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eed4da6f-60fb-4123-b5a4-404dea2f39ed | Pancreas is derived from foregut. Liver and pancreas are present at the junction of foregut and midgut. Oesophagus,stomach,liver,pancreas and duodenum are derived from endoderm of foregut. | Anatomy | Mesentry, neurovascular bundle | Pancreas is derived from
A. Foregut
B. Midgut
C. Hindgut
D. Notochord
| Foregut |
ab46b4f9-a712-43f5-ba00-605037b33c79 | Ans: B (Nasopharynx) Ref: Grays Anatomy 40th EdExplanation:Middle ear cavityAnterior wall - Upper canal for tensor tympan muscle & lower canal for auditory tube which communicates to the nasopharynxPosterior wall communicates the mastoid antrum through aditusLateral wall seperates the middle ear from external earMedial wall separates the middle ear from internal ear | Anatomy | Ear | Middle ear cavity is connected anteriorly to:
A. Nasal cavity
B. Nasopharynx
C. Mastoid antrum
D. Mastoid air cells
| Nasopharynx |
495465a2-3170-4e69-9cde-88c38972a4a6 | Superior pulmonary vein is the anterior most and inferior pulmonary vein is the inferior most structures of both lung hiliumQ.Upper most structure of hilum (root) of lung is pulmonary aery (left side)Q and epaerial (superior lobar) bronchus (on right side) Q. | Anatomy | null | Inferior most structure of right hilium is
A. Bronchus
B. Inferior pulmonary vein
C. Pulmonary aery
D. Inferior bronchial vein
| Inferior pulmonary vein |
3834a01e-a480-413d-b6fe-eb71a36ab6cf | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vitamin K o Exclusive breasfed infants may have folfowine deficiencies -i) Vit Bl2 (if mother is strict vegetarian)ii) Vit Diii) Fluorideiv) Vit K"Breastfed infants are protected as the breastmilk contains adequate amounts of vitamin C, except when the mother is deficient in Vitamin C".-- O. P. Ghai 127 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Pediatrics | Breast milk is deficient in w hich vitamin -
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin K
D. VitaminC
| Vitamin K |
64fa7717-5c4b-4272-8acc-ddcb0a79c86e | (A) Erythropoietic porphyria # Carbamazepine (CBZ) is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug used primarily in the treatment of epilepsy and bipolar disorder, as well as trigeminal neuralgia. It is also used off-label for a variety of indications, including attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), schizophrenia, phantom limb syndrome, complex regional pain syndrome, paroxysmal extreme pain disorder, neuromyotonia, intermittent explosive disorder, borderline personality disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. The used of Carbamazepine should be avoided in patients with a history of hepatic porphyria (e.g., acute intermittent porphyria, variegate porphyria, porphyria cutanea tarda). Acute attacks have been reported in such patients receiving Carbamazepine therapy. Carbamazepine administration has ... been demonstrated to increase porphyrin precursors in rodents, a presumed mechanism for the induction of acute attacks of porphyria. | Pharmacology | Miscellaneous (Pharmacology) | Carbamazepine increase medical, neurological and psychiatric symptoms, when used in
A. Erythropoietic porphyria
B. Epilepsy
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
| Erythropoietic porphyria |
294b5940-a2e9-443b-882c-c0030685412e | Physiological antagonism describes the behavior of a substance that produces effects counteracting those of another substance (a result similar to that produced by an antagonist blocking the action of an agonist at the same receptor) using a mechanism that does not involve binding to the same receptor. Prostacyclin (PGI(2)) is a potent endogenous inhibitor of platelet function and possesses a strong vasodilator effect. Fuhermore, prostacyclin is currently presented as the physiologic antagonist of thromboxane Ref-KDT 7/e p58 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following drug is an example of psychological antagonism
A. Heparin-protamine
B. Prostacycline-thromboxane
C. Adrenaline-phenoxybenzamine
D. Physostigmine-acetylcholine
| Prostacycline-thromboxane |
699ed850-9112-4dff-8920-873f4bdd86ed | Vitamin K has an impoant role in the blood clotting process. It brings about the posttranslational modification of ceain blood clotting factors clotting factor II (prothrombin), factor VII (SPCA) factor IX (Christmas factor) factor X (Stua prower factor) Vitamin K is required for the post-translational carboxylation of glutamic acid (Gamma Carboxylation), which is necessary for calcium binding to g carboxylated proteins clotting factors are synthesized as inactive precursors (zymogens) in the liver ref DM Vasudevan 8th ed page 462 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Post-translational modification of clotting factors requires
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
| Vitamin K |
179884a7-678c-4035-9bb8-5888ac323de2 | Ref: Goodman 3 Gill man. The pharmacological basis of therapeutics, 12'" edition, Pg No. 440 Basic and clinical Pharmacology by Betram Katzitng, 12th edition Pg No 508Explanation:Phenothiazines are classified into three groups: a. Aliphatic derivatives- Chlorpromazine h. Piperedine derivative- Thioradazine c. Piperazine derivative- Trifluoperazine, Perphenazine, fluphenazineAmong the above three, a & b are less potent and having more affinity for alpha 1 receptor and hence can cause more hypotensionPiperazine is pore potent typical and less affinity for alpha I receptor, hence less hypotensionButerophenones are the potent typical antipsychotic (haioperidol) having highest Extrapyramidal effects | Pharmacology | Adverse Drug Effect | Which antipsychotic has maximum hypotensive side effect?
A. Flufenazine
B. Trifluoperazine
C. Thioridazine
D. Haioperidol.
| Thioridazine |
b8e31a5c-b20e-4895-bc84-4b028b15c9ee | Acidophilic cell: Lactotrophs (10-30%) and Somatotrophs (50%).
Basophilic cell: Gonadotrophs (20%), Corticotrophs (10%) and Thyrotrophs (5%).
Somatotrophs – human growth hormone (hGH). Corticotropes – adrenocorticotropin (ACTH).
Thyrotrophs– thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
Gonadotrophs – gonadotropic hormones, which include both luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormones (FSH).
Lactotrophs – prolactin (PRL).
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 940 | Physiology | null | Acidophils secrete:
A. GH
B. TSH
C. ACTH
D. FSH
| GH |
c26b3600-12a0-4cb6-9392-dff4ae766c59 | Low glucose is seen in option rheumatoid ahritis, empyema, and malignancy. Hemorrhagic pleural effusion is seen in Trauma, Tumor and TB. Dressler's syndrome is a type of pericarditis, inflammation of the sac surrounding the hea (pericardium). Inflammation associated with Dressler's syndrome is believed to be an immune system response following damage to hea tissue or the pericardium, such as a hea attack, surgery or traumatic injury. | Medicine | null | Which of the following doesn't show pleural effusion with low glucose levels?
A. Rheumatoid ahritis
B. Empyema
C. Dressler's syndrome
D. Malignancy
| Dressler's syndrome |
4be9545b-634c-4ef5-af49-62c0d4035283 | WHO Operational protocol for diptheria contacts - Assess diphtheria toxoid vaccination status of exposed close contacts. Vaccinate according to WHO strategy (which prioritizes children's vaccination). Type:Pentavalent (for 6 wks to 6 yrs) or Td (for 7 yrs and above). Number of doses:- Only one dose if documentary evidence of having completed primary vaccination schedule is available. Three doses:at least 4 weeks interval between each dose Administer antibiotics for prophylaxis. Choose one of the following antibiotics for prevention: IM benzathine penicillin: a single dose For children aged <= 5 years: administer 6 00 000 units For those > 5 years: administer 12 00 000 units Oral erythromycin For children: 40 mg/kg/day, administered in divided dose, 10 mg per dose, every 6 hours For adults: 1 g/day for adults, administered in divided dose, 250 mg per dose every 6 hours Treat for total 7 days Oral Azithromycin Children: 10-12 mg/kg once daily, to a max of 500mg/day. Treat for total 7 days Adults: 500mg once daily. Treat for total 7 days. | Pediatrics | NEET Jan 2020 | A 5yr old unimmunized child developed Diphtheria. He has a 3yr old immunised sibling contact, who received last booster 18 months back. What to do with the contact?
A. Two doses of polysaccharide vaccine
B. Three doses of conjugate vaccine
C. Sigle dose of toxoid vaccine
D. No vaccine needed
| No vaccine needed |
c51aa3c7-5813-493e-b230-9047dd2bc181 | Thiamine deficiency is diagnosed by an increase in erythrocyte transketolase activity observed upon addition of thiamine pyrophosphate. The activation of apo-transketolase (the enzyme protein) in erythrocyte lysate by thiamine diphosphate added in vitro has become the accepted index of thiamine nutritional status. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th Edition, Pages 488-489 ; Lippincott Biochemistry, 2nd Edition, Page 322 ; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Page 269 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is the best method for monitoring thiamine level in blood?
A. G6PD activity
B. Reticulocytosis
C. Absolute thiamine level in blood
D. Transketolase level in blood
| Transketolase level in blood |
7ada0a34-80ce-4f83-b501-431595ce63c7 | Ans. is b i.e. 35 cc Normal Menstrual Cycle : Average amount of blood loss = 35 ml / cycledeg Normal duration of flow < 7 daysdeg Mean duration = 4.7 daysdeg Cycle length = 21 - 35 daysdeg Abnormal menses terminology Term Interval Duration Amount Menorrhagia Regular Prolonged Excessive Metrorrhagia Irregular Prolonged Normal Menometrorrhagia Irregular Prolonged Excessive Hypermenorrhea Regular Normal Excessive Hypomenorrhea Regular Normal or less Less Oligomenorrhea Infrequent or irregular Variable Scanty Amenorrhea Absent No menses for 90 days Absent Also know : Recurrent bleeding in excess of 80 ml/cycle causes anemia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The amount of blood loss during each menstrual period is about :
A. 10 cc
B. 35 cc
C. 50 cc
D. 100 cc
| 35 cc |
80189a6e-a7f0-43a0-a1f3-2d64d7780cd1 | Ans. A Optic nerveRef: Gray's Anatomy, 41st ed. pg. 310* The cranial nerves are individually named and numbered, using Roman numerals, in a rostro-caudal sequence, reflecting their order of attachment to the brain. They are named as follows:Cranial nervesCN numberCN nameAttachment/CommentsIOlfactory nerveArises from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity and terminates directly in cortical and subcortical areas of the frontal and temporal lobesIIOptic nerveThe axons of the optic nerve (II) pass into the optic chiasma, where medially positioned axons decussate; all of the axons emerge as the optic tract, which terminates in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamusIIIOcculomotor nerveArise in, and are attached to, the midbrain.IVTrochlear nerve VTrigeminal nerveAttaches to the pons, medial to the middle cerebellar peduncle.VIAbducens nerveAttaches to the brainstem at, or close to, the pontomedullary junction.VIIFacial nerve VIIIVestibulocochlear N. IXGlossopharyngeal N.Attached to the medullaXVagus nerve XISpinal accessory nerveArises from cervical levels C1-C5/C6, enters the cranium through the foramen magnum and then exits via the jugular foramen, together with the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.XIIHypoglossal nerveAttached to the medulla | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | IInd cranial nerve is:
A. Optic nerve
B. Abducens nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Occulomotor nerve
| Optic nerve |
651ea223-92be-462a-98db-cffb9adf8eb7 | Ans. D i.e. Bronchiectasis Signet ring sign The signet ring sign is a CT finding seen in patients with Bronchiectasis The ring of soft-tissue attenuation represents the wall of the dilated bronchus seen on a cross-sectional CT scan, whereas the low-attenuating circle of air represents air within the dilated bronchus. The circle of soft-tissue attenuation abutting the ring represents a cross-sectional image of the pulmonary aery that lies adjacent to the dilated bronchus. | Radiology | null | Signet ring sign is seen in: March 2013 (b, d)
A. Blastomycosis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Invasive aspergillosis
D. Bronchiectasis
| Bronchiectasis |
c1b87604-dff0-4e82-8d1c-4963aefc9e49 | (B) 200 mg/dLLevelLikely impairment20-30 mg/dLSlowed motor performance and decreased thinking ability30-80 mg/dLIncreases in motor and cognitive problems80-200 mg/dLIncreases in incoordination and judgment errsMobilityDeterioration in cognition200-300 mg/dLNystagmus, marked slurring of speech, and alcoholic blackouts> 300 mg/dLImpaired vital signs and possible deathPharmacologic toleranceApproximately 150 mg/dLOne does not show significant levels of impairment in motor and mental performanceIn that range, most people without tolerance also experience nausea and vomitingOne drinkIs likely to raise the blood alcohol level by approximately 15 to 20 mg/dL for an average70 kg person who has average amount of body fatThe same metabolized in an hour# DSM-IV-TR Diagnostic Criteria for Alcohol Intoxication> Recent ingestion of alcohol.> Clinically significant maladaptive behavioral or psychological changes (e.g., inappropriate sexual or aggressive behavior, mood lability, impaired judgment, impaired social or occupational functioning) that developed during, or shortly after, alcohol ingestion.> Signs, developing during, or shortly after, alcohol use: slurred speech incoordination unsteady gait nystagmus impairment in attention or memory stupor or coma> The symptoms are not due to a general medical condition and are not better accounted for by another mental disorder.# Blackouts> Alcohol-related blackouts are not included in DSM-IV-TR's diagnostic classification, although the symptom of alcohol intoxication is common. Blackouts are similar to episodes of transient global amnesia in that they are discrete episodes of anterograde amnesia that occur in association with alcohol intoxication.> The periods of amnesia can be particularly distressing when persons fear that they have unknowingly harmed someone or behaved imprudently while intoxicated.> During a blackout, persons have relatively intact remote memory but experience a specific short-term memory deficit in which they are unable to recall events that happened in the previous 5 or 10 minutes.> Because their other intellectual faculties are well preserved, they can perform complicated tasks and appear normal to casual observers.> The neurobiological mechanisms for alcoholic blackouts are now known at the molecular level; alcohol blocks the consolidation of new memories into old memories, a process that is thought to involve the hippocampus and related temporal lobe structures. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | At what blood alcohol level, there is Nystagmus, marked slurring of speech and alcoholic blackouts?
A. 150mg/dL
B. 200 mg/dL
C. 250 mg/dL
D. 300 mg/dL
| 200 mg/dL |
35a52572-6f2d-4b81-9cfd-13e272afb36f | Dermoid cysts arise along line of fusion of embryonic parts. In the floor of the mouth, the swelling forces the tongue upward. Alternatively, the swelling may occur below the mylohyoid muscle, where it gives the impression of a double chin. It is not a premalignant lesion. It has an epithelial lining and may contain secretions, sloughed-off cells, and hair. | Surgery | Neck | This develops along lines of embryological fusion in the floor of the mouth. SELECT ONE.
A. Cholesteatoma
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Glomus tumor
D. Neurofibroma
| Dermoid cyst |
24e5ba19-2549-4987-873b-b68bba72ca0c | Ans. is 'd' Hyaluronic acid .The viscosity and the plastic (thixotropic properties) of the synovial fluid is because of its hyaluronate content.Hyaluronic acid, a glycosaminoglycan is a polymer of repeating disaccharide units (of glucuronic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine).Also RememberFunctions of Glycosaminoglycans* Hyaluronic acidViscosity of the synovial fluid.jelly like consistency of vitreous humor of eye*.Tensile strength and elasticity of cartilage and tendons*.* Chondroitin sulfate* Tensile strength of cartilage tendons, ligaments and the walls of aorta*.* Dermatan sulfate* Pliability of skin* and heart valves*.* Keratan sulfateFound in horny structures* of body composed of dead cells - hair, nails, claws, horn, hoofs.Also present in cornea*.* Heparin* Anticoagulant | Biochemistry | Membrane Structure & Function | Viscosity of synovial fluid depends upon:-
A. N-acetyl galactosamine
B. N-acetyl glucosamine
C. Glucuronic acid
D. Hyaluronic acid
| Hyaluronic acid |
c75f2931-c425-4add-891a-0148f8745c6d | • Characterized by severe fluid and electrolyte shifts in malnourished patients undergoing refeeding.
• It can occur with either enteral or parenteral nutrition but is more common with the latter.
• It results in hypophosphataemia, hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia.
• Risk Factors: Alcohol dependency, severe malnutrition, Anorexics and prolonged periods of fasting.
Treatment
• Treatment involves matching intakes with requirements and assiduously avoiding overfeeding.
• Calorie delivery should be increased slowly and vitamins administered regularly.
• Hypophosphataemia and hypomagnesaemia require treatment. | Surgery | null | TPN may be complicated by -
A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Hyperosteosis
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Pancreatitis
| Hypercalcemia |
73391dc0-ea20-422c-a341-698ec33bd189 | i.e. (Emphysema): (486-Basicpathology 8th) (1638-H17th)Panacinar (Pan lobular) emphysema is associated with a-lAT deficiency which has a predilection for the lower lobesPatients with severe a 1-antiprotease (a 1-antitrypsin) deficiency are recognized by family history and the appearance of panacinar bibasilar emphysema early in life usually in the third or fourth decade; hepatic cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma may occur (258-CMDT 11th)Panacinar emphysemaCentriacinar emphysema* Acini are uniformly involved from level of respiratory bronchiole to terminal blind alveoli* Central or proximal parts of acini formed by respiratory bronchioles are affected whereas distal alveoli are spared* Lesions are more common in lower zone and bases* Lesions are more severe and common in upper lobes* Occurs in association with a1 antitrypsin deficiency* Occurs predominantly in smokers*** Is the commonest pattern | Pathology | Respiration | a1 antitrypsin deficiency is seen in
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Lung carcinoma
| Emphysema |
0da9266f-422e-49b5-8583-7aea40033132 | Ketone bodiesThey are three different water-soluble biochemicals that are produced as by-products when fatty acids are broken down for energy in the liver.Two of the three are used as a source of energy in the hea and brain while the third (acetone) is a waste product excreted from the body.In the brain, they are a vital source of energy during fasting.The three endogenous ketone bodies are- Acetone,Acetoacetic acid, and- Beta-hydroxybutyric acid | Biochemistry | null | Ketone bodies are formed in:
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys
D. Lungs
| Liver |
05d6735a-d7ac-4925-a353-ca84b783b667 | Monoclonal antibodies are produced from mouse or from human using hybridoma technology eg: reslizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 138 | Microbiology | general microbiology | The animal used for monoclonal antibodies production is
A. Mouse
B. Rabbit
C. Guinea pig
D. Monkey
| Mouse |
3504585d-4fa6-4d99-a45e-fbaddb44f97d | Ketamine may be contraindicated in patients with an open eye injury or other ophthalmologic disorder, in which a ketamine-induced increase in intraocular pressure would be detrimental. ketamine increases all the pressures - blood pressure intracranial pressure intragastric pressure intraocular pressure Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition. | Anaesthesia | General anaesthesia | Intraocular pressure is increased by which anesthetic
A. Ketamine
B. O2
C. N20
D. Isoflurane
| Ketamine |
36e14e63-17d2-43cd-bad1-5fd59c774d0d | What does 6/6 mean in Snellen's cha * It means that the patient with or without glasses can see the letter at a distance of 6 m which a person normally should have been seeing at 6 m Now you would understand it by next example * 6/12 means a letter which a normal patient should be seeing at 12 metre , this patient can see only when he is nearer, that means 6 metre from Target * 6/24 means that a normal patient should be seeing at 24 metre, but this patient has to be much closer that means 6 metre * This also means that the letter written at 6/24 is big enough that 6/6 vision person can read it at even 24 metre | Ophthalmology | Optics and Errors of Refraction | A person came to eye OPD for routine eye check u. On snellen's cha he was found to read 6/6. At what distance he should be able to read 6/24
A. 36 m
B. 24 m
C. 6 m
D. 1 m
| 24 m |
d806752f-170b-4a03-bf12-60754203bd22 | Answer is B (Immunogenic Thrombocytopenia) Immunogenic thrombocytopenias are caused by immune mediated destruction of platelets and therefore platelet supplementation is unlikely to benefit. Hemorrhage in a case of immunogenic thrombocytopenia such as Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) is controlled by - Glucocoicoids Intravenous Immunoglobulins Splenectomy | Medicine | null | Platelet transfusion is not indicated in:
A. Dilutional Thrombocytopenia
B. Immunogenic Thrombocytopenia
C. Aplastic Anemia
D. DIC
| Immunogenic Thrombocytopenia |
b8c1ee0f-7cda-4c35-98bd-d7e7abda726c | Ans b: (Factor VIII) Ref: Harrison p.367, 728-730Coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X and protein C, S and Z are dependent on Vit K for post translational modification. Vit K also for bone protein osteocalcin and vascular smooth muscle protein- matrix glaproteinFew more points:* Gamma carboxy glutamic acid residues in the Vit k dependent factors will help in their critical action including calcium and phospholipid binding* Mutations in Vit k epoxide reductase complex 1 (VKORC1) andgene encoding gamma glutamyl carboxylase(GGCX) result in defect free enzyme and there in Vit K dependent factors with decreased activity.* Causes mild to severe bleeding episodes from birth* Prolongation of PT is the most common and earliest finding in Vit K deficiency. Factor V11 has the shortest tl/2, so PT prolonged much before changes in aPTT | Medicine | Blood | Which among the following factors level is not altered in vit K deficiency?
A. Prothrombin
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor VII
D. Factor X
| Factor VIII |
ae8944ed-ad62-47d7-a1b0-4a554ecbf51d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Purkinje cells o The cerebellar cortex contains five types of neurons : Purkinje cells, granule cells, basket cells, stellate cells, and golgi cells.o The axons of purkinje cells are the only output from the cerebellar cortex, generally pass to the deep nucleio Neurons of deep nuclei form the ultimate (final) efferent output of cerebellum. | Anatomy | Cerebellum and Brainstem | Output cells of cerebellum -
A. Basket cells
B. Granule cells
C. Stellate cells
D. Purkinje cells
| Purkinje cells |
bc9a69e0-7e70-46a8-8447-3cad986a2e98 | Nucleosomes are further arranged into increasingly more complex structures that organize into chromosomes.
Chromosomes are made up of DNA, histones, and non-histone protein. | Biochemistry | null | Components of chromosome area) DNAb) t RNAc) m RNAd) r RNAe) Histone
A. ae
B. b
C. ab
D. ad
| ae |
96c8866d-10df-4acf-99c6-1f98a99daea9 | (Developmental dysplasia of hip joint) (202- M)VON- ROSEN'S SPLINT - is an H-shaped melleable splint* Object of splintage is to hold the hips some what flexed and abducted* Used in congenital dislocation / dysplasia of hip jointAlso - Remember* Frog leg or Lorenz cast or Batchelor cast used in CDH* Broomstick plaster used in perthe's disease* Patella Tendon Bearing (PTB) cast used in- Both bones leg fracture* Gutter splint- phalyngeal and metaphalyngeal fractures* Denis Browne splint used in CTEV, Stirrup splint Ankle fractures* Knuckle-bender splint- ulner nerve palsy, Cock up splint - Radial nerve palsy* Milwaukee brace (Cervical thoracolombosacral orthosis) used in Scoliosis* Risser's localizer cast, Turn buckle cast - Scoliosis*** Minerva cast - cerical spine disease* U slab or Hanging cast - fracture of humerus* Tube cast (Cylindrical cast) - used for fracture around knee ( patella)* Halo cast (vest) - for spinal injury* Velpeau bandage and sling and Swathe splint are used in - Shoulder dislocation*** Thromboembolic disease (Pulmonary embolism) is the most common cause of death after Total hip replacement*** (Watson jones operation)* Pectoralis major and minor muscles are the most common congenitically absent muscles in humans*** Pollicization refer to reconstruction of the thumb with a substitute finger (i.e. index finger)* Bohler's Tuber Joint angle and crucial angle of Gissane are measured for intraarticular of calcaniumDevelopment Dvsplasia of the hep (DDH)* More common in female, short stature *** Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH* The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed reduction* In a child with bilateral dislocation - Waddling gait- unilateral dislocation Trendelenburg's gait** X-ray shows break in shenton's line** Striking feature is widening of perineum & marked lumber lorodosis** Wandering acetabulum is sen in T.B of hip jointsAngles of Importance(i) Cobb's angle - Scoliosis(ii) Kite's angle - CTEV(iii) Meary's angle - Pes cavus(iv) Hilagenreiner's epiphyseal angle - congenital coxa-vera(v) Baumann's angle - Supracondylar Rocker bottom foot or vertical talus is associated with Arthrogrypasis multiplex congenital spina bifida & trisomy 13-18 - (Danhert Radiology Review manual 5th/25) | Orthopaedics | Congenital Dislocation of Hip (C.D.H.) | Von- rosen splint are applicable in
A. Developmental dysplasia of hip joint
B. Congenital talipes equinovarus
C. Congenital vertical talus
D. Tibia mileruae
| Developmental dysplasia of hip joint |
e9981a39-1092-43b7-9d09-16b8a10b4a21 | M/C NET of Pancreases - Non-Functional (PPOMA) M/C functional NET of Pancreas -Insulinoma MC Functional Enteropancreatic NET in MEN 1 - Gastrinoma > Insulinoma M/C functional & Malignant NET of Pancreas - Gastrinoma IOC for localization of NET - SRS (Somatostatin receptor Scintigraphy) | Surgery | NEET Jan 2020 | Most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasm:
A. Insulinoma
B. Gastrinoma
C. VIPoma
D. Glucagonoma
| Insulinoma |
d5801be0-198a-4393-954e-9668473a6645 | Monsomy 7 [Ref Harrison 17th/e p 680 & leh/e p 6341 There are number of factors which determine the prognosis in A.M.L. In a number of studies in last 2 decades it has been observed that cytogenetic markers are major determinants in assessment of prognosis. Prognosis of Acute Myeloid leukemia . t (8 ; 21),Q * Good prognosis * inv (16) ordeg . t (15 ; 17)Q * Moderately ourable outome . No cytogenetic abnormalitydeg . inv (3),deg * Monosomy 7 presence deg of PTD of MLL or 1TD of FLT 3 * Poor prognosis . Uq 23,deg . 3q21,deg . 3q26deg Prognostic factors in Acute Myeloid leukenia Factors Favorable Unorable . Age <45 years < 2 year, > 60 years . Leucocytosis 25 x RP/LQ > 100 x lOYL . CNS involvement AbsentQ Present . Response to therapy Rape& Delayed/incomplete . Auer rods Present Absent . FAR type M2, B3 M4E0 M5, M6, M7 . Cell markers CD2or CD19 CD13, CD14, CD33 . Cytogenetics t (15:17)Q in M3 -7; del (7q), -50 t (8:21) in M2 del (sq)Q, 11q23 inv( 16) del(16q) abnormalities 3q21 and 3q26 abnormalities complex karyotypic abnormalities | Surgery | null | A.M.L. with worst prognosis
A. 8/21 translocation
B. Inversion 16
C. Normal cytogenetics
D. Monosomy 7
| Monosomy 7 |
0863b240-a7aa-4a26-9d24-7f750cb0c788 | ANSWER: (A) MalariaREF: Jawett's 24th edition Section VI. Parasitology chapter 46. Medical ParasitologyRepeat in December 2011, December 2009Man is the defenitive host in most parasitic infections except in:Echinococcus granulosusPlasmodiumTaenia Solium(man is both defenitive and intermediate host)Toxoplasma gondiiSarcocytis lindemanii | Microbiology | Protozoa | Man is intermediate host of?
A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Dengue
D. Plague
| Malaria |
c2f3d6e9-5798-412a-8d5f-82ebfe87d1b2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tennis elbow o Bryant's test: for anterior dislocation of the shouldero Call way s' test: for anterior dislocation of the shouldero Chovstek's sign : for tetanyo Claw hand : for ulnar nerve injuryo Coin test: for dorso lumbar tuberculosis of spineo Cozen's test: for tennis elbowo Drawer test: for ACL and PCL injutriesAnterior : for ACL injuryPosterior : for ACL injuryo Finkelstein's test: for de Quervain's tenovaginitiso Foot drop : for common peroneal nerve injuryo Froment's sign : for ulnar nerve injuryo Gaenslen's test: for SI joint involvemento Gaileazzi sign : for CDHo Gower's sign : for musular dystrophyo Hamilton ruler test: for anterior dislocation of the shouldero KanaveFs sign : for infection in ulnar bursao Lasegue's test: for disc prolapseo Lachmann test: for ACL injury'o Lud luffs sign: for avulsion of lesser trochantero Me Murray's test : for meniscus injury'o Nagffziger test: for disc prolapseo Ober's test : for tight ilio- tibia! band (e.g., in polio)o O' Donoghue triad: traid of MCL, ACL & medial meniscus injuries occurring togethero Ortoiani's test: for CDHo Pivot shift test: for ACL injuryo Policeman tip : for Erb's palsyo Runner's knee : Patellar tendinitiso Sulcus sign: for inferior dislocation of the shouldero Thomas' test: for hip flexion deformityo Trendelenburg's test: for unstable hip due to any reaseon (e.g., CDH)o Tin el's sign: for detecting improving nerve injury'o Volkmann's sign : for ischaemic contracture of forearm muscleso Wrist drop : for radial nerve injury' | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Arm & Elbow | Cozen's test is used for the diagnosis of -
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer's elbow
C. Base bailer's pitcher elbow
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
| Tennis elbow |
53d3e23a-15ba-4c37-8c3e-23bd4a5e3311 | "Enteroviruses are the most common cause of meningoencephalitis" | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children –
A. Mumps
B. Arbovirus
C. HSV
D. Enterovirus
| Enterovirus |
7d7c9097-61bb-4557-a9a5-d5ff9f72eb17 | The detection of IgM anti-HAV indicates acute infection. Progression of HAV infection to chronic hepatitis does not occur, but a few cases are complicated by fulminant hepatitis. HAV viremia is transient, so blood-borne transmission of HAV is rare. HAV is spread by the fecal-oral route, such as raw shellfish from a bay in which raw sewage is dumped. | Pathology | Liver & Biliary Tract | A 42-year-old man experiences malaise and increasing icterus for 2 weeks. Physical examination shows jaundice, but there are no other significant findings. Serologic test results are positive for IgM anti-HAV and negative for anti-HCV, HBsAg, and IgM anti-HBc. Which of the following outcomes is most likely to occur in this man?
A. Chronic active hepatitis
B. Complete recovery
C. Fulminant hepatitis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
| Complete recovery |
ab04d9aa-0d6e-442e-b4a9-79e8b131ca09 | Amniocentesis is the investigation of choice for the diagnosis of downs syndrome. It is done between 14-16 weeks of gestation. It is performed in the context of prior history of a child with downs syndrome, advanced maternal age, abnormal triple or quad assay. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 409 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C.Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 107 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Investigation of choice for diagnosing downs syndrome at 15 weeks of gestation in a mother with a history of delivering a down syndrome baby is which of the following:
A. Triple screen test
B. Amniocentesis
C. Chorionic villous biopsy
D. Ultrasonography
| Amniocentesis |
0c88435b-3b57-41fe-98b4-4066a3ee5c6c | The marked area is floor of fossa ovalis that developes from septum primum | Anatomy | JIPMER 2018 | The marked area develops from(in green colour)
A. Septum Primum
B. Septum secundum
C. Ostium primum
D. Ostium secundum
| Septum Primum |
5aea2810-016c-4f08-a027-9f68071a1d3b | A middle aged female is presenting with:
Increasing visual loss
Breast enlargement
Irregular menses
All these features can be explained by pituitary adenoma.
Most common type of pituitary adenomas prolactinomas
Prolactinomas can be diagnosed by raised serum prolactin levels so, the investigation of choice here is serum prolactin level
Also Known: Work up of patient with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and hyperprolactinemia | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A middle aged female presents with increasing visual loss, breast enlargement and irregular menses. Investigation of choice would be:
A. S. calcitonin
B. S. prolactin
C. S. hemoglobin concentration
D. S. calcium
| S. prolactin |
7dc2f306-c185-4323-8945-f59e0659adae | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1, 2, 3Processing of general sensory inputs primarily occurs in primary somatosensory area of parietal lobe.Primary somatosensory area is Brodmann's areas 3, 1, 2. | Physiology | null | Processing of tactile stimulation occurs in Brodmann's area ?
A. 1,2,3
B. 4, 6
C. 44,45
D. 41,42
| 1,2,3 |
1294c059-d1f4-4ce9-8dca-f5eee67192b2 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitamin D o Two vitamins are considered as hormones which act on intranuclear receptors (steroid receptor famity). There are:-i) Vitamin A (retinoic acid)ii) Vitamin D | Biochemistry | Vitamins | Vitamin acting on intranuclear receptors -
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B1
| Vitamin D |
ac16cc38-06d7-4704-af0a-baeeb4547a1e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cattle Human brucellosis is a zoonosis, acquired from animals directly or indirectly. The animals that commonly act as sources Sheep, goat and camel Cattle or Buffalo Swine Dog Br melitensis Br. abous Br suis Br canis | Microbiology | null | Brucella abous primarily affects
A. Dog
B. Cattle
C. Swine
D. Goat
| Cattle |
9036751b-6256-433d-a12d-6477026f39eb | Three muscles are related to the eustachian tube: tensor veli palatini, levator veli palatini and salpingopharyngeus. The medial fibres of the tensor veli palatini are attached to the lateral lamina of the tube and when they contract help to open the tubal lumen. These fibres have also been called dilator tubae muscle. The exact role of the levator veli palatini and the salpingopharyngeus muscles to open the tube is unceain. Dhingra 6e pg: 57 | ENT | Pharynx | Eustachian tube opens due to contraction of which of the following muscles
A. Buccinator
B. Levator palati
C. Stylohyoid
D. Stylopharyngeus
| Levator palati |
6ca668fc-5abd-4956-b22f-f88d15aced1b | Repetitive vomiting leads to hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. The urine is alkaline initially but eventually it becomes acidic (paradoxical aciduria)
Cause of paradoxical aciduria
Initially the kidney compensate for metabolic alkalosis by reabsorbing hydrogen and chloride ions in exchange for sodium, potassium and bicarbonate. But gradually as the body stores of sodium and especially potassium become depleted, kidney starts retaining these ions in exchange of hydrogen ions. thus the urine becomes acidic and metabolic alkaline state is further aggravated. | Surgery | null | In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disturbance is
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
D. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
| Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria |
e105ac7d-7459-4205-9244-861a3eb8d096 | Otitic barotrauma or Aero otitis media results due to rapid descent during air flight, underwater divising or compression in pressure chamber. | ENT | null | Otic barotrauma results due to -
A. Ascent in air
B. Descent in air
C. Linear acceleration
D. Sudden acceleration
| Descent in air |
80f414f0-f187-4298-a8f5-129c734f80e6 | the veins are examples of capacitance vessels | Anatomy | Thorax | Veins are an example of
A. Conducting vessels
B. Distributing vessels
C. Resistance vessels
D. Capacitance vessels
| Capacitance vessels |
fd76c171-0a5e-4d7e-a0c5-23c08f600fb3 | Pituitary apoplexy: Most frequent presentation isheadache- Retro-orbital in location. Nauseaandvomitingmay occur due to adrenal insufficiency, meningeal irritation, and hypothalamic dysfunction or raised intracranial pressure. Neck stiffnessis observed in patients with pituitary apoplexy and can be to sub-arachnoid haemorrhage. Anosmiadue to olfactory nerve involvement, epistaxis or CSF rhinorrhoea due to erosion of seller floor. Adrenal insufficiency leading toaerial hypotensionandhypoglycaemia, and hypothalamic compression. | Medicine | NEET Jan 2020 | Which of the following is not a clinical presentation of Pituitary Apoplexy?
A. Headache
B. Hypotension
C. Hypeension
D. Vomiting
| Hypeension |
8c034f48-5e57-44d9-b37b-39409847d029 | During surgery, a clamp is passed through the transverse sinus stops or dives the blood flow from the aoa and pulmonary trunk. Transverse pericardial sinus seperates the aerial end of the hea tube from the venous end. Aoa and pulmonary trunk lie anterior to the sinus and superior vena cava lies posterior to it. Therefore, during surgery, a clamp is passed through the transverse sinus stops or dives the blood flow from the aoa and pulmonary trunk. Ref: Gray's Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 183 | Anatomy | Thorax | After the pericardial sac has been opened anteriorly during surgery, by passing a surgical clamp through the transverse sinus, surgeons can stop/dive circulation of blood in
A. Superior an inferior vena cava
B. Aoa and pulmonary veins
C. Aoa and pulmonary trunk
D. SVC and pulmonary veins
| Aoa and pulmonary trunk |
cfca58e3-ccbd-4287-a5ba-0ea59d694f77 | Breast-conserving surgery is now recommended for small tumors. Radiation therapy will decrease local recurrence rates. For tumors < 1 cm, adjuvant therapy is indicated only if axillary nodes are positive. Therefore, in this case, an axillary dissection will provide important therapeutic information. However, this is an area of rapidly changing knowledge and practice. | Medicine | Oncology | A 53-year-old woman presents with a 1-cm invasive carcinoma of the breast, detected on mammography. She feels well and has no other symptoms. On examination the lump is palpable, and there are no axillary lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most appropriate local therapy for her tumor?
A. simple mastectomy with axillary dissection
B. radiation therapy to breast and axilla
C. local excision plus radiation therapy
D. local excision and axillary dissection followed by radiation therapy
| local excision and axillary dissection followed by radiation therapy |
86e6d22c-4f8d-49e9-a00f-dd6ce8b881de | Iris nodules
There are many types of nodules that develop on iris in granulomatous uveitis:-
Koeppe nodule: - Seen at pupillary margin.
Busacca's nodule: - Seen on the peripheral part of the anterior surface of iris.
Tubercular nodules: - Scattered throughout the iris and ciliary body, mostly in the stroma. They are more common at pupillary margin.
Syphilitic nodules:-At pupillary margin.
Sarcoid nodules:-At pupillary margin or in the stroma of the iris. | Ophthalmology | null | Koeppe nodules are present on –
A. Cornea
B. Conjunctiva
C. Iris
D. Retina
| Iris |
5e5be67b-75a4-4253-9f03-8523a85d51e4 | The internationally available cell culture and embryonated egg-based vaccine consist of rabies virus that has been propagated in cell substrates such as human diploid cells, Vero cells, primary Syrian hamster kidney cells etc (refer pgno 279 park 23rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Live attenuated vaccines are A/E
A. Measles
B. Rabies
C. Oral polio
D. Yellow fever
| Rabies |
87d8aa49-9a2c-4f48-b870-e69c42493477 | Tranta's spots (Horner tranta's spots) are descrete white raised dots along the limbus and are composed of degeneraed eosinophils. Ref: Parson's 22nd/e p.180-181 & 21st/e p.178; Khurana 7th/e p.81 & 4th/e p.74,75 | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | Trantas spots are seen in -
A. Vernal conjunctivitis
B. Eczematous conjunctivitis
C. Ophthalmia nodosa
D. Tularemia
| Vernal conjunctivitis |
4ca5937d-a090-4222-a0bc-91b32c4a7c9f | Ans. C. Pericardial tamponadeCardiac tamponadea. Gradual accumulation of pericardial fluid may fail to produce clinical signs or symptoms for an extended period of time.b. However, rapid accumulation of as little as 100-200ml of fluid can cause a hemodynamically significant compression of the heart, which severely impedes diastolic filling, the condition known as pericardial tamponade.c. Even in the face of preserved ejection fraction, diminished ventricular end-diastolic volume leads to reduced stroke volume.d. In addition to other clinical signs of pericardial effusion those of cardiac tamponade include pulsus paradoxus, which is exaggeration of the normal inspiratory drop in systolic blood pressure. Since acute tamponade may occur with small effusions, clinically important pericardial enlargement may be difficult to detect on plain radiographs.e. Subtle changes in cardiac contour may only be detectable by comparison with previous studies. If there is decreased pulmonary vascularity in spite of the cardiac enlargement or if the superior vena cava and azygos veins are dilated, tamponade should be suspected.f. Echocardiographic demonstration of Pericardial effusion and the clinical findings are usually sufficient to make the diagnosis of tamponade. CT and MRI are frequently instrumental in suggesting the cause of the effusion (i.e. hemorrhage, neoplastic involvement, inflammation due to tuberculosis, or other infectious processes, etc.). | Radiology | Respiratory System | A 65 yr. old man developed severe acute onset breathlessness within few hours of an aortic valve replacement. X-Ray diagnosis is?
A. Gross bilateral pleural effusion
B. Left tension pneumothorax
C. Pericardial tamponade
D. Entire left lung collapse
| Pericardial tamponade |
60a177ed-3450-4adc-b1c3-92cf8cea9636 | Injury or compression of median nerve at wrist (eg carpel tunnel syndrome) can be tested by 1. Pen test for loss of action of Abductor pollicis brevis 2. Ape thumb deformity Q (adducted posture of thumb) 3. Loss of opposition & abduction of thumb Q (d/ t wasting of thenar muscles) 4. Sensory loss - lateral 31/2 of digits & 2/3 palm (autonomous zone is tip of index & tniddle finger) Abductor pollicis longus is supplied by posterior interosseous nerve (br. of radial nerve)Q; so abduction of thumb is not completely lost. | Anatomy | null | Median nerve injury at wrist, is commonly tested by:
A. Contraction of abductor pollicis brevis
B. Contraction of flexor pollicis brevis
C. Loss of sensation on palm
D. Loss of sensation on ring finger
| Contraction of abductor pollicis brevis |
fa548d26-deaa-4963-a82b-13639d9548f4 | (C) (Nerve deafness) (1076-77 Nelson 19th)* Nerve deafness is the single most common finding among infants with congenital rubella syndrome (CPS)* Salt and pepper retinopathy are the most common ocular abnormality but have little early effect on vision.* Patent ductus arteriosis is the most frequently reported cardiac defect.* Classical Triad - cataract, deafness and CHDCongenital Rubella Syndrome (German measles or 3 day measles)* The risk of congenital defects has been estimated at 90% for maternal infection before 11 week of gestations, 33% at 11-12 week, 11% at 13 - 14 week and 24% 15-16 weeks.* In children, the 1st manifestation of rubella is usually the rash (begins on the face and neck, oropharynx may reveal tiny, rose-coloured lesions (Forchheimer spots) or petechial hemorrhages on the soft palate (Duration of the rash is generally 3 days)* Complications:(i) Thrombocytopenia - epistaxis, GI bleeding and hematuria.(ii) Arthritis - RA(iii) Encephalitis - most serious(iv) Progressive rubella panencephalitis (PRP)Other neurologic syndromes rarely G.B. syndrome and peripheral neuritis.(v) Myocarditis is a rare complication.* Vaccination - MMR (RA - 27/3) in two dose regimen at 12 - 15 month and 4-6 years of age.* Vaccine should not be administered to severely immuno compromised patients (eg transplant recepients) HIV infection.* Vaccine should not be administered during pregnancy.* Rubella vaccine is given 1-14 years of age (to intercept transmission)*** Presence of IgM antibody is diagnostic.Congenital Varicella Syndrome:* Occurs due to mother's infection (maternal varicella zoster) during 1st half of pregnancy before 20 weeks.* Manifestations of congenital varicella syndrome include:i. IUGR and LBWii. Cicatrising skin lesions (Cicatrix)iii. Limb hypoplasiaiv. Brain abnormalities - Microcephaly, cortical atrophy, dilated ventricles (ventriculomegaly)v. Eye-abnormalities - choriretiritis, micro ophthalmia, pendular nystagmus. | Pediatrics | Infection | Most common presentation in congenital rubella syndrome is-
A. Salt and pepper retinopathy
B. Low birth weight
C. Nerve deafness
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
| Nerve deafness |
3809eb3e-5583-44bf-85d8-dbc7014e2521 | Conceptus enters uterine cavity on the 4th day in Advanced morula (>32) cell stage. Note: In IVF Transvaginal inseion into uterus is done at 8 cell stage. | Anatomy | Introduction and gametogenesis. | Conceptus reaches uterine cavity at which stage?
A. 1 cell
B. 2 cell
C. 16 cell
D. 32 cell
| 32 cell |
0677dffe-ef89-4baa-88f1-11c5592b0330 | Health care characteristics include 1) Appropriateness - relevance 2) Comprehensiveness - optimum mix of preventive, curative and promotional services. 3) adequacy 4) availability 5) accessibility 6) affordability 7) feasibility Ref: Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine,24th edition, Page no. 33 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Optimum unit of preventive, curative and promotive health care is
A. Appropriateness
B. Availability
C. Adequacy
D. Comprehensiveness
| Comprehensiveness |
45eaa491-d790-4732-b8bb-c34c2a59b835 | Cereals are deficient in lysine, but are rich in cystine and methionine. Legumes on the other hand are rich in lysine but deficient in sulfur containing amino acids. Thus, by combining cereals with legumes, the overall protein quality is improved. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The amino acid deficiency that could be expected in a case of high cereal intake and poor nutritional bance is which of the follwoing?
A. Alanine
B. Lysine
C. Methionine
D. Cysteine
| Lysine |
53c1fb2d-2d22-428d-b5de-273987b13986 | The ventral ramus of L4 contains both sensory and motor nerve fibers. Injury from a stab wound could result in loss of sensation from the dermatome supplied by this segment. A dermatome is an area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve; L4 dermatome supplies the medial aspect of the leg and foot. Loss of the Achilles tendon reflex relates primarily to an S1 deficit. The Achilles tendon reflex is elicited by tapping the calcaneus tendon, which results in plantar flexion. The obturator internus and gluteus medius and minimus are responsible for abduction of the thigh and are innervated by nerves L4, L5, and S1 (with L5 usually dominant). Nerves L5, S1, and S2 are responsible for eversion of the foot (S1 dominant). | Anatomy | Lower Extremity | A 23-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a deep, bleeding stab wound of the pelvis. After the bleeding has been arrested, an MRI examination gives evidence that the right ventral primary ramus of L4 has been transected. Which of the following problems will most likely be seen during physical examination?
A. Reduction or loss of sensation from the me dial aspect of the leg
B. Loss of the Achilles tendon reflex
C. Weakness of abduction of the thigh at the hip joint
D. Inability to evert the foot
| Reduction or loss of sensation from the me dial aspect of the leg |
dbc31277-c6d7-4d20-b185-c917c8a5bbd3 | Insulin suppresses glucose-6-phosphatase gene.Glucose-6-phosphatase activity is increased in low insulin/glucagon level.Glucocoicoids, glucagon, epinephrine are inducers of glucose-6-phosphatase whereas insulin is repressor.Insulin upregulates the transcription of glucokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase, while glucagon downregulates their transcription.Glucose-6-phosphatase plays an impoant role in the regulation of hepatic glucose production, and insulin suppresses glucose-6-phosphatase gene. | Biochemistry | null | Which enzyme's activity is increased in low insulin/glucagon level?
A. Hexokinase
B. Glucokinase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. Pyruvate kinase
| Glucose-6-phosphatase |
c5b56a00-7fdc-4228-9627-71b8e22c0c69 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bicuspid aoic valve Turner's syndrome is commonly associated with congenital hea diseases. The most common anomaly associated is bicuspid Aoic valves in one third to one half of the patients (50%). Other congential anomalies associated with Turner's syndrome --> Aoic coarctation (30%), Aoic stenosis, Mitral valve prolapse, Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage | Pediatrics | null | Most common cadiac anomaly in Turner's syndrome is ?
A. Coarctation of aoa
B. Bicuspid aoic valve
C. Vetricular septal defect
D. Atrial septal defect
| Bicuspid aoic valve |
26635de7-8895-4fa5-8603-5d18634abf01 | * Contraindication of Blocker:- Asthma AV Block Acute CHF Diabetes Mellitus * ss Blocker uses:- Hypeension Migraine Hypehyroidism Angina pretoirs MI | Pharmacology | NEET 2019 | Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of Beta Blockers:-
A. Glaucoma
B. Tachycardia
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Hypeension
| Bronchial asthma |
c8db3e4e-0a57-4595-aded-0f2ab43bfd79 | In case of ureteric transection ,paial or complete,a pyelography fails to show pa or whole of the ureter on the transected site and there may be pooling of dye in the peritoneal cavity. The immediate treatment is percutaneous nephrostomy and retrograde dye injection under fluoroscopy to help identify the site of transection. In a case of complete transection urinary diversion by nephrostomy is advisable to tide over the crisis,followed later with repair surgery. In case the transection is recognised during the surgery ,the surgeon must undeake anastamosis at the site of injury or implant the cut end of the ureter into the bladder or perform a Boari flap operation of Ureteroneocystostomy. SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:187,15th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Urogynecology | Ureterovaginal fistula should best be treated by-
A. Ureteroneocystostomy
B. End-to-end anastomosis through an ureteric catheter
C. Implantation into colon
D. Ileal conduit
| Ureteroneocystostomy |
53b00c4e-2ed9-4442-93bf-dbb581398335 | Frontal bone ossifies in membrane.
It develops from 2 centres near frontal eminences, during 8th week of intrauterine life.
At birth, the bone is in 2 halves, separated in the midline by a suture, known as metopic suture, which soon starts to fuse.
The metopic suture occasionally persists in 3 to 8% of individuals. | Anatomy | null | The suture between the two halves of the Frontal
bones is
A. Metopic
B. Symphysis
C. Mendosal
D. Coronal
| Metopic |
33300b9f-1525-4e0b-870f-f4db194f5ef1 | Amotivational syndrome is seen in Cannabis abuse. | Psychiatry | null | Amotivational syndrome is seen in -
A. Cannabis
B. Cocaine
C. Amphetamine
D. LSD
| Cannabis |
23a2836b-6cd0-41f7-ba28-586e6ad2315b | PPV and NPV of a screening test depends on:
– Sensitivity
– Specificity
– Prevalence of disease in the population
In this question, since a physician continues to use the same diagnostic test for the disease that she has always used, sensitivity and specificity of the test will remain same
But predictive value of a test (PPV and NPV) depends on prevalence of a disease in a population
PPV is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population
– PPV á Prevalence of disease
– As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, PPV increases for the screening test
NPV is inversely proportional to Prevalence of disease in a population
– NPV α 1/ Prevalence of disease
– As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, NPV decreases for the screening test
Therefore, since the prevalence of an infectious disease in a community has been reduced by 90%, its PPV will reduce and its NPV will increase | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Due to an effective prevention program, the pre valence of an infectious disease in a community has been reduced by 90%. A physician continues to use the same diagnostic test for the disease that she has always used. How have the test’s characteristics changed?
A. Its sensitivity has increased
B. Its positive predictive value has increased
C. The test’s characteristics have not changed
D. Its negative predictive value has increased
| Its negative predictive value has increased |
18405d66-ec58-4a82-bf97-9cd279a1bb09 | Ans. d. Esophageal atresia (Ref: Ghai 7/e p151: Nelson 19/e p1262)A new born who has frothing of mouth. Cyanosis is present on day one. The most probable diagnosis is esophageal atresia.'The diagnosis of esophageal atresia is entertained in an infant with excessive salivation along with coughing or choking during the first oral feeding.'Esophageal atresia:The diagnosis of esophageal atresia is e.ntertained in an infant with excessive salivation along with coughing or choking during the first oral feeding.Lung hypoplasia:The history may include poor fetal movement or amniotic fluid leakage and oligohydramnios.The neonate may be asymptomatic or may present with severe respiratory distress or apnea that requires extensive ventilatory support.In older children, dyspnea and cyanosis maybe present upon exertion, or a history of repeated respiratory infections maybe noted.Lung cyst:Found most often in young adults and are rare in infancy.The usual symptoms are the result of compression by the cyst, e.g., dyspnoea, dysphagia, cough and chest pain.Diaphragmatic hernia:Classic triad: Respiratory distress + Dextrocardia + Scaphoid abdomenQThe MC presentation is respiratory distress due to severe hypoxemia.The infant appears dyspneic, tachypneic, and cyanotic, with severe retractions.The anteroposterior diameter of the chest maybe large and the abdomen may be scaphoidQ. | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | A new born who has frothing of mouth. Cyanosis is present on day one. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Lung hypoplasia
B. Lung cyst
C. Diaphragmatic hernia
D. Esophageal atresia
| Esophageal atresia |
4bae6004-ba27-4e33-9822-b8ca15f62b61 | Nephrin The glomerular capillary wall is a filtering membrane and consists of the following structures i) Endothelial cells ii) Glomerular basement membrane iii) Visceral epithelial cells (podocytes) iv) Mesangial cells The visceral epithelial cell known as podocyte is impoant for the maintenance of glomerular harrier function. They are structurally complex cells that possess interdigitating foot processes (pedicels). The adjacent foot processes are separated by 20-30 nm wide filtration slits. The filtration slit or slit diaphragm maintains glomerular barrier function. They present a size selective distal diffusion harrier to the filtration of proteins and it is the cell type that is largely responsible for the synthesis of GBM components. Proteins located in the slit diaphragm control glomerular permeability. Impoant proteins have been identified in this regard Nephrin - Podocin - CD2 associated protein and - Actin cytoskeleton The impoance of these proteins in maintaining glomerular permeability is demonstrated by the observation that mutations in the gene encoding them give rise to nephrotic syndrome sclerosis . The mutations in these genes commonly lead to focal segmental glomerulosilerosis. Gene Chromosome in Prote encoded Disease NPHS1 19q13 Nephrin Congenitial nephritic syndrome of the finnish type NPHS2 lq 25-31 Podocin Steroid resistant nephritic syndrome 30% cases Mutations in the podocyte action-binding protein a actinin 4 also produce FSGS 96. | Pathology | null | Finnish of nephrotic syndrome is caused by defect in following protein aEUR'
A. Nephrin
B. Podocin
C. Alpha actinin
D. CD2 activated protein
| Nephrin |
50ca7400-45cb-47a7-9c52-7fe52c657299 | Battle dore placenta - marginal insertion of umbilical cord, occasionally results in cord avulsion during delivery of placenta. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Battledore placenta is associated with highest risk of
A. Fetal anomalies
B. Cord avulsion
C. Uterine inversion
D. Single umbilical artery
| Cord avulsion |
18c15574-31d0-4e05-a7bb-51b2ef666fff | Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 442,tabke11-10 By this classification hodgkins and non hodgkins lymphoma are divided into 4stages | Pathology | General pathology | Ann Arbor classification is used for?
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Hodgkin lymphoma
| Hodgkin lymphoma |
7c02ace3-9612-4303-82eb-aff6011be4ca | Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by swelling of the flexor digitorum superficialis, profundus, and flexor pollicis longus tendons, resulting in pressure on the median nerve. Repetitive motions of the fingers and wrist, hormonal changes, and vibration can be causes of tendon swelling. It results in tingling, numbness, and pain in the cutaneous distribution of the median nerve (lateral side). In more severe cases, atrophy of the thenar eminence may be present. | Anatomy | null | A boy presents with complaints of hypoaesthesia and wasting of thenar eminence. The nerve most likely to damaged in this patient?
A. Musculocutaneous nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve
| Median nerve |
75b9615a-6185-43fd-b667-89c6d8071d16 | CYP3A4 cary out biotransformation of large number of drugs. The inhibition of this isoenzyme by erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole etc. is responsible for important drug interactions with terfenadine, astemizole and cisapride. Rifampicin, barbiturates and other anticonvulsants are important inducers. | Pharmacology | null | CYP 3A4 enzymes are affected by: a) Fexofenadine b) Phenytoin c) Carbamazepine d) Azithromycin e) Penicillin
A. ab
B. bc
C. ad
D. bd
| bc |
0d683c45-1b52-43d5-a429-ddd53e97e606 | Ans: C (Left petrositis) Ref: Diseases of the Ear, Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra, 5th edn., 2010 pg: 89Explanation:The diplopia is likely to be due to petrositis, which is a known complication of CSOM.Petrositis leads to Gradenigo' syndrome.Triad of Gradenigo'syndrome.o External (Lateral) rectus palsy due to VIth nerve (Abtfucens) palsy-This causes diplopia on looking at the same direction as of the affected eye.o Deep seated ear or retro-orbital pain o Persistent ear discharge.Other symptoms include:o Photophobia.o Excessive lacrimation.o Fever.o Reduced corneal sensitivity.Diagnosis is by both CT scan and MRI.Treatment consists of:o Antibacterial therapy.o Surgical treatment with cortical or modified radical mastoidectomy. | ENT | CSOM and its Complications | A patient with CSOM presents with diplopia on seeing towards left side. Most probable cause:
A. Right lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
B. Right petrositis
C. Left petrositis
D. Left lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
| Left petrositis |
269c5e8f-dfd8-43c7-a0e0-f2057f6b6bfa | Pheochromocytomas, and their related counterpas in extra-adrenal sites called paragangliomas, are notorious because the only reliable indicator of metastatic potential is the presence of distant metastases. Very malignant-appearing tumors may not metastasize and benign-appearing tumors may produce metastases. In practice, there is no way for the pathologist to make the decision on frozen (or permanent) section analysis unless metastasis has already occurred and can be documented. These tumors should all be considered "potentially malignant." Ref: Busaidy N.L., Habra M.A., Vassilopoulou-Sellin R. (2011). Chapter 38. Endocrine Malignancies. In H.M. Kantarjian, R.A. Wolff, C.A. Koller (Eds), The MD Anderson Manual of Medical Oncology, 2e. | Surgery | null | A surgeon operates on a patient with a pheochromocytoma involving the adrenal gland. He requests examination of intraoperative frozen sections by the pathology laboratory. Which of the following criteria can be used to determine if the lesion is benign or malignant?
A. Blood vessel invasion
B. Cannot be determined by microscopic examination
C. Hemorrhage and necrosis
D. Nuclear pleomorphism
| Cannot be determined by microscopic examination |
943fa0cd-ffed-459a-8bf6-94bb7b18f443 | Mycosis fungoides is a cutaneous T cell lymphoma Etio: - Unknown, sometime HTLV I virus- It is MC cutaneous lymphoma Histological findings : 1. Sezary cells - Sezary cell are malignant lymphocytes with increased cell size and convoluted nucleus aka Cerebriform nucleus 2. Epidermo tropism - affection to move towards the epidermis3. Pautrier's microabscess Prognosis: poor (fatal) T/t - Radiotherapy - full skin electron beam therapy | Dental | Tumours of skin | Mycosis fungoides affects:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. NK cells
D. Keratinocytes
| T cells |
49f11a7e-03e5-4b42-9b2d-cc6de69bf0e6 | Neurofibrillary tangles with senile plaque are characteristic of Alzheimer's disease. You should keep in mind that neurofibrillary tangles are not unique to Alzheimer's disease; they also occur in own syndrome, dementia pugilistica (punch drunk syndrome), Parkinson - dementia complex, hallervorden - Spatz disease, and Normally in old age. However, in these conditions, neurofibrillary tangles are without senile plaques. | Psychiatry | null | Neurofibrillary tangles with senile plaques are seen in -
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Schizophrenia
D. Tuberous sclerosis
| Alzheimer's disease |
6077a203-743c-419b-b0fa-319f8b351d5b | Verrucous carcinoma of penis, also called Buschke-Lowenstein tumour, is caused by HPV 6 and 11. It is a curable malignancy but is locally destructive and locally invasive. It neither spreads through lymphatics nor blood. Surgical excision or paial amputation is the treatment of choice.Reference : page 1067 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | Surgery | Urology | Verrucaous carcinoma of penis is causes by
A. HPV11
B. HPV16
C. HPV18
D. HPV32
| HPV11 |
75d5a74f-5ef7-49e8-b627-80da9920c1c9 | Radial nerve is the continuation of posterior cord. Root value of posterior cord is C5,6,7,8 ,T1 (has 5 root values) Posterior cord is formed by posterior divisions of upper, middle and lower trunks. It supplies posterior compament of upper limb. | Anatomy | Nerve supply, Nerve Lesions | Root value of radial nerve is:
A. C3,4,5,6,7
B. C4,5,6,7,8
C. C5,6,7,8; T1
D. C6,7,8; T1,2
| C5,6,7,8; T1 |
42099838-ba35-4579-aef5-353632c7d709 | Type XIX is distributed Rarely. Seen in basement membranes, rhabdomyosarcoma cells Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 628 Table no: 50-1 | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Collagen distributed in rhabdomyosarcoma cells?
A. Type V
B. Type XII
C. Type XIX
D. Type XXIV
| Type XIX |
b646c90f-ea1d-40de-a4a7-e024edf14b5f | Carbon monoxide is a colourless odourless and tasteless gas. Headache and nausea may be an initial sign of poisoning. Since the PO2 is normal the respiratory centres are also not stimulated. The victim is simply asphyxiated even without him knowing it. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 52 | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following is the gas which produces systemic toxicity without causing local irritation?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Hydrocyanic acid
D. Sulfur dioxide
| Carbon monoxide |
a4342494-9829-4ab4-bf36-4c349c85c484 | c. Measles(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1542-1547, Ghai 8/e p 213-214)Fusion of infected cells results in multinucleated giant cells, the Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells that are pathognomonic for measles, with up to 100 nuclei and intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusions. | Pediatrics | General Considerations - Infectious Diseases | Warthin Finkeldey giant cells are seen in:
A. Mumps
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Polio
| Measles |
83064f65-bbf9-4a4b-a72f-e0fbc939c7e3 | PRIMARY OPEN ANGLE GLAUCOMAAs the name implies, it is a type of primary glaucoma, where there is no obvious systemic or ocular cause of the rise in the intraocular pressure. It occurs in eyes with an open angle of the anterior chamber.Primary open angle glaucoma (POAG) also known as chronic simple glaucoma of adult onset and is typically characterized by slowly progressive raised intraocular pressure(>21 mmHg recorded on at least a few occasions) associated with characteristic optic disc cupping and specific visual field defects.Reading and close work often present increasing difficulties owing to accommodative failure due to constant pressure on the ciliary muscle and its nerve supply. Therefore, patients usually complain of frequent changes in presbyopic glasses.Ref: UG Khurana; 4th edition; Pg. 215 | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Rapid change of presbyopic glasses is seen in
A. Senile cataract
B. Retinal detachment
C. Intumescent cataract
D. Open angle glaucoma
| Open angle glaucoma |
3d64137d-6c1d-40c4-b55b-d0225590d45e | REPEAT QUESTION polycystic kidney, an autosomal dominant disease, common in females; excretory urogram shows 'spider leg' pattern - elongated and compressed renal pelvis with narrowed and stretched calyces over the cysts. ( Reference: emedicine.medscape.com/aicle/983281-workup ) | Surgery | Urology | The typical appearance of "spider leg" on excretory urography is seen in
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Polysystic kidney
C. Medullary sponge kidney
D. Renal cell carcinoma
| Polysystic kidney |
95f453a2-a686-4a17-9683-29e5b7f0bd9f | Ans: b (Rickets) Ref: Hassion, 17th, ed, p. 2375Features of vitamin D deficiency:Rickets in children manifests in the latter half of first year or in the second year.Craniotabes is the ear liest manifestation of rickets.Anterior fontanel is large and its closure is delayed beyond 18 months.Bossing of frontal and parietal bones becomes evident after the age of 6 months.Costo chondral junction becomes prominent giving the appearance of a rosary (rachitic rosary).Sternum projects forwards- pigeon chest.Horizontal depression (Harrison's groove) is seen along the lower border of chest corresponding to the insertion of diaphragm.Eruption of primary teeth is delayed.Scoliosis, kyphosis or lordosis may occur.Epiphysis of long bones are widened and appear clinically as broadening of wrists around the age of 6 months. Anterior bowing of legs, knock knee and coxa vara are also seen.Abdomen become protuberant- pot belly.Radiological features:Early radiological features are observed at lower end of radius and ulna.A cup shaped depression is seen at the growing end of the bone(cupping & fraying of metaphysis)Epiphyseal plate is widenedThe earliest sign of healing rickets is a dense metaphyseal line.X- linked hypophosphatemia rickets (vitamin - D resistant) occurs due to reduced renal phosphate reabsorption.Calcium and vitamin D and PTH levels are normal, phosphate decreased, alkaline phosphate and osteocalcin increased.Vitamin D-Dependent RicketsVitamin D-dependent rickets exists in two forms that manifest with hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia, elevated PTH levels, and the skeletal abnormalities of rickets and osteomalacia.Tetany may be present in severe cases.Vitamin D-dependent rickets Type 1 is an autosomal recessive disease resulting from decreased lalpha - hydroxylase enzyme levels in the proximal tubule that catalyzes the hydroxylation and activation of 25(OH)D3 into l,25(OH),D3. It can be treated with physiologic replacement doses of l,25(OH)2D3. In contrast, vitamin D-dependent rickets type II is due to end-organ resistance to 1,25(OH ),D3 as a result of mutations in the vitamin D receptor.Some important vitamin deficiencies and manifestationsVitaminClinical featuresThiamineBeri beri: neuropathy, muscle weakness and wasting, cardiomegaly, oedema, ophthalmoplegia, confabulationRiboflavinMagenta tongue, angular stomatitis, seborrhoea, cheilosisNiacinPellagra: pigmented rash of sun-exposed areas, bright red tongue, diarrhoea, apathy, memory loss, disorientationVitamin B6Seborrhoea, glossitis convulsions, neuropathy, depression, confusion, microcytic anaemiaFolateMegaloblastic anaemia, atrophic glossitis, depression, increased homocysteineVitamin B12Megaloblastic anaemia, loss of vibratory and position sense, abnormal gait, dementia, impotence, loss of bladder and bowel control, increased homocysteine, increased methylmalonic acidVitamin CScurvy: petechiae, ecchymosis, coiled hairs, inflamed and bleeding gums, joint effusion, poor wound healing, fatigueVitamin AXerophthalmia, nightblindness, Bitot's spots, follicular hyperkeratosis, impaired embryonic development, immune dysfunctionVitamin DRickets: skeletal deformation, rachitic rosary, bowed legs, osteomalaciaVitamin EPeripheral neuropathy, spinocerebellar ataxia, skeletal muscle atrophy, retinopathyVitamin KElevated prothrombin time, bleeding | Medicine | Nutrition | Deficiency of vit D will cause:
A. Scurvy
B. Rickets
C. Phrynoderma
D. Beriberi
| Rickets |
aa582793-ba04-4186-8f4a-534a2cd65bab | CT finding in Crohns disease: Mural thickening with stratification is seen with active inflammation Vascular engorgement of the mesentery (comb sign) Hypodense lymph nodes CT findings in intestinal tuberculosis: Mural thickening with contiguous ileo-cecal involvement Hypodense lymph nodes with peripheral enhancement Ref: World J Gastroenterol. 2011 January 28; 17(4): 433-443. | Medicine | null | Comb sign in CT abdomen is seen in:
A. Crohns disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Intestinal lymphoma
| Crohns disease |
7c79c900-c9a0-4ccc-8608-6a7731db5172 | Ref: Internet SourcesExplanation:The t1/2 of iodine 131 is 8 daysHalf life's of commonly used radioisotopes in MedicineIsotopeHalf lifeAmericium- 241433 yearsAntimony-12460.2 daysCalifornium-2522.63 yearsCesium-13730.1 yearsCobalt-57271 daysCobalt-5871.3 daysCobalt-605.272 yearsIodine-1244.17 daysIodine-13012.4 hoursIodine-1318.041 daysIron-528.3 hoursIron-552.7 yearsIron-5944.6 daysManganese-525.63 daysManganese-54312.5 daysMolybdenum-9966.02 hoursOsmium-19115.3 daysTechnetium-99m6.02 hours | Radiology | Radiotherapy beam production | The T 1/2 of iodine 131 is:
A. 13 days
B. 8 days
C. 2 days
D. 12 hours
| 8 days |
6ffa033a-8da0-47d2-aac5-c786cb89f1b3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Health o Health is the most impoant component because its impairment always means impairment of level of living. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Most impoant component of level of living?
A. Health
B. Education
C. Food
D. Clothes
| Health |
4445f724-c8cc-419f-bed5-d6cbe05606a4 | According to the Van't Hoff equation, an ideal solution containing 1 mole of dissolved paicles per liter of solvent at 0deg C will have an osmotic pressure of 22.4 atm Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg159 | Physiology | General physiology | Osmotic pressure of 1 mol of ideal solute relative to pure water is
A. 6.5 atm.
B. 22.4 atm.
C. 4 atm.
D. 2 atm.
| 22.4 atm. |
7a0353e4-d101-4247-97ed-15085b6e9c3e | Ans. c (Trochlear). (Ref. BD Chaurasia, Human Anatomy-Vol III, 3rd ed., 90)TROCHLEAR NERVE (MH 05; AI09)# It is thinnest cranial nerve# It is the only cranial nerve, which emerges on the dorsal aspect of brain stem (from superior medullar velum near frenulum veli just below the inferior colliculus).# It supplies the contralateral superior oblique muscle of eyeball.# In fourth-nerve paralysis the patient complains of double vision on looking straight downward. This is because the superior oblique is paralyzed and eye turns medially as the inferior rectus pulls eye downward.# Hint:- LR6- SO4 (Lateral rectus is supplied by 6th cranial nerve & superior oblique by 4th cranial nerve) | Anatomy | Cranial Nerves | Which of the following cranial nerves originates from dorsal aspect of the brain?
A. Abducens
B. Oculomotor
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal
| Trochlear |
c87d8e2e-2341-4c88-8332-cacaaacb3ec1 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Carbonic anhydrase Copper containing enzymes are cytochrome oxidase, tyrosinase, lysyl oxidase, ferroxidase (ceruloplasmin), Ascorbic acid oxidase, and superoxide dismutase.Has been explained in previous sessions. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following does not require copperfor action ?
A. Tyrosinase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Carbonic anhydrase
D. Ceruloplasmin
| Carbonic anhydrase |
c38e377a-d4bc-411b-b14e-b44e7cf1437e | Tretinoin is a cancer medication used to treat acute promyelocytic leukemia Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia For use in patients with APL classification M3, which is characterized by the presence of t(15;17) translocation and/or the presence of the PML/RAR-alpha gene, who are refractory to, or have relapsed from, anthracycline chemotherapy, as well as for use in patients for whom anthracycline-based chemotherapy is contraindicated Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1313 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | . Tretinoin is useful in the treatment of -
A. M2
B. M3
C. M5
D. M7
| M3 |
32735367-7fef-4509-b874-019417db7584 | Ans. B: Giemsa stain Mycoplasma are gram negative but are better stained by Giemsa stain Mycoplasma Genus of bacteria that lack a cell wall. Without a cell wall, they are unaffected by many common antibiotics such as penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis. M. pneumonine, which is an impoant cause of atypical pneumonia Mycoplasma is by definition restricted to veebrate hosts. Cholesterol is required for the growth of species of the genus Mycoplasma. Their optimum growth temperature is often the temperature of their host if warmbodied (e. g. 37deg C in humans) or ambient temperature if the host is unable to regulate its own internal temperature. Mycoplasmas are unusual among bacteria in that most require sterols for the stability of their cytoplasmic membrane. Sterols are acquired from the environment, usually as cholesterol from the animal host. Mycoplasmas generally possess a relatively small genome of 0.58-1.38 megabases Additionally they use an alternate genetic code where the codon UGA is encoding for the amino acid tryptophan instead of the usual opal stop codon. They have a low GC-content (23-40 mol %). Mycoplasma cells are physically small - less than 1 - and they are therefore difficult to detect with a conventional microscope. Mycoplasmas are Gram negative but are better stained by Giemsa stain Colonies are typically biphasic, with a fried egg appearance Detection techniques include DNA Probe, enzyme immunoassays, PCR, plating on sensitive agar and staining with a DNA stain | Microbiology | null | Stain employed for mycoplasma is: September 2011
A. Acid fast
B. Giemsa stain
C. Methylene blue
D. Congo red
| Giemsa stain |
5e32d009-7d0c-4d83-9cc1-f7bf3ac23100 | First Metacarpophalangeal joint REF: Gray's anatomy, 39' edition page 396The primary motor coex contains a detailed topographically organized map (motor homunculus) of the opposite body half, with the head represented most laterally, and the legs and feet represented on the medial surface of the hemisphere in the paracentral lobule. A striking feature is the dispropoionate representation of body pas in relation to their physical size. Thus, large areas represent the muscles of the hand and face, which are capable of finely controlled or fractionated movements. | Anatomy | null | Which one of the following has maximum area of representation in the cerebral motor coex?
A. Shoulder joint
B. Elbow joint
C. Wrist joint
D. First Metacarpophalangeal joint
| First Metacarpophalangeal joint |
61a768a1-900b-4483-a95c-6f7a2898ae9a | Cardiolipin: Diphosphatidyl glycerol i.e. 2 phosphatidic acid moieties attached to glycerol. Found in inner mitochondrial membrane. Physiological role: Increases the efficiency of the oxidative phosphorylation by acting as proton trap. Involved in signalling of apoptosis (programmed cell death). Anticoagulant Pathological role: Bah syndrome - defective biosynthesis of Cardiolipin. Antiphospholipid syndrome thrombotic condition leading to aboion. Anti-cardiolipin antibodies are found. | Biochemistry | Chemistry of Lipids | Which of the following phospholipid is predominantly found in the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A. Cardiolipin
B. Cephalin
C. Lecithin
D. Sphingomyelin
| Cardiolipin |
bf47b393-2a43-423e-8d10-41272160d991 | The Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL) Receptor (LDL-R) is a mosaic protein of 839 amino acids (after removal of 21-amino acid signal peptide) that mediates the endocytosis of cholesterol-rich LDL. It is a cell-surface receptor that recognizes the apoprotein B100, which is embedded in the outer phospholipid layer of LDL paicles. The receptor also recognizes the apoE protein found in chylomicron remnants and VLDL remnants (IDL). In humans, the LDL receptor protein is encoded by the LDLR gene on chromosome 19. It belongs to the Low density lipoprotein receptor gene family. It is most significantly expressed in bronchial epithelial cells and adrenal gland and coex tissue. Ref Robbins 9/e p264 | Pathology | General pathology | Receptors of LDL is/are
A. B1OO
B. B48
C. APO A1
D. APO A11
| B1OO |
e1a5b51b-0f3c-445e-b73f-0b023fae9248 | Urea is minimally absorbed. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:491,492,493 | Physiology | Renal physiology | Least absorption out of the following through the kidney is for
A. Glucose
B. Urea
C. Na
D. HCO3
| Urea |
07b7cc88-0fb8-47dc-86fb-a201bfa56785 | Quantification assays : plaque and pock assay. | Microbiology | null | Virus quantification is done by
A. Electron microscopy
B. Light microscopy
C. Plaque assay
D. Egg inoculation
| Plaque assay |
43c8b2ee-cff3-4be0-9eef-2df309d5a320 | Ans. A: IXHemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease. Hemophilia A is deficiency of factor VIII (classical hemophilia).It has sex-linked inheritance. | Physiology | null | Hemophilia B is deficiency of which factor:September 2007
A. IX
B. XII
C. VIII
D. X
| IX |
9d4313c0-fb87-44e7-90d0-b6dd61828cc3 | Answer- A. Focal neurologic deficitFocal reurological signs are unusual. Deep tendon reflexes are normal, increased or decreased.Corneal reflex is preserved, except in deep coma. Abdominal reflexes are invariably absent. Cremesteric reflex is often preserved.Extensor plantar response occurs in half of the patients. | Medicine | null | Which is not a feature of cerebral malaria ?
A. Focal neurologic deficit
B. Retinal haemorrhages
C. Extensor plantar reflex
D. Absent abdominal relfex
| Focal neurologic deficit |
1a0e9985-c144-4641-b7a7-3f99ae30148f | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7% Given, 95% values lie between 56 and 76% So, 5% values lie below 56 and above 76 altogether . So, 2.5% lies below 56. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | If a 95% confidence interval for prevalence of cancer smokers aged> 65 years is 56% to 76%, the chance that the prevalence could be less than 56% is-
A. Nil
B. 44%
C. 2.50%
D. 5%
| 2.50% |
c220d687-9607-474a-a5d5-dfa2e99087f0 | Ref: Goodman & Gillman's 13th ed. P 466* Nephrogenic DI may be congenital or acquired. Causes can be:# Hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, post obstructive renal failure, Li+, foscarnet, clozapine, demeclocycline, and other drugs can induce nephrogenic DI.* Thiazide diuretics reduce the polyuria of patients with DI and often are used to treat nephrogenic DI.* DOC for central diabetes insipidus: Desmopressin (V2 receptor agonist)* DOC for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: Thiazide diuretics.* DOC for lithium induced diabetes insipidus: Amiloride | Pharmacology | G.I.T | DOC for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:
A. Mannitol
B. Spironolactone
C. Thiazides
D. Demeclocycline
| Thiazides |
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