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d526208f-dff6-426c-8de3-69d87a0a23ea | Ans. is b i.e. Emergency cesarean section Patients in labour with transverse lie can be managed by external cephalic version followed by surgical rupture of the membrane. But it is impoant to note that the patient is a primigravida with age 30 years i.e. elderly primi, so, ECV is contraindicated. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | 30 years old primipara in labour with transverse lie. Treatment of choice is :
A. Internal cephalic version
B. Emergency cesarean section
C. Wait and watch
D. External cephalic version
| Emergency cesarean section |
f4b1dba6-a5c7-44e8-954f-564f95be334b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., In early morningSampling - Collect the whole of patient early morning urine on three consecutive days (Previously it was 24 hours urine collection but now it is not recommended).Culture of three morning urine samples yields a definitive diagnosis in 90% cases. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Collection of urine sample of a patient of TB kidney is done:
A. 24 hours urine
B. 12 hours urine
C. In early morning
D. Any time
| In early morning |
fa75f698-ec3f-4bfe-9c99-80d5f8e9445a | Ans. is'b'i.e., Sublabial sulcus[Rel Dhingra Sh/ep. 422)Caldwell-Luc operation is a process of opening the maxillary antrum through canine fossa by sublabial approach and dealing with the pathology inside the antrum. | ENT | null | Approach to Caldwell Luc operation is ?
A. Hard palate
B. Sublabial sulcus
C. Inferior metus
D. Superior meatus
| Sublabial sulcus |
aa3d5a63-b82d-40dc-b661-52a7e833422a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Enzyme immunoassay Although chlamydia are bacteria, they are obligate intracellular parasites, therefore cultures and other diagnostics tests for chlamydia require procedures much like those used in diagnostic virology laboratories rather than those used in bacteriology laboratories.Diagnosis of chlamydia.Four approaches are available for the laboratory diagnosis of chlamydial infectionsMicroscopic demonstration of elementary or inclusion bodiesIsolation of chlamydia (culture)Antigen detection & Nucleic acid hybridizationSerologyMicroscopic demonstration of elementary or inclusion bodies,Chlamydial elementary bodies and inclusions are large enough to be seen under the light microscopeCytological examination is important and useful only in the examination of conjunctivitis and trachoma caused by chlamydia trachomatis.Another method available for microscopic examination is Immunoflorescence using monoclonal antibody.Isolation of chlamydia.Isolation of chlamydia can be done by inoculation into:embryonated eggsexperimental animals (Hi) tissue culturesEmbryonated eggs -Chlamydia can be grown in yolk sac of 6-8 days old chick embryosIsolation by egg inoculation is tedious and relatively insensitive and has been replaced by tissue cultures. Tissue cultureCell culture is the preferred method for isolation of chlamydiaCell cultures for Chlamydia Trachomatis } - McCoy cells Chlamydia Psittaci } Chlamydia pneumonia -HL or HEp+2 cellsCell cultures used for isolation of chlamydia are pretreated by irradiation or chemicals.Pretreatment with DEAD-dextran reduces the electrostatic barrier to infection before centrifugation of chlamydial or clinical specimen on to the cells. Thus it promotes contact between chlamydial particles and cell monolayer increasing chance of isolation.The cells are then usually incubated in an antimetabolite such as cycloheximide to favour chlamydial competition for host amino acid pool.Antigen detection & Nucleic acid hybridization Antigen detection can be done by two methodDirect florescent antibody (DFA) demonstration -The DFA uses monoclonal antibodies directed against a species specific antigen on the chlamydial major outer membrane protein (MOMP)Enzyme linked immunoassays (EIA'S) -This test detects the presence of genus specific lipopoly saccharide antigens extracted from the elementary bodies in the specimen.Nucleic acid detection * Molecular methods used for the detection of chlamydiae arePolymerase chain reactionLigase chain reactionSerologyAntibodies against chlamydia can be used for diagnosis.A fourfold rise in titres is diagnostic.Serological test are not useful in the diagnostic of genital chlamydia infections because of high prevalence of chlamydial genital tract infection is some societies.Also knowHypersensitivity test -Demonstration of hypersensitivity by skin testing (Frei's test) was widely used formerly for diagnosis of L.G.V. but has been given up because of false positive results.Note:-Enzyme immunoassay is not a method of isolation.I am not sure whether irradiated BHK cell are used in isolation of chlamydia. | Microbiology | Bacteria | The following is not a method of isolation of chlamydia from clinical specimens -
A. Yolk sae inoculation
B. Enzyme immunoassay
C. Tissue culture using irradiated McCoy cells.
D. Tissue culture using irradiated BHK cells
| Enzyme immunoassay |
e6923a9b-c3be-4d6e-a7e4-21d12ec06a65 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Penicillin G . Information in this question are :- i) Patient is sweage worker (high risk group for developing leptospirosis). ii) Jaundice and elevated BUN & creatinine - > Hepatorenal syndrome (Weil's disease). . So, presence of fever, jaundice and elevated BUN & creatinine in a sewage worker ( contact with rat urine) suggests a diagnosis of Weil's disease. . Penicillin G (intravenous) is the recommended agent. | Microbiology | null | A sewage worker presents to the emergency depament with fever and jaundice. Laboratory findings reveal an elevated BUN and serum creatinine suggestive of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is recommended?
A. Cotrimaxozole
B. Erythromycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Penicillin G
| Penicillin G |
21e0fb0d-5497-46f3-98a8-f6378bdd3db5 | Most common cause of hypehyroidism is Graves' disease - 76% followed by Toxic Multinodular goitre - 14% and Toxic Solitary thyroid adenoma - 5%. Reference : page 740 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition | Medicine | Endocrinology | Most common cause of hypehyroidism-
A. Thyroid hyperplasia
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Thyroid carcinoma
D. Grave disease
| Grave disease |
86b1a14e-237a-4ff7-b67a-240a1143f1e0 | Panninculus carnosus is a striated muscle lying in the subcutaneous fascia. Daos muscle is subcutaneous involuntary muscle which continues in front with the fascia of Camper and fascia of Scarpa of anterior abdominal wall. NOTE: In humans the platysma muscle of the neck, palmaris brevis in the hand, and the daos muscle in the scrotum are described as a discrete muscle of the panniculus carnosus. | Anatomy | Abdominal wall ,Inguinal and Femoral region | Discrete muscle of Panninculus carnosus is:-
A. Temporo parietalis
B. Occipitalis.
C. Cremastric.
D. Daos.
| Daos. |
dbb88dc3-9cf4-4c17-9845-4ed11c1f4e68 | Ans: A i.e. Ohotolidine test Test/instruments and their use Ohotolidine test enables both free and combined chlorine in water to be determined with speed and accuracy Horrock's water testing apparatus is designed to find out the dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water Paterson's chloronome is one such device for measuring, regulating and administering gaseous chlorine to water supplies Kata thermometer was originally devised for measuring the "cooling power" of the air. The Kata thermometer is now largely used as an anemometer for recording low air velocities rather than the cooling power of the air | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Estimation of free chlorine of water is done by: March 2012, March 2013 (c, g)
A. Ohotolidine test
B. Horrock's apparatus
C. Paterson's chloronome
D. Kata thermometer
| Ohotolidine test |
28086f93-6a45-4fc9-a259-cba21a933d82 | Miotics-like pilocarpine act by increasing the trabecular outflow. Drugs for Glaucoma- Mechanism of Action Brimonidine- Reducing aqueous production and Latanoprost- Increasing uveoscleral flow . Pilocarpine-Increase the trabecular outflow Betaxolol-Reduces aqueous secretion by cilary body Ref-KDT 6/e p145 | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the following drugs acts on trabecular meshwork and affects the aquatic outflow
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Brimonidine
D. Brinzolamide
| Pilocarpine |
b6a63ccb-de8b-4d1b-8c95-87cfe02bf801 | High Resoluon CT (HRCT) is investigation of choice for interstitial lung disease as it can delineate the lung parenchyma upto the level of secondary pulmonary lobule. | Medicine | null | Investigation of choice for detection and characterization of interstitial lung disease is
A. MRI
B. Chest x-ray
C. Venlaon perfusion scan
D. High resoluon CT
| High resoluon CT |
0df2a685-089c-455d-8e1a-7e41d741e987 | Potential" refers to electrical potential, or voltage, and paicularly to voltage recorded with a microelectrode embedded within neuronal tissue, typically in the brain of an anesthetized animal or within a thin slice of brain tissue maintained in vitro. The electrical activities in the neurons are rapid being measured in milliseconds, and the voltage changes are too small measured in millivolts.........the microelectrode has a tip diameter of less thanone mirometer .....hence it is used to measure the synaptic potential. Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e p58 | Physiology | General physiology | Synaptic potentials can be recorded by
A. Patch clamp technique
B. Voltage clamp technique
C. Microelectrode
D. EEG
| Microelectrode |
db8da8ad-78b4-465c-8a12-c27420dbc988 | Option 1-Anti Rabies antibodies in blood appear late and can also be present after vaccination. So detection of antibodies in CSF is more significant. Option 2: Direct fluorescent antibody test is the ideal method of antemoem diagnosis of rabies. Samples can be: Corneal impression smear is only 30% sensitive, mainly it is positive in late stage. Biopsy of hair follicle of base of neck is more sensitive and considered as the best sample for direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test . (But it is not given in the options above.) Hence, the answer is Immunofluorescence of corneal impression. Option 3: The brain biopsy of the dead animal is the specimen of choice for postmoem diagnosis of rabies. A B fig:-Histopathological examination of central nervous system tissue from autopsy of a decedent with suspected rabies infection,. (A)showing neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions (Negri bodies) after hematoxylin and eosin staining. (B).rabies virus antigen (red) after immunohistochemical staining Negri body detection is postmoem method of diagnosis, however it may not be detected in 20% of the cases. | Microbiology | Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses) | which of the following is best for ante-moem diagnosis of rabies?
A. Anti Rabies antibodies in blood
B. Immunofluorescence of corneal impression
C. Negri body detection
D. Isolation of virus from saliva.
| Immunofluorescence of corneal impression |
f162a241-94e0-475b-85af-0eff52b26936 | .bias is any systematic error in the determination of the association between the exposure and disease.the relative risk may increase or decreaseas a result of the bias,it reflects some type of non comparability between the study and control groups.berkensonian bias,named after Joseph Berkenson.this bias arises because of the different rates of admission to hospitals for people with different diseases,that is HOSPITAL CASES AND CONTROLS. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 71 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Berkesonian bias is a selection bias which occurs in-
A. Community - based studies
B. Hospital - based sudies
C. Laboratory - based studies
D. Natural exposure studies
| Hospital - based sudies |
3d5cba40-ca33-4156-a30b-ce706f97c0e3 | Sec 320 IPC defines grievous hurt and among the given options, only b (fracture) is grievous injury. | Forensic Medicine | null | Injury that comes under sec 320 IPC -
A. Abrasion over face
B. Nasal bone fracture
C. Epistaxis
D. Lacerated wound over scalp
| Nasal bone fracture |
974aee4e-fd03-47a9-8d5f-b7ed3a2701a3 | * Clear cell carcinoma arises from Proximal Convoluted Tubule * Most common ,associated with VHL gene mutation, invade the renal vein& bony secondaries. * Clinical features : -Hematuria -Palpable mass -Costoveebral pain -Fever/ weight loss/malaise * It is not a childhood tumor. | Pathology | Renal carcinoma | Which one of the following is not a feature of clear cell carcinoma of the kidney?
A. Bony secondaries
B. Childhood tumour
C. Haematuria
D. Renal vein invasion
| Childhood tumour |
fb4e4761-2b46-43b5-ae8d-496a1e23bf4c | The cerebral aqueduct (D) is the cavity of the midbrain that develops from the mesencephalon. The lateral ventricle (A) is the cavity of telencephalon and the third ventricle (C) is the cavity of diencephalon. The interventricular foramen of Monro (B) serves as the communication between the two. The fouh ventricle (E) is the cavity of the rhombencephalon. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy, Head and Neck | A neonate had suffered from a teratogenic insult during embryonic growth that has affected the mesencephalic pa of his developing neural tube. In the presented cast of his ventricular system (left lateral view), which of the following areas might have suffered
A. Area B
B. Area C
C. Area D
D. Area E
| Area D |
e1891651-bf7a-4679-bc07-d661283e32e7 | Ref-KDT 6/e 732 * Severe allergy to penicillins rule out the use of amoxicillin and cefazolin. * Vancomycin is highly effective against MRSA and enterococcal intections. * Drugs for VRSA and VRE (Vancomvcin Resistant enterococcus faecalis) include linezolid and daptomycin. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | A patient needs antibiotic treatment for Aificial valve, culture positive infective entercoccal endocarditis. His medical history include several anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. The best approach would be treatment with
A. Amoxicillin clavulanic acid
B. Aztreonam
C. Cefazolin plus gentamicin
D. Vancomycin
| Vancomycin |
ca089948-e471-4aa8-8770-b54c4a7f63c1 | Cutaneous small-vessel vasculitis (also known as “Cutaneous leukocytoclastic angiitis and “Hypersensitivity angiitis”) is an inflammation of small blood vessels characterized clinically by palpable purpura.
Subtypes of Small-Vessel Vasculitis Include:
• Henoch-Schonlein purpura
• Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
• Urticarial vasculitis
• Cryoglobulinemic vasculitis | Pathology | null | Hypersensitivity angiitis is seen in?
A. SLE
B. Polyarteritis Nodosa
C. Buerger's disease
D. Henoch Schonlein purpura
| Henoch Schonlein purpura |
7067e1bc-2445-4585-8a6a-c2ef63dfc666 | Marfan's syndrome is characterized by ectopia lentis (superior-temporal) 80% and megalocornea 15% in the eye. Ref: A.K KHURANA (2005), Chapter 8, "Disease of The Lens", In the book, "Opthalmology", 3rd Edition, Newdelhi, Page 210 | Ophthalmology | null | Marfan's syndrome has which of the following prominent eye defects?
A. Megalocornea
B. Microcornea
C. Microspherophakia
D. Ectopia lentis
| Ectopia lentis |
57afc867-2b7e-4ff0-b237-5cc730eb66c3 | Cardioprotective: HDL It is synthesized and secreted by liver cells. It has maximum phospholipids. It takes cholesterol from periphery to liver, also known as reverse cholesterol transpo. HDL conves this cholesterol into cholesterol ester with the help of enzyme LCAT-Lecithin Cholesterol Acyl Transferase. Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissue | Biochemistry | FMGE 2019 | Which of the following is cardio protective?
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. CHYLOMICRON
| HDL |
002bc54b-1848-4d1a-8faa-2771da6c0938 | Introns are excised by RNA splicing by Sn-RNAs/Snurp. | Biochemistry | null | Introns are exised by
A. RNA splicing
B. RNA editing
C. Restriction endonuclease
D. DNAase
| RNA splicing |
2db364ab-1afa-49bf-a766-0bf4be574965 | Halogens are potent bactericidal, fungicidal, sporicidal, tuberculocidal, and virucidal. Others are given are only slowly effective against spores. Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 128 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Which one of the following disinfectant is effective in killing spores -
A. Alcohol
B. Aldehyde
C. Halogens
D. Phenol
| Halogens |
f6e7113b-9509-4a56-8725-f975923ec2f8 | Nonoperative therapy, with close periodic follow-up, is advised for lesions <4 cm in diameter with benign imaging characteristics, whereas adrenalectomy is recommended for lesions >=4 cm in size due to the increased risk of cancer. | Surgery | Parathyroid and adrenal glands | Incidental finding in CT scan, a 3 cm adrenal mass, which of the following is not done?
A. Adrenalectomy
B. Dexamethasone suppression test
C. Measurement of catecholamines
D. Midnight plasma coisol
| Adrenalectomy |
d3be89a4-9bd5-46a8-8d62-af21c0a5b899 | In humans, nails grow at an average rate of 3 mm (0.12 in) a month. Fingernails require three to six months to regrow completely, and toenails require twelve to eighteen months. Actual growth rate is dependent upon age, sex, season, exercise level, diet, and hereditary factors. Nails grow faster in the summer than they do in the winter. | Dental | Disorders of nail | In humans, nails grow at an average rate of ______ a month:
A. 1 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 5 mm
D. 7 mm
| 3 mm |
12ebc2b3-2674-4d78-a092-4c6bb7cadd34 | The angle between the lower border of 12th rib and the outer border of erector spinae (sacrospinalis) is known as a renal angle. | Anatomy | null | Renal angle lies between -
A. 12th rib & lateral border of sacrospinalis
B. 11th rib & lateral border of sacrospinalis
C. 12th rib & lateral border of quadratus lumborum
D. 11th rib & lateral border of quadratus lumborum
| 12th rib & lateral border of sacrospinalis |
9ecd801b-63fa-471d-9393-faacb0607d4f | Septate Sorry for this one friends, 2 very reliable textbooks quote different incidences of different malformations. Anomaly r Per cent Anomaly Per cent' * Bicornuate uterus 37% * Septate uterus 35% * Arcuate uterus 15%. * Bicornuate uterus 26% I * Incomplete septum 13%' * Arcuate uterus 18% * Uterus didelphys 11% * Unicornuate uterus 10% * Complete septum 9% - * Uterus didelphys 8% * Unicornuate uterus 4% Now decide for yourself which book would you like to follow. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | MC congenital abnormality of uterus is :
A. Uterus didelphys
B. Arcuate
C. Unicornuate
D. Septate
| Septate |
e6252ce5-6cf4-4496-a7c3-4ebfb38c4c15 | The patient's elevated blood pressure in the doctor's office is the conditioned (learned) response. This response results from an association that has been made by classical conditioning between the doctor and/or his white coat (conditioned stimulus) and something negative in the patient's past (unconditioned stimulus), a reaction commonly called "white-coat hypeension." The patient's blood pressure is relatively normal when taken at home. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | White-coat hypeension is an example of :
A. the unconditioned stimulus
B. the unconditioned response
C. the conditioned stimulus
D. the conditioned response
| the conditioned response |
36bdf397-8da3-4c0c-a8a5-120885df1742 | Myoglobin is a monomeric protein that acts as a secondary oxygen transporter and binder in the muscle tissues.
Furthermore, the tertiary feature of myoglobin resembles water-soluble globule protein characteristics.
The diffusion and use of oxygen in the muscles are necessary for the bodily system processes such as respiration.
Myoglobin has 8 right-handed a-helices separately forming a polypeptide chain and each contains a single heme prosthetic group with a central bound iron atom. | Biochemistry | null | The heme prosthetic group is found in
A. Myoglobin
B. Cytochrome oxidase
C. Xanthine oxidase
D. Tyrosine
| Myoglobin |
338789a0-9686-454f-a8cf-070de9ca03f5 | Halothane-catecholamine sensitization also promotes abnormal automaticity of dominant and latent atrial pacemakers. These effects may produce premature ventricular contractions and arrhythmias originating from the His bundle. Intact sinoatrial node function reduces the incidence of epinephrine induced ventricular escape during halothane anesthesia and is protective against His bundle arrhythmias. Halothane and, to a lesser extent, other volatile anesthetics sensitize the myocardium to the arrhythmogenic effects of epinephrine. Sensitization is the interaction between volatile anesthetics and catecholamines that leads to reductions in the threshold for both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias. Halothane and, to a lesser extent, isoflurane may be arrhythmogenic in Purkinje fibers in experimental myocardial infarction by facilitating reentrant activity or increasing temporal dispersion of the refractory period recovery. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e | Anaesthesia | General anaesthesia | Which sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines
A. Isflurane
B. Ether
C. Halothane
D. Propofol
| Halothane |
f756dfcb-6285-4c43-ace4-4f889af1b9ab | Dystocia dystrophia syndrome
Charecteristic appearence
Short
Stalky
Subfertile
Masculine hair distribution
History of delayed menarche
Has android pelvis | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Dystocia dystrophia syndrome is seen in
A. Anthropoid
B. Platypelloid pelvis
C. Android pelvis
D. Gynaecoid pelvis
| Android pelvis |
d457b779-e63c-4467-9ead-d36728ca1c54 | There is a narrowing of the pupil (miosis) due to irritation of sphincter pupillae by toxins. Iris edema and engorged radial vessels of iris also contribute to making the pupil narrow.
The shape of pupil becomes irregular due to segmental posterior synechiae.
The papillary reaction becomes sluggish or may even be absent due to edema and hyperemia of iris which hamper its movement.
There may be ectropion of pupil (eversion of papillary margin), owing to the contraction of organising exudates upon the iris. This causes the pigmented epithelium on the posterior surface of iris to be pulled around the papillary margin so that the patches of pigment may be seen on the anterior surface of the iris, i.e. ectropion of the uveal pigment. | Ophthalmology | null | Pupil in acute attack of Anterior Uveitis is –a) Semi Dilatedb) Large and fixedc) Irregular & constrictedd) Constricted & sluggish reacting
A. cd
B. bc
C. bd
D. ac
| cd |
979a1306-7087-4017-bbc3-b302bb68f710 | Ans. is 'a' SLE Shrinking Lung syndrome* First described by Hoffbrand and beck in 1965.* It manifests as dysnea and is best characterized as diaphragmatic dysfunction leading to diminished lung volumes.* Radiographic evaluation shows diaphragmatic elevation with bibasilar atelectasis - in the absence of parenchymal lung abnormalities.* PFT reveals a restrictive ventilator defect and a decrease in DLCO, that normailses when corrected for alveolar volume.* The hallmark of shrinking lung is the presence of these PFT features in the absence of parenchymal lung abnormalities but with disproportionately severe dysnea.* This is a typical feature of the pulmonary involvement of systemic lupus erythematosus. | Medicine | Respiratory | Shrinking lung syndrome is seen most commonly in -
A. SLE
B. Scleroderma
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Ankylosingspondilytis
| SLE |
96e52b4c-8fbe-4a68-8437-b9778108cf6b | A Harper, 26th ed, p. 183 & 25th ed, p. 243, Fig (24.6) | Biochemistry | Lipids | Ketone body formation takes place in:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Blood
| Liver |
592fea53-9a72-43d5-ba1b-9b3dcfdff066 | Palmer grasp goes at age of 4 monthTransfer object hand to hand 5.5 monthThe purposeful movement staed when there is an absence of Palmer group, so an above option best answer is 6 month(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2798) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Purposeful movement is staed at
A. 6 months
B. 8 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
| 6 months |
d2e66250-f2fd-4151-88f3-c4c5b4909a6b | In human anatomy, the omental foramen (Epiploic foramen, foramen of Winslow, or uncommonly aditus) is the passage of communication or foramen, between the greater sac (general cavity of the abdomen) and the lesser sac.Borders of Epiploic foramen: It has the following boundaries:Anteriorly : free border of lesser omentum, bile duct, hepatic aery and poal vein.Posteriorly : Inferior vena cava, right suprarenal gland and T12 veebraeSuperiorly : Caudate process of caudate lobe of liverInferiorly : First pa of the duodenum and horizontal pa of hepatic aery | Anatomy | null | Which of the following structures form the superior border of Epiploic foramen ?
A. Quadrate lobe of liver
B. Caudate process of caudate lobe of liver
C. Poa hepatis
D. First pa of the duodenum
| Caudate process of caudate lobe of liver |
e699b00a-fddc-40d6-ba00-cf9960fcc4a4 | Antidotes for OP compounds : (1) atropine (2) oximes (Pralidoxime : PAM, obidoxime and diacetylmonoxirne : DAM). | Forensic Medicine | null | Antidote for organophosphorus poisoning is -
A. PAM
B. Adrenaline
C. Anti-dopaminergics
D. Ephedrine
| PAM |
c32f8547-3512-4256-8030-868502c130e9 | DEVELOPMENT OF THE TONGUE :? I. Epithelium a) Ant 2/3 -- lingual swellings of 1st arch and tuberculum impar b) Post 1/3 -- large dorsal pa of hypobranchial eminence, Le. 3rd arch c) Posterior most pa -- small dorsal pa of the hypobranchial eminence, i.e. 4th arch II. Muscles From occipital myotomes except palatoglossus which is derived from the 6th arch. | Anatomy | null | Tongue muscle which is not developed from occipital myotome ?
A. Styloglossus
B. Hyoglossus
C. Genioglossus
D. Palatoglossus
| Palatoglossus |
3bcf18e2-7da2-4c1b-80ba-38a17aca8644 | (C) Propyl Thiouracil # All antithyroid drugs can cross placenta so risk of fetal hypothyroidism and goitre is always there.> Both carbimazole and propylthiourcil can be used during pregnancy, but propyl-thiouracil is the drug of choice because its greater protein binding allows low doses of propylthioracil to be transferred across the placenta and therefore less chance of hypothyroidism.> Lowest effective dose of propyl thiouracil should be given and it is often possible to stop treatment in the last trimester since TSH Receptor antibodies tend to decline in pregnancy.> Radioactive iodine is C/l during pregnancy> It can destroy the fetal thyroid tissue resulting in cretinism> Carbimazole and methimazole have been associated with rare cases of foetal aplasia cutis. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | The drug of choice for the treatment of Thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is
A. Carbimazole
B. Iodine therapy
C. Propyl Thiouracil
D. Metimazole
| Propyl Thiouracil |
48bf4552-3a7b-4b08-b521-6d2a92697e9a | Commonly, no cause is found for constrictive pericarditis. Some patients do give a history of previous acute pericarditis. TB is now an uncommon cause. Cancer can cause constriction but is uncommon. Rheumatic fever does not cause pericarditis. | Medicine | C.V.S. | A 47-year-old man is found to have edema, ascites, and hepatosplenomegaly. The examination of his neck veins reveals elevated venous pressure with a deep y descent. Heart size on x-ray is normal. Which of the following etiologies is not a possible explanation for this syndrome?
A. rheumatic fever
B. TB
C. unknown cause
D. previous acute pericarditis
| rheumatic fever |
7bf77e57-99bb-4774-910d-3f16127586d1 | Ans. A: Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip A waddling gait is the style of walking that is seen in a patient with proximal myopathy. It is characterised by: A broad-based gait with a duck-like waddle to the swing phase The pelvis drops to the side of the leg being raised Forward curvature of the lumbar spine Marked body swing This gait may be seen in patients with bilateral congenital hip dislocation and pregnancy. | Surgery | null | Waddling gait due to: March 2009
A. Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip
B. Coxa valga
C. CTEV
D. Bilateral coxa valgum
| Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip |
2889e536-9889-48df-aff7-f1458f6c90e2 | Activation of ETA receptor causes pulmonary vasoconstriction. These are endothelin receptors.Ref: Ganong review of medical physiology, 23rd edition Page no: 609 | Physiology | Respiratory system | Activation of which receptor causes pulmonary vasoconstriction?
A. Alpha 2 adrenergic
B. H2 histamine
C. M3 cholinergic
D. ETA epithelial receptor
| ETA epithelial receptor |
382dd98d-650d-40ee-82a2-bfa73949ce88 | Ans. C. ARDSShock Lung/ARDS is a clinical syndrome caused by diffuse alveolar capillary and epithelial damage. There is usually rapid onset of life-threatening respiratory insufficiency, cyanosis, and severe arterial hypoxemia that is refractory to oxygen therapy and that may progress to multisystem organ failure. The histologic manifestation of ARDS in the lungs is known as diffuse alveolar damage. | Medicine | Respiratory | Shock lung synonym is used for
A. COPD
B. Alveolar proteinosis
C. ARDS
D. HMD
| ARDS |
be02c8e1-11d2-4bd7-88ea-3f0b8c3521a4 | The expected values of the Trans-tubular potassium gradient (T.T.K.G) are <3-4 in the presence of hypokalemia and >6-7 in the presence of hyperkalemia. TTKG is measured as follows: | Medicine | Fluids and Electrolyte Imbalance | Trans-tubular potassium gradient (T.T.K.G) in hypokalemia is?
A. <3-4
B. >6-7
C. >9-10
D. >10-15
| <3-4 |
7eab82f9-8f1c-4522-8744-570c6cec3c7b | A sweat test measures the amount of chloride, a pa of salt, in Sweat. It is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis (CF). People with CF have a high level of chloride in their sweat. CF is a disease that causes mucus build-up in the lungs and other organs. It damages the lungs and makes it hard to breathe Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 944 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Which of the following investigation would be diagnostic of cystic fibrosis?
A. Deficiency of the enzyme mucinase
B. High sweat chloride content
C. Alpha-1 aldolase deficiency
D. Increased copper excretion in urine
| High sweat chloride content |
e4354f2c-cd8d-4a2b-ab56-11a37ccd2542 | Intention tremor is seen in cerebellar lesions and “pill-rolling” tremors at rest is typical of Parkinson’s disease. | Medicine | null | Intention tremor is characteristic of :-
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Fronto temporal Dementia
C. Progressive Supra Nuclear Palsy
D. Cerebellar lesions
| Cerebellar lesions |
79bc1dd0-acfc-4313-8c05-78bce8bd7f03 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Optic chiasma Characteristic defect of central chiasmatic lesion is bitemporal hemianopia. This question has been asked in almost all the examinations. Site oflesion Visual field defect Optic nerveOptic chiasmaOptic tractLateral geniculate bodYOptic radiation (Total)Optic radiation lower fibres (temporal lobe)Optic radiation upper fibres (parietal lobe)Visual coex (anterior occipital coex)Occipital coex tiP BlindnessBitemporal hemianoPiaIncongruent homonymous hemianopiaHomonymous hemianoPiaHomonymous hemianopia, sornetimes with macular sparinqHomonymous upper quadrantanoPiaHomonymous I ower quadrantanoPiaffo*oo"rno"s hemianopia with macular sparingHomonymous macular defect | Anaesthesia | null | Site of lesion in Bitemporal hemianopia is ?
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic tract
C. Optic chiasma
D. Optic radiation
| Optic chiasma |
69beeaad-ca09-4c1e-b28e-0a66156d64b7 | Turban epiglottis is due to oedema and infiltration of the epiglottis and is caused by laryngeal tuberculosis. Lupus: a form of tuberculosis, on the other hand, eats away and destroys the epiglottis. Pseudoedema of the epiglottis is known as "turban epiglottis". Ref: PL Dhingra 7th edition of Ear, Nose and Throat; Pg no 331 | ENT | Larynx | Turban epiglottis is seen in
A. Tuberculosis
B. Leprosy
C. Laryngeal papilloma
D. Epiglottitis
| Tuberculosis |
ee002345-22c8-41d4-a42c-559705962a20 | Ans: a (Psoriatic arthritis) Ref: Harrison's, 16th ed,p. 1998; 17th ed, p. 2115Arthritis mutilans is due to psoriatic arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis involves PIP, DIP and metacarpopha- langeal joints and may or may not involve the wrist.Psoriatic arthritis can present with a wide spectrum of clinical features namely:1) Asymmetrical inflammatory oligoarthritis - 40%2) Symmetrical polyarthritis - 25%3) Predominant distal interphalangeal joint arthritis -15%4) Psoriatic spondylitis-15% C5) Arthritis mutilans - 5%.It is the most serious condition and the skin of fingers appears telescoped.NoteOsteoarthritis -Involves PIP, DIP and 1st carpometacarpal joint (base of thumb). Spares MCPand wrist.Rheumatoid arthritis -Involves any small joint of hand eg PIP, MCP, wrist. Sparing of DIP.Psoriatic arthritis -Involvement of PIP, DIP, MCP and wrist. Sparing of any joint may or may not be present.RememberIf DIP is involved, Rheumatoid arthritis can be ruled out.Similarly if MCP joint is involved, osteoarthritis can be ruled out. | Medicine | Immunology and Rheumatology | Arthritis mutilans is due to:
A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Rheumatic arthritis
| Psoriatic arthritis |
af5d8acd-c032-48a6-8c88-86fa51b49381 | Ans. C i.e. Hypehermia Hypothermia is seen and hence blood should be warmed before infusion | Anaesthesia | null | NOT a complication of massive blood transfusion: March 2013 (d)
A. Septicemia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hypehermia
D. ARDS
| Hypehermia |
7ad10ce8-f679-47fd-8fd7-69dd293ccc27 | Amyloidosis is the major cause of restrictive cardiomyopathyCardiac amyloid is classically suspected from thickened ventricular walls with an ECG that shows low voltage.By electron microscopy, all types of amyloid consist of continuous, nonbranching fibrils with a diameter of approximately 7.5 to 10 nm. X-ray crystallography and infrared spectroscopy demonstrate a characteristic cross-b-pleated sheet conformationHarrison 19e pg: 1567 | Pathology | miscellaneous | A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive hea disease. A right ventricular endomyocardial biopsy revealed deposition of extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of
A. Non branching filaments of 7.5 to 10 nm
B. Cross banded fibres with 67 m periodicity
C. Weber Palade bodies
D. Concentric whorls of lamellar structures
| Non branching filaments of 7.5 to 10 nm |
6c70b09c-5d5d-4a9b-9037-64983280ab89 | Prevalence criteria for determining the xerophthalmia problem: Criteria Prevalence in population at risk (6 months to 6 years) Nightblindness More than 1% Bitot's spots More than 0.5% Corneal xerosis/corneal ulceration/ keratomalacia More than 0.01% Corneal ulcer More than 0.05% Serum retinol (less than 10 mcg/dl) More than 5% Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine by K Park, 19th edition, Page 486. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Prevalence of vitamin-A deficiency in a community is assessed as the following:
A. Night blindness-10%
B. Corneal ulcer-0.1%
C. Bitot spots-0.5%
D. Decreased serum retinol level-0.05%
| Bitot spots-0.5% |
9d0b06e8-5c5f-4de0-a86f-35d49cdc43db | Multiple myeloma is one of the most common causes for amyloidosis that leads to renal failure. The plasma cells secrete light chains and produce the proteinuria as well as the amyloid. | Surgery | null | Bence Jones proteinuria is found on a urinalysis specimen from a 63 year old woman. She is developing chronic renal failure and has a high serum urea nitrogen and creatinine. A radiograph of the veebral column demonstrates multiple 1 to 2 cm rounded areas of decreased bone density. The pathological examination from a renal biopsy is likely to show which of the following complication?
A. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
B. Sclerodactyly
C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
D. Amyloidosis
| Amyloidosis |
ce1d98be-17da-4361-b90f-897af1e29b48 | Ans. is 'c' ie USG There can be various reason for a filling defect on IVP - stones, mass, cyst etc. They can be very well be diagnosed by USG. | Surgery | null | After a single episode of painless gross hematuria in a boy. Doctor performed an excretory urogram showing a filling defect towards the lower renal infundibulum 1.5 cm. in size. What will be the next investigation to be done ?
A. Cystoscopy
B. Urine cytology
C. USG
D. Retrograde pyelography
| USG |
18e5d2f4-6c4d-47d6-850e-caef4182f484 | (Fuster, 10/e, pp 52, 88.) The right coronary aery supplies most of the inferior myocardium and supplies the AV node in over 70% of patients. Thus occlusion of this aery can cause ischemia of the AV node with AV block or bradycardia, as well as symptoms of an inferior MI as seen in this patient. AV block can occur with anterior MI related to LAD occlusion, but this generally implies a greater area of myocardial involvement and hemodynamic instability. | Surgery | null | A 60-year-old female presents with epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, hea rate of 50, and pronounced first-degree AV block on ER cardiac monitor. Blood pressure is 130/80. The coronary aery most likely to be involved in this process is the
A. Right coronary
B. Left main
C. Left anterior descending
D. Left anterior descending
| Right coronary |
846495f6-24e8-49eb-8bae-ef1ab1371a94 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Angina AssessmentThe London school of Hygjne chest pain questionnaire-The Rose questionaire (version for self administration)PARTAa)Have you ever had any pain or discomfort in your chest# Yes# Nob) Do you get this pain or discomfort when you walk uphill or hurry?# Yes# Noc) Do you get it when you walk at an ordinary pace on the level?# Yes# Nod) When you get any pain or discomfort in your chest what do you do ?# Stop# Slow down# Continue at the same pacee)Does it go away when you stand still?# Yes# Nof) How soon# 10 minutes or less# More than 19 minutesg) Where do you get this pain or discomfort? Mark the place (s) with an X on the diagram.PARTBHave you ever had a severe pain across the front of your chest lasting for half an hour or more# Yes# NoDEFINITIONS OF POSITIVE CLASSIFICA TIONa) Angina 'Yes' to (a) and (b)'Stop' or 'Slow down' to (d),'Yes'to (e)' 10 minutes or less' to (f)Site must include either strenum (any level) or L. anterior chest and left arm.Grade 1 = 'No' to (c), Grade 2 = 'Yes' to 'c'b) Possible infarction 'Yes' in this section | Medicine | Alcohol | WHO Rose Questionnaire is used for -
A. Alcohol Addiction
B. Angina Assessment
C. DVT Assessment
D. Arrhythmia Assessment
| Angina Assessment |
db4856a6-21f8-4e44-ab3f-88404cd492ee | This T1-weighted sagittal MRI scan reveals a dumbbell-shaped homogeneous mass involving the sella turcica and the suprasellar region. This lesion is most consistent with a pituitary adenoma, a benign tumor arising from the adenohypophysis. Pituitary adenomas are the most common sellar lesion and constitute 10-15% of all intracranial neoplasms. Macroadenomas (>10 mm) are generally non secreting tumors. Microadenomas (<10 mm) become clinically apparent from hormonal secretion. They may secrete prolactin (amenorrhea or galactorrhea), growth hormone (gigantism or acromegaly), or ACTH (Cushing syndrome). The tumor pictured is a macroadenoma. Its dumbbell shape results from impingement on the adenoma by the diaphragm of the sella turcica. The suprasellar extension seen here makes a frontal craniotomy rather than a transsphenoidal approach more appropriate. | Surgery | Nervous System | A 39-year-old man presents to his physician with the complaint of loss of peripheral vision. The subsequent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan below demonstrates
A. Cerebral atrophy
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Optic glioma
D. Pontine hemorrhage
| Pituitary adenoma |
57acc815-aa87-4417-9db6-26f6a456c054 | Ans, B. (Little's area] Little's area or kiesselbach's plexus Q - This is the vascular area in the antero inferior part of nasal septum. It is the commonest1-1 site for epistaxis.Arteries Involved in Kisselbach's Plexus Formation"Four arteri es-anterior ethmoidal, septal branch of superior labialQ, septal branch of sphenopalatine1'1 & the greater palatine1 anastomose to form a vascular plexus called kisselbach's plexus"- P.L Dhingra 4th/166According to LT other arteries involved beside above four are-posterior ethmoidal artery, infra orbital artery, superior dental artery & pharyngeal branch of maxillary artery.According to maqbool-there are four arteries involved as like Dhingra.So, from above discussion it is clear that posterior ethmoidal artery should not mark as correct option because in PG1 it is better to leave it there is confusion. Even Scott & Brown could not help.Little s AreaIt is situated in the antero- inferior part of nasal septum just above the vertibule.This area is exposed to the drying effect of inspiratory current and to fingernail trauma & is the usual site for epistaxis in children & young adults.Also the site for origin of the bleeding polypus (haemangioma) of nasal septum.Woodruffs AreaThis vascular area is situated under the posterior end of inferior turbinate where sphenopalatine artery anastomoses with posterior pharyngeal artery. Posterior epistaxis may occur in this area.Fig. Blood supply of nasal septum. | ENT | Nose and PNS | Common sites of bleeding are: (PGI June 2008)
A. Woodruff plexus
B. Little's area
C. Brown's area
D. Vestibular Area
| Little's area |
95e81367-e0bb-4cba-83f1-647af94138f2 | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. RET gene is a proto oncogene normally code for receptor for growth factor ( RET receptor). Point mutation to this gene causes multiple endocrine neoplasi type 2A, type2B , medullary carcinoma of thyroid.. | Pathology | General pathology | The expression of the following oncogene is associated with a high incidence of Medullary carcinoma of thyroid-
A. P 53
B. Her 2 neu
C. RET protooncogene
D. Rb gene
| RET protooncogene |
2467534e-db69-4826-9ebe-3f03adaad3ee | Most common cardiac anamoly associated with Noonan's syndrome is pulmonary stenosis. | Pediatrics | null | Most common cardiac anamoly associated with Noonan 's syndrome is
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Pulmonary stenosis
D. Atrial septal defect
| Pulmonary stenosis |
87c6d7dd-7ce6-47c3-9daf-4e2ad02a1652 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Folic acid o Folic acid supplementation decreases the incidence and recurrence of neural tube defects (NTD). Because the neural tube closes within the 1st 28 days ofconception, periconceptional supplementation is needed for prevention. It is recommended that women without a prior history of a NTD, ingest 400 ?g/day throughout their reproductive years. Women with a history of a prior pregnancy complicated by a NTD or a Ist-degree relative with a NTD should have preconceptual counseling and they should ingest 4 mgfday of supplemental folic acid at least 1 mo before conception. Use of some antiepileptic drugs (valproatet carbamazepine) during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of NTD. Women taking these medications should ingest 1-5 mg of folic acid/day in the preconception period. | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | 1 day old m ale baby delivered by LSCS had swelling over back in midline.
A. Iron
B. Folic acid
C. Thiamine
D. Vit A
| Folic acid |
371c2c9c-5b9b-4c5e-ab2d-423d6be70b81 | In case of antemoem burns the blisters are filled with serous fluid and the base is red in colour. All the other options given are consistent with ante moem burns. Note that no inflammatory changes are seen in post-moem burns. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr.K S Narayan Reddy, 21st Edition, Page 277 | Forensic Medicine | null | Which of the following is NOT consistent with antemoem burns?
A. Presence of marked cellular exudates
B. Presence of line of redness
C. Blisters containing air and thin clear fluid with yellow base
D. Presence of increased enzymatic reaction at peripheral zone of burns
| Blisters containing air and thin clear fluid with yellow base |
f81cd95c-d6b4-4d16-9abd-3951de36ef9b | Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) includes three neurodevelopmental disorders: autism disorder, Asperger syndrome, and pervasive development disorder (PDD).
There are three levels of impairment noted.
The first notable impairment is social, which, in some cases is extreme, with lack of eye contact and not responding to one’s name.
The second is an impairment in communication, which can result in the delay or complete lack of spoken language. Children with Asperger syndrome do not have a general delay in language or cognitive development; however, they often have communication difficulties, especially in sustaining conversations.
The third area of impairment in ASD is repetitive behaviors. They may include staring, floppy hands, an odd interest in or preoccupation with specific objects.
Parrot like repetitive speech is found in Autism.
Reference: McDONALD AND AVERY’S DENTISTRY for the CHILD and ADOLESCENT, 10th ed page no 528 | Dental | null | Parrot like repetitive speech is found in:
A. Autism
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Marfan's syndrome
D. Mental retardation
| Autism |
7ec42bad-f304-4d2a-ac90-e749c49e07f3 | The findings suggest obstructive jaundice from biliary tract disease (e.g., gallstones). Elevation of the serum alkaline phosphatase level is characteristic of cholestasis from biliary obstruction. The alkaline phosphatase comes from the bile duct epithelium and hepatocyte canalicular membrane. The blood ammonia concentration increases with worsening liver failure. When hepatic failure is sufficient to cause hyperammonemia, mental obtundation is seen. In this case, the patient has only jaundice. Primary biliary cirrhosis with an increased antimitochondrial antibody titer is much less common, and PBD eventually leads to bile duct destruction. Most cases of active HCV infection are accompanied by some degree of inflammation with fibrosis. In obstructive biliary tract disease, the direct bilirubin, not the indirect bilirubin, should be elevated. | Pathology | Liver & Biliary Tract | A 36-year-old woman has become increasingly icteric for 1 month. She has had several bouts of colicky, midabdominal pain for 3 years. On physical examination, she has generalized jaundice with scleral icterus. Her BMI is 32. There is tenderness in the right upper quadrant, and the liver span is normal. A liver biopsy is obtained, and microscopic examination shows bile duct proliferation and intracanalicular bile stasis, but no inflammation or hepatocyte necrosis. The level of which of the following is most likely to be increased in the patient's serum?
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Ammonia
C. Antimitochondrial antibody
D. Hepatitis C antibody
| Alkaline phosphatase |
c452015a-5daa-46ed-b7a6-abd4724f06a0 | Isolated heme binds carbon monoxide (CO) 25,000 times more strongly than oxygen. However, in myoglobin and hemoglobin, heme binds carbon monoxide to only about 200 times more strongly than oxygen.
This is because of distal histidine (His E7 of protein part of hemoglobin and myoglobin create a hindered environment which precludes the high-affinity orientation of CO.
The details of this mechanism are not required at this level. | Biochemistry | null | In hemoglobin, the innate affinity of heme for carbon monoxide is diminished by the presence of -
A. His F8
B. His E7
C. Gly B6
D. Thr C4
| His E7 |
517972b9-93be-4904-8025-4291e8fc4f1e | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Disease with no latent period o The disease to be screened should fulfil the following criteria before it is considered suitable for screening:-The condition sougth should be an important health problem (in general, prevalence should be high).There should be a recognizable latent or early asymptomatic stage.The natural history of the conti ti on, including development from latent to declared disease, should be adequately understood (so that we ean know at what stage the process ceases to be reversible).There is a test that can detect the disease prior to the onset of signs and symptoms.Facilities should be available for confirmation of the diagnosis.There is an effective treatment.There should be an agreed-on policy concerning whom to treat as patients (e.g., lower ranges of blood pressure; border-line diabetes).There is good evidence that early detection and treatment reduces morbidity and mortality.The expected benefits (e.g., the number of lives saved) of early detection exceed the risks and costs. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Screening for Disease | Screening is not recommended if -
A. Prevalence of disease is high
B. Life expectancy can be prolonged by early diagnosis
C. Diagnostic test should be available
D. Diseases with no latent period
| Diseases with no latent period |
6a407698-2895-4bd7-b962-5b201b48b308 | The enzymes aminoacyl tRNA synthetases activate the amino acids. The enzyme is highly selective in the recognition of both the amino acid and the transfer RNA acceptor. There is at least one tRNA for each of the 20 amino acids. Eg: hydroxylysine is the active form of lysine .hence not recognised by tRNA The D arm of tRNA is very impoant for the recognition by the enzyme. The CCA 3&; terminus of the acceptor&;s arm carries amino acid (Figs 41.14A and B). iii. Amino acid is first activated with the help of ATP. Then the carboxyl group of the amino acid is esterified with 3&; hydroxyl group of tRNA. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase Amino acid ----------------> Aminoacyl tRNA + tRNA + ATP + AMPRef: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 490 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | Aminoacyl t-RNA is not required for
A. Proline
B. Lysine
C. Hydroxylysine
D. Methionine
| Hydroxylysine |
bf442290-30a0-4fc2-be12-4fdaf82c1052 | .Therapeutic invasive procedures may be in the form of IV cannula, bladder catheter, tracheostomy and other minor surgical procedures which permit the skin organisms like staphylococcus epidermidis to penetrate the skin and invade the deeper tissues. Organisms Bacteria: Gram-negative: E. coli, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Proteus, Serratia. Gram-positive: Staphylococcus epidermidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae. Viruses: Herpes, CMV, Varicella zoster, may cause fatal pneumonia. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 59 | Surgery | Urology | Maximum infection of CMV is seen after what duration post transplantation ?
A. Immediate
B. < 1 month
C. 1-4 months
D. > 6 months
| 1-4 months |
830b248a-d95b-45af-9257-6eae0efccd72 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adenosine Treatment of supraventricular tachycardias in childreno In severe haemodynamic compromise, or if ventricular tachycardia is suspected, tachycardia should immediately be terminated by external cardioversion during deep sedationo Vagal manoeuvres are effective in patients with atrioventricular reentrant tachycardias.o Adenosine is the drug of first choice in any age group for tachycardias involving the atrioventricular node; its advantages include short half-life and minimal or absent negative inotropic effects. Adenosine may also be used in patients with wide QRS complex tachycardia.o Intravenous verapamil is contraindicated in neonates and infants because of the high risk of electromechanical dissociation. In older children (>5 years) and adolescents, verapamil may be administered with the same restrictions as in adult patients | Pediatrics | Cardiac Therapeutics | What is the treatment of a child with supraventricular tachycardia?
A. Adenosine
B. Digoxin
C. Sotalol
D. Flecainide
| Adenosine |
81fd3ae7-1e8a-4e82-b1ac-977b6e781419 | characterized by Wilms tumor, aniridia, genital anomalies, and mental retardation. Their lifetime risk of developing Wilms tumor is approximately 33%. Individuals with WAGR syndrome carry constitutional (germline) deletions of 11p13. Studies on these patients led to the identification of the first Wilms tumor-associated gene, WT1, and a contiguously deleted autosomal dominant gene for aniridia, PAX6, both located on chromosome 11p13. Patients with deletions restricted to PAX6, with normal WT1 function, develop sporadic aniridia, but they are not at increased risk for Wilms tumors Refer Robbins 9/e 481 | Anatomy | Urinary tract | Gene for Wilms tumor iis located on
A. Chromosome 1
B. Chromosome 10
C. Chromosome 11
D. Chromosome 12
| Chromosome 11 |
0aec6663-d0df-4115-b513-402586daf3dd | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3 yearso According to pre-conception and pre-natal diagnostic techniques (prohibition of sex selection) act 2002, sex detection can lead to a fine of Rs. 10,000 and up to three years Inprisonment for a first offence, with greater fines and longer terms of imprisonment for repeated offenders. | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | How much is punishment for sex determination -
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 9 years
| 3 years |
836ce8d1-4690-48a5-ac85-b84d4c9f8563 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vital layer o This is confusing one because of the following statements of Park. "The most impoant pa of the filter is the sand bed" - Park "The vital layer is the hea of the slow sand filter" - Park o Following statement may help in choosing the answer : ? "Vital layer is the layer that provides the effective purification in potable water treatment. the underlying sand layer providing the suppo medium for this biological treament layer" - Water & Healt 3rd/e 733. o Read the mechanism of action of slow sand filter and there will be no confusion. Mechanism of action of slow sand filter o Slow sand tiller work through the formation of a gelatinous layer called vital layer or hypogea I layer or Sch mu tzdecke in the top few cm of sand layer. o This layer is formed in the first 10-20 days of operation. o The formation of vital layer is known as "Ripening of the filter". o This vital layer consists of bacteria. fungi. Protozoa, and a range of aquatic insect larvae. o As waste passes through vital layer, paicles of foreign matter arc trapped in the mucilagenous matrix and dissolved organic material is absorbed and metabolized by bacterial, fungi and protoza --> Vital layer has mechanical (physical) as well as biological action. o So, the vital later acts as the hea of slow sand filter. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Most impoant layer of a slow sand filter is ?
A. Vital layer
B. Sand bed
C. Filter system
D. Raw water
| Vital layer |
4e909f68-d30e-4fd3-8d2f-b628b2c310f5 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medial frontal cortex o Micturition centers are located in the brain-stem and cerebral cortex.1) In cerebral cortex (cortical center) : A cortical center for voluntary control of initiation and cessation of micturition is located in the superior frontal gyrus on medial surface (medial frontal cortex).2) Pontine centers: Two pontine centers of micturition are located in pons: -i) One pontine micturition center (Barringtons center) sends excitatory impulses to the sacral parasympathetic neurons that elicit contraction of detrusor muscle.ii) Second pontine micturition center sends excitatory impulses to the lower motor neurons of the Onuf nucleus that supply external urethral sphincter. | Physiology | Nervous System | Micturition centre is present in -
A. Lateral temporal cortex
B. Medial temoral cortex
C. Lateral frontal cortex
D. Medial frontal cortex
| Medial frontal cortex |
4fb5852f-aeee-4390-bdd3-46f16022a6ed | If the patient of Bell's palsy is not responding to conservative treatment, electrodiagnostic study (electrophysiological study) should be done.
The electrodiagnostic study includes electromyography (EMG), Electroneurography (ENG), minimal excitability test and maximal excitability test.
Surgery is reserved for those who meet electrodiagnostic (electrophysiological) study criteria or are worsening on medical treatment. | ENT | null | Bell's palsy not responding to the steroid. What will be the further line of management -
A. Increase the dose of steroid
B. Vasodilators and ACTH
C. Surgical decompression
D. Electrophysiological nerve testing
| Electrophysiological nerve testing |
a818fc9d-7f8b-4e93-b984-f728f3742795 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Teres majorMuscles attached to scapula are :-Coracoid process :- Tip of the coracoid process gives origin to coracobrachialis (medially) and sho head of the biceps laterally.The upper surface receives inseion of pectoralis minor.Spine of scapula and acromion process :- There is origin of Deltoid and inseion of trapezius.Glenoid tubercle :- Supraglenoid tubercle gives origin to the long head of biceps and infra glenoid tubercle gives origin to long head of triceps.Lateral border :- Origins of teres minor and teres major.Medial border :- Inseions of serattus anterior (anteriorly); and rhomboideus major, rhomboideus minor and levator scapulae (posteriorly).Costal (anterior) surface (origin) Subscapularis.Dorsal surface (origins) Supraspinatus, infraspinatus and at inferior angle latissimus dorsi. | Anatomy | null | Not attached on medial border of scapula ?
A. Serratus anterior
B. Levator scapulae
C. Rhamboides major
D. Teres major
| Teres major |
5f1b79d8-e5e2-4f43-b5a8-e53c562fe222 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., BCG BCG vaccine BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine produced by `Bacille Calmette Guerin' an avirulent strain produced by 230 subcultures over a period of 13 years. Types of vaccine It is a live attenuated vaccine. There are two types of vaccine :- Liquid (fresh) vaccine Freeze dried (lyophilized) -more stable, currently in use. Diluent - Normal saline is recommended as a diluent for reconstituting vaccine, as distilled water may cause irritation. The reconstituted vaccine should be used within 3 hours. Route - Intradermal Site - Just above the inseion of deltoid (usually left) | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Normal saline is used as diluent in which vaccine?
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. BCG
D. HAV
| BCG |
950e6485-e5cb-4d18-bf8e-7eebee897f35 | Esophagitis is the most common complication | Surgery | null | Which is the most common complication of GERD
A. Esophagitis
B. Strictures
C. Dental damage
D. Vocal cord damage
| Esophagitis |
fcf04ca7-cb24-4003-be02-0c053bc7a37e | Orbicularis oris. Orbicularis oris is a facial muscle All facial muscles are supplied by facial nerve Temporalis & Masseter are supplied by Mandibular nerve Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by spinal accessory nerve | Anatomy | null | Facial Nerve stimulation during testing of nerve indicated by contraction of muscle?
A. Temporalis
B. Masseter
C. Sternoleidomastoid
D. Orbicularis oris
| Orbicularis oris |
4733b7e7-ef75-4242-a145-eaf9d849cccd | S.NoDiseaseInheritance PathogenesisKidney featuresExtrarenal manifestations 1ADPKDADPKD1mutation in chr16pPKD2 mutation in chr 4qPKD1 produce polycystin-1PKD2 produce polycystin-2Enlarged kidneys, Multiple cysts in both kidneysDisease manifest only in adultsCysts in liver, spleen, pancreas and lung.Berry aneurysmMitral valve prolapse2ARPKDARMutation of PKHD1 in chr6pPKHD1 produce fibrocystinEnlarged kidneys, Cysts in both kidneysLiver cysts, congenital hepaticfibrosis and spleenomegaly3Medullarysponge kidneyNone UnceainCysts restricted to the collecting ducts of medulla None4Familial juvenile nephronophthisis ARMutation of NPH1 to NPH6NPH1 & NPH3-6 produce nephrocystinNPH2 produce inversin Shrunken kidney, Cysts in coicmedullary junction, salt wastingGrowth retardation,Liver fibrosis, ocular motor abnormalities, retinal dystrophy and cerebellar abnormalities5Adult-onset medullary cystic diseaseADMutation of MCKD1 and MCKD2Shrunken kidney, Cysts in coicmedullary junction, salt wastingNone 6Simple cystsNone UnceainMultiple cysts in normal sized kidneys HematuriaNone7Acquired renal cystic diseaseNone Renal dialysisCysts with end stage renal disease, calcium oxalate crystals, renal cell carcinoma None(Ref: Robbins 8/e p956) | Pathology | Urinary tract | Hepatic fibrosis is associated with which of the following
A. Medullary cystic kidney
B. ADPKD
C. ARPKD
D. Nephronopthosis
| ARPKD |
e3cc6c7a-dbb6-4f9a-b12e-318dd40b3809 | Ans. D: 4 year In general, length in normal term infants increases about 30% by 5 months and > 50% by 12 months; infants grow 25 cm during the 1st yr; and height at 4 yr is about double bih length. | Pediatrics | null | Height of a newborn doubles at: September 2005, March 2010
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 year
D. 4 year
| 4 year |
a6d1ee91-bfd8-4c67-937c-3dbe421d3dc3 | Ans. is `d>a' i.e., Basal cell degeneration > Acantosis The basic pathology in lichen planus is the damage to the basal cell layer of epidermis leading to hydropic degeneration of basal cells". --Venkataram Pie 59 Histopathologv in Lichen planus The basic pathology in lichen planus is the damage to the basal cell layer of epidermis leading to hydropic degeneration of basal cells. Epidermal thickening especially of granular cell layer ---> Hypergranulosis. Hyperkeratosis (Thickening of stratum cornuem) Acanthosis (Thickening of Stratum) malpighi. Subepidermal - lichenoid band due to deposition of lymphocytes & histiocytes in upper dermis. Dropping of melanin pigment from damaged keratinocytes of epidermis into dermis --> pigment incontinence. This melanin is engulfed by macrophages which results information of cytoid bodies (civatte or colloid bodies). Mox Joseph Histological cleft -3 Separation of epidermis in small clefts. | Skin | null | Histological feature of lichen planus is ?
A. Acantosis
B. Interphase dermatitis
C. Non specific
D. Basal cell degeneration
| Basal cell degeneration |
a19e691b-c0be-4107-9d05-f47417bbfff1 | The use of spinal anesthesia is discouraged in severe preeclampsia. Epidural anaesthesia is preferred since it has more hemodynamic stability. Regional anaesthesia spinal /epidural preferred over general anaesthesia for cesarean delivery since in pregnant female there are many risk associated with general anaesthesia. | Anaesthesia | Central Neuraxial Blockade | The Anaesthesia technique of choice in severely preeclamptic women for cesarean delivery -
A. Spinal Anaesthesia
B. Epidural Anaesthesia
C. General Anaesthesia
D. Pudendal shock
| Epidural Anaesthesia |
d636282b-ba48-4937-9526-9ec1d5610cb6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nerve regeneration Pathological changes after nerve injury After nerve injury, nerve first degenerates and then tries to regenerate. Nerve degeneration The pa of the neurone distal to the point of injury undergoes secondary or Wallerian degeneration; the proximal pa undergoes primary or retrograde degeneration upto a single node. Nerve regeneration As regeneration begins, the axonal stump from the proximal segment begins to grow distally. If the endoneural tube with its contained Schwann cells is intact, the axonal sprout may readily pass along its primary course and reinnervate the end-organ. The rate of recovery of axon is 1 mm per day. The muscles nearest to the site of injury recovers first, followed by others as the nerve reinnervates muscles from proximal to distal, the so-called motor march. When the skin over the nerve is percussed gently from distal to proximal, the patient gets a tingling sensation if the nerve is recovering. This is called Tinel's sign and is a sign of recovery. | Surgery | null | Tinel sign is seen in ?
A. Nerve degeneration
B. Nerve regeneration
C. Muscle degeneration
D. Muscle regeneration
| Nerve regeneration |
afa90c7c-3331-43f1-b2b4-b85596a83b4e | CIN I and CIN II, the lesions have a 5-10% chance to progress to a high grade lesion CIN III progressing to cervical cancer is almost 10-30% Transformation Rates Form low grade CIN to High grade CIN takes around 5-6 years From High Grade CIN to invasive cancer takes around 10 years time. HPV related cervical lesions occur more on the cervical anterior lip than the lower lip (2:1 incidence). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Cervical Carcinoma | A patient is diagnosed to have CIN II. She approaches you for advice. You can definitely tell her the risk of malignancy as
A. 15%
B. 60%
C. 30%
D. 5%
| 5% |
16288ecb-3b3c-4140-a0f4-72428bab6f7d | Hemorrhoids are cushions of submucosal tissue containing venules, aerioles and smooth-muscle fibres. These anal cushions are found in the left lateral, right anterior and right posterior position. (3,7 and 11 o'clock position). External hemorrhoids located distal to the dentate line are covered by anoderm which is richly innervated. As a result thrombosis of external hemorrhoids is extremely painful. Because of this innervation external hemorrhoids should not be ligated or excised without adequate anaesthesia. An anal skin tag usually persist as the residua of a thrombosed external hemorrhoid. When left untreated it does not turn malignant. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is a feature of external haemorrhoids below the dentate line?
A. Painful
B. Ligation is done as management
C. Skin tag is not seen in these cases
D. May turn malignant
| Painful |
d0b09b32-fdc5-49b2-b608-62e4b65e623e | Ans. (a) 20%Ref: Guyton's physiology 11th ed. / 316* GFR Is About 20 Per Cent of the Renal Plasma Flow.* In an average adult GFR is about 125 ml/min, or 180 L/ day.* Renal plasma flow is 650ml/min* The filtration fraction is calculated as follows: Filtration fraction = GFR/Renal plasma flow* Therefore125ml/min------------650ml/min= 0.2* The fraction of the renal plasma flow that is filtered (the filtration fraction) averages about 0.2; this means that about 20 per cent of the plasma flowing through the kidney is filtered through the glomerular capillaries.Also Know* The entire plasma volume is only about 3 liters, whereas the GFR is about 180 L/day, the entire plasma can be filtered and processed about 60 times each day. | Physiology | Glomerular Filtration, Renal Blood Flow, and Their Control | Percentage of GFR to renal plasma flow:
A. a.. 20%
B. b. 38%
C. c. 50%
D. d. 60%
| a.. 20% |
39f4fa0b-a85c-4776-a9ec-d44ff51f50ba | Glycine is the amino acid that has a single hydrogen atom as its side chain. It is the simplest possible amino acid. The chemical formula of glycine is NH2‐CH2‐COOH. Glycine is one of the proteinogenic amino acids. It is encoded by all the codons starting with GG (GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG).
Glycine is a colorless, sweet-tasting crystalline solid. It is the only achiral proteinogenic amino acid. It can fit into hydrophilic or hydrophobic environments, due to its minimal side chain of only one hydrogen atom. The acyl radical is glycyl | Biochemistry | null | Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs due to defect in metabolism of
A. Cystein
B. Tryptophan
C. Tyrosine
D. Glycine
| Glycine |
ca0cb8e9-18b9-4668-a9bd-5d50382eb1a6 | investigations for GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX DISEASE, *24 hours oesophageal pH monitoring - the gold standard. PPI should be stopped for 3 weeks prior to pH monitoring. *Barium study in head down position. * Endoscopy to exclude other disease and to assess any mucosal injury - red inflamed mucosa often with ulceration. Sliding hernia can be identified through endoscopy. When patient retches, gastric mucosa will enter the OG junction and ascends upwards to variable distance. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 723 | Surgery | G.I.T | A 45-year-old lady presents with persistent reflux symptoms. The most accurate investigation in establishing diagnosis before surgical treatment includes
A. Endoscopy
B. An UGI series
C. Esophageal manometry
D. Ambulatory pH monitoring
| Ambulatory pH monitoring |
f51049ce-d787-4dd4-964a-e4efbdfdc29d | Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID), is a B cell tumor. The presentation includes chronic diarrhoea, steatorrhea associated with vomiting and abdominal cramps. IPSID presents with intestinal secretions of an abnormal IgA that contains a shoened heavy chain and is devoid of light chains. It is suspected that the abnormal chains are produced by plasma cells infiltrating the small bowel. The clinical course is one of exacerbations and remissions, with death due to malnutrition and wasting or the development of a lymphoma. | Surgery | Vascular surgery | Immuno-proliferative lymphoma presents with?
A. Chronic diarrhea
B. Obstruction
C. Peritonitis
D. Tenesmus
| Chronic diarrhea |
fa1797b1-e54a-48a9-af60-90a9c17170c8 | Ans. (a) Vagus nerve(Ref Sabiston 20th Edition Page 794)* Standard RND (CRILE operation) removes nodal levels I through V and the sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, cranial nerve XI, cervical plexus, and submandibular gland.* Modified RND (Bocca Operation) preserves one or more of the three structures - SCM, IJV and Spinal Accessory nerve. | Surgery | Oral Cavity | Structure preserved in Radical Neck Node dissection:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Spinal Accessory Nerve
C. Internal Jugular Vein
D. Sterno cleido mastoid muscle
| Vagus nerve |
0d9a1ec3-d125-48f7-866a-9df76eafa8d9 | "It is important to remember that cranial nerves never cross (except for one exception, the 4th cranial nerve) and clinical findings are always on the same side as the cranial nerve involved".
—Clinical neurology | Ophthalmology | null | The only cranial nerve which supplies a contralateral muscle is-
A. Third
B. Fourth
C. Seventh
D. Tenth
| Fourth |
3c4a2d43-d678-49c4-b7b3-19b26dac9387 | Ans-BRef: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th editionExplanation:McCune Albright syndromeIt is characterized by the triad ofPolyostotic fibrous dysplasiaCafe-au-lait skin pigmentationMultiple EndocrinopathiesThe endocrinopathies include:Sexual precocityHyperthyroidismPituitary adenomas secreting GH Primary adrenal hyperplasiaThe severity depends on the presence of GjVAS gene mutationThe most common clinical presentation is precocious sexual development, esp in girls.The bone lesions are often unilateral as sc with same-sided skin pigmentationThe cutaneous macules are classically large; are dark to cafe-au-lait: have irregular serpiginous borders (coastline of Maine)The cafe au lait patches are found primarily on the:NeckChestBackShoulderPelvic regionAlagille Syndrome (aka Syndromatic Paucity of Bile Ducts; Arteriohepatic Dysplasia)Autosomal dominant multi-organ disorderLiver pathology is characterized by the absence of bile ducts in portal tracts.Mutations or deletion of the gene encoding Jagged1. on chromosome 20p.Jagged 1 is a cell surface protein that functions as a ligand for Notch receptorsJagged mutations in 94% & remaining patients have mutations in the Notch 2 receptor geneAffected patients have five major clinical features:Chronic cholestasisPeripheral stenosis of the pulmonary arteryButterfly-like vertebral arch defectsPosterior embryotoxon in the eyePeculiar hype tie lie facies* Patients can survive into adulthood hut are at risk for hepatic failure and hepatocellular carcinoma.MULTIPLE ENDOCRINE NEOPLASIAMEN I Wermers syndromeMEN II* Parathyroid tumors* Pituitary adenomas* Islet cell hyperplasia* ZE syndrome* Insulinoma* Glucagonoma* Pancreatic cholera* Medullary Ca of thyroid* PheochromocytomaMEN-II A (Sipple syndrome)* Hyper para thyroidism* Parathyroid adenoma* Cutaneous lichen amyloidosis* Hirschsprung disease* FMTC (familial medullary thyroid Case)Other manifestations:* Foregut carcinoid* Pheochromocytoma* Lipomas* AngiofibromasMEN - II B syndrome* Marfanoid habitus* Mucosal neuromas* GIT neuromas | Unknown | null | An adolescent boy presents with endocrinopathy, fibrous dysplasia of bone and hyperpigmentation. The probable diagnosis is :
A. Alagille syndrome
B. McCune Albright syndrome
C. MEN Type 1
D. MEN Type 2
| McCune Albright syndrome |
f3e07129-506e-4da7-8ec8-4ee76e4f6f11 | Many people have learned from practical experience that rubbing or shaking an injured area decreases the pain due to the injury. The relief may be due to the simultaneous activation of innocuous cutaneous mechanoreceptors whose afferents emit collaterals that terminate in the dorsal horn. The activity of these cutaneous mechanosensitive afferents may reduce the responsiveness of dorsal horn neurons to their input from nociceptive afferent terminals. This is called the gate-control mechanism of pain modulation and it serves as the rationale behind the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) for pain relief. This method uses electrodes to activate Aa and Ab fibers in the vicinity of the injury. | Physiology | Nervous system | Massage and application of liniments to painful areas in the body relieves pain due to
A. Stimulation of endogenous analgesic system
B. Release of endorphins by first order neurons in brainstem
C. Release of glutamate and substance P in the spinal cord
D. Inhibition by large myelinated fibres
| Inhibition by large myelinated fibres |
9b350802-974f-4836-9663-e51ae2b75027 | Ans. C: Footpad of mice In 1960 the American Charles Shepard discovered that it is possible to culture the bacterium in the footpads of mice (average 20 degree C). In 1971 Waldeman Kirchheimer and Eleanor Storrs discovered that the nine-banded armadillo, Dasypus novemcinctus, could also become infected. This species was selected because it has a low body temperature (approximately 34 degree C) and a primitive immune system. The animal develops a generalised infection with involvement of the internal organs, especially the liver and spleen. | Microbiology | null | Mycobacterium leprae can be cultured in: September 2006
A. Testes of guinea pig
B. LJ medium
C. Footpad of mice
D. Testes of albino rats
| Footpad of mice |
927a5d1a-6e45-4bcc-949e-f9f7eda4d109 | HAV best diagnosed by demonstration of IgM antibody in serum REF:<\p> ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.542 | Microbiology | Virology | Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by -
A. IgM antibodies in serum
B. Isolation from stool
C. Culture from blood
D. Isolation from bile
| IgM antibodies in serum |
96f80498-bdec-4ec0-b2e3-8cef1066b5a9 | (C) Homonymous hemianopia SITES OF LESIONS CLINICAL FEATURES* Optic NerveComplete loss of vision* Optic tractHomonymous hemianopia* Optic radiationComplete homonymous hemianopia* Proximal part of optic NerveIpsilateral blindness with contralateral hemianopia* Occipital lobeHomonymous hemianopia (usually sparing the macula)* Sagittal lesion of chiasmaBitemporal hemianopia* Lateral optic chiasmaBinasal hemianopia* Temporal lobeQuadrantic homonymous defect> Binasal hemianopia produced due to lesion in Lateral optic chiasma.> LGB lesion produce Homonymous hemianopia with sparing of pupillary reflex. | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous | Optic tract lesions presents with
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Homonymous hemianopia
D. Superior quadrantic
| Homonymous hemianopia |
0fcf311b-e3e1-4a90-bf13-7b42c242f095 | Answer is C (Broad Cast): Broad casts are characteristic of Chronic Renal .failure. Broad Casts : arise in the dilated tubules of enlarged nephrons, that have- undergone compensatory hyperophy in response to reduced renal mass i.e. chronic renal failure. Waxy casts : are degenerated cellular casts seen in urine of patients with chronic renal failure. | Medicine | null | Presence of which of the following correlates best with renal pathology
A. Hyaline cast
B. Coarse granular cast
C. Broad cast
D. Epithelial cast
| Broad cast |
ce9fcdda-cf8f-4ab0-a0a8-89cf85c804e6 | Indications ofFESSi) Chronic bacterial sinusitis unresponsive to adequate medical treatment.ii) Recurrentacutebacteridsinusitis.iii) Polypoid rhinosinusitis (diftrse nasal polyposis)'w) Fungal sinusitis with fungal ball or nasal polypi'v) Antrochoanal polyp and Ethmoid polypvi) Mucocele of frontoethmoid or sphenoid sinus.vii) Control of epistaxis by endoscopic cautery.viii) Removal of foreign body from the nose or sinus'ix) EndoscoPicsePtoPlastY.x) Removal of benign tumours, e.g. inveedpapillomas or an$ofibromas.xi) Orbital abscess ot cellulltls nonageme,tt.xii) DacryocYstorhinostomY.:lolii) RepaltofCSFleak,xiv) Pituitarysurgeryxv) Optic nerve decomPression.xvi) Orbitd decompression for Graves disease-xvii) Control ofposterior epistaxis(endoscopicclipping ofsphenopalatine aery).xviii) Choanal atresia. | ENT | null | FESS means:
A. Factual endoscopic sinus surgey
B. Functionl endonasal sinus surgery
C. Factual endonasal sinus surgery
D. Functionl endoscopic sinus surgery
| Functionl endoscopic sinus surgery |
e1c8ce2c-f295-4f2e-bb0a-820f1fab1a32 | C i.e. Gastric content aspiration - Patient is already having frank haematemesis (upper GI bleed coming through mouth). So there is no diagnostic role of gastric aspiration. It may be of some value, when there is doubt of upper GI bleed. Endoscopy is the investigation of choice for upper GI bleedQ. Endoscopy is helpful in dx of Oesophagitis, gastritis, ulcer, reflux, carcinoma, varicose veins. Barium meal is helpful in diagnosing ulcer & gastritis. Angiography tells about bleeding vessel. | Radiology | null | What is least useful as diagnostic procedure in case of acute haemetemesis
A. Barium meal
B. Endoscopy
C. Gastric content aspiration
D. Angiography
| Gastric content aspiration |
f54486a6-6bf7-4262-a352-c2ae98bebdf0 | Quadriceps femoris extends the leg (rectus femoris and the vastus muscles) and helps flex the hip (rectus femoris). It is innervated by the femoral nerve, which is made from the contributions of L2, 3, and 4 in the lumbar plexus. If a patient could not adduct at the hip, the adductor muscles might be damaged. These are supplied by the obturator nerve,which also comes from L2, 3, and 4 in the lumbar plexus. If a patient could not extend at the hip or flex the leg, the hamstring muscles might be damaged. These muscles are supplied by the tibial nerve, a branch of the sciatic nerve. If a patient could not rotate the knee medially, popliteus might be injured. This muscle, which is innervated by the tibial nerve, allows the knee to twist and unlock from a fully extended position, as in erect stance. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following movements would suffer in case of paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle?
A. Adduction at the hip
B. Extension at the hip
C. Extension at the knee
D. Flexion at the knee
| Extension at the knee |
be7c975f-d8fd-4c98-943f-0038bde070a6 | Causes of sudden painful loss of vision are :- Acute angle closure glaucoma, acute iridocyclitis (acute uveitis), chemical or mechanical injury to eye, endophthalmitis and optic neuritis. | Ophthalmology | null | Sudden painful loss of vision seen in –a) Angle closure glaucomab) Central retinal artery occlusionc) Acute uveitisd) Endophthalmitise) Retinal detachment
A. abc
B. acd
C. bc
D. bde
| acd |
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