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5d111830-d9d5-4e2c-86a4-f6eb3579ddc8 | Desmopressin is USED IN central DIREF:KDT7/e p597 | Pharmacology | All India exam | Drug acting on V2 receptors and used in DI (REPEAT)
A. Telypressin
B. Vasopressin
C. Desmopressin
D. Pralispressin
| Desmopressin |
a0a9c464-b050-43b1-bdaa-cb2555be090a | Classes of Proteins Involved in ReplicationProteinFunctionDNA polymerasesDeoxynucleotide polymerizationHelicasesATP -driven processive unwinding of DNATopoisomerasesRelieve torsional strain that results fromhelicase-induced unwindingDNA primaseInitiates synthesis of RNA primersSingle-strand bindingproteins (SSBs)Prevent premature reannealing of dsDNADNA ligaseSeals the single strand nick between thenascent chain and Okazaki fragments on the lagging strandRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 35; DNA Organization, Replication, & Repair | Biochemistry | Structure and function of protein | Function of Topoisomerases
A. Deoxynucleotide polymerization
B. Relieve torsional strain
C. Initiates synthesis of RNA primers
D. Prevent premature reannealing of dsDNA
| Relieve torsional strain |
663d5c31-da1d-49cc-afe2-5b2cf07ffbd1 | Genital was are soft growths that appear on the genitals. Genital was are a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by ceain strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV). These skin growths can cause pain, discomfo, and itching REF : THOMAS HABIF 6TH ED | Dental | All India exam | Genital was are caused by which virus?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Human papilloma
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Varicella zoster
| Human papilloma |
ff7cfc4e-d381-4c04-98c7-64e251f80af5 | Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a genetic disease, affecting almost solely males, of excessive synthesis of purines because of defective recycling and, therefore, uric acid production from their breakdown. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is characterized by gouty ahritis but, in addition, affects the brain, resulting in mental retardation, loss of control of arm/leg/face movements, aggressive behavior, and self-mutilation by biting and scratching. Ref: Janson L.W., Tischler M.E. (2012). Chapter 4. Nucleosides, Nucleotides, DNA, and RNA. In L.W. Janson, M.E. Tischler (Eds), The Big Picture: Medical Biochemistry. | Biochemistry | null | Clinical manifestations of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to the defective recycling of the following:
A. Purines
B. Methylcobalamin
C. Pyrimidines
D. Thiamine
| Purines |
7d9740d8-0f45-436c-aa99-ba5d6cd27432 | Pseudomyxoma pertonei is being described. It may arise from low grade mucinous adenocarcinoma of the appendix.
Mucinous tumors may also arise in pancreas, but are less likely to disseminate through peritoneal cavity. These tumors are very rare in small intestine. Mucin producing malignancies of the stomach are most likely to have signet ring pattern and diffusely infillrate gastric wall. | Pathology | null | A 45 yr old woman has increasing abdominal girth for the past 2 years. On physical examination, She has abdominal distension. CT scan shows multiple nodules on peritoneal surfaces along with low attenuation mucinous ascites. Cytological examination was done after doing paracentesis. It showed well differentiated columnar cells with minimal nuclear atypia. From which sit did this pathology start?
A. Pancreas
B. Ileum
C. Jejunum
D. Appendix
| Appendix |
008ebe70-eb23-4733-81af-1759261566ad | Ans. D: Cost effective analysis Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) is a form of economic analysis that compares the relative costs and outcomes (effects) of two or more courses of action. Cost-effectiveness analysis is distinct from cost-benefit analysis, which assigns a monetary value to the measure of effect. Cost-effectiveness analysis is often used in the field of health services, where it may be inappropriate to monetize health effect. Typically the CEA is expressed in terms of a ratio where the denominator is a gain in health from a measure (years of life, premature bihs aveed, sight-years gained) and the numerator is the cost associated with the health gain. The most commonly used outcome measure is quality-adjusted life years (QALY). Cost-utility analysis is similar to cost-effectiveness analysis. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In which of the following, interpretation of benefits is done in terms of results achieved: September 2010
A. System analysis
B. Cost accounting
C. Cost benefit analysis
D. Cost effective analysis
| Cost effective analysis |
7baba0dd-c85a-44bc-b38f-76ceaf3f2065 | Type I hypersensitivity reaction is IgE dependent. When a small shocking dose of an antigen is administered intradermally to a sensitised host, there will be a local wheal and flare response. This is cutaneous anaphylaxis. Cutaneous anaphylaxis ( skin test for typ I hypersensitivity ), is useful in testing for hypersensitivity and in identifying the allergen responsible in atopic diseases. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 163,164 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | Skin test are used for which hypersensitivity reactions?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
| I |
68cfbcb3-2bca-4353-bcf4-59bbdaebd411 | Pneumocystis [Ref: Harrison I7/e p843; Aicle 'Tree in bud sign' in Journal 'Radiology' and 'Radiographics7 Tree-in-bud is a sign seen in HRCT, most commonly seen with endobronchial spread of Tuberculosis, but can be seen with a wide variety of conditions, most commonly infections. (Described ahead in detail). Theoretically all the options can cause 'Tree-in-bud' sign (although Klebsiella has not been mentioned in the list). So the next clue is Bone marrow transplant. Bone marrow transplant causes a transient state of immunological deficiency leading to a wide variety of oppounistic infections. Among the given options, according to the table and text of Harrison (17/e chapter 'Infections in Transplant Recipients') Pneumocystis and RSV can cause pneumonia after transplant: butPneumocystis is a much more common than RSV. Common Sources of Infections after Hematopoietic Stein Cell Transplantation Period after Transplantation Infection Site Early (<1 Month) Middle (1-4 months) Late (>6 Months) Disseminated Aerobic gram-negative, grain-positive bacteria Nocardia Candida, Aspergillus Encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis) Skin and mucous membranes HSV- HHV-6 VZV Lungs Candida, Aspergillus HSV CMV, seasonal respiratory viruses Pneumocystis Toxoplasma Pneumocystis Gastrointestinal tract CMV Kidney BK virus, adenovirus BK virus Brain HHV-6 Toxoplasma Toxoplasma JC virus Bone marrow HHV-6 Tree-in-bud sign The tree-in-bud sign is a finding seen on thin-section computed tomographic images of the lung (HRCT). (Not seen on X-rays) Peripheral, small, centrilobular nodules are connected to linear, branching opacities that have more than one contiguous branching site, thus resembling a budding or, fruiting tree: this is known as tree-in-bud-pattern. It represents dilated and impacted (mucus or pus-filled) centrilobular bronchioles. The presence of tree-in-bud is indicative of small airway disease. It is most commonly associated with endobronchial spread of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. But it can also be seen in a large number of conditions. Pulmonary infectious disorders involving the small airways are the most common causes of the tree-in-bud sign. Any infectious organism, including bacterial, mycobacterial, viral, parasitic, and fungal agents, can involve the small airways and cause a tree-in-bud pattern. Causes of Tree-in-bud appearance Peripheral airway disease Infection Bacterial Mycobacterium tuberculosis M avium-intracellulare complex Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae Fungal Aspergillus Pneumocystis carinii, (renamed Pneumocystis jiroveci) Viral Cytomegalovirus Respiratory syncytial virus Congenital disorders Cystic fibrosis Kaagener syndrome Idiopathic disorders Obliterative bronchiolitis Diffuse panbronchiolitis A spiration Inhalation Toxic fumes and gases Immunologic disorders Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Connective tissue disorders Rheumatoid ahritis Sjo-gren syndrome Peripheral pulmonary vascular disease Neoplasms Primary pulmonary lymphoma Neoplastic pulmonary emboli Gastric cancer Breast cancer Ewing sarcoma Renal cancer | Surgery | null | A Bone marrow transplant recipient patientdeveloped chest infection. On HRCT 'Tree in bud appearance' is seen. Most likely causative agent is:
A. Klebsiella
B. Pneumocystis
C. TB
D. RSV
| Pneumocystis |
e5cd0f45-a845-4747-8852-47f4455c1d82 | ZINC POLYCARBOXYLATE CEMENT
APPLICATIONS:
Primarily for luting permanent restorations.
As bases and liners.
Used in orthodontics for cementation of bands.
Also used as root canal fillings in endodontics.
Ref: Manappalil P: 95 | Dental | null | Polycarboxylate cement is used for:
A. Temporary restoration
B. Luting
C. Permanent restoration
D. Die material
| Luting |
63bf4a9d-8f28-4ae8-a3b3-d5bee8e18175 | Live-born infant swallows air into the stomach during respiration, and if present in small intestine it fuher confirms live bih. But air may be present in the stomach after decomposition, or in the stillborn attempting to free the air passages of fluid obstruction. Demonstration: The stomach and intestines are removed after tying double ligatures at each end. They are kept under water and incision is given between the ligatures. Air bubbles will come out if respiration has taken place--Breslau's second life test or stomach bowel test. If milk is present in the stomach, it is a positive evidence of live bih. Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg - 148,150 | Forensic Medicine | Sexual offences and infanticide | 'Stomach bowel test' is also known as
A. Hydrostatic test
B. Breslau's first life test
C. Breslau's second lfe test
D. Raygat's test
| Breslau's second lfe test |
ee8c912f-9819-44a9-a252-8de850213b08 | ANSWER: (B) Pleural spaceREF: Sabiston 18th ed chapter 57See PLATE X-11 Key PLATE X-11 KeyINTERCOSTAL CHEST TUBE DRAIN (TUBE THORACOSTOMY)A chest tube can be a diagnostic procedure as well as a therapeutic oneINDICATIONS FOR CHEST TUBE DRAIN INSERTION1. Pneumothorax2. In any ventilated patient3. Tension pneumothorax after initial needle relief4. Persistent or recurrent pneumothorax after simple aspiration5. Large secondary spontaneous pneumothorax in patients over 50 years6. Malignant pleural effusion7. Empyema and complicated parapneumonic pleural effusion8. Traumatic haemopneumothorax9. Postoperative--for example, thoracotomy, oesophagectomy. cardiac surgery10 To deliver intrapleural local analgesia in Flail chest CONTRAINDICATIONS OF TUBE THORACOSTOMYThe need for emergent thoracotomy is an absolute contraindication to tube thoracostomy. Relative contraindications include the following:1. Coagulopathy2. Pulmonary bullae3. Diaphragmatic hernia4. Pulmonary, pleural, or thoracic adhesions5. Loculated pleural effusion or empyema6. Skin infection over the chest tube insertion sitePatient position:The preferred position for drain insertion is on the bed, slightly rotated, with the arm on the side of the lesion behind the patient s head to expose the axillary area. An alternative is for the patient to sit upright leaning over an adjacent table with a pillow or in the lateral decubitus position.Drain insertion site: The most common position for chest tube insertion is in the fifth intercostal space in the mid axillary line, through the "safe triangle". This is the triangle bordered by the anterior border of the latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of the pectoralis major muscle, a line superior to the horizontal level of the nipple, and an apex below the axilla. This position minimises risk to underlying structures such as the internal mammary artery and avoids damage to muscle and breast tissue resulting in unsightly scarring.In Open pneumothorax {'sucking chest wound')f A chest tube is inserted as soon as possible in a site remote from the injury site.In Tension pneumothorax a chest tube is inserted through the fifth intercostal space in the anterior axillarylineDrain size: Small bore drains are recommended as they are more comfortable than larger bore tubes but there is no e%ddence that either is therapeutically superior. A large-bore (32-36 French) chest tube should be used in adolescents and adult patientsProcedure:Local anaesthetic should be infiltrated prior to insertion of the drain.Skin incision is made in between the midaxillary and anterior axillary lines over a rib that is below the intercostal level selected for chest tube insertion. The incision for insertion of the chest drain should be similar to the diameter of the tube being inserted. The incision should be made just above and parallel to a rib.Blunt dissection of the subcutaneous tissue and muscle into the pleural cavity. A closed and locked Kelly clamp is used to enter the chest wall into the pleural cavity to develop the tract and then with finger. The index finger should be inserted into the pleural space before tube placement to ensure that the pleural cavity has been entered and is free of adhesions and that any intra-abdominal organs have not herniated through the diaphragm.The tube should be advanced (with or without trochar) posteriorly and superiorly in the pleural cavity. The position of the tip of the chest tube should ideally be aimed apically for a pneumothorax or basally for fluid. However, any tube position can be effective at draining air or fluid and an effectively functioning drain should not be repositioned solely because of its radiographic position.After insertion, the tube should be secured in the skin of the chest wall and connected to a collection system under suction. A chest radiograph is usually obtained after insertion of the chest tube to confirm adequate placement and positioning.All chest tubes should be connected to a single flow drainage system e.g. under water seal bottle or flutter valve. When chest drain suction is required, a high volume/lowr pressure system should be used.Avoid damping the ICD, as it may leads to tension pneumothorax, if forget to remove the clamp.Removal of the chest tube: Genera! criteria for chest tube removal include absence of air leak and less than 100 mL of fluid drainage over a 24-hour period. The chest tube should be removed either while the patient performs Valsalva's manoeuvre or during expiration with a brisk firm movement while an assistant ties the previously placed closure suture. In cases of pneumothorax, the chest tube should not be clamped at the time of its removal. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Lung) | The tube as shown in PLATE X-11 is in which space?
A. Pericardial cavity
B. Pleural space
C. Mediastinum
D. Lung parenchyma
| Pleural space |
5087acbf-cf2f-4e1a-a0a8-156b6401f239 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Immediate letting out of air Tension pneumothorax must be treated as a medical emergency. If the tension in the pleural space is not relieved, the patient is likely to die from inadequate cardiac output or marked hypoxemia. A large-bore needle should be inseed into the pleural space through the second anterior intercostal space. If large amounts of gas escape from the needle after inseion, the diagnosis is confirmed. The needle should be left in place until a thoracostomy tube can be inseed. | Surgery | null | Best treatment of tension pneumothorax is -
A. Immediate letting out of air
B. Wait and watch
C. Rib resection
D. Underwater drainage
| Immediate letting out of air |
df4e1d4b-37be-4d37-a968-996bff96928b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Abrus precatorius * Abrus precatorius seed is odourless, tasteless, oval (egg shaped), bright scarlet coloured with a black spot at one pole and contain abrin, a toxalbumin as its active principle, which is similar to viper snake venom.* Raw or cooked seeds, when swallowed are non-poisonous. But if extract is injected into wound or under skin, poisonous symptoms occur which resemble viper bite. This method is used to poison cattels by means of needle, known as sin needle. | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology | Viper bite resembles poisoning by -
A. Semicarpus anacardium
B. Abrus precatorius
C. Ricinus communis
D. Capsicum annum
| Abrus precatorius |
6cd9c2b5-aadf-4225-b30f-db07bd43276a | The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, indomethacin, is the drug of choice for closure of a patient ductus arteriosus in a premature infant with an isolated patient ductus arteriosus. For complex cardiac anomalies, which require a patient ductus arteriosus to sustain life until corrective surgery can be done, prostaglandin E1 can be administered to keep the ductus arteriosus open. The other choices are not indicated in patient ductus arteriosus. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | Two weeks after birth, a baby has persistent tachypnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and cyanosis. Workup reveals a patent ductus arteriosus. This can be closed with the use of:
A. Indomethacin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Aspirin
D. Cyclosporine
| Indomethacin |
bf8a5b8f-6e74-4632-a4b5-c92bef5bc4fc | Stratum corneum the outermost layer of the epidermis made up of terminally differentiated, dead keratinocytes known as corneocytes. Corneocytes are devoid of cytoplasm and organelles, but loaded with keratin filaments in an amorphous protein matrix, which is held together by the cornified envelope. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1233 | Dental | Anatomy of skin | Dead Layer of epidermis-
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum granulosum
| Stratum corneum |
9403525e-b315-4b13-bf78-c69c9be1460e | Puromycin Structural analogue of tyrosinyl tRNA. Incorporated into nascent protein chains by a nonhydrolyzable peptide bond. Growing of the peptide bond is inhibited. Inhibits protein synthesis in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes Causes premature chain termination | Biochemistry | Translation | Which one of the following is a tyrosine tRNA analogue that causes premature chain termination?
A. Cycloheximide
B. Puromycin
C. Paromomycin
D. Erythromycin
| Puromycin |
ee725b7b-ff29-4b4d-ad6f-229d98214038 | Glipizide is the sulphoylurea which is the best and safest among the group for use in ckd patients Ref: Harrison page no 2265, | Medicine | Endocrinology | Which of the sulfonylureas is best choice in chronic kidney disease patients
A. Glimipride
B. Glibenclanide
C. Glipizide
D. Glyburide
| Glipizide |
bcbd14b5-ae79-4b47-956b-8e7d60a4e90e | Ans. (b) SemenRef,: The Essentials of FSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed. / 405Tests for Detection ofSeminal Stain (Mnemonic- "Creat Acid Fast Bacilli')* Acid phosphatase test: to detect Aspermia cases* BarberioS test: to detect Spermine (yellow needle shaped spermine picrate)* Creatine phosphokinase test: for old seminal stain* Florence test: choline crystals of semen shows fluoroscence when examined (Rhombotic crystals of choline iodide)* Most specific test for seminal stain: Isoenzyme LDH assay* For dry seminal stain: UV rays used Blood Benzidine test* Best preliminary test as it detects blood present in dilution of 1 in 3 lakhs.* Color produced: Deep Blue* Not used because it is a potential carcinogen.Kastle-Mayer/Phenolpthalein test- color produced is Pink Purple.Microchemical test: based on RBC content of blood.1. Takayama's test: Hb converted to Haemochromogen crystal.# Salmon pink feathery haemochromogen crystals are obtained.2. Teichmann's Haemin crystal test: Hb converted into Hemin/Hematin crystals.# Brown rhombic haemic crystal are seen3. Spectroscopic test: Most specific/confirmatory method for blood stain test4. Thin layer chromatography (TLC)5. ElectrophoresisNOTE: Test to distinguish human vs. animal blood- Precipitin Test, | Forensic Medicine | Biological Materials & Stains | Florence test is used for
A. Blood
B. Semen
C. Urine
D. Albumin
| Semen |
c33c2992-ae9e-41c7-8f34-fef69e35bb67 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 700 "According to the existing norms of the government there should be one unganwadi per 1000 population in rural and urban areas, and one anganwadi per 700 population in tribal areas" | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Population covered by anganwadi in tribal area is?
A. 1000
B. 300
C. 400
D. 700
| 700 |
de1b91a8-2619-443b-a406-970fd333f2f7 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bordetella Bordetella are gram-negative, capsulated, fimbriated, nonmotile coccobacillus.They show bipolar metachromatic granules on staining with toluidine blue. | Microbiology | null | Bisected pearls appearance on culture medium is seen in ?
A. Brucella
B. Bordetella
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Pseudomonas
| Bordetella |
430f7af4-ee49-4470-9e67-f9f1689d9872 | Answer- B. Lobular CaMutation in gene encoding for E-cadherin (CDH-I) is associated with gastric carcinoma and lobular breast carcinoma.Detachment of tumor cells is thefrst step tn metastasis. Normally cells are glued to each other by adhesion moleculesE-cadherin. Normal function of E-cadherin is dependent on catenins that helps in linkage of cytoskeleton to E-cadherin.Down regulation of expression of either E cadherins or catenins results looseining of cells that helps ln metastasis. | Pathology | null | E-cadherin mutation is seen in metastasis of which type of breast carcinoma
A. Infiltrative ductal Ca
B. Lobular Ca
C. Metaplastic Ca
D. Medullary Ca
| Lobular Ca |
6eaf5d50-99e2-420b-a25b-502c5e9f6479 | Actinomadura pelletri - Pink to red granules.
Madurella species - Black.
Nocardia - White to yellow.
Actinomadura madurae - White to yellow. | Microbiology | null | In mycetoma, pink to red granules are produced by
A. Madurella
B. Aspergillus
C. Actinumadura madurae
D. Actinomadura pelletri
| Actinomadura pelletri |
2ba75207-9440-4fbd-a656-1ba83e100a42 | The diagnostic value of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) enzyme activities in neurological disorders has been evaluated most extensively with the enzymes aspaate aminotransferase (ASAT), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), creatine kinase (CK) and lysozyme Refer Robbins page no chatteejee shinde 8th/730 | Anatomy | Nervous system | Enzymes found in CSF
A. GGT+ALP
B. ALP+CK-MB
C. CK +LDH
D. Deaminase and peroxidase
| CK +LDH |
84fefccb-ee9a-476d-87a7-8e7b7770fe79 | Ans. (b) Inferior to ribCauses of inferior rib notchingCauses of superior rib notching* Arterial: aortic coarctation, aortic thrombosis, pulmonary- oligemia/AV malformation, Blalock Taussig shunt, Tetralogy of fallot, absent pulmonary artery and pulmonary stenosis.* Venous: AV Malfomations of chest wall, superior vena cava or other central venous obstruction.* Neurogenic: Intercostal neuroma, Neurofibromatosis type 1, poliomyelitis.* Osseous: Hyperparathyroidism, Thalassemia* Poliomyelitis* Osteogenesis Imperfecta* Neurofibromatosis* Marfan's Syndrome* Collagen vascular disease* Hyperparathyroidism. | Medicine | Diseases of the Aorta | In coarctation of aorta, site of rib notching is?
A. Superior to rib
B. Inferior to rib
C. At sternum
D. At Vertebra
| Inferior to rib |
66070564-9f99-4d6a-8721-acf72e74fc82 | The use of polyacrylic acid makes GIC capable of bonding to tooth structure. GIC is considered superior to many types of cements because it is adherent and translucent. Various formulas are available depending on the intended clinical application.
Water-soluble polymers and polymerizable monomers have been replacing part of the liquid content. Particles of metal, metal-ceramic, and ceramic have been added to some products to enhance mechanical properties. Other new formulations are capable of being chemically cured, light-cured, or both. GICs have been used for the esthetic restoration of anterior teeth, e.g., Class III and V sites, as luting cements, as adhesives for orthodontic appliance and intermediate restorations, as pit and fissure sealants, liners and bases, and as core buildup materials. The GICs are classified below:
Type I: Luting crowns, bridges, and orthodontic brackets
Type IIa: Esthetic restorative cements
Type IIb: Reinforced restorative cements
Type III: Lining cements, base
GICs elicit a greater pulpal reaction than ZOE cement but less than zinc phosphate cement. Glass ionomer luting agents pose a greater pulpal hazard than glass ionomer restorations when the GIC is mixed with a low P/L ratio because the pH remains acidic longer. With any GIC, a protective liner such as Ca(OH) 2 should be used if the preparation is closer than 0.5 mm to the pulp chamber.
KEY Concept: The most commonly used, biocompatible and adhesive cement is Glass ionomer cement.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 320, 323, 324 | Dental | null | The most commonly used, most biocompatible and adhesive cement is:
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Zinc oxide eugenol
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Glass ionomer
| Glass ionomer |
51a8e99e-a97e-4bb5-be4d-9780a854de60 | Laryngofissure Opening the larynx in midline. Ref:- Stedman Dictionary; pg num:- 937 | ENT | Larynx | Laryngofissure is
A. Opening the larynx in midline
B. Removal of arytenoids
C. Making window in thyroid cailage
D. Removal of epiglottis
| Opening the larynx in midline |
e827df10-5b3b-4869-8ec5-0c52abbe8819 | Ans. is 'a' i.e osteopetrosis Osteopetrosis (also known as Marble bone disease, Albers- Schonberg disease)Defect is in bone resorption due to abnormal function of osteoclasts.Defective bone resorption results in uniformly thickened dense bones, often without distinction between cortical and cancellous regions. The bones are dense but brittle therefore known as marble bone disease.Inheritance is both AD & AR*.The AR form dies early in the life.The AD form is of milder variety.Clinical features in osteopetrosis are caused byan increased tendency to fractures and osteomyelitis.Encroachment of the marrow space leading to anaemia and extramedullary hematopiesis- hepato splenomegaly & cranial nerve compression. | Orthopaedics | Metabolic Disorders Leading to Osteosclerosis | A 3 year male presented with progressive anemia, hepatosplenomegaly and osteomyelitis of jaw with pathological fracture, x-ray shows chalky white deposits on bone, probable diagnosis is
A. osteopetrosis
B. osteopoikilocytosis
C. alkaptonuria
D. myositis- ossificans progressiva
| osteopetrosis |
1c7dff5e-5261-4f3a-8801-3dbde337fd3d | Aerobic metabolism produces 13,000 to 24,000 mmol CO2 per day. This yields close to that amount of H+ ions produced per day the reaction: CO2 + H2O - H2CO3 - H+ + HCO3-At the tissues, CO2 diffuses into the red blood cells, where the enzyme carbonic anhydrase accelerates the above reaction.The H+ produced is buffered mainly by a large amount of hemoglobin in the red blood cells.Bicarbonate is not an effective buffer of volatile acid (from CO2). | Microbiology | All India exam | The daily production of hydrogen ions from CO2 is primarily buffered by which of the following?
A. Extracellular bicarbonate
B. Red blood cell bicarbonate
C. Red blood cell hemoglobin
D. Plasma proteins
| Red blood cell hemoglobin |
c9784190-b068-4800-b86c-42f5f4b1fc49 | Ans: d. Peptidyl transferase[Ref Harper 30th/422-24, 28th/359-66, 323; Lippincott 4th/438-42; Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/248-501Enzyme Required for TranslationAmino-acyl-t-RNA synthetase: Enzyme required for activation of amino acids, Peptide synthetase (peptidyl transferase)The NH2 of new aminoacyl t - RNA (AI) in 'A' site combine with the - COOH group of Met - t -RNA occupying the 'P' site. The reaction is catalyzed by peptidyl transferase". "Peptidases degrades proteins to amino acidsThe NH2 of new aminoacyl t - RNA (AI) in 'A' site combine with the - COOH group of Met - t -RNA occupying the 'P' site. The reaction is catalyzed by peptidyl transferase . `` peptidases degrades proteins to amino acids.ProteinfunctionDNA polymerasesDeoxynucleotide polymerizationHelicasesProcessive unwinding of DNATopoisomerases Relieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwindingDNA primaseInitiates synthesis of RNA primersSingle-strand binding proteinsPrevent premature reannealing of dsDNADNA ligaseSeals the single strand nick between the nascent Okazaki chain and fragments on tagging strand | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following enzyme (s) paicipate in protein synthesis:
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA Helicase
C. Peptidase
D. Peptidyl transferase
| Peptidyl transferase |
9e38e28c-70e7-4945-9004-f12cbda3eeaa | Ans: c (Moclobemide) Ref: Ahuja, 6th ed,p. Katzung Pharmacology, 10th ed,p. 475Moclobemide is a reversible and selective MAO-A inhibitor.MAO is a mitochondrial enzyme involved in oxidative deamination of biogenic amines(Adr,NA,DA,5-HT)ADVERSE EFFECTSHeadache, drowsiness, dry mouth, weight gain, postural hypotension, sexual disturbances, interactions with tyramine containing foods.Serotonin syndrome- It is a condition precipitated when MAO inhibitors are given with serotonin agonists, especially antidepressants of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor class (SSRIs). It occurs when overdose with a single drug, or concurrent use of several drugs, results in excess serotonergic activity in the central nervous system .Clinical features are hypertension, hyperreflexia, tremor, clonus, hyperthermia, hyperactive bowel sounds, diarrhoea, mydriasis, agitation, coma.Classification of anti-depressants1.TRICYCLIC ANTIDEPRESSANTS (TCAS)Imipramine, Amitriptyline, Clomipramine, Nortriptyline, Mianserin, Amoxapine2. SELECTIVE SEROTONIN REUPTAKE INHIBITORS (SSRIS)Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Fluvoxamine, Sertraline, Citalopram, Escitalopram3.SEROTONIN NOREPINEPHRINE REUPTAKE INHIBITORS (SNRIs)Venlafaxine,Duloxetine4.NOREPINEPHRINE SEROTONIN REUPTAKE ENHANCERS (NSREs)Tianeptine5.NOR ADRENERGIC AND SPECIFIC SEROTONERGIC ANTIDEPRESSANTS (NaSSA)Mirtazapine6.NOREPINEPHRINE DOPAMINE REUPTAKE INHIBITORS(NDRIs)Bupropion7.SEROTONIN ANTAGONISTS AND REUPTAKE INHIBITORS (SARIs)T razodone,Nefazodone8. NORADRENERGIC REUPTAKE INHIBITORS ( NARIs)Reboxetine9.MONOAMINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS(MAOIs)REVERSIBLE SELECTIVE MAOIsMAOI-B-Selegiline; MAOI-A- Moclobemide | Psychiatry | Pharmacotherapy In Psychiatry | Reversible monoamine oxidase inbitors (MAOIs) are:
A. Nicorandil
B. Selegiline
C. Moclobemide
D. Fluphenazine
| Moclobemide |
bc5d4b3f-3272-4373-84b5-ec7fec8ffeda | Ans. is c, i.e. A woman presenting with life-threatening conditions but has survived.Ref. Master Pass in Obs/Gynae Konar, p 341A woman presenting with any life-threatening condition and survived, is considered as a Maternal Near Miss case. Maternal Near Miss is a retrospective event. From the definition point of view, woman can only be recognized as a maternal near miss, when she survives the server complications in pregnancy, labour or postpartum six weeks. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Obs) | Maternal near miss refers to:
A. Teenager becoming pregnant
B. Contraceptive failure in a teenager
C. A woman presenting with life threatening condition but has survived
D. A woman presenting with life threatening condition who has died
| A woman presenting with life threatening condition but has survived |
613cb912-b7b6-4f9f-97ee-ece461d82c5d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cotton dust Byssinosis is due to exposure to cotton dust in textile industries. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Byssinosis is due to exposure of ?
A. Coal dust
B. Cotton dust
C. Sugarcane dust
D. Silica
| Cotton dust |
64bd3046-d42d-41d6-afbb-c0d1301c15ba | The middle colic artery is the principal source of arterial supply to the transverse colon. The right colic artery, an infrequent branch of the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the ascending colon. The ileocolic branch of the superior mesenteric artery supplies distal ileum, cecum, and ascending colon. The left colic artery provides blood supply to the descending colon. | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | A 68-year-old woman had been suffering long term effects of diverticulosis and inflammation of the transverse colon. To permit operating on a patient with severe diverticulosis of the transverse colon, it would be necessary to first ligate (tie off) or clamp the source of arterial supply. Which of the following arteries will most likely be ligated?
A. Middle colic
B. Right colic
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Ileocolic
| Middle colic |
3a1ae52b-6490-4922-9c10-652d61c9b32c | Ans: b. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) | Pharmacology | null | Antibiotic of choice for Stenotrophomonas maltophilia infection is:
A. Ampicillin
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
C. Penicillin
D. Ciprofloxacin
| Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) |
97303069-be85-4a73-b148-5d3019c3121b | Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a disease that results from acquired mutations in the phosphatidylinositol glycan complementation group A gene (PIGA), an enzyme that is essential for the synthesis of ceain cell surface proteins. Proteins are anchored into the lipid bilayer in two ways. Most have a hydrophobic region that spans the cell membrane; these are called transmembrane proteins. The others are attached to the cell membrane through a covalent linkage to a specialized phospholipid called glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI). In PNH, these GPI-linked proteins are deficient because of somatic mutations that inactivate PIGA. Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 14. | Pathology | null | Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a disease that results from defects in:
A. Ankyrin
B. Band 3
C. Spectrin
D. GPI
| GPI |
38da28a6-5e12-416f-9bb0-0fae268534fe | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lipofuscin o Deposition of lipofuscin in the heart is referred as brown atrophy. | Pathology | Intracellular Accumulations | Brown atrophy occurs due to deposition of?
A. Melanin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Hematin
D. Lipofuscin
| Lipofuscin |
3e531c23-b6cf-42dd-bc57-da3b09ba6b8d | Here are the 15 most common signs and symptoms of vitamin C deficiency. Rough, Bumpy Skin. Corkscrew-Shaped Body Hair. Bright Red Hair Follicles. Spoon-Shaped Fingernails With Red Spots or Lines. Dry, Damaged Skin. Easy Bruising. Slowly Healing Wounds. Painful, Swollen Joints Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Which of the following is not a feature of scurvy
A. Bony thickening
B. Metaphyseal widening
C. Epiphyseal separation
D. Dense margin at metaphysis
| Metaphyseal widening |
25b34e89-459b-4d24-9269-20e25af6d454 | Clinical conditions associated with either an increase in hydrostatic pressure (such as congestive heart failure) or a decrease in oncotic pressure (such as nephrotic syndrome) are associated with transudative pleural effusions. This patient's pleural fluid is exudative by all three of the Light criteria: pleural fluid/serum protein ratio is greater than 0.5, pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio is greater than 0.6, and pleural fluid LDH is greater than two-thirds the upper limits of the normal serum LDH. The most likely explanation for an exudative pleural effusion in the setting of an acute pneumonia is a parapneumonic effusion. Parapneumonic effusions occur in about 40% of patients with bacterial pneumonia. Parapneumonic effusions are exudative due to the fact that there is increased permeability of the visceral pleural membrane capillaries, and interstitial fluid moves across the visceral pleura into the pleural space. Parapneumonic effusions may be simple or complicated. Simple parapneumonic effusions are sterile and free flowing. If bacteria invade the pleural space, neutrophils move into the pleural space and anaerobic metabolism of glucose results in a low pleural fluid pH (<7.20) and glucose (<60). The characteristics of this patient's pleural fluid suggest that bacterial invasion of the pleural space has not occurred, and that this is a simple parapneumonic effusion. Hemorrhage into the pleural space occurs with trauma, cancer, and pulmonary embolism, but rarely with pneumonia. | Medicine | Respiratory | A 63-year-old man who has been previously healthy is admitted to the hospital with a 2-day history of cough, rigors, fever, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Chest x-ray shows consolidation of the right lower lobe (RLL) and a free-flowing right pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed, and the pleural fluid has the following characteristics:Cell count=1110/mm3Glucose=75 mg/dL (serum glucose=85 mg/dL)Protein=4.0 g/dL (serum protein=7.0 g/dL)LDH=400 U/Lserum LDH=200 U/L, normal=100-200 U/LpH=7.35What is the pathogenesis of the pleural effusion?
A. Increase in hydrostatic pressure
B. Decrease in oncotic pressure
C. Increased permeability of visceral pleural membrane capillaries
D. Bacterial infection in the pleural space
| Increased permeability of visceral pleural membrane capillaries |
d372208c-2f56-47aa-b4a2-a7337357f8fb | Katzung 12e p100 KDT 7/e p101 Methacolamine is a non selective muscarine agonists. It has maximum agonist action on M2 receptors. relative selective agonist of cholinergic receptors are: M1 selective -Oxatremorine M2 selective -Methacolamine M3 selective- bethanocol | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Methacolamine has maximum agonists action at which of the following cholinergic receptors
A. M1
B. M2
C. M3
D. M4
| M2 |
b9299911-2d89-42e4-b0dd-fa2b10e968c2 | Painful swelling of second or third Costo chondral joint. | Medicine | null | Tietze syndrome involves swelling of
A. 1st Costochondral joint
B. 2nd or 3rd Costochondral joint
C. 4th & 5th Costochondral joint
D. 6th or 7th Costochondral joint
| 2nd or 3rd Costochondral joint |
c441e51d-99d5-4bae-a135-65f6fab8b98a | Possible Diagnosis isWiskott Aldrich syndrome X linked recessive WASP gene mutation More in boys Characterized byrecurrent infections, eczema like rash and thrombocytopenia | Dental | NEET Jan 2020 | A 5 yr old male child presented with H/O recurrent infection. O/E the child has rashes as shown below. Routine blood investigation reveal patient has low platelets. Which of the following diagnosis is possible?
A. Job syndrome
B. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
C. Meales
D. Henoch Schoenlein purpura
| Wiskott Aldrich syndrome |
3c9b240d-267f-430d-8724-069ac9626418 | Ans. a (ETEC). (Ref. Harrison, 18th/Table 149-2; Chapter 149. Diseases by Gram-Negative Enteric Bacilli)Five types of E.coli include:1. ETEC (enterotoxogenic E.coli)2. EIEC (enteroinvasive E.coli)3. EPEC (enteropathogenic E.coli)4. EHEC (enterohemorrhagic E.coli)5. EAEC (enteroaggregative E.coli)Traveller's diarrhoea is most commonly caused by enterotoxogenic E.coli and then the other common organism responsible is S. dysenteriae.Intestinal Pathogenic E. ColiPathotypeEpidemiologyClinical SyndromeDefining Molecular TraitResponsible Genetic ElementSTEC/EHECFood, water, person-to- person; all ages, industrialized countriesHemorrhagic colitis, HUSShiga toxinLambda-like Stxl- or Stx2- encoding bacteriophageETECFood, water; young children and in travellers to developing countriesTraveller's diarrheaHeat-stable and - labile enterotoxins, colonization factorsVirulence plasmid(s)EPECPerson-to-person; young children and neonates in developing countriesWatery diarrhea, persistent diarrheaLocalized adherence, attaching and effacing lesion on intestinal epitheliumEPEC adherence factor plasmid pathogenicity island (locus for enterocyte effacement)EIECFood, water; children and in travellers to developing countries.DysenteryColonic epithelial cell invasion intra- cellular multipli cation, cell-to-cell spread.Multiple genes contained primarily in a large virulence plasmidEAEC?Food, water; children and in travellers to developing countries; all ages, industrialized countriesTraveller's, acute, Persistent diarrheaAggregative/diffuse adherence, virulence factors regulated by AggRChromosomal or plasmid associated adherence and toxin genesE.coli toxin (GSa), cholera toxin (Gsa), & Pertusis toxin (Gla) cause ADP-ribosylation | Microbiology | Enterobecteriaceae | Traveller's diarrhoea is most commonly caused by
A. ETEC
B. S. dysenteriae
C. EPEC
D. Salmonella
| ETEC |
5e3e5c56-2af5-415d-96d9-1e3ed9b3d731 | Classification Fracture Lauge-Hansen Neer's Winquist Galand Gustilo Anderson Garden's/Pauwel's Ankle fracture Shoulder fracture Femur fracture Supracondylar humerus fracture Open fracture Neck of femur fracture | Orthopaedics | FMGE 2017 | Lauge - Hansen classification belongs to:-
A. Femur fracture
B. Elbow fracture
C. Ankle fracture
D. Shoulder fracture
| Ankle fracture |
18a78395-90cf-49aa-b43a-7f6449a3391b | Secondary Amenorrhea
Definition:
In women who have menstruated previously, no menses for an interval of time equivalent to a total of at least three previous cycles or 6 months
Uterus must contain a functional endometrium that can respond to the actions of ovarian sex steroid hormones, estrogen and progesterone
When estrogen and progesterone both were given and no menstruation at the end, the pathology lies in the endometrium
Causes:
Tuberculosis, Schistosomiasis
Postabortal or puerperal curettage
Asherman's syndrome | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In case of secondary amenorrhea who fails to get withdrawal bleeding after taking Estrogen and Progesterone, the fault lies at the level of
A. Pituitary
B. Endometrium
C. Ovary
D. Hypothalamus
| Endometrium |
afd6004b-1f2b-4e5a-bf2a-386f331d7a96 | STRIDOR 1. Inspiratory stridor - obstructive lesion of supraglottis of pharynx. 2. Expiratory stridor - lesion of thoracic trachea, primary and secondary bronchi 3. Biphasic stridor - lesion of glottis sub glottis and cervical trachea | ENT | DNB 2018 | Inspiratory stridor is obstructive lesions of:
A. Trachea
B. Bronchus
C. Subglottis
D. Supraglottis
| Supraglottis |
37e6ce54-c11f-48ad-a39f-7cd621c4cf74 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alagille syndrome Alagille Syndromeo Autosomal dominant diseaseo JAG 1 and NOTCH 2 mutationo Affects the liver and Hearta. Livero Biliary atresiao Autoimmune hepatitiso Jaundiceo Liver cirrhosisb Hearto Pulmonary stenosiso Tetralogy of Falloto VSDo Overriding aortac. Othero Other presentations of Alagille's syndrome include an unusual butterfly shape of one or more of the bones of the spinal column (visible on an x-ray), certain eye defects (such as posterior embryotoxon), and narrowed pulmonary arteries that can contribute to increased pressure on the right heart valves. Many people with Alagille syndrome have similar facial features, including a broad, prominent forehead, deep-set eyes, and a small pointed chin. | Surgery | Anatomy (Gall Bladder & Bile Ducts) | Abesent bile duct is seen in -
A. Alagille syndrome
B. Crigler Najjar Syndrome
C. Gilbert's Syndrome
D. Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
| Alagille syndrome |
ae483baa-150f-4bf5-bfce-bf7d0ebd0393 | Ans. d. Competitive and irreversible (Ref: Goodman Gillman 12/e p242. Katzung 12/e p106: KDT 7/e p99)The type of inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase caused by organophosphates is competitive & irreversible."Organophosphates cause irreversible inhibition of Acetyl-cholinesterase while that caused by carbamates is reversible. Both bind at the esteratic site of the enzyme causing competitive inhibition."" Thus, the terms reversible and irreversible as applied to the carbamoyl ester and organophosphate anti-ChE agents, respectively: reflect only quantitative differences in rates of decarbamoylation or dephosphorylation of the conjugated enzyme. Both chemical classes react covalently with the active center serine in essentially the same manner as does ACh. "--Goodman Gillman 12/e p242AnticholinesterasesReversibleIrreversibleCarbamatesAcridineOrganophosphateCarbamates* Physostigmine* Neostigmine* Pyridostigmine* Edrophonium* Rivastigmine* Donepezil* Galantamine* Tacrine* Dyflos (DFP)* Echothiophate* Parathion* Malathion* Diazinon (TIK -20)* Tabun* Sarin* Soman* Carbaryl* Propoxur | Pharmacology | Cholinergic System | What is the type of inhibition of acetylcholinesterase caused by organophosphates?
A. Competitive and reversible
B. Noncompetitive and irreversible
C. Uncompetitive and reversible
D. Competitive and irreversible
| Competitive and irreversible |
2db2e744-be8f-4edf-9ea4-5f8c7b06142f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mittelschmerz o Young female having mid cycle lower abdominal pain without fever and leukocytosis directs to the diagnosis of mittleschmerz.# Mittelschmerz is a mid-cycle pain, not lasting more than 12-24 hours, around ovulation. Pain is located in one of the iliac fossa and may be accompanied with vaginal bleeding. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Urinary System | Young woman LMP was 2 weeks back complains of pain in lower abdomen with no H/O fever and absence of leukocytosis. Diagnosis is -
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Mittleschmerz
C. Acute intermittent obstruction
D. Dysuria
| Mittleschmerz |
c972839c-2194-422a-b3c0-6949910d39b2 | Stage of Syphilis Patients without Penicillin Allergy Patients with Confirmed Penicillin Allergy Primary, secondary, or early latent CSF normal or not examined: Penicillin G benzathine(single dose of 2.4 mU IM)CSF abnormal: Treat as neurosyphilis CSF normal or not examined: Tetracycline HCl(500 mg PO qid) or doxycycline (100 mg PO bid)for 2 weeksCSF abnormal: Treat as neurosyphilis Late latent (or latent of unceainduration), cardiovascular, or benignteiary CSF normal or not examined: Penicillin G benzathine(2.4 mU IM weekly for 3 weeks)CSF abnormal: Treat as neurosyphilis CSF normal and patient not infected with HIV:Tetracycline HCl (500 mg PO qid) or doxycycline(100 mg PO bid) for 4 weeksCSF normal and patient infected with HIV:Desensitization and treatment with penicillin if compliancecannot be ensuredCSF abnormal: Treat as neurosyphilis (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 1387) | Medicine | Infection | Rx of latent syphilis-
A. Penicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxacin
| Penicillin |
3f717902-b1d9-485a-8d1a-51641e01e039 | Risk Associated With Colonoscopy Risks of Colonoscopy: Perforation and hemorrhage MC site of bleeding after colonoscopy: Stalk after polypectomy MC site of perforation during colonoscopy: Sigmoid colon Perforation can be used by excessive air pressure, tearing of the antimesenteric border of the colon from excessive pressure on colonic loops, and at the sites of electrosurgical applications Management: Patients with perforation but no peritoneal signs can be safely managed with careful monitoring (Bowel rest + Broad spectrum antibiotics + Close observation) A large perforation recognized during the procedure requires surgical exploration. Because the bowel has almost always been prepared prior to the colonoscopy, there is usually little contamination associated with these injuries and most can be reapired primarily Ref: Shackelford 7th edition pgno: 1747 | Surgery | G.I.T | Treatment of pneumoperitoneum, as a result of colonoscopic perforation in a young patient is:
A. Temporary colostomy
B. Closure+Lavage
C. Permanent colostomy
D. Symptomatic
| Closure+Lavage |
7ecd167d-c140-461e-9111-69834d395861 | Barrier methods includes Physical, Chemical and Combined methods Physical methods include Condom, Diaphragm and Vaginal sponge Chemical methods include Foams, Creams, Suppositories and Soluble films Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 494, 495 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Barrier method
A. Hormonal contraceptive
B. IUD
C. Condom
D. Sterilization
| Condom |
b042b95f-9add-400d-8412-117f1aebb240 | Management of Cervical cancer Stage I-IIA -Radical Hysterectomy Stage >= IIB - Chemoradiation | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | JIPMER 2017 | Stage IIB cervical carcinoma. Best line of management:
A. Type 3 hysterectomy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiation therapy
D. Chemoradiation
| Chemoradiation |
02a5cb4d-f763-44df-b1f1-a120947c5519 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alkalosis Oxygen dissociation curve Shifted to right Shifted to left o Decreased oxygen affinity to hemoglobin o Increased P50 o Increased oxygen delivery to tissues o Causes : # Decreased pH (Acidosis) # Increased temperature # Increased PCO2 # Increased 2, 3 DPG (BPG) i) Growth hormone, Androgen, thyroid hormone ii) Exercise iii) Tissue hypoxia iv) High altitude v) Anemia vi) Alkalosis vii) Cyanotic CHD viii) Pregnancy ix) Chemicals: Inosine, Pyruvate, PEP, phosphate # Sickle hemoglobin (HbS) o Increased oxygen affinity to hemoglobin o Decreased P50 o Decrease oxygen delivery to tissues o Causes : # Increased pH (alkalosis) # Decreased temperature # Decreased PCO2 # Decreased 2,3 DPG (BPG):-Stored blood # Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) | Unknown | null | Oxygen - Hemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to left by -
A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis
C. Hyperthermia
D. Anaemia
| Alkalosis |
1cba38ed-facd-40ef-8dc2-f533ae138e47 | Ans. B: Gonococci Organisms that penetrate intact epithelium: Corynebacterium (Diptheria)-a nonencapsulated, nonmotile, gram-positive bacillus Acanthamoeba Neisseria gonorrhoea Aegyptius Listeria Shigella | Microbiology | null | Which organism can penetrate intact cornea: September 2009
A. Pneumococcus
B. Gonococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Staphylococci
| Gonococci |
c08227d9-31e4-4b6c-bb0b-983f34d771b4 | Parainfluenza viruses are important causes of respiratory diseases in infants and young children. The spectrum of disease caused by these viruses ranges from a mild febrile cold to croup, bronchiolitis, and pneumonia. Parainfluenza viruses contain RNA in a nucleocapsid encased within an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Infected mammalian cell culture will hem absorb red blood cells owing to viral hemagglutinin on the surface of the cell. | Microbiology | Virology | Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in young children and, when infecting mammalian cells in culture, will hem absorb red blood cells?
A. Group B coxsackievirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Parainfluenza virus
D. Adenovirus
| Parainfluenza virus |
a763e042-c693-475f-ab51-a6a718d6099b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hb Ba's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues `In the foetus excess gamma globin chains form tetramers (Hb Bas) with such high affinity for oxygen that they deliver almost no oxygen to tissues' - Robbins o Clinically this condition manifests as hydrops fetalis and fetus shows features similar to those of erythroblastosis fetalis ----> Severe pallor, Generalized edema, Massive hepatosplenomegaly | Pediatrics | null | Ba's hydrops fetalis is lethal because -
A. Hb Ba's cannot bind oxygen
B. The excess a - globin form insoluble precipitates
C. Hb Ba's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues
D. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placental
| Hb Ba's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues |
afa44b41-1852-4bb5-948e-9a15fec33704 | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 110, 166) *Hutchinson's rule:- In herpes zoster ophthalmicus, the involvement of the tip of the nose, supplied by external nasal nerve (a terminal branch of nasociliary nerve), signifies increase the risk of ocular involvement (uveitis). | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | Hutchinson's rule is related to
A. Herpes simplex keratitis
B. Mycotic keratitis
C. Herpes zoster Ophthalmicus
D. Vernal keratitis
| Herpes zoster Ophthalmicus |
fc2ffa72-fa0a-420d-abad-698a6a015a0e | Eagle's syndrome is characterised by pain in tonsillar fossa and upper neck. Pain radiates of ipsilateral ear. There is aggravation of pain on swallowing. It is caused by calcification of stylohyoid ligament / elongation of styloid process. Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat by P.L. Dhingra, 9th edition, p287. | ENT | All India exam | Pain in tonsillar fossa and upper neck is characteristic of?
A. Eagle's syndrome
B. Ape's syndrome
C. Sickler's syndrome
D. Usher's syndrome
| Eagle's syndrome |
48d21353-ce61-476c-9477-7673b822ada1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inhibition of GABA release . Tetanospasmin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (GABA and glycine) in brain-stem and spinal cord. | Microbiology | null | Mechanism of action of tetanospasmin
A. Inhibition of GABA release
B. Inhibition cAMP
C. Inactivation of Ach receptors
D. Inhibition of cGMP
| Inhibition of GABA release |
cb433bdf-4b22-4c56-b9a8-aea1e86703ab | The circulus aeriosus (circle of Willis) is a large aerial anastomosis which unites the internal carotid and veebrobasilar systems. Anteriorly, the anterior cerebral aeries, which are derived from the internal carotid aeries, are joined by the small anterior communicating aery. Posteriorly, the two posterior cerebral aeries, which are formed by the division of the basilar aery, are joined to the ipsilateral internal carotid aery by a posterior communicating aery. | Anatomy | null | Anterior communicating aeries in the circle of Willis is derived from ?
A. Basilar aery
B. Veebral aery
C. Internal carotid aery
D. Anterior cerebral aery
| Anterior cerebral aery |
a1734ce5-c736-4dc9-b9da-b42e37f4597b | Ans is 'd' i.e., A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate o Lymphocytes postive for CD 19, CD20, CD23, CD5 suggest the diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphcytic lymphoma. o In CLL/SLL larger lymphocytes show high mitotic activity and form proliferation centre. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL). o CLL and SLL are identical neoplasms/arise due to an abnormal neoplastic proliferation of B cells. o CLL involves primarily bone marrow and blood, while SLL involves lymph nodes Morphology of CLL/SLL o The tumor cells of CLL are small B lymphocytes. o Leukemic cells have the morphological appearance of normal small to medium sized lymphocytes with clumped chromatin, inconspicuous nuclei and a small ring of cytoplasm. o The lymph node architecture is diffusely effaced by these tumor cells. o These cells are mixed with variable numbers of larger cells called prolymphocytes. o In many cases, prolymphyocytes gather together focally to form as proliferation centers, so called because they contain relatively large number of mitotic activity. o When present proliferation centers are pathognomonic for CLL/SLL. o In CLL, the peripheral blood contains increased numbers of small, round lymphocytes with scant frequently disrupted in the process of making smears, producing So called smudge cells.. Markers of CLL tumor cells o CLL is a tumor of mature B-cells, therefore it expresses the B-cell markers such as CD19, CD20 and surface IgM and IgD. o In addition CD23 and CD5 are also present (In contrast to mantle cell lymphoma which is positive for CD5 but negative for CD23). | Pathology | null | A 48 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 2.7 X 1091 L and total leukocyte count 40 X 109/ L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD 19, CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were negative for CD 79 B and FMC-7. The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effacement of lymph node arachitecture by -
A. A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers
B. A monomorphic lymphoid proliferation with a nodular pattern
C. A predominantly follicular pattern
D. A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate
| A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate |
75db9702-7f3c-455e-9e92-d89a3191fd04 | Ans. c. Government health insurance scheme meant for the poor (Ref: http://www.rsby.gov.in/about_rsby aspx)Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana is Government health insurance scheme meant for the poor."Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana provide health insurance coverage for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. Objective is to provide protection to BPL households from financial liabilities arising out of health shocks that involve hospitalization."Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) is a government- run health insurance scheme for the Indian poor. It provides for cashless insurance for hospitalization in public as well as private hospitals."Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana provide health insurance coverage for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. Objective is to provide protection to BPL households from financial liabilities arising out of health shocks that involve hospitalization. "Rashtriya Swasthya Bima YojanaAlso known as National Health Insurance Scheme (NHIS)Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana or RSBY started rolling from 1st April 2008.Government sponsored scheme for the BPL population of IndiaQRs. 600 (75%) by Central governmentQRs. 200 (25%) by State governmentQGovernment of India contribution is 90% in case of North-eastern states & Jammu and KashmirLaunched by Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.Provide health insurance coverage for Below Poverty Line (BPL) familiesQ.Objective:To provide protection to BPL households from financial liabilities arising out of health shocks that involves hospitalizationQ.Beneficiaries:Beneficiaries under RSBY are entitled to hospitalization coverage up to Rs. 30,000 per family per year for hospitalization in public and private hospitalsCover in case of death of a family member: Rs. 25,000/-QPre-existing conditions are covered from day one and there is no age limit.Coverage extends to five members of the family, which includes the head of household, spouse and up to three dependentsQ.Beneficiaries need to pay only Rs. 30/- as registration fee while Central and State Government pays the premium to the insurer selected by the State Government on the basis of a competitive bidding. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health Programmes in India | Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is:
A. Low cost insurance scheme by general insurance companies
B. Industry associated insurance scheme meant for workers
C. Government health insurance scheme meant for the poor
D. Central government insurance scheme for employees
| Government health insurance scheme meant for the poor |
4a94ecd6-8e38-4e43-ae92-a260bdc4e54a | Ans: A i.e. ClozapineAbout 30% of patients do not respond to antipsychotics, or are intolerant to them, usually because of extrapyramidal side effects. The only proven drug intervention for this group is clozapine, which is effective in between a third and a half of such patients. | Psychiatry | null | A young patient of schizophrenia is intolerant to anti-psychotic medications. Which drug is most preferred for such a patient: March 2012
A. Clozapine
B. Olanzapine
C. Riseperidone
D. Haloperidol
| Clozapine |
e1f45c5b-4218-44a8-aec5-9c104a5807b7 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Streptomycin All aminoglycosides reduce Ach release from the motor nerve endings. They interfere with mobilization of centrally located synaptic vesicles to fuse with the terminal membrane (probably by antagonizing Ca2+) as well as decrease the sensitivity of the muscle end plates to Ach. Neomycin and streptomycin have higher propensity than kanamycin, gentamycin or amikacin, while tobramycin is least likely to produce this effect. | Pharmacology | null | Neuromuscular transmission is affected by ?
A. Sulfonamide
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. INH
D. Streptomycin
| Streptomycin |
b5975dd8-57de-4542-ae16-8772a1f432a5 | Hairy cell leukemia*An uncommon chronic lymphoproliferative disorder of B lymphocytes *Clinical presentation: Massive splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and lymphadenopathy*Peripheral blood: Bicytopenia/Pancytopenia, absolute monocytopenia, absolute neutropenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. *Cytopenia could be due to hypersplenism, hairy cell infiltration of marrow and TNF-a secreted by hairy cells.*Hairy cells are mononuclear cells with eccentric or central round, ovoid, reniform, or convoluted nuclei. Nuclear forms tend to have a reticular chromatin pattern. Hairy cells have variable amounts of cytoplasm that is blue-gray in appearance, exhibiting thin cytoplasmic projections*Bone marrow aspirate shows "dry tap" due to marrow fibrosis*Bone marrow biopsy shows hairy cells with "fried egg appearance"*Cytochemical stain: Positive for tarate-resistant acid phosphatase *Immunohistochemical stain: Positive for Annexin A1(specific for HCL), CD20, TRAP, DBA44, T-bet*And CD103 (Frozen section)*Flowcytometry : CD11c, CD22, CD25 and CD 103. Also positive for pan-B markers like CD19, CD20, and CD22. Newly identified CD200 marker shows expression only in hairy cell leukemia and chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Treatment of choice: CladribineParametersHCLHCL-VariantSplenic Lymphoma with Villous LymphocytesBloodMorphologyNuclear shapeOvoid, reniformRoundRoundChromatinReticular +- nucleolusCoarse with central nucleolusCoarse +- nucleolusCytoplasmBlue-gray, abundantBlue-gray, abundantBasophilic, scant to moderateMonocytopenia+--TRAP stain++++-+-Aspirated marrow*-++Splenic involvementRed pulpRed pulpWhite pulpFlow cytometry CD22+++++++ CD11c++++++ CD25++-+- CD103+++--Ref: Williams Hematology 8/e chapter 95 | Pathology | Haematology | A 50-year-old male presented with left upper quadrant pain. On examination, the spleen was palpable 10 cm below left costal margin. Peripheral smear is shown below. Which of the following IHC is used for diagnosis of the condition?
A. CD23
B. CD21
C. Annexin A1
D. Cyclin D1
| Annexin A1 |
64bc11bc-cffc-4a29-ba68-14b5ce7a5689 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Strongyloides Strongvloidiosis . It is most frequently asymptomatic . In symptomatic cases the following lesions may be observed. | Microbiology | null | Infection with colitis is caused by
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Trichuris trichura
C. Strongyloides
D. Clonorchis
| Strongyloides |
89bfa4ea-c158-4cd7-b0eb-e3ba285325e7 | Ans. D: Valproate Choice of antiseizure agents Primary generalised tonic clonic (grand mal)-carbamazepine, phenytoin Paial, including secondary generalized-valproate, carbamazepine,phenytoin Absence (petit mal)-valproate Atypical absence, myoclonic, atonic-valproate Febrile seizures-diazepam Status epilepticus-I/V diazepam | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for petit mal seizures is: September 2007
A. Ethosuximide
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenytoin
D. Valproate
| Valproate |
46ac4c8c-3125-4230-94c9-bf0951ff0891 | Variant angina is caused by coronary vasospasm DOC:Sublingual Nitroglycerine Prophylaxis : Calcium channel blockers (like verapamil and Diltiazem) and nitrates Beta blockers are avoided as they may precipitate coronary vasospasm by counteracting beta 2 mediated coronary vasodilation. Therefore they are avoided in variant angina. | Pharmacology | CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction | Which of the following drug is contraindicated in variant angina?
A. Diltiazem
B. Nitrates
C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
| Propranolol |
61e34a43-390d-4886-85e4-369317cc1d69 | Conservative laparoscopictreatment of ectopic pregnancy is now commonplace, although not yet universal.
With increasing sophistication of techniques and fiberoptics, many microsurgical procedures can be done through the laparoscope.
Recent studies suggestthat the fertility rates for laparoscopy and laparotomy are comparable, as are the implications of repeat ectopic pregnancies.
Certainly laparoscopy, because of its small incision, results in fewer breakdowns and shorter hospital stays, but the incidence of complications due to retained ectopic tissue is higher. | Unknown | null | In comparing laparoscopic salpingostomy vs. laparotomy with salpingectomy for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic therapy results in
A. Higher fertility rate
B. Lower repeat ectopic pregnancy rate
C. Comparable persistent ectopic tissue rate
D. Greater scar formation
| Higher fertility rate |
7b72e13e-104d-474d-9d7c-8b227f11ef6e | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rehabilitation Provision of aids for crippled is rehabilitation, e.g. prescription of crutches for PRPP. It is a type of teiary prevention. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A patient prescribed crutches for residual paralysis in poliomyelitis is a type of -
A. Primary prevention
B. Primordial prevention
C. Disability limitation
D. Rehabilitation
| Rehabilitation |
b0f17b66-7fd5-48b4-b8eb-b2f5d595e58f | • In most countries, the diphtheria toxoid vaccine is given in combination with tetanus toxoid and pertussis vaccines (DTP vaccine).
• DPT vaccine is most effectively used for prophylaxis and prevention of diphtheria.
• Diphtheria is caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This germ produces a toxin that can harm or destroy human body tissues and organs.
• One type of diphtheria affects the throat and sometimes the tonsils. Another type, more common in the tropics, causes ulcers on the skin.
• Diphtheria affects people of all ages, but most often it strikes unimmunized children.
• It is transmitted from person to person through close physical and respiratory contact.
• DOC for Diphtheria infection: Erythromycin | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is used as prophylaxis in case of diphtheria:
A. DPT vaccine
B. Erythromycin
C. Ampicillin
D. DAT
| DPT vaccine |
2da9a4dd-6bc6-444f-a8ca-872a8cd90989 | Ovarian Reserve < 1 is low , more than 2 is normal Markers of a REDUCED ovarian reserve are: Increasing age, especially beyond 35 Decreased ovarian volume Decrease estrogen Decrease Antral Follicular count High serum FSH, especially more than 15 Reduced Inhibin, especially lesser than 45 pg/ml Low AMH - (SINGLE BEST TEST ) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | NEET 2019 | In low ovarian reserve, Anti Mullerian hormone level will be:-
A. <1
B. 4-Jan
C. >7
D. >10
| <1 |
27326eb5-e39c-4cf2-9f78-4977ebba0c71 | Normally functional hemoglobin may have different AA at position 67 of β-chain in place of valine. | Biochemistry | null | In a mutation, if valine is replaced by which of the following, would not result in any change in the function of the protein
A. Proline
B. Leucine
C. Glycine
D. Aspartic acid
| Aspartic acid |
2a6e0616-f158-4fb0-a017-b36f329779e0 | Cimetidine is an enzyme inhibitor which can increase theophylline levels and lead to toxicity. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug can lead to increased level of Theophylline
A. Rifampicin
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Cimetidine
D. Phenytoin
| Cimetidine |
44629323-3d4f-4c7d-9be1-2de6626c5a11 | Narcolepsy is characterized by Cataplexy (loss of muscle tone) not Catalepsy.
Catalepsy or catatonia is akinetic mutism & stupor seen in severe depression, schizophrenia.
Remember: Two lepsy's can not be together, Catalepsy is not seen in Narcolepsy. | Psychiatry | null | Not seen in Narcolepsy:
A. Sleep paralysis
B. Sleep attack
C. Catalepsy
D. Cataplexy
| Catalepsy |
7e1c7739-37df-40f1-851c-8c3f311b6ca9 | Ans. (a) LGVRef: Neena Khanna Synopsis of Dermatology 4th ed./322*LGV is an STD, caused by chlamydia presents classically with painless lymphadenopathy.*Mnemonic to remember LGV:# ABCDEFG: Asymptomatic, Bubo, Chlamydia, Doxy, Esthiomine, Fries test, Groove signDiseaseUlcerLymph nodeSyphilisPainlessPainlessChancroidPainfulPainfulLGVPainlessPainful (Bubo) | Unknown | null | An adult male presented 4 weeks after intercourse with fever, rubbery ulcer, inguinal lymphadenopathy. Causative organism:
A. LGV
B. Syphillis
C. Chancroid
D. HIV
| LGV |
d8835118-afdc-4699-9753-100e2e9ba68a | Constitutional delay in growth
This is significant cause of short stature in mid childhood period but the ultimate height is normal.
Their birth weight and height are normal.
Strong family history of parents having short stature in childhood with delay in onset of puberty is usually present.
The average growth velocity is normal and ultimate growth potential is adequate.
The bone age is less than chronological age.
Upper segment and lower segement ratio is normal.
Growth hormone and gonadotropin level after puberty are within normal range.
No treatment is required. The parents need to be reasured. | Pediatrics | null | The most common cause of short stature is –
A. Constitutional
B. Systemic diseases
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Growth hormone deficiency
| Constitutional |
91ea05c7-bfcf-4c5a-9226-31e7205d0a8d | Bladder neck stenosis is the most common cause of obstructive symptoms following Trans Urethral Resection of Prostrate (TURP). Its due to the presence of a tight membrane at the neck of the bladder. Ref: Transurethral resection By John Peter Blandy, Richard G. Notley, John Reynard, Page 190-91; Contemporary Issues in Prostate Cancer: A Nursing Perspective By Jeanne Held-Warmkessel, Page 167. | Surgery | null | Which is the most common cause of delayed urinary tract obstruction after Trans Urethral Resection of Prostrate (TURP):
A. Stricture of the Navicular fossa
B. Stricture of the membranous urethra
C. Stricture of the bulb of urethra
D. Bladder neck stenosis
| Bladder neck stenosis |
4bdf74b3-713e-4aa6-b421-1456eb9b4060 | Answer: a) Proximal tubuleWater Transport along the NephronSegmentPercentage of Filtrate ReabsorbedMechanism of Water ReabsorptionHormones That Regulate Water PermeabilityProximal tubule67%PassiveNoneLoop of Henle15%Descending thin limbonly; passiveNoneDistal tubule0%No water reabsorptionNoneLate distal tubule and collecting duct~8%-17%PassiveADH, ANP, BNP*Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides inhibit antidiuretic hormone-stimulated water permeability | Physiology | Kidneys and Body Fluids | A 50 years old male patient travels alone in a remote village of Rajasthan was not on any food or water for the past 24 hours. Urine osmolality is 1150 mOsm/Kg. The major site of water reabsorption is
A. Proximal tubule
B. Henle's loop
C. Distal tubule
D. Medullary collecting duct
| Proximal tubule |
35fbd864-1c80-46a2-83c9-aba6fcc615ec | Ans. (b) KeratinRef.: Bolognia dermatology ch: 55 | Skin | Anatomy of Skin | Substance common in skin, hair and nail is?
A. Vimentin
B. Keratin
C. Laminin
D. Nectin
| Keratin |
37988c9b-252f-4927-8f1b-cfa44281b0e7 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Flexor digiti minimi o The hamate :The tip of the hook gives attachment to the flexor retinaculum.The medial side of the hook gives attachment to the flexor digiti minimi and the opponens digiti minimi. | Anatomy | Hand | Which flexor muscle is attached to hook of hamate-
A. Flexor pollicis brevis
B. Flexor pollicis longus
C. Flexor digiti minimi
D. Flexor carpi ulnaris
| Flexor digiti minimi |
941b3592-9b08-4750-9e99-fe3d13cf364f | Ans is B ie calcitonin Schwaz Surgery writes ? The presence of amyloid is a diagnostic finding, but immunohistochemistry for calcitonin is more commonly used as a diagnostic tumor marker. These tumors also stain positive for CEA (Carcinoembryonic antigen) and CGRP (Calcitonin gene-related peptide)" | Surgery | null | In Medullary Carcinoma thyroid Tumour marker is?
A. TSH
B. Calcitonin
C. T3, T4 and TSH
D. Alpha Feto protein
| Calcitonin |
046dea52-a87a-4d2b-b246-fc3397f7c56a | This x-ray shows a right upper lobe homogeneous opacity merging with the right paratracheal area in the apical segment. This is consistent with a Pancoast tumor. The right clavicle is obscured in its medial aspect but does not show any fracture or erosion. Underlying hyperinflation is seen in all lung fields. The intercostal spaces in the right upper lobe region are diminished. The soft tissue shadows are similar bilaterally above the clavicles. The homogeneous opacity in the apical region is consistent with superior sulcus tumor (Pancoast tumor). This tumor invades the brachial plexus locally and is often associated with pain in the ulnar nerve distribution. It is also associated with Horner syndrome, i.e., anhydrosis, myosis, and ptosis. Lofgren syndrome is associated with sarcoidosis and is a triad of polyaicular ahritis, erythema nodosum, and bilateral hilar adenopathy. Sjogren syndrome may be primary or secondary to another connective tissue disorder and is also known as the sicca syndrome (due to its attendant triad of xerostomia, dry eyes, and ahritis). Heford syndrome is a uveoparotid fever associated with sarcoidosis. The chest x-ray finding is inconsistent with any of the latter conditions mentioned. | Radiology | Respiratory system | A 56-year-old male smoker is referred with symptoms of weakness, dizziness, and right chest pain after playing with his grandson. He admits to having pain in the right shoulder and axilla off and on for the prior 6 mo. He denies any exposure to TB and has a negative PPD skin test. Routine laboratory tests are normal. CXR is shown.Associated findings will include
A. Horner syndrome
B. Lofgren syndrome
C. Sjogren syndrome
D. Heford syndrome
| Horner syndrome |
d3b519df-3fdb-41cd-a2de-8b742da38489 | Ans. (b) 4 mmol.Composition of one liter of Ringer's Lactate solution:* 130 mEq of sodium ion = 130 mmol/L* 109 mEq of chloride ion = 109 mmol/L* 28 mEq of lactate = 28 mmol/L* 4 mEq of potassium ion = 4 mmol/L* 3 mEq of calcium ion = 1.5 mmol/LRingers lactate has an osmolarity of 273 mOsm/L | Pathology | Hemodynamics | The amount of potassium delivered to this patient after giving one bottle?
A. 2 mmol
B. 4 mmol
C. 8 mmol
D. 10 mmol
| 4 mmol |
26fb4714-5a7b-450e-b3d1-f70c06a19d98 | REM sleep events
- Narcolepsy
- Night mares
- Nocturnal penile tumescence | Physiology | null | Nightmare is seen in
A. REM sleep
B. Stage II NREM sleep
C. Stage IV NREM sleep
D. Stage I NREM sleep
| REM sleep |
dd7d4e15-89d4-450f-ae20-c19b1701f747 | Central nebular opacity is treated by phototherapeutic keratectomy with an excimer laser (treatment of choice) or lamellar keratoplasty. | Ophthalmology | null | 0.1 to 0.2 mm nebular corneal opacity is treated by –
A. Penetrating keratoplasty
B. Lamellar keratoplasty
C. Enucleation
D. Evisceration
| Lamellar keratoplasty |
2b6637bf-2f2c-421d-a1bd-ef812903fabb | The structures developing from the Neural ectoderm are : Retina with its pigment epithelium Epithelial layers of ciliary body Epithelial layers of iris Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles Optic nerve(neuroglia and nervous elements only) Melanocytes Secondary vitreous Ciliary zonules (teiary vitreous) Reference: A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no:12 | Ophthalmology | Anatomy, Development and clinical examination | Which of the following does not develop from the neural ectoderm?
A. Vitreous
B. Aqueous
C. Retinal pigment epithelium
D. Fibres of optic nerve
| Aqueous |
34bb87b7-8a24-4f2a-9a27-cc5f9495b22c | Positive urinary anion gap is associated with distal A, as the kidney cannot excrete H+ as NH4Cl. The urinary anion gap (Na+ + K- - Cl-) reflects the ability of the kidney to excrete NH4Cl. It is used to differentiate between gastrointestinal and renal causes of hyperchloremic acidosis. In gastrointestinal cause of hyperchloremic acidosis such as in diarrhea, renal acidification remains normal and NH4Cl excretion increases, and the urinary anion gap is negative. Ref: CURRENT Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012,Chapter 21 | Medicine | null | Which of the following condition is diagnosed using a positive urinary anion gap?
A. Acidosis in Diarrhea
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Alcoholic ketoacidosis
D. Renal tubular Acidosis
| Renal tubular Acidosis |
126b0729-3598-4f0d-b61e-1e3070820a5d | Conjugation Sexual contact through the formation of a bridge or sex pilus is common among gram-negative bacilli of the same or another species. This may involve chromosomal or extrachromosomal (plasmid) DNA. The gene carrying the &;resistance&; or &;R&; factor is transferred onlv if another &;resistance transfer factor&; (F) is also present. Conjugation frequently occurs in the colon where large variety of gram-negative bacilli come in close contact. Even nonpathogenic organisms may transfer R factor to pathogenic organisms, which may become widespread by contamination of food or water. Chloramphenicol resistance of typhoid bacilli, streptomycin resistance of E. coli, penicillin resistance of Haemophilus and gonococci and many others have been traced to this mechanism. Concomitant acquisition of multidrug resistance has ocurred by conjugation. Thus, this is a very impoant Mechanism of horizontal transmission of resistance. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:671 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Multiple drug resistance is transferred through:
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation
| Conjugation |
1ee846d4-f390-4f59-b340-53e3a8bd43ed | Ans. c. FSH /Ref Harrison 19e p2388, 18/e p17/e p2331]Ovarian reserve is the capability of ovary to produce egg. The methods for assessing ovarian reserve are classified into Passive testing and Dynamic testing. FSH level is a method for testing passive ovarian reserve."As woman ages FSH becomes elevated in an attempt to force the aging ovary to respond. Rise in early follicular phase FSH is also accompanied by a decline in oocyte quality. High FSH has been correlated with poor ovarian reserve but it is difficult to establish absolute values that define how high an FSH level can be and still achieve pregnancy."Ovarian reserve* Ovarian reserve is the capability of ovary to produce egg* During the first few days of each monthly cycle, under the influence of FSH and LH there is rapid growth of several follicles in the ovaiy. After a week or more of growth one of the follicles begin to outgrow. AH the others and the remaining follicles involute (a process called atresia), and these follicles are said to become atretic.* The process of atresia is important because it normally allow s only one of the follicles to grow large enough, each month to ovulate. This usually prevents more than one child from developing with each pregnancy.* The single follicle reaches a diameter of l-l .5 centimeters at the time of ovulation and is called the mature follicle.* With advancing age the capability of the ovary to produce eggs declines.Methods of assessing ovarian reserve:* With advancing age the capability of the ovary to produce egg declines i.e. ovarian reserve decrease with age.* Usually age is the best predictor of ovarian reserve but approximately 10% of women have an accelerated loss of ovarian reserve by their mid-30. So age alone does not tell the whole story. Consequently more refined methods for predicting ovrian reserve have been developed.* Goal of methods for assessing ovarian reserve is to provide information regarding oocyte quality and quantity.Methods for Assessing Ovarian ReservePassive testingDynamic testingFSH level:* Early folloicular phase FSH levels play an important role in pregnancy outcomes.* As woman ages FSH becomes elevated in an attempt to force the aging ovary to respond. Rise in early follicular phase FSH is also accompanied by a decline in oocyte quality.* High FSH has been correlated with poor ovarian reserve but it is difficult to establish absolute values that define how high an FSH level can be and still achieve pregnancy.Measurement of Inhibin B:* Inhibin B is an ovarian hormone that inhibits FSH release. Although present in ovulating women it is not normally found in postmenopausal women.* Low inhibin levels suggests poor ovarian reserve.Transvaginal ultrasound:* Diminshed ovarian reserve means that fewer follicles are available for stimulation and recruitment by fertility drugs.* Transvaginal ultrasound allows the observation of ovaries and assess the number of follicles (ovarian volume.)Ciomiphene citrate challenge test:* Clomiphene is an antiestrogen which inhibits the negative feedback of estrogen on hypothalamus i.e. the hypothalamus gets false signals that the patient does not have enough estrogen. In response, the hypothalamus induces the pituitary gland to produce more FSH and LH. This is turn initiates follicular growth to produce estrogen.* Clomiphene is able to exert this effect only when the estrogen level is low or the ovarian reserve is low.* In a normal woman with adequate ovarian reserve there is enough inhibin and estrogen to suppress FSH production through negative feedback and resist the effects clomiphene.* When undergoing clomiphene citrate challenge test. the first step is to measure day 3 FSH and estrogen. Then 100 mg of clomiphere is administered on cycle day 5 through 9 and FSH and estrogen measurement are repeated on cycle day 10.* In general, a high day 10 FSH suggests poor ovarian reserve. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Pathology of Conception | Test for ovarian reserve:
A. LH
B. LH/FSH ratio
C. FSH
D. Estradiol
| FSH |
fd85b1e0-8cef-4893-8993-9a48f5d7fbd8 | The cholinergic amacrine cells of the rabbit retina secrete acetylcholine by two mechanisms. One is activated by stimulation of the retina by light or depolarization of the amacrine cells by K+ ions. It requires the presence of extracellular Ca2+. The second is independent of extracellular Ca2+ and is unaffected by large depolarizations of the cells. It bears some similarity to the acetylcholine &;leakage&; described at the neuromuscular junction. Although the Ca2+-independent mechanism accounts for about two-thirds of the total acetylcholine release in the dark, the amount of acetylcholine released in this way is small compared with the release of acetylcholine triggered by stimulation of the retina with light. Its biological significance is unclear.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology, 23rd edition, Page no: 182 | Physiology | Nervous system | Retinal cells which secrete acetylcholine
A. Bipolar cells
B. Ganglion cells
C. Amacrine cells
D. H Cells
| Amacrine cells |
26c1b96d-f0b0-4592-890f-7d3e79cec73a | Sodium potassium pump is a heterodimer It has alfa and beta subunits | Anatomy | General anatomy | Sodium potassium pump is a:
A. Heterodimer
B. Homodimer
C. Polymer
D. Monomer
| Heterodimer |
fe2df381-cf9a-42c2-af53-ae168bbf006e | Ans b. Combined OCPs Ideal contraceptive for newly married couple is combined oral contraceptive pill"Best contraceptive for newly married couple is combined oral contraceptive pill""Combined oral contraceptive has lesser failure rate than progestins. IUCDs should not be used in newly married couple.""Best contraceptive for parous young women is IUCD (considered the best method for spacing child birth)." | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Methods - Combined Oestrogen-Progestogen Methods | Ideal contraceptive for newly married couple is:
A. Barrier method
B. Combined OCPs
C. IUCD
D. Progesterone only pill
| Combined OCPs |
f837c82e-aba7-41f9-b2fb-d49d88d92c69 | 1. Complete absorption may occur without organization and the vitreous becomes clear within 4-8 weeks.
2. Organization of haemorrhage with formation of a yellowish-white debris occurs in persistent or recurrent bleeding.
3. Complications like vitreous liquefaction, degeneration and khaki cell glaucoma (in aphakia) may occur.
4. Retinitis proliferans may occur which may be complicated by tractional retinal detachment. Treatment
1. Conservative treatment consists of bed rest, elevation of patient’s head and bilateral eye patches.
This will allow the blood to settle down.
2. Treatment of the cause. Once the blood settles down, indirect ophthalmoscopy should be performed to locate and further manage the causative lesion such as a retinal break, phlebitis, proliferative retinopathy, etc.
3. Vitrectomy by pars plana route should be considered to clear the vitreous, if the haemorrhage is not absorbed after 3 months | Ophthalmology | null | What is the immediate management of vitreous hemorrhage in eye-
A. Steroids
B. No treatment
C. Antibiotics
D. Vitrectomy
| No treatment |
53d528bc-37d0-442b-b38d-7cf86fba81d7 | Cholera toxin irreversibly stimulates the cAMP-dependent Cl- pump in intestinal cells resulting in massive Cl- rich watery diarrhea. Death is caused by extreme dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. | Microbiology | All India exam | Cholera toxin irreversibly stimulates the cAMP-dependent pump in intestinal cells resulting in
A. Cl- rich watery diarrhea
B. K+ rich watery diarrhea
C. Na+ rich watery diarrhea
D. Ca+ rich watery diarrhea
| Cl- rich watery diarrhea |
2a636eaf-cc90-4b8d-ad20-ed0f757c64b2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vertex Factors associated with cord prolapseo Malpresentations - commonest being transverse (5-10%) & breech (3%) especially with flexed legs or footling and compound presentation (10%)o Contracted pelviso Prematurityo Twinso Hydramnioso Placental factors - minor degree of placenta previa with marginal insertion of cord or long cord,o Iatrogenic - low rupture of membranes, manual rotation of head, EC V, IP Vo Stabilising induction | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Classification, Symptoms, and Signs | Least chance of cord prolapse is seen in -
A. Vertex
B. Breech
C. Transverse
D. Compound
| Vertex |
279e5a0b-fc4d-475a-a85d-c590ca94d4ca | The susceptibility of a tissue to hypoxia influences the likelihood of infarction.
Neurons are most sensitive to hypoxia (irreversible changes develop in 3-4 minutes) followed by myocardial cells (irreversible changes develop in 20-40 minutes).
Fibroblasts are amongst the most resistant cells to hypoxia. | Pathology | null | The organ most vulnerable to ischaemia due to shock-
A. Lungs
B. Adrenals
C. Kidney
D. Heart
| Heart |
81143656-2b48-4792-a4a7-752a3a06dc04 | The Metric data is evenly dispersed around the mean, and it is not skewed, Hence the best measure of central tendency is MEAN. Median is preferred in case of Ordinal data; outliers. Mode is preferred in Nominal data. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Central tendency, Dispersion | 18,20,22,24,26,28 and 30, Best Central tendency is determined by:-
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range
| Mean |
62cbf413-1ecd-4fe4-a64b-25519ce8b819 | A hexokinase is an enzyme that phosphorylates hexoses (six-carbon sugars), forming hexose phosphate. In most organisms, glucose is the most impoant substrate of hexokinases, and glucose-6-phosphate is the most impoant product. Hexokinase can transfer an inorganic phosphate group from ATP to a substrate. | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Hexokinase is
A. Ligase
B. Transferase
C. Oxidoreductase
D. Reductase
| Transferase |
98e8bdc4-a717-41d9-a685-1204a2db5dd3 | It is a diveiculum of mucous membrane which stas from the anterior pa of laryngeal ventricle extending between the vestibular folds and lamina of thyroid cailage. The saccule has plenty of mucous glands whose main purpose is to lubricate the vocal cords (vocal cord is devoid of mucous glands) and hence is known as water can of larynx. | ENT | null | The water can in the larynx (saccules) are present in:
A. Paraglottic space
B. Pyriform fossa
C. Reinke's space
D. Laryngeal ventricles
| Laryngeal ventricles |
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