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70e492ea-3cbe-4dbb-a180-fc3bdd1df593 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Laryngotracheobronchitis This child has : - i) 3 days history of upper respiratory tract infection. ii) Followed by stridor These features suggest the diagnosis of croup. Clinical manifestations of Croup Most patients have an upper respiratory tract infection with some combination of - Rhinorrhea Pharyngitis Mild cough Low grade fever o After 1-3 days signs and symptoms of upper respiratory tract obstruction become apparent - Barking cough Hoarseness Inspiratory stridor | Pediatrics | null | A child with three days history of upper respiratory tract infection presents with stridor, which decreases on lying down postion. What is the most probable diagnosis -
A. Acute Epiglottitis
B. Laryngotracheobronchitis
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Retropharyngeal abscess
| Laryngotracheobronchitis |
d553ada9-cbb7-4fab-95f3-c4cc4ce536dd | Flexion injury is the commonest spinal injury. Ref: Essential ohopedics by Maheshwari 3rd Edition, Page 144,259,260. | Surgery | null | Most common movemnet force involved in fractures of the spine is which of the following?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. C Rotation
D. Compression
| Flexion |
dadacc3d-d999-45e2-a343-f58debb1da3b | Pseudoridine arm of tRNA is involved in binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomal surface. | Biochemistry | null | Which arm of tRNA binds it to vibosomal surface
A. DHU arm
B. Pseudouridine arm
C. Acceptor arm
D. Anticodon arm
| Pseudouridine arm |
a4294bee-22af-4c61-bdc0-be1a892d1e35 | Early signs of elevated iCP include drowsiness and a diminished level of consciousness (altered mental status). Coma and unilateral papillary changes are late signs and require immediate intervention. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1633; Clinical Hepatology: Principles and Practice of Hepatobiliary Diseases By Henryk Dancygier, Scott L. (FRW) Friedman, H. D. (CON) Allescher, U. (CON) Beuers, Volume 2, 2010, Page 938 | Surgery | null | The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is:
A. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation
B. Contralateral pupillary dilatation
C. Altered mental status
D. Hemiparesis
| Altered mental status |
178a2e17-db01-44b3-9c8a-b5e62b5d1e8f | Absence of the P wave with a flat baseline may indicate: Fine atrial fibrillation Sinoatrial arrest (with a secondary escape rhythm ) in ventricular fibrilation ,ventriculat tachycardia and atrial asystole,a waves are present Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1423 | Medicine | C.V.S | P wave is absent in-
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Atrial asystole
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Ventricular tachycardia
| Atrial fibrillation |
757489e2-1d81-48b0-b83c-9015ebb54943 | The addition of a poly A tail to the 3' end is one of the post-transcriptional modifications that occurs in the processing of eukaryotic messenger RNA (mRNA). A cap consisting of a guanosine derivative is attached to the 5' end. Intervening sequences (introns) are removed by splicing. All of these processing events occur in the nucleus of eukaryotes. Prokaryotic mRNA undergoes none of these modifications. | Surgery | null | A Poly A base sequence would be most likely found at the
A. 5' end of a prokaryotic messenger RNA (mRNA)
B. 3' end of a prokaryotic mRNA
C. 5' end of a eukaryotic mRNA
D. 3' end of a eukaryotic mRNA
| 3' end of a eukaryotic mRNA |
0297e7f0-4705-4b8d-9289-98ec58229859 | Type I RPGN is anti - GBM mediated and it is seen in Goodpasture's syndrome. | Pathology | null | Type I RPGN is seen in
A. Cryoglobulinemia
B. SLE
C. Goodpasture's syndrome
D. Wegner's granulomatosis
| Goodpasture's syndrome |
a8f0ecfa-295c-46ae-9357-5aa92429e19d | Ans: C (Succinyl choline) Ref: Ajay Yadav, Short textbook of Pediatrics, 1st editionExplanation:Cardiac Sideeffects of Anesthetic DrugsDrugsCardiac Side effectsMidazolamMinimal reduction in Heart rate, Blood pressure and cardiac outputEpinephrineProduces tachycardia, hypertension and ventricular arrhythmiasSuccinyiCholineIt produces muscarinic effects, similar to Acetyl cholineIt causes Profound BRADYCARDIA, so atropine should be given prior to use of Succinylcholine Choline, especially in childrenDopamineProduces tachycardia, hypertension and ventricular arrhythmiasThiopentoneit causes Hypotension, which is more because of venodilatation and direct depression of vasomotor centreDirect myocardial depressant | Unknown | null | Bradycardia is seen with:
A. Midazolam
B. Epinephrine
C. Succinyl choline
D. Dopamine
| Succinyl choline |
eed4f2ca-a443-4de6-8bba-51cf3098269d | Ans: b (Congenital megacolon)Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed, p.l 153 & 23rd ed, p. 1027 | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | Failure of migration of neural crest cells is seen in:
A. Albinism
B. Congenital megacolon
C. Odontomes
D. Adrenal tumour
| Congenital megacolon |
70ccdb13-7ec5-4de9-aeaf-6ffb4d184372 | Neurapraxia is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system in which there is a temporary loss of motor and sensory function due to blockage of nerve conduction, usually lasting an average of six to eight weeks before full recovery.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition | Physiology | Nervous system | Best prognosis in nerve injury
A. Neuropraxia
B. Axonotemesis
C. Neurotemesis
D. Complete transaction
| Neuropraxia |
b6be509b-8060-4678-80d8-605dccfc56a5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., MMSE o The most w idely used test for bedside evaluation of the mental status is folstein's mini mental state examination (MMSE). | Psychiatry | Organic Mental Disorder | Bedside test for mental status-
A. MMSE
B. GCS
C. MMPI
D. WAIS
| MMSE |
d73190cf-3f68-4d02-a7f5-0d6fac8cdcdb | pt. is suspected to have Ca Prostate as Prostatic Ca is the most common malignant tumor in men over 65 yrs. of age. Symptoms of Bladder outlet obstruction and back pains (due to bony metastasis in the pelvis & lumbar veebra) indicate towards prostate Ca. Serum acid phosphates is a tumor marker of prostate Ca. But now serum acid phosphates assay has been superseded by PSA assay (Prostate specific antigen). Prostate-specific antigen It is a glycoprotein produced only in the prostatic cells (both benign & malignant). It facilitates liquefaction of semen. It is neither sensitive nor specific for early prostate carcinoma (it is prostate specific and not prostate cancer specific), neveheless it gives some help in making a diagnosis. Normal serum level - less than 4 mg/ml 4 - 10 mg/ml - this range is common for both BHP and Ca. More than 10 mg/ml - approx 75% will have cancer. Since PSA is not specific for Ca, PSA Velocity & PSA density is used to detect Prostate cancer. PSA velocity is the rate of change in PSA levels over time and is expressed most commonly as the PSA doubling time. For men with a PSA above 4, PSA velocity of more than .75 mg/ml year is suggestive of Ca. While for those with lower PSA levels, rates above 0.5 mg/ml, per year should be used to advise biopsy. PSA density is calculated by dividing the serum PSA by the estimated prostate weight (measured by TRUS). It was developed to correct for the contribution of BPH to the total PSA level. Values < 0.10 are consistent with BPH. > 0.15 suggest cancer Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p1356 | Anatomy | Urology | A 70-year-old man comes to casualty with urinary retention and back pain. Which investigation should be performed -
A. Serum acid phosphatase
B. Serum Calcium
C. Serum alkaline phosphatase
D. Serum electrophoresis
| Serum acid phosphatase |
b59118d8-34fc-4814-935c-523da1791c48 | Dopamine (DA):- It is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic a and b1 (but not b2) agonist. Dobutamine:- A derivative of DA, but not a D1 or D2 receptor agonist. Though it acts on both a and b adrenergic receptors. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-134 | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that
A. It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability
B. It causes pronounced tachycardia
C. It does not activate adrenergic b receptors
D. It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors
| It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors |
4aba0ab7-8db0-4de7-99be-fdf787ed3f0c | Cryptococcus is the capsulated yeast.
Among the given staining techniques, India ink preparation is the best staining technique used for demonstration of capsule (negative staining) - sensitivity of the technique: 60–75%.
Other capsular staining techniques are:
10% Nigrosin staining
Modified India ink preparation with 2% chromium mercury
Alcian blue staining
Methanamine silver and Periodic acid- Schiff – used for tissue sample.
Sensitivity of various diagnostic tests- Harrison 18/e p1652
Cryptococcal antigen detection in CSF—90%
Blood culture: 10—30% in non-HIV patients and 60% in HIV patients
Sputum culture: 10%
Sputum antigen detection: 30% | Microbiology | null | The capsule of cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by -
A. Gram stain
B. India ink preparation
C. Giemsa stain
D. Methenamine-silver stain
| India ink preparation |
0a8d5e9a-0c63-4550-adde-ea69ba439d37 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bi-fascicular block Bifascicular block - combination of RBBB with either left anterior hemiblock or left posterior hemiblock. Tri fascicular block - RBBB plus either LAHB/LPHB+ first degree AV block. Complete hea block destruction of - AV node leading to AV dissociation | Medicine | null | Alternating RBBB with Left anterior hemiblock is seen in
A. 1' degree hea block
B. Complete hea block
C. Mobitz type II block
D. Bi-fascicular block
| Bi-fascicular block |
af87a839-8794-47b6-bc5c-131da1b3f168 | High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole derivatives Hanup disease is autosomal recessive metabolic disorder also known as pellagra like dermatosis. This affect the absorption of nonpolar( neutral ) amino acids specially tryptophan. So there is no absorption of tryptophan. | Physiology | All India exam | Which of the following clinical laboratory observations is suggestive of Hanup disease?
A. Burnt sugar smell in urine
B. High plasma phenylalanine levels
C. Extremely high levels of citrulline in urine
D. High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole derivatives
| High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole derivatives |
26a1bbfc-a56e-4059-b43a-768cc11e8b32 | Ans) a (Nitrogen content) Ref paik 20th ed p 549Biological value of a protein is Retained N2 / Absorbed N2 x 100Protein efficiency ratio = Wt gain in gms / Gram of protein consumedNet protein utilization =Digestibility Coefficent x Biological value100 Aminoacid score =No of mg of one AA/gm of proteinNo of mg of same AA/gm of egg proteinx 100Quality of protein is assessed by comparison to the reference protein which is usually egg protein. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and Health | Biological value of a protein is related to
A. Nitrogen content
B. amino acid content
C. Sulphur content
D. Energy content
| Nitrogen content |
595cf09b-34c6-4d89-9033-6ff3ed0b38d5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Case Control Study " The association of consanguinity with complex disorders can be studied using different approaches. For example, epidemialogial surveys could compare the frequency of a disorder in the progeny offirst cousin parents with that of unrelated parents, whereas case-control studies could compare the rates of first cousins among affected individuals and controls". | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiological Study | The study for correlation of genetic disease to consanguinity -
A. Case Contral Study
B. Cohort study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Case report
| Case Contral Study |
9752d8e3-e260-40dd-97ae-d846f413301e | Glycogen storage disease type I (GSD I) or von Gierke&;s disease, is the most common of the glycogen storage disease. This genetic disease results from deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase and has an incidence in the American population of approximately 1 in 100,000 bihs.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 128 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Von Gierke&;s occurs due to deficiency of
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Liver Phosphorylase
C. Muscle phosphorylase
D. Debranching enzyme
| Glucose-6-phosphatase |
805e7f24-2c61-4783-92de-e8757acfc270 | MEN III, also known as MEN IIb, is characterized by medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and mucosal neuromas.Wermer's syndrome is also called MEN type I . It is characterized by pancreatic (insulinoma), pituitary, and parathyroid involvement.Sipple's syndrome, or MEN type II , is similar to MEN III, but it has parathyroid involvement (tumor or adenoma) as opposed to neuromas. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 18. Endocrine Pathology. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | Pathology | null | A 38 year old male has paroxysmal hypeension. He is subsequently found to have medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, and mucosal neuromas. Parathyroid involvement is not noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. MEN type I
B. MEN type II
C. MEN type III
D. Sipple's syndrome
| MEN type III |
592dd58a-ef4f-4259-b81d-44a5fc989338 | Collagen - the most abundant protein in mammals contains 4-hydroxyproline and 5-hydroxylysine. Vitamin C plays the role of a coenzyme in hydroxylation of proline and lysine while protocollagen is conveed to collagen The hydroxylation reaction is catalysed by lysyl hydroxylase (for lysine) and prolyl hydroxylase (for proline) This reaction is dependent on vitamin C, molecular oxygen and a-ketoglutarate Type Distribution I Noncailaginous connective tissues, including bone, tendon, skin II Cailage, vitreous humor III Extensible connective tissues, including skin, lung, vascular system IV Basement membranes | Biochemistry | NEET 2019 | Type of collagen maximum in skin:-
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
| Type I |
eec09aec-46e6-477d-bed3-4872b61f97fd | Rotameters are constant pressure drop-variable orifice devices. They are accurate at values as low as 200mL/min both laminar and turbulent flow determine their accuracy . | Anaesthesia | null | Rotameters
A. Depend on laminar low for their accuracy
B. Will only function when upright
C. Are constant pressure drop-constant orifice devices
D. Are not accurate below 1L/min
| Will only function when upright |
e41fa443-a31b-4edc-973f-c29a19504a8b | The Limulus amebocyte lysate assay is a rapid diagnostic test for the detection of gram-negative endotoxin in CSF and thus for making a diagnosis of gram-negative bacterial meningitis. The test has a specificity of 85-100% and a sensitivity approaching 100%. Thus, a positive Limulus amebocyte lysate assay occurs in viually all patients with gram-negative bacterial meningitis, but false positives may occur. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 1001 | Medicine | C.N.S | A 25 year male presented with high grade fever, headache, neck stiffness, on examination found to have neck rigidity, kernig's sign positive, csf analysis showed neutrophilic predominance, low glucose and limulus amebocyte lysate assay was positive. Which of the following is the likely pathogen?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Neisseria meningitides
D. Listeria monocytogenes
| Neisseria meningitides |
039cfb73-ed02-48d5-9402-91cb407a1250 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle proteins(a) Tuberculin test denotes Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity to tuberculoprotein 0.1 ml (Purified protein derivative) and used in diagnosis of latent tuberculosis.(b) Positive tuberculin test indicates exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the form of infection or immunization with or without active disease. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Tuberculin test denotes:
A. Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle proteins
B. Patient is resistant to TB
C. Person is susceptible to TB
D. Protective immune status of individual against TB
| Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle proteins |
71c50ecc-ce9f-452b-9637-20990cc519da | Ans. C. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase(Ref: Harper 31/e page 217)Fatty Acid Synthase (FAS) Multienzyme ComplexThe complex is a homodimer of two identical polypeptide monomers in which six enzyme activities and the acyl carrier protein (ACP)ACP contains the vitamin pantothenic acid in the form of 4'-phosphopantetheineX-ray crystallography of the three-dimensional structure, shown that the complex is arranged in an X shapeAcetyl-CoA carboxylase is not a part FAS ComplexQ. | Biochemistry | Lipids | Which of the following is not a part of fatty acid synthase Complex?
A. Ketoacyl reductase
B. Enoyl reductase
C. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D. Ketoacyl synthase
| Acetyl-CoA carboxylase |
10f7eb85-ebda-4224-bb87-18914bc64576 | Hallucinogens * ALSO CALLED AS Psychotomimetic/ Psychedelic * FIRST Man made HALLICINOGEN ==================== Albe Hoffman * MECHANISM OF ACTION Lysergic acid diethylamide=======serotonin * Introduced by Albe Hoffmann and he himself experienced its effects * Phencyclidine =======NMDA antagonist * Also known as angel dust * Related to ketamine=== dissociative anesthetic * Has anti-suicidal propey Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.649 | Psychiatry | Substance abuse | LSD was introducd by
A. albe hoffman
B. delay and deniker
C. John F Cade
D. Egaz Moniz
| albe hoffman |
4a5a1278-2ae8-4808-8548-29acfb03ef49 | The remaining options utilise energy. Basal metabolic rate and obesity The basal metabolic rate accounts for about 60 to 75% of the daily calorie expenditure by individuals. It is influenced by several factors. BMR typically declines by 1-2% per decade after age 20, mostly due to loss of fat-free mass, although the variability between individuals is high. Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg843 | Physiology | General physiology | Decreased basal metabolic rate is seen in
A. Obesity
B. Hypehyroidism
C. Feeding
D. Exercise
| Obesity |
1044a6a2-d3bc-430c-8d3b-972ba533c2a8 | Prolonged apnea due to repeated dosing with succinylcholine is due to it entering phase 2 block. Phase I depolarizing block is preceded by muscle fasciculation. During paial neuromuscular block, phase I depolarizing block is characterised by: No fade during repetitive stimulation (tetanic or TOF) No post tetanic facilitation (potentiation) Rapid hydrolysis by butyrylcholinesterase (plasma cholinesterase) terminates phase I depolarizing blockade of succinylcholine. Phase II block resembles non depolarizing block, is characterised by: Fade during repetitive stimulation (tetanic or TOF) Post tetanic facilitation (potentiation) Phase II block can be antagonized by administering a cholinesterase inhibitor like neostigmine. | Anaesthesia | Neuromuscular Blocker | A 70 kg athlete is taken for surgery, due to unavailability of vecuronium, succinylcholine is given repeatedly (>640mg). He now is unable to take breath and his lower limbs are paralyzed. What will be cause?
A. Phase II block
B. Succinylcholine causes muscle paralysis due to fasciculation
C. Hidden muscle dystrophy
D. Pseudo cholinesterase deficiency
| Phase II block |
a6ae10e2-80ca-44a2-bfca-5442cdf0d3fd | Ans. d. Codominance (Ref Robbins 9/e p140; Ganong 23/e p527)Inheritance of ABO blood group is Codominance."Although Mendelian traits are usually described as dominant or recessive, in some cases both of the alleles of a gene pair contribute to the phenotype--a condition called codominance. Histocompatibility and blood group antigens are good examples of codominant inheritance. "--Robbins 9/e p140Codominance is a relationship between two versions of a gene, individuals receive one version of a gene, called an allele, from each parent. If the alleles are different, the dominant allele usually will be expressed, while the effect of the other allele, called recessive, is masked. In Codominance, however, neither allele is recessive nor are the phenotypes of both alleles are expressed, e.g., ABO blood group, where in AB blood group both A and B are dominant."Codominance: When both alleles of a gene pair contribute to the phenotype. E.g., Blood group AB.ABO Blood Group SystemA and B antigens of the ABO blood group system are glycoproteins present on the RBC membrane.H substance is the immediate precursor on which A and B antigens are added.H substance is formed by the addition of fucose to the glycolipid or glycoprotein backbone.The subsequent N-acetyl glucosamine creates the A antigen, while the addition of galactose produces the B antigen.Bombay phenotypeIndividuals with the rare Bombay phenotype (hh) do not express the H antigen (also called the H substance), the antigen, which is present in blood group OQ.As a result of the absence of the H antigen they cannot make either the A antigen or the B antigenQ.These individuals have antibodies not only against A and B antigens but also against the H antigenQ. | Pathology | Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects | Inheritance of ABO blood group is:
A. X-linked inheritance
B. Recessive inheritance
C. Mitochondria] inheritance
D. Codominance
| Codominance |
a9ca8f83-da91-4a09-8b5d-0ecb5748a6ae | Ans. is 'c >d' i.e., Methionine > TryptophanLeucine and lysine are purely ketogenic.Trypotophan is not purely ketogenic, but it is ketogenic along with glucogenic. Methionine is purely glucogenic. | Biochemistry | null | Which is not ketogenic
A. Leucine
B. Lysine
C. Methionine
D. Tryptophan
| Methionine |
e7a593de-77a8-46f8-b876-3a8186b36abc | Ans. d (Vitamin B12) (Ref. H - 17th/pg. Table 71-1).Vitamins: Major FunctionsVITAMINFUNCTIONVitamin AA component of visual pigment; Maintenance of specialized epithelia; Maintenance of resistance to infectionVitamin DFacilitates intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus and mineralization of boneVitamin EMajor antioxidant; scavenges free radicalsVitamin KCofactor in hepatic carboxylation of procoagulants--factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X; and protein C and protein S.Vitamin B1 (thiamine)As pyrophosphate, is coenzyme in decarboxylation reactions. Converted to coenzymes flavin mononucleotide and flavin adenine dinucleotide, cofactors for many enzymes in intermediary metabolismNiacinIncorporated into nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NAD phosphate, involved in a variety of redox reactionsVitamin B6 (pyridoxine)Derivatives serve as coenzymes in many intermediary reactionsVitamin B12Required for normal folate metabolism and DNA synthesis; Maintenance of myelinization of spinal cord tractsVitamin CServes in many oxidation-reduction (redox) reactions and hydroxylation of collagenFolateEssential for transfer and use of 1-carbon units in DNA synthesisPantothenic acidIncorporated in coenzyme ABiotinCofactor in carboxylation reactionsVitamin B12.introductionStored primarily in the liver. Very large reserve pool (several years). Synthesized only by microorganisms. Found only in animal products.FunctionCofactor for homocysteine methyltransferase (transfers CH3 groups as methylcobalamin) and methyimalonyl-CoA mutase. Abnormal myelin is seen in B12 deficiency, possibly due to | methionine or | methylmalonic acid (from metabolism of accumulated methylmalonyl-CoA).Causes of deficiencyVitamin B12 deficiency is usually caused by malabsorption (sprue, enteritis, Diphyllobothrium latum), lack of intrinsic factor (pernicious anemia, gastric bypass surgery), or absence of terminal ileum (Crohn's disease). Use Schilling test to detect the etiology of the deficiency.Deficiency featuresMacrocytic, megaloblastic anemia; neurologic symptoms (optic neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration, paresthesia); glossitis.PRINCIPAL CLINICAL FINDINGS OF VITAMIN MALNUTRITIONNutrientClinical findingDietary level per day associated with overt deficiency in adultsContributing factors to deficiencyThiamineBeriberi:Neuropathy,Muscle weakness and wasting, Cardiomegaly,Edema,Ophthalmoplegia,Confabulation<0.3 mg/1000 kcalAlcoholism, chronic diuretic use, hyperemesisRiboflavinMagenta tongue,Angular stomatitis,Seborrhea,Cheilosis<0.6 mg-NiacinPellagra:Dermatitis: Pigmented rash with silvery/ varnish-like scales of sun-exposed areas.Bright red beefy tongue.DiarrheaDementiaApathyDisorientationDeath (if untreated)<9.0 niacin equivalentsAlcoholism, vitamin B6 deficiency, riboflavin deficiency, tryptophan deficiencyVitamin B6SeborrheaGlossitisConvulsions (especially in neonates),Neuropathy,Depression,Confusion,Microcytic anemia<0.2 mgAlcoholism, isoniazid (most common cause)FolateMegaloblastic anemia,Atrophic glossitis,Depression, -Homocysteine<100 mg/dAlcoholism, sulfasalazine, pyrimethamine, triamtereneVitamin B12Megaloblastic anemia,SACD:Loss of vibratory and position sense, Abnormal gait,Dementia, impotence,Loss of bladder and bowel control, -homocysteine, -methylmalonic acid.<1.0 mg/dGastric atrophy (pernicious anemia), terminal ileal disease, strict vegetarianism, acid reducing drugs (e.g., H2 blockers)Vitamin CScurvy:petechiae, ecchymosis, coiled hairs, inflamed and bleeding gums, joint effusion, poor wound healing, fatigue, perifollicular hemorrhages, subperiosteal hematoma (Woody leg).<10 mg/dSmoking, alcoholismVitamin AXerophthalmia, night blindness, Bitot's spots,Follicular hyperkeratosis,Impaired embryonic development, Immune dysfunction<300 mg/dFat malabsorption, infection, measles, alcoholism, protein-energy malnutritionVitamin DRickets: skeletal deformation, rachitic rosary, bowed legs; osteomalacia<2.0 mg/dAging, lack of sunlight exposure, fat malabsorption, deeply pigmented skinVitamin EPeripheral neuropathy,Spinocerebellar ataxia,Skeletal muscle atrophy, retinopathyNot described unless underlying contributing factor is presentOccurs only with fat malabsorption, or genetic abnormalities of vitamin E metabolism/transportVitamin KElevated prothrombin time, bleeding<10 mg/dFat malabsorption, liver disease, antibiotic use | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals | SACD (Subacute combined degeneration of cord) is feature of which vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin B9
D. Vitamin B12
| Vitamin B12 |
dfa84cb3-c018-4049-92c0-9facb1fedf72 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Complete bacteriological cure Chemotherapy is indicated in every case of active tuberculosis. The objective of treatment is cure-that is, the elimination of both the fast and slowly multiplying bacilli from the patient's body. The effects of chemotherapy are judged not by the anatomic healing of lesions, but maily by the elimination of bacilli from the patient's sputum. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Main aim for treatment of TB ?
A. Prevention of complication
B. Prevention of disease transmission
C. Complete clinical cure
D. Complete bacteriological cure
| Complete bacteriological cure |
6bdc5753-1ecc-4c7f-9b13-c12a98cc27b6 | Sacrum The five sacral veebrae are separated by cailage until pubey. Later, fusion of epiphyses takes place and ossification of interveebral discs extend from below upwards. Sacrum becomes single bone at 21-25 years of age. Sometimes, it leaves a gap between S1 and S2, until 32 years called as 'lapsed union'. | Forensic Medicine | Human identification | Sacrum becomes a single bone at ___ years of age.:-
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
| 25 |
5d7fcdca-98b9-43e6-bfed-edf8891c9ac9 | (D) Fracture of floor of orbit # Blow out fracture of orbit; Intraorbital haemorrhages, proptosis, paralysis of extrinsic muscles and fracture of the floor of the orbit are not infrequent following a blunt injury to the orbital region> Proptosis develops due to reactive oedema and intra-orbital haemorrhage.> Partial or complete ophthalmoplegia occurs as a result of injury to the muscles or due to profuse orbital oedema.> In the fracture of the floor of orbit, the eyeball is depressed into the maxillary antrum & the inferior rectus and inferior oblique muscles are entrapped causing diplopia.> There occurs limitation of upward gaze, and downward gaze may also be reduced because of the pinched inferior rectus muscle in between the chips of the broken bone> A positive forced duction test, downwards and inwards displacement of the globe and radiological evidence virtually confirm the diagnosis of blowout fracture with incarcerated orbital tissue.> The fracture of the base of skull implicates optic foramen and may cause optic atrophy or pulsating exophthalmos.> The fracture of the optic canal is characterised by a wound at the lateral part of the eyebrow, loss of direct homolateral pupillary reaction and hemianopic field defects.> The patient may suffer from epistaxis and varying periods of unconsciousness.> The pallor of the optic disc may be noticed 2-3 weeks after the injury. Serial radiological tomograms taken at one minute intervals may confirm the diagnosis. | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous | Blow out fracture of orbit commonly produces
A. Deviation of septum
B. Retinal haemorrhage
C. Fracture of nasal bones
D. Fracture of floor of orbit
| Fracture of floor of orbit |
0ff5d474-8b83-4e08-a720-1546fc5dee6f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Diabetes mellitusCauses of Granular contracted kidney ?Chronic glomerulonephritis (symmetric)Chronic pyelonephritis (asymmetric) o Benign Nephrosclerosis (Symmetric) Sometimes, Diabetes too can cause granular contracted kidney | Pathology | null | NOT a cause of granular contracted kidney ?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Chronic pyelonephritis
C. Benign nephrosclerosis
D. Chronic glomerulonephritis
| Diabetes mellitus |
9a3e2aa9-a4b3-4745-850f-b113a6ec519f | Venous Thromboembolism- precipitating factor -estrogen in females PREVENTION OF Venous Thromboembolism AMONG HOSPITALIZED PATIENTS Condition Prophylaxis High risk non - ohopedic surgery Unfractionated heparin Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) Cancer surgery(associated thromboembolism ) LMWH Major ohopedic surgery Warfarin LMWH Aspirin Factor Xa inhibitors (Apixaban) Dabigatran Medically ill patients during hospitalization Unfractionated heparin LMWH Medically ill patients after hospitalization Betrixaban | Pharmacology | Hematology | Anticoagulant of choice for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism in patient with cancer surgery is:-
A. Heparin sulfate
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Low molecular weight heparin
D. Warfarin
| Low molecular weight heparin |
8141bbae-712a-4c78-b66f-c742fe4eea44 | Perlecan is a large extracellular matrix proteoglycan that plays a crucial role in tissue development and organogenesis. Dystrophin-glycoprotein complex The dystrophin-glycoprotein complex provides a structural link between the cytoskeleton of the muscle cell and the extracellular matrix, which appears to stabilize the sarcolemma, adds strength to the muscle by providing a scaffolding for the fibrils and prevents contraction-induced injury(rupture). Organisation of DG complex Dystrophin connects F-actin to the transmembrane protein b-dystroglycan smaller proteins called syntrophins. This b-dystroglycan, in turn connects to the merosin subunit of laminin 211 in the extracellular matrix a-dystroglycan The dytroglycans are also associated with a complex of four transmembrane glycoproteins, a-,b-,g- and d- sarcoglycan and sarcospan. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical physiology 25th edition Pgno: 103 | Physiology | General physiology | Which of the following does not belong to dystrophin-glycoprotein complex
A. Perlecan
B. Dystrophin
C. Dystroglycan
D. Sarcoglycan
| Perlecan |
0872023a-b442-4c33-8fb4-e916e3cbc681 | Pseudomonas Ulcer Rapid onset & Greenish ulcer base Produce biofilm that cause resistance MC cause of infection in contact lens users Nocardia ulcer resembles fungal ulcer in its characteristics. | Ophthalmology | Diseases of Cornea | Patient came to the OPD with recent onset photphobia within 24 hours and sloughing corneal ulcer. There is greenish ulcer base. Which of the following can be the causative organism:
A. Acanthamoeba
B. Nocardia
C. Pseudomonas
D. Herpes
| Pseudomonas |
b369df7e-9844-445d-911d-e14306aaf867 | Culture media for leptospira is EMJH media, Korthof's, Stuart's and fletcher's media. | Microbiology | null | Culture media used for leptospira
A. MYPA agar
B. BYCE agar
C. EMJH Medium
D. Skirrow's medium
| EMJH Medium |
dd9154c8-18f3-40ee-9309-5be6f26e6818 | The use of a tooth positioner rather than final settling archwires has two advantages:
It allows the fixed appliance to be removed somewhat more quickly than otherwise would have been the case (i.e., some finishing that could have been done with the final archwires can be left to the positioner)
It serves not only to reposition the teeth but also to massage the gingiva, which is almost always at least slightly inflamed and swollen after comprehensive orthodontic treatment. The gingival stimulation provided by a positioner is an excellent way to promote a rapid return to normal gingival contours.
As a general rule, a tooth positioner in a cooperative patient will produce any changes it is capable of within 2-3 weeks. Final (post-treatment) records and retainer impressions can be taken 2 or 3 weeks after the positioner is placed. Beyond that time, if the positioner is continued, it is serving as a retainer rather than a finishing device-and positioners, as a rule, are not good retainers.
Contemporary orthodontics- proffit 4th edition page 614 | Dental | null | The advantage of using a tooth positioner as a retainer is :
A. Final setting of occlusion
B. Used in uncooperative patients
C. Esthetics
D. Gingival margin inflamed during orthodontic treatment
| Gingival margin inflamed during orthodontic treatment |
a67701a3-f954-488a-875d-12f4fd7ef127 | IgA Antibody:- IgA is the second most abundant antibody (2nd highest for DHS). It is of two types: Serum IgA: Predominantly in monomeric form. Secretory IgA (SIgA): It is dimeric (valency four); Secretory IgA is responsible for Mucosal /local immunity. IgA also exist in two subclasses/isotypes: IgA1 is mainly found in serum. IgA2 predominates in secretions. IgA (Secretory IgA) is selectively concentrated in secretions and on mucous surfaces forming an antibody paste and is believed to play, an impoant role in local immunity against respiratory and intestinal pathogens. It protects the mucous membranes against microbial pathogens. It serves an impoant effector function at mucous membrane surfaces, which are the main entry sites for most pathogenic organisms. | Microbiology | Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders) | In respiratory and GIT infections, which is the most affected immunoglobulin -
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
| IgA |
96952c56-c9f6-43f2-a638-122711492aa0 | Organophosphate poisoning is the most common poisoning in India followed by aluminium phosphide. Organophosphorus compounds are classified as 1. Alkyl compounds -- such as tetraethyl pyrophosphate (TEPP), hexa ethyl tetraphosphate (HETP), octa methyl pyrophosphate (OMPA), malathion etc. 2. Aryl compounds -- such as parathion, chlorothion, diazinon (Tik-20), paraoxon etc. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 291 | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | Which is not an aryl phosphate -
A. Parathion
B. TIK-20
C. Malathion
D. Paraoxon
| Malathion |
7fc5f783-e5de-47e8-be02-0b2e2d2cf123 | The most common neoplasm associated with hypercalcemia is squamous cell carcinoma. Other tumors often associated with paraneoplastic hypercalcemia are carcinomas of the lung, kidney, breast and ovary. Paraneoplastic hypercalcemia is caused by parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHRP) secreted by these tumours. PTHRP increases bone resorp-tion and renal calcium uptake, while inhibiting renal phosphate transpo, effects that raise serum calcium levels. | Pathology | General Concepts | Hypercalcemia is most commonly associated in which of the following cancers?
A. Renal cell cancer
B. Carcinoma stomach
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
| Squamous cell carcinoma of lung |
7d0da418-4874-4cf7-b692-7ac48dae2708 | The Prausnitz-Kustner test (PK test, Prausnitz-Kustner reaction) is an immunologic test formerly used by physicians to determine if a patient has an allergic reaction to a specific antigen i.e, IgE Ref: Ananthanarayan & Parkers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:98 | Microbiology | Immunology | PK reactio detects -
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgM
| IgE |
9fd65ddc-1d99-4f2a-9cde-eb506e3f3aef | Facial Nerve - Course Intracranial pa 15-17mm Intra temporal pa Meatal segment 8-10mm Labyrinthine segment 4.0mm Tympanic / horizontal segment 11.0mm Mastoid / veical segment 13.0mm Extracranial pa Branches Greater superficial petrosal nerve 1st branch Nerve to stapedius Chorda tympani Communicating branch Posterior auricular nerve Muscular branches, peripheral branches Causes of facial nerve palsy Most common cause is idiopathic bell's palsy paralysis acute onset Bell's palsy idiopathic, Ipsilateral lower motor neuron palsy Loss of forehead and brow movements Inability to close eyes drooping of eyelids Loss of nasolabial folds, drooping of lower lip herpes zoster oticus/Ramsay hunt syndrome herpes zoster oticus/Ramsay hunt syndrome Mastoid surgery is the most common iatrogenic cause of facial nerve palsy. | ENT | FMGE 2018 | Most common cause of facial nerve palsy:
A. Idiopathic Bell's palsy
B. Herpes zoster oticus
C. Mastoid surgery
D. Chronic suppurative Otitis media
| Idiopathic Bell's palsy |
cf27425c-59c2-4d8c-90c9-8fe4c02249df | Ans. C i.e. Increased megakaryocytesDiagnosis of ITPDespite the destruction of platelets by splenic macrophages, the spleen is normally not enlarged.In fact, an enlarged spleen should lead to a search for other possible causes for the thrombocytopenia.Bleeding time is usually prolonged in ITP patients.Normal bleeding time does not exclude a platelet disorder.Bone marrow examination may be performed on patients over the age of 60 and those who do not respond to treatment, or when the diagnosis is in doubt.On examination of the marrow, an increase in the production of megakaryocytes may be observed and may help in establishing a diagnosis of ITP.An analysis for anti-platelet antibodies is a matter of clinician's preference | Pathology | null | The typical bone marrow finding in ITP is:March 2004
A. Absent megakaryocytes
B. Foam cells
C. Increased megakaryocytes
D. Fragmented megakaryocytes
| Increased megakaryocytes |
b89a8870-4b04-40a5-b61c-08b2f20f955a | Amongst the given options only Wilms tumor is common at 3 years of age :-
Wilm's tumor → young children (mean 3 years)
Mesoblastic nephroma → < 1 year
Renal cell carcinoma → > 40 years
Oncocytoma → 25-95 years (mean 65) | Radiology | null | Abdominal ultra-sonography in a 3 year old boy show a solid circumscribed hypoechnoic renal mass. Most likely diagnosis is -
A. Wilm's tumor
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Mesoblastic nephroma
D. Oncocytoma
| Wilm's tumor |
38548ecb-a51d-4c93-bb67-bd82e9d4af79 | KLEIHAUER BETKE TEST or ACID ELUTION TEST done to measure the amount of feto maternal hemorrhage usually in an Rh negative mother to calculate the dose of anti D required This method is based on the fact that an acid solution (citric acid phosphate buffer, pH 3.5) elutes the adult but not the fetal hemoglobin from the red cells; can detect as little as 0.2 ml of fetal blood diluted in 5 L of maternal blood. More accurate tests are immunofluorescence and flow cytometry. Schiller test:- Schiller's iodine solution is applied to the uterine cervix under direct vision. Normal mucosa contains glycogen and stains brown, whereas abnormal areas, such as early CIN, do not take up the stain and appear white/yellow. Liley's spectrophotometer: Spectrophotometric analysis of amniotic fluid at optical density difference at 450 nm wavelength to see detion bulge in Rh hemolytic disease. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrics | Which of the following test is used to estimate the amount of fetal maternal hemorrhage:
A. Coomb's test
B. Apt test
C. Liley's spectrophotometer
D. Kleihauer betke test
| Kleihauer betke test |
12e7ce79-1a49-41e2-b806-16ac4daee47d | In volume cycled ventilation the inspiratory flow rate is usually set at 60-100 U/min to allow greater expiration time for each breath. Use of high inspiratory flow rate can minimize end inspiratory lung volume and intrinsic PEEP, but it can cause higher peak airway pressures. Volume cycled assist control mode of ventilation is the most commonly used mode of ventilation. Volume targeted modes deliver a preset volume unless a specified circuit pressure limit is exceeded. Its major advantages are capacity to deliver unvarying tidal volumes, flexibility of flow and volume adjustments, and power to ventilate difficult patients. Disadvantages of this type of ventilation are: Unless the airway is well sealed volume cycled modes cannot ventilate effectively and consistently. After the flow rate and profile are set the inflation time of machine is set and remains unresponsive to patients native cycling rythm and flow demands. Ref: Respiratory Emergencies By Stephan Kamholtz, page 413. Critical Care Medicine: The Essentials By John J. Marini, page 134. | Anaesthesia | null | In volume cycled ventilation the inspiratory' flow rate is set at:
A. 140-160 L/min
B. 110-130L/min
C. 60-100 L/min
D. 30-50L/mm
| 60-100 L/min |
6d0376b2-01a1-4bb7-a704-26adee194bf5 | C i.e. Latent squint Hetrophoria or latent strabismus is a condition in which there is a tendency to misalignment of the visual axis, which is corrected by the fusional capacity. Often latent squints give no trouble until the demand of near vision increase the strain. No symptoms arise, perhaps, until after reading or writing for an hour or two when the letter seems to run together'. There diplopia, which is often not appreciated as actual double vision, causes blurring of the print. With effo, blurring is overcome, but eventually this becomes impossible, headache supervenes & the work has to be abandoned. Anisometropia presents with - imperfect binocular vision, amblyopia, squint & diplopia (Basak p-68). | Ophthalmology | null | Diplopia is not a presenting feature in:
A. Manifest squint
B. Paralytic squint
C. Latent squint
D. Anisometropia
| Latent squint |
d67a810d-ee8d-4738-8547-b7f42558fe6d | Branch of ECA: - Superior thyroid aery Lingual aery Facial aery Anteriorly Ascending pharyngeal aery medially Occipital aery Posteriorly Posterior auricular aery Superficial temporal aery Maxillary aery Terminal aery Branches of ICA Ophthalmic aery Anterior choroidal aery Anterior cerebral Middle cerebral Posterior communication aery. | Anatomy | JIPMER 2018 | Not a branch of external carotid aery:-
A. Superior thyroid
B. Ophthalmic
C. Lingual
D. Ascending pharyngeal
| Ophthalmic |
9c40aa07-0f46-43b6-b8c0-82de8d34dc21 | Answer is C (Decrease in serum calcitonin) : Serum calcitonin is no marker fir hyperparathyroidism. It antagonizes the actions of parathyroid hormone and may be used as a modality of treatment of hypercalcemia secondary to hyperparathyroidism. Markers of hyperparathyroidism (|ed PTH): 1. Increased serum calcium: Stimulates Vit D which causes increased absorption of Ca-H- from gut Increased calcium reabsorption from tubules Increases osteoblastic activity in bones and mobilizes calcium from bone into serum. 2. Decreased serum phosphorus: - PTH acts on tubules to increase excretion of phosphorus. 3. Increased 24 hr urine calcium: - Despite increased reabsorption of Ca++ in renal tubules urinary calcium is increased owing to increased filtration of calcium in glomerular filtrate. 4. Increased Alkaline phosphatase: -Increased resorption of bone leads to compensatory elevation of osteoblastic activity 5. Radiological changes: Subperiosteal resorption of phalanges is characteristic (hand X Rays are always advised) Bone resorption i.e. osteitis fibrosa et cystica (brown tumours) `Salt pepper' or 'pepper pot skull' appearance - Loss of lamina dura | Medicine | null | Not a marker for hyperparathyroidism is :
A. Increase in serum calcium
B. Increase in 24 hour urinary calcium excretion
C. Decrease in serum calcitonin
D. Subperiosteal resorption of phalanges
| Decrease in serum calcitonin |
eef73746-8a75-4d05-befb-67d65f405a3f | Structures passing deep to inguinal ligament.
- Psoas major, Iliacus, pectineus
- Femoral nerve and vessels
- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
- Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
- Lymphatics | Anatomy | null | Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament -a) Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerveb) Superficial epigastric arteryc) Psoas majord) Femoral veine) Saphenous vein
A. abc
B. ad
C. bc
D. acd
| acd |
33d9bc14-330b-42c8-b597-0a4388ba22df | IV contrast agent is given in :-
X-ray based investigation (Radiocontrast agent) :- Radiography (simple x-ray), CT-Scan.
MRI (MR contrast agents).
Ultrasound (USG contrast agents).
IVP (intravenous pyelography) as the name suggests, the contrast agent is given intravenously.
In myelography, the contrast agent is injected into subarachnoid space. | Radiology | null | I/V contrast is not used in –
A. HRCT
B. MRI
C. IVP
D. Myelography
| Myelography |
241f1ab2-55fa-4a54-8351-6db48a5bcf4a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., VIPoma Pancreatic Neuroendocrine TumorsTumourBiologicaly active peptide secretedTumour locationMalignant percentageMain symptoms and signsGastrinoma (non b cell tumour)GastrinDuodenum (70%) Pancreas (25%) other sites (5%)60-90o Pain (79-J 00%)o Diarrhoea (30-73%)o GERD (30-35%)o Peptic ulcerInsulinoma (b cell tumour)InsulinPancreas > 99% (Insulinomas are distributed equally on head body and tail of pancrease)< 10o Symptoms of hypoglycemiao Symptoms releive on administration of glucoseVIPOMA (Verner-Morrison syndrome, pancreatic cholera (WDHA)Vasoactive intestinal peptidePancreas 90%40-70o Watery diarrhoea (90-100%)o Hypokalemia (80-100%)o Hypochlorhydriao Dehydration (83%)GlucagonomaGlucagonPancreas 100% (usually occurs singly in pancreatic tail)50-80%o Dermatitis (migratory necrolytic erythema) 67-90%o Glucose intolerance (40-90%)o Weight loss (66 to 96%)o .Anemia(33-85%)o Diarrhoea (15-29%)o Thromboembolism | Medicine | G.I.T. | Patient with persistent diarrhea & hypotension. Diagnosis -
A. VIPoma
B. ACTHoma
C. GRFoma
D. Glucagnoma
| VIPoma |
4fce6607-dcce-4b01-bb64-40c4d8cc968a | In one area , the granulosa cells are collected together to form a projection into the cavity of graffian follicle. This projection is referred to as the discus proligerus or cumulus oophorus. The ovum itself lies within it.With the exception of area around the discus, the peripheral granulosa cells form a layer only a few cells in thickness.,whereas at the discus the cells are between 12 and 20 layers thick. Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Obstetrics 15th edition page 28 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | The germinal cell layer surrounding the oocyte before ovulation is known as :
A. Zona pellucida
B. Zona reticularis
C. Cumulous oophorus
D. Zona glomerulosa
| Cumulous oophorus |
1f10b85e-0f5b-4265-97c2-c4c1b8b13252 | Shared psychotic disorder or folie a deux, the characteristic feature is the transmission of delusions from "inducer" (primary patient), who is the "originally" ill patient and suffers from a psychotic disorder to another person who may share the inducer's delusions in entirety or in pa. the person who receives the delusion is usually financially dependent on the inducer person the person who receives the delusion is intellectually less normal and tend to beleive everything that the inducer person tells. both the person who induces and receives the delusion live in close proximity they live in social isolation with less contact with the outside world as they remain together delusion system perpetutes. treament of choice for such patients is seperation of the receiver of delusion from the inducer and the symptom of delusion reduces. Depending on whether the delusions are shared among two, three, four, five and even twelve people, it is called as folie a deux, folie a trios, folie a quatre, folie a cinq and folie a douze. Shared psychotic disorder is mostly observed among people who live in close proximity and in close relationships. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 390 | Psychiatry | Personality disorders | Folie a deux is
A. OCD
B. Shared delusion disorder
C. Hysteria
D. Neurasthenia
| Shared delusion disorder |
df6cb8f2-27d5-41be-a8b1-32cdda520ca6 | Medical protection act: The Act, covering doctors affiliated to institutions as well as independent practitioners, outlaws attacks against physicians and damage to their propey. Offenders can get a jail term of up to 3 years and a fine of Rs 50,000. As per the medicare service persons and damage to propey in medicare service institutions (Prevention of violence and damage or loss to propey) Act , Violence against a registered medical practitioner is considered as a cognizable and non-bialable offence. | Forensic Medicine | Medical Jurisprudence | After the death of the 78 years old male patient in a hospital , who was suffering from COPD. His relatives entered the hospital with heavy sharp weapons and damaged the hospital propey and stared abusing and beating the doctor as well as his staff, Violence against a medical practitioner is considered as:
A. Non-cognizable and non-bailable offense
B. Non-cognizable and bailable offense
C. Cognizable and bailable offense
D. Cognizable and non-bailable offense
| Cognizable and non-bailable offense |
c132f6f0-3e32-4a1a-9f86-4f2410c31ab4 | Ans. C (Osteosarcoma) "Any cancer can spread to bone ,but in adults more than 75% of skeletal metastases originate from cancers of the prostate,breast,kidney & lung. In children, metastases to bone originate from Neuroblastoma, Wilm's tumor, Osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma & Rhabdomyosarcoma"- Robbins7th/1303Sarcoma Metastasizing through lymhatics (causing L.N involvement) LymhosarcomaQ RhabdomyosarcomaQ AngiosarcomaQ Clear cell sarcomaQ Epithelial sarcoma M aligna nt fibrous histiocytomaQ Synovial cell sarcomaQ | Orthopaedics | Osteogenic Sarcoma | Which soft tissue sarcoma commonly gives to bone secondaries: (PGI June 2008)
A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Liposarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Neurofibroma
| Osteosarcoma |
98dce37e-30db-461f-81bd-8fc6e3c21dca | Ans: a (Lisinopril) Ref: KDT, 6th ed, p. 484* Cough is a side effect of ACE-1.* Bradykinin and substance P seem to be responsible for the cough. Thromboxane antagonism, aspirin, and iron supplementation reduce cough induced by ACE inhibitors. Once ACE inhibitors are stopped, the cough disappears, usually within 4 days.Important points on ACE inhibitorsEnalapril, fosinopril, perindopril, and ramipril are prodrags.Captopril & lisinopril does not require hydrolysis to become active ACE inhibitorEnalapril is converted in the body into enalaprilat. Enalaprilat differs from captopril in that it is an analog of a tripeptide rather than a dipeptide.Adverse effects of ACE inhibitors are cough; hypotension; hyperkalaemia; acute renal failure in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis, stenosis of the artery to a single remaining kidney, heart failure, or volume depletion owing to diarrhea or diuretics; teratogenicity; skin rash; proteinuria, angioedema and dysguesia. | Pharmacology | ACE Inhibitors | Which of the following is associated with cough?
A. Lisinopril
B. Propranolol
C. Verapamil
D. Sodium nitroprusside
| Lisinopril |
b74d5aca-2c9f-42ed-8184-98c465b7ac61 | Wernicke's encephalopathy : The neuropathological lesions are symmetrical and paraventricular, involving the mammillary bodies, the thalamus, the hypothalamus, the midbrain, the pons, the medulla, the fornix, and the cerebellum. Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th edition, page 632. | Psychiatry | Substance abuse | Wernicke&;s encephalopathy involves
A. Mammillary body
B. Thalamus
C. Frontal lobe
D. Arcuate fasciculus
| Mammillary body |
824706cb-9571-4bcd-ae12-d893256f0c35 | -Ventilation / perfusion ratio - normal = 4l/min/5l/min=0.8 - AV/Q= INFINITY - Means Perfusion (Q) to lungs is zero that is blood supply to that area is hindered making it awasted ventilationin those alveoli. - This may be due to pulmonary embolism causing |ed Physiological DEAD space . DEAD SPACE- Some of the air a person breathes never reaches the gas exchange areas but simply fills respiratory passages where gas exchange does not occur, - called so as its not useful for gas exchange. Physiologial / total dead space = anatomical dead space +alveolar dead space (non perfused/ non functioning Alveoli) In Atelectasisventilation: perfusion ratio (VA/Q) iszero. it is is the most common cause of a physiologic shunt. | Physiology | NEET Jan 2020 | When VA/Q is infinity, it means
A. Dead space
B. The PO2 of alveolar air is 159 mmHg and PCO2 is 40 mmHg
C. Paial pressure of O2 and CO are equal
D. Atelectasis
| Dead space |
3812332f-67f7-4c05-860e-c6c0e51325bc | Ans. B. M. UlceransM. Ulcerans causes Buruli ulcer.* It starts as a nodule or papule which progresses further to form a shallow necrotic ulcer.* Children (5-15 years old) have the highest incidence of Buruli ulcers, with most lesions on the lower extremities.Image: Extensive Buruli ulcer | Skin | Bacterial Infection of Skin | Which among the following organisms causes Buruli ulcer?
A. M. Marinum
B. M. Ulcerans
C. M. kansasii
D. M. Smegmatis
| M. Ulcerans |
8b679fd4-ddf7-4292-8db8-815e18215fdd | Ans is A (Carbohydrate malabsorption due to mucosal disease) `The urinary D-xylose test for carbohydrate absorption provides an assessment of proximal small intestine mucosal function.' Urinary D-xylose test: Principle D-xylose is a `pentose. that is completely absorbed almost exclusively in the proximal small intestine and excreted subsequently in the urine. The level of excreted D-xylose in urine is estimated. Any decrease in its level in urine means abnormality in carbohydrate absorption in proximal intestine. Procedure & interpretation 25g D-xylose is given and urine is collected for 5 hrs. An excretion of < 4.5e primarily reflects the presence of duodenal /jejuna) mucosal disease. | Medicine | null | A 41 year old patient presented with chronic diarrhoea for 3 months. A d-xylose absorption test was ordered to look for:
A. Carbohydrate malabsorption due to mucosa] disease
B. Carbohydrate malabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis
C. Fat malabsorption due to mucosal disease
D. Fat malabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis
| Carbohydrate malabsorption due to mucosa] disease |
937dc386-a681-40b5-891f-3e2a125907cf | The annulus of Zinn, also known as the annular tendon or common tendinous ring, is a ring of fibrous tissue surrounding the optic nerve at its entrance at the apex of the orbit.It can be used to divide the regions of the superior orbital fissure.The aeries surrounding the optic nerve are sometimes called the "circle of Zinn-Haller" (CZH).Some sources distinguish between these terms more precisely, with the annulus tendineus communis being the parent structure, divided into two pas:A lower, the ligament or tendon of Zinn, which gives origin to the Rectus inferior, pa of the Rectus internus, and the lower head of origin of the Rectus lateralis.An upper, which gives origin to the Rectus superior, the rest of the Rectus medialis, and the upper head of the Rectus lateralis. This upper band is sometimes termed the superior tendon of Lockwood.The site of origin of the superior oblique muscle is from the lesser wing of sphenoid above the optic canal. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following extraocular muscles does not arise from annulus:
A. Inferior rectus
B. Medial rectus
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior oblique
| Superior oblique |
9c65da0f-5b74-4a30-9da0-fbe0a9dee64a | Ans. (a) 3rd CN palsy (oculomotor)Ref.:BDC 6th ed. Vol-III/361-62* Ptosis is drooping of eyelid.* Eyelid is comprised of 4 muscles:Muscles, their innervation and functionMuscleCN innervationFunction* LPSIIIOpens the eyelid* Muller's muscleT1 (NOT a CN; sympathetic nerve)Opens eyelid when LPS tired* FrontalisVIICloses the eyelid* Orbicularis oculiVIICloses the eyelid* CN III palsy leads to drooping of eyelid (Ptosis).* CN VII palsy may also cause ptosis.Also Know*All the extraocular muscles are supplied by CN III except lateral rectus and superior oblique.* Lateral rectus supplied by- CN VI* Superior oblique supplied by- CN IVRemember- LR6; So4 | Anatomy | Orbit | Ptosis is due to:
A. 3rd CN palsy
B. 4th CN palsy
C. 5th CN palsy
D. 6th CN palsy
| 3rd CN palsy |
5e5a624d-7d19-459a-8462-97deb1ede7d5 | Calcitonin receptor is expressed in osteoclasts. Calcitonin inhibits bone resorption by inhibiting osteoclasts; and promotes Ca2+ from blood to be deposited on the bone. This decreases blood Ca2+. PTH is a primary endocrine regulator of bone remodeling in adults. The PTH/PTHrP receptor is expressed on osteoblasts, but not on osteoclasts. | Physiology | Endocrine System | Osteoclast has specific receptor for:
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Thyroxin
D. Vit D3
| Calcitonin |
348b7edd-9d1d-441d-ae44-e05bfe9215de | *one of the most common cause of facial weakness is bell's palsy ,a lower motor neuron lesion of the 7th (facial)nerve ,effecting all ages and both sexes *here the lesion is within the facial canal . Ref Harrison20th editionpg 1082-1083 | Medicine | C.N.S | Most common LMN cause of Facial nerve palsy is?
A. Trauma
B. Bell's palsy
C. Infections
D. Vascular causes
| Bell's palsy |
fce45c6e-0c45-47d5-849a-59bfce0a8b29 | Behavioral therapy is learning given by BF Skinner , according to him all behaviors are learned phenomenon and thus can be unlearned Positive reinforcement a type of reinforcement when a behavior is rewarded there is more chance that the behavior is repeated Negative reinforcement is that when a behavior is done and an aversive response is removed, the behavior is repeated. When I go and meet my girlfriend, she checks my messages and picks up fight (aversive response) suddenly I delete all messages one day and that day there was no fight (no aversive response) then that behavior is repeated (delete all messages before meeting my girlfriend) Extinction is the type of reinforcement where a behavior is done and a rewarding response is removed the chance is that behavior will not be repeated A child likes to play with children( reward) but when the child fights with other children( undesirable behavior) the child will be removed from playing( removing a reward) , then the child stops fighting with other children( reduction of undesirable behaviour) Ref. kaplon and sadock synopsis, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | a child gets good marks in his exam and his father got a bicycle, he staed to read well, what is the line of therapy
A. positive reinforcement
B. negative reinforcement
C. omission
D. punishment
| positive reinforcement |
a4d22a83-6cff-4844-9f46-84234b540d58 | Main Action of Secretin:
Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate by the duct cells of the pancreas and biliary tract. It thus causes the secretion of a watery, alkaline pancreatic juice (with high content of bicarbonate). Its action on pancreatic duct cells is mediated via cAMP.
Secretin causes alkaline pancreatic juice to flood into the duodenum, neutralizing the acid from the stomach and thus inhibiting further secretion of the hormone - feedback control.
Other actions:
Inhibits gastric juice secretion.
Inhibits gastric motility.
Causes contraction of pyloric sphincter.
Augments the potency of action of cholecystokinin on pancreatic secretion. | Physiology | null | The most important action of Secretin is to
A. neutralize the acid from the stomach
B. increase secretion of bicarbonates by pancreas
C. decrease gastric secretion
D. cause contraction of pyloric sphincter
| increase secretion of bicarbonates by pancreas |
c993142b-7bc3-473a-8327-c9eee155c943 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disulfiram o Heroin is diamorphine and is 3 times more potent than morphine.Treatment of morphine or heroin poisoningo Treatment can be divided into:-A. Treatment of toxicity (overdose)# Overdose is a medical emergency, and is treated with opioid antagonist to reverse the complications (respiratory depression) by antagonizing the action on opioid receptors. Intravenous naloxone is the antagonist of choince for morphine (heroin) poisoning. Oral naltrexone is used for maintenance therapy, once acute poisoning has been treated by iv naloxone. Intravenous nalmefene is another specific antagonist.B. Treatment of dependence# Treatment of dependence include medically supervised withdrawal and detoxification, followed by maintenance therapy.a) Detoxificationo Detoxification process include abrupt withdrawal of opioid followed by management of the emergent withdrawal symptoms, i.e., treatment of withdrawal syndrome. Detoxification can be done by any of the following.1. Substitution of long-acting opioid agonism:- Methadone is the treatment of choice. Because of its agonistic activity on opioid receptors it suppresses withdrawal symptoms. L-alpha-acetyl-methadol/ Levomethyl (LAAM) is the other opioid agonist which was used for this purpose. However it is no longer in use because some patients developed prolonged QT intervals (torsades de points).2. Substitution of partial agonist:- Buprenorphine can be used in place of methadone because of its partial agonistic activity on opioid receptor.3. Substitution by a2 agonists:- Clonidine acts as a sympatholytic agent due to its agonistic action on central presynaptic a2 receptors which reduce nor-adrenergic activity. Therefore, clonidine reduces the adrenergic withdrawal symptoms. Lofexidine another a2 agonist, is an alternative to clonidine.4. Clonidine plus naltrexone:- A more rapid detoxification can occur when clonidine is used along with naltrexone. Naltrexone, when given in opioid dependent patient, causes withdrawal symptoms because of its antagonistic action. These can be treated with clonidine. The addition of short acting Benzodiazepine (lorazepam or oxazepam) and NSAIDs, will help relieve withdrawl symptoms not covered by clonidine. It should be kept in mind that naltrexone should not be used alone for detoxification (to treat withdrawl syptoms) as it precipitates or worsens the withdrawl syndrome.5. Other drugs:- Dextropropoxyphene, diphenoxylateb) M aintenance therapyo Once detoxification phase is over (i.e., withdrawal symptoms have been managed), the patient is maintained on any of the following drugs to prevent relapse by reducing craving and preventing 'kick' or 'euphoria' produced by opioids (morphine or heroin). Drugs used are:-1. Methadone:- Reduces craving and 'kick/euphoria' from morphine or heroin because their opioid receptors are already occupied.2. LAAM and buprenorphine:- Similarly reduce craving.3. Opioid antagonists (naltrexone):- Naltrexone can be used orally to assist in the rehabilitation of exopioid abusers who are fully withdrawn (otherwise it induces an acute withdrawl syndrome). Naltrexone prevents relapse by discouraging substance seeking behavior - If a patient, who is on naltrexone maintenance therapy, takes an opioid, there is no 'kick' or 'euphoria' as opioid receptors are already blocked. Naltrexone can be used with clonidine as in detoxification. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Mental Health | Which is NOT used in treatment of heroin dependence?
A. Disulfiram
B. Buprenorphine
C. Clonidine
D. Lofexidine
| Disulfiram |
5136c2e6-9b53-420e-be8e-019cf8a2b078 | Ans. A Collecting ductRef: Ganong, 23rd ed. pg. 648* Aldosterone is secreted from adrenal cortex.* Action of aldosterone is localized to distal tubule are collecting duct.* Mechanism: Stimulates Na+K+ ATPase at basolateral end which generate gradient for movement of sodium ion from apical membrane causing an increase in sodium: reabsorption. | Physiology | Kidneys and Body Fluids | Aldosterone acts at:
A. Collecting duct
B. Glomerulus
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Loop of Henle
| Collecting duct |
87563acd-e6a4-4f6f-bf54-cca4adc09e96 | Ans. (c) TelomeraseRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 374, 732, 26th ed. Pg- 318* The ends of each chromosome contain structures called telomeres.* Telomeres consist of short, repeat TG-rich sequences. Human telomeres have a variable number of repeats of the sequence 5'-TTAGGG-3', which can extend for several kilobases.* Telomerase, is related to viral RNA-dependent DNA polymerases (reverse transcriptases) and is the enzyme responsible for telomere synthesis and thus for maintaining the length of the telomere.* Telomere shortening has been associated with both aging and malignant transformation. Because of this reason, telomerase has become an attractive target for cancer chemotherapy and drug development. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | DNA enzyme for aging:
A. Telosomerase
B. Topoisomerase
C. Telomerase
D. DNA polymerase
| Telomerase |
00cb78d2-a58d-4810-af27-7b1c745ab3b5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., MRI o Investigation of choice for intramedullary space occupy lesion is MRI. | Radiology | Imaging of Musculoskeletal Tumors | Investigation of choice for intramedullary SOL is -
A. MRI
B. USG
C. CT
D. X-ray
| MRI |
e21bbea5-ce59-442e-9058-e7f863190b4f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., IL 2 receptor blocker Monoclonal antibodies (daclizumab and basiliximab) that block the interleukin 2 receptor and are used in prevention of graft rejection as immunosuppresant. | Pharmacology | null | Daclizumab acts through ?
A. cGMP activation
B. Adenylcyclase inhibition
C. IL 2 receptor blocker
D. IL10 receptor blocker
| IL 2 receptor blocker |
305b984e-1c04-487f-8a56-a2280886b4d6 | The cut off for glycosylated hemoglobin in a pregnant lady is less than 6.5 %. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Physiological Changes of Pregnancy | Glycosylated hemoglobin in a normal pregnant lady should be less than:
A. 4.50%
B. 5.50%
C. 6.50%
D. 7.50%
| 6.50% |
0c94e488-3569-4709-acdf-6225fa2e12d3 | Ans. (a) LungsRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /529-30* In left ventricular failure, the pooling of blood in lungs will result and will lead to development of pulmonary edema which causes hypoxia and findings of dysnea, orthopnea, pink frothy sputum and death. Hence lungs are immediately affected following LVF.* Subsequently due to low BP the kidneys shall be affected and in severe LVF brain perfusion shall also be affected. | Pathology | C.V.S | Which is the first organ to be affected in left ventricular failure?
A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Brain
| Lungs |
895b0a22-7c6c-4abc-9bc9-29f257185b1f | The external iliac aeries are two major aeries which bifurcate off the common iliac aeries anterior to the sacroiliac joint of the pelvis. They proceed anterior and inferior along the medial border of the psoas major muscles. They exit the pelvic girdle posterior and inferior to the inguinal ligament about one third laterally from the inseion point of the inguinal ligament on the pubic tubercle at which point they are referred to as the femoral aeries. The external iliac aery is usually the aery used to attach the renal aery to the recipient of a kidney transplant. Ref - BDC vol2 6e pg339 , britannica.com | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | In rectus sheath which branch of aoa make anastmosis with superior epigastric aery
A. Subclan aery
B. External iliac aery
C. Internal iliac aery
D. External carotid A
| External iliac aery |
87bf0fc4-3501-43a4-80e7-d8d04f6fa7f5 | As discussed in preceeding text, nasociliary nerve–branch of opthalmic division of trigeminal nerve carries pain sensation from ethmoid sinus. | ENT | null | Pain sensations from the ethmoidal sinus are carried by-
A. Frontal Nerve
B. Lacrimal Nerve
C. Nasocilliary Nerve
D. Infra orbital Nerve
| Nasocilliary Nerve |
923384bb-5451-487d-b731-623f9361d295 | C i.e. Stratified non keratinized epithelium Conjunctival epithelium is stratified non keratinized squamous epitheliumQ. Conjunctiva has palpebral (marginal, tarsal, orbital), bulbar & fornix pas. Marginal palpebral conjunctiva has transitional zone (not epithelium) covered with stratified epithelium with characteristics of both skin & conjunctiva. | Ophthalmology | null | Conjunctiva epithelium is:
A. Pseudostratified
B. Stratified columnar
C. Stratified non keratinized squamous
D. Transitional
| Stratified non keratinized squamous |
1154e512-eec5-4eae-b944-3de530532c4e | Sample Registration System (SRS) was initiated in 1964–65 (on a pilot basis; full scale from 1969–70) to provide national as well as state level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality
• SRS is a dual record system:
Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator.
Independent retrospective survey: every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is the national level system that provides annual national as well as state level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality?
A. Sample registration system
B. Census
C. Ad-hoc survey
D. Sample registration system
| Sample registration system |
d7227e8f-47b5-42b3-9a69-25825f80bc88 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4 mEq/L SolutionVolumebNa+K+Ca2+Mg2+Cl-hco3 (as la- ctate)Dext rose(g/L)mOsm/LExtracellular fluid--14245310327 280-310Lactated ringer's--13043--10928--2730.9% NaCl--154------154----3080.45% NaCl--77------77----154D5W--------------50252D5/0.45% NaCl--77------77--50406D5LR--13043--10928505253% NaCl--513------513----1,0267.5% NaCl--1,283------1,283----2,5676% hetastarch500154------154---- .31010% dextran-405000/154deg------0/154deg----3006% dextran-705000/154deg------0/154deg----3005% albumin250, 500130-160<2.5----130-160----33025% albumin20,50,100130-160<2.5----130-160----330Plasma protein fraction250, 500145 145 300 | Medicine | Fluid & Electrolyte | How much Potassium is present in the Ringer Lactate solution -
A. 1 mEq/L
B. 4 mEq/L
C. 2 mEq/L
D. 6 mEq/L
| 4 mEq/L |
d1e57556-a49c-42d1-b73a-9927f5abe03a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., N. gonococci Information in this question are ? Gram negative diplococci. Growth on modified Thayer-main media. o Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram negative diplococci and Thayer-main medium is the selective medium for gonococci. Lab diagnosis of gonorrhea Urethral discharge is the most impoant specimen. Transpo media La It processing is to occur within 6 hrs ---> Stua medium or A mies medium. If processing is to occur > 6 hrs --> JEMBEC or Gono - Pak system (media with self - contained CO2 -generating system). Cluture media In acute cases --> Chocolate agar or Muller - Hinton agar. In chronic cases ---> Selective medium - Thayer main medium. Normally the diagnosis of gonorrhoea is made by isolating the organism in culture. It may not be possible to obtain gonococci in culture from some chronic cases or from patients with metastatic lesions such as ahritis. Serological test may be of value in such instances. In serological tests antibodies to gonococcal pili, LPS and outer membrane proteins are detected. o Various tests are ? Complement fixation text Precipitation Passive agglutination lmmunofluorescence Radioimmunoassay Enzyme - linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) However, no serological test has been found useful for routine diagnostic procedure.Immunobloting | Skin | null | Sex worker with discharging ulcer, gram negative diplococci & growth on modified Thayer main media. Diagnosis ?
A. N. gonococci
B. Syphilis
C. LGV
D. Chaneroid
| N. gonococci |
4de3ae36-e35c-4bec-ac3c-e83ee383df6e | TSH* Most informative among thyroid function test parameters because of ultra-sensitivity* Can detect subclinical hypothyroidism & subclinical hypehyroidism* Hypothyroidism - TSH |* Hypehyroidism - TSH | | Surgery | Thyroid | In case of hypothyroidism which investigation is most informative and most commonly used:
A. Serum TSH level
B. Serum T3 and T4 level
C. Serum calcitonin assay
D. Serum TRH assay
| Serum TSH level |
601a0006-402b-4565-a117-01981f7db6b4 | Ans. is "a' i.e., Fingerprints o Monozygotic twins are a result of the division of the single fertilized egg into two embryos. Thus, they have exactly identical DNA, except for the generally undetectable micromutations that begin as soon as the cell starts dividing.o Fingerprints of the identical twins start their development from the same DNA so they show considerable genetic similarity.o However identical twins are situated in different parts of the womb during development, so each fetus encounters slightly different intrauterine forces than their siblings.o As a result fingerprints of the identical twins have different microdetails which can be used for identification purposes. | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | Monozygotic twins do not have same-
A. Fingerprints
B. Genetic make up
C. Facial appearance
D. Stature
| Fingerprints |
697637ad-84e7-46f1-a4d9-7aa5694b36b6 | The Eustachian tube in children is shoer (16-18mm), wider and more horizontal. It is also less taut due to lack of elastin. The above differences make the infant more prone for retrograde reflux of nasopharyngeal secretions and milk while feeding in supine position. Differences between Infant & adult ET INFANT ET ADULT ET Length 16-18 mm 36 mm Angle with horizontal 100 (more horizontal) Normalizes at 7yrs 450 Isthmus Straight Angulated Width Wider bony pa Narrow Cailage Flaccid Rigid Elastin at roof Less dense Very dense Ostmann's pad of fat Less in volume More in volume | ENT | ENT Q Bank | Which of the following is not a feature Eustachian tube in children
A. Wider and shoer shoer
B. Flaccid due to less elastin content
C. Ostmann's pad of fat is more in volume
D. Isthmus is straight in children
| Ostmann's pad of fat is more in volume |
00200901-085f-4abe-a7ed-b424b0650f1b | Ans. c. Thromboxane A2 (Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p868; Katzung 12/e p638; KDT 7/e p195, 6/e p186, 609)Aspirin causes several different effects in the body, mainly the reduction of inflammation, analgesia, the prevention of clotting, and the reduction of fever. Much of this is believed to be due to decreased production of prostaglandins and TXA2."In platelets, the major cyclooxygenase product is TxA2 (thromboxane A 2), a labile inducer of platelet aggregation and a potent vasoconstrictor. Aspirin blocks production of TxA2 by acetylating a serine residue near the active site of platelet cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1), the enzyme that produces the cyclic endoperoxide precursor of TxA2. Because platelets do not synthesize new proteins, the action of aspirin on platelet COX-1 is permanent, lasting for the life of the platelet (7-10 days). Thus. repeated doses of aspirin produce a cumulative effect on platelet function. "-- Goodman Gilman 12/e p868Drugs affecting Thromboxane A2COX inhibitors like aspirin decreases the synthesis of TXA2QDaltroban & Sultroban are TXA2 receptor antagonistsQDazoxihen inhibits the enzyme thromboxane synthetaseQAspirinAspirin is now rarely used as an anti-inflammatory medication and used for its anti-platelet effectsQ (doses of 81-325 mg once daily).Mechanisms of Action:In platelets, the major cyclooxygenase product is TxA2, a labile inducer of platelet aggregation & a potent vasoconstrictorQ.Aspirin blocks production of TxA2 by acetylating a serine residue near active site of platelet cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1), enzyme that produces cyclic endoperoxide precursor of TxA2Q.Because platelets do not synthesize new proteins, the action of aspirin on platelet COX-1 is permanent, lasting for the life of the platelet (7-10 days)Q.Clinical UsesAspirin decreases the incidence of transient ischemic attacks, unstable angina, coronary artery thrombosis with myocardial infarction & thrombosis after coronary artery bypass graftingQ.Epidemiologic studies suggest that long-term use of aspirin at low- dosage is associated with a lower Incidence of colon cancer, possibly- related to its COX-Inhibiting effectsQ.Adverse EffectsGastric upset (intolerance) and gastric & duodenal ulcersQ.Hepatotoxicity, asthma, rashes, GI bleeding & renal toxicity rarely if ever occur at antithrombotic doses.Antiplatelet action of aspirin contraindicates its use by patients with hemophiliaQ. | Pharmacology | Antiplatelets and Fibrinolytics | Platelet aggregation is blocked by aspirin due to its action on:
A. Prostacyclin
B. PGF 2 alpha
C. Thromboxane A2
D. Phospholipase C
| Thromboxane A2 |
38593373-89e8-4ef5-979a-2062fbb57b9d | Antibiotic sensitivity testing Antibiotic sensitivity testing is carried out to determine appropriate antibiotic to be used for a paicular strain isolated from clinical specimens. Antibiotic testing can be carried out by two broad methods a) Disc diffusion tests b) Dilution tests REF : ananthanarayana 10th ed | Microbiology | All India exam | Medium used for antibiotic sensitivity:
A. CLED agar
B. choclolate agar
C. Mueller-Hinton agar
D. Salt milk agar
| Mueller-Hinton agar |
5b8cab79-7b05-4d7c-ae03-7c359e2561b1 | Cutaneous anthrax generally occurs on exposed surfaces of the arms or hands. A pruritic papule develops 1-7 days after entry of the organisms and rapidly changes into a necrotic ulcer. The lesion is called a malignant pustule. The anthrax bacillus is Gram positive and nonacid fast. The spores do not stain by ordinary methods. When blood films containing anthrax bacilli are stained with polychrome methylene blue for a few seconds and are examined under microscope, an amorphous purplish material is noticed around the bacilli. This represents the capsular material and is characteristic of the anthrax bacillus. This is called "McFadyean's reaction" and is employed for the presumptive diagnosis of anthrax. Ref: Ananthanarayan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology By Ananthanarayan And Paniker, 2006, Page 242. | Microbiology | null | A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand which turned into ulcer. Which of the following will best help in diagnosis?
A. Polychrome methylene blue
B. Carbol fuchsin
C. Acid fast stain
D. Calcofluor white
| Polychrome methylene blue |
b5400f30-922d-44a0-a49b-fefe537ef8c0 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oxidative stress * Normally RBCs are protected from oxidant injury by reduced glutathione. Reduced glutathione is generated from oxidized glutathione and the reducing equivalent for this reaction is provided by NADPH. This NADPH is generated in HMP shunt by enzyme Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, while oxidizing glucose-6-phosphate.* If G6PD is deficient, NADPH production will be reduced that results in increased susceptibility of RBC to oxidative damage because of unavailability of reduced glutathione. So, whenever there is oxidant stress, e.g. by drugs, infection or foods, hemolysis occurs. G6PD deficiency causes episodic intravascular and extravascular hemolysis. | Pathology | Blood | Which is the cause of hemolysis in G6-PD deficiency?
A. Hemoglobin defect
B. Oxidative stress
C. Membrane defect
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
| Oxidative stress |
a6382989-2dd5-420f-b084-cb909bdebb50 | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Pituitary tumour Bitemporal hemianopia results due to central (sagittal) lesion of the optic chiasma, common causes of which are tumors of the pituitary gland, craniopharyngioma, suprasellar meningioma, glioma of third ventricle, chiasmal arachnoiditis, third ventricular dilatation.Sites of lesion of visual path and corresponding field defects. Site of lesionField defect1. Optic nerveIpsilateral blindness2. Proximal part of ONIpsilateral blindness with contralateral hemianopia or superior quadrantanopia3. Central lesion of chiasmaBitemporal hemianopia4. Optic tractHomonymous hemianopia5. Temporal lobeQuadrantic homonymous defect6. Optic radiationHomonymous hemianopia7. Anteriorly in occipital cortexContralateral temporal crescentic field defect8. Occipital lobeHomonymous hemianopia (usually sparing the macula) | Ophthalmology | Lesions of the Visual Pathway | Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is characteristic of:
A. Glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Pituitary tumor
D. Retinal detachment
| Pituitary tumor |
9141d364-5e3d-477a-a94c-c32b09021ebd | *Phenol red dye test measures the production of tears without topical anesthesia, as the dye changes its color to red on contact with tears. It doesn't require pH meter for reading the result. Ref: Ophthalmology Yanoff and Duker 4th/e p.277 | Ophthalmology | Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus | Phenol red thread test is used for dry eye. This test-
A. Requires topical anaesthetic agent
B. Volume of tears isn't measured as it changes color on contact with tears
C. If the color changes to blue, it depicts surface mucin deficiency
D. Requiras pH meter for reading result
| Volume of tears isn't measured as it changes color on contact with tears |
5333eaa6-744a-45de-a1ff-a03c87ffd2e0 | (D) Aquaporin 4 # NEUROMYELITIS OPTICA (NMO) or Devic's disease or Devic's syndrome, is a heterogeneous condition consisting of recurrent and simultaneous inflammation and demyelination of the optic nerve (optic neuritis) and the spinal cord (myelitis).> Currently at least two different causes are proposed based on the presence of autoantibodies against AQP4.> Autoimmune reactions against aquaporin 4 produce Devic's disease Mutations in the aquaporin-2 gene cause hereditary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in humans. Mice homozygous for inactivating mutations in the aquaporin-0 gene develop congenital cataracts.> A small number of people have been identified with severe or total deficiency in aquaporin-1. Interestingly, they are generally healthy, but exhibit a defect in the ability to concentrate solutes in the urine and to conserve water when deprived of drinking water. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Devic's disease is associated with
A. Aquaporin 0
B. Aquaporin 1
C. Aquaporin 2
D. Aquaporin 4
| Aquaporin 4 |
1cb58d15-0761-494f-82c4-5d3ea5485394 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., TyrosineAmino acidsBiological important compoundTyrosineCatecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine), thyroxine, triiodothryonine, melanin.(Note : - Phenylalanine is the precursor of tyrosine, thus it can also give rise to all these compounds through tyrosine (phenylalanine - Tyrosine - Catecholamines, thyroxine, T3' melanin).TryptophanVitamin niacin, melatonin, SerotoninGlycine, Arginine, methionineCreatineGlycine, cysteineBile saltsGlycineHemeAspartic acid and glutaminePyrimidine basesGlycine, aspartic acid, glutaminePurine basesb-alanineCoenzyme-AArginineNitric oxideHistidine, Arginine, lysineKeratinMethionine, lysineCarnitineGABAGlutamateGlutamate, cysteine, glycineGlutathione | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Melanin is formed from which aminoacid?
A. Phenylalanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Tryptophan
D. Histidine
| Tyrosine |
adf4e294-ea7d-4df6-9676-fc73cb6aa80c | Because of the ease with which carbon dioxide diffuses across the alveolar membranes, the PaCO2 is a highly reliable indicator of alveolar ventilation. In this postoperative patient with respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia, the hypercarbia is diagnostic of alveolar hypoventilation. Acute hypoxemia can occur with pulmonary embolism, pulmonary edema, and significant atelectasis, but in all those situations the CO2 partial pressures should be normal or reduced as the patient hyperventilates to improve oxygenation. The absorption of gas from the peritoneal cavity may affect transiently the PaCO2 , but should have no effect on oxygenation. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | An obese 50-year-old woman undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. In the recovery room she is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic. Her arterial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.29, partial pressure of oxygen of 60 kPa, and partial pressure of CO2 of 54 kPa. The most likely cause of this woman's problem is
A. Acute pulmonary embolism
B. CO2 absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum
C. Alveolar hypoventilation
D. Pulmonary edema
| Alveolar hypoventilation |
e9c01c78-667b-46a7-be31-449a6024d8e4 | Above ETCO2 curve depictsSpontaneous effos It signifies return of spontaneous ventilation and the patient is coming out of the anaesthesia The cleft is K/ACURARE CLEFT Repeat a dose of neuromuscular blocker if you want to maintain the muscle paralysis ??"Malignant hypehermia:Progressive rise in ETCO2 ??"Bronchospasm:Shark fin appearance ??"Esophageal intubation: | Anaesthesia | NEET Jan 2020 | During intraoperative period following capnograph waveform is seen. What does it signify.
A. Return of spontaneous ventilation
B. Airway obstruction
C. Hyperventilation
D. Oesophageal intubation
| Return of spontaneous ventilation |
a6bcc7af-bcc3-47d6-ab56-14f8d45293e1 | Deficiency of IgG2 results in recurrent sinopulmonary infections with encapsulated organisms. Deficiency of IgG1 - Bacterial infections (Diptheria, tetanus) Deficiency of IgG3 - Viral infections Deficiency of IgG4 - Parasitic infections IgG is the only maternal immunoglobulin that is normally transpoed across the placenta and provides natural passive immunity to the newborn. Maximum placental transfer - IgG1 Minimum placental transfer - IgG2 Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Immunology | A 3 year old child presents with a history of repeated sinopulmonary infections caused by encapsulated organisms. Which of the following is most likely to be deficient in this case?
A. IgG4
B. IgG3
C. IgG2
D. IgG1
| IgG2 |
798fd268-a21d-4847-8b6e-cac0e9626903 | Glucose is absorbed into the epithelial cells lining the mucous membrane of the small intestine from their brush border surface by an active transpo mechanism Sodium co-transpo mechanism. Binding of glucose & Na+ to carrier protein: The carrier protein in cell membrane has 2 binding sites, one for sodium & another for glucose.It is called sodium-dependent glucose transpoer-I. The conformational change in the carrier protein occurs only when the binding sites are occupied by the sodium & glucose present in the gut lumen forming the sodium- glucose - carrier complex. Ref: Medical Physiology, Indu Khurana | Physiology | G.I.T | Glucose transpo occur with the help of following ion in absorption in gut region
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Ca+
D. CI-
| Na+ |
5b9ecb2f-6f18-4c46-a892-e5cc729a37ae | (a) Ringbecause it impinges against proximal thigh. | Orthopaedics | Management In Orthopedics | Thomas splint most troubling is:
A. Ring
B. Side bars
C. Gauze support
D. Traction attachment
| Ring |
6839663b-84df-4318-aaef-99078a1ee7b7 | "SEVEN I" principle of strandfield :
Identification.
Indigenization.
Involvement.
Indoctrination.
Integration.
Influencess.
Innovation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Does not include in strand field's "seven I" principles of health education
A. Identification
B. Involvement
C. Implementation
D. Innovation
| Implementation |
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