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f05ea4ae-10e7-4ce3-8f17-2f62a12e51f6 | Viral hepatitis is the commonest cause of jaundice in pregnancy in the tropics.
Hepatitis A (HAV):
Infection is spread by faecal-oral route.
Diagnosis is confirmed by detection of IgM antibody to hepatitis A (anti HAV Igm).
Disease is usually self limited and fulminant hepatitis is rare.
Perinatal transmission is rare, chronic carrier state does not exist.
The virus is not teratogenic.
Pregnant woman exposed to HAV infection should receive immunoglobulin 0.02 ml/kg within 2 weeks of exposure. She should also have hepatitis A vaccine single dose 0.06 ml IM. It is safe in pregnancy.
Hepatitis B virus (HBV):
The virus is transmitted by parenteral route, sexual contact, vertical transmission and also through breast milk.
The risk of transmission to fetus ranges from 10% in first trimester to as high as 90% in third trimester and it is specially high (90%) from those mothers who are seropositive to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and ‘e’-antigen (HBeAg).
Neonatal transmission mainly occurs at or around the time of birth through mixing of maternal blood and genital secretions. Approximately 25% of the carrier neonate will die from cirrhosis or hepatic carcinoma, between late childhood to early adulthood.
HBV is not teratogenic. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Highest transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus occurs if the mother is infected during:
A. Ist trimester
B. IInd trimester
C. IIIrd trimester
D. At the time of implantation
| IIIrd trimester |
b3652730-6b51-4e12-b351-59cda75bf0ba | Aeria Radicularis Magna: Aeria radicularis magna (aery of Adamkiewicz) is the main source of blood supply to the anterior spinal aery in the thoracolumbar segment of the spinal cord. It arises from either one of the lower posterior intercostal aeries (T9-T11) or of the subcoastal aery (T12), or less frequently of the upper lumbar aeries (L1 and L2) Occlusion or interruption is one of the major reasons for spinal cord ischemia (leading to paraparesis/Paraplegia) during surgery for thoracoabdominal aneurysm. Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 1788 | Surgery | Vascular surgery | After doing a graft repair of a thoraco-abdominal aneurysm, the patients developed weakness. Most propable cause for this:
A. Decreased blood supply to the lower limbs
B. Thoraco splanchnic injury
C. Discontinuation of aeria radicularis magna
D. Lumbosacral nerve injury
| Discontinuation of aeria radicularis magna |
6ec536bd-39ea-4f79-9dd7-b06f4748947f | Ans. A. Log phaseLag phase: Max cell size, preparation for growth; log phase: Minimum cell size, rapid cell division, antibiotics act of log phase; stationary phase: Productions of exotoxins, spores, antibiotics, granules; decline phase: Bacterial death, release of endotoxins, poor Gram stain reaction | Microbiology | General | Bacteria divide rapidly in:
A. Log phase
B. Lag phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline phase
| Log phase |
81a3214a-9c77-4616-8f44-bdbd0ffde9dd | Ans. C. Prevention of multiple sperm entry* Zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer surrounding the membrane of oocytes.* Once sperms reach ova, there is release of hyaluronidase - penetration of corona radiata and cumulus cells by sperm.* Glycoproteins on the outer surface of the sperm then bind with glycoproteins on the zona pellucida of the ovum.* Zona reaction: Once sperm penetrates zona pellucida, the ovum become impermeable to other sperms, this prevents polyspermy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrical Anatomy | What is the function of zona pellucida?
A. Prevent wrong implantation of embryo
B. Formation of blastocyst
C. Prevention of multiple sperm entry
D. Prevent wrong attachment of sperm
| Prevention of multiple sperm entry |
a75fc225-d3d7-41f5-bc84-8ab2fb228e10 | Answer- B. Secretory cell cancerUpon histologic examination, triple-negative breast tumors mostly fall into the categories of secretory cell carcinoma or adenoid cystic types (both considered less aggressive); medullary cancerc and grade 3 invasive ductal carcinonas with no specific subtype; and highly aggressive metastatic cancer. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is a triple negative breast cancer -
A. Colloid Cancer
B. Secretory cell cancer
C. Acinic Cell Carcinoma
D. Mucinous Carcinoma
| Secretory cell cancer |
19719da0-0c7d-4dd3-9552-eb1d07ccb33e | Ans. is a i.e. isthmo -isthmic type Read the following lines "lt is impoant to select the site of tuba! ligation carefully which should ideally be done at the tubal isthmus. This is because in the event of the patient desiring a tubal recanalization procedure, the isthmoisthmic anastomosis carries the best chances of success". Site for performing tubal ligation = isthmusdeg. Postpaum laparoscopic ligation - done after 6 weeks postpaumdeg. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Best prognosis for reversibility is seen in :
A. lsthmo -- isthmic type
B. Isthmic -- ampullary type
C. Ampullary -- interstitial type
D. Ampullary -- timbrial type
| lsthmo -- isthmic type |
ca29c6de-ee94-4be5-9637-cefb08eca4f9 | 5HT3 Antagonists *5HT3 antagonists like Ondansetron, Granisetron, Dolasetron, Tropisetron and Palanosetron are the most specific and effective agents in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea vomiting and in nausea associated with upper abdominal irradiation. Ref:- Goodman & Gilman's Pharmacological basis of Therapeutics 13th Ed; Pg.No:- 935-6 | Pharmacology | Gastrointestinal tract | Most specific antiemetic for Chemotherapy induced vomiting is
A. Domperidone
B. Granisetron
C. Tegaserod
D. Doxylamine
| Granisetron |
01c8035a-7a48-4c2c-ac93-a5bf489ec9e7 | The treatment of dermatophytosis using Griseofulvin is as follows: Dosage - 125 - 250 QID with meal Finger nails - 4 - 6 months Toenails - 8 - 12 months Ref: Illustrated Synopsis of Dermatology and STD's By Neena Khanna, Page 121 | Skin | null | Griseofulvin is given for the treatment of onychomycosis for finger nail for a period of:
A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
| 6 months |
5f2b875e-7c82-45ef-875b-027c5500d9ba | Breast feeding should be iniated within 30 min. of a normal vaginal delivery!.
Breast feeding should be initiated within 4 hrs of delivery by caesarian section. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In normal delivery, breast feeding should be started
A. 1/2 hour after delivery
B. 2 hour after delivery
C. 4 hour after literary
D. 6 hour after delivery
| 1/2 hour after delivery |
f74988dd-d67b-4fae-9076-5c1a380ee29a | Ans. C (Carbolic acid poisoning) "Carbolic acid {phenol) poisoningQ urine may be colorless or slightly green' at first but turns greenQ or even black on exposure to air"- Reddy 27th/470 | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | Green coloured urine seen in: (PGI June 2007)
A. Kerosene
B. Organophosphorus poisoning
C. Carbolic acid
D. Paracetamol
| Carbolic acid |
aceac33b-6512-4e5e-b9a6-a8ad9fd2aead | Ans. a (Isotope). (Ref. Radioactive isotope in Medicine Biology by Quimby, 2nd ed., 26)TERMDEFINITIONE-g.IsotopesAtoms having same atomic numbers, different mass numbers (hence different neutron number)e.g., 17CI35, 17CI37IsobarsAtoms having same mass numbers, different atomic number (hence different neutron number)e.g., 28Ni64, 30Zn64IsotonesAtoms having same neutron number, different atomic mass numbere.g., 18A40IsomersAtoms having same atomic and mass numbers but different energy states in nucleus | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Substance with same atomic number but different mass number:
A. Isotope
B. Isobar
C. Isomer
D. Molecule
| Isotope |
b37906c4-b3a2-493d-adf8-5ac49a26b4c3 | Lipomas are single or multiple, benign subcutaneous tumors that are easily recognized because they are soft, rounded, or lobulated and movable against the overlying skin. It is not transilluminant. Lipomas are composed of fat cells that have the same morphology as normal fat cells. Also know: Familial lipoma syndrome, is an autosomal dominant trait appearing in early adulthood. Adipositas dolorosa, or Dercum disease, occurs in women in middle age; these are multiple, tender, not circumscribed but rather diffuse fatty deposits. Benign symmetric lipomatosis, which affects middle-aged men, consists of many large nontender, coalescent poorly circumscribed lipomas, mostly on the trunk and upper extremities; they coalesce on the neck and may lead to a "horse-collar" appearance. Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 9. Benign Neoplasms and Hyperplasias. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e. | Surgery | null | A female developed a well circumscribed swelling on the nape of her neck. It is not transilluminant, painless and easily moveable. Which of the following one is NOT brilliantly transilluminant?
A. Vaginal hydrocele of infant
B. Cystic hygroma
C. Sacral meningocele
D. Lipoma
| Lipoma |
e816e48f-4c86-4132-851d-c3370a62681e | Ans. (b) GalactosemiaRef: Kanski 7/e, p. 301Galactosemia - becomes manifest during infancy with features of failure to thrive, lethargy, vomiting and diarrhea. Reducing substance is found in urine after drinking milk.Cataract develops (oil droplet central opacity) within first few days to weeks of life. The exclusion of galactose (milk and milk products) from the diet will prevent the progression of cataract and may reverse early lens changes. | Ophthalmology | Lens | An infant with intolerance to breast feed, vomiting and diarrhoea develops cataract. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Lowe syndrome
B. Galactosemia
C. Fabry disease
D. Congenital hypoglycemia
| Galactosemia |
1eb84278-ce12-4824-be68-d7e243bcb45a | B i.e. Superior Oblique In retrobulbar block, a good sign of correct needle placement is the onset of ptosis during the injection. This may be used as the end point to limit the injection volume. This volume should block all the relevant sensory nerves and the motor nerves to all structures, except perhaps the orbicularis oculi and the superior obliqueQ, which are out side the muscle cone. Orbicularis oculi can be blocked by nasal peribulbar injection. | Anaesthesia | null | In general, the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
A. Superior rectus
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior oblique
D. Levator palpebral superioris
| Superior oblique |
734dba62-996b-4f10-9ede-7f197afdf22b | This is based on Henry's law which states that when a volatile chemical (ethanol) is dissolved in a liquid (blood) and is brought to equilibrium with air (alveolar breath), there is a fixed ratio between the concentration of the volatile compound (ethanol) in air (alveolar breath) and its concentration in the liquid (blood), and the ratio is constant at a given temperature. Correlation between the breath and blood level, and the ratio is generally 2100 : 1. | Forensic Medicine | Drug Abuse | This instrument is based on the principle of
A. Henry's law
B. Widmarck's law
C. Osmosis
D. Neutron activation analysis
| Henry's law |
07e63d9c-4458-45e9-9547-5d1c3875b72e | When a berry aneurysm ruptures, the blood flows into the subarachnoid space and therefore mixes with CSF; thus, blood would be present in the CSF when a lumbar puncture is performed. The pterion overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal vessels, and damage to these vessels would result in an epidural hematoma, with compression of the brain. Leakage of branches of the middle meningeal artery within the temporal bone would cause blood vessels within the bone to leak, without direct connection to the CSF fluid. A tear of the cerebral vein in the superior sagittal sinus would lead to a subdural hematoma, in which the blood collects in the subdural space, without entry to CSF. The occlusion of the internal carotid artery by way of clot would not lead to leakage of blood into the CSF. | Anatomy | Head & Neck | A 55-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of severe headaches. A lumbar puncture reveals traces of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following conditions has most likely occurred in this patient?
A. Fracture of the pterion with vascular injury
B. A ruptured "berry" aneurysm
C. Leakage of branches of the middle meningeal vein within the temporal bone
D. A tear of the cerebral vein at the entrance to the superior sagittal sinus
| A ruptured "berry" aneurysm |
d9103de5-c5a6-4f69-8f0e-0374c07f6e6c | Leukemia
Dark bands above the metaphysis called Growth Arrest Lines. These translucent transverse metaphyseal bands are the earliest & characteristic findings.
Metaphyseal lucencies affects maximum growth.
Characterstically, there are zones of rerefaction with delicate subperiosteal new bone formation in the metaphysial regions of femur, humerus or spine and pelvis.
X-ray reveals subepriosteal and subepiphyseal resorption of bones.
Osteolytic lesions seen in half of the cases and is commonest in shaft of long bones. But any bone can be involved.
Osteoblastic lesions are rare, occur in metaphysis → Metaphysial osteosclerosis.
ALL may show following features on X-ray.
Periosteal reaction (periosteal new bone formation)
Metaphyseal cortical erosions
Altered medullary trabeculations, subepiphyseal bone resorption. | Radiology | null | A 2 year old boy suffering from leukaemia, following are the X-ray finding – a) Osteolytic lesion in flat bonesb) Metaphysial osteoporosisc) Periosteal new bone formationd) Osteosclerosis of long bonee) Transverse line of dark band below the growth plate
A. bce
B. acde
C. abcd
D. abde
| acde |
4e1a2c22-52d9-4128-9627-4289f407100e | B i.e. Trichloro ethylene Sodalime with trilene forms phosgene (neurotoxic) gas.Q So this combination is contraindicated. Sodalime is a mixture of 94% (Ca(OH)2 + 5% NaOH as catalyst + 1% KOHQ; with granule size of 4-8 meshQ. It should not be used with : The drier the sodalime, the more likely it will degrade & absorb volatile anesthetics. It produces compound A with sevofluraneQ (clinically significant) and carbon monoxide with desflurane, isoflurane & enflurane (clinically insignificant). However, desflurae can be broken down to CO by dry barium hydroxide lime to such an extent that it is capable of causing clinically significant CO poisoning. | Anaesthesia | null | Inhalation agent incompatable with sodaline
A. Isoflurane
B. Trichloro Ethylene
C. Methoxy flurane
D. Enflurane
| Trichloro Ethylene |
2416c0d9-eab0-4bbb-8797-efd95b2e24a4 | Immunity due to infection of hepatitis B REF: CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment Chapter 16. Liver, Biliary Tract, & Pancreas Disorders See APPENDIX-28 for "MARKERS OF HEPATITIS-B" | Surgery | null | A person is having HBsAg negative, Anti-HBs positive, Anti HBc positive. Most probable diagnosis is?
A. Immunity due to vaccination of hepatitis B
B. Immunity due to infection of hepatitis B
C. Acute infection of hepatitis B
D. Chronic infection of hepatitis B
| Immunity due to infection of hepatitis B |
1118c7ce-13c8-44a3-9fd0-e14141fc0eac | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid sinus thrombosis * Lateral or sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis arises from inflammation in the adjacent mastoid. It may occur as a complication of: -i) Acute coalescent mastoiditisii) CSOM and cholesteatomaClinical features* Hectic Picket-Fence type of fever with rigor.* Headache, Progressive anemia and emaciation.* Griesinger's sign: - odema over the posterior part of mastoid due to thrombosis of mastoid emissary veins.* Papilloedema* Tobey-Ayer test:- Compression of vein on the thrombosed side produces no effect while compression of vein on healthy side produces rapid rise in CSF pressure which will be equal to bilateral compression of jugular veins.* Crowe-Beck testPressure on jugular vein of healthy side produces engorgement of retinal veins. Pressure on affected side does not produce such change.* Tenderness along jugular vein | ENT | Ear | Tobey ayer test is seen in -
A. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
B. Saggital sinus thrombosis
C. Uncal herniation
D. Serous otitis media
| Sigmoid sinus thrombosis |
0bd91a09-216b-491a-ae04-027d180e9147 | Norplant 1 contains 6 silastic capsules of which each contains 36 microgram of levonorgestrel. It is expected to be effective for up to 5 years. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th Edition, Page 179. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Norplant 1 is expected to be effective up to:
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 9 years
| 5 years |
ac7adbd9-d0b2-4d66-8b4e-f883d32e611e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trophic ulcer "Trophic ulcers are neurogenic ulcers which are caused by various factors such as impairment of nutrition of the tissues, inadequate blood supply and neurological deficit. Bed sore is included in the group of "trophic ulcers" | Surgery | null | Bedsore is an example of ?
A. Tropical ulcer
B. Trophic ulcer
C. 'Venous ulcer
D. Post thrombotic ulcer
| Trophic ulcer |
7e33cc46-437c-46d2-a8ff-3d5864ea8957 | Infraclavicular lesion of chronic pulmonary tuberculosis is Assman's focus.Puhl's lesion: It is the site of isolated lesion of chronic pulmonary tuberculosis. It is situated at the apex of lung because blood flow and diffusion is sluggish. | Pathology | null | What is the infraclavicular lesion of tuberculosis known as?
A. Gohn's focus
B. Puhl's focus
C. Assman's focus
D. Simmon's focus
| Assman's focus |
ee8a417f-15a5-4aa1-8865-f1b299204461 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., DES o Adenosis is found in only a small percentage of adult women, but has been reported in 35% to 96% of women exposed to DES in utero.During embryonal development, the vagina is initially covered by columnar, endocervical-type epithelium.This is normally replaced by squamous epithelium advancing upwards from the urogenital sinus.Small patches of residual glandular epithelium may persist into adult life and is recognized as vaginal adenosis. It presents clinically as red, granular areas that stand out from the surrounding normal pale-pink vaginal mucosa.On microscopic examination, adenosis consists of columnar mucinous epithelium indistinguishable from endocer- vical epithelium. | Pathology | Female Genital Tract | Vagina] adenosis is evident in women who had exposure to _____ in utero -
A. DES
B. Asbestos
C. Cadmium
D. Nickel
| DES |
e72524a0-7217-4bd7-a74f-be816d0a18cd | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mycobacterium tuberculosis Thin painless otorrhoea, multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane and failure to respond to antimicrobial treatment are the features of tubercular otitis media and it is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. | ENT | null | Patient with thin painless otorrhoea, multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane and failure to respond to antimicrobial treatment. What is the most probable causative organism ?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Candida albicans
D. Aspegillusfumigatus
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
f6b2e59f-82a5-4dd9-b642-ca260d065b09 | CEAP classification system: Used for chronic venous disorders (Clinical- etiology- Anatomy- Pathophysiology) CLINICAL (C OF CEAP) CLASSIFICATION (C0-6) Any limb with possible chronic venous disease is first placed into one seven clinical classes (C0-6), according to the objective signs of disease. Class Features 0 No visible or palpable sign of venous disease 1 Telangiectasia, reticular veins, malleolar flare 2 Varicose veins 3 Edema without skin changes 4 Skin changes ascribed to venous disease (e.g., pigmentation, venous eczema, lipodermatosclerosis) 5 Skin changes as defined above with healed ulceration 6 Skin changes as defined above with active ulceration | Surgery | NEET 2019 | Elderly male has 0.5 mm dilated toous vein in the posterior pa of right calf. What is stage as per CEAP classification?
A. C0
B. C1
C. C2
D. C3
| C1 |
258c607c-70e6-4998-bdfe-945de6cd7c7b | Early sign of puberty is Sleep-associated increase in LH secretion. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Early hormonal sign of puberty
A. Sleep associated increase in LH
B. Early morning rise in temperature
C. Increased FSH to LH ratio
D. Elevated adrenal androgens.
| Sleep associated increase in LH |
dad066ff-3f6b-4d8a-9ac6-8795bc19b95c | Ans. is d i.e., HDL o The HDL particles are referred to as scavengers because their primary role is to remove free (unesterified) cholesterol from the extrahepatic tissues.o HDL particles transport cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues to liver (i.e. reverse cholesterol transport) which is then excreted through bile.Reverse cholesterol transporto All nucleated cells in different tissues synthesize cholesterol, but the excretion of cholesterol is mainly by liver in the bile or by enterocytes in gut lumen. So, cholesterol must be transported from peripheral tissue to liver for excretion. This is facilitated by HDL and is called reverse cholesterol transport because it transports the cholesterol in reverse direction to that is transported from liver to peripheral tissues through VLDL - LDL cycle.Processo HDL is synthesized in liver and small intestine. Nascent HDL contain phospholipids and unesterified cholesterol and Apo-A, C, E. This nascent HDL is secreted into circulation where it acquires additional unesterified cholesterol from peripheral tissues. Within the HDL particle, the cholesterol is esterified by lecithin - cholesterol acetyltransferase (LCAT) to form cholesteryl ester and additional lipid are transported to HDL from VLDL and chylomicrons. Apo-A , activates LCAT.o There are two pathway by which this cholesterol is transported to liverIndirect pathwayCholesteryl ester is tranfered from HDL to VLDL and chylomicrons in exchange with triglyceride by the cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP).This cholesteryl ester is then transported to liver (see previous explanation).Direct pathwayHDL cholesterol can also be taken up directly by hepatocytes via the scavenger receptors class BI (SR-BI). | Biochemistry | Cholesterol and Lipoproteins | Lipoprotein involved in reverse cholesterol transport-
A. LDL
B. VLDL
C. CETP
D. HDL
| HDL |
cc46b8ca-ae8e-4dd5-9493-956fcd7a8d51 | It is estimated that the combined incidence of mendelian inheritance (autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, x-linked) in man is about 1% of all live born individuals.
As many as 793 autosornal dominant phenotypes, 629 autosomal recessive traits and 123 sex linked diseases have been catalogued to date. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Commonest among diseases with Mendelian inheritance is –
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X–linked recessive
D. X–dominant
| Autosomal dominant |
fdaffa63-eb77-4cce-861d-6e53526f9a2a | Ans. is 'd' i.e., To asses the regeneration Tinels sign:* Brisk percussion along the course of an injured nerve from distal to proximal direction may elicit a tingling sensation in the distal distribution of the nerve.* This is described as Tinels sign.* The point of hypersensitivity marks the site of abnormal nerve sprouting: if it progresses distally at successive visits this signifies regeneration; if it remains unchanged this suggests a local neuroma. | Orthopaedics | Peripheral Nerve Injuries | Tinels sign is used -
A. To asses the severity of damage of nerve
B. To classify the type of nerve injury
C. To locate the site of nerve injury
D. To asses the regeneration
| To asses the regeneration |
527148f5-1c50-4450-8f02-4b09edbb17c0 | Intravenous infusion of protamine sulfate is used as antidote of heparin in case of life threatening hemorrhage. Protamines are basic low molecular weight positively charged proteins that have a high affinity for negatively charged heparin molecules. It binds tightly to heparin and thereby neutralizes its anticoagulant effect. Protamine only binds long heparin molecules. Therefore, it only paially reverses the anticoagulant activity of LMWHs and has no effect on fondaparinux. The very sho molecules of fondaparinux do not bind protamine. Heparin acts by binding to antithrombin III and induces a conformational change that accelerates the interaction of antithrombin III with other coagulation factors. Ref: Weitz J.I. (2011). Chapter 30. Blood Coagulation and Anticoagulant, Fibrinolytic, and Antiplatelet Drugs. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is an antidote of heparin?
A. Sodium nitrite
B. Protamine sulphate
C. Thiosulphate
D. Coumarin
| Protamine sulphate |
6e040340-13dc-4c6a-a567-faea4005b2a6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blurring of disc margin Blurring of disc margin is earliest sign. Vision is normal initially. In 25% of patients visual symptoms occur only in advanced severe papilloedema, when optic atrophy sets in. Typically, there is recurring brief episodes (transient) of visual obscurations (Amaurosis fugax) lasting less then 30 seconds, in which vision turns grey or blacks, sometimes decribed as if a veil has fallen over the eyes. The symptoms usually affect both eyes at once as papilloedema is bilateral. Central vision is affected late in the disease. Initially there is enlargement of blind spot and progressive contraction of the visual field (visual field becomes smaller). Complete blindness sets in eventually. Thus, characteristically there is gradually progressive painless loss of vision. | Ophthalmology | null | Following is a feature of papilloedema ?
A. Shrinkage of blind spot
B. Blurring of disc margin
C. Low vision
D. Loss of pupillary reflex
| Blurring of disc margin |
e6c22822-359b-4f33-954b-6516993dc2c7 | Ans. (a) Bone marrow examination(Ref: Dacie Practical Hematology, 10thed/163; Complete review of Pathology 1st/761)This is a Sahli's bone marrow aspiration needle. (Sahli's needle has a Screw on the side; S for S)Klima's bone marrow aspiration needle (no side screw) | Pathology | Misc. (W.B.C) | For which procedure is the following instrument used?
A. Bone marrow examination
B. Liver biopsy
C. Pleural biopsy
D. Lumbar puncture
| Bone marrow examination |
9907dcfa-d969-4c51-a58d-0c35b48c509d | Total number of tooth germs formed in human fetus is 52 (20 primary + 32 permanent). Third molar tooth germ initiated at 4 or 5 years. If you exclude the third molar tooth germs, the answer will be 48. | Dental | null | The total number of germ tooth present in a full form foetus is
A. 20
B. 28
C. 44
D. 48
| 48 |
60294d73-02be-49ee-b966-c19be6cac44a | Ans. is a i.e. HPV 16 It is now established that HPV plays a major role in cervical carcinogenesis. Among the various genotypes (more than 100) the Genotype of HPV which is : Most commonly associated with squamous cell carcinoma cervix HPV 16 Most common genotype associated with adenocarcinoma of cervix HPV 18 Overall MC genotype associated with invasive carcinoma, CIN II and CIN III HPV 16 But HPV 16 is not very specific as it is seen in 16% of women with low grade lesion and 14% women with normal cytology so Most specific genotype of HPV for invasive tumor . HPV 18 Extra Edge : Tests for detection of HPV : PCR Hybrid capture technique : latest technique which employs RNA probes for detection of HPV. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | M/C agent responsible for Ca cervix is :
A. HPV 16
B. HPV 18
C. HPV 31
D. HPV 36
| HPV 16 |
64b1607b-adc4-404f-9640-b54bbfaf83c1 | IOC for proximal pa of biliary tract = Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram (both diagnostic and therapeutic) IOC for distal pa of biliary tract = ERCP (both diagnostic and therapeutic) IOC for most of biliary tract pathology like (CBD stone; choledochal cyst; biliary stricture; cholangiocarcinoma) = MRCP (only diagnostic) | Surgery | JIPMER 2017 | Best method to visualize the proximal bile duct is by:
A. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram
B. EUS
C. ERCP
D. Transabdominal USG
| Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram |
4b3a4078-a4a9-411c-b49b-70f1f4a7edb6 | * The disinfecting action of chlorine is predominantly due to hypochlorous acid. * Hypochlorous acid is most effective form of chlorine and it is almost 70-80 times more effective than hypochlorite ions ref : park 21st ed | Social & Preventive Medicine | All India exam | Which among the following is an active form of chlorination?
A. Hypochlorite ion
B. Hydrogen chloride
C. Hypochlorous acid
D. Chloride ion
| Hypochlorous acid |
da88c6b2-def8-40ad-b1a4-be1428f97f6b | Answer is A (Presence of JAK-2 mutation) Presence of JAK-2 mutation is a Major criterion fir diagnosis of polycythemia Vera according to the proposed new WHO criteria for the diagnosis of Polycythemia Vera. Low Erythropoetin levels, Thrombocytosis and increased LAP scores are all minor criteria for diagnosis of polycythemia Vera. JAK-2 Mutation and Polycythemia Vera JAK-2 is a member of an evolutionarily well conserved, non receptor tyrosine kinase family and serves as the cognate tyrosine kinase for the erythropoietin receptors A mutation in the tyrosine kinase JAK-2 appears to have a central role in the pathogenesis of PV by causing constitutive activation of the kinase The presence of JAK -2 mutation thus allows for the exclusion of a reactive erythrocytosis. The 2001 WHO criteria for diagnosis of PV were however developed prior to the discovery of this impoant mutation and hence revised WHO criteria have been developed that include presence of JAK-2 mutation as a major criterion for diagnosis of PV Note : Although presence of JAK-2 mutation is a major criterion for diagnosis of PV, the presence of JAK-2 mutation alone is not diagnostic of PV. JAK-2 mutations may also be seen in other myeloproliferative disorders such as Essential Thrombocytosis (ET) and Chronic Idiopathic Myelojlbrosis (CIMF). Various major and minor criteria used for the diagnosis of polvcythemia vera in various classification systems (WHO criteria (revised and old )/ Polvcythemia vera study group criteria) Major Minor * JAK2 V617F mutation * Thrombocytosis (> 400 x 109/L) * Hemoglobin >18.5 g/dL in men, 16.5 g/dL in * Leucocytosis (WBC > 12 x 109/L) women * Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP > 100U) * Increased red blood cell mass * Increased serum B12/binders * Splenomegaly (B12 > 900 pg/ml; unbound B12 binding capacity> 2200 pg/ml) * Clonal genetic abnormality other than * Low serum erythroprotein levels. Philadelphia chromosome or BCR/ABL in marrow * Panmyelosis with prominent erythoid and megakaryocytic * Endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro hyperplasia on bone marrow biopsy. * Normal aerial 02 saturation (>92%) Revised WHO criteria (Proposed) for the diagnosis of Polycythemia vera Revised WHO criteria (Proposed) for the diagnosis of Polycythemia vera Major Criteria Hemoglobin > 18.5 g/dl in men, > 16.5 g/dl in women or evidenced on increased red cell volume Presence of JAK2 mutation Minor Criteria Hypercellular bone marrow biopsy with panmyelosis with prominent erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic hyperplasia Low serum erythropoietin level Endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro. WHO Criteria (Previous) for the diagnosis of Plvcythemia vera Major Criteria Red blood cell mas > 25% above mean normal predicted value, or Hb > 18.5 g/dl in men, 16.5 g/dI in women. Splenomegaly on palpation Clonal genetic abnormality other than Philadelphia chromosome or BCR/ABL in marrow. Endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro Minor Criteria Thrombocytosis > 400 x 109/L WBC > 12 x 109/L Panmyelosis with prominent erythroid and megakaryocytic hyperplasia on bone marrow biopsy. Low serum erythropoietin levels. WHO Criteria for the diagnosis of Plycythemia Vera (Prior to the proposed new criterion) | Medicine | null | Which of the following is a major criteria for diagnosis of poycythemia vera:
A. Presence of JAK-2 mutation
B. Low Erythropoetin levels
C. High Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (TLAP score)
D. Thrombocytosis
| Presence of JAK-2 mutation |
50d38e3c-e917-417e-acfa-4cab9d71eb24 | fear of injection- needle phobia Fear of touch- hapnophobia Fear of strangers- xenophobia Fear of animals- zoophobia Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 361 | Anatomy | Special topics | Xenophobia is
A. Fear of injection
B. Fear of touch
C. Fear of strangers
D. Fear of animals
| Fear of strangers |
7a370c86-805c-4ddc-8e30-0ef79223cf9e | Crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm + organomegaly and pancytopenia suggests storage disorder Lysosomal storage of glucocerebroside (Gaucher disease) in cells of the monocyte-macrophage system leads to a characteristic cellular alteration of these cells Gaucher cells- present in the bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, hepatic sinusoids, and other organs and tissues in all forms of GD. | Medicine | Misc. | A 48 year old lady presented with hepatosplenomegaly with pancytopenia. On microscopic examination of bone marrow cells, crumpled tissue paper appearance is seen. Which is the product likely to have accumulated?
A. Glucocerebroside
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Sulfatide
D. Ganglioside
| Glucocerebroside |
2b7c3285-8658-47d8-8fa0-6bae29d0aedb | Once the calcium ions have been released from the sarcoplasmic tubules and have diffused among the myofibrils, muscle contraction continues as long as the calcium ion concentration remains high. However, a continually active calcium pump located in the walls of the sarcoplasmic reticulum pumps calcium ions away from the myofibrils back into the sarcoplasmic tubules. This pump can concentrate the calcium ions about 10,000-fold inside the tubules. In addition, inside the reticulum is a protein called calsequestrin that can bind up to 40 times more calcium. Ref: Guyton 13th ed, p 94 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Relaxation of skeletal muscle occurs by
A. Removal of Acetylcholine from synaptic cleft
B. Closure of nicotinic cholinergic receptor
C. Binding of calcium with troponin
D. Removal of sarcoplasmic calcium
| Removal of sarcoplasmic calcium |
25cd212c-195a-4fc0-8039-1e5eeca522ca | Ans is 'a' i.e., NF o Cafe au lait spots or Cafe au lait macules are pigmented (light brown) birthmarks, also called ''giraffe spots'1 or "coast of Maine spots".Cafe au lait spots can arise from diverse and unrelated causes:o Having six or more cafe au lait spots greater than 5 mm in diameter before puberty, or greater than 15 mm in diameter after puberty, is a diagnostic feature of neurofibromatosis type I, but other features are required to diagnose NF 1.o Familial multiple cafe au lait spots have been observed -without NF-1 diagnosis,o They can be caused by vitiligo in the rare McCune-A (bright syndrome,o Legius syndromeo Tuberous sclerosiso Fanconi anemia, a rare genetic disease,o Idiopathico Ataxia telangiectasiao Basal cell nevus syndromeo Benign congenital skin lesiono Bloom syndromeo Chediak Higashi syndromeo Congenital naevuso Gaucher diseaseo Hunter syndromeo MaiYucci syndromeo Multiple mucosal neuroma syndromeo Noonan syndromeo Silver-Russell syndromeo Watson syndromeo Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome | Skin | Autoimmune Skin Disorders | Cafe au lait spots seen in? -
A. NF
B. Gardnersyndrome
C. Cockayne syndrome
D. Down syndrome
| NF |
a9ebdf11-d2ac-471e-b049-8777ce3aa3b5 | Cimetidine inhibits metabolism of estrogen and can cause gynaecomastia. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug used in peptic ulcer can result in gynaecomastia
A. Sucralfate
B. Cimetidine
C. Pirenzepine
D. Rabeprazole
| Cimetidine |
3b5edce3-4ab2-4548-8ae3-4e5dabd625fa | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypochloremic Alkalosis o The biochemical abnormalities seen are:1. Hypokalemia2. Alkalosis and3. Hypochloremia4. Paradoxical aciduria | Surgery | Benign Gastric Disease | Which metabolic anomaly is seen in Pyloric stenosis-
A. Hypochloremic Alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
C. Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
D. Hypocalcemia
| Hypochloremic Alkalosis |
521cdf6b-b8f9-46eb-840e-2901e03119bf | Ans: B. (Antithrombotic III) Heparin inhibit Factor Xa & IIaQ (thrombin)( i.e., not activate)Heparin# The anticoagufant action is exerted mainly by inhibition of factor Xa as well as thrombin (IIa) mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin# It acts indirectly by activating plasma antithrombin IIIQ The heparin - AT III complex then binds to clotting factors of the intrinsic & common pathways (Xa, IIa(Thrombin), IXa, Xlla & XIIIa)& inactivate them but not factor Vila, operative in the extrinsic pathway.# Low concentration of heparin prolong aPTT without significantly prolonging PTQAdverse Effects1. Bleeding due to overdose is the most serious complication of heparin therapy. Haematuria is generally the first sign.Thrombocytopen ia is a noth er common problemTransient & reversible alopecia is infrequentHypersensitivity reactions are rare- urticaria, rigor, fever & anaphylaxis.Osteoporosis may develop on long term use | Pharmacology | Anticoagulants and Coagulants | Heparin is the most widely used antithrombotic agent. It act by activating: (PGI June 2009)
A. Plasmin
B. Antithrombin III
C. Fibrinolysin
D. Factor X
| Antithrombin III |
52cf6cf9-70d9-43e6-bba1-e2bac966322d | Urgent ERCP is indicated in patients who have severe acute biliary pancreatitis with cholangitis. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2640 | Medicine | null | Which of the following is an indication of urgent ERCP in pancreatitis?
A. Acute alcoholic pancreatitis
B. Acute necrotising pancreatitis
C. Acute biliary pancreatitis with cholangitis
D. Chronic calcific pancreatitis with pseudocyst
| Acute biliary pancreatitis with cholangitis |
eb6cba74-e7d8-432f-86fb-7a012c5e561b | Alpha blockers are used in erectile dysfunction not alpha agonists (phenyephrine).
Drugs useful in the management of erectile dysfuncLion (ED)
1. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Sildenafil
Vardenafi
Tadalafil
Udenafil
2. PGE1 analog - Alprostadil
3. Aviptadil | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following agent is not used in erectile dysfunction:
A. PGE2
B. Vardenafil
C. Phenylephrine
D. Alprostadil
| Phenylephrine |
47a6ad42-e3c7-47a8-b4c2-a0a275f21356 | Man is the only natural host for S.typhi and S.paratyphi A whereas most of the other salmonella are chiefly pathogenic in an animal. Clostridium, E.coli and yersinia infect both human and animal. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | Microbiology | mycology | Which of the following does not have non-human reservoir
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium tetani
| Salmonella typhi |
4315a4f7-316c-4a01-9283-7ea971d63268 | MuscleOriginInseionNerve supplyActionDigastricHas 2 bellies united by an intermediate tendonAnterior belly from digastric fossa of mandibleBoth heads meet at the intermediate tendon which perforates stylohyoid and is held by a fibrous pulley to the hyoid boneNerve to mylohyoidDepresses mandible when the mouth is opened widely or against resistanceIt is secondary to lateral pterygoidElevates Hyoid bonePosterior belly from the mastoid notch of temporal boneFacial nerveRef: BD Chaurasia; 6th edition; volume 3; Page no: 158; Table no: 11.1 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is supplied by two nerves?
A. Quadriceps
B. Triceps
C. Digastric
D. FDS
| Digastric |
91ea3e9d-8e14-4b87-8cd3-55f32e2811a5 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased thirst * Increased thirst is a feature of mild dehydration.Clinical evaluation of DehydrationA) Mild dehydration# Normal or increased pulse# Decreased urine output# Thirsty# Normal physical findingsB) Moderate dehydration :-# Tachycardia# Little or no urine output# Irritable/lethargic# Sunken eyes and fontanel# Decreased tears# Dry mucous membranes# Mild delay in elasticity (skin turgor)# Delayed capillary refill (1.5 sec)# Cool and paleC) Severe dehydration# Peripheral pulses either rapid and weak or absent# Decreased blood pressure# No urine output# Very sunken eyes and fontanel# No tears# Parched mucous membrane# Delayed elasticity (poor skin turgor)# Very delayed capillary refill (> 3 sec)# Cold and mottled# Limp# Depressed consciousness | Pediatrics | Fluid & Electrolyte | Which of the following is not a sign of severe dehydration?
A. Tachycardia
B. Anuria
C. Increased thirst
D. Delayed capillary refill
| Increased thirst |
b43044c6-6983-452b-b816-644087e563e8 | Ans. A. 2.3LLung Volumes MEN WOMENTotal lung capacity 6.4 L 4.9LFunctional residual capacity 2.2 L 2.6 LResidual volume 1.5 L 1.2 LInspiratory capacity 4.8 L 3.7 LExpiratory reserve volume 3.2 L 2.3 LVital capacity 1.7 L 1.4 L | Physiology | Respiratory System | Normal functional residual capacity is:
A. 2.3L
B. 1.3L
C. 2.9L
D. 4.5L
| 2.3L |
f0dc9589-8296-441b-a50a-7440b1af6dff | Hypergranulosis is seen in Lichen planus whereas Psariosis is characterized by absent granular layer. | Dental | null | Increased thickness of granular layer is found in
A. Psoriasis
B. Lichen planus
C. Ecthyma gangreosum
D. Intertigo
| Lichen planus |
5b8bf408-ce44-4f95-a249-0cde2deed010 | Omenn syndrome consists of a subset of T cell deficiencies that present with early-onset erythroderma, alopecia, hepatosplenomegaly, and failure to thrive. This peculiar syndrome is due to the hypomorphic mutations in genes usually associated with SCID, i.e., RAG-1, RAG-2,. The patients are very fragile, requiring simultaneous anti-infective therapy, nutritional suppo, and immunosuppression. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2701. | Medicine | null | Omenn syndrome represents which of the following immunological condition?
A. Human Leukocyte antigen (HLA) Class II Deficiency
B. HLA Class I Deficiency
C. Purine Metabolism Deficiency
D. Subset of T cell deficiency
| Subset of T cell deficiency |
632d5c1a-6dea-4c63-acff-dd3dfa128778 | Influenza a and b are the segmented viruses which contain 8 segments of nucleic acid. There is gradual sequential change in antigenic structure occurring regularly at frequent intervals which is known as antigenic drift. This antigenic drift is due to mediation and selection so their vaccine strain is changed every year. | Microbiology | NEET 2019 | Which vaccine strain is changed every yearly?
A. Influenza
B. Rabies
C. Hepatitis
D. Ebola
| Influenza |
7f5e0db6-ce9a-4a5f-a18c-7048fb8b7fc2 | LH surge occurs ~ 36 hours before ovulation LH peak occur ~ 12 hours before ovulation & marks the release of Ist polar body. This mature oocyte (ovum) remain ble for feilization for ~ 24 hours. | Anatomy | General Embryology 2 | Average reproductive life span of ovum is
A. 6-12 hrs
B. 12-24 hrs
C. 24-26 hrs
D. 48 hrs
| 12-24 hrs |
51597967-4f38-45ab-b1c9-17364100271f | Laboratory diagnosis of Ascariasis
Parasitic diagnosis:
Demonstration of characteristic Ascaris eggs in the stool: Eggs are passed in large numbers.
Concentration of stool by Salt floatation and Formalin-ether method- light infections
Demonstration of egg in bile (duodenal intubation)
Demonstration of adult worm in stool/ vomitus- after treatment with antihelminthics.
Demonstration of larvae in gastric aspirate, sputum or bronchial aspirates – pulmonary infections
Serodiagnosis- In case extraintestinal Ascarisis
Antibody detection by
Microprecipitation on the larvae
Indirect hemagglutination test
Immunofluorescent antibody test. | Microbiology | null | Specific diagnosis of ascaris is made by -a) Adult worm in stool b) Egg detectionc) Antigen detectiond) Antibody detectione) Skin test
A. acd
B. bcd
C. abc
D. abd
| abd |
7c1f8ab4-3703-4790-9aa1-4c33318bd9f7 | Ans:C i.e. The laryngoscope is lifted upward levering over the upper incisiors. Procedure of Endotracheal Intubation: The correct position is with the lower pa of the cervical spine flexed (by placing a pillow or other suitable pad under the patient's occiput), and the atlanto-occipital joint extended(by tilting the head back) - the so-called "sniffing position". This position aligns the axes of the mouth, pharynx and trachea, and will give the best visualization of the cords during laryngoscopy. In a Straight Blade Laryngoscope,lift the epiglottis with the tip of the blade. | Anaesthesia | null | During laryngoscopy and endo-tracheal intubation which of the maneuver is not performed:
A. Flexion of the neck
B. Extension of Head at the atlanto-occipital joint.
C. The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors.
D. In a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted by the tip.
| The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors. |
da8b6edb-1371-45f9-a30a-f6d30fb671be | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mycoplasma * Dienes method (Dienes staining) - For colonies of mycoplasma.* Dienes phenomenon - To detect swarming of proteus. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Dienes stain is used for-
A. Compylobactor
B. Helicobacter
C. Rickettsiae
D. Mycoplasma
| Mycoplasma |
9ffa3585-53e8-4703-8c31-c7ab1732b83a | Answer-D. 300 mg/dl1+ = 30mg/dl2+ = 100mg/dl3+ = 300mg/dl4+ = 1000mg/dl | Medicine | null | If urine dipstick shows +3, what is the protein level in mg/dl in urine
A. 30 mg/dl
B. 50 mg/dl
C. 100 mg/dl
D. 300 mg/dl
| 300 mg/dl |
c0b1ad2b-a8bb-433c-bddc-b3fa6eea00c2 | Ans is 'a' i.e. Bill's Bar The internal acoustic canal is divided by transverse crest (or falciform crest) into a superior and inferior Part. The superior part is divided by vertical crest or Bill's bar into anterior and posterior parts. Antero-superior part transmits-facial nerve and nervus intermediusPostero-superior part transmits-superior vestibular nerveInferior part transmits-- cochlear nerve lying antero- inferiorly - inferior vestibular nerve postero-inferiorly Bill's bar is used as a surgical landmark for facial nerve identification during Tran's labyrinthine surgery. | Anatomy | Ear | Vertical crest in fundus of the internal auditary canal is k/a:
A. Bill's bar
B. Ponticulus
C. Cog
D. Falciform crest
| Bill's bar |
0886ed8e-c013-4044-bfd4-f77593162063 | Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic disorder due to the deficiency of enzyme Hexosaminidase A. The disease occurs when harmful quantities of cell membrane components known as gangliosides accumulate in the brain&;s nerve cells, eventually leading to the premature death of the cells. symptoms: mental retardation, blindness, muscular weakness.Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal genetic disorder. Mutations in the globin genes that alter the protein composition, mutations leading to qualitative alterations in hemoglobin, the missense mutation in the b-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia.T he mutation causing sickle cell anemia is a single nucleotide substitution (A to T) in the codon for amino acid 6. The change conves a glutamic acid codon (GAG) to a valine codon (GTG). The form of hemoglobin in persons with sickle cell anemia is referred to as HbS.Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited disease that affects the secretory glands, including the mucus and sweat glands. Cystic fibrosis mostly affects the lungs, pancreas, liver, intestines, sinuses, and sex organs. CF is due to a mutation in the CF gene on chromosome 7. The CF gene encodes a protein known as the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR). The abnormal CFTR protein in patients with CF leads to disruption of chloride channels on the cells.Wilson&;s disease is a genetic disorder in which copper builds up in the body. Wilson&;s disease is an autosomal recessive condition due to a mutation in the Wilson disease protein (ATP7B) gene. For a person to be affected they must inherit an affected copy of the gene from each parent.Ref: Harper&;s biochemistry, 30th edition, page: 251 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Enzyme deficiency seen in genetic diseases like
A. Tay sach's disease
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. Wilson's disease
| Tay sach's disease |
82a88196-096d-4722-afeb-b1da3db8f372 | verapamil is the only class 4 anti arrhythmic drug Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1342 | Medicine | C.V.S | Verapamil belong to which class of antiarry thmic
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
| Class IV |
9692bd12-7699-4ba3-bc9a-38b870c233f9 | Axillary aery is divided into 3 pas by pectoralis minor muscle. Axillary aery extends from the outer border of the first rib to inferior border of teres major muscle where it becomes the brachial aery. Branches of the axillary aery: First pa: Superior thoracic aery Second pa: Thoracoacromial aery Lateral thoracic aery Third pa: Subscapular aery Anterior humeral circumflex aery Posterior humeral circumflex aery | Anatomy | null | Axillary aery is divided into 3 pas. Which of the following muscle divides axillary aery into 3 pas?
A. Teres major
B. Teres minor
C. Pectoralis major
D. Pectoralis minor
| Pectoralis minor |
68cc4c08-30b3-44d6-b9d4-19456d37af2a | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 454 – 455)
Commonly used topicalocular NSAIDS
Ketorolac
Flurbiprofen
Diclofenac sodium | Unknown | null | NSAID used commonly for topical ocular use is-
A. Ibuprofen
B. Aceclofenac
C. Ketorolac
D. Acetaminophen
| Ketorolac |
fa3716e6-c82c-4864-b150-696e274d9215 | APOPROTEIN -PROTEIN PRESENT IN LIPOPROTEIN Lipoprotein Protein Chylomicron APO B48 Chylomicron remnant APO B48 + APO E VLDL APO B100 IDL APO B100 + APO E LDL APO B 100 + APO E HDL APO A, C, E | Biochemistry | FMGE 2018 | Apoprotein for chylomicron remnant:-
A. Apo E
B. Apo C1
C. Apo A2
D. Apo A1
| Apo E |
fdfd508f-555b-4591-a257-8a60bea7a841 | The anterior cerebral aery perfuses the paracentral lobule, which represents the motor and sensory areas of the leg and foot areas. | Anatomy | Brainstem lesions and blood supply of CNS | A 50-year-old hypeensive woman complains of numbness and weakness in her left leg and foot. Which of the following aeries occlusion can account for this complaint?
A. Anterior cerebral
B. Anterior choroidal
C. Interior carotid
D. Middle cerebral
| Anterior cerebral |
1b3faa75-5c97-4a97-bb4d-ff27e7118f0d | HPV is the primary cause of cervical carinoma High risk strains: 16, 18, 33, 35, 48 Type 16 is highly oncogenic causing invasive cancer, CIN 1 and 2 Reference : Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; Pg no: 297 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological oncology | Most common agent responsible for Carcinoma Cervix is :
A. HPV 16
B. HPV 18
C. HPV 31
D. HPV 35
| HPV 16 |
5aaf8741-70ec-480d-a943-140da581d0dc | Ionising radiation is applied to radiation which has the ability to penetrate tissues and deposit its snergy within them.Includes - electro magnetic radiations(X rays ,gamma rays,) -corpuscular radiations (alpha paicles,beta paicles and protons) Non ionising radiation refers to electromagnetic radiations of wavelength longer than ionising.Include UV rays,visible light, IR rays,microwavecradiation. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.page no:744 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Which one of the following is not an ionizing radiation?
A. Infrared radiation
B. X-rays
C. Gamma rays
D. Consmic rays
| Infrared radiation |
e17a299c-898c-412a-b187-a58a93f5e6d5 | Hypouricemia- Hypouricemia and increased excretion of hypoxanthine and xanthine are associated with xanthine oxidase deficiency.Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome- The Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, an overproduction hyperuricemia characterized by frequent episodes of uric acid lithiasis and a bizarre syndrome of selfmutilation reflects a defect in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase, an enzyme of purine salvage.Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency- Adenosine deaminase deficiency is associated with an immunodeficiency disease in which both thymus-derived lymphocytes (T cells) and bone marrow-derived lymphocytes (B cells) are sparse and dysfunctional. Patients suffer from severe immunodeficiency.Purine Nucleoside Phosphorylase Deficiency- Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency is associated with a severe deficiency of T cells but apparently normal B cell function | Biochemistry | null | A patient with increased Hypoxanthine and Xanthine in blood with hypouricemia which enzyme is deficient?
A. HGPase
B. Xanthine oxidase
C. Adenosine deaminase
D. APRtase
| Xanthine oxidase |
0dde2fed-952e-43de-a2a9-ee717ea23332 | Lichen planus is an inflammatory T cell mediated autoimmune disorder affecting skin, hair, nails and mucous membranes. Lichen planus triggers T cell mediated autoimmune damage to basal keratinocytes that manifest as altered self antigens on their surface. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1256 | Dental | Anatomy of skin | Basal cell degeneration seen in -
A. Lichen Planus
B. Psoriasis
C. pemphigus
D. Pemphigoid
| Lichen Planus |
efbe529f-62cb-4031-9608-c80cd58fcc15 | C i.e. Conjugation with betaglucuronic acid- Phase I biotransformation reactions include Hydrolysis, Hydroxylation, Reduction, Oxidation, Oxidative Deamination, Dealkaylation and Epioxidation. Mn "High RODE". Whereas phase II reactions include Glucronidation, Sulfation, Conjugation (with glucronic acid, glutathione, sulfate or aminoacids), Acetylation and Methylation. Mn "5G-SCAM".Cytochrome p450 monoxygenase is the main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics (phase I hydroxylation reaction)Q.Bilirubin is metabolized like xenobiotics; it is conjugated with beta glucronic acid in hepatocytes to conve a nonpolar hydrophobic bilirubin to a polar hydrophilic one which is readily excreted in bileQ. | Biochemistry | null | Bile salts undergo xenobiotics:
A. After conjugation with taurine and glycine
B. After conjugation with lysine
C. After conjugation with betaglucuronic acid
D. After conjugation with derived proteins
| After conjugation with betaglucuronic acid |
def674ba-077c-4d02-9863-fb4ef7d8998c | Ans. a. Calcium carbonateRef: Parks Text book of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th Ed; Page No-763Hardness is defined as soap destroying power of water.Hardness is mainly due to 4 dissolved compounds:Calcium bicarbonateCalcium sulfateMagnesium bicarbonateMagnesium sulfateOther compounds responsible for hardness are chlorides and nitrates of calcium and magnesium and iron, manganese, aluminium compounds to a small extent.There are 2 types of hardness:Temporary hardness: Due to carbonates of Ca and MgPermanent hardness: Due to sulphate, chloride and nitrates of Ca and Mg | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | Which of the following do not cause hardness of water?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium sulfate
C. Calcium bicarbonate
D. Magnesium bicarbonate
| Calcium carbonate |
208c5211-1866-4a53-af2b-c3146bc0b99c | Although in a case of iridocyclitis, patient's eye is erythematous and cells are present in the anterior chamber, antibiotics are not indicated. The goals of pharmacotherapy are to reduce pain and inflammation through the use of cycloplegics and coicosteroids. To immobilize the iris and decrease pain, one may find tropane alkaloids effective, paicularly scopolamine and atropine. Atropine is the most impoant topical drug of choice for the management of a case of acute iridocyclitis. Topical steroids may be used to decrease inflammation, paicularly prednisolone and dexamethasone. | Ophthalmology | null | Which among the following is the drug of choice for iridocyclitis?
A. Atropine
B. Steroid
C. Pilocarpine
D. Timolol
| Atropine |
ea2d0a08-5f7f-479b-9138-ea6f2db14a7c | Benign prostatic hyperplasia arises from submucosal glands of periurethral transitional zone with stromal proliferation and adenosis forming a nodular enlargement. It eventually compresses the peripheral zone glands into a false capsule and causes the appearance of typical 'lateral' lobes. Reference : page1345 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 25th edition | Surgery | Urology | Benign prostatic hyperplasia first develops in the
A. Periurethral transition zone
B. Peripheral zone
C. Central zone
D. Anterior fibromuscular stroma
| Periurethral transition zone |
1511d0bd-3573-4309-b1ff-b7405f560fb3 | Curve A - increased in Emphysema Curve B - normal Curve C--> decreased in pulmonary fibrosis | Medicine | Interstitial Lung Disease | Curve A signifies which of the following?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Atelectasis
C. Emphysema
D. ARDS
| Emphysema |
11f74298-8fb8-427a-aac5-26621c9b8429 | Pyrexia of unknown origin is definedvas a temperature persistently above 38 degree celsius for more than 3 weeks,without diagnosis despite initial investigations during 3 days of inpatient care or after more than two outpatient visits. Specific organisms associated with PUP are tuberculosis( extrapulmonary - most common cause), HIV-1 infection,other viral infections (cytomegalovirus,EBV), fungal infections (Aspergillus spp.,candida spp., dimorphic fungi), infections with fastidious organisms(Baonella spp., Tropheryma whipplei). Reference Harrison20th edition pg 1232 | Medicine | Infection | The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is -
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Brucella spp
D. Salmonella paratyphi A
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
d935ead8-b913-4e1e-b282-268d98d3e18e | In boys, first visible sign of puberty and hallmark of SMR2 is testicular enlargement, beginning as early as 9½ years. This is followed by penile growth during SMR3. Peak growth occurs when testis volumes reach approximately 9-10 cm3 during SMR4. Under the influence of LH and testosterone, and prostate enlarge. The left testis normally is lower than the right. Some degree of breast hypertrophy, typically bilateral, occurs in 40-65% of boys during SMR2-3 due to a relative excess of estrogenic stimulation
In girls, the first visible sign of puberty and the hallmark of SMR2 is the appearance of breast buds, between 8 and 12 years of age. Menses typically begins 2-2½ years later, during SMR3-4 (median age, 12 years; normal range, 9-16 years), around the peak height velocity. Less obvious changes include enlargement of the ovaries, uterus, labia, and clitoris, and thickening of the endometrium and vaginal mucosa | Unknown | null | The Earliest sign of male puberty is :
A. Pubic hair
B. Axillary hair
C. Hoarseness of voice
D. Testicular enlargement
| Testicular enlargement |
58223b39-75dd-434f-86f6-370c765eb15a | Unclaimed bodies to be used for anatomical examination.-- (1) Where a person under treatment in a hospital whether established by or vesting in, or maintained by, the Government or any local authority, dies in such hospital and his body is unclaimed, the authorities incharge of such hospital shall, with the least practicable delay repo the fact to the authorised officer and such officer shall then hand over the unclaimed body to the authorities in charge of an approved institution for the purpose of conducting (2) Where a person dies at a hospital other than a hospital referred to in subsection (1) or in a prison and his body is unclaimed, the authorities incharge of such hospital or prison shall, with the least practicable delay, repo the fact to the authorised officer; and the said officer shall hand over the unclaimed body to the authorities in charge of an approved institution for the purpose specified in sub-section (1). Ref: Indiacode.nic.in | Forensic Medicine | Miscellaneous | According to "Delhi Anatomy Act 1957", a person died in a road traffic accident, the body can be said to be unclaimed after.
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
| 96 hours |
dc54425c-264f-47e3-a0df-b015b51aa525 | In red blood cells, the pentose phosphate pathway is the sole source of NADPH for the reduction of oxidized glutathione. Reduced glutathione removes H2O2 in a reaction catalyzed by glutathione peroxidase, an enzyme that contains the selenium analog of cysteine (selenocysteine) at the active site. The reaction is impoant since accumulation of H2O2 may decrease the lifespan of the erythrocyte by causing oxidative damage to the cell membrane, leading to hemolysis. Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 21. The Pentose Phosphate Pathway & Other Pathways of Hexose Metabolism. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | Glutathione peroxidase which protect erythrocytes against hemolysis contain the following element:
A. Chromium
B. Manganese
C. Zinc
D. Selenium
| Selenium |
e0248427-4241-4407-a494-b325afb804d0 | Dobutamine acts on beta 1 and beta2 receptors the hea contains beta1 receptors by stimulating beta1 receptors, dobutamine is producing stress-used for a stress echocardiogram An (echo) is a test used to assess the hea's function and structures. A stress echocardiogram is a test done to assess how well the hea works under stress. The "stress" can be triggered by either exercise on a treadmill or a medicine called dobutamine. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Which of the following drug is used to perform stress echo?
A. Noradrenaline
B. Adenosine
C. Adrenaline
D. Dobutamine
| Dobutamine |
aa793140-3b4f-4524-8bb1-48e8020986e7 | Acantholysis occurs in → epidermis
Acantholysis is due to destruction of → Intercellular substance containg desmoglein. | Dental | null | Acantholysis is due to destruction of –
A. Epidermis
B. Subepidermis
C. Basement membrane
D. Intercellular substance
| Intercellular substance |
64c10a60-df89-4757-9fc8-22a9be167b8f | Ans. a. Enalapril (Ref: Williams Obstertrics 24/e p1006; Goodman and Gilman 12/e p736; Dutta 7/e p228; Katzung 12/e p299)Enatapril is the antihypertensive drug, which is not used in pregnancy."Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors: These drugs inhibit the conversion of angiotensin-I to the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin-II. They- can cause severe fetal malformations when given in the second and third trimesters.These include hypocalvaria and renal dysfunction. Some preliminary studies have also suggested teratogenic effects, and because of this, they- are not recommended during pregnancy. Angiotensin-receptor blockers act in a similar manner. Bur. instead of blocking the production of angiotensin-II, they inhibit binding to its receptor. They are presumed to have the same fetal effects as ACE inhibitors and thus are also contraindicated. "--Williams Obstetrics 24/e p1006"ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin-I to the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin-II. They can cause severe fetal malformations that include hvpocalvaria when given in the second and third trimesters. Because of this, they are not recommended during pregnancy. Angiotensin-receptor blockers act in a similar manner, but instead of blocking the production of angiotensin-II, they inhibit binding to its receptor. They are presumed to have the same fetal effects as ACE inhibitors and are also contraindicated. "--Goodman and Gilman 12/e p736"ACE inhibitors not only block the conversion of ANG I to ANG II but also inhibit the degradation of other substances, including bradykinin, substance P, and enkephalins. The action of ACE inhibitors to inhibit bradykinin metabolism contributes significantly to their hypotensive action and is apparently responsible for some adverse side effects, including cough and angioedema. These drugs are contraindicated in pregnancy because they cause fetal kidney damage. " --Katzung 12/e p299Antihypertensives to be avoided in Pregnancy (Mnemonic: SAAND)Sodium nitroprussideQACE inhibitorsQARBsQNon-selective beta blockersQDiureticsQ | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Management and Long-Term Consequences | Which of the following antihypertensive drug is not used in pregnancy?(AIIMS May 2015, 2014)
A. Enalapril
B. Labetalol
C. Nifedipine
D. Hydralazine
| Enalapril |
09e96b89-6a4f-4bd5-a10a-f3591177249a | Corrosive injuries of the esophagus most frequently occur in young children due to accidental ingestion of strong alkaline cleaning agents. Significant esophageal injury occurs in 15% of patients with no oropharyngeal injury, while 70% of patients with oropharyngeal injury have no esophageal damage. Signs of airway injury or imminent obstruction warrant close observation and possibly tracheostomy. The risk of adding injury, particularly in a child, makes esophagoscopy contraindicated in the opinion of most surgeons. Administration of oral "antidotes" is ineffective unless given within moments of ingestion; even then, the additional damage potentially caused by the chemical reactions of neutralization often makes use of them unwise. A barium esophagogram is usually done within 24 h unless evidence of perforation is present. In most reports, steroids in conjunction with antibiotics reduce the incidence of formation of strictures from about 70% to about 15%. Vomiting should be avoided, if possible, to prevent further corrosive injury and possible aspiration. It is probably wise to avoid all oral intake until the full extent of injury is ascertained.The most helpful ECG finding is the presence of a new right bundle branch block, which occurs because of damage to the anterior portion of the interventricular septum; ST-segment and T-wave changes and even the development of new Q waves may be seen. CPK-MB fractions are useful if they are positive; however, frequent false negatives may be seen because of the release of CPK-MM from other contused organs, such as the pectoralis muscles, which can dilute the cardiac CPK-MB to nondiagnostic levels. Echocardiography may be helpful, but the right ventricle is often poorly visualized. Radionuclide angiography is most useful because it suggests the degree of myocardial impairment caused by decreased compliance.Therapy of myocardial contusion is directed at inotropic support of the ventricle; usually, the coronary arteries are intact after the injury and so there is little role for coronary vasodilators and less for coronary artery bypass grafting. | Surgery | Heart & Pericardium | A 4-year-old boy is seen 1 h after ingestion of a lye drain cleaner. No oropharyngeal burns are noted, but the patient's voice is hoarse. Chest x-ray is normal. Of the following, which is the most appropriate therapy?
A. Immediate esophagoscopy
B. Parenteral steroids and antibiotics
C. Administration of an oral neutralizing agent
D. Induction of vomiting
| Parenteral steroids and antibiotics |
a602db65-4860-4bd6-afa2-1f90b75b431a | "Percutaneous fine-needle aspiration of chromaffin tumors is contraindicated; indeed, pheochromocytoma should be considered before adrenal lesions are aspirated."
"Catastrophic hypertensive crisis and fatal cardiac arrhythmias can occur spontaneously or may be triggered by intravenous contrast dye or glucagon injection, needle biopsy of the mass, anesthesia, and surgical procedures." | Radiology | null | The diagnostic procedure not done in case of pheochromocytoma –
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. FNAC
D. MIBG scan
| FNAC |
f10ba407-29f8-42da-9c64-4752d464abc6 | temperment is a genitically related body biases in the modulation of conditioned behavioral responses to various external stimuli. there are 4 types of temperment namely novelty seeking reward dependence harm avoidance persistence this is a impoant question that is asked in entrance examinations Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg.no.744 | Psychiatry | Symptoms and signs in psychiatry and classification | which of the following is a temperment type
A. novelty seeking
B. histirionic
C. anakastic
D. narcisstic
| novelty seeking |
6202a9a2-9169-405d-9a15-4640ac3544bb | A chiasmatic lesion (often owing to a pituitary tumor or a lesion around the sella turcica) can injure the decussating axons of retinal ganglion cells within the optic chiasm. These axons originate in the nasal halves of the two retinas. Thus, this type of lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia, characterized by blindness in the lateral or temporal half of the visual field for each eye. Ref: Waxman S.G. (2010). Chapter 15. The Visual System. In S.G. Waxman (Ed), Clinical Neuroanatomy, 26e. | Ophthalmology | null | Visual field defect in pituitary tumour with suprasellar extension is:
A. Visual field defect in pituitary tumour with suprasellar extension is:
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Homonymous hemianopia
D. Pie in the sky vision
| Visual field defect in pituitary tumour with suprasellar extension is: |
adc15f1a-58d8-4a9e-b600-280e1f174a05 | Ans. (b) Cavernuos hemangiomaRef: Kanski's 7/e, p. 105* Cavernous hemangioma is the most common benign, intraconal tumour in adults.* Presents with slowly progressive unilateral proptosis* CT - well circumscribed oval lesion, encapsulated | Ophthalmology | Orbit | A tumor has the following characteristics - retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis, easily resectable, occurs most commonly in the 2nd to 4th decade. Most likely diagnosis is -
A. Capillary hemangioma
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. Lymhangioma
D. Hemangiopericytoma
| Cavernous hemangioma |
15daca23-72a0-4a00-bd7e-6d7b34592f7b | <p> The Indian version of IMCI has been renamed as IMNCI. One of the major highlight is inclusion of 0-7 days age in the program. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:460. <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health programmes in India | Differences between IMNCI and IMCI include the following -
A. Identification and classification of common illnesses like malaria, diarrhoea, malnutrition
B. Incorporated guidelines on immunization
C. Training time devoted to sick young infant is more than for a child
D. IMNCI includes 0-7 days age programme
| IMNCI includes 0-7 days age programme |
a36b3478-8cad-43e2-8d03-3c48f95b5469 | Answer is D (Neutropenic Colitis) Acute Right sided lower quadrant pain following chemotherapy in an immunocompromised host in characteristic of Neutropenic colitis. Tvphilitis : Syn : Neutropenic colitis, Necrotizing colitis, Necrotizing enteropathy, ileocoecal syndrome or cecitis. This syndrome is classically seen in neutropenic patients after chemotherapy with cytotoxic drugs More common in children than adults More common in patients with AML/ALL than among those with other types of cancer. Clinically characterized by - Fever - Right lower quadrant pain and tenderness (Most characteristic) Associated bloody diarrhea (+-) Immunocompromised blood picture Confirmed on CT/USG Finding a thickened coecal wall. | Medicine | null | A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis?
A. Appendictis
B. Leukemic colitis
C. Perforation peritonitis
D. Neutropenic colitis
| Neutropenic colitis |
13eb3fa8-bc1a-4867-9b5f-1358f9265c36 | Triple helix formation occurs in endoplasmic reticulum at procollagen level.
Triple helix of procollagen is packed into secretory intracellular vesicles in the Golgi-apparatus.
These vesicles then secrete the procollagen into extracellular space where it is converted to tropocollagen (collagen monomer).
Tropocollagens aggregate into collagen fibrils which intern become extensively cross-linked to form 'collagen fibers'. | Biochemistry | null | The collagen triple helix structure is not found in -
A. Cytoplasm
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum
D. Intracellular vesicles
| Cytoplasm |
c4897870-8be9-4870-8339-26c065e9294e | Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP): ASCITES Children - MCC is Nephrotic syndrome Due to bacterial translocation M/C organism responsible Adults: E. coli Children: Group A streptococci | Surgery | Peritoneum | A 10 years old boy, suffering from nephrotic syndrome developed peritonitis. Which of the following organism is most commonly responsible?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Group A streptococci
D. Bacteroides fragilis
| Group A streptococci |
108b4765-9c79-43e9-b9bf-5b54351a471f | Don’t get confused by size and number.
Just look for largest and smallest value.
Largest value = 75
Smallest value = 60
Range = 75 - 60 =15 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Calculate the range from the following distribution –
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
| 15 |
29380deb-8d7c-4c99-8e92-9ec38aa87e1f | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Patey's with adjuvant chemotherapy | Surgery | null | 40 years old female with a 2 cms nodule in the breast & a proved metastatic node in the axilla, treatment is?
A. Quadrantectomy
B. Mastectomy with local radiotherapy
C. Patey's with adjuvant chemotherapy
D. Halstedt's operation with tamoxifenFibroadenosis
| Patey's with adjuvant chemotherapy |
d4366622-7dc7-488a-9785-00572dc69a1d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Class V KIDNEY INVOLVEMENT IN SLE (LUPUS NEPHRITIS) A. Glomerular disease T1. here are several versions of WHO classification of lupus nephritis ? Minimal or no detectable abnormalities (class 1) It occurs in less than 5% of patients. Has best prognosis. 2. Mesangial lupus glomerulonephritis (class II) Focal proliferative glomerulonephritis (class III) Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (class IV) Membranous glomerulonephritis (class V) B. Tubulointerstitial disease Though glomeruli are involved primarily in lupus nephritis, interstitium and tubules can also be involved especially in association with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. Granular deposition of immunoglobulin and complement in tubular basement membrane are seen. Anti-DNA antibodies is usually associated with active lupus nephritis Also know Nephritis is the most serious manifestation of SLE. Most common cause of death is renal failure due to nephritis. | Pathology | null | According to WHO, membranous glomerulonephritis seen in SLE, is ?
A. Class II
B. Class III
C. Class IV
D. Class V
| Class V |
aa5714a4-20eb-42ac-a4b9-48551ecb7134 | Growth hormone, Testosterone, aldosterone will decrease with aging, but prolactin level increases with aging. Ref:Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 575 | Medicine | null | Majority of the hormone levels will decrease with aging. Which of the following hormone does NOT obey this rule?
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin
C. Testosterone
D. Aldosterone
| Prolactin |
c8e6c557-4695-4d31-b60d-0ab19081c647 | Digoxin is primarily excreted unchanged by the kidney, mainly by glomerular filtration. Rate of excretion is altered parallel to creatinine clearance. Its t½ is prolonged in elderly patients and in those with renal insufficiency: dose has to be reduced.
Digoxin is a cumulative drug. When maintenance doses are given from the beginning, steady state levels and full therapeutic effect are attained after 4 x t½, i.e. 6-7 days.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 560 | Pharmacology | null | Digoxin can accumulate to toxic levels in patients with:
A. Renal insufficiency
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Advanced cirrhosis
D. Chronic pancreatitis
| Renal insufficiency |
18692390-0771-4904-84e1-86e063f895c0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Topical decongestants Rhinitis medicamentosa Caused by excessive use of topical decongestant nasal drops. It is treated by withdrawal of nasal drops, sho course of systemic steroid therapy and in some cases surgical reduction of turbinates, if they have become hyperophied. | ENT | null | Rhinitis medicamentosa is caused by excessive use of ?
A. Topical decongestants
B. Topical steroids
C. Systemic decongestants
D. Systemic steroids
| Topical decongestants |
101ee2a3-3b90-43f7-a86b-b6de3f99ee2d | Hodgkin lymphoma
The term "Hodgkin lymphoma" encompasses a group of lymphoid neoplasm that is characterized by the presence of distinctive neoplastic giant cells called Reed-Sternberg cells.
Reed-sternberg cells induce the accumulation of reactive lymphocytes, histiocytes (macrophages), and granulocytes.
The WHO classification recognizes five subtypes of Hodgkin lymphoma : -
Nodular sclerosis
Mixed cellularity
Lymphocyte rich
Lymphocytic depletion
Lymphocytic predominance | Pathology | null | The type of Hodgkin's lymphoma include -a) Nodular sclerosisb) Lymphocyte depletionc) Mixed cellularityd) Mantle cell lymphomae) Lymphoplasmacytic
A. ab
B. abc
C. acd
D. bcd
| abc |
31dc9921-1eee-4d72-adba-34d3e10f08e4 | Muscle Invasive tumor nearly always solid. | Surgery | null | Most malignant carcinoma of the bladder is -
A. Malignant vinous tumour
B. Solid tumour
C. Carcinomatous ulcer
D. Adenocarcinoma
| Solid tumour |
3bec7da6-b38e-4252-a948-10060f973331 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Prognosis [Ref: Park 20/e, p 282 (19/ep271, 18/e p258)JLepromin test is not a diagnostic test, as it may give positive result in normal subjects and negative results in lepromatous and near-lepromatous cases.Uses of Lepromin testto evaluate the immune status (cell mediated immunity) of leprosy patientsin classifying the diseaseto estimate the prognosis of leprosy patients (Lepromin test is usually strongly positive in the typical tuberculoid cases and the positivity getting weaker as one passes through the spectrum to the lepromatous end. The typical lepromatous cases are lepromin negative, indicating a failure of CMI. The lepromin negative individuals are at a higher risk of developing progressive multibacillary leprosy, but those who are lepromin positive, either escape the clinical disease or develop paucibacillary disease)Procedure and InferenceThis test is performed by injecting intradermally 0.1 ml of lepromin into the inner aspect of the forearm. Reaction is read at 48 hrs and 21 days.Two types of positive reactions have been described.Early Reaction or Fernandez reactionthis appears as an area of redness and induration at the site of inoculationit develops within 24 to 48 hrs and disappears after 3 to 4 days.the reading is taken at 48 hrs, and if the area of redness is more than 10 mm, the test is considered positive.the early reaction has been described as delayed hypersensitivity reaction to "soluble" constituents of the leprosy bacilli.Late Reaction or Mitsuda reactionthis reaction develops late, becoming apparent in 7-10 days following the infection and reaches peak in 3 or 4 weeks. A nodule develops at the site of inoculation.the reading is taken at 21 days and if the nodule is more than 5 mm in diameter, the reaction is said to be positive.the late reaction is induced by the bacillary component of the antigen. It indicates cell mediated immunity.The early positive reaction indicates whether or not a person has been previously sensitized by exposure to an infection by leprosy bacilli. It is thus more superior to late reaction.The early reaction corresponds to the Mantoux reaction in tuberculosis.Also Know:In the first 6 months of life, most children are lepromin negative; gradually with increasing age more and more persons become positive.BCG vaccination can convert lepra reactions from negative to positive in large no. of individuals. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | In patients of leprosy, Lepromin test is used for:
A. Treatment
B. Prognosis
C. Diagnosis
D. Epidemiological investigations
| Prognosis |
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