L2-L3 or L4-L5 are considered best in adults | Anaesthesia | FMGE 2019 | Spinal anaesthesia in an adult is given at this level:
A. T12-L1
B. L1-L2
C. L3-L4
D. L5-S1
| L3-L4 |
cbce5334-28c5-48e1-b2f3-2a3b5e79e913 | • Early signs of elevated ICP includes drowsiness and a diminished level of consciousness.
• Coma and unilateral papillary changes are late signs and require immediate intervention. | Surgery | null | The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is
A. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation
B. Contralateral pupillary dilation
C. Altered mental status
D. Hemiparesis
| Altered mental status |
0921441e-f890-4483-9124-d73958608213 | Answer A. MetastasisFollowing radiography that revealed a lytic lesion of the terminal phalynx, the firm 2-cm lesion with a scab in the center was biopsied and found to represent a metastasis from follicular thyroid carcinoma. | Medicine | Immunology and Rheumatology | What is the most likely diagnosis in this 50-year-old woman?
A. Metastasis
B. Onychomycosis
C. Psoriasis
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans
| Metastasis |
4a671b2d-e0fa-4ad8-8dec-3a6c34401060 | Ans. is b, i.e. 1000IU/MLRef Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 642Critical titre of hCG:b-hCG level (mIU/ml)Structure visibleTVS/TAS* 1000-1200Gestational sacTVS* 6000Gestational SacTAS | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis in Obstetrics | At what level of b-hCG is it that normal pregnancy can be earliest detected by TVS (transvaginal USG)?
A. 500 IU/mL
B. 1000 IU/mL
C. 1500 IU/mL
D. 2000 IU/mL
| 1000 IU/mL |
b10e59eb-0900-4404-92d6-d8f568a19a25 | The investigation is T-tube cholangiogram. | Surgery | Bile duct | In a patient of cholangitis, surgical intervention was performed. In post-operative period, on 10th day this investigation was performed. What is the name of this investigation?
A. ERCP
B. MRCP
C. T-tube cholangiogram
D. PTC
| T-tube cholangiogram |
467828b5-1027-442a-a27a-6a5cea4f8dab | Glycoprotein hormone that controls erythropoiesis, or red blood cell production. Estrogen inhibits the erythropoietin whereas testosterone stimuates production . Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology; 24th edition; page no: 709 | Physiology | Renal physiology | Erythropoietin is inhibited by
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Thyroxine
D. Testosterone
| Estrogen |
01c55c70-9f52-42ba-8b6d-473f0bcabc81 | Atmosphere composition Nitrogen 78% O2 21% Argon 0.9% CO2 0.03% | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Other than nitrogen and oxygen, which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the eah's atmosphere?
A. Argon
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane
| Argon |
32ac0d34-327f-4c22-b1c6-1c866e7aaec6 | ANS. B# Spaulding's classification for sterilization1. Critical, e.g. heart lung machine, scalpel (contact with blood)2. Semicritical, e.g. endoscopes3. Noncritical, e.g. stethoscope, BP cuff, plasters.Method of sterilization1. Critical: Autoclave/ethylene oxide2. Semicritical: 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes3. For plastic tubes: Gamma rays | Microbiology | General | Blood spill disinfection by:
A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Hypochlorite
C. Formalin
D. Glutaraldehyde
| Hypochlorite |
ddbd5348-4545-4df3-85f7-b5456de5b261 | Capillaries are classified in toContinuous or non fenestrated capillaries - Endothelial cells are arranged without any gap in between them. Eg. Skin, BBB. Allows only very small molecules to pass through. Fenestrated capillaries - Gaps in between endothelial cells ranging from 70-100nm in diameter which are lined by basement membrane. Eg. Capillaries of intestinal villi, renal glomeruli, choroid plexus of the ventricles of the brain, ciliary process of eyes and endocrine glandsDiscontinuous type- Very wide cleft are present in between endothelial cells. The basement membrane is incomplete or absent. Almost all substance in plasma can cross this gap. Seen in liver sinusoids, sinusoids of spleen, anterior pituitary and parathyroid gland Ref: Textbook of medical physiology by N Geetha, 2nd edition, page no. 194 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Most permissible capillaries are seen in
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Skin
| Liver |
235c3a69-e95b-424e-b21f-4dc98224af20 | - Synthesis of coenzyme A from pantothenate occurs in a series of reactions. Pantothenate is first phosphorylated to which cysteine is added. Decarboxylation, followed by addition of AMP moiety and a phosphate (each from ATP) results in coenzyme A.
-Coenzyme A serves as a carrier of activated acetyl or acyl groups (as thiol esters). | Biochemistry | null | Active moiety of CoA is
A. Acetyl group
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Thiol of beta alanine
D. Thiol of pantothenic acid
| Thiol of pantothenic acid |
a781147f-a578-4163-a83f-95778f7d19d6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Brain natriuretic peptide analogue | Pharmacology | null | Nestritide is a -
A. Brain Natriuretic peptide analogue
B. Endothelin R antagonist
C. Gp Ilb/IIIa antagonist
D. INF-a antagonist
| Brain Natriuretic peptide analogue |
0bf5934a-b2bc-4813-847d-34f919d1b329 | Maxillary 2nd premolar can show any of the eight types of Vertucci's classification. | Dental | null | Which of the following tooth can show any of the eight types of Vertucci’s classification?
A. Lower 1st premolar
B. Upper 1st premolar
C. Lower 2nd premolar
D. Upper 2nd premolar
| Upper 2nd premolar |
404ff199-6c04-4e7a-a59c-60162a7ecf07 | This lady is showing features of chloasma which is a brownish macular hyperpigmentation of the face mostly over the cheek, forehead, nose, upper lip and chin. In a small percentage of cases it is also seen on the malar or mandibular areas of the face and occasionally the dorsum of the forearms. It is exacerbated by sunlight. This is usually seen in women during pregnancy, in women taking OCPs and living in sunny regions. It is also associated with the ingestion of diphenylhydantoin. Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 13. Pigmentary Disorders. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e. | Skin | null | A 25 yr old lady develops brown macular lesions over the bridge of nose and cheeks following exposure to sunlight. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Chloasma
B. Photodermatitis
C. SLE
D. Acne rosacea
| Chloasma |
0dc94947-2686-40a2-9018-e47bde111e26 | Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobunuria (PNH) is the only hemolytic anemia caused by an acquired intrinsic defect in the cell membrane. It is associated with intravascular hemolysis. Rest all conditions causes extravascular heamolysis. | Pathology | null | Intravascular heamolysis occurs in
A. Hereditory spherocytosis
B. Antoimmune haemolytic anemia
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
D. Thalassemia
| Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria |
e5bc9f94-51f4-407d-9faa-11bbcdb838ec | Repeat upper endoscopy is done in patients with a gastric ulcer after 6 to 10 weeks of acid suppressive therapy to confirm healing of the ulcer and absence of malignancy. 2% to 4% of repeat upper endoscopies have been repoed to disclose gastric cancer. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, E-9, P-305 | Medicine | null | Repeat upper GI endoscopy in a patient with a gastric ulcer is performed after how many weeks of PPI therapy to assess the healing of the ulcer and confirm absence of malignancy:
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 12 weeks
| 6 weeks |
57a57575-091f-48dd-9940-862caf87e7aa | Corpuscles of hassall present in the medulla of thymus Formed from eosinophilic epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically INDERBIR SINGH'S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY SEVENT EDITION PAGE NO139 | Anatomy | Thorax | Hassal's corpuscles are seen in
A. Thymus
B. Thyroid
C. Parathyroid
D. Spleen
| Thymus |
4aa671f1-1545-4290-87a8-e5950218cc3d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fever of 39degC Indications for urgent referral for hospital in AI Not able to drink Convulsions Severe malnutrition Stridor in calm child Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake o All these are signs of very severe disease which is an indication for urgent hospital referrel. o Signs of very severe pneumonia i.e., chest retraction, cyanosis are also indications for urgent referrel to a hospital. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Not a indication for admission in pneumonia ?
A. Fever of 390 c
B. Cyanosis
C. Chest retracion
D. Not feeding well
| Fever of 390 c |
4d0bf425-6430-4174-a993-e4302bd601b7 | Vareniciline is a partial agonist at α4 β2 substype of nicotine receptor used to treat tobbacco addiction.
Side effects include suicidal ideation, nausea, headache & insomnia. | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following antismoking drugs can lead to suicidal ideation?
A. Baclofen
B. Rimonobant
C. Varenicline
D. Naltrexone
| Varenicline |
9d2de2c9-2f85-4301-8fc1-a8b4707ff042 | Answer- D. RhabdomyolysisIf a urine dipstick of the red supernatant is positive for heme, the patient has either hemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria.If a urine dipstick of the red supernatant is negative for heme, the patient may have one of a variety of unusual conditions | Medicine | null | Positive dipstick for RBC with red color urine and red supernatant and clear sediment with positive dipstick -
A. Porphyria
B. Hematuria
C. Hemolysis
D. Rhabdomyolysis
| Rhabdomyolysis |
e9f93c17-5f03-4b8c-becb-ffbc05332f50 | IMIDAZOLES AND TRIAZOLES: These are presently the most extensively used antifungal drugs. Four irnidazoles are entirely topical, while ketoconazole is used both orally and topically. Two triazoles fluconazole and itraconazole have largely replaced ketoconazole for systemic mycosis because of greater efficacy, longer tlh, fewer side effects and drug interactions. The imidazoles and triazoles have broadspectrum antifungal activity covering dermatophytes, Candida, other fungi involved in deep mycosis (except mucor), Nocardia, some grampositive and anaerobic bacteria, e.g. Staph. aureus, Strep. faecal is, Bac. fragilis and Leishmania. The mechanism of action of irnidazoles and triazoles is the same. They inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme &;lanosterol l4--demethylase&; and thus impair ergosterol synthesis leading to a cascade of membrane abnormalities in the fungus. The lower host toxicity of triazoles compared to irnidazoles has correlated with their lower affinity for mammalian CYP450 enzymes and lesser propensity to inhibit mammalian sterol synthesis. However, because they are active against ceain bacteria as well (which do not have ergosterol), other mechanisms of action also appear to be involved. Ketoconazole (KTZ): It is the first orally effective broad-spectrum antifungal drug, useful in both dermatophytosis and deep myc osis. The oral absorption of KTZ is facilitated by gastric acidity because it is more soluble at lower pH. Hepatic metabolism is extensive; metabolites are excreted in urine and faeces. Elimination of KTZ is dose dependent: tlh varies from llh to 6 hours. Penetration in CSF is poor: not effective in fungal men ingitis. However, therapeutic concentrations are attained in the skin and vaginal fluid. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:761,762 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Amphotericin B
C. 5-Flucytosine
D. Griseofulvin
| Ketoconazole |
55f90618-002b-4943-95d2-e6bebee1e018 | Answer is A (Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells):The presence of generalized edema is a 7 year old boy with proteinuria suggests a diagnosis of Nephrotic syndrome. This child is likely to have. Minimal change disease as this is the most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with normal findings on Light microscopyGeneralized edema May develop Pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, ascitis Patients with minimal change disease characteristically show fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epethelial cells on electron microscopy.Minimal change Disease: ReviewMost common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children (80% in children; 20% in adults)Peak Age of onset is between 6-8 years of Age (usually < 10 years)Type of onset : InsiduousClinical featuresPeripheral Edema: Presenting FeatureNephrotic syndrome is the typical presentationPeripheral edema is the hallmark of Nephrotic syndrome occurring when serum albumin levels become less than 3g/dlInitially dependent Edema > Generalized edema May develop Pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, ascitisHematuria : 20-30%Hypeension : V. RareRenal failure : Does not usually progress to renal failureLaboratory (Features of Nephrotic syndrome)ProteinuriaHypoalbuminemiaHyperlipidemia/Hyper cholesterolemia (Increased hepatic prduction of lipids)HypercoagulabilityRenal pathology (Biopsy)InvestigationLight microscopy QElectron microscopy QImmunofluorescence QObservationNo abnormality hence the term minimal changeFusion of foot processesAbsence of immunoglobulin or complementPrognosisPrognosis is GoodResponse to steroids is ExcellentDoes not progress to Renal FailureTreatmentsCoicosteroids form the mainstay for treatment of MCD | Medicine | null | A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema.Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria.Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminaemia with hyperlipidemia.Kidney biopsy was undeaken.On light microscopic examination, the kidney appeared normal.Electron microscopic examination is most likely to reveal
A. Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
B. Rarefaction of glomerular basement membrane
C. Deposition of electron dense material in the basement membrane
D. Thin basement membrane
| Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells |
01ad49c6-2d21-4eef-944b-19b294e022c6 | Endothelial cells constitute a large and impoant tissue. They secrete many growth factors and vasoactive substances. The vasoactive substances include prostaglandins and thromboxanes, nitric oxide, and endothelins.Lungs activate angiotensin I to angiotensin II; this reaction is paicularly prominent in the lungsRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology;23rd edition; Page No: 606 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Which is not synthesized by the vascular epithelium?
A. Prostacyclin
B. Angiotensin 2
C. Endothelin
D. Heparin
| Angiotensin 2 |
e14342e0-5d78-4346-8f5f-c5363d2a5500 | First I would like to exclude other three options : -
Aortic aneurysm (option b) and mediastinal lymphadenopathy (option c) cause left sided vocal cord paralysis.
Vocal nodules does not cause vocal cord paralysis.
Now we are left with option 'a' only : -
"Laryngeal carcinoma especially glottic can cause unilateral or bilateral vocal cord paralysis" ─ Conn's current therapy
So, answer of this question is laryngeal carcinoma as it can cause unilateral (right or left) or bilateral vocal cord paralysis. | ENT | null | Right-sided vocal cord palsy seen in -
A. Larynx carcinoma
B. Aortic aneurysm
C. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
D. Vocal nodule
| Larynx carcinoma |
a89f8a22-61dd-4346-a843-b268c502044c | Ans. (b) Corpus striatum(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.243)The Efferent fibers bundle of the substantia nigra transmits dopamine to corpus striatum | Physiology | Nervous System | The Efferent fibers bundle of the substantia nigra transmits dopamine to one of the following areas
A. Thalamus
B. Corpus striatum
C. Tegmentum of pons
D. Tectum of midbrain
| Corpus striatum |
db52dd1f-7aad-4ef7-87a8-6b562593b059 | Spores may be seen in unstained preparations as Refractile bodies. The forespore stains intensely but once the spores envelope is laid down the spores does not stain readly. Spores appear as unstained areas in Gram-stained preparations but being more acid fast than the vegetative cells they can be stained by a modification of the Diehl -Nelson technique. Ref: Ananthanarayan & paniker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition pg no 21 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Acid fast organisms are -
A. Spores
B. Nocardia
C. Legionella
D. Rodococcus
| Spores |
6806e3f4-88b1-4014-ab2c-bb77759b2faa | Uniparental disomy occurs when both chromosomes of a pair or areas from 2 chromosome in any individual have been inherited from a single parent. Maternal uniparental disomy is seen in Leader -Willi syndrome. Paternal uniparental disomy is seen in Angelman syndrome . Reference: Nelson TB of pediatrics pg 412 19th edition. | Pediatrics | Genetic and genetic disorders | Maternal disomy of chromosome 15 is seen in
A. Prader - Willi syndrome
B. Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Angelman syndrome
D. Turner's syndrome
| Prader - Willi syndrome |
f2e050a4-21a3-4316-8df5-e077c84c4187 | Capillary refill is a simple test that assesses how quickly blood returns to the skin after pressure is applied.
It is carried out by applying pressure to the pink part of the nail bed of the thumb or big toe in a child and over the sternum or forehead in a young infant for 3 seconds.
The capillary refill time is the time from release of pressure to complete return of the pink colour. It should be less than 3 seconds.
If it is more than 3 seconds the child may be in shock. Lift the limb slightly above heart level to assess arteriolar capillary refill and not venous stasis.
This sign is reliable except when the room temperature is low, as the cold environment can cause a delayed capillary refill.
In such a situation check the pulses and decide about shock | Pediatrics | null | Capillary refill time in a child with shock is?
A. >1 second
B. >2 seconds
C. >3 seconds
D. >4 seconds
| >3 seconds |
e3918480-8802-495e-aa17-aa50e6c170f3 | The lung maturity occurs at 34 weeks of gestation and this is ceified by checking the L:S ratio which should be > 2:1 or appearance of Phosphatidyl glycerol in the amniotic fluid. Maternal administration of coicosteroid is advocated where the pregnancy is less than 34 weeks. This helps in fetal lung maturation so that the incidence of RDS, Intra Ventricular Hemorrhage , Necrotising Enterocolitis , and Patent Ductus Aeriosus are minimized. Respiratory distress of newborn often results in multiple debility in the fetus if not prevented. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Preterm Labour | In a lady at 32 weeks pregnancy is given an injection of dexamethasone to prevent which of the following in the newborn ?
A. Respiratory Distress Syndrome
B. Neonatal convulsion
C. Neonatal jaundice
D. Cerebral palsy
| Respiratory Distress Syndrome |
6a455c6d-bf8d-4fb9-8458-8a10418744de | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Yolk sac* Embryonic and fetal hematopoiesis occurs in three phases: megaloblastic, hepatic, and myeloid. At each phase of RBC development both the sites of production and the cell composition change.* Sites and stages of fetal erythropoiesis: Primitive erythropoiesis begins in the yolk sac at 2 to 3 weeks after conception. By the end of the first trimester, the liver has become the main erythroid organ. The liver is the primary source of red blood cells during the second trimester, and the bone marrow is the primary source of red blood cells during the last trimester | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Initial site of RBC production in fetus-
A. Gestational sac
B. Yolk sac
C. Placeta
D. Fetal bones
| Yolk sac |
4b20eac9-8b96-464a-b04b-78934c21345a | The features of intaepidermal acantholytic blisters coupled with flacid bullae over skin and oral erosions points towards P. vulgaris. The other 3 diseases do now show intraepidermal blistering. They are devoid of mucosal involement. Erythema Multiforme: Target lesion seen on distal extremeties. If mucosa involved it is called as Epidermal Multiforme Major Dermatitis herpetiformis: Extremely pruritic vesicopapules over extensors Pemphigoid: Tense bullae | Dental | Blistering disorders | A 24 yr-old female has flaccid bullae over the skin and oral erosions. Histopathology shows intraepidermal blister with acantholytic cells. Diagnosis is:
A. Pemphigoid
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
| Pemphigus vulgaris |
c6902efa-0d40-4220-8d8b-af620342c247 | A i.e. The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case | Forensic Medicine | null | After postmoem body is handed over to :
A. The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case
B. Police station near by
C. Coroner
D. Chief magistrate
| The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case |
0790541e-01e7-497d-8fe7-ae413e607936 | Ans. (a) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries)(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 166-167; 8th/pg 165-166)In this question, the patient is presenting with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH, along with short stature(Given Height =58 inches, which is less than 5th percentile of expected at 16 years age). All these features are suggestive of Turner Syndrome.Infertility Q due to rudimentary uterus and streak ovaries is an important feature Q, as ovaries are reduced to atrophic fibrous strands without ova and follicles in Turner syndrome | Pathology | Genetics | A 16-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH. On examination, her height was 58 inches. What would be the histopathological finding in the ovary?
A. Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries)
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Psamomma bodies
D. Hemorrhagic Corpus Leuteum
| Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries) |
ce41e196-9993-479f-8b5b-690d4f6f3a4d | Serratia grows in sputum after collection and makes sputum red (pigment production) This condition is pseudohemoptysis. | Microbiology | null | Pseudohemoptysis is caused by:
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Serratia marcescens
C. Proteus
D. Klebsiella
| Serratia marcescens |
e555f8f1-34db-4673-b7a2-c04d76d229c5 | Ans. B: Congenital syphilis It develop from host immune mechanisms to active infections or antigens within the stromal keratocytes. Diseases known to cause interstitial keratitis include: congenital syphilis, herpes simplex, herpes zoster, Epstein-Barr, tuberculosis and leprosy. Clinical manifestations: superficial stromal scarring, necrotizing stromal keratitis and disciform keratitis. As the inflammation subsides, intracorneal blood vessels will regress and become nonperfused vascular channels, which are known as "ghost" vessels. These vessels can be readily visualized using slit lamp biomicroscopy and can become active if inflammation recurs. | Ophthalmology | null | Interstitial keratitis is commonly seen in: March 2005
A. Fungal keratitis
B. Congenital syphilis
C. Phlyctenular keratitis
D. Trachoma
| Congenital syphilis |
4378cf86-1e36-445e-bad3-dfed51e7fc89 | All four can cause gangrene (Myocardial infarction can cause gangrene by thromboembolism)
Lets see, each option one by one.
Raynauds disease
Is ds of young women* (F:M ratio is 5:1)
commonly the upper limbs* are affected specially the fingers (the thumb is generally escaped)
The disease is characterized by Raynauds phenomenon* which is a series of attacks of
Local syncope → digits become cold and white*
Local asphyxia → digits turn blue with burning sensation*
Local recovery →digits regain normal colour*
Pulses remain unaffected* as this is the disease which affects arterioles
With the help of points (a) and (b) Raynauds ds can be ruled out.
Atherosclerosis (Senile gangrene)
Seen in elderly people over 50 years of age.
Thus because of age factor we can rule out atherosclerosis.
Myocardial infaction
Age factor again helps in ruling it out as MI is generally seen in elderly, though its incidence is increasing in young, but it cannot be a more common cause than Buerger's disease.
Buerger's (Thromboangitis obliterans) Usual victims of this ds are young men below 40 yrs of age, who are smokers (ds is not seen in females and nonsmokers).
Buerger ds is the inflammatory reaction in the arterial wall with involvement of the neighbouring vein and nerve, terminating in thrombosis of the artery.
It characterstically involves small and medium sized arteries (plantars, tibial and radial artery)
Both upper and lower extremities are affected.
In lower extremity the ds. occurs beyond the popliteal artery. In upper extremity the ds occurs beyond the brachial art.
Early in the course of Buergers ds the superficial veins are involved producing the characterstic migratory, recurrent superficial thrombophlebitis.
An imp difference with atheroselerosis is that, atherosclerosis is a disease of large sized arteries, buergers is a ds of small arteries. | Surgery | null | Most common cause of gangrene of foot of 30 years old farmer who is a chronic smoker -
A. Raynaud's disease
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Thromboangitis obliterans
| Thromboangitis obliterans |
a8e0c826-eee1-45b4-bf7a-f8e8caf50e67 | Rhabdomyosarcoma It is a highly malignant tumour of the orbit arising from the extraocular muscles. It is the most common primary orbital tumour among children, usually occurring below the age of 15 years (90%). Clinical features: It classically presents as rapidly progressive proptosis of sudden onset in a child of 7-8 years. Massive proptosis due to rhabdomyosarcoma located in the superonasal quadrant (mimmicking acute inflammatory process). The clinical presentation mimics an inflammatory process. The tumour commonly involves the superionasal quadrant; but may invade any pa of the orbit. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-394 | Ophthalmology | Tumors | The most commonly seen primary orbital tumour in children is
A. Optic nerve sheath meningioma
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Glioma of optic nerve
| Rhabdomyosarcoma |
b6b37b96-384a-415a-ad6a-a66584a7de9c | Ordinal data is that data which has a meaningful arrangement of order but no valuable data or information can be obtained from the order arrangement. For example in the above question, though the data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied and dissatisfied no information is obtainable as to what is the difference between satisfied and very satisfied and the difference between very satisfied and dissatisfied and so on. Thus this data is a ordinal data. Ref: High-Yield Bio statistics By Anthony N. Glaser; 3rd Edition; Page 4; Statistics for Management and Economics By Gerald Keller; Pages 13 - 16 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A collection of information in a table has been arranged as satisfied, very satisfied and dissatisfied. Which of the following will be the right term for such information?
A. Interval data
B. Ratio data
C. Nominal data
D. Ordinal data
| Ordinal data |
85522213-04c6-4ae7-9336-446cde546851 | Orchidectomy Orchidectomy is performed in advanced disease. In 1941, prostate cancer was shown to be responsive to such treatment by Charles Huggins, the only urologist to win a Nobel Prize. Bilateral orchidectomy, whether total or subcapsular, will eliminate the major source of testosterone production. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1474 | Surgery | Urology | Subcapsular orchiectomy is done for
A. Ca testis
B. Ca prostate
C. Ca penis
D. Ca urethra
| Ca prostate |
8a26ae07-2a40-4081-95a7-e0b7a0f776bf | (C) (IV - Methergin) (142 - Dutta 7th)Methergin 0.2 mg IM (Intramuscular) to the mother within one minute of delivery of the babyOyxtocin may be given with crowning of the head, with delivery of the anterior shoulder of the baby or after the delivery of the placenta.Components of Active Management of Third stage of Labour (WHO)* Administration of uterotonic (oxytocin/Ergometrine) soon after birth of baby* Delayed cord clamping and cutting* Controlled Cord traction for delivery of placenta* Uterine massageCurrent evidence show that delayed cord clamping is beneficial for baby, immediate cord clamping has been shown to increase the incidence of iron deficiency anemia for premature and LBW babies immediate cord clamping can also increase the risk of intraventricular haemorrhage and late onset sepsis | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | NOT included in third stage of labour
A. Controlled cord traction
B. lM-oxytocin
C. IV methergin
D. Uterine massage
| IV methergin |
374dbef4-00f7-4dd4-96b1-e1e30a82b764 | In 75% of cases metastasis from choriocarcinoma occurs into the lungs and rest usually occurs in the vagina. Other organs which may also contain metastases are vulva, kidneys, liver, ovaries, brain and bowel. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is the most common site of secondaries in a case of choriocarcinoma?
A. Vagina
B. Urethra
C. Lung
D. Brain
| Lung |
590e95ab-808c-4bac-a2b9-b4049c8193cb | Ankle Brachial Index ABI= Systolic BP at the ankle/systolic BP in the arms Compared to the arm, lower blood pressure in the leg is an indication of blocked aeries (peripheral vascular disease) ABI is calculated by dividing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle by the systolic blood pressures in the arm ABI is calculated by dividing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle by the systolic blood pressures in the arm ABI Interpretation >1.2 Non-compressible, severely calcified vessel (in DM & ESRD) 1.0-1.2 Normal vessels 0.5-0.9 Intermittent claudication 0.1-0.4 Critical limb ischaemia( Ischaemic ulceration, gangrene) Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1758 | Surgery | Vascular surgery | Normal value of ankle branchial index is
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. 1.4
| 1 |
a52216a3-44a4-417b-ad05-a395613ac6f2 | The use of loop diuretics promotes kaliuresis and therefore may lead to hyperammonemia | Pharmacology | All India exam | In a patient of liver disease, which maneuvers, may lead to the development of hyperammonemia?
A. Protein restriction
B. The use of neomycin
C. The use of loop diuretics
D. A branched-chain amino acid-enriched protein mixture
| The use of loop diuretics |
afd9cc3c-8c36-479b-be09-e5c8212014e1 | Extracellular ACE on the surface endothelial cells in pulmonary circulation activates Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II. | Physiology | null | Which of the following is the best-known metabolic function of the lung
A. Inactivation of serotonin
B. Conversion of angiotensin–I to angiotensin–II
C. Inactivation of bradykinin
D. Metabolism of basic drugs by cytochrome P–450 system
| Conversion of angiotensin–I to angiotensin–II |
d060d9ed-a2c4-48e9-9607-0481c4b4e382 | Chromosomal sex can be determined by the study of the leucocytes or by simply taking a smear from the buccal mucosa The nuclei of the female chromosome contains a stainable body called the sex chromatin, hence female cells are termed as chromatin positive. In epithelial cell nuclei this small peripherally situated darkly staining nodule is called Barr body. Male cell nuclei lack this body and termed chromatin negative. Ref: SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; 15th edition; Pg no:108 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Sexuality and intersexuality | One of the following is used for sex chromatin testing :
A. Barr body
B. Testosterone receptors
C. Hormone levels
D. Phenotypic features
| Barr body |
32ec269a-db55-4f15-afc1-6910b6d77ff1 | Semiclose breathing circuit is less economical, causes more environmental pollution. It is simple portable and no need of advanced monitoring. | Anaesthesia | null | Semiclosed circuit system
A. Needs advanced monitoring
B. Complex
C. More environmental pollution
D. More economical
| More environmental pollution |
76c1bec9-32e2-4a59-94e6-bb791855bec6 | Gram-positive bacteria remain the most common cause of septic ahritis. Staphylococcus aureus accounts for the majority of culture-positive septic ahritis, especially within ceain patient subgroups such as hemodialysis patients and intravenous drug abusers. The predominance of S. aureus in septic ahritis has remained unchanged for many years. | Orthopaedics | Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries | A 40-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency depament with a 2 days history of right knee pain with associated swelling and erythema. The patient is febrile with a holosystolic murmur at the right lower sternal border. Complete blood count reveals leukocytosis. Blood and synol fluid cultures are sent, and broad-spectrum antibiotics are staed. Synol fluid analysis is pending. What is the most likely pathogen causing these symptoms
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Staphylococcus aureus
| Staphylococcus aureus |
1cd6d32e-78c4-4549-b4df-93edb57a3d59 | (Ref: KDT 6/e p57) Drugs used for the treatment of central (pituitary) diabetes insipidus are: - Desmopressin (selective V2 agonist) - Thiazides - Chlorpropamide - Carbamazepine Drugs used for the treatment of nephrogenic (renal) diabetes insipidus are: - Thiazides - Amiloride (for lithium induced) Thiazides are useful for the treatment of both central as well as nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Desmopressin is not effective in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | A 7-year-old boy, Manoj underwent successful chemotherapy and cranial radiation for the treatment of acute lymphocytic leukemia. One month after the completion of therapy, the patient presented with excessive thirst and urination plus hypernatremia. Laboratory testing revealed pituitary diabetes insipidus. To corect these problems, this patient is likely to be treated with:
A. Coicotropin
B. Desmopressin
C. hCG
D. Menotropins
| Desmopressin |
7071d942-9a8c-432a-8d21-05dd67536591 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5 a reductase* 5 a reductase is the enzyme which converts testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone (DHT).* Testosterone is sufficient to support male secondary sexual characteristics* Dihydroxytestosterone (DHT) is however, essential for male type external genitalia to get established. DHT is found to have higher affinity for the receptors, which are responsible for male external genital development, than testosterone. In addition DHT is found to cause prostrate hyperplasia.* Hence 5 a reductase is necessary for male type external genitalia to get established | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Which enzyme converts Testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone?
A. Aromatase
B. 5 a reductase
C. 5 a hydroxylase
D. 7 a hydroxylase
| 5 a reductase |
89a8da94-5df4-4c3c-a324-5361d4f61e0a | Leading question: Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive. It includes a material fact and admits of a conclusive answer by a simple 'Yes' or 'No' Leading questions not permitted in Leading questions permitted in -Examination in chief(Section 142 IEA) -Re-examination -Dying declaration -Cross examination( Section 143 IEA) -Dying deposition -Hostile witness | Forensic Medicine | Indian Legal system, Legal sections & Cou procedures | Which of these following is an example of a leading question?
A. How did you get cuts on T shi
B. Cause of injury
C. Whether it is caused by knife
D. Size of incised wound
| Whether it is caused by knife |
5aa04ff1-94e0-42c0-b4d6-5f8b444cbb2e | Adamantinoma of long bone Introduction: Unusual neoplasm, almost always located in tibial shaft. Clinical features: Localized swelling and pain for several years. Age: Between 15-55 yrs. Radiological features: * An eccentric well demarcated area of destruction usually involving the anterior poion of the tibial shaft. * Slight expansion and coical thinning, with a cystic or multiloculated appearance is usual. * Periosteal Reaction is not marked. * Coical destruction on may be extensive. * Margins of tumors vary from being sharply and clearly demarcated, with slight sclerotic areas, to a hazy zone of transition of several mm, comparable to that seen in giant cell tumors. Histologically difficult to distinguish from metastatic adenocarcinoma, but component of the tumor may suggest an epithelial derivation. Although the tumor continues to grow to a slow rate, it is featured by local recurrent and eventual lung metastasis. | Surgery | null | A 33-yr old man presented with a slowly progressive swelling in the middle 113d of his right tibia. X-rays examination revealed multiple sharply demarcated radiolucent lesions separated by areas of dense and sclerotic bone. Microscopic examination of a biopsy specimen revealed island of epithelial cells in a fibrous stroma. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Adamantinoma
B. Osteofibrous dysplasia
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Fibrous coical defect
| Adamantinoma |
baf88a5b-1af4-4fbb-8665-0c4984126275 | Ans. is 'b' ie. Medullary carcinoma (Ref Harrison 17/e p2359 (16/e, p 2231, 15/e, p 2185) & Q. Nov. 2000)Pt. is having MEN syndrome type II.MEN syndrome is associated with medullary Ca of thyroid. | Surgery | Thyroid Malignancies | A 52 year female pt. presents with symptoms of pheochromocytoma. She also has a thyroid carcinoma. Her thyroid Ca is of which type :
A. Anaplastic
B. Medullary
C. Folliculare
D. Papillary
| Medullary |
03e2b6a7-af6e-49e9-b8e2-1b0553d0eaaa | Ans: A (1st molar) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010.Explanation:Appearance of temporary teeth:Lower central incisor (6 mths)Upper central incisor (7 M)Upper lateral incisor (8 M)Lower lateral incisor (9 M)1 st molar ( 1 yr)Canine (1 1/2 yr)2nd molar (2 yr)Appearance of permanent teeth:1st molar (6 yr)Central incisors (7 yr)Lateral incisors (8 yr)1st premolar (9 vr)2nd premolar (10 yr)Canine (11 yr)2nd molar (12-14 yr)3rd molar (17-25 yr) | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | The first permanent tooth to appear is:
A. 1st molar
B. Lateral incisor
C. Upper canine
D. 1st premolar
| 1st molar |
eeebfc32-6319-4485-9c8a-fe4c50d02283 | A i.e. Central retinal aery occlusion All the above can lead to sudden painless loss of vision, but Cherry-Red Spot is seen only in CRAO Sudden Painful Painless * Acute * Macular edema congestive * CRAO Q (central retinal aery (angle occlusion) closure) * CRVO Q (central retinal vein occlusion) glaucoma Q * Central serous retinopathy * Acute * Retinal detachment Q iridocyclitis * Exudative Age Related Macular (uveitis) Q Degeneration (ARMD) * Chemical & * Vitreous & retinal haemorrhage (eg mechanical Eale's disease) Q injury to * Optic neuritis Q eyeball * Methyl alcohol amblyopia * Subluxation or dislocation of lens Gradual Painful Painless * Corneal * Progressive pterygium ulceration * Corneal dystrophy * Chronic * Corneal degeneration simple * Cataract Q (developmental & senile) glaucoma * Chorioretinal degeneration * Chronic * Dry type - Age related macular iridocyclitis degeneration (ARMD) Q (uveitis) * Diabetic retinopathy Q * Retinitis pigmentosa Q * Optic atrophy Q * Refractive errors * Preshyopia Cherry Red Spot Macula is situated at posterior pole with its centre (foveola) being about 2 disc diameters lateral to temporal margin of disc. When retina becomes milky white due to edema, central pa of macular are shows cherry red spot due to vascular choroid shining through the thin retina of this region. Cause are:- 1. Quinine amblyopia 2. Niemann-Pick's diseaseQ 3. Metachromatic leukodystrophyQ 4. Multiple sulfatase deficiencyQ 5. Taysach's diseaseQ (GM2 gangliosidosis type 1) 6. Berlin's oedema / Commotio retinaeQ due to blunt blow on eye 7. Central Retinal Aery occlusion (CRAO)Q (not in CRVO)Q 8. Gaucher's diseaseQ, Goldberg syndrome 9. Generalized gangliosidosis (Gml gangliosidosis type 1)Q 10. Sandhoff disease (Gm2 gangliosidosis type 2, sphingolipidosis) 11. Sialidosis type 1 & 2 (cherry red spot myoclonus syndrome, sphingolipidosis) 12. Farber's disease 13. Hurler's syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis 1H), HallervordenSpatz disease 14. Mucopolysachharidosis VII (3 galactosidase deficiency) | Ophthalmology | null | A young patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision with systolic murmur over chest, ocular examination reveals - cherry red spot in macula with clear AC, with perception of light, diagnosis:
A. Central retinal aery occlusion
B. Central retinal vein occlusion
C. Macular choroiditis with infective endocarditis
D. Central serous retinopathy
| Central retinal aery occlusion |
8d18558a-0789-4861-9eb1-4db1930325b5 | The best position of IOL is within the capsular bag in posterior chamber. | Ophthalmology | null | Best IOL is –
A. Anterior chamber
B. Posterior chamber
C. Iris supported
D. Angle supported
| Posterior chamber |
d5e6478f-aa9c-404f-bcd6-d6ae4a1ab381 | In citric acid cycle, the initial reaction between acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate to form citrate is catalyzed by citrate synthase, which forms a carbon-carbon bond between the methyl carbon of acetyl-CoA and the carbonyl carbon of oxaloacetate. The thioester bond of the resultant citryl-CoA is hydrolyzed, releasing citrate and CoASH--an exothermic reaction. In the subsequent reactions, two molecules of CO2 are released and oxaloacetate is regenerated; hence oxaloacetate can be considered as playing a catalytic role. Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 17. The Citric Acid Cycle: The Catabolism of Acetyl-CoA. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA ---> Citrate + CoASH. This reaction is:
A. Reversible
B. Exothermic
C. Can be reversed by catalase
D. Competitive
| Exothermic |
858d374b-9552-4524-8f49-15f8efbb2778 | Rheobase is the minimal current amplitude of indefinite duration that results in the depolarization threshold of the cell membranes being reached (i.e. an action potential or the contraction of a muscle). Chronaxie (or chronaxy) is the minimum time over which an electric current, double the strength of the rheobase, needs to be applied, in order to stimulate a muscle fiber or nerve cell. In the case of a nerve or single muscle cell, rheobase is half the current that needs to be applied for the duration of chronaxie to result in an action potential or muscle twitch. Refractory period is a sho period after a nerve or muscle cell fires during which thecell cannot respond to additional stimulation. The minimal stimulus that produces excitation of any structure, eliciting a motor response is known as threshold. | Physiology | null | The minimal current amplitude of indefinite durationrequired for the depolarization threshold of the cell membranes is:
A. Threshold
B. Rheobase
C. Chronaxie
D. Refractory period
| Rheobase |
1194e643-82ea-429e-9f86-537186400854 | A. i.e. Benign Familial Chronic Pemphigus | Skin | null | Hailey - hailey disease is:
A. Benign familial chronic pemphigus
B. Pemphigus acutus
C. Pemphigus
D. Lyell's syndrome
| Benign familial chronic pemphigus |
401312ad-f021-4556-aa5e-251b17ee6b2c | Blunt force on areas where the skin is close to bone, and the subcutaneous tissues are scanty, may produce a wound which by linear splitting of the tissues, may look like incised wound. Lacerations produced without excessive skin crushing may have relatively regular sharp margins. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 166. | Forensic Medicine | null | What is the characteristic of a lacerated wound over bony surface due to blunt trauma without excessive skin crushing?
A. Irregular margins
B. Regular sharp margins
C. Tearing
D. Flaying
| Regular sharp margins |
711af9cd-660f-4867-8142-d5f20bfbd709 | On endoscopy, 3 narrowing's are seen from upper incisors. Mnemonic B - 15 AL - 25 D - 40 B - At beginning/cricopharynx 15 cm from upper incisors A- At Arch of aoa 25cm from upper incisors L- At Left Bronchus 25 cm from upper incisors D- At Diaphragm 40cm from upper incisiors | Surgery | Esophagus | A coin foreign body is stuck in esophagus at 25cm from incisors. This is approximately situated at which of the following levels?
A. Left mainstem bronchus
B. Diaphragm
C. Cricopharyngeal constriction
D. Gastroesophageal junction
| Left mainstem bronchus |
7333d4bc-9de9-4a9d-84d9-c1ee69b5e2b8 | Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare complication of long-standing lymphedema, most frequently described in a patient who has previously undergone radical mastectomy (Stewart-Treves syndrome). It usually presents as blue, red, or purple nodules with satellite lesions. Early metastasis, mainly to the lung, may develop if it is not recognized early and widely excised. Lymphedema is a complication of radical mastectomy and presents as diffuse swelling and nonpitting edema of the limb. Lymphangitis and hyperkeratosis are complications of lymphedema. | Surgery | Arterial Disorders | Eleven years after undergoing right modified radical mastectomy, a 61-year-old woman develops raised red and purple nodules over the right arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Lymphangitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Lymphangiosarcoma
D. Hyperkeratosis
| Lymphangiosarcoma |
72ee487b-da15-430c-bc53-410162b0251d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Adenovirus . Adenovirus type 12 and 18 produce sarcoma when inoculated into baby hamsters. . However there is no evidence at all relating adenoviruses to natural malignancy in human or animals. . All other viruses given in option are oncogenic in man. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following "oncogenic viruses" is so far not shown to be (oncogenic) in man -
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Epstein - Barr virus
C. Herpes simplex Type 2
D. Adenovirus
| Adenovirus |
3cfd6706-3da4-4e8f-b700-1025fa992f3a | Meniere's disease, also called endolymphatic hydrops, is a disorder of the inner ear where the endolymphatic system is distended with endolymph. It is characterized by (i) veigo,(ii) sensorineural hearing loss, -- Hearing improves after the attack and maybe normal during the periods of remission. This fluctuating nature of hearing loss is quite characteristic of the disease. -- Distoion of sound. Some patients complain of distoed hearing. A tone of a paicular frequency may appear normal in one ear and of the higher pitch in the other leading to diplacusis. -- Intolerance to loud sounds. Patients with Meniere's disease cannot tolerate the amplification of sound due to the recruitment phenomenon. (iii) tinnitus is low pitched and roaring type and is aggravated during acute attacks. (iv) aural fullness. (Ref: Textbook of diseased of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 111,112) | ENT | Ear | Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere's disease
A. Sensorineural deafness
B. Veigo
C. Pulsatile tinnitus
D. Fluctuating deafness
| Pulsatile tinnitus |
99023c78-540d-4c18-bf21-ba0ef9396849 | GluT4 is the major glucose transpoer in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.GluT4 is under the control of insulin.In Type 2 diabetes mellitus, membrane GluT4 is reduced, leading to insulin resistance in muscles and fat cells.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 107 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transpoers reduced in
A. Brain cells
B. RBCs
C. Adipocytes
D. Hepatocytes
| Adipocytes |
7f444937-f1ae-403c-9427-34f6d5c18aa6 | b. Toxoplasmosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2814, Ghai 8/e p 574)Cerebral calcification with hydrocephalus in seen in congenital toxoplasmosis. | Pediatrics | Central Nervous System | Which of the following agents is likely to cause cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has history of taking spiramycin but was not compliant with therapy?
A. Rubella
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. CMV
D. Herpes
| Toxoplasmosis |
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