id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
2e438782-65f5-4fbd-8a6b-be01dc626bdb | Guanine is a purine base Ref-Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30/e p329 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Which of the following is not a pyrimidine base?
A. Cytosine
B. Uracil
C. Guanine
D. Thymine
| Guanine |
22b51606-5545-4e06-90de-5d5c4882e470 | Testosterone- the principal male sex hormone (androgen) that is produced by Leydig&;s cells of the testes in response to luteinizing hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. It is also produced by the adrenal coex in both males and females. Its chief function is to stimulate the development of the male reproductive organs, including the prostate, and the secondary sex characters, such as the beard. It encourages growth of bone and muscle and helps maintain muscle strength.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-423 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Testosterone production is mainly contributed by
A. Leydig cells
B. Seolie cells
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Epididymis
| Leydig cells |
19b49a4f-30c2-4e11-a589-5e2883ad1138 | Ans. a. Portal hypertension (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p1164)Splenomegaly and massive bleeding leading to hypotension and tachycardia in the patient are in favor of portal hypertension.Common Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal HemorrhageNon-variceal Bleeding(80%)QPortal Hypertensive Bleeding(20%)QPeptic ulcer disease (MC)Q30-50%QGastroesophageal varicesQ>90%QMallory-Weiss tears15-20%Hypertensive portal gastropathy<5%Gastritis or duodenitis10-15%Isolated gastric varicesRareEsophagitis5-10% Arteriovenous malformations5% Tumors2% Other5% Portal HypertensionDefinition: Portal pressure >10 mm HgQMC cause of portal hypertension in United States: CirrhosisQ.Consequence of both increased portal vascular resistance and increased portal flowQ.Portal hypertension results in splenomegaly with enlarged, tortuous, and even aneurysmal splenic vessels.Splenomegaly frequently is associated with hypersplenism, causing leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia.Cruveilhier-Baumgarten murmurQ: Audible venous hum in caput medusaHyperdynamic portal venous circulation seems to be related to the severity of the liver failureQ.Upper G.I. bleeding is caused by the portal hypertension in about 90% of instances.Most bleeding episodes occur during the first 1 to 2 years after identification of varicesQ.Colour Doppler is the investigation of choice for evaluation of PHT.About one third of deaths in patients with known esophageal varices are due to upper GI bleedQA larger proportion dies as a result of liver failureQ.MC causes of death in cirrhosis patients: Hepatic failureQ2nd MC causes of death in cirrhosis patients: variceal hemorrhageQ | Surgery | Abdominal Injury | A 40-year old male presents with history of vomiting of blood 2 hours ago. The volume of vomitus was estimated to be 500 ml. His BP was 90/58 mm Hg and pulse was 110/min. On abdominal examination, the spleen was palpable 5 cm below the costal margin. The most likely cause of the bleeding is:
A. Portal hypertension
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Drug-induced mucosal erosion
| Portal hypertension |
ab89a438-11a3-46ae-90d0-45a610fa59f8 | Most common extra pulmonary involvement: lymph nodes > pleura> ileocecal - GI TB most common site- ileocecal | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli) | Most common extra pulmonary involvement of TB ?
A. Bone
B. Lymph nodes
C. Pleura
D. Ileocecal
| Lymph nodes |
aea14d13-256b-4c50-9c4b-fd116b5b388f | Ans. (b) ACE inhibitorsRef KDT 6th ed. 553; Williams 24th ed, /: 1025* ACEs are the drugs which inhibit the conversion of angiotensin-I to angiotensin-II. They can cause severe fetal malformations when given in the second and third trimesters.* These include: Hypocalvaria and renal dysfunction and are also teratogenic and because of this, they are not recommended during pregnancy* Angiotensin-receptor blockers act in a similar manner.But, instead of blocking the production of angiotensin- II, they inhibit binding to its receptor. They are presumed to have the same fetal effects as ACE inhibitors and thus are also contraindicated.Antihypertensive to be avoided during pregnancyAntihypertensive safer during pregnancy* ACE inhibitors (Ex- captopril, enelapril etc.)* Angiotensin antagonist (losartan, telmesartan)* Thiazide diuretics (Ex- hydrochlorthiazide)* Furosemide* Propanolol* Nitroprusside* Hydralazine* Methyldopa* Atenolol* Metoprolol* Labetalol-DOC* Nifedipine* Prazosin and ClonidineDrugs and their respective risk* Diuretics: tend to reduce blood volume; increase risk of placental infarcts, fetal wastage, stillbirth.* ACE inhibitors, ATI antagonists: growth retardation and fetal damage risk.* Propanolol: causes low birth weight, neonatal hypoglycemia and bradycardia.* Nitroprusside: contraindicated in eclampsia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Management and Long-Term Consequences | Which of the following anti-hypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy:
A. Beta blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Methyldopa
D. Ca channel blockers
| ACE inhibitors |
d863e8d0-06e0-4825-87d2-c1d065d2a9f7 | Menke's kinky hair syndrome is due to mutation in ATP7A gene, leading defective copper transporter. | Biochemistry | null | Menke's Kinky hair syndrome is due to defect in
A. Ca transporter
B. Cu transporter
C. Zn transporter
D. Se transporter
| Cu transporter |
60247d87-7aab-440a-9a03-43bbef9a7573 | A unilateral nasal discharge is nearly always due to foreign body and if duscharge has an unpleasant smell,it is pathognic. If a child presents with unilateral,foul smeling nasal discharge,foreign body must be excluded. Ref Dhingra 6/e,p 161. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Most common cause of U/L mucopurulent rhinorrhea in a child is:
A. Foreign body
B. Adenoids which are blocking the airways
C. Deted nasal septum
D. Inadequately treated acute frontal sinusitis
| Foreign body |
05b670e1-57b8-4be5-b66e-d864f79f7577 | Pendrin protein is a chloride-iodide transpoer protein encoded by the gene responsible for Pendred syndrome, impoant in function of thyroid gland, kidney, and inner ear.Endocytosis is defined as the uptake by a cell of material from the environment by invagination of the plasma membrane; it includes both phagocytosis and pinocytosis.Antipo a cell membrane transpo mechanism that transpos two molecules at once through the membrane in opposite directions.Primary active transpo - Active transpo is the movement of all types of molecules across a cell membrane against its concentration gradient (from low to high concentration). In all cells, this is usually concerned with accumulating high concentrations of molecules that the cell needs, such as ions, glucose, and amino acids. If the process uses chemical energy, such as from adenosine triphosphate (ATP), it is termed primary active transpo.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no-341 | Physiology | Endocrinology | In thyroid gland, iodine is transpoed into the lumen of the follicles by
A. Endocytosis
B. Pendrin protein
C. Antipo
D. Primary active transpo
| Pendrin protein |
77a8eaf2-465a-4c1d-a917-e4b35c4c0e61 | Ans. D i.e. Fresh water snail Schistosoma haematobium It is an impoant digenetic trematode, and is found in the Middle East, India, Pougal and Africa. It is a major agent of schistosomiasis; more specifically, it is associated with urinary schistosomiasis. Adults are found in the Venous plexuses around the urinary bladder and the released eggs traverse the wall of the bladder causing haematuria and fibrosis of the bladder. The bladder becomes calcified, and there is increased pressure on ureters and kidneys otherwise known as hydronephrosis. Inflammation of the genitals due to S. haematobium may contribute to the propagation of HIV. Studies have shown the relationship between S. haematobium infection and the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder Life cycle The female fluke lays as many as 30 eggs per day which migrate to the lumen of the urinary bladder and ureters. The eggs are eliminated from the host into the water supply with micturition. In fresh water, the eggs hatch forming free swimming miracidia which penetrate into the intermediate snail host (Bulinus spp., e.g. B. globosus, B. forskalii, B. nyassanus and B. truncatus). Inside the snail, the miracidium sheds it epithelium and develops into a mother sporocyst. After two weeks the mother begins forming daughter sporocysts. Four weeks after the initial penetration of the miracardium into the snail furcocercous cercariae begin to be released. The cercariae cycle from the top of the water to the bottom for three days in the search of a human host. Within half an hour the cercariae enter the host epithelium | Microbiology | null | Intermediate host for schistosoma haematobium is: March 2013
A. Cat
B. Dog
C. Rat
D. Fresh water snail
| Fresh water snail |
0ba3cd8e-024c-404a-aa7b-c892421f0b3f | Because the mutation creates an additional splice acceptor site (the 3'-end) upstream of the normal acceptor site of intron 1, the 19 nucleotides that are usually found at the 3'-end of the excised intron 1 lariat can remain behind as pa of exon 2. Exon 2 can, therefore, have these extra 19 nucleotides at its 5'-end. The presence of these extra nucleotides in the coding region of the mutant mRNA molecule will prevent the ribosome from translating the message into a normal b-globin protein molecule. Those mRNA for which the normal splice site is used to remove the first intron will be normal, and their translation will produce normal b-globin protein.Ref: Lippincott illustrated review, Sixth edition | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | A four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive disorder. Genetic anylysis shows that the patient&;s gene for the muscle protein dystrophin contains a mutation in its promoter region. What would be the most likely effect of this mutation?
A. Tailing of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
B. Capping of dystropin mRNA will be defective
C. Termination of dystrophin transcription will be deficient.
D. Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
| Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient |
1a855e4b-e67b-4268-8f5c-193089627f4f | <p>Plasma ferritin is a measure of iron stores in tissues & is the best test to confirm iron deficiency & is a very specific test . </p><p>Plasma iron & total iron binding capacity are measures of iron availability ;hence they are affected by many factors besides iron stores.</p><p>Plasma iron has a marked diurnal & day to day variation & becomes very low during an acute phase response. </p><p>Levels of transferrin are lowered by malnutrition ,liver disease,acute phase response , & nephrotic syndrome.A transferrin saturation of less than 16%is consistent but is less specific than a ferritin measurement .</p><p>Reference : Davidson&;s principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no-1023</p> | Medicine | Haematology | Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is -
A. Serum iron levels
B. Serum ferritin levels
C. Serum transferrin receptor population
D. Transferrin saturation
| Serum ferritin levels |
ca4e14a3-f179-4f48-b96b-28a35eeccc0b | Neutropenic enterocolitis (NE) is also known as typhlitis, ileocecal syndrome, cecitis, or necrotizing enterocolitis. Despite the previous use of the term "necrotizing enterocolitis" to describe NE cases, necrotizing enterocolitis is a different inflammatory illness seen in newborns and is beyond the scope of this review. NE is a clinical entity initially described in leukemic pediatric patients. It has also been repoed in adults with hematologic malignancies such as leukemia, lymphoma, multiple myeloma, aplastic anemia, and myelodysplastic syndromes, as well as other immunosuppressive causes such as AIDS, therapy for solid tumors, and organ transplant. The true incidence of NE is unknown. One systematic review published in 2005 suggested a pooled incidence of 5.6% in hospitalized adults with hematological malignancies, chemotherapy for solid tumors, and aplastic anemia. The repoed moality also varies with rates as high as 50%. NE was repoed initially after the use of taxane drugs, but more recently an increasing number of chemotherapeutic drugs have been implicated. Other drugs linked to NE include cytosine arabinoside, gemcitabine, vincristine, doxorubicin, gemcitabine, cyclophosphamide, 5-fluorouracil, leuvocorin, and daunorubicin. Immunosuppressive therapy for organ transplant, antibiotics, and sulfasalazine for the treatment of rheumatoid ahritis have also been considered causes of NE. PATHOGENESIS The exact pathogenesis of NE is not completely understood. The main elements in disease onset appear to be intestinal mucosal injury together with neutropenia and the immunocompromised state of the afflicted patients. These initial conditions lead to intestinal edema, engorged vessels, and a disrupted mucosal surface, which becomes more vulnerable to bacterial intramural invasion. Chemotherapeutic agents can cause direct mucosal injury (mucositis) or can predispose to distension and necrosis, thereby altering intestinal motility. Cytosine arabinoside (cytarabine) is a chemotherapeutic agent used to treat leukemia and lymphoma that is paicularly associated with the development of NE. Intestinal leukemic infiltration is another potential factor in the pathogenesis of NE, which may explain the presence of acute myelogenous leukemia presenting as NE before the onset of chemotherapy regimens Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 836 | Medicine | G.I.T | A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis -
A. Appendicitis
B. Leukemic colitis
C. Perforation peritonitis
D. Neutropenic colitis
| Neutropenic colitis |
794a1fd0-fe56-4a3f-a073-3e6fd4dd6d19 | Vit A is teratogenic and can cause craniofacial CVS and CNS defects. | Pathology | null | Which of the following cause Teratogenecity -
A. Vit. C
B. Vit. E
C. Vit. A
D. Vit. D
| Vit. A |
908150d9-4ed1-4215-8bdc-2e81c48bcde6 | HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:254 The arch of aoa is derived from the ventral pa of the aoic sac ,its left horn,and the left fouh arch aery | Anatomy | General anatomy | Double arch aoa arises from?
A. Right 6th aoic arch
B. Left 6th aoic arch
C. Right 4th aoic arch
D. Left 4th aoic arch
| Left 4th aoic arch |
213a194b-acfe-4017-8061-a614a936f17b | Long standing lymphedema leading to angiosarcoma is known as Stewart treves syndrome. | Surgery | null | 62 year old patient underwent radical mastectomy 10 years back. She has long standing lymphedema. Now the biopsy shows angiosarcoma. This is known as
A. Stewart treves syndrome
B. Monodors disease
C. Zuskas disease
D. Tietz syndrome
| Stewart treves syndrome |
631c2b3b-e6ac-4911-8400-d75df786f8d7 | Ans: A (4 months) Ref: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edition. Pg 27. Explanation: (See following table) Fine motor milestones MilestoneAverage age of attainment (in months)Developmental implicationsGrasps rattle3.5Object useReaches for objects4Visuomotor coordinationPalmar grasp gone4Voluntary releaseTransfers object hand to hand5.5Comparison of objectsThumb-finger grasp8Able to explore small objectsTurns pages of book12Increasing autonomy during book timeScribbles13Visuomotor coordinationBuilds tower of 2 cubes15Uses objects in combinationBuilds tower of 6 cubes22Requires visual, gross, and fine motor coordination | Pediatrics | Developmental-Behavioral Screening and Surveillance | Children can reach for objects by:
A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 10 months
| 4 months |
0c9a87f9-7c0f-4c00-9142-780ff2519e02 | Invasion and metastasis are complex processes involving multiple discrete steps; they begin with local tissue invasion, followed byinfiltration of nearby blood and lymphatic vessels by cancer cells.Malignant cells are eventually transpoed through haematogenousand lymphatic spread to distant sites within the body, where theyform micrometastases that will eventually grow into macroscopicmetastatic lesions Cadherin-1 (CDH1) is a calcium-dependent cell-cell adhesionglycoprotein that facilitates assembly of organised cell sheets intissues, and increased expression is recognised as an antagonistof invasion and metastasis. In situ tumours usually retain CDH1production, whereas loss of CDH1 production due to down-regulation or occasional mutational inactivation of CDH1 hasbeen observed in human cancers, suppoing the theory thatCDH1 plays a key role in suppression of invasion and metastasis.Cross-talk between cancer cells and cells of the surroundingstromal tissue is involved in the acquired capability for invasivegrowth and metastasis. Mesenchymal stem cells in tumourstroma have been found to secrete CCL5, a protein chemokinethat helps recruit leucocytes into inflammatory sites. With thehelp of paicular T-cell-derived cytokines (interleukin (IL)-2and interferon-gamma (IFN-g)), CCL5 induces proliferation andactivation of natural killer cells and then acts reciprocally oncancer cells to stimulate invasive behaviour. Macrophages atthe tumour periphery can foster local invasion by supplyingmatrix-degrading enzymes such as metalloproteinases andcysteine cathepsin proteases.The lungs, liver, brain, and bones are the most common metastasis locations from solid tumors. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 580 | Medicine | Oncology | Which is the most common site of metastatic disease-
A. Lung
B. bone
C. Liver
D. Brain
| Liver |
ee7b2ef8-d20d-41f6-86b5-775f30c80e56 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Onchocerca(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1421)* Onchocerciasis is also known as River blindness Q and fly involved is Simulium fly. | Microbiology | Parasitology | River blindness is caused by:
A. Onchocerca
B. Loa Loa
C. Ascaris
D. B. malayi
| Onchocerca |
e00f0d7c-44fa-4fa3-99a3-889c1a0ef479 | Glutamate is the chief excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS. | Physiology | null | Excitatory Neurotransmitter in CNS-
A. Acetyl choline
B. Glycine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate
| Glutamate |
e1c02318-10c2-4421-892c-246365b6a0a0 | Ans. (A) Imipramine(Ref: CMDT 2010/966)Imipramine is efficacious however, Desmopressin is the first choice drug for nocturnal enuresis. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Antidepressant drug that can be used in nocturnal enuresis is?
A. Imipramine
B. Fluvoxamine
C. Phenelzine
D. Bupropion
| Imipramine |
8377884d-3b9b-494c-bf23-ccfa4ddefbc9 | The priority nursing action for a patient arriving at the ED in distress is always assessment of vital signs. This indicates the extent of physical compromise and provides a baseline by which to plan further assessment and treatment. A thorough medical history, including onset of symptoms, will be necessary and it is likely that an electrocardiogram will be performed as well, but these are not the first priority. Similarly, chest exam with auscultation may offer useful information after vital signs are assessed. | Pathology | null | A patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of midsternal chest pain. Which of the following nursing action should take priority?
A. A complete history with emphasis on preceding events.
B. An electrocardiogram
C. Careful assessment of vital signs
D. Chest exam with auscultation
| Careful assessment of vital signs |
453a8ca3-e0b7-4306-bafd-fefd9d1a2786 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloroquine * Chloroquine is a 1st line anti malarial drug, which is an erythrocytic schizonticide.* However, its prolonged use of high doses (as in DLE, rheumatoid arthritis) may cause loss of vision due to retinal damage in the form of retinal pigmentation.* Chloroquine may also cause corneal deposits and affect vision and are reversible on discontinuation.* Loss of hearing, rashes, photoallergy, myopathy, graying of hair may occur. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Which of the following causes retinal pigmentation?
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Atovaquone
| Chloroquine |
9ae79b32-e5e4-44a4-b488-f437608f5853 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Genital swelling Embryogical structureFate in femaleFate in maleGenital ridgeOvaryTestisGenital swellingLabia majoraScrotumGenital foldLabia minoraVentral aspect of penis penile urethraGenital tubercleClitorisGians penis | Anatomy | Urogenital System | Development of labia majora is from -
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Mullerian duct
C. Genital ridge
D. Genital swelling
| Genital swelling |
7d18a35f-5acf-419e-b547-d02834cb1636 | Ans. D: Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450Cyanide poisoning occurs when a living organism is exposed to a compound that produces cyanide ions (CN-) when dissolved in water. Common poisonous cyanide compounds include hydrogen cyanide gas and the crystalline solids potassium cyanide and sodium cyanide.The cyanide ion halts cellular respiration by inhibiting an enzyme in mitochondria called cytochrome c oxidase. | Forensic Medicine | null | Mechanism of action of cyanide poisoning:September 2010
A. Inhibits protein breakdown
B. Inhibits DNA synthesis
C. Inhibits protein syntheisi
D. Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450
| Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450 |
0400871c-d648-45f2-9b71-9d7bf7d65a88 | The use of SSRIs can increase suicidal ideations. This side effect is more common in children and adolescents and hence these medications should be used cautiously in that age group. | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | SSRIs should be carefully used in the young for the management of depression due to increase in:
A. Nihilism ideation
B. Guilt ideation
C. Suicidal ideation
D. Envious ideation
| Suicidal ideation |
664f1688-1068-480d-992b-441e8ad0ce8f | Total body water is divided between 2 main compaments: intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF). In the fetus and newborn, the ECF volume is larger than the ICF volume. The normal postnatal diuresis causes an immediate decrease in the ECF volume. This is followed by continued expansion of the ICF volume, which results from cellular growth. By 1year of age, the ratio of the ICF volume to the ECF volume approaches adult levels.Reference: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 55; Electrolyte and Acid-Base Disorders | Pediatrics | Fluid and electrolytes | The ratio of ICF volume to Extracellular fluid volume reaches adult values at the age of
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
| 1 year |
4f6a9210-2083-430a-b6d4-fa906163de5c | Emporiatrics is the term coined to describe the science of the health of travellers. Health maintenance recommendations are based not only on the traveler's destination but also on assessment of risk, which is determined by such variables as health status, specific itinerary, purpose of travel, season, and lifestyle during travel. Ref: Park's Textbook of Social and Preventive Medicine, 19th edition, Page 107. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Emporiatrics deals with the health of the following group of people:
A. Farmers
B. Travellers
C. Industrial workers
D. Mine workers
| Travellers |
24386115-4240-47b4-9bfa-0a20fe995d59 | Hairy cell leukaemia is seen in patients susceptibility to infections with mycobacterium avium intracellulare. Nontuberculous mycobacteria, also known as environmental mycobacteria, atypical mycobacteria and mycobacteria other than tuberculosis, are mycobacteria which do not cause tuberculosis or leprosy. NTM do cause pulmonary diseases that resemble tuberculosis Reference: textbook of Pathology 6th edition Author Harsha Mohan page number 378. | Pathology | Haematology | Compared to the other leukemias, hairy cell leukemia is associated with which of the following infections -
A. Parvovirus D19
B. Mycoplasma
C. HTLV2
D. Salmonella
| HTLV2 |
14336eb5-d63b-4793-9617-482663106db6 | Excess consumption of raw eggs, which contains a protein 'avidin' - a biotin binding protein leads to biotin deficiency When cooked, avidin is paially denatured and its binding to biotin is reduced. So cooked egg whites are safe to consume. | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals | Excess of avidin causes deficiency of:
A. Folate
B. Choline
C. Vitamin B12
D. Biotin
| Biotin |
8d574689-dec7-4d9e-932e-ed80f6edb547 | Treatment 1. Optical aniseikonia may be corrected by aniseikonic glasses, contact lenses or intraocular lenses depending upon the situation. 2. For retinal aniseikonia treat the cause. 3. Coical aniseikonia is very difficult to treat. Image : Aniseikonia Reference : A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY,Edition 4,Page-39 | Ophthalmology | Optics and refraction | Treatment of choice for Aniseikonia
A. Ohoptic exercise
B. Spectacles
C. Surgery
D. Contact lens
| Contact lens |
5657beed-dfea-441f-b062-b75fc1de5be5 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stapedial artery Pharyngeal ArchMuscular ContributionSkeletal ContributionsNerveArteryCorresponding Pouch Structures1st (mandibular arch)Muscles of mastication, Anterior belly of the digastric,Mylohyoid,Tensor tympani.Tensor veli palatiniMaxilla, mandible (only as a model for mandible not actual formation of mandible). Incus andMalleus, Meckel's cartilage, Ant. Ligament of malleus,SphenomandibularligamentTrigeminal nerve (V2 and V3)Maxillary artery,External carotid arteryEustachian tube,middleear, mastoid antrum,and inner layer ofthe tympanicmembrane.2nd (hyoid archMuscles of facialexpression,Buccinator,Pfatysma,Stapedius,Stylohoid,Posterior belly of the digastricStapes, Styloid process hyoid (lesser horn and upper part of body),Reichert's cartilage.Stylohyoid ligamentFacial nerve (VII)StapedialArterymiddle ear, palatine tonsils3rdStylopharyngeusHyoid (greater horn and lower part of body), thymusGlossophar- yngeal nerve (IX)Common carotid'Internal carotidInferior parathyroid.Thymus4th Cricothyroid muscle, all intrinsic muscles of soft palate incluidng levator veli palatini Thyroid cartilage, epiglottic cartilage Vagus nerve (X)Superior laryngeal nerve Right 4th aortic arch subclavian artery Left 4th aortic arch: aortic arch Superior parathyroid, uitimobranchial body (which forms the Para follicular C-Cells of thyroid gland).6thAll intrinsic muscles of larynx except the cricothyroid muscleCricoid cartilage, arytenoid cartilages, comiculate cartilageVagus nerve (X)RecurrentlaryngealnerveRight aortic arch: pulmonary artery Left 6th aortic arch:Pulmonary artery and ductus arteriosusRudimentary structure, becomes part of the fourth pouch contributing to thyroidC-cells. | Anatomy | Pharyngeal Arches | Artery of 2nIi pharyngeal arch is -
A. Maxillaiy artery
B. Stapedial artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Commoncarotid artery
| Stapedial artery |
0658ba44-7b65-4e71-b439-95653608ddd2 | Refer Goodman and Gilman 12e 1777 Looking at the option one by one diabetic third nerve palsy: third Nerve Palsy due to any reason will result in mydriasis( because oculomotor people milk supplies constrictor pupillae). As only one nerve is destroyed and but the receptors remain intact , so it will respond to 1% pilocarpine anthers miosis will occur adie's tunic pupil: it manifests as the denervation super sensitivity. Normal people respond to 1% pilocarpine but does not contract with highly diluted solution may also result in constriction Uncal herniation : IT results in pressure on 3rd cranial nerve and presents as dilated pupil but it will respond to pilocarpine as the receptors are intact | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | What is the probable diagnosis in a patient with a dilated pupil not responsive to 1% pilocarpine
A. Diabetic third nerve palsy
B. Ade's pupil
C. Uncal Herniation
D. Pharmacological block
| Pharmacological block |
0cbf3647-8251-4626-98dd-9989489f2270 | Ans. is 'd' i .e., Sessile Adenomatous poly p o Adenomatous polyps have special clinical significance because only adenomatous polyps are clearly premalignant, and only a minority of these adenomatous lesions ever develop into a cancero Clinically, the probability of an adenomatous polyp becoming a cancer depends on three factors1. Gross appearance of the lesion - on gross appearance polyps are of two typesa. Pedunculated (stalked)b. Sessile (flat based)Cancer develops more frequently in sessile polyps.2. Histologically - Histologically polyps are of 3 typesa. Tubularb. Villous (papillary)c. Tubulovillouso Out of these histological types villous adenomas which are usually sessile become malignant more than 3 times as often as tubular adenomas.3. Size of the polyp -a. Polyp < 1.5 cm ---- Negligible malignant potentialb. Polyp 1.5-2.5 cm ---- Intermediate malignant potentialc. Polyps > 2.5 cm ---- Substantial malignant potential | Surgery | Colon and Rectum - Polyps and Carcinoma | Colonic polyp with most malignant potential is -
A. Juvenile polyp
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Pedunculated Adenomatous polyp
D. Sessile Adenomatous polyp
| Sessile Adenomatous polyp |
9efe2795-0071-4b09-a6f7-24f2d397c3d4 | Metastasis is a complex series of steps in which cancer cells leave the original tumor site and migrate to other pas of the body the bloodstream or the lymphatic system. One of the critical events required for metastasis is the growth of a new network of blood vessels, called tumor angiogenesis. | Pathology | General Concepts | Which of the following is essential for tumor metastasis?
A. Angiogenesis
B. Tumorogenesis
C. Apoptosis
D. Inhibition of tyrosine kinase activity
| Angiogenesis |
08d1ac58-a538-43ed-afd6-7965cfd6b103 | The most common histological picture of Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is the presence of crescents in most of glomeruli. Crescents are formed by proliferation of parietal cells and by migration of monocytes and macrophages in the Bowman's space. The prognosis can be roughly related to the number of crescents. Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 951 | Pathology | null | Which of the following glomerular disease is associated with Crescent formation?
A. Minimal change disease
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
C. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Rapidly non progressive glomerulonephritis
| Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis |
4a365a2f-fd9f-421c-bce4-ffcda2196b0c | Weil- Felix reaction for the diagnosis of typhus fever. - The Agglutination reaction is when a paiculate antigen is mixed with its antibody in the presence of electrolytes at a suitable temperature and pH, the paicles are clumped or agglutinated. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 108,109 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | Agglutination test is -
A. ABO incompatibility
B. VDRL
C. Weil-felix test
D. FTA-ABS
| Weil-felix test |
f96036bf-c381-4797-bf2e-68aebe5329d1 | Ans. a (Middle meningeal artery). (Ref: B & L, Surgery, 25th/ 303).Extradural haematoma (EDH)# It is a neurosurgical emergency. An EDH is nearly always associated with a skull fracture and is more common in young male patients. The skull fracture is asso- ciated with tearing of a meningeal artery and a haematoma accumulates in the space between bone and dura. The most common site is temporal, as the pterion is not only the thinnest part of the skull but also overlies the largest meningeal artery - the middle meningeal.# An EDH may also occur in other regions such as frontal as well as in the posterior fossa. They are not always arte- rial: disruption of a major dural venous sinus can result in an EDH. The force required to sustain a skull fracture can be surprisingly small - a fall from standing or a single blow to the head.# The classical presentation of an EDH, occurring in less than one-third of cases, is initial injury followed by a lucid interval when the patient complains of a headache but is fully alert and orientated with no focal deficit. After minutes or hours a rapid deterioration occurs, with contralateral hemiparesis, reduced conscious level and ipsilateral pupillary dilatation as a result of brain compression and herniation.FEATUREEDH (EXTRADURAL HEMATOMA)SDH (SUBDURAL HEMATOMA)Incidence1-4%10-20%EtiologyLacerated middle meningeal artery/ dural sinus in 70 to 85% cases.Stretching, tearing of bridging cortical veins.AgeAnyOlder peoplefractureSeen in 85-95% cases-LocationBetween skull & dura.95% supratentorialCrosses dural attachments but not sutures.Between dura & arachnoid95% supratentorialCrosses suture but not dural attachmentBilateral5%15%CT- Biconvex (lentiform shape)- 2/3 hyperdense (- 1/3 mixed density)- Displace greywhite interfacea) Acute SDH: Crescentic & hyperdenseb) Subacute SDH: May be nearly isodense with cortex neo-membrane, underlying vessels may enhance.c) Chronic SDH: Hypodense with enhancing membrane. About 1-2% of very old SDH calcify | Surgery | Nervous System | Which of the following vessels is involved in extradural haematoma?
A. Middle meningeal artery
B. Venous sinuses
C. Bridging veins
D. Middle cerebral artery
| Middle meningeal artery |
ae933644-a617-4c27-8557-60950d1833d5 | option-1- Life Cycle of Plasmodium: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species. Definitive host: Female Anopheles mosquitoes Intermediate host: Man. option- 2-Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and doesn't have secondary host. option-3- In Filariasis (W. bancrofti): man is definitive host. option-4- Borrelia causes Relapsing fever and there is no secondary host. | Microbiology | Parasitology Pa 1 (Protozoology) | Man is intermediate host for -
A. Malaria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Filariasis
D. Relapsing fever
| Malaria |
662e8eea-1113-4590-a083-a6d028abfee1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Octreotide Among the given options, only octeride is used (otherwise vasopressine analogue terlipressine is the DOC). Has been explained in previous sessions. | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is?
A. Ethanolamine oleate
B. Octreotide
C. Propanolol
D. Phytonadione
| Octreotide |
0f5ee3e7-6f02-41ad-ae87-fb5b81264589 | Oligoclonal bands (OCBs) are bands of immunoglobulins that are seen when a patient's blood serum, or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is analyzed. They are used in the diagnosis of various neurological and blood diseases, especially in multiple sclerosis. The blood serum can be gained from a clotted blood sample. Ref Davidson 23rd edtion pg 450 | Medicine | C.V.S | Two or more oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid are most often positive in-
A. Acute bacterial meningitis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Subarachnoid harmorrhage
D. Polyneuropathy
| Multiple sclerosis |
c31f2b60-b390-4878-8c5d-52f6d8ae2534 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7yrs o Section 82 I.P.C.: Criminal responsibility is any act which is done by a child under seven years of age is not an offence.Section of IPCRelated with82A child under the age of seven is incapable of committing an offence. This is so because action alobe does not amount to guilt unless if is accompanied by a guilty mind. And, a child of that tender age cannot have a guilty mind or criminal intention with which the act is done. This presumption, however, is only confined to offenses under the IPC but not to other Acts, e.g., the Railway Act.83A child above seven and under twelve years of age is presumed to be capable of committing an offence it he has obtained sufficient maturity to understand and judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion. The law presumes such maturity' in a child of that age unless the contrary is proved by the defence.89A child under 12 years of age cannot give valid consent to suffer any harm which can occur from an act done in good faith and for its benefit, e.g., a consent for an operation. Only, a guardian can give such consent.87A person under 12 years of age cannot give valid consent, whether express or implied, to suffer any harm which may result from an act no intended or not known to cause death or grievous hurt e.g. consent for a wrestling contest.84Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is uncapable of knowing the nature of act (i.e. it is wrong or contrary to law).85,86Drunkness and criminal responsibilityQ | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | IPC 82 states that: child cannot be punished under what age -
A. 5yrs
B. 8yrs
C. 7yrs
D. lOyrs
| 7yrs |
74fc2f1d-6b36-435d-a477-59f4377e89ff | Ans is 'a' i.e. Benzodiazepines Treatment of generalized anxiety disorderA Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice. Drugs in this group are diazepam, Lorazepam, Alprazolam, Oxazepam, chlordiazepoxide.B. Other drugs used are buspirone; TCA (amptriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine, desipramine); SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Sertaline, Paroxetine, Citalopram); SNRIs (Venalafaxine), p-blockers.C. Anticonvulsants with GABAergic properties may also be effective against anxiety, e.g., Gabapentin, Oxcarbazepine, Tiagabine, pregabalin, and Valproate (divalporex). | Psychiatry | Anxiety & Stress | Treatment of choice for generalized anxiety disorder is?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Neuroleptics
C. Beta blockers
D. Barbiturates
| Benzodiazepines |
93914da7-d12b-42e7-a6d3-1843db7333b4 | Methohexital is an ultra-sho-acting barbiturate that provides sedation and amnesia for sho, invasive procedures. Barbiturate administration may precipitate bronchospasm in patients with moderate to severe reactive airway disease, thus limiting its use in those patients. There is some evidence that ketamine may have a mild, transient bronchodilatory effect. Midazolam, etomidate, and propofol have no clinically significant effect on bronchial smooth muscle tone. Of the listed agents, only ketamine provides analgesia in addition to sedation. | Surgery | null | Which of the following agents may precipitate bronchospasm in patients with reactive airway disease?
A. Midazolam
B. Etomidate
C. Methohexital
D. Propofol
| Methohexital |
7a5a29eb-3cba-4e5f-b5a2-6d6f37699bc8 | Positive beta HCG and absent gestational sac | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | "Chemical pregnancy" means :
A. Negative beta HCG and absent gestational sac
B. Positive beta HCG and present gestational sac
C. Positive beta HCG and absent gestational sac
D. Negative beta HCG and created sac margin
| Positive beta HCG and absent gestational sac |
870038bf-a1ee-4634-ad67-18ff128d3284 | Yellow color bags are used for disposal of: BMW Cat 1: Human anatomical wastes BMW Cat 2: Animal wastes BMW Cat 3: Microbiological and biotechnology waste BMW Cat 6: Soiled waste Container/bags are not required for disposal of BMW Cat 8: Liquid waste BMW Cat 10: Chemical waste BMW Cat 3: (if disinfected locally): Microbiological and biotechnology waste Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 827 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health | Which of the following Biomedical wastes cannot be disposed off in yellow bags?
A. Reactive chemical wastes
B. Radiographic wastes
C. PVC
D. Human anatomical wastes
| Reactive chemical wastes |
165851d6-7384-4ba6-b3de-0b316916f412 | Variables in Child-Turcotte-Pugh scoring system Serum albumin Bilirubin Prothrombin time Ascites Encephalopathy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1436 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Child criteria doesnt include
A. Encephalopathy
B. ALT
C. Ascites
D. Albumin
| ALT |
e70f2664-b75a-4182-bf81-5015033a6cd1 | Flow cytometry is an extremely useful investigational tool that allows simultaneous multiparametric analysis of the physical characteristics defining WBC types using the principles of light scattering, excitation, and fluorochrome emission. As such, it can allow for the rapid identification and quantification of populations of WBC in any given patient sample based on the characteristic immunophenotype of the population subset.Also know:Flow cytometry can be a vital investigational tool for the hospitalist. It can be used in the initial workup of a new leukocytosis to identify a malignant versus a benign reactive cause. Flow cytometry also has direct uses in nonmalignant hematologic conditions, such as in the determination of CD4/CD8 count ratios in HIV-associated lymphocytopenia or in the diagnosis of rarer conditions such as paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria and Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Ref: Leonard B.J., Leber B. (2012). Chapter 174. Disorders of the White Cell. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine. | Pathology | null | Which of the following will be detected in flow cytometry?
A. Polycythemia
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Leukocytosis
D. Neutrophilia
| Leukocytosis |
c229d52d-be85-428a-832c-bb708bb81c85 | (Battle sign) (595-Baily & Love 24th) (302-B &L 25th)Base of Skull Fractures* Anterior fossa fracture - May open into the frontal or ethmoid air sinuses or run across the cribriform plate.* Presents with sub conjunctival hematoma, anosmia, epistaxis, nasal tip anaesthesia, CSF-rhinorrhea and occasionally carotico-cavernous fistua.* Periorbital haematoma or "raccoon eye" indicate subgaleal haemorrhage.* Middle fossa fracture involving petrous temporal bone presents with CSF otorrhoea, haemotympanum, occicular disruption, Battle sign or VII and VIII cranial nerve palsiesBattle sign - bruising behind the ear appearing 36 hours after a head injury with a petrous temporal base of skull fracture | Surgery | Trauma | Base of the skull fracture presents with involvement of the petrous temporal bone, which of the following important sign:
A. Subconjunctive haematoma
B. CSF rhinorrhoea
C. Raccon eyes
D. Battle sign
| Battle sign |
3aed32fa-0fa5-440f-9afb-35fb573e937e | Functions of estrogen Estrogen changes the vaginal epithelium from cuboidal to stratified type,which is more resistant to trauma and infection Marked proliferation of endometrial stroma and greatly increases the development of the endometrial glands - Menstruation Development of the stromal tissue of breast, growth of an extensive ductile system and deposition of fat Increase in osteoblastic activity and growth rate becomes rapid for several years Estrogens do not greatly affect hair distribution and growth. However hair develops in the pubic region and axilla after pubey. Androgens produced by the adrenal glands are responsible for this TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY,GUYTON,Pg no:905,906,8th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Congenital malformations | Which of the following pubeal events in girls is not estrogen dependant
A. Menstruation
B. Vaginal cornification
C. Height spu
D. Hair growth
| Hair growth |
02cc6c53-430f-4db9-93b2-b248cb047b70 | The relationship of the length of the cervix and that of the body of uterus varies with age. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Uterine-cervix ratio up to 10 years of age:
A. 3:02
B. 2:01
C. 3:01
D. 1:02
| 1:02 |
39abce09-81b3-4c41-bb22-021947a4ecec | Thromboxane A2, prostacyclin, and prostaglandins are formed by the cyclooxygenase pathway whereas leukotrienes are formed by the lipooxygenase pathway.Ref: Textbook of medical physiology by N Geetha, 2nd edition, page no. 103 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Which of the following is produced in the lipoxygenase pathway?
A. Thromboxane
B. Leukotrienes
C. Prostaglandin
D. Prostacyclin
| Leukotrienes |
b191de22-3c90-42ea-96c9-84cdc5931a9c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Factor VIII Hemophila A :? Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of factor VIII. Hemophilia A is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Factor VIII is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X. Clinical manifestations are due to defect in coagulation system :- Large post traumatic ecchymoses or hematoma. Prolonged bleeding after a laceration or any form of surgical procedure. Bleeding into weight bearing joints. Petechiae are characteristically absent (in contrast to platelet dysfunction where bleeding occur from small vessels of skin and mucous membrane, e.g., petechiae). Laboratory findings :- T PTT Normal PT Normal BT Normal platelet counts Remember Hemophilia B (christmas disease) is due to deficiency of factor IX. Hemophilia B has clinical features and laboratory findings similar to hemophilia A. | Pathology | null | Hemophia A due to deficiency of ?
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor X
D. Factor XI
| Factor VIII |
c572e395-2d55-4042-b4e2-fd4697d5d589 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 0.6 o Overall V/Q ratio of lung-0.8o V/Q ratio at apex-3.0 (maximum)o V/Q ratio at base-0.6 (Least) | Physiology | Mechanics of Respiration | V/Q ratio at the base of lung-
A. 1
B. 3
C. 0.6
D. 1.8
| 0.6 |
16455382-2e31-4a2e-a0dc-6f3e602e394c | Answer is D (Norepinephrine) The patient in question is presenting with features of septic shock. Dopamine is the initial recommended vasopressor agent to maintain blood pressure but is not provided amongst the options. Patients who remain hypotensive despite dopamine should he adminstered norepinephrine and hence norepinephrine is the single best answer of choice here. Harrison 14th / 221 Treatment of septic shock Iffluid therapy alone fails to restore adequate aerial pressure and organ perfusion , therapy with vaso pressor agent should be intitiated. For the persistantly hypotensive patient dopamine frequently raises aerial pressure and maintains or enhances blood flow to the renal and splanchnic circulation. Patients who remain hypotensive despite dopamine require nor epinephrine, a more potent vasopressor. Once hypotension, has been corrected to optimize oxygen delivery to tissues, raising a low cardiac index with dobutamine can be useful - Harrisons 16th / 605 : Treatment of septic shock In the presence of sepsis, augmentation of cardiac output may require inotropic suppo with dopamine, nore pinephrine or vaso pressin in the presence of hypotension or with dobutamine if aerial pressure is normal | Medicine | null | A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg. Drug that should be used to maintain BP is:
A. Adrenaline
B. Ephedrine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Nor epinephrine
| Nor epinephrine |
b39a2732-b939-4b98-93f5-a4c3b972718e | Gangliosides are the complex glycosphingolipids derived from glucosylceramide that contain in addition one or more molecules of sialic acid. Neuraminic acid is the principal sialic acid found in human tissues. Gangliosides are present in nervous tissue in high concentration.They help in cell-cell recognition and communication and as receptors for hormones and bacterial toxins. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30 th edition | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | To be defined as a ganglioside,a lipid substance isolated from nervous tissue must contain
A. NANA,hexose,fatty acid,glycerol
B. NANA,hexose,fatty acid,phosphorycholine
C. NANA,sphingosine,ethanolamine
D. NANA,hexose,sphingosine,long chain fatty acid,
| NANA,hexose,sphingosine,long chain fatty acid, |
20d9b269-5f3e-46ed-92e8-bdceede5d0d4 | Ans. (b) vomitingRef Bailey and Love 27th edition, Page 1073* Vomiting against closed Glottis leads to Boerhaave syndrome.* Vomiting against closed LES leads to Mallory Weiss tear. | Surgery | Oesophagus | Boerhaave syndrome is due to:
A. Burns
B. Vomiting
C. Stress
D. Acid ingestion
| Vomiting |
a3cac66c-18c3-417e-be03-92053685efcb | Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAS positive macrophages and rod shaped bacilli in lamina propriaThe hallmark of Whipple's disease is a small intestinal mucosa laden with distended macrophages in the lamina propria- the macrophages contain periodic acid-schiff (PAS) positive granules and rod shaped bacilli by electron microscopy.Three forms of Malabsorption Syndromes are often asked and the basic understanding of these is able to exclude a large number of questions. | Pathology | null | Characteristic histopathology finding in Whipples disease is ?
A. PAS positive macrophages and rod shaped bacilli in lamina propria
B. Shoened thickened villi with increased crypt depth
C. Blunting and flattening of mucosal surface and absent villi
D. Mononuclear infiltration at base of crypts
| PAS positive macrophages and rod shaped bacilli in lamina propria |
572d63de-564a-495e-9236-b18cd5d7d438 | In Trypanosoma cruzi infection& dermatomyositis uniform dilatation of oesophagus is seen Esophageal dilatation is a therapeutic endoscopic procedure that enlarges the lumen of the esophagus. ...Complications of esophageal dilatation include the following: Odynophagia, or painful swallowing. Hematemesis, or bloody vomit. Esophageal perforation. Mediastinitis. | Pathology | G.I.T | In which of the following conditions uniform dilation of esophagus is seen
A. Scleroderma
B. Trypanosoma cruzi infection
C. Dermatomysitis
D. BD
| BD |
94cf51ff-edd8-40d2-94ef-5f477abbf0aa | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vit C deficiencyPseudoparalysis o A voluntary restriction of motion because of pain, incordination or other cause, but not due to actual muscular paralysis.Causes of pseudoparalysisScurvy (vitamin C deficiency) o OsteomyelitisSeptic (ahritis) o Congenital syphilis | Pediatrics | null | Pseudoparalysis in an infant is suggestive of ?
A. Acute Rheumatic fever
B. Vitamin B6 deficiency
C. Vitamin E deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency
| Vitamin C deficiency |
6b6f4c68-54e2-4ddc-9957-d9375d57a913 | Recurrent severe infection is an indication for clinical evaluation of immune status. Live vaccines, including BCG attenuated from M. tuberculosis, should not be used in the evaluation of a patient's immune competence because patients with severe immunodeficiencies may develop an overwhelming infection (disseminated disease) from the vaccine. For the same reason, oral (Sabin) polio vaccine is not advisable for use in such persons. The other vaccines listed are acellular and should be safe to use in this clinical scenario described. | Microbiology | Immunology | A young girl has had repeated infections with Candida albicans and respiratory viruses since she was 3 months old. As part of the clinical evaluation of her immune status, her responses to routine immunization procedures should be tested. In this evaluation, the use of which of the following vaccines is contraindicated?
A. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG)
B. Bordetella pertussis vaccine
C. Diphtheria toxoid
D. Inactivated polio
| Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) |
ba11861d-197d-4932-b4c7-aa3de8adf917 | The core principles of minimal access surgery (independent of procedure or device) can be summarized by the acronym I-VITROS: * Insufflate/create space - to allow surgery to take place in the minimal access setting * Visualise - the tissues, anatomical landmarks and the environment for the surgery to take place * Identify - the specific structures for surgery * Triangulate - surgical tools (such as po placement) to optimise the efficiency of their action, and ergonomics by minimising overlap and clashing of instruments * Retract - and manipulate local tissues to improve access and gain entry into the correct tissue planes * Operate - incise, suture, anastomose, fuse * Seal/haemostasis. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 105 | Surgery | Urology | Advantage of Minimal access surgery
A. Heat loss
B. Better Hemostasis control
C. Improved vision
D. In wound pain
| Improved vision |
60a6d914-4a54-4e55-bb46-c9a2a50df228 | In primary systemic amyloidosis amyloid deposition occurs in the wall of the blood vessels, this leads to an increase in skin fragility. As a result, petechiae and purpura develop in clinically normal skin as well as in lesional skin following minor trauma. Therefore the skin lesions in case of primary systemic amyloidosis are called pinch purpura. These lesions are pink in colour and translucent.
Common locations are
Face (especially the periorbital and perioral regions)
Flexural areas. | Dental | null | Pinch purpura is diagnostic of –
A. Systemic primary amyloidosis
B. Secondary systemic amyloidosis
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Drug induced purpura
| Systemic primary amyloidosis |
728321d1-4523-461b-9008-815a31d9b9a4 | Lantanoprost is prastoglandin in nature and decrease the intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humour. It is very good adjunctive therapy along with betablockers, dorzolamide and pilocarpine. Ref: A.K KHURANA (2005), Chapter 9, "Glaucoma", In the book, "Opthalmology", 3rd Edition, Newdelhi, Page 229 ; KDT 5th Edition, Page 88 | Ophthalmology | null | The mode of action of Lanatoprost in glaucoma:
A. Increasing trabecular outflow
B. Releasing pupillary block
C. Decreasing aqueous humour formation
D. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
| Increasing uveoscleral outflow |
b4de3125-ce37-4e6e-84fa-faf1f81e56d8 | Gelle's test: It is also a test of bone conduction and examines the effect of increased air pressure in ear canal on the hearing. Normally, when air pressure is increased in the ear canal by Siegel's speculum, it pushes the tympanic membrane and ossicles inwards, raises the intralabyrinthine pressure and causes immobility of basilar membrane and decreased hearing, but no change in hearing is observed when ossicular chain is fixed or disconnected. Gelle's test is performed by placing a vibrating fork on the mastoid while changes in air pressure in the ear canal are brought about by Siegel's speculum. Gelle's test is positive in nor- mal persons and in those with sensorineural hearing loss. It is negative when ossicular chain is fixed or disconnected. It was a popular test to find out stapes fixation in otosclerosis but has now been superceded by tympanometry. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:- 22,23 | ENT | Ear | Gelle&;s test is done in
A. Otosclerosis
B. Serous otitis media
C. Traumatic deafness
D. Senile deafness
| Otosclerosis |
11703eb3-90d7-4327-b26a-7edd8f2bf859 | All four can cause gangrene (Myocardial infarction can cause gangrene by thromboembolism) Lets see, each option one by one. Raynauds disease Is ds of young women* (F:M ratio is 5:1) commonly the upper limbs* are affected specially the fingers (the thumb is generally escaped) The disease is characterized by Raynauds phenomenon* which is a series of attacks of Local syncope - digits become cold and white* Local asphyxia - digits turn blue with burning sensation* Local recovery -digits regain normal colour* Pulses remain unaffected* as this is the disease which affects aerioles With the help of points (a) and (b) Raynauds ds can be ruled out. Atherosclerosis (Senile gangrene) Seen in elderly people over 50 years of age. Thus because of age factor we can rule out atherosclerosis. Myocardial infaction Age factor again helps in ruling it out as MI is generally seen in elderly, though its incidence is increasing in young, but it cannot be a more common cause than Buerger's disease. Buerger's (Thromboangitis obliterans) Usual victims of this ds are young men below 40 yrs of age, who are smokers (ds is not seen in females and nonsmokers). Buerger ds is the inflammatory reaction in the aerial wall with involvement of the neighbouring vein and nerve, terminating in thrombosis of the aery. It characterstically involves small and medium sized aeries (plantars, tibial and radial aery) Both upper and lower extremities are affected. In lower extremity the ds. occurs beyond the popliteal aery. In upper extremity the ds occurs beyond the brachial a. Early in the course of Buergers ds the superficial veins are involved producing the characterstic migratory, recurrent superficial thrombophlebitis. An imp difference with atheroselerosis is that, atherosclerosis is a disease of large sized aeries, buergers is a ds of small aeries. | Surgery | Vascular surgery | Most common cause of gangrene of foot of a 30 year old farmers who is a chronic smoker
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Raynaud's disease
C. Thromboangiitis obliterans
D. Myocardial infarction
| Thromboangiitis obliterans |
a9bed671-c2a2-4f29-b51f-9b6db5e07b7d | Ans. (a) Lead(Ref: Wintrobe's 12th/pg837)Sideroblastic anemia is seen in:*. Alcoholism*. Lead poisoning*. Drugs (isoniazid, pyrazinamide, chloramphenicol)*. Copper deficiency (zinc ingestion, copper chelation, nutritional, malabsorption)*. Hypothermia | Pathology | Misc. (R.B.C) | Sideroblastic anemia is seen in chronic poisoning of
A. Lead
B. Arsenic
C. Copper
D. Mercury
| Lead |
42072c00-2683-4dca-8ff7-923a31d04778 | Ans. C. SubscapularisSubscapularis muscle is responsible for extremes of internal rotation, which can be tested with belly press and lift off test. | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Shoulder | "Lift off' and "Belly Press" tests are done to examine which of the following rotator cuff muscle?
A. Teres Minor
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Infraspinatus
| Subscapularis |
ad194e80-7012-4d1b-a08d-d0a189bce1b9 | ANSWER: (A) Line diagramREF: Park 20th edition page 747 &748, style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">"Line diagrams are used to show the trend of events with passage of time"PictographA pictograph uses an icon to represent a quantity of data : values in order to decrease the size of the graph. A key must be used to explain the icon.Advantages* Easy to read* Visually appealing* Handles large data sets easily using keyed iconsDisadvantages* Hard to quantify partial icons* Icons must be of consistent size* Best for only 2-6 categories* Very simplisticPie chartA pie chart displays categorical data as a percentage of the whole by using a circle. Each pie section should have a label and percentage. A total data number should be included.Advantages* Visually appealing* Shows percent of total for each categoryDisadvantages* No exact numerical data* Hard to compare 2 data sets*"Other" category can be a problem* Total unknown unless specified* Best for 3 to 7 categories* Use only with discrete dataHistogramA histogram displays discrete or continuous data in ordered columns. Each column represents a group defined by a quantitative variable such as time, inches, temperature, etc.Advantages* Visually strong* Can compare to normal curve* Usually vertical axis is a frequency count of items falling into each categoryDisadvantages* Cannot read exact values because data is grouped into categories* More difficult to compare two data sets* Use only with continuous dataBar graphA bar graph displays discrete data in separate columns. A double bar graph can be used to compare two data sets. Each column represents a group defined by a categorical variableAdvantages* Visually strong* Can easily compare two or three data setsDisadvantages* Graph categories can be reordered to emphasize certain effects* Use only with discrete dataLine graphA line graph plots continuous data as points and then joins them with a line. To show the trend of event with passage of timeAdvantages* Can compare multiple continuous data sets easily* Interim data can be inferred from graph lineDisadvantages* Use only with continuous dataFrequency PolygonA frequency polygon can be made from a line graph by shading in the area beneath the graph. It can be made from a histogram by joining midpoints of each column.Advantages* Visually appealingDisadvantages* Anchors at both ends may imply zero as data points* Use only with continuous data | Social & Preventive Medicine | Data Variables | Best method to show trend of events with passage of time is?
A. Line diagram
B. Bar diagram
C. Histogram
D. Pie chart
| Line diagram |
74b0466b-4ae0-46b4-910c-b46317447499 | Wernicke's disease is a common and preventable disorder due to a deficiency of thiamine. Alcoholics account for most cases, but patients with malnutrition due to hyperemesis, starvation, renal dialysis, cancer, AIDS, or rarely gastric surgery are also at risk. The characteristic clinical triad is that of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and global confusion. However, only one-third of patients with acute Wernicke's disease present with the classic clinical triad. Most patients are profoundly disoriented, indifferent, and inattentive, although rarely they have an agitated delirium related to ethanol withdrawal. Ref: Hemphill, III J.C., Gress D.R. (2012). Chapter 275. Neurologic Critical Care, Including Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy, and Subarachnoid Hemorrhage. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Biochemistry | null | The major vitamin deficiency in Wernicke's encephalopathy is :
A. B1
B. B2
C. B6
D. B12
| B1 |
0f057ac7-45e6-432d-a7d8-0b01445762a6 | Candida is the commonest infection of female genital tract in diabetes. Candida species are normal commensals of the mouth, GI tract, vaginal mucosa and in the patients with an indwelling catheter. Diabetes is paicularly associated with increased susceptibility to vaginal infections. | Dental | Fungal infections | Commonest fungal infection of female genitalia in diabetes?
A. Cryptococcal
B. Madurmycosis
C. Candida
D. Aspergillosis
| Candida |
8f6644b0-3766-435a-87c9-22bfb85b0a65 | Ans. c. William F. House (Ref www.audiology.org For the pioneering work in the field of neuro-otology, William F. House considered as 'Father of Neuro-otology'. William F. House considered as 'Father of Neuro-otology' because of his pioneering development approaches for the removal of acoustic tumors and the management of patients with disabling veigo. | ENT | null | Who among the following has contributed to the development of neuro-otology and is considered as the father of 'nen ro-otology'?
A. Julius Lampa
B. John J. Shea Jr
C. William F. House
D. Hales Main
| William F. House |
a6d73ebf-f9fc-4d17-a59d-d184ac64c8f2 | ANTICHOLINERGIC DRUGS (Muscarinic receptor antagonists, Atropinic, Parasympatholytic) Smooth muscles:- All visceral smooth muscles that receive parasympathetic motor innervation are relaxed by atropine (M3 blockade). Tone and amplitude of contractions of stomach and intestine are reduced; the passage of chyme is slowed--constipation may occur, spasm may be relieved. Atropine has relaxant action on ureter and Urinary bladder; urinary retention can occur in older males with prostatic hyperophy. However,this relaxant action can be beneficial for increasing bladder capacity and controlling detrusor hyperreflexia in neurogenic bladder/enuresis. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-114,115 | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Urination in the human subject is decreased by
A. Nicotinic agonists
B. AChase inhibitors
C. muscarinic agonists
D. muscarinic antagonists
| muscarinic antagonists |
5a458d8c-7e26-4084-9da7-1a869a6239cd | More resistance in respiration is seen in bronchial construction Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:333,334,335 | Physiology | Respiratory system | More resistance in respiration is due to which of the following?
A. Saturation with moisture
B. Increased rate of flow during expiration
C. Increased compression of airway
D. Due to change from linear to turbulent flow
| Increased compression of airway |
2bd0e778-c09a-4b3e-8dce-c59e8937953b | Ref: PubMed* This is a possible suspicion of HIV infection.* p24 antigen is a viral protein that makes up most of the viral core.* Serum concentrations of p24 antigen are high in the first few weeks after infection; tests sensitive to p24 antigen are therefore useful for diagnosing very early infection when antibody levels are still low. | Microbiology | Virology | A patient presented with fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and night sweats four weeks after unprotected sexual contact. Next investigation
A. p24
B. ELISA
C. CD4
D. HIV PCR
| p24 |
d5057422-0074-4e13-8df4-f3627a55e114 | Ans. A. Helicase(Ref: Harper 31/e page 364)Classes of proteins involved in DNA replicationProteinFunctionDNA polymerasesDeoxynucleotide polymerizationHelicasesProcessive unwinding of DNATopoisomerasesRelieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwindingProteinFunctionDNA primaseInitiates synthesis of RNA primersSingle-strand binding proteinsPrevent premature reannealing of dsDNADNA ligaseSeals the single strand nick between the Nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | Unwinding Enzyme in DNA synthesis:
A. Helicase
B. Primase
C. DNA Polymerase
D. Transcriptase
| Helicase |
b84fe3a2-69ff-4a57-806e-11050a3d7c30 | Tubercular laryngitisThe disease affects the posterior third of larynx more commonly than anterior paThe pas affected in descending order of frequency are:- i) Interarytenoid fold, ii) Ventricular band, iii) Vocal cords, iv) EpiglottisRef: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 329 - 330 | ENT | Larynx | Most common pa of larynx involved in Tuberculosis is
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Middle
D. Anywhere
| Posterior |
55b997d2-7921-42a1-a83b-ca1b9013ca25 | Mono - trichous - V.cholerae
Ampitrichous - Alcaligenes faecalis
Lophotrichous - Spirillum minus
Peritricous - E.coli, proteus, Listeria | Microbiology | null | Which bacteria has Ampitrichous flagella
A. V cholerae
B. Spirillum minus
C. Listeria
D. Alcaligenes faecalis
| Alcaligenes faecalis |
0cfce2f7-492d-481b-a662-09b6b6934c06 | Shigella dysenteriae type 1 causes toxemia due to the production of exotoxin.the complication includes polyneuritis, ahritis, conjunctivitis, parotitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's;10th edition; Pg:293 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by
A. EIEC
B. Shigella
C. Salmonella
D. Cholera
| Shigella |
9fd049a3-b32a-4f2d-badb-206e46dd84c6 | Amphotericin B (AMB): It is obtained from Streptomyces nodosus. Chemistry and mechanism of action The polyenes possess a macrocyclic ring, one side of which has several conjugated double bonds and is highly lipophilic, while the other side is hydrophilic with many OH groups. A polaraminosugar and a carboxylic acid group are present at one end in some. They are all insoluble in water and unstable in aqueous medium. The polyenes have high affinity for ergosterol present in fungal cell membrane: combine with it, get inseed into the membrane and several polyene molecules together orient themselves in such a way as to form a &;micropore&;. The hydrophilic side forms the interior of the pore through which ions, amino acids and other watersoluble substances move out. The micropore is stabilized by membrane sterols which fill up the spaces between the AMB molecules on the lipophilic side-constituting the outer surface of the pore. Thus, cell permeability is markedly increased. New amphotericin B formulations In an attempt to improve tolerability of i.v. infusion of AMB, reduce its toxicity and achieve targeted delivery, 3 new lipid formulations of AMB have been produced. (a) Amphotericin B lipid complex (ABLC): Contains 35% AMB incorporated in ribbon like paicles of dimyristoyl phospholipids. ( b ) Amphotericin B colloidal dispersion (ABCO). Disc shaped paicles containing 50% each of AMB and cholesteryl sulfate are prepared as aqueous dispersion (c) Lpi osomal amphotericin B (small unilamellar vesicles SUV): Consists of 10% AMB incorporated in uniform sized (60-80 nM) unilamellar liposomes made up of lecithin and other biodegradable phospholipids. The special features of these preparations are: * They, except ABCD, produce milder acute reaction (especially liposomal formulation) on i.v. infusion. * They can be used in patients not tolerating infusion oi conventional AMB formulation. * They have lower nephrotoxicity. * They cause minimal anaemia. * The liposomal preparation delivers AMB paicularh* to reticuloendothelial cells in liver and spleen-----especialh valuable for kala azar and in immunocompromised patients. However, some preparations, especially ABLC and ABCD, produce lower AMB levels and their clinical efficacy relative to conventional formulations appear to be lower. Though none of the above formulations is more effectivein deep mycosis than conventional AMB, the liposomal AMB reduces equivalent blood levels, has similar clinical efficacy with less acute reaction and renal toxicity. It thus apears more satisfactory. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:757,758,759 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:
A. Lesser nephrotoxicity
B. Lesser cost
C. Absense of infusional toxicity
D. Once a week administration
| Lesser nephrotoxicity |
05f17d9c-9553-4c0e-8d98-29d7c9f23b7d | The set amalgam exhibits the highest nobility of any previous amalgam and has been the most recent 6th generation of amalgam to be developed.
Reference: Marzouk Operative dentistry, pg-106 | Dental | null | Which of the following generations of amalgam exhibit highest nobility?
A. 3rd generation amalgam
B. 4th generation amalgam
C. 5th generation amalgam
D. 6th generation amalgam
| 6th generation amalgam |
d343d41f-8785-43ed-87c6-8bf18c474486 | SCHATZKI'S RING It occurs at the junction of squamous and columnar epithelium at the lower end of oesophagus and has also been called lower oesophageal ring. Usually seen in patients above 50 years of age. Cause is unknown. Symptomatic patients complain of intermittent dysphagia and some may even present with bolus obstruction. It may be associated with hiatus hernia. Treatment is oesophageal dilatation. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-345 | ENT | Oral cavity & Oesophagus | The location of schatzki&;s ring is
A. Lower end of pharynx
B. Upper end of esophagus
C. Lower end of esophagus
D. Antrum of stomach
| Lower end of esophagus |
15d47450-ffa5-49b6-bc82-4c7eb8d9d729 | Prolactin, though structurally related to growth hormone does not share its somatotropic activity. Dopamine binds to the lactotropes and inhibits the synthesis and release of prolactin. Hyperprolactinemia suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, causes infertility in women and suppresses the normal menstrual cycle in lactating women. | Pharmacology | null | Prolactin:
A. Has somatotropic activity.
B. It flow can cause infertility in women.
C. Can suppress menstrual cycle in lactating women.
D. Levels are increased by dopamine.
| Can suppress menstrual cycle in lactating women. |
8996e826-69af-4c3c-9587-1fa658170099 | DISORDER TRIPLET REPEATS Fragile X syndrome CGG Friedreich ataxia GAA Myotonic dystrophy CTG Huntington disease CAG Ref: Nelson, 18th Edition, Pages 135, 499 | Pediatrics | null | Triplet repeats in Fragile X -syndrome is?
A. CTG
B. CGG
C. CAG
D. GAA
| CGG |
89ad1c15-d1df-4b13-ba60-60312adf1535 | The left kidney is preferred because of implantation advantages associated with a longer renal vein making anastomosis easier Also know, procurement of kidney, In a brainstem dead donor, the organ to be procured should be preserved to maintain its functional integrity. For this purpose the organ should be perfused with organ preservative solution twice before it is transplanted to the recipient. The first perfusion is done just after the abdomen is opened at laporotomy and the second perfusion is done just after the organ has been removed from the donor. Commonly used preservative solutions include UW solution (University of Wisconsin) and Eurocollins solution. After removal from the donor, the organ is placed in two sterile bags and stored at 0-4degC by immersion in ice while they are transpoed to the recipient centre Ref srb's manual of surgery 5e p993 , Internet | Anatomy | Urology | Left Kidney is preferred for transplantation because
A. Longer renal Vein
B. Higher location
C. Ease of surgery due to anatomical relations
D. To prevent damage to liver
| Longer renal Vein |
b6ce1d6a-deaa-45d3-af76-c1d5348ca3c8 | Ans. (B). 3 - 5 daysPeeling of skin is a sign of decomposition.Skin slippage is noted on 2 -3 days,Degloving & destocking type of peeling -3-5 days.This type of change is also seen in drowning.The degloved skin can be preserved in formalin and used for fingerprint analysis. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries | In a dead body recovered from an open field, the below finding is seen. What could be the time since death:
A. 24- 36 hrs
B. 3- 5 days
C. 5-10 days
D. More than 2 weeks
| 3- 5 days |
8b5168d2-3bdb-46bf-a8ae-74a30027b245 | (IgE) (161-AN 7th) (202-206-CP)Types of hypersensitivity reactions and their featuresType of reactionClinical syndromeMediatorsType I: IgE1. Anaphylaxis2. Atopy P. K. reactionIgE, histamine and other pharmacological agentsType II: Cytolytic and CytotoxicAntibody-mediated damage- thrombocytopenia-agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemiaIgG: IgM, CType III: Immune complex1. Arthrus reaction2. Serum sickness3. Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritisIgG: IgM C Leucocytes.Type IV: Delayed hypersensitivity1. Tuberculin test - Lepromin test, Frei-test, Histoplasmin and toxoplasmin tests viral infections such as herpes simplex and mumps2. Contact dermatitis - drugs, metal (Nickle, chromium), chemicals3. Granulomatous type TB, Leprosy, Schistosomiasis, sarcoidosis and Crohn's diseaseT. cells, Lymphokines, macrophages | Microbiology | Immunology | In type I hypersensitivity, the mediators is
A. IgE
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgC
| IgE |
3fc9309c-3954-42a1-8d48-db096fa64252 | Ans: A (RNA) Ref: Ananthanarayan R, Paniker CKJ. Textbook of Microbiology. 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press; 2009. Pg. 69Explanation:Southern blotting:The highly sensitive technique for identifying DNA fragments by DNA-DNA hybridisation is called Southern blotting, after EM Southern who devised it. This technique has very wide applications in DNA analysis.Northern blotting:An analogous procedure for the analysis of RNA has been called northern blotting (as opposed to Southern blotting). Here the RNA mixture is separated by gel electrophoresis, blotted and identified using labelled DNA or RNA probes.Western blotting:A similar technique for the identification of proteins (antigens) is called immunoblotting (or, in conformity with other blotting techniques, western blotting). Here the protein antigen mixture is separated by SDS- PAGE (sodium dodecylsulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis), blotted on to nitrocellulose strips and identified by radiolabeled or enzyme-labeled antibodies as probes. E.g. Western blot test for detection of antibodies directed against different antigens of HIV | Microbiology | Immunology | Northern blot is used for identification of: (Repeat)
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Antibodies
| RNA |
e580e119-d0e3-47e3-b1d4-4e6519ae1c02 | Answer is B (Maintenance) Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy should be initiated during the Maintenance phase (Oliguric Phase) of Acute Renal Failure. Maintenance phase refers to the phase of Renal Failure in which the renal injury becomes established. It is also known as the Oliguric Phase. During this phase the GFR and Urine output progressively decrease until they stabilize at their lowest. Fluid retention gives rise to edema, water intoxication, and pulmonary congestion if the period of oliguria is prolonged. Hypeension frequently develops during this phase. Uremic complications and Electrolyte imbalance typically arise during this phase. Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CR) or Dialysis should be initiated in this phase. The oliguric-anuric phase generally lasts 10 to 14 days but can last for several more. The longer the patient remains in this phase, the poorer the prognosis for a return to normal renal function. | Medicine | null | Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy is initiated in which of the following phases of Acute Renal Failure:
A. Initiation
B. Maintenance
C. Diuretic Phase
D. Recovery Phase
| Maintenance |
c7fecf9f-a7be-4f63-9649-c230d8cd426f | Embolectomy should be done within 6 hours as after 6 hours, irreverside changes occur. | Surgery | null | Embolectomy should be done within
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 10 hours
| 6 hours |
b43198f1-8a92-4411-b3ab-4b495873c4ea | Answer: b) Inferior mesenteric artery (SABISTON 19th ED, P-1299; SCHWARTZ 10TH ED, P-1187)Left Colectomy.For lesions or disease states confined to the distal transverse colon, splenic flexure, or descending colon, a left colectomy is performed.The left branches of the middle colic vessels, the left colic vessels, and the first branches of the sigmoid vessels are ligated.A colocolonic anastomosis can usually be performed. | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | A 58 year old male presents with fatigue, abdominal pain and bloody stools. Colonoscopy reveals a mass in the descending colon. For surgical removal of the mass, ligation of which of the following arteries is required?
A. Superior mesenteric artery
B. Inferior mesenteric artery
C. External iliac artery
D. Internal iliac artery
| Inferior mesenteric artery |
866ff8e3-87ce-4cfa-848e-6dccf3ca929e | Ans. is D. The most appropriate answer to this question is actually endocardial cushion. | Anatomy | Cardiovascular System | The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
A. Pericardium
B. Mesocardium
C. Myocardium
D. Endocardium
| Endocardium |
5dbdfee3-5bdf-4f73-ae33-b0298165dccd | ERIC ERIKSON ERIC ERIKSON gave the psychosocail stages of development There are 8 psychosocial stages A person has to succesfully pass one stage to move to the next stage If he gets arrested in one stage he may develop some disorders Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pf no. 485 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | who gave the stage of trust versus mistrust
A. seligman
B. erikson
C. lorenz
D. bleuler
| erikson |
b90e68fd-292e-46e3-a51d-20c7e13803ea | Ans. d. Radiotherapy 35-40 Gy was given to the whole craniospinal axis | Pediatrics | null | A 1.5 year old female is brought to the clinic with complaints of excessive enlargement of head, intolerance to feeds and severe malnourishment. MRI imaging was suggestive of a medulloblastoma causing obstructive hydrocephalus. Which of the following is an example of irrational manattem,-the patient?
A. Craniotomy and sub-total excision of the tumour. Surgeon leaves the layer of the tumour adherent with colliculus
B. First ventirculoperitoneal shunt was done
C. CCNU and vincristine were given as chemotherapy
D. Radiotherapy 35-40 Gy was given to the whole craniospinal axis
| Radiotherapy 35-40 Gy was given to the whole craniospinal axis |
ded3964c-409d-4722-92f8-703f0f2e6e7e | Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides. They are of two types- homopolysaccharides that contain a single type of monosaccharide (e.g., starch, insulin, cellulose) and heteropolysaccharides with two or more different types of monosaccharides (e.g., heparin, chondroitin sulfate).. Ref: Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 10 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Polysaccharides are
A. Polymers
B. Acids
C. Proteins
D. Oils
| Polymers |
915ad4c1-bf13-40b9-a1e6-734369acb4d5 | Neurogenic shock is a distributive type of shock resulting in low blood pressure, occasionally with a slowed hea rate, that is attributed to the disruption of the autonomic pathways within the spinal cord. It can occur after damage to the central nervous system, such as spinal cord injury and traumatic brain injury. Ref -davidson 23rd edtion pg 1148 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | What is seen in neurogenic shock ?
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Tachycardia and hypotension
C. Bradycardia and hypetension
D. Tachycardia and hypetension
| Bradycardia and hypotension |
821ccf4a-0bc6-4609-9739-8a57449cc17f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., UveitisClinical manifestations of Vogt Kavanadi Harada syndromeOccular involvementC.N.S. involvementAuditory manifestationCutaneous manifestationOccular involvementB/L panuveitis ino Meningismuso Hearing losso VitiligoB/L panuveitis inassociation with serouso Headacheo Tinnituso Alopeciaassociation w'ith serousretinal detachmento C.S.F. Pleocytosis retinal detachmentAccording to American uveitis society the criteria for diagnosis of VKH syndromeo No history' of ocular trauma or surgery.o At least three of four of the following signsBilateral chronic iridocyclitis.Posterior uveitis, including exudative retina! detachment, disc hyperemia or edema and sunset glow fundus.Neurological sign of tinnitus, neck stiffness cranial nerve or CNS problems or CSF pleocytosis.Cutaneous finding of alopecia, poliosis or vitiligo. | Medicine | Eye | Vogt Koyanagi Harada syndrome is -
A. Cataract
B. C.N.S. tumour
C. Uveitis
D. Polycystic kidney
| Uveitis |
da8fa56e-18b4-4702-b11d-1ce1652710a7 | The toxicity of cyanide is due to its inhibitory effect on the terminal cytochrome which brings cellular respiration to a standstill. The inhibitor usually binds to a different domain on the enzyme, other than the substrate binding site. Since these inhibitors have no structural resemblance to the substrate, an increase in the substrate concentration generally does not relieve this inhibition.Ref: DM Vasudevan, Page no: 234 | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Cyanide affects respiratory chain by
A. Non-competitive reversible inhibition
B. Competitive reversible inhibition
C. Suicide irreversible inhibition
D. Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
| Non-competitive irreversible inhibition |
5b674035-82a3-4593-8b06-636d644d9da4 | Ans. (a) PCT(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 928; 8th/pg 938)Nephrotoxic AKI*Caused by Gentamicin, radiographic contrast agents, heavy metals (eg mercury), organic solvents (eg CCl4 ).*Extensive necrosis along mainly proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) & ascending limb of Henle's loop.*On histologic examination, non-specific tubular necrosis, with some distinctive features:Mercuric chlorideSeverly injured cells contain large acidophilic inclusions, become totally necrotic, & may undergo calcification.Carbon tetrachlorideAccumulation of neutral lipids (fatty change), followed by necrosis.Ethylene glycolMarked ballooning & hydropic or vacuolar degeneration of proximal convoluted tubules. Ca oxalate crystals are often found in the tubular lumens in such poisoning. | Pathology | Kidney | Mercury affects which part of the kidney -
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of Henle
| PCT |
317109c4-c462-41bd-8418-b7f1f0cbb633 | Observe that whereas one primary spermatocyte gives rise to four spermatozoa, one primary oocyte forms only one ovumHuman embryology Inderbir Singh&;s Tenth edition Pg 23 | Anatomy | General anatomy | One primary oocyte forms how many ovum/ova
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| 1 |
8678449c-ba36-4d30-b7c9-0cd10161a980 | <p>. Developmental milestones:- GROSS MOTOR DEVELOPMENT: 2 months: Holds head in plane of rest of the body when held in ventral suspension. In prone position in bed, the chin lifts momentarily. 3 months:lift head above the plane of the body. Head control stas by 3 months and fully developed by 5 months. 4 months:Remain on forearm suppo if put in prone position, lifting the upper pa of the body off the bed. 5 months: Rolls over. 6 months:sit in tripod fashion. 8 months: sits without suppo., crawling 9 months: Takes a few steps with one hand held. Pulls to standing and cruises holding on to furniture by 10 months. 10 months: creeps 12 months:creeps well, walk but falls, stand without suppo. 15 months: walks well, walks backward/ sideways pulling a toy. May crawl upstairs. 18 months: Runs, walks upstair with one hand held. Explores drawers 2 years: walk up and downstairs, jumps. 3 years : rides tricycle, alternate feet going upstairs. 4 years: hops on one foot, alternate feet going downstairs. 5 years:skips FINE MOTOR DEVELOPMENT:- 2 months- eyes follow objects to 180 deg. 3 months-Grasp reflex disappears and hand is open most of the time. 4 months- Bidextrous approach( reaching out for objects with both hands). 6 months- Unidextrous approach( Reach for an object with one hand). 8 months- radial grasp sta to develop. Turns to sound above the level of ear. 9 months- immature pincer grasp, probes with forefinger. 12 months-Unassisted pincer grasp. Releases object on request.Uses objects predominantly for playing, not for mouthing. Holds block on each hand and bang them together. 15 months- imitate scribbling , tower of two blocks 18 months- scribbles, tower of 3 blocks.turn pages of a book, 2-3 at a time. 2 years- tower of 6 blocks, veical and circular stroke. 3 years-Tower of 9 blocks, dressing and undressing with some help, can do buttoning. 4 years- copies cross, bridge with blocks 5 years- copies triangle, gate with blocks. SOCIAL AND ADAPTIVE MILESTONES: 2 months: social smile(smile after being talked to).watches mother when spoken to and may smile. 3 months:Recognizes mother, anticipates feeds. 4 months: Holds rattle when placed in hand and regards it . Laughs aloud. Excited at the sight of food. 6 months:recognizes strangers, stranger anxiety . Enjoy watching own image in mirror, shows displeasure when toy pulled off. 9 months:waves bye bye 12 months:comes when called, plays simple ball game.kisses the parent on request. Makes postural adjustments for dressing. 15 months:jargon, stas imitating mother. 18 months: copies parents in tasking, dry by day, calls mother when he wants potty, points to three pas of body on request. 2 years: ask for food, drink, toilet, pulls people to show toys. 3 years:shares toys, know fullname and gender, dry by night. 4 years:Plays cooperatively in a group, goes to toilet alone, washes face, brushes teeth. Role play . 5 years:helps in household task , dresses and undresses. LANGUAGE MILESTONES: 1 month: Ales to sound. 2 month:respond to sound by stale or quitening to a smooth voice. 3 months: babbles when spoken to. Makes sounds (ahh,coos, ) laughs. 4 months: laughs aloud. 6 months: monosyllables 9 months: understands spoken words, bisyllables. 12 months: 1-2 words with meaning. 18 months: vocabulary of 10 words. Can name one pa of body. 2 years: 3 word simple sentences 3 years:asks questions, knows full name and gender. 4 years: says songs or poem, tells story, knows three colours. 5 years: ask meaning of words. {Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, eighth edition} | Pediatrics | Growth and development | The age by which most of the normal babies know their gender is
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
| 3 years |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.